This is a modern-English version of Summa Theologica, Part I (Prima Pars): From the Complete American Edition, originally written by Thomas, Aquinas, Saint. It has been thoroughly updated, including changes to sentence structure, words, spelling, and grammar—to ensure clarity for contemporary readers, while preserving the original spirit and nuance. If you click on a paragraph, you will see the original text that we modified, and you can toggle between the two versions.

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Produced by Sandra K. Perry, with corrections and

Produced by Sandra K. Perry, with corrections and

supplementation by David McClamrock

supplementation by David McClamrock

ST. THOMAS AQUINAS

SUMMA THEOLOGICA
PART I ("Prima Pars")

Translated by
Fathers of the English Dominican Province

Translated by
Fathers of the English Dominican Province

BENZIGER BROTHERS NEW YORK _______________________

BENZIGER BROTHERS NEW YORK

DEDICATION

To the Blessed Virgin
Mary Immaculate
Seat of Wisdom
_______________________

To the Blessed Virgin
Mary Immaculate
Seat of Wisdom
_______________________

NOTE TO THIS ELECTRONIC EDITION

The text of this electronic edition was originally produced by Sandra K. Perry, Perrysburg, Ohio, and made available through the Christian Classics Ethereal Library . I have eliminated unnecessary formatting in the text, corrected some errors in transcription, and added the dedication, tables of contents, Prologue, and the numbers of the questions and articles, as they appeared in the printed translation published by Benziger Brothers. Each article is now designated by part, question number, and article number in brackets, like this:

The text of this electronic edition was originally created by Sandra K. Perry in Perrysburg, Ohio, and made available through the Christian Classics Ethereal Library . I have removed unnecessary formatting, fixed some transcription errors, and added the dedication, tables of contents, Prologue, and the numbers of the questions and articles, just as they appeared in the printed translation published by Benziger Brothers. Each article is now marked by part, question number, and article number in brackets, like this:

> SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 49, Art. 2]

> SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 49, Art. 2]

> Whether the Supreme Good, God, Is the Cause of Evil?

> Whether the Supreme Good, God, Is the Cause of Evil?

In a few places, where obvious errors appeared in the Benziger Brothers edition, I have corrected them by reference to a Latin text of the Summa. These corrections are indicated by English text in brackets. For example, in Part I, Question 45, Article 2, the first sentence in the Benziger Brothers edition begins: "Not only is it impossible that anything should be created by God…." By reference to the Latin, "non solum non est impossibile a Deo aliquid creari" (emphasis added), this has been corrected to "Not only is it [not] impossible that anything should be created by God…."

In a few places, where obvious errors showed up in the Benziger Brothers edition, I've fixed them by checking a Latin text of the Summa. These corrections are noted in English text within brackets. For example, in Part I, Question 45, Article 2, the first sentence in the Benziger Brothers edition starts: "Not only is it impossible that anything should be created by God…." By referencing the Latin, "non solum non est impossibile a Deo aliquid creari" (emphasis added), this has been corrected to "Not only is it [not] impossible that anything should be created by God…."

This electronic edition also differs from the Benziger Brothers edition in the following details (as well as the obvious lack of the original page numbers and headers):

This electronic edition is also different from the Benziger Brothers edition in these details (along with the obvious absence of the original page numbers and headers):

* The repetitive expression "We proceed thus to the [next] Article" does not appear directly below the title of each article.

* The repetitive phrase "We proceed thus to the [next] Article" doesn't show up directly under the title of each article.

* Italics are represented by underscores at the beginning and end, like this. Quotations and other "quotable" matter, however, are ordinarily set off by quotation marks with no underscores in this edition, in accordance with common English usage, even where they were set in italics with no quotation marks in the Benziger Brothers edition. Titles of books are set off by underscores when they appear in the text with no parentheses, but not when the books are cited in parentheses.

* Italics are shown by underscores at the beginning and end, like this. Quotes and other "quotable" material are usually set off by quotation marks with no underscores in this edition, following common English usage, even if they were italicized without quotation marks in the Benziger Brothers edition. Book titles are underlined when they appear in the text without parentheses, but not when the books are cited in parentheses.

* Bible chapters and verses are cited with arabic numerals separated by colons, like this: "Dan. 7:10"—not like this: "Dan. vii. 10." Small roman numerals have been retained where they appear in citations to books other than the Bible.

* Bible chapters and verses are cited with Arabic numerals separated by colons, like this: "Dan. 7:10"—not like this: "Dan. vii. 10." Small Roman numerals have been kept where they appear in citations to books other than the Bible.

* Any matter that appeared in a footnote in the Benziger Brothers edition is presented in brackets at the point in the text where the footnote mark appeared.

* Any information that was included in a footnote in the Benziger Brothers edition is shown in brackets at the point in the text where the footnote mark was located.

* Greek words are presented in Roman transliteration.

* Greek words are shown in Roman letters.

* Paragraphs are not indented and are separated by blank lines.

* Paragraphs are not indented and are separated by blank lines.

* Numbered topics, set forth at the beginning of each question and at certain other places, are ordinarily presented on a separate line for each topic.

* Numbered topics, listed at the start of each question and in a few other places, are usually shown on a separate line for each topic.

* Titles of questions are in all caps.

* TITLES OF QUESTIONS ARE IN ALL CAPS.

Anything else in this electronic edition that does not correspond to the content of the Benziger Brothers edition may be regarded as a defect in this edition and attributed to me (David McClamrock).

Anything else in this electronic edition that doesn't match the content of the Benziger Brothers edition can be considered a defect in this edition and linked to me (David McClamrock).

_______________________

_______________________

CONTENTS
PROLOGUE
FIRST PART (QQ. 1-119)

Question

Question

1. The Nature and Extent of Sacred Doctrine 2. The Existence of God 3. On the Simplicity of God 4. The Perfection of God 5. Of Goodness in General 6. The Goodness of God 7. The Infinity of God 8. The Existence of God in Things 9. The Immutability of God 10. The Eternity of God 11. The Unity of God 12. How God Is Known by Us 13. The Names of God 14. Of God's Knowledge 15. Of Ideas 16. Of Truth 17. Concerning Falsity 18. The Life of God 19. The Will of God 20. God's Love 21. The Justice and Mercy of God 22. The Providence of God 23. Of Predestination 24. The Book of Life 25. The Power of God 26. Of the Divine Beatitude

1. The Nature and Extent of Sacred Doctrine 2. The Existence of God 3. On the Simplicity of God 4. The Perfection of God 5. Of Goodness in General 6. The Goodness of God 7. The Infinity of God 8. The Existence of God in Things 9. The Immutability of God 10. The Eternity of God 11. The Unity of God 12. How God Is Known by Us 13. The Names of God 14. Of God's Knowledge 15. Of Ideas 16. Of Truth 17. Concerning Falsity 18. The Life of God 19. The Will of God 20. God's Love 21. The Justice and Mercy of God 22. The Providence of God 23. Of Predestination 24. The Book of Life 25. The Power of God 26. Of the Divine Beatitude

TREATISE ON THE TRINITY

27. The Procession of the Divine Persons 28. The Divine Relations 29. The Divine Persons 30. The Plurality of Persons in God 31. Of What Belongs to the Unity or Plurality in God 32. The Knowledge of the Divine Persons 33. Of the Person of the Father 34. Of the Person of the Son 35. Of the Image 36. Of the Person of the Holy Ghost 37. Of the Name of the Holy Ghost—Love 38. Of the Name of the Holy Ghost, as Gift 39. Of the Persons in Relation to the Essence 40. Of the Persons as Compared to the Relations or Properties 41. Of the Persons in Reference to the Notional Acts 42. Of Equality and Likeness Among the Divine Persons 43. The Mission of the Divine Persons

27. The Procession of the Divine Persons 28. The Divine Relations 29. The Divine Persons 30. The Plurality of Persons in God 31. What Belongs to the Unity or Plurality in God 32. The Knowledge of the Divine Persons 33. The Person of the Father 34. The Person of the Son 35. The Image 36. The Person of the Holy Spirit 37. The Name of the Holy Spirit—Love 38. The Name of the Holy Spirit as Gift 39. The Persons in Relation to the Essence 40. The Persons Compared to the Relations or Properties 41. The Persons in Reference to the Notional Acts 42. Equality and Likeness Among the Divine Persons 43. The Mission of the Divine Persons

TREATISE ON THE CREATION

44. The Procession of Creatures from God, and of the First Cause of All Things 45. The Mode of Emanation of Things from the First Principle 46. Of the Beginning of the Duration of Creatures 47. Of the Distinction of Things in General 48. The Distinction of Things in Particular 49. The Cause of Evil

44. The Procession of Creatures from God, and of the First Cause of All Things 45. The Way Things Emanate from the First Principle 46. The Start of the Existence of Creatures 47. The General Distinction of Things 48. The Particular Distinction of Things 49. The Cause of Evil

TREATISE ON THE ANGELS

50. Of the Substance of the Angels Absolutely Considered 51. Of the Angels in Comparison with Bodies 52. Of the Angels in Relation to Place 53. Of the Local Movement of the Angels 54. Of the Knowledge of the Angels 55. Of the Medium of the Angelic Knowledge 56. Of the Angels' Knowledge of Immaterial Things 57. Of the Angels' Knowledge of Material Things 58. Of the Mode of the Angelic Knowledge 59. The Will of the Angels 60. Of the Love or Dilection of the Angels 61. Of the Production of the Angels in the Order of Natural Being 62. Of the Perfection of the Angels in the Order of Grace and of Glory 63. The Malice of the Angels with Regard to Sin 64. The Punishment of the Demons

50. Of the Nature of Angels Considered in Isolation 51. Of Angels Compared to Physical Bodies 52. Of Angels in Relation to Space 53. Of the Movement of Angels 54. Of Angels' Knowledge 55. Of the Means of Angelic Knowledge 56. Of Angels' Understanding of Non-Physical Things 57. Of Angels' Understanding of Physical Things 58. Of How Angels Acquire Knowledge 59. The Will of Angels 60. Of the Love or Affection of Angels 61. Of the Creation of Angels in the Natural Order 62. Of the Perfection of Angels in the Context of Grace and Glory 63. The Malice of Angels Regarding Sin 64. The Punishment of Demons

TREATISE ON THE WORK OF THE SIX DAYS

65. The Work of Creation of Corporeal Creatures 66. On the Order of Creation Towards Distinction 67. On the Work of Distinction in Itself 68. On the Work of the Second Day 69. On the Work of the Third Day 70. On the Work of Adornment, as Regards the Fourth Day 71. On the Work of the Fifth Day 72. On the Work of the Sixth Day 73. On the Things That Belong to the Seventh Day 74. On All the Seven Days in Common

65. The Creation of Physical Beings 66. The Sequence of Creation for Distinction 67. The Process of Distinction Itself 68. The Work of the Second Day 69. The Work of the Third Day 70. The Work of Decoration for the Fourth Day 71. The Work of the Fifth Day 72. The Work of the Sixth Day 73. The Aspects of the Seventh Day 74. The Overview of All Seven Days

TREATISE ON MAN

75. Of Man Who Is Composed of a Spiritual and a Corporeal Substance: and in the First Place, Concerning What Belongs to the Essence of the Soul 76. Of the Union of Body and Soul 77. Of Those Things Which Belong to the Powers of the Soul in General 78. Of the Specific Powers of the Soul 79. Of the Intellectual Powers 80. Of the Appetitive Powers in General 81. Of the Power of Sensuality 82. Of the Will 83. Of Free-Will 84. How the Soul While United to the Body Understands Corporeal Things Beneath It 85. Of the Mode and Order of Understanding 86. What Our Intellect Knows in Material Things 87. How the Intellectual Soul Knows Itself and All Within Itself 88. How the Human Soul Knows What Is Above Itself 89. Of the Knowledge of the Separated Soul 90. Of the First Production of Man's Soul 91. The Production of the First Man's Body 92. The Production of the Woman 93. The End or Term of the Production of Man 94. Of the State and Condition of the First Man as Regards His Intellect 95. Of Things Pertaining to the First Man's Will—Namely, Grace and Righteousness 96. Of the Mastership Belonging to Man in the State of Innocence 97. Of the Preservation of the Individual in the Primitive State 98. Of the Preservation of the Species 99. Of the Condition of the Offspring As to the Body 100. Of the Condition of the Offspring As Regards Righteousness 101. Of the Condition of the Offspring As Regards Knowledge 102. Of Man's Abode, Which Is Paradise

75. On Man Who Is Made Up of a Spiritual and Physical Substance: and First, Regarding What Relates to the Essence of the Soul 76. On the Union of Body and Soul 77. On Those Things That Relate to the Powers of the Soul in General 78. On the Specific Powers of the Soul 79. On the Intellectual Powers 80. On the Appetitive Powers in General 81. On the Power of Sensuality 82. On the Will 83. On Free Will 84. How the Soul, While United to the Body, Understands Physical Things Below It 85. On the Mode and Order of Understanding 86. What Our Intellect Knows About Material Things 87. How the Intellectual Soul Knows Itself and All Within It 88. How the Human Soul Understands What Is Above It 89. On the Knowledge of the Separated Soul 90. On the Initial Creation of Man's Soul 91. The Creation of the First Man's Body 92. The Creation of Woman 93. The Conclusion or End of Man's Creation 94. On the State and Condition of the First Man Regarding His Intellect 95. On Things Related to the First Man's Will—Specifically, Grace and Righteousness 96. On the Mastery Belonging to Man in the State of Innocence 97. On the Preservation of the Individual in the Original State 98. On the Preservation of the Species 99. On the Condition of the Offspring Regarding the Body 100. On the Condition of the Offspring Regarding Righteousness 101. On the Condition of the Offspring Regarding Knowledge 102. On Man's Dwelling, Which Is Paradise

TREATISE ON THE DIVINE GOVERNMENT

103. Of the Government of Things in General 104. The Special Effects of the Divine Government 105. Of the Change of Creatures by God 106. How One Creature Moves Another 107. The Speech of the Angels 108. Of the Angelic Degrees of Hierarchies and Orders 109. The Ordering of the Bad Angels 110. How Angels Act on Bodies 111. The Action of the Angels on Man 112. The Mission of the Angels 113. Of the Guardianship of the Good Angels 114. Of the Assaults of the Demons 115. Of the Action of the Corporeal Creature 116. On Fate 117. Of Things Pertaining to the Action of Man 118. Of the Production of Man from Man As to the Soul 119. Of the Propagation of Man As to the Body _______________________

103. About the Governance of Things in General 104. The Specific Effects of Divine Governance 105. How God Changes Creatures 106. How One Creature Influences Another 107. The Communication of Angels 108. The Hierarchical and Orderly Levels of Angels 109. The Organization of Evil Angels 110. How Angels Interact with Physical Bodies 111. The Influence of Angels on Humans 112. The Purpose of Angels 113. The Protection Offered by Good Angels 114. The Attacks of Demons 115. The Actions of Physical Creatures 116. Regarding Fate 117. Matters Related to Human Action 118. The Creation of Humans from Other Humans in Terms of the Soul 119. The Reproduction of Humans in Terms of the Body _______________________

PROLOGUE

Because the Master of Catholic Truth ought not only to teach the proficient, but also to instruct beginners (according to the Apostle: As Unto Little Ones in Christ, I Gave You Milk to Drink, Not Meat— 1 Cor. iii. 1, 2)—we purpose in this book to treat of whatever belongs to the Christian Religion, in such a way as may tend to the instruction of beginners. We have considered that students in this Science have not seldom been hampered by what they have found written by other authors, partly on account of the multiplication of useless questions, articles, and arguments; partly also because those things that are needful for them to know are not taught according to the order of the subject-matter, but according as the plan of the book might require, or the occasion of the argument offer; partly, too, because frequent repetition brought weariness and confusion to the minds of the readers.

Because the Master of Catholic Truth should not only teach those who are advanced but also guide beginners (as the Apostle says: "Like little children in Christ, I gave you milk to drink, not solid food"—1 Cor. iii. 1, 2)—we aim in this book to cover everything related to the Christian Religion in a way that helps beginners learn. We have noticed that students in this field often struggle with what they find written by other authors, partly due to the unnecessary questions, articles, and arguments presented; also because the essential information they need to know isn't taught in a logical order but based on the book's structure or the flow of the argument; and partly because the frequent repetition leads to frustration and confusion for the readers.

Endeavoring to avoid these and other like faults, we shall try, by God's help, to set forth whatever is included in this Sacred Science as briefly and clearly as the matter itself may allow. _______________________

Trying to avoid these and other similar mistakes, we will aim, with God's help, to present everything included in this Sacred Science as briefly and clearly as the subject allows.

SUMMA THEOLOGICA

FIRST PART ["I," "Prima Pars"] _______________________

FIRST PART ["I," "Prima Pars"] _______________________

QUESTION 1

THE NATURE AND EXTENT OF SACRED DOCTRINE (in Ten Articles)

THE NATURE AND EXTENT OF SACRED DOCTRINE (in Ten Articles)

To place our purpose within proper limits, we first endeavor to investigate the nature and extent of this sacred doctrine. Concerning this there are ten points of inquiry:

To define our purpose clearly, we first aim to explore the nature and scope of this sacred teaching. There are ten key questions to consider regarding this:

(1) Whether it is necessary?

Is it necessary?

(2) Whether it is a science?

Is it a science?

(3) Whether it is one or many?

(3) Is it one or several?

(4) Whether it is speculative or practical?

(4) Is it speculative or practical?

(5) How it is compared with other sciences?

(5) How does it compare with other sciences?

(6) Whether it is the same as wisdom?

(6) Is it the same as wisdom?

(7) Whether God is its subject-matter?

(7) Is God the subject of it?

(8) Whether it is a matter of argument?

(8) Is this about an argument?

(9) Whether it rightly employs metaphors and similes?

(9) Does it effectively use metaphors and similes?

(10) Whether the Sacred Scripture of this doctrine may be expounded in different senses? _______________________

(10) Can the Sacred Scripture of this doctrine be interpreted in different ways? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 1]

Whether, besides Philosophy, any Further Doctrine Is Required?

Whether, apart from Philosophy, any other doctrine is needed?

Objection 1: It seems that, besides philosophical science, we have no need of any further knowledge. For man should not seek to know what is above reason: "Seek not the things that are too high for thee" (Ecclus. 3:22). But whatever is not above reason is fully treated of in philosophical science. Therefore any other knowledge besides philosophical science is superfluous.

Objection 1: It appears that aside from philosophical knowledge, we don't need any additional understanding. People shouldn't try to know what is beyond reason: "Don't seek the things that are too high for you" (Ecclus. 3:22). However, everything that isn't beyond reason is thoroughly covered in philosophical knowledge. So, any knowledge beyond philosophical knowledge is unnecessary.

Obj. 2: Further, knowledge can be concerned only with being, for nothing can be known, save what is true; and all that is, is true. But everything that is, is treated of in philosophical science—even God Himself; so that there is a part of philosophy called theology, or the divine science, as Aristotle has proved (Metaph. vi). Therefore, besides philosophical science, there is no need of any further knowledge.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, knowledge can only be about existence, because nothing can be known except what is true; and everything that exists is true. All that exists is studied in philosophical science—even God Himself; thus, there is a branch of philosophy called theology, or the divine science, as Aristotle has shown (Metaph. vi). Therefore, apart from philosophical science, there is no need for any additional knowledge.

On the contrary, It is written (2 Tim. 3:16): "All Scripture inspired of God is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice." Now Scripture, inspired of God, is no part of philosophical science, which has been built up by human reason. Therefore it is useful that besides philosophical science, there should be other knowledge, i.e. inspired of God.

On the contrary, it is written (2 Tim. 3:16): "All Scripture inspired by God is useful for teaching, for rebuking, for correcting, and for training in righteousness." Now, Scripture, inspired by God, is not a part of philosophical science, which is constructed by human reason. Therefore, it is beneficial that alongside philosophical science, there should be other knowledge, namely, that which is inspired by God.

I answer that, It was necessary for man's salvation that there should be a knowledge revealed by God besides philosophical science built up by human reason. Firstly, indeed, because man is directed to God, as to an end that surpasses the grasp of his reason: "The eye hath not seen, O God, besides Thee, what things Thou hast prepared for them that wait for Thee" (Isa. 66:4). But the end must first be known by men who are to direct their thoughts and actions to the end. Hence it was necessary for the salvation of man that certain truths which exceed human reason should be made known to him by divine revelation. Even as regards those truths about God which human reason could have discovered, it was necessary that man should be taught by a divine revelation; because the truth about God such as reason could discover, would only be known by a few, and that after a long time, and with the admixture of many errors. Whereas man's whole salvation, which is in God, depends upon the knowledge of this truth. Therefore, in order that the salvation of men might be brought about more fitly and more surely, it was necessary that they should be taught divine truths by divine revelation. It was therefore necessary that besides philosophical science built up by reason, there should be a sacred science learned through revelation.

I answer that, It was essential for human salvation to have knowledge revealed by God in addition to the philosophical understanding developed through human reasoning. First of all, because humans are oriented towards God, who represents an ultimate purpose beyond their comprehension: "The eye has not seen, O God, besides You, what things You have prepared for those who wait for You" (Isa. 66:4). However, people must first understand this purpose to effectively direct their thoughts and actions towards it. Thus, it was crucial for humanity's salvation that certain truths, which surpass human reasoning, be disclosed through divine revelation. Even regarding the truths about God that human reasoning could potentially uncover, it was necessary for people to be instructed by divine revelation; the truths discovered through reason would only be known by a select few and only after a long time, often mixed with many errors. Meanwhile, the entirety of humanity's salvation, which is found in God, relies on knowing this truth. Therefore, to ensure a more suitable and certain outcome for human salvation, it was necessary for them to learn divine truths through divine revelation. Consequently, it was essential that, in addition to philosophical understanding based on reason, there be a sacred knowledge acquired through revelation.

Reply Obj. 1: Although those things which are beyond man's knowledge may not be sought for by man through his reason, nevertheless, once they are revealed by God, they must be accepted by faith. Hence the sacred text continues, "For many things are shown to thee above the understanding of man" (Ecclus. 3:25). And in this, the sacred science consists.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though things that are beyond human understanding can't be pursued by reason, once God reveals them, they must be accepted by faith. That's why the sacred text says, "For many things are shown to you that go beyond human understanding" (Ecclus. 3:25). This is what sacred knowledge is all about.

Reply Obj. 2: Sciences are differentiated according to the various means through which knowledge is obtained. For the astronomer and the physicist both may prove the same conclusion: that the earth, for instance, is round: the astronomer by means of mathematics (i.e. abstracting from matter), but the physicist by means of matter itself. Hence there is no reason why those things which may be learned from philosophical science, so far as they can be known by natural reason, may not also be taught us by another science so far as they fall within revelation. Hence theology included in sacred doctrine differs in kind from that theology which is part of philosophy. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The sciences are distinguished by the different methods used to acquire knowledge. For instance, both the astronomer and the physicist can arrive at the same conclusion that the Earth is round; the astronomer does this through mathematics (by considering abstract concepts), while the physicist relies on physical matter itself. Therefore, there’s no reason why things that can be understood through philosophical science, as far as they can be known through natural reasoning, cannot also be taught through another science as they relate to revelation. As a result, the theology found in sacred doctrine is fundamentally different from the theology that is part of philosophy. _______________________

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 2]

Whether Sacred Doctrine Is a Science?

Whether Sacred Doctrine Is a Science?

Objection 1: It seems that sacred doctrine is not a science. For every science proceeds from self-evident principles. But sacred doctrine proceeds from articles of faith which are not self-evident, since their truth is not admitted by all: "For all men have not faith" (2 Thess. 3:2). Therefore sacred doctrine is not a science.

Objection 1: It appears that sacred doctrine isn’t a science. Every science is based on self-evident principles. However, sacred doctrine is based on articles of faith that aren’t self-evident, as not everyone accepts their truth: "For all men have not faith" (2 Thess. 3:2). Therefore, sacred doctrine isn't a science.

Obj. 2: Further, no science deals with individual facts. But this sacred science treats of individual facts, such as the deeds of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob and such like. Therefore sacred doctrine is not a science.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, no science focuses on individual facts. However, this sacred study addresses individual facts, like the actions of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, among others. Therefore, sacred doctrine is not a science.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xiv, 1) "to this science alone belongs that whereby saving faith is begotten, nourished, protected and strengthened." But this can be said of no science except sacred doctrine. Therefore sacred doctrine is a science.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xiv, 1) "only this science is responsible for the birth, nourishment, protection, and strengthening of saving faith." But this can be said of no other science except sacred doctrine. Therefore sacred doctrine is a science.

I answer that, Sacred doctrine is a science. We must bear in mind that there are two kinds of sciences. There are some which proceed from a principle known by the natural light of intelligence, such as arithmetic and geometry and the like. There are some which proceed from principles known by the light of a higher science: thus the science of perspective proceeds from principles established by geometry, and music from principles established by arithmetic. So it is that sacred doctrine is a science because it proceeds from principles established by the light of a higher science, namely, the science of God and the blessed. Hence, just as the musician accepts on authority the principles taught him by the mathematician, so sacred science is established on principles revealed by God.

I answer that, Sacred doctrine is a science. We need to remember that there are two types of sciences. Some arise from principles known through the natural light of understanding, like arithmetic and geometry, and others come from principles understood through a higher science: for example, the science of perspective is based on principles set by geometry, and music is based on principles set by arithmetic. Similarly, sacred doctrine is a science because it is based on principles revealed by a higher science, specifically, the knowledge of God and the blessed. Just as a musician trusts the principles taught by the mathematician, sacred science is founded on principles revealed by God.

Reply Obj. 1: The principles of any science are either in themselves self-evident, or reducible to the conclusions of a higher science; and such, as we have said, are the principles of sacred doctrine.

Reply Obj. 1: The principles of any science are either self-evident or can be broken down into the conclusions of a higher science; and as we have stated, these are the principles of sacred doctrine.

Reply Obj. 2: Individual facts are treated of in sacred doctrine, not because it is concerned with them principally, but they are introduced rather both as examples to be followed in our lives (as in moral sciences) and in order to establish the authority of those men through whom the divine revelation, on which this sacred scripture or doctrine is based, has come down to us. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Individual facts are addressed in sacred doctrine, not because they are the main focus, but they are included mainly as examples for us to follow in our lives (like in moral studies) and to support the authority of the individuals through whom the divine revelation, on which this sacred scripture or doctrine is founded, has been passed down to us.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 3]

Whether Sacred Doctrine Is One Science?

Whether Sacred Doctrine Is One Science?

Objection 1: It seems that sacred doctrine is not one science; for according to the Philosopher (Poster. i) "that science is one which treats only of one class of subjects." But the creator and the creature, both of whom are treated of in sacred doctrine, cannot be grouped together under one class of subjects. Therefore sacred doctrine is not one science.

Objection 1: It appears that sacred doctrine is not a single science; because, according to the Philosopher (Poster. i), "a science is one that focuses only on one class of subjects." However, the creator and the creature, both of which are discussed in sacred doctrine, cannot be categorized together under one class of subjects. Therefore, sacred doctrine is not a single science.

Obj. 2: Further, in sacred doctrine we treat of angels, corporeal creatures and human morality. But these belong to separate philosophical sciences. Therefore sacred doctrine cannot be one science.

Obj. 2: Additionally, in religious teachings, we discuss angels, physical beings, and human ethics. However, these topics fall under different philosophical disciplines. Therefore, religious doctrine cannot be a single science.

On the contrary, Holy Scripture speaks of it as one science: "Wisdom gave him the knowledge [scientiam] of holy things" (Wis. 10:10).

On the contrary, Holy Scripture refers to it as a single discipline: "Wisdom gave him the knowledge [scientiam] of holy things" (Wis. 10:10).

I answer that, Sacred doctrine is one science. The unity of a faculty or habit is to be gauged by its object, not indeed, in its material aspect, but as regards the precise formality under which it is an object. For example, man, ass, stone agree in the one precise formality of being colored; and color is the formal object of sight. Therefore, because Sacred Scripture considers things precisely under the formality of being divinely revealed, whatever has been divinely revealed possesses the one precise formality of the object of this science; and therefore is included under sacred doctrine as under one science.

I respond by saying that Sacred doctrine is a single science. The unity of a faculty or habit is determined by its object, not in its material form, but in the specific way it is presented as an object. For instance, a person, a donkey, and a stone all share the specific quality of being colored; color is the formal object of sight. Thus, since Sacred Scripture examines things specifically in the context of being divinely revealed, anything that has been divinely revealed shares the same specific quality of the object of this science; therefore, it falls under sacred doctrine as a unified science.

Reply Obj. 1: Sacred doctrine does not treat of God and creatures equally, but of God primarily, and of creatures only so far as they are referable to God as their beginning or end. Hence the unity of this science is not impaired.

Reply Obj. 1: Sacred doctrine focuses on God primarily and only addresses creatures in relation to God as their beginning or end. Therefore, the unity of this science remains intact.

Reply Obj. 2: Nothing prevents inferior faculties or habits from being differentiated by something which falls under a higher faculty or habit as well; because the higher faculty or habit regards the object in its more universal formality, as the object of the common sense is whatever affects the senses, including, therefore, whatever is visible or audible. Hence the common sense, although one faculty, extends to all the objects of the five senses. Similarly, objects which are the subject-matter of different philosophical sciences can yet be treated of by this one single sacred science under one aspect precisely so far as they can be included in revelation. So that in this way, sacred doctrine bears, as it were, the stamp of the divine science which is one and simple, yet extends to everything. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: There's nothing stopping lower faculties or habits from being differentiated by something that falls under a higher faculty or habit as well; because the higher faculty or habit considers the object in its more general form, just as the object of the common sense is anything that affects the senses, including everything that's visible or audible. Therefore, the common sense, although it is one faculty, covers all the objects of the five senses. Likewise, objects that are the focus of different philosophical sciences can still be addressed by this one sacred science from one perspective, specifically as far as they can be included in revelation. So, in this way, sacred doctrine bears, as it were, the mark of the divine science, which is one and simple yet encompasses everything.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 4]

Whether Sacred Doctrine Is a Practical Science?

Whether Sacred Doctrine Is a Practical Science?

Objection 1: It seems that sacred doctrine is a practical science; for
a practical science is that which ends in action according to the
Philosopher (Metaph. ii). But sacred doctrine is ordained to action:
"Be ye doers of the word, and not hearers only" (James 1:22).
Therefore sacred doctrine is a practical science.

Objection 1: It appears that sacred doctrine is a practical science; because a practical science is one that leads to action according to the Philosopher (Metaph. ii). However, sacred doctrine is meant for action: "Be doers of the word, and not hearers only" (James 1:22). Therefore, sacred doctrine is a practical science.

Obj. 2: Further, sacred doctrine is divided into the Old and the
New Law. But law implies a moral science which is a practical science.
Therefore sacred doctrine is a practical science.

Obj. 2: Additionally, sacred doctrine is divided into the Old and the
New Law. However, law suggests a moral science that is a practical science.
Thus, sacred doctrine is a practical science.

On the contrary, Every practical science is concerned with human operations; as moral science is concerned with human acts, and architecture with buildings. But sacred doctrine is chiefly concerned with God, whose handiwork is especially man. Therefore it is not a practical but a speculative science.

On the contrary, Every practical science deals with human activities; moral science focuses on human actions, while architecture relates to buildings. However, sacred doctrine primarily addresses God, whose greatest creation is humanity. Thus, it is not a practical but a theoretical science.

I answer that, Sacred doctrine, being one, extends to things which belong to different philosophical sciences because it considers in each the same formal aspect, namely, so far as they can be known through divine revelation. Hence, although among the philosophical sciences one is speculative and another practical, nevertheless sacred doctrine includes both; as God, by one and the same science, knows both Himself and His works. Still, it is speculative rather than practical because it is more concerned with divine things than with human acts; though it does treat even of these latter, inasmuch as man is ordained by them to the perfect knowledge of God in which consists eternal bliss. This is a sufficient answer to the Objections. _______________________

I respond that sacred doctrine, being unified, encompasses subjects from different philosophical sciences because it looks at each through the same perspective, specifically, as far as they can be understood through divine revelation. Therefore, even though some philosophical sciences are speculative and others are practical, sacred doctrine includes both; just as God, through one consistent knowledge, understands both Himself and His creations. However, it is more speculative than practical because it focuses more on divine matters than on human actions; still, it also addresses these actions since they guide humans toward the complete understanding of God, which is the essence of eternal happiness. This sufficiently answers the objections.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 5]

Whether Sacred Doctrine Is Nobler than Other Sciences?

Whether Sacred Doctrine Is Nobler than Other Sciences?

Objection 1: It seems that sacred doctrine is not nobler than other sciences; for the nobility of a science depends on the certitude it establishes. But other sciences, the principles of which cannot be doubted, seem to be more certain than sacred doctrine; for its principles—namely, articles of faith—can be doubted. Therefore other sciences seem to be nobler.

Objection 1: It appears that sacred doctrine isn't more noble than other sciences because the nobility of a science is based on the certainty it provides. However, other sciences, whose principles are undisputed, seem to offer more certainty than sacred doctrine since its principles—specifically, articles of faith—can be questioned. Therefore, other sciences seem to be of greater nobility.

Obj. 2: Further, it is the sign of a lower science to depend upon a higher; as music depends on arithmetic. But sacred doctrine does in a sense depend upon philosophical sciences; for Jerome observes, in his Epistle to Magnus, that "the ancient doctors so enriched their books with the ideas and phrases of the philosophers, that thou knowest not what more to admire in them, their profane erudition or their scriptural learning." Therefore sacred doctrine is inferior to other sciences.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, relying on a more advanced field is a sign of a lesser science, just like music relies on math. However, sacred doctrine does somewhat rely on philosophical sciences; Jerome notes in his Epistle to Magnus that "the early scholars enriched their works with the concepts and expressions of philosophers, to the point that you can't tell whether to admire their secular knowledge or their scriptural wisdom more." Thus, sacred doctrine is lesser than other sciences.

On the contrary, Other sciences are called the handmaidens of this one: "Wisdom sent her maids to invite to the tower" (Prov. 9:3).

On the contrary, Other sciences are seen as the helpers of this one: "Wisdom sent her maids to invite to the tower" (Prov. 9:3).

I answer that, Since this science is partly speculative and partly practical, it transcends all others speculative and practical. Now one speculative science is said to be nobler than another, either by reason of its greater certitude, or by reason of the higher worth of its subject-matter. In both these respects this science surpasses other speculative sciences; in point of greater certitude, because other sciences derive their certitude from the natural light of human reason, which can err; whereas this derives its certitude from the light of divine knowledge, which cannot be misled: in point of the higher worth of its subject-matter because this science treats chiefly of those things which by their sublimity transcend human reason; while other sciences consider only those things which are within reason's grasp. Of the practical sciences, that one is nobler which is ordained to a further purpose, as political science is nobler than military science; for the good of the army is directed to the good of the State. But the purpose of this science, in so far as it is practical, is eternal bliss; to which as to an ultimate end the purposes of every practical science are directed. Hence it is clear that from every standpoint, it is nobler than other sciences.

I respond that, because this field of study is both theoretical and practical, it is superior to all other theoretical and practical fields. A theoretical science is considered more noble than another either due to its greater certainty or the higher value of its subject matter. In both of these areas, this field exceeds other theoretical sciences; in terms of greater certainty, because other sciences rely on human reason, which can be flawed, while this one is anchored in divine knowledge, which is infallible. Regarding the significance of its subject matter, this field primarily deals with concepts that go beyond human understanding, whereas other sciences only address what can be comprehended by reason. Among practical sciences, the one directed towards a higher goal is considered nobler, as political science is more esteemed than military science; the well-being of the army is aimed at the well-being of the State. However, the goal of this field, as far as it is practical, is eternal happiness, which all other practical sciences ultimately aim for. Therefore, it's evident that from every perspective, it is more noble than other sciences.

Reply Obj. 1: It may well happen that what is in itself the more certain may seem to us the less certain on account of the weakness of our intelligence, "which is dazzled by the clearest objects of nature; as the owl is dazzled by the light of the sun" (Metaph. ii, lect. i). Hence the fact that some happen to doubt about articles of faith is not due to the uncertain nature of the truths, but to the weakness of human intelligence; yet the slenderest knowledge that may be obtained of the highest things is more desirable than the most certain knowledge obtained of lesser things, as is said in de Animalibus xi.

Reply Obj. 1: It's possible that what is inherently more certain can seem less certain to us because of the limitations of our understanding, "which is dazzled by the brightest aspects of nature; just like the owl is blinded by sunlight" (Metaph. ii, lect. i). Therefore, the fact that some people doubt certain articles of faith isn't due to the uncertainty of those truths, but rather to the limitations of human intelligence; still, even the slightest understanding we can gain about the highest concepts is more valuable than the most certain knowledge we have of lesser things, as noted in de Animalibus xi.

Reply Obj. 2: This science can in a sense depend upon the philosophical sciences, not as though it stood in need of them, but only in order to make its teaching clearer. For it accepts its principles not from other sciences, but immediately from God, by revelation. Therefore it does not depend upon other sciences as upon the higher, but makes use of them as of the lesser, and as handmaidens: even so the master sciences make use of the sciences that supply their materials, as political of military science. That it thus uses them is not due to its own defect or insufficiency, but to the defect of our intelligence, which is more easily led by what is known through natural reason (from which proceed the other sciences) to that which is above reason, such as are the teachings of this science. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: This science can, in a way, rely on philosophical sciences, not because it needs them, but to clarify its teachings. It gets its principles directly from God through revelation, not from other sciences. So, it doesn’t rely on other sciences as if they were superior, but uses them as supportive tools, just as master sciences utilize the disciplines that provide their foundational material, like political science does with military science. Its use of these disciplines isn’t due to any shortcomings of its own, but because our understanding is more easily guided by what we know through natural reason (which gives rise to other sciences) to concepts that are beyond reason, like the teachings of this science. _______________________

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 6]

Whether This Doctrine Is the Same as Wisdom?

Whether This Doctrine Is the Same as Wisdom?

Objection 1: It seems that this doctrine is not the same as wisdom. For no doctrine which borrows its principles is worthy of the name of wisdom; seeing that the wise man directs, and is not directed (Metaph. i). But this doctrine borrows its principles. Therefore this science is not wisdom.

Objection 1: It seems this doctrine isn’t the same as wisdom. No doctrine that takes its principles from elsewhere deserves to be called wisdom; because a wise person guides others, rather than being guided (Metaph. i). But this doctrine takes its principles from somewhere. Therefore, this science isn’t wisdom.

Obj. 2: Further, it is a part of wisdom to prove the principles of other sciences. Hence it is called the chief of sciences, as is clear in Ethic. vi. But this doctrine does not prove the principles of other sciences. Therefore it is not the same as wisdom.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, it is wise to validate the principles of other sciences. That's why it is regarded as the most important science, as noted in Ethic. vi. However, this doctrine does not validate the principles of other sciences. Therefore, it is not the same as wisdom.

Obj. 3: Further, this doctrine is acquired by study, whereas wisdom is acquired by God's inspiration; so that it is numbered among the gifts of the Holy Spirit (Isa. 11:2). Therefore this doctrine is not the same as wisdom.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, this doctrine is learned through study, while wisdom comes from God's inspiration; thus, it is classified as one of the gifts of the Holy Spirit (Isa. 11:2). Therefore, this doctrine is not the same as wisdom.

On the contrary, It is written (Deut. 4:6): "This is your wisdom and understanding in the sight of nations."

On the contrary, It is written (Deut. 4:6): "This is your wisdom and understanding in the eyes of other nations."

I answer that, This doctrine is wisdom above all human wisdom; not merely in any one order, but absolutely. For since it is the part of a wise man to arrange and to judge, and since lesser matters should be judged in the light of some higher principle, he is said to be wise in any one order who considers the highest principle in that order: thus in the order of building, he who plans the form of the house is called wise and architect, in opposition to the inferior laborers who trim the wood and make ready the stones: "As a wise architect, I have laid the foundation" (1 Cor. 3:10). Again, in the order of all human life, the prudent man is called wise, inasmuch as he directs his acts to a fitting end: "Wisdom is prudence to a man" (Prov. 10: 23). Therefore he who considers absolutely the highest cause of the whole universe, namely God, is most of all called wise. Hence wisdom is said to be the knowledge of divine things, as Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 14). But sacred doctrine essentially treats of God viewed as the highest cause—not only so far as He can be known through creatures just as philosophers knew Him—"That which is known of God is manifest in them" (Rom. 1:19)—but also as far as He is known to Himself alone and revealed to others. Hence sacred doctrine is especially called wisdom.

I respond that, This doctrine is the ultimate wisdom beyond all human understanding; not just in one way, but in every way. A wise person organizes and judges rightly, and lesser matters should be evaluated based on some higher principle. Someone is considered wise in a specific area when they take the highest principle of that area into account: for example, in construction, the person who designs the house is seen as wise and an architect, contrasting with the laborers who prepare the wood and stones: "As a wise architect, I have laid the foundation" (1 Cor. 3:10). Similarly, in the context of human life, a prudent person is recognized as wise because they guide their actions toward appropriate outcomes: "Wisdom is prudence to a man" (Prov. 10: 23). Therefore, the person who considers the ultimate cause of the entire universe, which is God, is regarded as the wisest of all. Wisdom is described as the understanding of divine matters, as Augustine states (De Trin. xii, 14). Sacred doctrine fundamentally discusses God as the highest cause—not just as He can be understood through His creations, as philosophers have learned—"That which is known of God is manifest in them" (Rom. 1:19)—but also in the way He is known only to Himself and revealed to others. Thus, sacred doctrine is particularly referred to as wisdom.

Reply Obj. 1: Sacred doctrine derives its principles not from any human knowledge, but from the divine knowledge, through which, as through the highest wisdom, all our knowledge is set in order.

Reply Obj. 1: Sacred doctrine gets its principles not from human knowledge, but from divine knowledge, which, as the highest wisdom, organizes all our understanding.

Reply Obj. 2: The principles of other sciences either are evident and cannot be proved, or are proved by natural reason through some other science. But the knowledge proper to this science comes through revelation and not through natural reason. Therefore it has no concern to prove the principles of other sciences, but only to judge of them. Whatsoever is found in other sciences contrary to any truth of this science must be condemned as false: "Destroying counsels and every height that exalteth itself against the knowledge of God" (2 Cor. 10:4, 5).

Reply Obj. 2: The principles of other sciences are either obvious and cannot be proven, or they are proven through logic from another science. However, the knowledge that belongs to this science comes from revelation and not from natural reasoning. Therefore, it doesn't aim to prove the principles of other sciences, but only to evaluate them. Anything found in other sciences that contradicts the truths of this science must be rejected as false: "Destroying arguments and every lofty opinion raised against the knowledge of God" (2 Cor. 10:4, 5).

Reply Obj. 3: Since judgment appertains to wisdom, the twofold manner of judging produces a twofold wisdom. A man may judge in one way by inclination, as whoever has the habit of a virtue judges rightly of what concerns that virtue by his very inclination towards it. Hence it is the virtuous man, as we read, who is the measure and rule of human acts. In another way, by knowledge, just as a man learned in moral science might be able to judge rightly about virtuous acts, though he had not the virtue. The first manner of judging divine things belongs to that wisdom which is set down among the gifts of the Holy Ghost: "The spiritual man judgeth all things" (1 Cor. 2:15). And Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ii): "Hierotheus is taught not by mere learning, but by experience of divine things." The second manner of judging belongs to this doctrine which is acquired by study, though its principles are obtained by revelation. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Since judgment relates to wisdom, there are two ways of judging that lead to a twofold wisdom. A person may judge in one way through inclination, as someone who has developed a virtue judges rightly about matters related to that virtue due to their natural inclination toward it. Thus, as we read, it is the virtuous person who becomes the standard and guide for human actions. In another way, someone knowledgeable in moral principles might judge rightly about virtuous actions, even if they don't possess the virtue themselves. The first way of judging divine matters relates to the wisdom recognized as a gift of the Holy Spirit: "The spiritual person judges all things" (1 Cor. 2:15). And Dionysius states (Div. Nom. ii): "Hierotheus is taught not only by formal learning but through experience with divine matters." The second way of judging corresponds to this knowledge gained through study, although its fundamental principles come from revelation.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 7]

Whether God Is the Object of This Science?

Whether God is the focus of this science?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not the object of this science. For in every science, the nature of its object is presupposed. But this science cannot presuppose the essence of God, for Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, iv): "It is impossible to define the essence of God." Therefore God is not the object of this science.

Objection 1: It appears that God is not the focus of this field of study. In every field, the nature of its subject is assumed. However, this field cannot assume the essence of God, because Damascene states (De Fide Orth. i, iv): "It is impossible to define the essence of God." Thus, God is not the focus of this field of study.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever conclusions are reached in any science must be comprehended under the object of the science. But in Holy Writ we reach conclusions not only concerning God, but concerning many other things, such as creatures and human morality. Therefore God is not the object of this science.

Obj. 2: Also, any conclusions drawn in a science must relate to the subject of that science. However, in Holy Scripture, we reach conclusions not only about God but also about many other topics, like creatures and human morality. Therefore, God is not the primary focus of this science.

On the contrary, The object of the science is that of which it principally treats. But in this science, the treatment is mainly about God; for it is called theology, as treating of God. Therefore God is the object of this science.

On the contrary, The focus of the science is what it primarily discusses. In this science, the main discussion is about God; it's called theology because it deals with God. Therefore, God is the focus of this science.

I answer that, God is the object of this science. The relation between a science and its object is the same as that between a habit or faculty and its object. Now properly speaking, the object of a faculty or habit is the thing under the aspect of which all things are referred to that faculty or habit, as man and stone are referred to the faculty of sight in that they are colored. Hence colored things are the proper objects of sight. But in sacred science, all things are treated of under the aspect of God: either because they are God Himself or because they refer to God as their beginning and end. Hence it follows that God is in very truth the object of this science. This is clear also from the principles of this science, namely, the articles of faith, for faith is about God. The object of the principles and of the whole science must be the same, since the whole science is contained virtually in its principles. Some, however, looking to what is treated of in this science, and not to the aspect under which it is treated, have asserted the object of this science to be something other than God—that is, either things and signs; or the works of salvation; or the whole Christ, as the head and members. Of all these things, in truth, we treat in this science, but so far as they have reference to God.

I answer that, God is the focus of this study. The relationship between a field of study and its focus is similar to the relationship between a skill or ability and its purpose. In a precise sense, the focus of a skill or ability is the thing viewed through the lens of that skill or ability, such as how both man and stone are perceived by the ability to see because they have color. Therefore, colored objects are the true focus of sight. However, in sacred study, everything is considered in relation to God: either because they are God Himself or because they connect to God as their source and ultimate goal. Consequently, it follows that God is indeed the true focus of this study. This is also clear from its foundational principles, specifically the articles of faith, since faith revolves around God. The focus of these principles and the entire study must be the same because the entirety of the study is inherently included in its principles. Some, however, when considering what is discussed in this study and not the perspective from which it is analyzed, have claimed the focus of this study to be something other than God—that is, either other things and symbols; or the acts of salvation; or Christ as a whole, including both the head and the members. We do discuss all of these topics in this study, but only in relation to God.

Reply Obj. 1: Although we cannot know in what consists the essence of God, nevertheless in this science we make use of His effects, either of nature or of grace, in place of a definition, in regard to whatever is treated of in this science concerning God; even as in some philosophical sciences we demonstrate something about a cause from its effect, by taking the effect in place of a definition of the cause.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though we can’t fully understand what the essence of God is, in this field of study we use His effects, whether from nature or grace, as a substitute for a definition concerning what we discuss about God. This is similar to how in some philosophical studies, we demonstrate something about a cause by examining its effect and using the effect as a stand-in for defining the cause.

Reply Obj. 2: Whatever other conclusions are reached in this sacred science are comprehended under God, not as parts or species or accidents but as in some way related to Him. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Any other conclusions drawn from this sacred science are understood in relation to God, not as parts, species, or accidents, but in a way that connects them to Him.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 8]

Whether Sacred Doctrine is a Matter of Argument?

Whether Sacred Doctrine is a Matter of Argument?

Objection 1: It seems this doctrine is not a matter of argument. For Ambrose says (De Fide 1): "Put arguments aside where faith is sought." But in this doctrine, faith especially is sought: "But these things are written that you may believe" (John 20:31). Therefore sacred doctrine is not a matter of argument.

Objection 1: It seems that this doctrine isn’t up for debate. Ambrose says (De Fide 1): "Set aside arguments when faith is what’s needed." But in this doctrine, faith is particularly important: "But these things are written so that you may believe" (John 20:31). Therefore, sacred doctrine isn’t a matter of argument.

Obj. 2: Further, if it is a matter of argument, the argument is either from authority or from reason. If it is from authority, it seems unbefitting its dignity, for the proof from authority is the weakest form of proof. But if it is from reason, this is unbefitting its end, because, according to Gregory (Hom. 26), "faith has no merit in those things of which human reason brings its own experience." Therefore sacred doctrine is not a matter of argument.

Obj. 2: Moreover, if this is a matter of debate, the debate is either based on authority or on reason. If it’s based on authority, it seems beneath its dignity, as proof from authority is the weakest kind of proof. But if it’s based on reason, this is contrary to its purpose, because, according to Gregory (Hom. 26), “faith has no merit in those things that human reason can experience on its own.” Therefore, sacred doctrine is not something to be debated.

On the contrary, The Scripture says that a bishop should "embrace that faithful word which is according to doctrine, that he may be able to exhort in sound doctrine and to convince the gainsayers" (Titus 1:9).

On the contrary, the Scripture says that a bishop should "embrace that faithful word which is according to doctrine, that he may be able to exhort in sound doctrine and to convince the gainsayers" (Titus 1:9).

I answer that, As other sciences do not argue in proof of their principles, but argue from their principles to demonstrate other truths in these sciences: so this doctrine does not argue in proof of its principles, which are the articles of faith, but from them it goes on to prove something else; as the Apostle from the resurrection of Christ argues in proof of the general resurrection (1 Cor. 15). However, it is to be borne in mind, in regard to the philosophical sciences, that the inferior sciences neither prove their principles nor dispute with those who deny them, but leave this to a higher science; whereas the highest of them, viz. metaphysics, can dispute with one who denies its principles, if only the opponent will make some concession; but if he concede nothing, it can have no dispute with him, though it can answer his objections. Hence Sacred Scripture, since it has no science above itself, can dispute with one who denies its principles only if the opponent admits some at least of the truths obtained through divine revelation; thus we can argue with heretics from texts in Holy Writ, and against those who deny one article of faith, we can argue from another. If our opponent believes nothing of divine revelation, there is no longer any means of proving the articles of faith by reasoning, but only of answering his objections—if he has any—against faith. Since faith rests upon infallible truth, and since the contrary of a truth can never be demonstrated, it is clear that the arguments brought against faith cannot be demonstrations, but are difficulties that can be answered.

I respond that just as other sciences don't prove their basic principles but instead use those principles to demonstrate other truths within the field, this doctrine doesn’t argue to prove its principles—those being the articles of faith—but uses them to prove something else; for example, the Apostle uses the resurrection of Christ to argue for the general resurrection (1 Cor. 15). However, it should be noted that in philosophical sciences, the lesser sciences neither prove their principles nor argue with those who reject them, leaving this to a higher science. The highest of these, metaphysics, can debate with someone who denies its principles, provided the opponent makes some concession; but if they concede nothing, there can be no real debate, although it can respond to their objections. Therefore, Sacred Scripture, having no higher science above it, can only debate with someone who denies its principles if that person at least accepts some truths derived from divine revelation; thus, we can argue with heretics using texts from Holy Scripture, and we can counter those who deny one article of faith with another. If our opponent believes nothing from divine revelation, we cannot further prove the articles of faith through reasoning, but we can only respond to any objections they may have against faith. Since faith is based on infallible truth, and since the opposite of a truth can never be proven, it’s clear that the arguments against faith aren’t real demonstrations but rather challenges that can be addressed.

Reply Obj. 1: Although arguments from human reason cannot avail to prove what must be received on faith, nevertheless, this doctrine argues from articles of faith to other truths.

Reply Obj. 1: While arguments based on human reasoning can't prove what needs to be accepted on faith, this doctrine makes a case from articles of faith to other truths.

Reply Obj. 2: This doctrine is especially based upon arguments from authority, inasmuch as its principles are obtained by revelation: thus we ought to believe on the authority of those to whom the revelation has been made. Nor does this take away from the dignity of this doctrine, for although the argument from authority based on human reason is the weakest, yet the argument from authority based on divine revelation is the strongest. But sacred doctrine makes use even of human reason, not, indeed, to prove faith (for thereby the merit of faith would come to an end), but to make clear other things that are put forward in this doctrine. Since therefore grace does not destroy nature but perfects it, natural reason should minister to faith as the natural bent of the will ministers to charity. Hence the Apostle says: "Bringing into captivity every understanding unto the obedience of Christ" (2 Cor. 10:5). Hence sacred doctrine makes use also of the authority of philosophers in those questions in which they were able to know the truth by natural reason, as Paul quotes a saying of Aratus: "As some also of your own poets said: For we are also His offspring" (Acts 17:28). Nevertheless, sacred doctrine makes use of these authorities as extrinsic and probable arguments; but properly uses the authority of the canonical Scriptures as an incontrovertible proof, and the authority of the doctors of the Church as one that may properly be used, yet merely as probable. For our faith rests upon the revelation made to the apostles and prophets who wrote the canonical books, and not on the revelations (if any such there are) made to other doctors. Hence Augustine says (Epis. ad Hieron. xix, 1): "Only those books of Scripture which are called canonical have I learned to hold in such honor as to believe their authors have not erred in any way in writing them. But other authors I so read as not to deem everything in their works to be true, merely on account of their having so thought and written, whatever may have been their holiness and learning." _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: This teaching mainly relies on authoritative arguments since its principles come from revelation; therefore, we should trust the authority of those who received the revelation. This does not diminish the significance of this teaching. While human reason-based authority is the weakest form of argument, authority based on divine revelation is the strongest. Still, sacred doctrine does utilize human reason, not to prove faith (as that would negate the merit of faith), but to clarify other aspects included in this doctrine. Since grace enhances rather than negates nature, natural reason should support faith in the same way that a natural inclination of the will supports charity. That’s why the Apostle says: "Bringing into captivity every understanding to the obedience of Christ" (2 Cor. 10:5). Sacred doctrine also draws on the authority of philosophers when they are able to recognize the truth through natural reason, as Paul cites a saying from Aratus: "As some of your own poets said: For we are also His offspring" (Acts 17:28). However, sacred doctrine uses these authorities only as external and likely arguments; it properly employs the authority of the canonical Scriptures as undeniable proof and the authority of church fathers as something that can be used but is merely probable. Our faith is founded on the revelations made to the apostles and prophets who authored the canonical books, not on any revelations given to other doctors (if any exist). Therefore, Augustine states (Epis. ad Hieron. xix, 1): "Only those books of Scripture that are called canonical have I learned to hold in such honor as to believe their authors have not erred in any way while writing them. But I read other authors with the understanding that not everything in their works is true, just because they thought and wrote it, regardless of their holiness and knowledge."

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 9]

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 9]

Whether Holy Scripture Should Use Metaphors?

Whether Holy Scripture Should Use Metaphors?

Objection 1: It seems that Holy Scripture should not use metaphors. For that which is proper to the lowest science seems not to befit this science, which holds the highest place of all. But to proceed by the aid of various similitudes and figures is proper to poetry, the least of all the sciences. Therefore it is not fitting that this science should make use of such similitudes.

Objection 1: It seems that the Holy Scripture shouldn't use metaphors. What belongs to the simplest form of science doesn't seem appropriate for this discipline, which is considered the highest of all. Using different similarities and figures is typical of poetry, which is the least of all sciences. Therefore, it doesn't seem appropriate for this field to use such comparisons.

Obj. 2: Further, this doctrine seems to be intended to make truth clear. Hence a reward is held out to those who manifest it: "They that explain me shall have life everlasting" (Ecclus. 24:31). But by such similitudes truth is obscured. Therefore, to put forward divine truths by likening them to corporeal things does not befit this science.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, this doctrine appears to aim at clarifying truth. Therefore, a reward is promised to those who reveal it: "They that explain me shall have life everlasting" (Ecclus. 24:31). However, using such comparisons tends to obscure the truth. Thus, presenting divine truths by comparing them to physical things is not appropriate for this field of study.

Obj. 3: Further, the higher creatures are, the nearer they approach to the divine likeness. If therefore any creature be taken to represent God, this representation ought chiefly to be taken from the higher creatures, and not from the lower; yet this is often found in Scriptures.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the higher the creatures, the closer they are to resembling the divine. Therefore, if any creature is meant to represent God, that representation should primarily come from the higher creatures, not the lower ones; yet this is often seen in Scriptures.

On the contrary, It is written (Osee 12:10): "I have multiplied visions, and I have used similitudes by the ministry of the prophets." But to put forward anything by means of similitudes is to use metaphors. Therefore this sacred science may use metaphors.

On the contrary, It is written (Hosea 12:10): "I have multiplied visions, and I have used similitudes through the ministry of the prophets." But to present anything through similitudes is to use metaphors. Therefore, this sacred science can use metaphors.

I answer that, It is befitting Holy Writ to put forward divine and spiritual truths by means of comparisons with material things. For God provides for everything according to the capacity of its nature. Now it is natural to man to attain to intellectual truths through sensible objects, because all our knowledge originates from sense. Hence in Holy Writ, spiritual truths are fittingly taught under the likeness of material things. This is what Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. i): "We cannot be enlightened by the divine rays except they be hidden within the covering of many sacred veils." It is also befitting Holy Writ, which is proposed to all without distinction of persons—"To the wise and to the unwise I am a debtor" (Rom. 1:14)—that spiritual truths be expounded by means of figures taken from corporeal things, in order that thereby even the simple who are unable by themselves to grasp intellectual things may be able to understand it.

I respond that, it's appropriate for sacred scripture to present divine and spiritual truths through comparisons with physical things. God provides for everything based on its nature. It’s natural for humans to reach intellectual truths through sensory experiences, as all our knowledge comes from our senses. Therefore, in sacred scripture, spiritual truths are effectively taught using examples from the physical world. As Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. i): "We cannot be illuminated by divine rays unless they are concealed under multiple sacred veils." It is also fitting for sacred scripture, which is offered to everyone without distinction—"To the wise and to the unwise I am a debtor" (Rom. 1:14)—that spiritual truths be explained through figures drawn from physical things, so that even those who are simple and cannot grasp intellectual concepts on their own can understand.

Reply Obj. 1: Poetry makes use of metaphors to produce a representation, for it is natural to man to be pleased with representations. But sacred doctrine makes use of metaphors as both necessary and useful.

Reply Obj. 1: Poetry uses metaphors to create representations because it’s natural for people to enjoy representations. However, sacred doctrine uses metaphors as both necessary and beneficial.

Reply Obj. 2: The ray of divine revelation is not extinguished by the sensible imagery wherewith it is veiled, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. i); and its truth so far remains that it does not allow the minds of those to whom the revelation has been made, to rest in the metaphors, but raises them to the knowledge of truths; and through those to whom the revelation has been made others also may receive instruction in these matters. Hence those things that are taught metaphorically in one part of Scripture, in other parts are taught more openly. The very hiding of truth in figures is useful for the exercise of thoughtful minds and as a defense against the ridicule of the impious, according to the words "Give not that which is holy to dogs" (Matt. 7:6).

Reply Obj. 2: The light of divine revelation isn’t dimmed by the sensory imagery that covers it, as Dionysius notes (Coel. Hier. i); and the truth of it remains intact in that it doesn’t let the minds of those who receive the revelation settle for the metaphors, but instead elevates them to understanding deeper truths. Through those who have received the revelation, others can also learn about these issues. Therefore, concepts that are described metaphorically in one part of Scripture are explained more clearly in other parts. The concealment of truth in figurative language is beneficial for stimulating thoughtful minds and protecting against the scorn of the unholy, as stated in "Give not that which is holy to dogs" (Matt. 7:6).

Reply Obj. 3: As Dionysius says, (Coel. Hier. i) it is more fitting that divine truths should be expounded under the figure of less noble than of nobler bodies, and this for three reasons. Firstly, because thereby men's minds are the better preserved from error. For then it is clear that these things are not literal descriptions of divine truths, which might have been open to doubt had they been expressed under the figure of nobler bodies, especially for those who could think of nothing nobler than bodies. Secondly, because this is more befitting the knowledge of God that we have in this life. For what He is not is clearer to us than what He is. Therefore similitudes drawn from things farthest away from God form within us a truer estimate that God is above whatsoever we may say or think of Him. Thirdly, because thereby divine truths are the better hidden from the unworthy. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: As Dionysius says, it is more appropriate for divine truths to be explained using examples from lesser beings rather than from greater ones, and this is for three reasons. Firstly, this approach helps protect people's minds from error. It's clear that these examples aren't literal explanations of divine truths, which could be questionable if they were based on greater beings, especially for those who can only think of beings as greater than anything. Secondly, this aligns better with our current understanding of God. What He is not is clearer to us than what He truly is. Thus, examples from things that are farthest from God help us truly understand that God is beyond anything we can say or think about Him. Thirdly, this keeps divine truths better concealed from those who are unworthy.

TENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 10]

TENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 1, Art. 10]

Whether in Holy Scripture a Word may have Several Senses?

Whether in Holy Scripture a word can have several meanings?

Objection 1: It seems that in Holy Writ a word cannot have several senses, historical or literal, allegorical, tropological or moral, and anagogical. For many different senses in one text produce confusion and deception and destroy all force of argument. Hence no argument, but only fallacies, can be deduced from a multiplicity of propositions. But Holy Writ ought to be able to state the truth without any fallacy. Therefore in it there cannot be several senses to a word.

Objection 1: It seems that in the Scriptures, a word cannot have multiple meanings—historical or literal, allegorical, moral, or anagogical. Multiple meanings in one text lead to confusion and deception and undermine all logical argument. Therefore, no valid argument can be drawn from many propositions. However, the Scriptures should present the truth without any error. Thus, there cannot be multiple meanings for a word within it.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De util. cred. iii) that "the Old Testament has a fourfold division as to history, etiology, analogy and allegory." Now these four seem altogether different from the four divisions mentioned in the first objection. Therefore it does not seem fitting to explain the same word of Holy Writ according to the four different senses mentioned above.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Augustine states (De util. cred. iii) that "the Old Testament has four different interpretations: historical, etiological, analogical, and allegorical." These four interpretations appear to be entirely distinct from the four divisions noted in the first objection. Thus, it doesn't seem appropriate to explain the same passage of Scripture using the four different meanings mentioned above.

Obj. 3: Further, besides these senses, there is the parabolical, which is not one of these four.

Obj. 3: Also, in addition to these senses, there's the parabolical, which isn't one of these four.

On the contrary, Gregory says (Moral. xx, 1): "Holy Writ by the manner of its speech transcends every science, because in one and the same sentence, while it describes a fact, it reveals a mystery."

On the contrary, Gregory says (Moral. xx, 1): "Holy Scripture, in the way it speaks, goes beyond every science, because in one single sentence, while it states a fact, it uncovers a mystery."

I answer that, The author of Holy Writ is God, in whose power it is to signify His meaning, not by words only (as man also can do), but also by things themselves. So, whereas in every other science things are signified by words, this science has the property, that the things signified by the words have themselves also a signification. Therefore that first signification whereby words signify things belongs to the first sense, the historical or literal. That signification whereby things signified by words have themselves also a signification is called the spiritual sense, which is based on the literal, and presupposes it. Now this spiritual sense has a threefold division. For as the Apostle says (Heb. 10:1) the Old Law is a figure of the New Law, and Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. i) "the New Law itself is a figure of future glory." Again, in the New Law, whatever our Head has done is a type of what we ought to do. Therefore, so far as the things of the Old Law signify the things of the New Law, there is the allegorical sense; so far as the things done in Christ, or so far as the things which signify Christ, are types of what we ought to do, there is the moral sense. But so far as they signify what relates to eternal glory, there is the anagogical sense. Since the literal sense is that which the author intends, and since the author of Holy Writ is God, Who by one act comprehends all things by His intellect, it is not unfitting, as Augustine says (Confess. xii), if, even according to the literal sense, one word in Holy Writ should have several senses.

I respond that, The author of Scripture is God, who has the power to convey His meaning not just through words (which humans can also do) but also through the things themselves. While in every other field, things are represented by words, this field uniquely has the characteristic that the things represented by the words also have their own meaning. Therefore, the first meaning by which words signify things is referred to as the first sense, the historical or literal sense. The meaning where the things represented by words also carry their own significance is called the spiritual sense, which is based on the literal sense and assumes it. This spiritual sense is divided into three parts. As the Apostle states (Heb. 10:1), the Old Law serves as a symbol of the New Law, and Dionysius mentions (Coel. Hier. i) that "the New Law itself symbolizes future glory." Additionally, in the New Law, whatever our Head has accomplished is a model for our actions. Thus, to the extent that the elements of the Old Law signify the elements of the New Law, there is the allegorical sense; to the extent that what was done in Christ, or the things that signify Christ, serve as models of what we should do, there is the moral sense. Finally, to the extent that they signify matters relating to eternal glory, there is the anagogical sense. Since the literal sense conveys the author's intention, and since the author of Scripture is God, who comprehends all things in a single act of intellect, it is not surprising, as Augustine notes (Confess. xii), that even according to the literal sense, a single word in Scripture may have multiple meanings.

Reply Obj. 1: The multiplicity of these senses does not produce equivocation or any other kind of multiplicity, seeing that these senses are not multiplied because one word signifies several things, but because the things signified by the words can be themselves types of other things. Thus in Holy Writ no confusion results, for all the senses are founded on one—the literal—from which alone can any argument be drawn, and not from those intended in allegory, as Augustine says (Epis. 48). Nevertheless, nothing of Holy Scripture perishes on account of this, since nothing necessary to faith is contained under the spiritual sense which is not elsewhere put forward by the Scripture in its literal sense.

Reply Obj. 1: The many meanings of these terms don’t lead to confusion or any other form of ambiguity, since the meanings aren’t multiplied simply because one word refers to multiple things, but because the things indicated by the words can themselves represent other things. Therefore, there’s no confusion in the Scriptures, as all meanings are based on one—the literal meaning—from which any argument can be made, not from those intended in an allegorical sense, as Augustine states (Epis. 48). Still, nothing in the Holy Scripture is lost because of this, as nothing essential to faith is found in the spiritual meaning that isn’t explained elsewhere in the Scripture’s literal sense.

Reply Obj. 2: These three—history, etiology, analogy—are grouped under the literal sense. For it is called history, as Augustine expounds (Epis. 48), whenever anything is simply related; it is called etiology when its cause is assigned, as when Our Lord gave the reason why Moses allowed the putting away of wives—namely, on account of the hardness of men's hearts; it is called analogy whenever the truth of one text of Scripture is shown not to contradict the truth of another. Of these four, allegory alone stands for the three spiritual senses. Thus Hugh of St. Victor (Sacram. iv, 4 Prolog.) includes the anagogical under the allegorical sense, laying down three senses only—the historical, the allegorical, and the tropological.

Reply Obj. 2: These three—history, cause, analogy—fall under the literal sense. It’s called history, as Augustine explains (Epis. 48), whenever something is simply reported; it’s called cause when the reason is given, like when Our Lord explained why Moses allowed divorce—specifically, because of the hardness of people's hearts; it’s called analogy when the truth of one part of Scripture is shown not to contradict the truth of another. Of these four, only allegory represents the three spiritual senses. Thus Hugh of St. Victor (Sacram. iv, 4 Prolog.) includes the anagogical sense under the allegorical sense, stating that there are only three senses—the historical, the allegorical, and the tropological.

Reply Obj. 3: The parabolical sense is contained in the literal, for by words things are signified properly and figuratively. Nor is the figure itself, but that which is figured, the literal sense. When Scripture speaks of God's arm, the literal sense is not that God has such a member, but only what is signified by this member, namely operative power. Hence it is plain that nothing false can ever underlie the literal sense of Holy Writ. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The figurative meaning is included in the literal one, as words represent things both directly and indirectly. It’s not the figure itself that matters, but what it represents that constitutes the literal meaning. When the Scriptures mention God's arm, the literal meaning isn’t that God has a physical arm, but rather what this arm signifies, which is power in action. Therefore, it’s clear that nothing false can ever be hidden beneath the literal meaning of Sacred Scripture.

QUESTION 2

THE EXISTENCE OF GOD
(In Three Articles)

THE EXISTENCE OF GOD
(In Three Articles)

Because the chief aim of sacred doctrine is to teach the knowledge of God, not only as He is in Himself, but also as He is the beginning of things and their last end, and especially of rational creatures, as is clear from what has been already said, therefore, in our endeavor to expound this science, we shall treat:

Because the main goal of sacred doctrine is to teach the knowledge of God, not just as He is in Himself, but also as the beginning of all things and their ultimate purpose, especially for rational beings, as we've already discussed, we will focus on the following in our effort to explain this subject:

(1) Of God;

Of God;

(2) Of the rational creature's advance towards God;

(2) About how rational beings move closer to God;

(3) Of Christ, Who as man, is our way to God.

(3) Christ, who as a human, is our path to God.

In treating of God there will be a threefold division, for we shall consider:

In discussing God, we will divide it into three parts, as we will look at:

(1) Whatever concerns the Divine Essence;

(1) Anything related to the Divine Essence;

(2) Whatever concerns the distinctions of Persons;

(2) Whatever relates to the differences between People;

(3) Whatever concerns the procession of creatures from Him.

(3) Whatever relates to the procession of beings from Him.

Concerning the Divine Essence, we must consider:

Concerning the Divine Essence, we must consider:

(1) Whether God exists?

Does God exist?

(2) The manner of His existence, or, rather, what is not the manner of His existence;

(2) The way He exists, or, more accurately, what is not the way He exists;

(3) Whatever concerns His operations—namely, His knowledge, will, power.

(3) Whatever relates to His actions—specifically, His knowledge, will, and power.

Concerning the first, there are three points of inquiry:

Concerning the first, there are three things to investigate:

(1) Whether the proposition "God exists" is self-evident?

(1) Is the statement "God exists" self-evident?

(2) Whether it is demonstrable?

Is it demonstrable?

(3) Whether God exists? _______________________

Does God exist?

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 2, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 2, Art. 1]

Whether the Existence of God Is Self-Evident?

Whether the Existence of God Is Self-Evident?

Objection 1: It seems that the existence of God is self-evident. Now those things are said to be self-evident to us the knowledge of which is naturally implanted in us, as we can see in regard to first principles. But as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 1,3), "the knowledge of God is naturally implanted in all." Therefore the existence of God is self-evident.

Objection 1: It appears that God's existence is obvious. Things that are self-evident are those whose knowledge is naturally built into us, as we can observe with first principles. However, as Damascene states (De Fide Orth. i, 1,3), "the knowledge of God is naturally implanted in everyone." Therefore, God's existence is self-evident.

Obj. 2: Further, those things are said to be self-evident which are known as soon as the terms are known, which the Philosopher (1 Poster. iii) says is true of the first principles of demonstration. Thus, when the nature of a whole and of a part is known, it is at once recognized that every whole is greater than its part. But as soon as the signification of the word "God" is understood, it is at once seen that God exists. For by this word is signified that thing than which nothing greater can be conceived. But that which exists actually and mentally is greater than that which exists only mentally. Therefore, since as soon as the word "God" is understood it exists mentally, it also follows that it exists actually. Therefore the proposition "God exists" is self-evident.

Obj. 2: Additionally, things are considered self-evident when they are understood as soon as the terms are known, which the Philosopher (1 Poster. iii) states is true for the fundamental principles of demonstration. So, once we understand the nature of a whole and a part, we immediately recognize that every whole is greater than its part. Similarly, as soon as we grasp the meaning of the word "God," we realize that God exists. This term refers to that which is greater than anything else we can imagine. But something that exists both in reality and in our minds is greater than something that exists only in our minds. Therefore, since the moment we understand the word "God," it exists in our minds, it also follows that it exists in reality. Thus, the statement "God exists" is self-evident.

Obj. 3: Further, the existence of truth is self-evident. For whoever denies the existence of truth grants that truth does not exist: and, if truth does not exist, then the proposition "Truth does not exist" is true: and if there is anything true, there must be truth. But God is truth itself: "I am the way, the truth, and the life" (John 14:6) Therefore "God exists" is self-evident.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the existence of truth is obvious. Because whoever denies that truth exists is admitting that truth does not exist; and if truth doesn’t exist, then the statement "Truth does not exist" is true; and if anything is true, then there must be truth. But God is truth itself: "I am the way, the truth, and the life" (John 14:6). Therefore, "God exists" is obvious.

On the contrary, No one can mentally admit the opposite of what is self-evident; as the Philosopher (Metaph. iv, lect. vi) states concerning the first principles of demonstration. But the opposite of the proposition "God is" can be mentally admitted: "The fool said in his heart, There is no God" (Ps. 52:1). Therefore, that God exists is not self-evident.

In contrast, no one can truly accept the opposite of what is obvious; as the Philosopher (Metaph. iv, lect. vi) says about the basic principles of proof. However, it is possible to mentally accept the opposite of the statement "God exists": "The fool says in his heart, There is no God" (Ps. 52:1). Therefore, the existence of God is not obvious.

I answer that, A thing can be self-evident in either of two ways: on the one hand, self-evident in itself, though not to us; on the other, self-evident in itself, and to us. A proposition is self-evident because the predicate is included in the essence of the subject, as "Man is an animal," for animal is contained in the essence of man. If, therefore the essence of the predicate and subject be known to all, the proposition will be self-evident to all; as is clear with regard to the first principles of demonstration, the terms of which are common things that no one is ignorant of, such as being and non-being, whole and part, and such like. If, however, there are some to whom the essence of the predicate and subject is unknown, the proposition will be self-evident in itself, but not to those who do not know the meaning of the predicate and subject of the proposition. Therefore, it happens, as Boethius says (Hebdom., the title of which is: "Whether all that is, is good"), "that there are some mental concepts self-evident only to the learned, as that incorporeal substances are not in space." Therefore I say that this proposition, "God exists," of itself is self-evident, for the predicate is the same as the subject, because God is His own existence as will be hereafter shown (Q. 3, Art. 4). Now because we do not know the essence of God, the proposition is not self-evident to us; but needs to be demonstrated by things that are more known to us, though less known in their nature—namely, by effects.

I respond that, a thing can be self-evident in two ways: first, it can be self-evident in itself, even if it's not clear to us; second, it can be self-evident both in itself and to us. A statement is self-evident when the predicate is part of the essence of the subject, like "Man is an animal," since "animal" is included in the essence of "man." Therefore, if everyone knows the essence of both the predicate and the subject, the statement will be self-evident to everyone; this is evident regarding the basic principles of demonstration, whose terms are common concepts that no one is unaware of, such as being and non-being, whole and part, and so on. However, if there are some who don't understand the essence of the predicate and subject, the statement will be self-evident in itself, but not for those who are unfamiliar with the meanings of the predicate and subject in the statement. Thus, as Boethius observes (Hebdom., titled: "Whether all that is, is good"), "there are some mental concepts that are self-evident only to the knowledgeable, such as that incorporeal substances are not in space." Hence, I assert that the statement "God exists" is self-evident in itself, since the predicate is identical to the subject, because God is His own existence, as will be shown later (Q. 3, Art. 4). Now, because we do not know the essence of God, the statement is not self-evident to us; it must be demonstrated through things that are better known to us, though less understood in their nature—specifically, through effects.

Reply Obj. 1: To know that God exists in a general and confused way is implanted in us by nature, inasmuch as God is man's beatitude. For man naturally desires happiness, and what is naturally desired by man must be naturally known to him. This, however, is not to know absolutely that God exists; just as to know that someone is approaching is not the same as to know that Peter is approaching, even though it is Peter who is approaching; for many there are who imagine that man's perfect good which is happiness, consists in riches, and others in pleasures, and others in something else.

Reply Obj. 1: We have an inherent, vague understanding that God exists because God is the ultimate source of human happiness. People naturally seek happiness, and what we naturally desire must also be something we inherently understand. However, this doesn’t mean we know for certain that God exists. It’s similar to knowing someone is coming without knowing that it’s Peter specifically; many people think that true happiness comes from wealth, others from pleasure, and still others from different things.

Reply Obj. 2: Perhaps not everyone who hears this word "God" understands it to signify something than which nothing greater can be thought, seeing that some have believed God to be a body. Yet, granted that everyone understands that by this word "God" is signified something than which nothing greater can be thought, nevertheless, it does not therefore follow that he understands that what the word signifies exists actually, but only that it exists mentally. Nor can it be argued that it actually exists, unless it be admitted that there actually exists something than which nothing greater can be thought; and this precisely is not admitted by those who hold that God does not exist.

Reply Obj. 2: Not everyone who hears the word "God" understands it to mean something that is greater than anything else that can be imagined, since some people believe God to be a physical being. However, even if everyone understands that the word "God" refers to something greater than anything else that can be imagined, it doesn’t mean they understand that what the word signifies actually exists; it could just exist in their minds. You can’t conclude that it actually exists unless you accept that there is something greater than anything else that can be imagined; and those who believe that God does not exist do not accept this.

Reply Obj. 3: The existence of truth in general is self-evident but the existence of a Primal Truth is not self-evident to us. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The existence of truth, in general, is obvious, but the existence of a Primal Truth is not obvious to us.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 2, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 2, Art. 2]

Whether It Can Be Demonstrated That God Exists?

Whether it can be proven that God exists?

Objection 1: It seems that the existence of God cannot be demonstrated. For it is an article of faith that God exists. But what is of faith cannot be demonstrated, because a demonstration produces scientific knowledge; whereas faith is of the unseen (Heb. 11:1). Therefore it cannot be demonstrated that God exists.

Objection 1: It appears that we cannot prove the existence of God. Belief in God is a matter of faith. However, what is based on faith cannot be proven, since proof leads to scientific knowledge, while faith relates to things that are not seen (Heb. 11:1). Therefore, we cannot prove that God exists.

Obj. 2: Further, the essence is the middle term of demonstration. But we cannot know in what God's essence consists, but solely in what it does not consist; as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 4). Therefore we cannot demonstrate that God exists.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the essence is the middle term of demonstration. However, we cannot know what God's essence is made up of, only what it is not; as Damascene states (De Fide Orth. i, 4). Therefore, we cannot prove that God exists.

Obj. 3: Further, if the existence of God were demonstrated, this could only be from His effects. But His effects are not proportionate to Him, since He is infinite and His effects are finite; and between the finite and infinite there is no proportion. Therefore, since a cause cannot be demonstrated by an effect not proportionate to it, it seems that the existence of God cannot be demonstrated.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if we could prove that God exists, it could only be shown through His effects. However, His effects are not on the same level as He is, since He is infinite and His effects are finite; there's no way to compare the finite to the infinite. So, since we can't prove a cause with an effect that isn’t comparable to it, it seems that we can't prove the existence of God.

On the contrary, The Apostle says: "The invisible things of Him are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made" (Rom. 1:20). But this would not be unless the existence of God could be demonstrated through the things that are made; for the first thing we must know of anything is whether it exists.

On the contrary, the Apostle says: "The invisible qualities of God are clearly seen, being understood through the things that are made" (Rom. 1:20). But this wouldn’t be the case unless we could demonstrate God's existence through creation, because the first thing we need to know about anything is whether it actually exists.

I answer that, Demonstration can be made in two ways: One is through the cause, and is called a priori, and this is to argue from what is prior absolutely. The other is through the effect, and is called a demonstration a posteriori; this is to argue from what is prior relatively only to us. When an effect is better known to us than its cause, from the effect we proceed to the knowledge of the cause. And from every effect the existence of its proper cause can be demonstrated, so long as its effects are better known to us; because since every effect depends upon its cause, if the effect exists, the cause must pre-exist. Hence the existence of God, in so far as it is not self-evident to us, can be demonstrated from those of His effects which are known to us.

I answer that, Demonstration can be done in two ways: One is through the cause, and is called a priori, which means to argue from what is absolutely prior. The other is through the effect, known as demonstration a posteriori; this means to argue from what is only relatively prior to us. When we know an effect better than its cause, we can use the effect to understand the cause. From every effect, the existence of its appropriate cause can be demonstrated, as long as its effects are more familiar to us; because every effect depends on its cause, if the effect exists, the cause must have existed beforehand. Therefore, the existence of God, as far as it is not self-evident to us, can be demonstrated from those effects of His that we are aware of.

Reply Obj. 1: The existence of God and other like truths about God, which can be known by natural reason, are not articles of faith, but are preambles to the articles; for faith presupposes natural knowledge, even as grace presupposes nature, and perfection supposes something that can be perfected. Nevertheless, there is nothing to prevent a man, who cannot grasp a proof, accepting, as a matter of faith, something which in itself is capable of being scientifically known and demonstrated.

Reply Obj. 1: The existence of God and other similar truths about God, which can be understood through natural reason, are not beliefs that require faith, but are preliminary to those beliefs. Faith relies on natural knowledge, just as grace depends on nature, and perfection relies on something that can be perfected. However, there’s nothing stopping a person who cannot comprehend a proof from accepting, as a matter of faith, something that can actually be scientifically understood and proven.

Reply Obj. 2: When the existence of a cause is demonstrated from an effect, this effect takes the place of the definition of the cause in proof of the cause's existence. This is especially the case in regard to God, because, in order to prove the existence of anything, it is necessary to accept as a middle term the meaning of the word, and not its essence, for the question of its essence follows on the question of its existence. Now the names given to God are derived from His effects; consequently, in demonstrating the existence of God from His effects, we may take for the middle term the meaning of the word "God".

Reply Obj. 2: When we show that a cause exists based on its effects, these effects serve as the definition of the cause to prove its existence. This is particularly relevant when it comes to God, because to prove the existence of anything, we need to accept the meaning of the word as a middle term, rather than its essence, since the essence comes after establishing existence. The names we use for God come from His effects; therefore, when demonstrating God's existence through these effects, we can use the meaning of the word "God" as the middle term.

Reply Obj. 3: From effects not proportionate to the cause no perfect knowledge of that cause can be obtained. Yet from every effect the existence of the cause can be clearly demonstrated, and so we can demonstrate the existence of God from His effects; though from them we cannot perfectly know God as He is in His essence. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: We can't achieve perfect knowledge of a cause from effects that aren't proportional to it. However, we can clearly show the existence of the cause from every effect, and thus we can demonstrate God's existence through His effects; although we can't fully know God as He is in His essence from them.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 2, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 2, Art. 3]

Whether God Exists?

Does God exist?

Objection 1: It seems that God does not exist; because if one of two contraries be infinite, the other would be altogether destroyed. But the word "God" means that He is infinite goodness. If, therefore, God existed, there would be no evil discoverable; but there is evil in the world. Therefore God does not exist.

Objection 1: It appears that God does not exist; because if one of two opposing forces is infinite, the other would be completely eliminated. The term "God" implies that He is infinite goodness. If God existed, there would be no evil present; however, evil does exist in the world. Therefore, God does not exist.

Obj. 2: Further, it is superfluous to suppose that what can be accounted for by a few principles has been produced by many. But it seems that everything we see in the world can be accounted for by other principles, supposing God did not exist. For all natural things can be reduced to one principle which is nature; and all voluntary things can be reduced to one principle which is human reason, or will. Therefore there is no need to suppose God's existence.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, it's unnecessary to believe that what can be explained by a few principles has come about through many. However, it appears that everything we observe in the world can be explained by other principles, assuming God doesn't exist. All natural things can be simplified to one principle, which is nature, and all voluntary actions can be simplified to one principle, which is human reason or will. Therefore, there’s no need to assume that God exists.

On the contrary, It is said in the person of God: "I am Who am." (Ex. 3:14)

On the contrary, it is said in the voice of God: "I am Who am." (Ex. 3:14)

I answer that, The existence of God can be proved in five ways.

I answer that, The existence of God can be proven in five ways.

The first and more manifest way is the argument from motion. It is certain, and evident to our senses, that in the world some things are in motion. Now whatever is in motion is put in motion by another, for nothing can be in motion except it is in potentiality to that towards which it is in motion; whereas a thing moves inasmuch as it is in act. For motion is nothing else than the reduction of something from potentiality to actuality. But nothing can be reduced from potentiality to actuality, except by something in a state of actuality. Thus that which is actually hot, as fire, makes wood, which is potentially hot, to be actually hot, and thereby moves and changes it. Now it is not possible that the same thing should be at once in actuality and potentiality in the same respect, but only in different respects. For what is actually hot cannot simultaneously be potentially hot; but it is simultaneously potentially cold. It is therefore impossible that in the same respect and in the same way a thing should be both mover and moved, i.e. that it should move itself. Therefore, whatever is in motion must be put in motion by another. If that by which it is put in motion be itself put in motion, then this also must needs be put in motion by another, and that by another again. But this cannot go on to infinity, because then there would be no first mover, and, consequently, no other mover; seeing that subsequent movers move only inasmuch as they are put in motion by the first mover; as the staff moves only because it is put in motion by the hand. Therefore it is necessary to arrive at a first mover, put in motion by no other; and this everyone understands to be God.

The first and most obvious way is the argument from motion. It's clear and evident to our senses that some things in the world are moving. Now, anything that is in motion is moved by something else, because nothing can be in motion unless it has the potential to move towards something; a thing moves because it is in action. Motion is simply the transition of something from potentiality to actuality. However, something can only be moved from potentiality to actuality by something that is already in a state of actuality. For example, something that is actually hot, like fire, causes something that is potentially hot, like wood, to become actually hot, thus moving and changing it. It's impossible for the same thing to be both actual and potential in the same way at the same time, only in different ways. What is actually hot can't also be potentially hot, but it can be potentially cold at the same time. Therefore, it's impossible for something to be both the mover and the moved at the same time; that is, it can't move itself. Hence, anything that is in motion must be set in motion by something else. If what moves it is also in motion, it too must be moved by something else, and this chain must continue. However, this can't go on forever, or there would be no first mover, and thus no other movers, since subsequent movers only move because they are set in motion by the first mover, just like a staff moves only because it is pushed by the hand. Consequently, we must arrive at a first mover that is not itself moved by anything else; and this is understood by everyone to be God.

The second way is from the nature of the efficient cause. In the world of sense we find there is an order of efficient causes. There is no case known (neither is it, indeed, possible) in which a thing is found to be the efficient cause of itself; for so it would be prior to itself, which is impossible. Now in efficient causes it is not possible to go on to infinity, because in all efficient causes following in order, the first is the cause of the intermediate cause, and the intermediate is the cause of the ultimate cause, whether the intermediate cause be several, or only one. Now to take away the cause is to take away the effect. Therefore, if there be no first cause among efficient causes, there will be no ultimate, nor any intermediate cause. But if in efficient causes it is possible to go on to infinity, there will be no first efficient cause, neither will there be an ultimate effect, nor any intermediate efficient causes; all of which is plainly false. Therefore it is necessary to admit a first efficient cause, to which everyone gives the name of God.

The second way is based on the nature of the efficient cause. In our sensory world, we observe a sequence of efficient causes. There's no instance (nor is it actually possible) where something is the efficient cause of itself; that would mean it precedes itself, which is impossible. Now, regarding efficient causes, it's not feasible to go on infinitely because, in the ordered sequence of causes, the first cause leads to the intermediate cause, and the intermediate cause leads to the ultimate cause, regardless of whether there are multiple intermediate causes or just one. Removing a cause means removing the effect. So, if there is no first cause among the efficient causes, there can't be an ultimate cause or any intermediate causes either. If it were possible for efficient causes to extend infinitely, there would be no first efficient cause, which means there would be no ultimate effect or any intermediate efficient causes; all of this is clearly false. Therefore, we must accept that there is a first efficient cause, which everyone refers to as God.

The third way is taken from possibility and necessity, and runs thus. We find in nature things that are possible to be and not to be, since they are found to be generated, and to corrupt, and consequently, they are possible to be and not to be. But it is impossible for these always to exist, for that which is possible not to be at some time is not. Therefore, if everything is possible not to be, then at one time there could have been nothing in existence. Now if this were true, even now there would be nothing in existence, because that which does not exist only begins to exist by something already existing. Therefore, if at one time nothing was in existence, it would have been impossible for anything to have begun to exist; and thus even now nothing would be in existence—which is absurd. Therefore, not all beings are merely possible, but there must exist something the existence of which is necessary. But every necessary thing either has its necessity caused by another, or not. Now it is impossible to go on to infinity in necessary things which have their necessity caused by another, as has been already proved in regard to efficient causes. Therefore we cannot but postulate the existence of some being having of itself its own necessity, and not receiving it from another, but rather causing in others their necessity. This all men speak of as God.

The third way comes from the concepts of possibility and necessity. It goes like this: In nature, we see things that can either exist or not exist, since we observe things being created and destroyed. This means they can exist or not exist. However, it's impossible for these things to exist all the time because if something is possible not to exist at some point, then it doesn’t exist. Therefore, if everything is possibly non-existent, there could have been a time when nothing existed at all. If that were the case, then even now, nothing would exist, since something that doesn’t exist can only start to exist from something that already does. So if there was a time when nothing existed, it wouldn't have been possible for anything to start existing, meaning even now, nothing would exist—which is absurd. Therefore, not everything can be just possible; there must be something whose existence is necessary. Every necessary thing either owes its necessity to something else or not. Now, it’s impossible to have an infinite series of necessary things that depend on something else, as has already been shown regarding efficient causes. So we must conclude that there is a being that has its own necessity and doesn’t receive it from another but instead causes necessity in others. This is what everyone refers to as God.

The fourth way is taken from the gradation to be found in things. Among beings there are some more and some less good, true, noble and the like. But more and less are predicated of different things, according as they resemble in their different ways something which is the maximum, as a thing is said to be hotter according as it more nearly resembles that which is hottest; so that there is something which is truest, something best, something noblest and, consequently, something which is uttermost being; for those things that are greatest in truth are greatest in being, as it is written in Metaph. ii. Now the maximum in any genus is the cause of all in that genus; as fire, which is the maximum heat, is the cause of all hot things. Therefore there must also be something which is to all beings the cause of their being, goodness, and every other perfection; and this we call God.

The fourth argument comes from the gradation found in things. Among beings, there are some that are more and some that are less good, true, noble, and so on. But "more" and "less" apply to different things based on how closely they resemble something that is the maximum, just as something is said to be hotter if it resembles what is hottest. Therefore, there must be something that is the truest, the best, the noblest, and, consequently, something that is the highest being; because things that are greatest in truth are also greatest in being, as stated in Metaph. ii. The maximum in any category is the cause of everything in that category; for example, fire, which has the maximum heat, causes all hot things. Thus, there must also be something that is the cause of existence, goodness, and every other perfection for all beings, and we call this God.

The fifth way is taken from the governance of the world. We see that things which lack intelligence, such as natural bodies, act for an end, and this is evident from their acting always, or nearly always, in the same way, so as to obtain the best result. Hence it is plain that not fortuitously, but designedly, do they achieve their end. Now whatever lacks intelligence cannot move towards an end, unless it be directed by some being endowed with knowledge and intelligence; as the arrow is shot to its mark by the archer. Therefore some intelligent being exists by whom all natural things are directed to their end; and this being we call God.

The fifth way is based on how the world is governed. We notice that things that lack intelligence, like natural objects, act toward a purpose. This is clear because they consistently behave in the same way to achieve the best outcome. It’s obvious that they don’t reach their goals by chance, but rather by design. Anything that lacks intelligence cannot move toward a goal unless it is directed by an intelligent being; similar to how an archer aims an arrow at a target. Therefore, there must be some intelligent being that directs all natural things toward their purpose, and we refer to this being as God.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says (Enchiridion xi): "Since God is the highest good, He would not allow any evil to exist in His works, unless His omnipotence and goodness were such as to bring good even out of evil." This is part of the infinite goodness of God, that He should allow evil to exist, and out of it produce good.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says (Enchiridion xi): "Since God is the highest good, He would not permit any evil to exist in His creations unless His all-powerful nature and goodness could bring good even from evil." This reflects God's infinite goodness, in that He allows evil to exist and can create good from it.

Reply Obj. 2: Since nature works for a determinate end under the direction of a higher agent, whatever is done by nature must needs be traced back to God, as to its first cause. So also whatever is done voluntarily must also be traced back to some higher cause other than human reason or will, since these can change or fail; for all things that are changeable and capable of defect must be traced back to an immovable and self-necessary first principle, as was shown in the body of the Article. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Since nature operates toward a specific goal under the guidance of a higher power, everything that happens in nature must ultimately be attributed to God as its primary cause. Similarly, whatever is done willingly must also be linked to a higher cause beyond human reasoning or will, because these can change or falter; everything that can be modified or has the potential for failure must be traced back to an unchanging and self-existent first principle, as was explained in the body of the Article.

QUESTION 3

OF THE SIMPLICITY OF GOD
(In Eight Articles)

OF THE SIMPLICITY OF GOD
(In Eight Articles)

When the existence of a thing has been ascertained there remains the further question of the manner of its existence, in order that we may know its essence. Now, because we cannot know what God is, but rather what He is not, we have no means for considering how God is, but rather how He is not.

When we confirm that something exists, we then need to figure out how it exists so we can understand its essence. Since we can't truly know what God is, only what He isn't, we have no way to think about how God is, only how He isn't.

Therefore, we must consider:

So, we need to think about:

(1) How He is not;

How He isn't;

(2) How He is known by us;

How we know Him;

(3) How He is named.

How he is named.

Now it can be shown how God is not, by denying Him whatever is opposed to the idea of Him, viz. composition, motion, and the like. Therefore

Now it can be shown how God is not, by denying Him whatever is opposed to the idea of Him, such as composition, motion, and the like. Therefore

(1) we must discuss His simplicity, whereby we deny composition in Him; and because whatever is simple in material things is imperfect and a part of something else, we shall discuss (2) His perfection; (3) His infinity; (4) His immutability; (5) His unity.

(1) We need to talk about His simplicity, which means we reject any idea of Him being made up of parts; and since everything simple in the physical world is flawed and part of something bigger, we will discuss (2) His perfection; (3) His infinity; (4) His unchanging nature; (5) His oneness.

Concerning His simplicity, there are eight points of inquiry:

Concerning His simplicity, there are eight areas of exploration:

(1) Whether God is a body?

(1) Is God a physical being?

(2) Whether He is composed of matter and form?

(2) Is He made up of matter and form?

(3) Whether in Him there is composition of quiddity, essence or nature, and subject?

(3) Is there a combination of essence, nature, or subject in Him?

(4) Whether He is composed of essence and existence?

(4) Is He made up of essence and existence?

(5) Whether He is composed of genus and difference?

(5) Is He made up of genus and difference?

(6) Whether He is composed of subject and accident?

(6) Is He made up of substance and attributes?

(7) Whether He is in any way composite, or wholly simple?

(7) Is He in any way made up of parts, or is He completely simple?

(8) Whether He enters into composition with other things? _______________________

(8) Does He make arrangements with other things? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 1]

Whether God Is a Body?

Is God a body?

Objection 1: It seems that God is a body. For a body is that which has the three dimensions. But Holy Scripture attributes the three dimensions to God, for it is written: "He is higher than Heaven, and what wilt thou do? He is deeper than Hell, and how wilt thou know? The measure of Him is longer than the earth and broader than the sea" (Job 11:8, 9). Therefore God is a body.

Objection 1: It seems that God has a physical form. A physical form is something that has three dimensions. But the Bible attributes three dimensions to God, as it says: "He is higher than Heaven, and what will you do? He is deeper than Hell, and how will you know? His measure is longer than the earth and wider than the sea" (Job 11:8, 9). Therefore, God has a physical form.

Obj. 2: Further, everything that has figure is a body, since figure is a quality of quantity. But God seems to have figure, for it is written: "Let us make man to our image and likeness" (Gen. 1:26). Now a figure is called an image, according to the text: "Who being the brightness of His glory and the figure," i.e. the image, "of His substance" (Heb. 1:3). Therefore God is a body.

Obj. 2: Additionally, everything that has shape is a physical body, since shape is a characteristic of size. But God appears to have shape, as it is written: "Let us make man in our image and likeness" (Gen. 1:26). Now, a shape is referred to as an image, according to the text: "Who being the brightness of His glory and the image," i.e., the likeness, "of His substance" (Heb. 1:3). Therefore, God is a physical body.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever has corporeal parts is a body. Now Scripture attributes corporeal parts to God. "Hast thou an arm like God?" (Job 40:4); and "The eyes of the Lord are upon the just" (Ps. 33:16); and "The right hand of the Lord hath wrought strength" (Ps. 117:16). Therefore God is a body.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, anything that has physical parts is a body. Now, the Scriptures attribute physical parts to God. "Do you have an arm like God?" (Job 40:4); and "The eyes of the Lord are on the righteous" (Ps. 33:16); and "The right hand of the Lord has brought strength" (Ps. 117:16). Therefore, God is a body.

Obj. 4: Further, posture belongs only to bodies. But something
which supposes posture is said of God in the Scriptures: "I saw the
Lord sitting" (Isa. 6:1), and "He standeth up to judge" (Isa. 3:13).
Therefore God is a body.

Obj. 4: Additionally, posture only applies to physical bodies. However, something that implies posture is attributed to God in the Scriptures: "I saw the Lord sitting" (Isa. 6:1), and "He stands up to judge" (Isa. 3:13). Therefore, God is a body.

Obj. 5: Further, only bodies or things corporeal can be a local term wherefrom or whereto. But in the Scriptures God is spoken of as a local term whereto, according to the words, "Come ye to Him and be enlightened" (Ps. 33:6), and as a term wherefrom: "All they that depart from Thee shall be written in the earth" (Jer. 17:13). Therefore God is a body.

Obj. 5: Additionally, only physical bodies or things can serve as a local term wherefrom or whereto. However, in the Scriptures, God is referred to as a local term whereto, as seen in the phrase, "Come to Him and be enlightened" (Ps. 33:6), and as a term wherefrom: "All those who turn away from You will be written in the dust" (Jer. 17:13). Therefore, God is a body.

On the contrary, It is written in the Gospel of St. John (John 4:24): "God is a spirit."

On the contrary, It is written in the Gospel of St. John (John 4:24): "God is spirit."

I answer that, It is absolutely true that God is not a body; and this can be shown in three ways. First, because no body is in motion unless it be put in motion, as is evident from induction. Now it has been already proved (Q. 2, A. 3), that God is the First Mover, and is Himself unmoved. Therefore it is clear that God is not a body. Secondly, because the first being must of necessity be in act, and in no way in potentiality. For although in any single thing that passes from potentiality to actuality, the potentiality is prior in time to the actuality; nevertheless, absolutely speaking, actuality is prior to potentiality; for whatever is in potentiality can be reduced into actuality only by some being in actuality. Now it has been already proved that God is the First Being. It is therefore impossible that in God there should be any potentiality. But every body is in potentiality because the continuous, as such, is divisible to infinity; it is therefore impossible that God should be a body. Thirdly, because God is the most noble of beings. Now it is impossible for a body to be the most noble of beings; for a body must be either animate or inanimate; and an animate body is manifestly nobler than any inanimate body. But an animate body is not animate precisely as body; otherwise all bodies would be animate. Therefore its animation depends upon some other thing, as our body depends for its animation on the soul. Hence that by which a body becomes animated must be nobler than the body. Therefore it is impossible that God should be a body.

I respond that, it's absolutely true that God is not a physical body; and this can be demonstrated in three ways. First, no body is in motion unless it is set in motion, as is clear from observation. It has already been established (Q. 2, A. 3) that God is the First Mover and is Himself unmoved. Therefore, it's evident that God is not a body. Second, the first being must necessarily be in action, and not in any way in potentiality. While in any single entity moving from potentiality to actuality, the potentiality comes first in time, actuality is, in absolute terms, prior to potentiality; for anything in potentiality can only become actual through something that is already actual. It's already been proven that God is the First Being. Hence, it is impossible for there to be any potentiality in God. However, every body is in potentiality because the continuous, by nature, can be divided infinitely; thus, it is impossible for God to be a body. Third, because God is the most noble of beings. It is impossible for a body to be the most noble being; as a body has to be either alive or not alive, and a living body is clearly nobler than any non-living body. Yet a living body is not alive merely as a body; otherwise, all bodies would be alive. So, its life depends on something else, just as our body relies on the soul for its animation. Therefore, that which animates a body must be nobler than the body itself. Thus, it is impossible for God to be a body.

Reply Obj. 1: As we have said above (Q. 1, A. 9), Holy Writ puts before us spiritual and divine things under the comparison of corporeal things. Hence, when it attributes to God the three dimensions under the comparison of corporeal quantity, it implies His virtual quantity; thus, by depth, it signifies His power of knowing hidden things; by height, the transcendence of His excelling power; by length, the duration of His existence; by breadth, His act of love for all. Or, as says Dionysius (Div. Nom. ix), by the depth of God is meant the incomprehensibility of His essence; by length, the procession of His all-pervading power; by breadth, His overspreading all things, inasmuch as all things lie under His protection.

Reply Obj. 1: As we mentioned earlier (Q. 1, A. 9), the Scriptures present spiritual and divine matters by comparing them to physical things. Therefore, when it describes God with three dimensions in terms of physical size, it means His spiritual stature; so, depth represents His ability to know hidden things; height refers to the greatness of His supreme power; length indicates the duration of His existence; and breadth symbolizes His love for everyone. Or, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. ix), the depth of God signifies the incomprehensibility of His essence; length refers to the outflow of His all-encompassing power; and breadth represents His encompassing protection over all things.

Reply Obj. 2: Man is said to be after the image of God, not as regards his body, but as regards that whereby he excels other animals. Hence, when it is said, "Let us make man to our image and likeness", it is added, "And let him have dominion over the fishes of the sea" (Gen. 1:26). Now man excels all animals by his reason and intelligence; hence it is according to his intelligence and reason, which are incorporeal, that man is said to be according to the image of God.

Reply Obj. 2: Humans are considered to be made in the image of God, not in terms of their physical form, but in what sets them apart from other animals. So, when it says, "Let us make man in our image and likeness," it's added, "And let him have dominion over the fishes of the sea" (Gen. 1:26). Humans surpass all animals through their reasoning and intelligence; therefore, it is through their intelligence and reasoning, which are non-physical, that humans are said to reflect the image of God.

Reply Obj. 3: Corporeal parts are attributed to God in Scripture on account of His actions, and this is owing to a certain parallel. For instance the act of the eye is to see; hence the eye attributed to God signifies His power of seeing intellectually, not sensibly; and so on with the other parts.

Reply Obj. 3: Physical parts are assigned to God in Scripture because of His actions, reflecting a certain similarity. For example, the function of the eye is to see; therefore, the eye attributed to God represents His ability to see intellectually, not physically; and this applies to the other parts as well.

Reply Obj. 4: Whatever pertains to posture, also, is only attributed to God by some sort of parallel. He is spoken of as sitting, on account of His unchangeableness and dominion; and as standing, on account of His power of overcoming whatever withstands Him.

Reply Obj. 4: Things related to posture are also only attributed to God in a comparative way. He is described as sitting to signify His unchangeable nature and authority, and as standing to represent His ability to overcome anything that opposes Him.

Reply Obj. 5: We draw near to God by no corporeal steps, since He is everywhere, but by the affections of our soul, and by the actions of that same soul do we withdraw from Him; thus, to draw near to or to withdraw signifies merely spiritual actions based on the metaphor of local motion. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: We approach God not through physical steps, since He is everywhere, but through the feelings of our soul, and it is through the actions of that same soul that we move away from Him; therefore, to draw near to or to move away signifies only spiritual actions based on the metaphor of physical movement.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 2]

Whether God Is Composed of Matter and Form?

Whether God Is Made Up of Matter and Form?

Objection 1: It seems that God is composed of matter and form. For whatever has a soul is composed of matter and form; since the soul is the form of the body. But Scripture attributes a soul to God; for it is mentioned in Hebrews (Heb. 10:38), where God says: "But My just man liveth by faith; but if he withdraw himself, he shall not please My soul." Therefore God is composed of matter and form.

Objection 1: It seems that God is made up of matter and form. Everything that has a soul is made of matter and form because the soul is the form of the body. But the Bible gives God a soul; this is indicated in Hebrews (Heb. 10:38), where God says: "But My righteous one will live by faith; and if he shrinks back, I will not be pleased with him." Therefore, God is made up of matter and form.

Obj. 2: Further, anger, joy and the like are passions of the composite. But these are attributed to God in Scripture: "The Lord was exceeding angry with His people" (Ps. 105:40). Therefore God is composed of matter and form.

Obj. 2: Additionally, emotions like anger and joy are characteristics of a composite being. However, these emotions are ascribed to God in the Scriptures: "The Lord was very angry with His people" (Ps. 105:40). Therefore, God is made up of both matter and form.

Obj. 3: Further, matter is the principle of individualization.
But God seems to be individual, for He cannot be predicated of many.
Therefore He is composed of matter and form.

Obj. 3: Additionally, matter is the principle of individuality.
However, God appears to be individual, as He cannot be attributed to many.
Thus, He is made up of matter and form.

On the contrary, Whatever is composed of matter and form is a body; for dimensive quantity is the first property of matter. But God is not a body as proved in the preceding Article; therefore He is not composed of matter and form.

On the contrary, Anything made up of matter and form is a body; because physical size is the primary characteristic of matter. But God is not a body, as shown in the previous Article; therefore, He is not made up of matter and form.

I answer that, It is impossible that matter should exist in God. First, because matter is in potentiality. But we have shown (Q. 2, A. 3) that God is pure act, without any potentiality. Hence it is impossible that God should be composed of matter and form. Secondly, because everything composed of matter and form owes its perfection and goodness to its form; therefore its goodness is participated, inasmuch as matter participates the form. Now the first good and the best—viz. God—is not a participated good, because the essential good is prior to the participated good. Hence it is impossible that God should be composed of matter and form. Thirdly, because every agent acts by its form; hence the manner in which it has its form is the manner in which it is an agent. Therefore whatever is primarily and essentially an agent must be primarily and essentially form. Now God is the first agent, since He is the first efficient cause. He is therefore of His essence a form; and not composed of matter and form.

I answer that, it's impossible for matter to exist in God. First, because matter is potential. We've already shown (Q. 2, A. 3) that God is pure actuality, without any potentiality. Therefore, it can't be that God is made up of matter and form. Secondly, everything composed of matter and form gets its perfection and goodness from its form; this means its goodness is shared, since matter participates in the form. However, the ultimate good and the best—namely, God—is not a shared good, because essential good comes before shared good. So, it's impossible for God to be made up of matter and form. Thirdly, every agent acts through its form; thus, the way it possesses its form is how it acts as an agent. Therefore, whatever is primarily and essentially an agent must be primarily and essentially form. Now, God is the first agent, since He is the first efficient cause. Thus, by His very essence, He is form; and not composed of matter and form.

Reply Obj. 1: A soul is attributed to God because His acts resemble the acts of a soul; for, that we will anything, is due to our soul. Hence what is pleasing to His will is said to be pleasing to His soul.

Reply Obj. 1: A soul is attributed to God because His actions are similar to those of a soul; the reason we desire anything comes from our soul. Therefore, what makes Him happy is said to please His soul.

Reply Obj. 2: Anger and the like are attributed to God on account of a similitude of effect. Thus, because to punish is properly the act of an angry man, God's punishment is metaphorically spoken of as His anger.

Reply Obj. 2: Anger and similar emotions are attributed to God because of a similarity in the effects they produce. Therefore, since punishing is typically what an angry person does, God's punishment is metaphorically referred to as His anger.

Reply Obj. 3: Forms which can be received in matter are individualized by matter, which cannot be in another as in a subject since it is the first underlying subject; although form of itself, unless something else prevents it, can be received by many. But that form which cannot be received in matter, but is self-subsisting, is individualized precisely because it cannot be received in a subject; and such a form is God. Hence it does not follow that matter exists in God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Forms that can be received in matter are individualized by that matter, which cannot exist in another as a subject because it is the primary underlying subject; however, a form itself, unless something else interferes, can be received by many. But that form which cannot be received in matter, but exists on its own, is individualized specifically because it cannot be received in a subject; and such a form is God. Therefore, it does not follow that matter exists in God.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 3]

Whether God is the Same as His Essence or Nature?

Whether God is the Same as His Essence or Nature?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not the same as His essence or
nature. For nothing can be in itself. But the substance or nature of
God—i.e. the Godhead—is said to be in God. Therefore it seems that
God is not the same as His essence or nature.

Objection 1: It seems that God is not the same as His essence or
nature. For nothing can be in itself. But the substance or nature of
God—that is, the Godhead—is said to be in God. Therefore, it seems that
God is not the same as His essence or nature.

Obj. 2: Further, the effect is assimilated to its cause; for every agent produces its like. But in created things the suppositum is not identical with its nature; for a man is not the same as his humanity. Therefore God is not the same as His Godhead.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the effect is similar to its cause; every agent produces something like itself. However, in created beings, the suppositum is not the same as its nature; for a man is not identical to his humanity. Therefore, God is not identical to His Godhead.

On the contrary, It is said of God that He is life itself, and not only that He is a living thing: "I am the way, the truth, and the life" (John 14:6). Now the relation between Godhead and God is the same as the relation between life and a living thing. Therefore God is His very Godhead.

On the contrary, it is said that God is life itself, not just a living being: "I am the way, the truth, and the life" (John 14:6). The relationship between God and His essence is like the relationship between life and a living being. Therefore, God is His very essence.

I answer that, God is the same as His essence or nature. To understand this, it must be noted that in things composed of matter and form, the nature or essence must differ from the suppositum, because the essence or nature connotes only what is included in the definition of the species; as, humanity connotes all that is included in the definition of man, for it is by this that man is man, and it is this that humanity signifies, that, namely, whereby man is man. Now individual matter, with all the individualizing accidents, is not included in the definition of the species. For this particular flesh, these bones, this blackness or whiteness, etc., are not included in the definition of a man. Therefore this flesh, these bones, and the accidental qualities distinguishing this particular matter, are not included in humanity; and yet they are included in the thing which is man. Hence the thing which is a man has something more in it than has humanity. Consequently humanity and a man are not wholly identical; but humanity is taken to mean the formal part of a man, because the principles whereby a thing is defined are regarded as the formal constituent in regard to the individualizing matter. On the other hand, in things not composed of matter and form, in which individualization is not due to individual matter—that is to say, to this matter—the very forms being individualized of themselves—it is necessary the forms themselves should be subsisting supposita. Therefore suppositum and nature in them are identified. Since God then is not composed of matter and form, He must be His own Godhead, His own Life, and whatever else is thus predicated of Him.

I respond that, God is identical to His essence or nature. To grasp this, it should be understood that in things made up of matter and form, the nature or essence is distinct from the suppositum, because the essence or nature refers only to what is included in the definition of the species; for example, humanity encompasses everything that is part of the definition of man, because it is this that makes a man a man, and this is what humanity signifies—in other words, the quality that makes man, man. Now, individual matter, along with all the individual characteristics, is not part of the definition of the species. For this specific flesh, these bones, this blackness or whiteness, etc., are not included in what defines a man. Therefore, this flesh, these bones, and the accidental qualities that distinguish this particular matter are not part of humanity; yet they are included in the entity that is a man. Thus, the being that is a man has something more to it than humanity. Consequently, humanity and a man are not completely identical; rather, humanity refers to the formal aspect of a man because the principles that define a thing are seen as the formal components in relation to the individualizing matter. On the other hand, in entities that are not composed of matter and form, where individualization isn’t caused by individual matter—that is, this matter—where the forms themselves are individualized, it is essential for the forms themselves to be existing supposita. Therefore, in these cases, the suppositum and nature are the same. Since God is not made up of matter and form, He must be His own Godhead, His own Life, and anything else that is attributed to Him.

Reply Obj. 1: We can speak of simple things only as though they were like the composite things from which we derive our knowledge. Therefore in speaking of God, we use concrete nouns to signify His subsistence, because with us only those things subsist which are composite; and we use abstract nouns to signify His simplicity. In saying therefore that Godhead, or life, or the like are in God, we indicate the composite way in which our intellect understands, but not that there is any composition in God.

Reply Obj. 1: We can only discuss simple things by comparing them to the complex things we know. So, when we talk about God, we use concrete nouns to represent His existence because we only understand existing things as being composite; and we use abstract nouns to represent His simplicity. When we say that divinity, life, or similar concepts exist in God, we express the way our intellect understands them as composite, but this doesn’t mean there’s any actual composition in God.

Reply Obj. 2: The effects of God do not imitate Him perfectly, but only as far as they are able; and the imitation is here defective, precisely because what is simple and one, can only be represented by divers things; consequently, composition is accidental to them, and therefore, in them suppositum is not the same as nature. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The effects of God don't perfectly mimic Him, but only to the extent that they're capable; and the imitation is flawed here, precisely because what is simple and singular can only be represented by various things. As a result, composition is incidental to them, and therefore, in them suppositum is not the same as nature.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 4]

Whether Essence and Existence Are the Same in God?

Whether Essence and Existence Are the Same in God?

Objection 1: It seems that essence and existence are not the same in God. For if it be so, then the divine being has nothing added to it. Now being to which no addition is made is universal being which is predicated of all things. Therefore it follows that God is being in general which can be predicated of everything. But this is false: "For men gave the incommunicable name to stones and wood" (Wis. 14:21). Therefore God's existence is not His essence.

Objection 1: It seems that essence and existence are not the same in God. If they were, then the divine being wouldn't have anything added to it. Now, a being that can’t have anything added is universal being, which applies to everything. Thus, it follows that God is being in general, which can be applied to everything. But this is false: "For men gave the incommunicable name to stones and wood" (Wis. 14:21). Therefore, God's existence is not His essence.

Obj. 2: Further, we can know whether God exists as said above (Q. 2, A. 2); but we cannot know what He is. Therefore God's existence is not the same as His essence—that is, as His quiddity or nature.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, we can know whether God exists as mentioned above (Q. 2, A. 2); however, we cannot know what He is. Therefore, God's existence is not the same as His essence—that is, as His quiddity or nature.

On the contrary, Hilary says (Trin. vii): "In God existence is not an accidental quality, but subsisting truth." Therefore what subsists in God is His existence.

On the contrary, Hilary says (Trin. vii): "In God, existence is not an accidental quality, but a fundamental truth." Therefore, what exists in God is His existence.

I answer that, God is not only His own essence, as shown in the preceding article, but also His own existence. This may be shown in several ways. First, whatever a thing has besides its essence must be caused either by the constituent principles of that essence (like a property that necessarily accompanies the species—as the faculty of laughing is proper to a man—and is caused by the constituent principles of the species), or by some exterior agent—as heat is caused in water by fire. Therefore, if the existence of a thing differs from its essence, this existence must be caused either by some exterior agent or by its essential principles. Now it is impossible for a thing's existence to be caused by its essential constituent principles, for nothing can be the sufficient cause of its own existence, if its existence is caused. Therefore that thing, whose existence differs from its essence, must have its existence caused by another. But this cannot be true of God; because we call God the first efficient cause. Therefore it is impossible that in God His existence should differ from His essence. Secondly, existence is that which makes every form or nature actual; for goodness and humanity are spoken of as actual, only because they are spoken of as existing. Therefore existence must be compared to essence, if the latter is a distinct reality, as actuality to potentiality. Therefore, since in God there is no potentiality, as shown above (A. 1), it follows that in Him essence does not differ from existence. Therefore His essence is His existence. Thirdly, because, just as that which has fire, but is not itself fire, is on fire by participation; so that which has existence but is not existence, is a being by participation. But God is His own essence, as shown above (A. 3); if, therefore, He is not His own existence He will be not essential, but participated being. He will not therefore be the first being—which is absurd. Therefore God is His own existence, and not merely His own essence.

I respond that, God is not only His own essence, as shown in the previous section, but also His own existence. This can be demonstrated in several ways. First, anything that a thing has beyond its essence must be caused either by the inherent principles of that essence (like a characteristic that necessarily comes with the species—such as the ability to laugh being unique to humans—and is produced by the inherent principles of that species), or by some external agent—like heat being produced in water by fire. Therefore, if a thing's existence is different from its essence, that existence must be caused either by some external agent or by its essential principles. Now, it is impossible for a thing's existence to be caused by its essential constituent principles, because nothing can sufficiently cause its own existence if its existence is caused. Thus, a thing whose existence is different from its essence must have its existence caused by something else. However, this cannot apply to God; because we refer to God as the first efficient cause. Therefore, it is impossible for God's existence to differ from His essence. Secondly, existence is what makes every form or nature actual; goodness and humanity are referred to as actual only because they are acknowledged as existing. Therefore, existence must be compared to essence as a distinct reality, similar to actuality compared to potentiality. Since in God there is no potentiality, as shown previously (A. 1), it follows that in Him, essence does not differ from existence. Therefore, His essence is His existence. Thirdly, just as something that has fire but is not fire itself is on fire by participation, so something that has existence but is not existence itself is a being by participation. But God is His own essence, as shown above (A. 3); if He is not His own existence, He would not be essential but a participated being. He would therefore not be the first being—which is absurd. Thus, God is His own existence, and not merely His own essence.

Reply Obj. 1: A thing that has nothing added to it can be of two kinds. Either its essence precludes any addition; thus, for example, it is of the essence of an irrational animal to be without reason. Or we may understand a thing to have nothing added to it, inasmuch as its essence does not require that anything should be added to it; thus the genus animal is without reason, because it is not of the essence of animal in general to have reason; but neither is it to lack reason. And so the divine being has nothing added to it in the first sense; whereas universal being has nothing added to it in the second sense.

Reply Obj. 1: A thing that has nothing added to it can be of two kinds. Either its essence prevents any addition; for example, it is essential to an irrational animal to be without reason. Or we can understand a thing to have nothing added to it because its essence does not require anything to be added to it; for instance, the category of animal is without reason, as it is not essential for animals in general to have reason, but it’s also not essential for them to lack reason. Therefore, the divine being has nothing added to it in the first sense, while universal being has nothing added to it in the second sense.

Reply Obj. 2: "To be" can mean either of two things. It may mean the act of essence, or it may mean the composition of a proposition effected by the mind in joining a predicate to a subject. Taking "to be" in the first sense, we cannot understand God's existence nor His essence; but only in the second sense. We know that this proposition which we form about God when we say "God is," is true; and this we know from His effects (Q. 2, A. 2). ______________________

Reply Obj. 2: "To be" can mean one of two things. It may refer to the act of existence, or it may refer to the way our mind combines a predicate with a subject to form a proposition. Interpreting "to be" in the first sense, we can't grasp God's existence or essence; we can only understand it in the second sense. We know that the statement we make about God when we say "God is" is true; and we know this from His effects (Q. 2, A. 2).

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 5]

Whether God Is Contained in a Genus?

Whether God Falls Under a Category?

Objection 1: It seems that God is contained in a genus. For a substance is a being that subsists of itself. But this is especially true of God. Therefore God is in a genus of substance.

Objection 1: It seems that God fits into a category. A substance is something that exists on its own. But this is especially true of God. Therefore, God belongs to the category of substance.

Obj. 2: Further, nothing can be measured save by something of its
own genus; as length is measured by length and numbers by number. But
God is the measure of all substances, as the Commentator shows
(Metaph. x). Therefore God is in the genus of substance.

Obj. 2: Moreover, nothing can be measured except by something of its own type; just as length is measured by length and numbers by number. However, God is the measure of all substances, as the Commentator explains (Metaph. x). Therefore, God belongs to the category of substance.

On the contrary, In the mind, genus is prior to what it contains. But nothing is prior to God either really or mentally. Therefore God is not in any genus.

On the contrary, In the mind, a category comes before what it includes. But nothing comes before God, either in reality or in thought. Therefore, God does not belong to any category.

I answer that, A thing can be in a genus in two ways; either absolutely and properly, as a species contained under a genus; or as being reducible to it, as principles and privations. For example, a point and unity are reduced to the genus of quantity, as its principles; while blindness and all other privations are reduced to the genus of habit. But in neither way is God in a genus. That He cannot be a species of any genus may be shown in three ways. First, because a species is constituted of genus and difference. Now that from which the difference constituting the species is derived, is always related to that from which the genus is derived, as actuality is related to potentiality. For animal is derived from sensitive nature, by concretion as it were, for that is animal, which has a sensitive nature. Rational being, on the other hand, is derived from intellectual nature, because that is rational, which has an intellectual nature, and intelligence is compared to sense, as actuality is to potentiality. The same argument holds good in other things. Hence since in God actuality is not added to potentiality, it is impossible that He should be in any genus as a species. Secondly, since the existence of God is His essence, if God were in any genus, He would be the genus being, because, since genus is predicated as an essential it refers to the essence of a thing. But the Philosopher has shown (Metaph. iii) that being cannot be a genus, for every genus has differences distinct from its generic essence. Now no difference can exist distinct from being; for non-being cannot be a difference. It follows then that God is not in a genus. Thirdly, because all in one genus agree in the quiddity or essence of the genus which is predicated of them as an essential, but they differ in their existence. For the existence of man and of horse is not the same; as also of this man and that man: thus in every member of a genus, existence and quiddity—i.e. essence—must differ. But in God they do not differ, as shown in the preceding article. Therefore it is plain that God is not in a genus as if He were a species. From this it is also plain that He has no genus nor difference, nor can there be any definition of Him; nor, save through His effects, a demonstration of Him: for a definition is from genus and difference; and the mean of a demonstration is a definition. That God is not in a genus, as reducible to it as its principle, is clear from this, that a principle reducible to any genus does not extend beyond that genus; as, a point is the principle of continuous quantity alone; and unity, of discontinuous quantity. But God is the principle of all being. Therefore He is not contained in any genus as its principle.

I respond that, a thing can belong to a genus in two ways: either absolutely and properly, as a species included within a genus, or as something that can be reduced to it, like principles and privations. For instance, a point and unity are considered as principles that can be reduced to the genus of quantity, while blindness and other privations fall under the genus of habit. However, God does not belong to a genus in either sense. We can demonstrate that He cannot be a species of any genus in three ways. First, a species is made up of genus and difference. The source of the difference that defines the species is always connected to that from which the genus comes, similar to how actuality relates to potentiality. For example, "animal" derives from "sensitive nature," as it is defined by having a sensitive nature. Meanwhile, "rational being" comes from "intellectual nature," since what is rational is defined by having an intellectual nature, and intelligence is compared to sense just like actuality is to potentiality. This argument applies to other matters as well. Therefore, since God's actuality is not added to potentiality, it is impossible for Him to be in any genus as a species. Secondly, since God’s existence is His essence, if God were in any genus, He would belong to the genus of being, because genus is used in relation to the essence of a thing. However, the Philosopher has demonstrated (Metaph. iii) that being cannot be a genus, as every genus has differences that are distinct from its generic essence. Yet, no difference can exist apart from being; for non-being cannot form a difference. Hence, it follows that God is not in a genus. Thirdly, all entities within a single genus agree in the quiddity or essence of that genus, which is predicated of them as an essential characteristic, but they differ in their existence. For the existence of a man and a horse is not the same, nor is that of one man compared to another: thus in every member of a genus, existence and quiddity—i.e., essence—must differ. But in God, they do not differ, as explained in the previous article. Therefore, it is clear that God is not in a genus as if He were a species. This also makes it evident that He has no genus or difference, nor can He be defined; nor can there be a demonstration of Him apart from His effects: because a definition comes from genus and difference; and the foundation of a demonstration is a definition. It is clear that God is not in a genus as reducible to it as its principle, since a principle that can be reduced to any genus does not extend beyond that genus; for instance, a point is only the principle of continuous quantity, and unity is the principle of discontinuous quantity. But God is the principle of all being. Therefore, He is not contained in any genus as its principle.

Reply Obj. 1: The word substance signifies not only what exists of itself—for existence cannot of itself be a genus, as shown in the body of the article; but, it also signifies an essence that has the property of existing in this way—namely, of existing of itself; this existence, however, is not its essence. Thus it is clear that God is not in the genus of substance.

Reply Obj. 1: The word substance means not just what exists by itself—since existence cannot be a category on its own, as explained in the main part of the article—but it also refers to an essence that has the characteristic of existing in this way—specifically, existing by itself; however, this existence is not its essence. So it's clear that God does not fall under the category of substance.

Reply Obj. 2: This objection turns upon proportionate measure which must be homogeneous with what is measured. Now, God is not a measure proportionate to anything. Still, He is called the measure of all things, in the sense that everything has being only according as it resembles Him. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: This objection hinges on the idea of proportionate measure, which must be consistent with what is being measured. God is not a measure that is proportional to anything. However, He is referred to as the measure of all things because everything exists only to the extent that it resembles Him.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 6]

Whether in God There Are Any Accidents?

Whether there are any accidents in God?

Objection 1: It seems that there are accidents in God. For substance cannot be an accident, as Aristotle says (Phys. i). Therefore that which is an accident in one, cannot, in another, be a substance. Thus it is proved that heat cannot be the substantial form of fire, because it is an accident in other things. But wisdom, virtue, and the like, which are accidents in us, are attributes of God. Therefore in God there are accidents.

Objection 1: It seems that there are accidents in God. For substance cannot be an accident, as Aristotle says (Phys. i). Therefore, something that is an accident in one context cannot be a substance in another. Thus, it is shown that heat cannot be the essential form of fire because it is an accident in other things. However, wisdom, virtue, and similar qualities, which are accidents in us, are attributes of God. Therefore, there are accidents in God.

Obj. 2: Further, in every genus there is a first principle. But there are many genera of accidents. If, therefore, the primal members of these genera are not in God, there will be many primal beings other than God—which is absurd.

Obj. 2: Additionally, in every category, there is a fundamental principle. However, there are many categories of accidents. Therefore, if the primary members of these categories do not exist in God, there would be many primary beings other than God—which is ridiculous.

On the contrary, Every accident is in a subject. But God cannot be a subject, for "no simple form can be a subject", as Boethius says (De Trin.). Therefore in God there cannot be any accident.

On the contrary, Every accident exists in a subject. But God cannot be a subject, for "no simple form can be a subject," as Boethius says (De Trin.). Therefore, there cannot be any accident in God.

I answer that, From all we have said, it is clear there can be no accident in God. First, because a subject is compared to its accidents as potentiality to actuality; for a subject is in some sense made actual by its accidents. But there can be no potentiality in God, as was shown (Q. 2, A. 3). Secondly, because God is His own existence; and as Boethius says (Hebdom.), although every essence may have something superadded to it, this cannot apply to absolute being: thus a heated substance can have something extraneous to heat added to it, as whiteness, nevertheless absolute heat can have nothing else than heat. Thirdly, because what is essential is prior to what is accidental. Whence as God is absolute primal being, there can be in Him nothing accidental. Neither can He have any essential accidents (as the capability of laughing is an essential accident of man), because such accidents are caused by the constituent principles of the subject. Now there can be nothing caused in God, since He is the first cause. Hence it follows that there is no accident in God.

I answer that, From everything we've discussed, it's clear there can't be any accidents in God. First, because a subject is related to its accidents as potentiality is to actuality; a subject becomes actual in some way through its accidents. However, there can’t be any potentiality in God, as shown (Q. 2, A. 3). Secondly, God is His own existence; and as Boethius states (Hebdom.), while every essence might have something additional to it, this doesn’t apply to absolute being: for instance, a heated substance can have something unrelated to heat added, like whiteness, yet absolute heat can only contain heat. Thirdly, because what's essential comes before what's accidental. Therefore, since God is absolute primal being, there can be nothing accidental in Him. He also can't have any essential accidents (like the ability to laugh is an essential accident of humans), because such accidents are caused by the foundational principles of the subject. Now, there can't be anything caused in God, as He is the first cause. Thus, it follows that there are no accidents in God.

Reply Obj. 1: Virtue and wisdom are not predicated of God and of us univocally. Hence it does not follow that there are accidents in God as there are in us.

Reply Obj. 1: Virtue and wisdom are not defined the same way for God as they are for us. Therefore, it doesn’t mean that there are accidents in God like there are in us.

Reply Obj. 2: Since substance is prior to its accidents, the principles of accidents are reducible to the principles of the substance as to that which is prior; although God is not first as if contained in the genus of substance; yet He is first in respect to all being, outside of every genus. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Since substance comes before its properties, the principles of properties can be traced back to the principles of the substance, which is primary; although God isn’t considered first in the category of substance, He is first in relation to all existence, beyond any category.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 7]

Whether God Is Altogether Simple?

Is God Completely Simple?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not altogether simple. For whatever is from God must imitate Him. Thus from the first being are all beings; and from the first good is all good. But in the things which God has made, nothing is altogether simple. Therefore neither is God altogether simple.

Objection 1: It looks like God is not completely simple. Everything that comes from God should reflect Him. So from the first being comes all beings; and from the first good comes all good. However, in the things that God has created, nothing is completely simple. Therefore, neither is God completely simple.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is best must be attributed to God. But with us that which is composite is better than that which is simple; thus, chemical compounds are better than simple elements, and animals than the parts that compose them. Therefore it cannot be said that God is altogether simple.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, everything that is best must be credited to God. However, for us, what is made up of parts is better than what is simple; for instance, chemical compounds are better than simple elements, and animals are better than the individual parts that make them up. Therefore, we cannot say that God is completely simple.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 6,7): "God is truly and absolutely simple."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 6,7): "God is truly and completely simple."

I answer that, The absolute simplicity of God may be shown in many ways. First, from the previous articles of this question. For there is neither composition of quantitative parts in God, since He is not a body; nor composition of matter and form; nor does His nature differ from His suppositum; nor His essence from His existence; neither is there in Him composition of genus and difference, nor of subject and accident. Therefore, it is clear that God is nowise composite, but is altogether simple. Secondly, because every composite is posterior to its component parts, and is dependent on them; but God is the first being, as shown above (Q. 2, A. 3). Thirdly, because every composite has a cause, for things in themselves different cannot unite unless something causes them to unite. But God is uncaused, as shown above (Q. 2, A. 3), since He is the first efficient cause. Fourthly, because in every composite there must be potentiality and actuality; but this does not apply to God; for either one of the parts actuates another, or at least all the parts are potential to the whole. Fifthly, because nothing composite can be predicated of any single one of its parts. And this is evident in a whole made up of dissimilar parts; for no part of a man is a man, nor any of the parts of the foot, a foot. But in wholes made up of similar parts, although something which is predicated of the whole may be predicated of a part (as a part of the air is air, and a part of water, water), nevertheless certain things are predicable of the whole which cannot be predicated of any of the parts; for instance, if the whole volume of water is two cubits, no part of it can be two cubits. Thus in every composite there is something which is not it itself. But, even if this could be said of whatever has a form, viz. that it has something which is not it itself, as in a white object there is something which does not belong to the essence of white; nevertheless in the form itself, there is nothing besides itself. And so, since God is absolute form, or rather absolute being, He can be in no way composite. Hilary implies this argument, when he says (De Trin. vii): "God, Who is strength, is not made up of things that are weak; nor is He Who is light, composed of things that are dim."

I answer that, God's absolute simplicity can be demonstrated in several ways. First, from the previous points we've discussed. There is no combination of parts in God, as He is not a body; nor is there a combination of matter and form; His nature does not differ from His suppositum; His essence is the same as His existence; and there is no combination of genus and difference, or of subject and accident in Him. Therefore, it's clear that God is not composite at all, but purely simple. Second, every composite entity is dependent on its parts and comes after them; however, God is the first being, as we've shown (Q. 2, A. 3). Third, every composite has a cause, because different things can't unite unless something causes them to do so. But God is uncaused, as established earlier (Q. 2, A. 3), since He is the first efficient cause. Fourth, in any composite, there must be potentiality and actuality; but this doesn't apply to God; either one part actualizes another, or all parts are potential to the whole. Fifth, nothing composite can apply to any one of its parts. This is clear in a whole made of different parts; for instance, no part of a man is a man, nor is any part of a foot a foot. However, in wholes made of similar parts, while something that applies to the whole can also apply to a part (like a part of air is air, and a part of water is water), certain characteristics can apply to the whole that cannot apply to the individual parts; for example, if the entire volume of water is two cubits, no part of it can also be two cubits. Thus, in every composite, there is something that is not itself. Even if we could say this about anything with form—that it has something which is not itself, like in a white object there is something that doesn't belong to the essence of white—nevertheless, within the form itself, there is nothing besides itself. And so, since God is absolute form, or rather absolute being, He cannot be composite in any way. Hilary points out this argument when he says (De Trin. vii): "God, Who is strength, is not made up of things that are weak; nor is He Who is light, composed of things that are dim."

Reply Obj. 1: Whatever is from God imitates Him, as caused things imitate the first cause. But it is of the essence of a thing to be in some sort composite; because at least its existence differs from its essence, as will be shown hereafter, (Q. 4, A. 3).

Reply Obj. 1: Everything that comes from God reflects Him, just as created things reflect the original cause. However, by its very nature, a thing is somewhat composite because its existence is distinct from its essence, as will be explained later, (Q. 4, A. 3).

Reply Obj. 2: With us composite things are better than simple things, because the perfections of created goodness cannot be found in one simple thing, but in many things. But the perfection of divine goodness is found in one simple thing (QQ. 4, A. 1, and 6, A. 2). _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: For us, complex things are better than simple things because the qualities of created goodness can't be found in just one simple thing but in many things. However, the perfection of divine goodness is found in one simple thing (QQ. 4, A. 1, and 6, A. 2).

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 3, Art. 8]

Whether God Enters into the Composition of Other Things?

Whether God is Part of the Composition of Other Things?

Objection 1: It seems that God enters into the composition of other things, for Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. iv): "The being of all things is that which is above being—the Godhead." But the being of all things enters into the composition of everything. Therefore God enters into the composition of other things.

Objection 1: It seems that God is part of other things, for Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. iv): "The existence of all things is that which is beyond existence—the Godhead." But the existence of all things is included in the makeup of everything. Therefore, God is part of other things.

Obj. 2: Further, God is a form; for Augustine says (De Verb. Dom. [Serm. xxxviii]) that, "the word of God, which is God, is an uncreated form." But a form is part of a compound. Therefore God is part of some compound.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, God is a form; for Augustine states (De Verb. Dom. [Serm. xxxviii]) that, "the word of God, which is God, is an uncreated form." But a form is part of a compound. Therefore, God is part of some compound.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever things exist, in no way differing from each other, are the same. But God and primary matter exist, and in no way differ from each other. Therefore they are absolutely the same. But primary matter enters into the composition things. Therefore also does God. Proof of the minor—whatever things differ, they differ by some differences, and therefore must be composite. But God and primary matter are altogether simple. Therefore they nowise differ from each other.

Obj. 3: Additionally, all things that exist and are completely identical are the same. However, God and primary matter exist and do not differ from each other at all. Therefore, they are completely the same. Since primary matter is part of composite things, so is God. Evidence for the second statement: all things that differ do so because of some differences, which means they must be composite. But God and primary matter are entirely simple. Hence, they do not differ from each other at all.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ii): "There can be no touching Him," i.e. God, "nor any other union with Him by mingling part with part."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ii): "There can be no touching Him," i.e. God, "nor any other union with Him by mixing part with part."

Further, the first cause rules all things without commingling with them, as the Philosopher says (De Causis).

Further, the first cause governs everything without mixing with them, as the Philosopher says (De Causis).

I answer that, On this point there have been three errors. Some have affirmed that God is the world-soul, as is clear from Augustine (De Civ. Dei vii, 6). This is practically the same as the opinion of those who assert that God is the soul of the highest heaven. Again, others have said that God is the formal principle of all things; and this was the theory of the Almaricians. The third error is that of David of Dinant, who most absurdly taught that God was primary matter. Now all these contain manifest untruth; since it is not possible for God to enter into the composition of anything, either as a formal or a material principle. First, because God is the first efficient cause. Now the efficient cause is not identical numerically with the form of the thing caused, but only specifically: for man begets man. But primary matter can be neither numerically nor specifically identical with an efficient cause; for the former is merely potential, while the latter is actual. Secondly, because, since God is the first efficient cause, to act belongs to Him primarily and essentially. But that which enters into composition with anything does not act primarily and essentially, but rather the composite so acts; for the hand does not act, but the man by his hand; and, fire warms by its heat. Hence God cannot be part of a compound. Thirdly, because no part of a compound can be absolutely primal among beings—not even matter, nor form, though they are the primal parts of every compound. For matter is merely potential; and potentiality is absolutely posterior to actuality, as is clear from the foregoing (Q. 3, A. 1): while a form which is part of a compound is a participated form; and as that which participates is posterior to that which is essential, so likewise is that which is participated; as fire in ignited objects is posterior to fire that is essentially such. Now it has been proved that God is absolutely primal being (Q. 2, A. 3).

I respond that, There have been three errors on this matter. Some have claimed that God is the world-soul, as Augustine clearly states (De Civ. Dei vii, 6). This is almost the same as the view of those who say that God is the soul of the highest heaven. Others have argued that God is the formal principle of all things, which was the belief of the Almaricians. The third error comes from David of Dinant, who absurdly taught that God was primary matter. All of these views contain obvious falsehoods; it is impossible for God to be a part of anything, whether as a formal or a material principle. First, because God is the first efficient cause. The efficient cause is not the same numerically as the form of the thing caused, but only in type: for a man produces a man. However, primary matter can neither be numerically nor specifically the same as an efficient cause; the former is merely potential, while the latter is actual. Second, because since God is the first efficient cause, action belongs to Him primarily and essentially. But what combines with anything does not act primarily and essentially; rather, the whole does that acting; for the hand does not act on its own, but the man acts by means of his hand; and fire warms through its heat. Therefore, God cannot be part of a compound. Third, because no part of a compound can be absolutely primal among beings—not even matter or form, although they are the fundamental parts of every compound. For matter is merely potential; and potentiality is always posterior to actuality, as has been established (Q. 3, A. 1): while a form that is part of a compound is a participated form; and since what participates is further down the hierarchy than what is essential, so too is that which is participated; as fire in ignited objects is secondary to fire that is fundamentally fire. Now it has been demonstrated that God is absolutely the primal being (Q. 2, A. 3).

Reply Obj. 1: The Godhead is called the being of all things, as their efficient and exemplar cause, but not as being their essence.

Reply Obj. 1: The Godhead is referred to as the source of all things, serving as their effective and ideal cause, but not as their essence.

Reply Obj. 2: The Word is an exemplar form; but not a form that is part of a compound.

Reply Obj. 2: The Word is a model form; however, it is not a form that is part of a compound.

Reply Obj. 3: Simple things do not differ by added differences—for this is the property of compounds. Thus man and horse differ by their differences, rational and irrational; which differences, however, do not differ from each other by other differences. Hence, to be quite accurate, it is better to say that they are, not different, but diverse. Hence, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. x), "things which are diverse are absolutely distinct, but things which are different differ by something." Therefore, strictly speaking, primary matter and God do not differ, but are by their very being, diverse. Hence it does not follow they are the same. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Simple things don’t differ from each other by added differences—this is a characteristic of compounds. So, man and horse are different because of their qualities, rational and irrational; however, those differences don’t vary from one another by other differences. Therefore, to be precise, it’s better to say they are not different, but diverse. According to the Philosopher (Metaph. x), "things that are diverse are completely distinct, but things that are different differ by something." So, when it comes down to it, primary matter and God don’t differ, but are diverse by their very nature. This means they are not the same.

QUESTION 4

THE PERFECTION OF GOD
(In Three Articles)

THE PERFECTION OF GOD
(In Three Articles)

Having considered the divine simplicity, we treat next of God's perfection. Now because everything in so far as it is perfect is called good, we shall speak first of the divine perfection; secondly of the divine goodness.

Having thought about divine simplicity, we’ll now discuss God’s perfection. Since everything that is perfect is considered good, we’ll first talk about divine perfection and then about divine goodness.

Concerning the first there are three points of inquiry:

Concerning the first, there are three things to look into:

(1) Whether God is perfect?

Is God perfect?

(2) Whether God is perfect universally, as having in Himself the perfections of all things?

(2) Is God universally perfect, possessing all the qualities of everything?

(3) Whether creatures can be said to be like God? _______________________

(3) Can we say that creatures are similar to God? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 4, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 4, Art. 1]

Whether God is Perfect?

Is God perfect?

Objection 1: It seems that perfection does not belong to God. For we say a thing is perfect if it is completely made. But it does not befit God to be made. Therefore He is not perfect.

Objection 1: It seems that perfection does not belong to God. We say that something is perfect if it is fully created. But it is not appropriate for God to be created. Therefore, He is not perfect.

Obj. 2: Further, God is the first beginning of things. But the beginnings of things seem to be imperfect, as seed is the beginning of animal and vegetable life. Therefore God is imperfect.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, God is the ultimate origin of all things. However, the origins of things appear to be imperfect, just as a seed is the starting point for both animal and plant life. Therefore, God is imperfect.

Obj. 3: Further, as shown above (Q. 3, A. 4), God's essence is existence. But existence seems most imperfect, since it is most universal and receptive of all modification. Therefore God is imperfect.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, as mentioned earlier (Q. 3, A. 4), God's essence is existence. However, existence appears to be the most imperfect, as it is the most universal and open to all forms of change. Therefore, God is imperfect.

On the contrary, It is written: "Be you perfect as also your heavenly Father is perfect" (Matt. 5:48).

On the contrary, it is written: "Be perfect, just as your heavenly Father is perfect" (Matt. 5:48).

I answer that, As the Philosopher relates (Metaph. xii), some ancient philosophers, namely, the Pythagoreans and Leucippus, did not predicate "best" and "most perfect" of the first principle. The reason was that the ancient philosophers considered only a material principle; and a material principle is most imperfect. For since matter as such is merely potential, the first material principle must be simply potential, and thus most imperfect. Now God is the first principle, not material, but in the order of efficient cause, which must be most perfect. For just as matter, as such, is merely potential, an agent, as such, is in the state of actuality. Hence, the first active principle must needs be most actual, and therefore most perfect; for a thing is perfect in proportion to its state of actuality, because we call that perfect which lacks nothing of the mode of its perfection.

I answer that, As the Philosopher mentions (Metaph. xii), some ancient philosophers, specifically the Pythagoreans and Leucippus, did not call the first principle "best" or "most perfect." This was because they focused solely on a material principle, which is inherently incomplete. Since matter is merely potential, the first material principle must also be purely potential, making it very imperfect. However, God is the first principle, not material, but in the context of efficient cause, which must be the most perfect. Just as matter is only potential, an agent is fully actual. Therefore, the first active principle must be fully actual, and thus most perfect; a thing is considered perfect based on its level of actuality, since we define perfection as lacking nothing in terms of its completeness.

Reply Obj. 1: As Gregory says (Moral. v, 26,29): "Though our lips can only stammer, we yet chant the high things of God." For that which is not made is improperly called perfect. Nevertheless because created things are then called perfect, when from potentiality they are brought into actuality, this word "perfect" signifies whatever is not wanting in actuality, whether this be by way of perfection or not.

Reply Obj. 1: As Gregory says (Moral. v, 26,29): "Even though our lips may only stumble, we still proclaim the greatness of God." What isn't made can't be rightly called perfect. However, since created things are considered perfect when they move from potential to actual, the term "perfect" refers to anything that lacks nothing in its actual state, whether it meets the standard of perfection or not.

Reply Obj. 2: The material principle which with us is found to be imperfect, cannot be absolutely primal; but must be preceded by something perfect. For seed, though it be the principle of animal life reproduced through seed, has previous to it, the animal or plant from which is came. Because, previous to that which is potential, must be that which is actual; since a potential being can only be reduced into act by some being already actual.

Reply Obj. 2: The fundamental principle that we see as imperfect cannot be absolutely primary; it must be preceded by something perfect. For instance, a seed, even though it serves as the basis for animal life reproduced through that seed, comes from an existing animal or plant. Because before something that is potential, there must be something that is actual; since a potential being can only be brought into action by something that already exists.

Reply Obj. 3: Existence is the most perfect of all things, for it is compared to all things as that by which they are made actual; for nothing has actuality except so far as it exists. Hence existence is that which actuates all things, even their forms. Therefore it is not compared to other things as the receiver is to the received; but rather as the received to the receiver. When therefore I speak of the existence of man, or horse, or anything else, existence is considered a formal principle, and as something received; and not as that which exists. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Existence is the highest quality of all things because it's what gives them their reality; nothing has realness unless it exists. Therefore, existence is what brings all things into being, including their forms. So, it's not compared to other things like something that receives is compared to what it receives; instead, it's like something that is received compared to what receives it. When I talk about the existence of a person, a horse, or anything else, existence is seen as a formal principle and as something that is received, not just as something that exists.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 4, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 4, Art. 2]

Whether the Perfections of All Things Are in God?

Whether the Perfections of All Things Are in God?

Objection 1: It seems that the perfections of all things are not in God. For God is simple, as shown above (Q. 3, A. 7); whereas the perfections of things are many and diverse. Therefore the perfections of all things are not in God.

Objection 1: It appears that the perfections of all things are not in God. For God is simple, as demonstrated above (Q. 3, A. 7); whereas the perfections of things are numerous and varied. Therefore, the perfections of all things are not in God.

Obj. 2: Further, opposites cannot coexist. Now the perfections of things are opposed to each other, for each thing is perfected by its specific difference. But the differences by which genera are divided, and species constituted, are opposed to each other. Therefore because opposites cannot coexist in the same subject, it seems that the perfections of all things are not in God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, opposites cannot exist together. The qualities of things are in opposition to each other since each thing is made complete by its unique characteristics. The differences that separate categories and define species are mutually exclusive. Therefore, because opposites cannot exist in the same subject, it seems that the qualities of all things do not exist in God.

Obj. 3: Further, a living thing is more perfect than what merely exists; and an intelligent thing than what merely lives. Therefore life is more perfect than existence; and knowledge than life. But the essence of God is existence itself. Therefore He has not the perfections of life, and knowledge, and other similar perfections.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, a living thing is more complete than something that simply exists; and an intelligent being is more complete than something that just lives. Therefore, life is more complete than existence, and knowledge is more complete than life. However, the essence of God is existence itself. Thus, He does not possess the qualities of life, knowledge, or similar attributes.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. v) that "God in His one existence prepossesses all things."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. v) that "God in His one existence encompasses all things."

I answer that, All created perfections are in God. Hence He is spoken of as universally perfect, because He lacks not (says the Commentator, Metaph. v) any excellence which may be found in any genus. This may be seen from two considerations. First, because whatever perfection exists in an effect must be found in the effective cause: either in the same formality, if it is a univocal agent—as when man reproduces man; or in a more eminent degree, if it is an equivocal agent—thus in the sun is the likeness of whatever is generated by the sun's power. Now it is plain that the effect pre-exists virtually in the efficient cause: and although to pre-exist in the potentiality of a material cause is to pre-exist in a more imperfect way, since matter as such is imperfect, and an agent as such is perfect; still to pre-exist virtually in the efficient cause is to pre-exist not in a more imperfect, but in a more perfect way. Since therefore God is the first effective cause of things, the perfections of all things must pre-exist in God in a more eminent way. Dionysius implies the same line of argument by saying of God (Div. Nom. v): "It is not that He is this and not that, but that He is all, as the cause of all." Secondly, from what has been already proved, God is existence itself, of itself subsistent (Q. 3, A. 4). Consequently, He must contain within Himself the whole perfection of being. For it is clear that if some hot thing has not the whole perfection of heat, this is because heat is not participated in its full perfection; but if this heat were self-subsisting, nothing of the virtue of heat would be wanting to it. Since therefore God is subsisting being itself, nothing of the perfection of being can be wanting to Him. Now all created perfections are included in the perfection of being; for things are perfect, precisely so far as they have being after some fashion. It follows therefore that the perfection of no one thing is wanting to God. This line of argument, too, is implied by Dionysius (Div. Nom. v), when he says that, "God exists not in any single mode, but embraces all being within Himself, absolutely, without limitation, uniformly;" and afterwards he adds that, "He is the very existence to subsisting things."

I answer that, all created perfections exist in God. That's why He is described as universally perfect, since He doesn't lack any excellence that can be found in any category (as the Commentator points out, Metaph. v). This can be understood from two points. First, whatever perfection is present in an effect must also be found in the cause: either in the same way if it's a univocal agent—like when a human produces another human; or in a more elevated way if it's an equivocal agent—like the sun containing the likeness of everything generated by its power. It's clear that the effect exists virtually within the efficient cause: even though pre-existing in the potentiality of a material cause is a more imperfect existence, since matter itself is imperfect, while an agent is perfect; nonetheless, pre-existing virtually in the efficient cause is a more perfect existence. Therefore, since God is the first effective cause of things, the perfections of all things must pre-exist in God in a more eminent way. Dionysius suggests a similar argument when he says of God (Div. Nom. v): "It’s not that He is this and not that, but rather that He is all, as the cause of all." Secondly, based on what has already been demonstrated, God is existence itself, subsisting of His own accord (Q. 3, A. 4). Consequently, He must contain the entire perfection of being within Himself. It’s clear that if something hot doesn’t have the complete perfection of heat, it’s because heat is not fully participated. However, if that heat were self-subsisting, it would have all the qualities of heat. Since God is the very essence of being, nothing can be lacking in His perfection. All created perfections are encompassed within the perfection of being; after all, things are perfect to the extent that they possess being in any form. Thus, it follows that God lacks no perfection of any single thing. This reasoning is also reflected in Dionysius's claim (Div. Nom. v) that "God does not exist in any single way, but contains all being within Himself, absolutely, without limitation, uniformly;" and he later adds that "He is the very existence for all things that exist."

Reply Obj. 1: Even as the sun (as Dionysius remarks, (Div. Nom. v)), while remaining one and shining uniformly, contains within itself first and uniformly the substances of sensible things, and many and diverse qualities; a fortiori should all things in a kind of natural unity pre-exist in the cause of all things; and thus things diverse and in themselves opposed to each other, pre-exist in God as one, without injury to His simplicity. This suffices for the Reply to the Second Objection.

Reply Obj. 1: Just as the sun (as Dionysius notes, (Div. Nom. v)), while being one and shining consistently, holds within it the fundamental and uniform substances of tangible things, along with many different qualities; a fortiori all things should naturally exist in a kind of unity in the cause of all things; therefore, things that are diverse and even opposed to one another pre-exist in God as one, without compromising His simplicity. This is enough for the Reply to the Second Objection.

Reply Obj. 3: The same Dionysius says (Div. Nom. v) that, although existence is more perfect than life, and life than wisdom, if they are considered as distinguished in idea; nevertheless, a living thing is more perfect than what merely exists, because living things also exist and intelligent things both exist and live. Although therefore existence does not include life and wisdom, because that which participates in existence need not participate in every mode of existence; nevertheless God's existence includes in itself life and wisdom, because nothing of the perfection of being can be wanting to Him who is subsisting being itself. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The same Dionysius states (Div. Nom. v) that, although existence is a higher form of perfection than life, and life is higher than wisdom when viewed as separate concepts; still, a living being is more perfect than something that simply exists, because living things also exist, and intelligent beings both exist and live. Therefore, while existence doesn’t encompass life and wisdom, since something that has existence doesn’t have to possess every form of existence; God's existence, however, includes both life and wisdom, because nothing that contributes to the perfection of being can be lacking in Him who is the essence of being itself.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 4, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 4, Art. 3]

Whether Any Creature Can Be Like God?

Whether Any Creature Can Be Like God?

Objection 1: It seems that no creature can be like God. For it is written (Ps. 85:8): "There is none among the gods like unto Thee, O Lord." But of all creatures the most excellent are those which are called by participation gods. Therefore still less can other creatures be said to be like God.

Objection 1: No creature seems capable of being like God. It is written (Ps. 85:8): "There is none among the gods like You, O Lord." Among all creatures, the most exceptional are those referred to as gods by participation. Therefore, even less can other creatures be considered like God.

Obj. 2: Further, likeness implies comparison. But there can be no comparison between things in a different genus. Therefore neither can there be any likeness. Thus we do not say that sweetness is like whiteness. But no creature is in the same genus as God: since God is no genus, as shown above (Q. 3, A. 5). Therefore no creature is like God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, likeness involves comparison. But there can't be any comparison between things in different categories. So, there can’t be any likeness either. That's why we don’t say that sweetness is like whiteness. No creature belongs to the same category as God, since God is not part of any category, as shown above (Q. 3, A. 5). Therefore, no creature is like God.

Obj. 3: Further, we speak of those things as like which agree in form. But nothing can agree with God in form; for, save in God alone, essence and existence differ. Therefore no creature can be like to God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, we refer to things as similar when they share the same form. However, nothing can share a form with God; because, except for God alone, essence and existence are different. Therefore, no creature can be like God.

Obj. 4: Further, among like things there is mutual likeness; for like is like to like. If therefore any creature is like God, God will be like some creature, which is against what is said by Isaias: "To whom have you likened God?" (Isa. 40:18).

Obj. 4: Furthermore, among similar things, there is mutual similarity; for similar things are similar to each other. Therefore, if any creature is similar to God, God would be similar to some creature, which goes against what Isaias says: "To whom have you likened God?" (Isa. 40:18).

On the contrary, It is written: "Let us make man to our image and likeness" (Gen. 1:26), and: "When He shall appear we shall be like to Him" (1 John 3:2).

On the contrary, It is written: "Let us make man in our image and likeness" (Gen. 1:26), and: "When He appears, we shall be like Him" (1 John 3:2).

I answer that, Since likeness is based upon agreement or communication in form, it varies according to the many modes of communication in form. Some things are said to be like, which communicate in the same form according to the same formality, and according to the same mode; and these are said to be not merely like, but equal in their likeness; as two things equally white are said to be alike in whiteness; and this is the most perfect likeness. In another way, we speak of things as alike which communicate in form according to the same formality, though not according to the same measure, but according to more or less, as something less white is said to be like another thing more white; and this is imperfect likeness. In a third way some things are said to be alike which communicate in the same form, but not according to the same formality; as we see in non-univocal agents. For since every agent reproduces itself so far as it is an agent, and everything acts according to the manner of its form, the effect must in some way resemble the form of the agent. If therefore the agent is contained in the same species as its effect, there will be a likeness in form between that which makes and that which is made, according to the same formality of the species; as man reproduces man. If, however, the agent and its effect are not contained in the same species, there will be a likeness, but not according to the formality of the same species; as things generated by the sun's heat may be in some sort spoken of as like the sun, not as though they received the form of the sun in its specific likeness, but in its generic likeness. Therefore if there is an agent not contained in any genus, its effect will still more distantly reproduce the form of the agent, not, that is, so as to participate in the likeness of the agent's form according to the same specific or generic formality, but only according to some sort of analogy; as existence is common to all. In this way all created things, so far as they are beings, are like God as the first and universal principle of all being.

I respond that, Since likeness depends on agreement or communication in form, it varies with the different ways of expressing that form. Some things are said to be alike because they express the same form in the same way, and these are not just similar, but equal in their similarity; for example, two things that are equally white are said to be alike in whiteness, which represents the most perfect likeness. In another sense, we describe things as alike that express their forms in the same way but not to the same degree; for instance, something less white can be considered similar to something whiter, and this represents an imperfect likeness. In a third sense, things can be seen as alike if they express the same form but not according to the same way of being; this can be observed in agents that are not univocal. Each agent reproduces itself to some extent as an agent, and everything acts according to the way its form operates, so any effect must somehow resemble the form of its agent. If the agent and its effect are in the same species, there will be a likeness in form between creator and creation, according to the same formal species; just as a man produces another man. However, if the agent and its effect belong to different species, there will still be a likeness, but not in the same specific way; for example, things created by the sun's heat can be described as similar to the sun, not because they share the sun's specific form, but in a more general sense. Thus, if there is an agent not categorized in any genus, its effect will resemble the agent's form even more distantly, not in terms of sharing the same specific or generic formality, but only in some kind of analogy; for existence is something that all share. In this way, all created things, as beings, are like God, who is the first and universal principle of all being.

Reply Obj. 1: As Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ix), when Holy Writ declares that nothing is like God, it does not mean to deny all likeness to Him. For, "the same things can be like and unlike to God: like, according as they imitate Him, as far as He, Who is not perfectly imitable, can be imitated; unlike according as they fall short of their cause," not merely in intensity and remission, as that which is less white falls short of that which is more white; but because they are not in agreement, specifically or generically.

Reply Obj. 1: As Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ix), when the Scriptures state that nothing is like God, it doesn't mean to deny any resemblance to Him. Because "the same things can be both like and unlike God: they are like Him to the extent that they imitate Him, as much as He, who cannot be perfectly imitated, can be imitated; they are unlike Him to the extent that they fall short of their source," not just in degree, like how something that is less white is not as white as something that is whiter; but because they do not correspond, either specifically or generically.

Reply Obj. 2: God is not related to creatures as though belonging to a different genus, but as transcending every genus, and as the principle of all genera.

Reply Obj. 2: God isn't related to creatures as if belonging to a different category, but as something that transcends all categories and is the source of all categories.

Reply Obj. 3: Likeness of creatures to God is not affirmed on account of agreement in form according to the formality of the same genus or species, but solely according to analogy, inasmuch as God is essential being, whereas other things are beings by participation.

Reply Obj. 3: The similarity of creatures to God isn't claimed based on having the same form within the same genus or species, but only through analogy, since God is the essential being, while other things exist as beings by participation.

Reply Obj. 4: Although it may be admitted that creatures are in some sort like God, it must nowise be admitted that God is like creatures; because, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ix): "A mutual likeness may be found between things of the same order, but not between a cause and that which is caused." For, we say that a statue is like a man, but not conversely; so also a creature can be spoken of as in some sort like God; but not that God is like a creature. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: While we can agree that creatures are somewhat similar to God, we cannot say that God is similar to creatures; because, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. ix): "You can find a mutual likeness between things of the same kind, but not between a cause and what it causes." For example, we say a statue resembles a man, but not the other way around; similarly, we can describe a creature as being somewhat like God, but not the reverse—that God is like a creature.

QUESTION 5

OF GOODNESS IN GENERAL
(In Six Articles)

OF GOODNESS IN GENERAL
(In Six Articles)

We next consider goodness: First, goodness in general. Secondly, the goodness of God.

We now look at goodness: First, goodness in general. Second, the goodness of God.

Under the first head there are six points of inquiry:

Under the first topic, there are six points to discuss:

(1) Whether goodness and being are the same really?

(1) Are goodness and being really the same?

(2) Granted that they differ only in idea, which is prior in thought?

(2) Assuming they only differ in concept, which one comes first in thought?

(3) Granted that being is prior, whether every being is good?

(3) Assuming that existence comes first, is every being good?

(4) To what cause should goodness be reduced?

(4) What should goodness be lowered to?

(5) Whether goodness consists in mode, species, and order?

(5) Does goodness depend on its form, type, and arrangement?

(6) Whether goodness is divided into the virtuous, the useful, and the pleasant? _______________________

(6) Is goodness categorized into the virtuous, the useful, and the pleasant? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 5, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 5, Art. 1]

Whether Goodness Differs Really from Being?

Whether goodness is truly different from being?

Objection 1: It seems that goodness differs really from being. For Boethius says (De Hebdom.): "I perceive that in nature the fact that things are good is one thing: that they are is another." Therefore goodness and being really differ.

Objection 1: It seems that goodness is actually different from being. Boethius says (De Hebdom.): "I notice that in nature the fact that things are good is one thing: that they exist is another." Therefore, goodness and being are truly different.

Obj. 2: Further, nothing can be its own form. "But that is called good which has the form of being," according to the commentary on De Causis. Therefore goodness differs really from being.

Obj. 2: Additionally, nothing can be its own form. "But what is considered good is that which has the form of being," according to the commentary on De Causis. Therefore, goodness is fundamentally different from being.

Obj. 3: Further, goodness can be more or less. But being cannot be more or less. Therefore goodness differs really from being.

Obj. 3: Also, goodness can exist in varying degrees. But being cannot. Therefore, goodness is fundamentally different from being.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. i, 42) that, "inasmuch as we exist we are good."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. i, 42) that, "as long as we exist, we are good."

I answer that, Goodness and being are really the same, and differ only in idea; which is clear from the following argument. The essence of goodness consists in this, that it is in some way desirable. Hence the Philosopher says (Ethic. i): "Goodness is what all desire." Now it is clear that a thing is desirable only in so far as it is perfect; for all desire their own perfection. But everything is perfect so far as it is actual. Therefore it is clear that a thing is perfect so far as it exists; for it is existence that makes all things actual, as is clear from the foregoing (Q. 3, A. 4; Q. 4, A. 1). Hence it is clear that goodness and being are the same really. But goodness presents the aspect of desirableness, which being does not present.

I respond that, goodness and existence are fundamentally the same and differ only in concept; this is evident from the following argument. The essence of goodness lies in its desirability. Hence, the Philosopher states (Ethic. i): "Goodness is what everyone desires." Now, it is clear that something is desirable only to the extent that it is perfect; because everyone desires their own perfection. But everything is perfect to the degree that it exists. Therefore, it is evident that something is perfect as long as it exists; for existence is what makes all things real, as shown previously (Q. 3, A. 4; Q. 4, A. 1). Thus, it's clear that goodness and existence are essentially the same. However, goodness has the quality of being desirable, which existence does not.

Reply Obj. 1: Although goodness and being are the same really, nevertheless since they differ in thought, they are not predicated of a thing absolutely in the same way. Since being properly signifies that something actually is, and actuality properly correlates to potentiality; a thing is, in consequence, said simply to have being, accordingly as it is primarily distinguished from that which is only in potentiality; and this is precisely each thing's substantial being. Hence by its substantial being, everything is said to have being simply; but by any further actuality it is said to have being relatively. Thus to be white implies relative being, for to be white does not take a thing out of simply potential being; because only a thing that actually has being can receive this mode of being. But goodness signifies perfection which is desirable; and consequently of ultimate perfection. Hence that which has ultimate perfection is said to be simply good; but that which has not the ultimate perfection it ought to have (although, in so far as it is at all actual, it has some perfection), is not said to be perfect simply nor good simply, but only relatively. In this way, therefore, viewed in its primal (i.e. substantial) being a thing is said to be simply, and to be good relatively (i.e. in so far as it has being) but viewed in its complete actuality, a thing is said to be relatively, and to be good simply. Hence the saying of Boethius (De Hebdom.), "I perceive that in nature the fact that things are good is one thing; that they are is another," is to be referred to a thing's goodness simply, and having being simply. Because, regarded in its primal actuality, a thing simply exists; and regarded in its complete actuality, it is good simply—in such sort that even in its primal actuality, it is in some sort good, and even in its complete actuality, it in some sort has being.

Reply Obj. 1: Although goodness and being are essentially the same, they differ in how we think about them, so they aren’t applied to a thing in exactly the same way. Being indicates that something actually exists, and actuality is connected to potentiality; therefore, a thing is simply said to have being, as it is primarily distinguished from what exists only in potentiality, which is the essence of each thing’s substantial being. Thus, through its substantial being, everything is said to have being in a straightforward way; however, through any additional actuality, it is said to have being in a relative sense. For instance, to be white suggests a relative existence because being white doesn’t take a thing out of pure potential existence; only a thing that actually exists can have this characteristic. But goodness signifies a perfection that is desirable; ultimately, it signifies ultimate perfection. Thus, something that has ultimate perfection is called simply good; however, something that lacks the ultimate perfection it should have (even though it may have some perfection as far as it exists) is not called perfect or good in an absolute sense, but only relatively. Therefore, when viewed in its essential (i.e., substantial) being, a thing is said to be simply, and to be good relatively (i.e., as far as it has being); but when viewed in its full actuality, a thing is said to be relatively, and to be good simply. Hence, Boethius’ statement (De Hebdom.), "I see that, in nature, the goodness of things is one thing; their existence is another," relates to a thing’s goodness simply and its being simply. Because, when considering its essential actuality, a thing simply exists; and when considering its complete actuality, it is simply good—in such a way that even in its essential actuality, it is somewhat good, and even in its complete actuality, it somewhat possesses being.

Reply Obj. 2: Goodness is a form so far as absolute goodness signifies complete actuality.

Reply Obj. 2: Goodness is a form in that absolute goodness represents total reality.

Reply Obj. 3: Again, goodness is spoken of as more or less according to a thing's superadded actuality, for example, as to knowledge or virtue. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Again, goodness is described as more or less depending on a thing's added reality, such as in the case of knowledge or virtue.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 5, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 5, Art. 2]

Whether Goodness Is Prior in Idea to Being?

Whether goodness is more fundamental in idea than being?

Objection 1: It seems that goodness is prior in idea to being. For names are arranged according to the arrangement of the things signified by the names. But Dionysius (Div. Nom. iii) assigned the first place, amongst the other names of God, to His goodness rather than to His being. Therefore in idea goodness is prior to being.

Objection 1: It appears that goodness comes before being in thought. Names are organized based on the arrangement of the things they refer to. However, Dionysius (Div. Nom. iii) gave the top spot among the other names of God to His goodness rather than to His being. Thus, in thought, goodness is prior to being.

Obj. 2: Further, that which is the more extensive is prior in idea. But goodness is more extensive than being, because, as Dionysius notes (Div. Nom. v), "goodness extends to things both existing and non-existing; whereas existence extends to existing things alone." Therefore goodness is in idea prior to being.

Obj. 2: Moreover, what is broader in scope comes first in thought. Goodness is broader than being because, as Dionysius points out (Div. Nom. v), "goodness applies to both existing and non-existing things; whereas existence applies only to things that exist." Therefore, goodness is conceptually prior to being.

Obj. 3: Further, what is the more universal is prior in idea. But goodness seems to be more universal than being, since goodness has the aspect of desirable; whereas to some non-existence is desirable; for it is said of Judas: "It were better for him, if that man had not been born" (Matt. 26:24). Therefore in idea goodness is prior to being.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, what is more universal comes first in thought. However, goodness appears to be more universal than existence, as goodness has the quality of being desirable; while for some, non-existence is desirable; as it is said about Judas: "It would have been better for him if that man had not been born" (Matt. 26:24). Therefore, in thought, goodness comes before existence.

Obj. 4: Further, not only is existence desirable, but life, knowledge, and many other things besides. Thus it seems that existence is a particular appetible, and goodness a universal appetible. Therefore, absolutely, goodness is prior in idea to being.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, not only is existence desirable, but also life, knowledge, and many other things. It appears that existence is a specific thing we want, while goodness is something we all want in general. Therefore, in absolute terms, goodness is conceptually prior to being.

On the contrary, It is said by Aristotle (De Causis) that "the first of created things is being."

On the contrary, Aristotle says (De Causis) that "the first of created things is being."

I answer that, In idea being is prior to goodness. For the meaning signified by the name of a thing is that which the mind conceives of the thing and intends by the word that stands for it. Therefore, that is prior in idea, which is first conceived by the intellect. Now the first thing conceived by the intellect is being; because everything is knowable only inasmuch as it is in actuality. Hence, being is the proper object of the intellect, and is primarily intelligible; as sound is that which is primarily audible. Therefore in idea being is prior to goodness.

I answer that, In concept, existence comes before goodness. The meaning represented by a name is what the mind understands about a thing and what it intends when it uses the word for it. So, what is first in concept is what the mind first thinks of. The first thing that the mind considers is existence; because we can only understand things to the extent that they actually exist. Therefore, being is the main focus of the mind and is primarily understandable; just as sound is primarily perceivable. So in concept, existence precedes goodness.

Reply Obj. 1: Dionysius discusses the Divine Names (Div. Nom. i, iii) as implying some causal relation in God; for we name God, as he says, from creatures, as a cause from its effects. But goodness, since it has the aspect of desirable, implies the idea of a final cause, the causality of which is first among causes, since an agent does not act except for some end; and by an agent matter is moved to its form. Hence the end is called the cause of causes. Thus goodness, as a cause, is prior to being, as is the end to the form. Therefore among the names signifying the divine causality, goodness precedes being. Again, according to the Platonists, who, through not distinguishing primary matter from privation, said that matter was non-being, goodness is more extensively participated than being; for primary matter participates in goodness as tending to it, for all seek their like; but it does not participate in being, since it is presumed to be non-being. Therefore Dionysius says that "goodness extends to non-existence" (Div. Nom. v).

Reply Obj. 1: Dionysius talks about the Divine Names (Div. Nom. i, iii) as suggesting some causal relationship in God; we refer to God, as he states, based on creatures, similar to how we view a cause in relation to its effects. However, goodness, since it represents something desirable, indicates the concept of a final cause, which is the primary cause since an agent acts only for a specific purpose; and through an agent, matter is transformed into its form. Thus, the end is considered the cause of all causes. Therefore, goodness, as a cause, precedes being, just as an end precedes a form. Consequently, among the names that indicate divine causality, goodness comes before being. Additionally, according to the Platonists, who failed to differentiate primary matter from privation, claiming that matter is non-being, goodness is more widely participated in than being; since primary matter seeks goodness as a goal, as all things strive for their likeness; but it does not partake in being, as it is assumed to be non-being. Hence, Dionysius states that "goodness extends to non-existence" (Div. Nom. v).

Reply Obj. 2: The same solution is applied to this objection. Or it may be said that goodness extends to existing and non-existing things, not so far as it can be predicated of them, but so far as it can cause them—if, indeed, by non-existence we understand not simply those things which do not exist, but those which are potential, and not actual. For goodness has the aspect of the end, in which not only actual things find their completion, but also towards which tend even those things which are not actual, but merely potential. Now being implies the habitude of a formal cause only, either inherent or exemplar; and its causality does not extend save to those things which are actual.

Reply Obj. 2: The same solution applies to this objection. It could also be argued that goodness relates to both existing and non-existing things, not in the sense that it can be described as such, but in that it can bring them into being—if by non-existence we mean not just things that do not exist, but those that are potential rather than actual. Goodness represents the ultimate goal, in which not only actual things achieve their fulfillment, but towards which even those that are merely potential, rather than actual, are directed. Being involves the characteristics of a formal cause only, whether it is inherent or exemplary; and its ability to cause does not extend to anything that is not actual.

Reply Obj. 3: Non-being is desirable, not of itself, but only relatively—i.e. inasmuch as the removal of an evil, which can only be removed by non-being, is desirable. Now the removal of an evil cannot be desirable, except so far as this evil deprives a thing of some being. Therefore being is desirable of itself; and non-being only relatively, inasmuch as one seeks some mode of being of which one cannot bear to be deprived; thus even non-being can be spoken of as relatively good.

Reply Obj. 3: Non-being is desirable, not in itself, but only in relation to something else—that is, because it can help remove an evil, which can only be eliminated through non-being. However, the removal of an evil is only desirable to the extent that this evil takes away some form of existence from something. Therefore, existence is desirable on its own; non-being is only desirable in relation to the desire for some form of existence that one cannot stand being without; thus, even non-being can be considered relatively good.

Reply Obj. 4: Life, wisdom, and the like, are desirable only so far as they are actual. Hence, in each one of them some sort of being is desired. And thus nothing can be desired except being; and consequently nothing is good except being. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Life, wisdom, and similar things are only valuable as long as they exist. Therefore, in each one of them, some form of existence is sought. Thus, nothing can be desired except existence; and as a result, nothing is good except existence.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 5, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 5, Art. 3]

Whether Every Being Is Good?

Is every being good?

Objection 1: It seems that not every being is good. For goodness is something superadded to being, as is clear from A. 1. But whatever is added to being limits it; as substance, quantity, quality, etc. Therefore goodness limits being. Therefore not every being is good.

Objection 1: It appears that not every being is good. Goodness is something extra added to being, as is clear from A. 1. But whatever is added to being limits it; like substance, quantity, quality, etc. Therefore, goodness limits being. Hence, not every being is good.

Obj. 2: Further, no evil is good: "Woe to you that call evil good and good evil" (Isa. 5:20). But some things are called evil. Therefore not every being is good.

Obj. 2: Also, no evil is good: "Woe to you who call evil good and good evil" (Isa. 5:20). But some things are labeled as evil. Therefore, not everything is good.

Obj. 3: Further, goodness implies desirability. Now primary
matter does not imply desirability, but rather that which desires.
Therefore primary matter does not contain the formality of goodness.
Therefore not every being is good.

Obj. 3: Also, goodness means being desirable. Now primary
matter does not suggest desirability, but rather that which desires.
So, primary matter does not have the quality of goodness.
Thus, not every being is good.

Obj. 4: Further, the Philosopher notes (Metaph. iii) that "in mathematics goodness does not exist." But mathematics are entities; otherwise there would be no science of mathematics. Therefore not every being is good.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the Philosopher points out (Metaph. iii) that "goodness does not exist in mathematics." However, mathematics consists of entities; otherwise, there wouldn't be a science of mathematics. Therefore, not every being is good.

On the contrary, Every being that is not God is God's creature. Now every creature of God is good (1 Tim. 4:4): and God is the greatest good. Therefore every being is good.

On the contrary, every being that is not God is a creation of God. Now, every creation of God is good (1 Tim. 4:4); and God is the greatest good. Therefore, every being is good.

I answer that, Every being, as being, is good. For all being, as being, has actuality and is in some way perfect; since every act implies some sort of perfection; and perfection implies desirability and goodness, as is clear from A. 1. Hence it follows that every being as such is good.

I answer that, Every being, simply by being, is good. Since all being has existence and is in some way perfect; because every action suggests a certain level of perfection; and perfection suggests desirability and goodness, as is clear from A. 1. Therefore, it follows that every being, in itself, is good.

Reply Obj. 1: Substance, quantity, quality, and everything included in them, limit being by applying it to some essence or nature. Now in this sense, goodness does not add anything to being beyond the aspect of desirability and perfection, which is also proper to being, whatever kind of nature it may be. Hence goodness does not limit being.

Reply Obj. 1: Substance, quantity, quality, and everything that falls under them are defined by applying them to some essence or nature. In this context, goodness doesn’t add anything to being beyond the aspect of desirability and perfection, which are also inherent to being, regardless of the nature in question. Thus, goodness does not limit being.

Reply Obj. 2: No being can be spoken of as evil, formally as being, but only so far as it lacks being. Thus a man is said to be evil, because he lacks some virtue; and an eye is said to be evil, because it lacks the power to see well.

Reply Obj. 2: No being can be considered evil in terms of existence itself, but only in relation to what it lacks in existence. Thus, a person is called evil because they lack some virtue; and an eye is considered evil because it lacks the ability to see clearly.

Reply Obj. 3: As primary matter has only potential being, so it is only potentially good. Although, according to the Platonists, primary matter may be said to be a non-being on account of the privation attaching to it, nevertheless, it does participate to a certain extent in goodness, viz. by its relation to, or aptitude for, goodness. Consequently, to be desirable is not its property, but to desire.

Reply Obj. 3: Since primary matter only has the potential for existence, it is only potentially good. Although the Platonists argue that primary matter can be considered a non-being because of the lack of qualities associated with it, it does still have some degree of goodness based on its connection to, or ability to become, good. Therefore, being desirable isn't its inherent trait, but rather the act of desiring.

Reply Obj. 4: Mathematical entities do not subsist as realities; because they would be in some sort good if they subsisted; but they have only logical existence, inasmuch as they are abstracted from motion and matter; thus they cannot have the aspect of an end, which itself has the aspect of moving another. Nor is it repugnant that there should be in some logical entity neither goodness nor form of goodness; since the idea of being is prior to the idea of goodness, as was said in the preceding article. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Mathematical entities do not exist as real things; if they did exist, they would have some kind of goodness; but they only have a logical existence because they are separated from motion and matter; therefore, they can’t serve as an end that can move something else. It’s also not contradictory for a logical entity to lack both goodness and the form of goodness; the idea of being comes before the idea of goodness, as mentioned in the previous article.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 5, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 5, Art. 4]

Whether Goodness Has the Aspect of a Final Cause?

Whether Goodness Has the Nature of a Final Cause?

Objection 1: It seems that goodness has not the aspect of a final cause, but rather of the other causes. For, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv), "Goodness is praised as beauty." But beauty has the aspect of a formal cause. Therefore goodness has the aspect of a formal cause.

Objection 1: It appears that goodness isn’t seen as a final cause, but more like the other causes. As Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv), "Goodness is praised as beauty." However, beauty is regarded as a formal cause. Therefore, goodness is considered a formal cause.

Obj. 2: Further, goodness is self-diffusive; for Dionysius says
(Div. Nom. iv) that goodness is that whereby all things subsist, and
are. But to be self-giving implies the aspect of an efficient cause.
Therefore goodness has the aspect of an efficient cause.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, goodness is self-spreading; because Dionysius states
(Div. Nom. iv) that goodness is what causes all things to exist and
be. However, being self-giving suggests the characteristic of an effective cause.
Thus, goodness embodies the characteristic of an effective cause.

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. i, 31) that "we exist because God is good." But we owe our existence to God as the efficient cause. Therefore goodness implies the aspect of an efficient cause.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Augustine states (De Doctr. Christ. i, 31) that "we exist because God is good." Our existence is due to God as the efficient cause. So, goodness suggests the role of an efficient cause.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Phys. ii) that "that is to be considered as the end and the good of other things, for the sake of which something is." Therefore goodness has the aspect of a final cause.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Phys. ii) that "what is seen as the end and the good of other things exists for a reason." Therefore, goodness is viewed as a final cause.

I answer that, Since goodness is that which all things desire, and since this has the aspect of an end, it is clear that goodness implies the aspect of an end. Nevertheless, the idea of goodness presupposes the idea of an efficient cause, and also of a formal cause. For we see that what is first in causing, is last in the thing caused. Fire, e.g. heats first of all before it reproduces the form of fire; though the heat in the fire follows from its substantial form. Now in causing, goodness and the end come first, both of which move the agent to act; secondly, the action of the agent moving to the form; thirdly, comes the form. Hence in that which is caused the converse ought to take place, so that there should be first, the form whereby it is a being; secondly, we consider in it its effective power, whereby it is perfect in being, for a thing is perfect when it can reproduce its like, as the Philosopher says (Meteor. iv); thirdly, there follows the formality of goodness which is the basic principle of its perfection.

I respond that, since goodness is something all things want, and since this has the aspect of a goal, it’s clear that goodness suggests the idea of a goal. However, the concept of goodness relies on the idea of an efficient cause and also a formal cause. We observe that what is primary in causing is last in the thing that is caused. For example, fire heats up first before it takes on the form of fire, although the heat in the fire comes from its essential form. In causing, goodness and the goal come first, both of which motivate the agent to act; next, there is the action of the agent moving to the form; and lastly, the form itself. Therefore, in what is caused, the opposite should occur: first, there should be the form that makes it a being; second, we consider its effective power, which makes it perfect in being, as a thing is perfect when it can reproduce its own kind, as the Philosopher says (Meteor. iv); third, we find the formality of goodness, which is the fundamental principle of its perfection.

Reply Obj. 1: Beauty and goodness in a thing are identical fundamentally; for they are based upon the same thing, namely, the form; and consequently goodness is praised as beauty. But they differ logically, for goodness properly relates to the appetite (goodness being what all things desire); and therefore it has the aspect of an end (the appetite being a kind of movement towards a thing). On the other hand, beauty relates to the cognitive faculty; for beautiful things are those which please when seen. Hence beauty consists in due proportion; for the senses delight in things duly proportioned, as in what is after their own kind—because even sense is a sort of reason, just as is every cognitive faculty. Now since knowledge is by assimilation, and similarity relates to form, beauty properly belongs to the nature of a formal cause.

Reply Obj. 1: Beauty and goodness in a thing are fundamentally the same; they are based on the same thing, which is the form. Therefore, goodness is praised as beauty. However, they differ logically, as goodness is related to desire (goodness being what all things seek). This gives it the aspect of an end (since desire is a movement toward something). On the other hand, beauty is related to our ability to perceive; beautiful things are those that please us when we see them. Beauty consists of proper proportion because our senses delight in things that are well-proportioned, as they resonate with what we recognize—because even our senses function somewhat like reason, just as any cognitive ability does. Since knowledge comes from understanding, and similarity relates to form, beauty rightly belongs to the essence of a formal cause.

Reply Obj. 2: Goodness is described as self-diffusive in the sense that an end is said to move.

Reply Obj. 2: Goodness is seen as self-spreading in the way that an end is said to move.

Reply Obj. 3: He who has a will is said to be good, so far as he has a good will; because it is by our will that we employ whatever powers we may have. Hence a man is said to be good, not by his good understanding; but by his good will. Now the will relates to the end as to its proper object. Thus the saying, "we exist because God is good" has reference to the final cause. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: A person is considered good based on their good intentions because it’s with our will that we use whatever abilities we have. Therefore, someone is deemed good not because of their understanding, but because of their willingness. Now, the will is directed towards the goal as its proper focus. Thus, the phrase, "we exist because God is good" refers to the ultimate purpose.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 5, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 5, Art. 5]

Whether the Essence of Goodness Consists in Mode, Species and Order?

Whether the essence of goodness depends on its form, type, and arrangement?

Objection 1: It seems that the essence of goodness does not consist in mode, species and order. For goodness and being differ logically. But mode, species and order seem to belong to the nature of being, for it is written: "Thou hast ordered all things in measure, and number, and weight" (Wis. 11:21). And to these three can be reduced species, mode and order, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 3): "Measure fixes the mode of everything, number gives it its species, and weight gives it rest and stability." Therefore the essence of goodness does not consist in mode, species and order.

Objection 1: It seems that the essence of goodness doesn’t rely on mode, species, and order. Goodness and being are logically different. However, mode, species, and order appear to be part of the nature of being, as it is written: "You have ordered all things in measure, and number, and weight" (Wis. 11:21). These three can be understood as relating to species, mode, and order, as Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. iv, 3): "Measure determines the mode of everything, number gives it its species, and weight provides rest and stability." Therefore, the essence of goodness does not depend on mode, species, and order.

Obj. 2: Further, mode, species and order are themselves good. Therefore if the essence of goodness consists in mode, species and order, then every mode must have its own mode, species and order. The same would be the case with species and order in endless succession.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, mode, species, and order are inherently good. Therefore, if the essence of goodness lies in mode, species, and order, then every mode must have its own mode, species, and order. The same applies to species and order in an infinite progression.

Obj. 3: Further, evil is the privation of mode, species and order. But evil is not the total absence of goodness. Therefore the essence of goodness does not consist in mode, species and order.

Obj. 3: Additionally, evil is the lack of mode, species, and order. However, evil is not the complete absence of goodness. Thus, the essence of goodness does not depend on mode, species, and order.

Obj. 4: Further, that wherein consists the essence of goodness cannot be spoken of as evil. Yet we can speak of an evil mode, species and order. Therefore the essence of goodness does not consist in mode, species and order.

Obj. 4: Moreover, what defines the essence of goodness cannot be described as evil. However, we can discuss an evil manner, type, and category. Therefore, the essence of goodness does not consist of manner, type, and category.

Obj. 5: Further, mode, species and order are caused by weight, number and measure, as appears from the quotation from Augustine. But not every good thing has weight, number and measure; for Ambrose says (Hexam. i, 9): "It is of the nature of light not to have been created in number, weight and measure." Therefore the essence of goodness does not consist in mode, species and order.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, type, variety, and arrangement are influenced by weight, number, and measure, as shown in the quote from Augustine. However, not every good thing has weight, number, or measure; as Ambrose states (Hexam. i, 9): "It is in the nature of light not to have been created in number, weight, and measure." Therefore, the essence of goodness does not depend on type, variety, and arrangement.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Nat. Boni. iii): "These three—mode, species and order—as common good things, are in everything God has made; thus, where these three abound the things are very good; where they are less, the things are less good; where they do not exist at all, there can be nothing good." But this would not be unless the essence of goodness consisted in them. Therefore the essence of goodness consists in mode, species and order.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Nat. Boni. iii): "These three—form, type, and arrangement—as universal good qualities, are present in everything God has created; thus, where these three are abundant, those things are truly good; where they are lacking, the things are less good; where they are absent entirely, there can be nothing good." But this would not be possible unless the essence of goodness is found in them. Therefore, the essence of goodness consists of form, type, and arrangement.

I answer that, Everything is said to be good so far as it is perfect; for in that way only is it desirable (as shown above, AA. 1, 3). Now a thing is said to be perfect if it lacks nothing according to the mode of its perfection. But since everything is what it is by its form (and since the form presupposes certain things, and from the form certain things necessarily follow), in order for a thing to be perfect and good it must have a form, together with all that precedes and follows upon that form. Now the form presupposes determination or commensuration of its principles, whether material or efficient, and this is signified by the mode: hence it is said that the measure marks the mode. But the form itself is signified by the species; for everything is placed in its species by its form. Hence the number is said to give the species, for definitions signifying species are like numbers, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. x); for as a unit added to, or taken from a number, changes its species, so a difference added to, or taken from a definition, changes its species. Further, upon the form follows an inclination to the end, or to an action, or something of the sort; for everything, in so far as it is in act, acts and tends towards that which is in accordance with its form; and this belongs to weight and order. Hence the essence of goodness, so far as it consists in perfection, consists also in mode, species and order.

I respond that, everything is considered good to the extent that it is perfect; only in this way is it desirable (as previously mentioned, AA. 1, 3). A thing is deemed perfect if it lacks nothing according to its mode of perfection. However, since everything is what it is because of its form (and since the form assumes certain elements, and certain elements necessarily follow from that form), for a thing to be perfect and good, it must possess a form along with everything that precedes and follows that form. The form presupposes the determination or matching of its principles, whether they are material or efficient, and this is indicated by the mode: thus it is said that the measure defines the mode. The form itself is indicated by the species; everything is categorized into its species by its form. Therefore, the number is said to define the species, as definitions that indicate species are akin to numbers, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. x); because just as adding to or subtracting from a number changes its species, so does adding to or subtracting from a definition change its species. Furthermore, a form leads to a tendency toward an end, an action, or something similar; for everything, insofar as it is in action, acts and strives toward that which aligns with its form; and this pertains to weight and order. Therefore, the essence of goodness, as it relates to perfection, also includes mode, species, and order.

Reply Obj. 1: These three only follow upon being, so far as it is perfect, and according to this perfection is it good.

Reply Obj. 1: These three only relate to being to the extent that it is perfect, and according to this perfection, it is considered good.

Reply Obj. 2: Mode, species and order are said to be good, and to be beings, not as though they themselves were subsistences, but because it is through them that other things are both beings and good. Hence they have no need of other things whereby they are good: for they are spoken of as good, not as though formally constituted so by something else, but as formally constituting others good: thus whiteness is not said to be a being as though it were by anything else; but because, by it, something else has accidental being, as an object that is white.

Reply Obj. 2: Mode, species, and order are considered good and regarded as beings, not because they exist on their own, but because they enable other things to exist and to be good. They don’t rely on anything else to be good; rather, they’re described as good not because something else defines them as such, but because they help define other things as good. For example, whiteness isn’t called a being as if it comes from something else, but because it allows something else to have accidental being, like an object that is white.

Reply Obj. 3: Every being is due to some form. Hence, according to every being of a thing is its mode, species, order. Thus, a man has a mode, species and order as he is white, virtuous, learned and so on; according to everything predicated of him. But evil deprives a thing of some sort of being, as blindness deprives us of that being which is sight; yet it does not destroy every mode, species and order, but only such as follow upon the being of sight.

Reply Obj. 3: Every being has a certain form. Therefore, every being of a thing includes its way of existing, type, and organization. For example, a person has a way of existing, type, and organization because they are white, virtuous, learned, and so on; these are all descriptions of them. However, evil takes away a specific aspect of being, just like blindness takes away the ability to see; it doesn't eliminate every way of existing, type, and organization, but only those that depend on the ability to see.

Reply Obj. 4: Augustine says (De Nat. Boni. xxiii), "Every mode, as mode, is good" (and the same can be said of species and order). "But an evil mode, species and order are so called as being less than they ought to be, or as not belonging to that which they ought to belong. Therefore they are called evil, because they are out of place and incongruous."

Reply Obj. 4: Augustine says (De Nat. Boni. xxiii), "Every way of being, as a way of being, is good" (and the same applies to types and order). "But an evil way, type, and order are considered so because they fall short of what they should be, or because they do not fit with what they should belong to. Therefore, they are labeled evil because they are out of place and mismatched."

Reply Obj. 5: The nature of light is spoken of as being without number, weight and measure, not absolutely, but in comparison with corporeal things, because the power of light extends to all corporeal things; inasmuch as it is an active quality of the first body that causes change, i.e. the heavens. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: Light is described as being without number, weight, and measure, not absolutely, but in comparison to physical things, because light affects all physical things; it is an active quality of the primary body that brings about change, namely, the heavens.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 5, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 5, Art. 6]

Whether Goodness Is Rightly Divided into the Virtuous*, the Useful and the Pleasant? [*"Bonum honestum" is the virtuous good considered as fitting. Cf. II-II, Q. 141, A. 3; Q. 145.]

Whether Goodness Is Properly Divided into the Virtuous*, the Useful, and the Pleasant? [*"Bonum honestum" is the virtuous good seen as appropriate. Cf. II-II, Q. 141, A. 3; Q. 145.]

Objection 1: It seems that goodness is not rightly divided into the virtuous, the useful and the pleasant. For goodness is divided by the ten predicaments, as the Philosopher says (Ethic. i). But the virtuous, the useful and the pleasant can be found under one predicament. Therefore goodness is not rightly divided by them.

Objection 1: It appears that goodness isn't correctly classified into the virtuous, the useful, and the pleasant. Goodness is categorized by the ten predicaments, as the Philosopher states (Ethic. i). However, the virtuous, the useful, and the pleasant can all fall under one predicament. Therefore, goodness isn't correctly divided by these categories.

Obj. 2: Further, every division is made by opposites. But these three do not seem to be opposites; for the virtuous is pleasing, and no wickedness is useful; whereas this ought to be the case if the division were made by opposites, for then the virtuous and the useful would be opposed; and Tully speaks of this (De Offic. ii). Therefore this division is incorrect.

Obj. 2: Additionally, every division is made by opposites. However, these three don't seem to be opposites; because what is virtuous is pleasing, and no form of wickedness is useful; yet this should be the case if the division were made by opposites, meaning that the virtuous and the useful would actually be opposed. Tully mentions this (De Offic. ii). Therefore, this division is incorrect.

Obj. 3: Further, where one thing is on account of another, there is only one thing. But the useful is not goodness, except so far as it is pleasing and virtuous. Therefore the useful ought not to divided against the pleasant and the virtuous.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, when one thing exists because of another, there is only one thing. However, what is useful isn't the same as goodness, except to the extent that it is enjoyable and virtuous. Therefore, usefulness shouldn't be opposed to what is pleasurable and virtuous.

On the contrary, Ambrose makes use of this division of goodness (De Offic. i, 9)

On the contrary, Ambrose uses this division of goodness (De Offic. i, 9)

I answer that, This division properly concerns human goodness. But if we consider the nature of goodness from a higher and more universal point of view, we shall find that this division properly concerns goodness as such. For everything is good so far as it is desirable, and is a term of the movement of the appetite; the term of whose movement can be seen from a consideration of the movement of a natural body. Now the movement of a natural body is terminated by the end absolutely; and relatively by the means through which it comes to the end, where the movement ceases; so a thing is called a term of movement, so far as it terminates any part of that movement. Now the ultimate term of movement can be taken in two ways, either as the thing itself towards which it tends, e.g. a place or form; or a state of rest in that thing. Thus, in the movement of the appetite, the thing desired that terminates the movement of the appetite relatively, as a means by which something tends towards another, is called the useful; but that sought after as the last thing absolutely terminating the movement of the appetite, as a thing towards which for its own sake the appetite tends, is called the virtuous; for the virtuous is that which is desired for its own sake; but that which terminates the movement of the appetite in the form of rest in the thing desired, is called the pleasant.

I answer that, This division really relates to human goodness. However, if we look at the nature of goodness from a broader and more universal perspective, we will see that this division pertains to goodness in general. Everything is good to the extent that it is desirable and is connected to the movement of desire; the endpoint of this movement can be understood by examining the movement of a natural body. The movement of a natural body is completed by the end itself; and relatively by the means through which it reaches that end, where the movement stops; thus, something is referred to as a term of movement as long as it brings any part of that movement to an end. The ultimate endpoint of movement can be understood in two ways: either as the thing itself that it aims for, such as a place or form; or as a state of rest within that thing. Therefore, in the movement of desire, the thing sought that ends the movement of desire relatively, as a means through which something aims for another, is called the useful; but that which is pursued as the final thing, bringing the movement of desire to an absolute end, as something desired for its own sake, is called the virtuous; for the virtuous is what is desired for its own sake; whereas that which brings the movement of desire to rest in the desired thing is called the pleasant.

Reply Obj. 1: Goodness, so far as it is identical with being, is divided by the ten predicaments. But this division belongs to it according to its proper formality.

Reply Obj. 1: Goodness, as far as it is the same as being, is categorized by the ten predicaments. However, this categorization applies to it based on its true nature.

Reply Obj. 2: This division is not by opposite things; but by opposite aspects. Now those things are called pleasing which have no other formality under which they are desirable except the pleasant, being sometimes hurtful and contrary to virtue. Whereas the useful applies to such as have nothing desirable in themselves, but are desired only as helpful to something further, as the taking of bitter medicine; while the virtuous is predicated of such as are desirable in themselves.

Reply Obj. 2: This division isn't between opposing things; rather, it's about opposing aspects. Things are called pleasing when they don't have any other reason for being desirable except for being pleasant, even though they can sometimes be harmful and go against virtue. On the other hand, the useful refers to things that aren't desirable in themselves but are wanted only because they help with something else, like taking bitter medicine; while the virtuous describes things that are desirable on their own.

Reply Obj. 3: Goodness is not divided into these three as something univocal to be predicated equally of them all; but as something analogical to be predicated of them according to priority and posteriority. Hence it is predicated chiefly of the virtuous; then of the pleasant; and lastly of the useful. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Goodness isn't divided into these three in a way that they can all be equally described; rather, it's understood in an analogical way that considers their relationships of priority and posterity. Therefore, it primarily refers to the virtuous, then to the pleasant, and lastly to the useful.

QUESTION 6

THE GOODNESS OF GOD
(In Four Articles)

THE GOODNESS OF GOD
(In Four Parts)

We next consider the goodness of God; under which head there are four points of inquiry:

We now look at the goodness of God, which includes four main points to explore:

(1) Whether goodness belongs to God?

(1) Does goodness belong to God?

(2) Whether God is the supreme good?

(2) Is God the highest good?

(3) Whether He alone is essentially good?

(3) Is He alone fundamentally good?

(4) Whether all things are good by the divine goodness? _______________________

(4) Is everything good because of divine goodness? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 6, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 6, Art. 1]

Whether God is good?

Is God good?

Objection 1: It seems that to be good does not belong to God. For goodness consists in mode, species and order. But these do not seem to belong to God; since God is immense and is not ordered to anything else. Therefore to be good does not belong to God.

Objection 1: It appears that being good is not a characteristic of God. Goodness is defined by form, type, and arrangement. However, these qualities don’t seem to apply to God, since God is infinite and not related to anything else. Therefore, being good does not pertain to God.

Obj. 2: Further, the good is what all things desire. But all things do not desire God, because all things do not know Him; and nothing is desired unless it is known. Therefore to be good does not belong to God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the good is what all things want. However, not everything desires God, because not everything knows Him; and nothing is desired unless it is known. Therefore, being good is not a property of God.

On the contrary, It is written (Lam. 3:25): "The Lord is good to them that hope in Him, to the soul that seeketh Him."

On the contrary, It is written (Lam. 3:25): "The Lord is good to those who hope in Him, to the soul that seeks Him."

I answer that, To be good belongs pre-eminently to God. For a thing is good according to its desirableness. Now everything seeks after its own perfection; and the perfection and form of an effect consist in a certain likeness to the agent, since every agent makes its like; and hence the agent itself is desirable and has the nature of good. For the very thing which is desirable in it is the participation of its likeness. Therefore, since God is the first effective cause of all things, it is manifest that the aspect of good and of desirableness belong to Him; and hence Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv) attributes good to God as to the first efficient cause, saying that, God is called good "as by Whom all things subsist."

I answer that, Being good primarily belongs to God. A thing is considered good based on how desirable it is. Everything strives for its own perfection, and perfection and the form of an effect are characterized by a resemblance to the cause, since every cause produces something similar. Thus, the cause itself is desirable and embodies the essence of good. What makes it desirable is its resemblance to itself. Therefore, since God is the first cause of everything, it's clear that He embodies the qualities of goodness and desirability; as Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv) notes, God is referred to as good "by Whom all things exist."

Reply Obj. 1: To have mode, species and order belongs to the essence of caused good; but good is in God as in its cause, and hence it belongs to Him to impose mode, species and order on others; wherefore these three things are in God as in their cause.

Reply Obj. 1: Having mode, species, and order is part of what makes a good caused; but good exists in God as its source, so it’s up to Him to assign mode, species, and order to others; therefore, these three aspects are found in God as in their source.

Reply Obj. 2: All things, by desiring their own perfection, desire God Himself, inasmuch as the perfections of all things are so many similitudes of the divine being; as appears from what is said above (Q. 4, A. 3). And so of those things which desire God, some know Him as He is Himself, and this is proper to the rational creature; others know some participation of His goodness, and this belongs also to sensible knowledge; others have a natural desire without knowledge, as being directed to their ends by a higher intelligence. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Everything, by wanting to reach its own perfection, ultimately desires God Himself, since the perfections of all things reflect the divine nature. As mentioned earlier (Q. 4, A. 3), some beings know God as He truly is, which is unique to rational creatures; others recognize some aspect of His goodness, which also relates to sensory knowledge; and others have an innate desire without understanding, as they are guided towards their goals by a higher intelligence.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 6, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 6, Art. 2]

Whether God Is the Supreme Good?

Whether God is the ultimate good?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not the supreme good. For the supreme good adds something to good; otherwise it would belong to every good. But everything which is an addition to anything else is a compound thing: therefore the supreme good is a compound. But God is supremely simple; as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 7). Therefore God is not the supreme good.

Objection 1: It appears that God isn't the ultimate good. The ultimate good adds something to goodness; otherwise, it would apply to every good. However, everything that is an addition to something else is a composite thing; therefore, the ultimate good is a composite. But God is completely simple, as shown above (Q. 3, A. 7). Therefore, God is not the ultimate good.

Obj. 2: Further, "Good is what all desire," as the Philosopher says (Ethic. i, 1). Now what all desire is nothing but God, Who is the end of all things: therefore there is no other good but God. This appears also from what is said (Luke 18:19): "None is good but God alone." But we use the word supreme in comparison with others, as e.g. supreme heat is used in comparison with all other heats. Therefore God cannot be called the supreme good.

Obj. 2: Additionally, "Good is what everyone desires," as the Philosopher states (Ethic. i, 1). What everyone desires is nothing other than God, who is the purpose of everything; therefore, there is no good apart from God. This is also supported by what is mentioned (Luke 18:19): "No one is good except God alone." However, we use the term supreme in relation to other things, like how we refer to supreme heat in comparison to all other types of heat. So, God cannot be referred to as the supreme good.

Obj. 3: Further, supreme implies comparison. But things not in the same genus are not comparable; as, sweetness is not properly greater or less than a line. Therefore, since God is not in the same genus as other good things, as appears above (QQ. 3, A. 5; 4, A. 3) it seems that God cannot be called the supreme good in relation to others.

Obj. 3: Additionally, "supreme" suggests comparison. However, things that don't belong to the same category can't be compared; for example, sweetness isn't truly greater or lesser than a line. Therefore, since God isn't in the same category as other good things, as explained above (QQ. 3, A. 5; 4, A. 3), it seems that we can't refer to God as the supreme good in relation to others.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. ii) that, the Trinity of the divine persons is "the supreme good, discerned by purified minds."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. ii) that the Trinity of the divine persons is "the ultimate good, recognized by clear minds."

I answer that, God is the supreme good simply, and not only as existing in any genus or order of things. For good is attributed to God, as was said in the preceding article, inasmuch as all desired perfections flow from Him as from the first cause. They do not, however, flow from Him as from a univocal agent, as shown above (Q. 4, A. 2); but as from an agent which does not agree with its effects either in species or genus. Now the likeness of an effect in the univocal cause is found uniformly; but in the equivocal cause it is found more excellently, as, heat is in the sun more excellently than it is in fire. Therefore as good is in God as in the first, but not the univocal, cause of all things, it must be in Him in a most excellent way; and therefore He is called the supreme good.

I answer that, God is the ultimate good in a simple way, not just existing within any category or order of things. Goodness is attributed to God, as mentioned in the previous article, because all desired perfections originate from Him as the first cause. However, they do not originate from Him as a direct cause, as shown earlier (Q. 4, A. 2); instead, they come from a source that does not share the same species or category as its effects. In a direct cause, the likeness of the effect is consistent; but in an indirect cause, it is found in a more excellent way, as heat in the sun is more excellent than heat in fire. Therefore, since goodness exists in God as the first, but not as a direct, cause of all things, it must exist in Him in the most excellent way; and that is why He is called the ultimate good.

Reply Obj. 1: The supreme good does not add to good any absolute thing, but only a relation. Now a relation of God to creatures, is not a reality in God, but in the creature; for it is in God in our idea only: as, what is knowable is so called with relation to knowledge, not that it depends on knowledge, but because knowledge depends on it. Thus it is not necessary that there should be composition in the supreme good, but only that other things are deficient in comparison with it.

Reply Obj. 1: The ultimate good doesn't add anything absolute to goodness, just a relationship. Now, the relationship of God to creatures exists in the creatures, not in God; it's only in our understanding of God. For example, something knowable is labeled as such in relation to knowledge, not because it relies on knowledge, but because knowledge relies on it. Therefore, there's no need for there to be a composition in the ultimate good, but only that other things fall short in comparison to it.

Reply Obj. 2: When we say that good is what all desire, it is not to be understood that every kind of good thing is desired by all; but that whatever is desired has the nature of good. And when it is said, "None is good but God alone," this is to be understood of essential goodness, as will be explained in the next article.

Reply Obj. 2: When we say that good is what everyone desires, it doesn't mean that every type of good thing is desired by everyone; rather, it means that whatever is desired has the quality of being good. And when it's stated, "None is good but God alone," this refers to essential goodness, which will be explained in the next article.

Reply Obj. 3: Things not of the same genus are in no way comparable to each other if indeed they are in different genera. Now we say that God is not in the same genus with other good things; not that He is any other genus, but that He is outside genus, and is the principle of every genus; and thus He is compared to others by excess, and it is this kind of comparison the supreme good implies. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Things that belong to different categories cannot be compared at all. We claim that God does not belong to the same category as other good things; not because He falls into a different category, but because He exists outside of all categories and is the source of every category. Therefore, He is compared to others in terms of exceeding them, and this kind of comparison is what the supreme good entails.

THIRD ARTICLE [I. Q. 6, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I. Q. 6, Art. 3]

Whether to Be Essentially Good Belongs to God Alone?

Whether being basically good is determined by God alone?

Objection 1: It seems that to be essentially good does not belong to God alone. For as one is convertible with being, so is good; as we said above (Q. 5, A. 1). But every being is one essentially, as appears from the Philosopher (Metaph. iv); therefore every being is good essentially.

Objection 1: It seems that being essentially good isn’t exclusive to God. Just like one is interchangeable with being, so is good; as we mentioned earlier (Q. 5, A. 1). But every being is essentially one, as the Philosopher points out (Metaph. iv); therefore, every being is essentially good.

Obj. 2: Further, if good is what all things desire, since being itself is desired by all, then the being of each thing is its good. But everything is a being essentially; therefore every being is good essentially.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, if good is what everything desires, and since being itself is desired by all, then the existence of each thing is its good. But everything is fundamentally a being; therefore, every being is essentially good.

Obj. 3: Further, everything is good by its own goodness. Therefore if there is anything which is not good essentially, it is necessary to say that its goodness is not its own essence. Therefore its goodness, since it is a being, must be good; and if it is good by some other goodness, the same question applies to that goodness also; therefore we must either proceed to infinity, or come to some goodness which is not good by any other goodness. Therefore the first supposition holds good. Therefore everything is good essentially.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, everything is good in its own inherent way. If there's anything that isn't essentially good, we have to conclude that its goodness isn't part of its essential nature. So, its goodness, since it exists, must be good; and if it’s good because of another goodness, the same question applies to that goodness as well. This means we either have to go on forever or arrive at some goodness that isn't derived from any other goodness. Therefore, the initial assumption stands. Thus, everything is essentially good.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Hebdom.), that "all things but God are good by participation." Therefore they are not good essentially.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Hebdom.), that "everything except God is good by participation." Therefore, they are not essentially good.

I answer that, God alone is good essentially. For everything is called good according to its perfection. Now perfection of a thing is threefold: first, according to the constitution of its own being; secondly, in respect of any accidents being added as necessary for its perfect operation; thirdly, perfection consists in the attaining to something else as the end. Thus, for instance, the first perfection of fire consists in its existence, which it has through its own substantial form; its secondary perfection consists in heat, lightness and dryness, and the like; its third perfection is to rest in its own place. This triple perfection belongs to no creature by its own essence; it belongs to God only, in Whom alone essence is existence; in Whom there are no accidents; since whatever belongs to others accidentally belongs to Him essentially; as, to be powerful, wise and the like, as appears from what is stated above (Q. 3, A. 6); and He is not directed to anything else as to an end, but is Himself the last end of all things. Hence it is manifest that God alone has every kind of perfection by His own essence; therefore He Himself alone is good essentially.

I respond that, God is the only one who is inherently good. Everything is considered good based on its level of perfection. Now, perfection comes in three forms: first, according to the nature of its own being; second, with respect to any additional qualities necessary for its complete function; third, perfection is about achieving something else as its ultimate goal. For example, the primary perfection of fire is its existence, which it possesses through its own fundamental nature; its secondary perfection includes qualities like heat, lightness, and dryness; its third perfection is to settle in its proper place. This threefold perfection does not belong to any creature by its own essence; it belongs only to God, in whom essence is existence; in whom there are no additional qualities, since whatever is accidentally attributed to others is essentially true of Him, such as being powerful, wise, and so on, as stated earlier (Q. 3, A. 6); and He is not directed toward anything else as a goal, but is Himself the ultimate goal of everything. Therefore, it is clear that God alone possesses every type of perfection by His own essence; thus, He alone is inherently good.

Reply Obj. 1: "One" does not include the idea of perfection, but only of indivision, which belongs to everything according to its own essence. Now the essences of simple things are undivided both actually and potentially, but the essences of compounds are undivided only actually; and therefore everything must be one essentially, but not good essentially, as was shown above.

Reply Obj. 1: "One" does not imply perfection, but merely indivisibility, which applies to everything according to its own essence. The essences of simple things are undivided both in reality and in potential, while the essences of compound things are only undivided in reality; therefore, everything must essentially be one, but not necessarily good in essence, as was shown above.

Reply Obj. 2: Although everything is good in that it has being, yet the essence of a creature is not very being; and therefore it does not follow that a creature is good essentially.

Reply Obj. 2: While everything is good because it exists, the essence of a creature is not just existence; therefore, it doesn’t necessarily mean that a creature is fundamentally good.

Reply Obj. 3: The goodness of a creature is not its very essence, but something superadded; it is either its existence, or some added perfection, or the order to its end. Still, the goodness itself thus added is good, just as it is being. But for this reason is it called being because by it something has being, not because it itself has being through something else: hence for this reason is it called good because by it something is good, and not because it itself has some other goodness whereby it is good. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The goodness of a creature isn’t its core essence, but something additional; it’s either its existence, some extra perfection, or its alignment with its purpose. However, this added goodness is still good, just like existence itself is good. It’s called being because it gives something existence, not because it derives existence from something else. Similarly, it’s called good because it makes something good, not because it possesses some other goodness that makes it good.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 6, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 6, Art. 4]

Whether All Things Are Good by the Divine Goodness?

Whether All Things Are Good by the Divine Goodness?

Objection 1: It seems that all things are good by the divine goodness. For Augustine says (De Trin. viii), "This and that are good; take away this and that, and see good itself if thou canst; and so thou shalt see God, good not by any other good, but the good of every good." But everything is good by its own good; therefore everything is good by that very good which is God.

Objection 1: It seems that everything is good because of divine goodness. Augustine states (De Trin. viii), "This and that are good; remove this and that, and try to see good itself if you can; and in doing so, you will see God, who is good not because of any other good, but is the source of all goodness." However, everything is good in its own way; thus, everything is good because of that very goodness which is God.

Obj. 2: Further, as Boethius says (De Hebdom.), all things are called good, accordingly as they are directed to God, and this is by reason of the divine goodness; therefore all things are good by the divine goodness.

Obj. 2: Additionally, as Boethius states (De Hebdom.), everything is considered good in relation to how it is directed towards God, and this is due to divine goodness; therefore, everything is good because of divine goodness.

On the contrary, All things are good, inasmuch as they have being. But they are not called beings through the divine being, but through their own being; therefore all things are not good by the divine goodness, but by their own goodness.

On the contrary, Everything is good because it exists. However, things aren't called beings because of the divine being, but because of their own existence; thus, not everything is good because of divine goodness, but because of their own goodness.

I answer that, As regards relative things, we must admit extrinsic denomination; as, a thing is denominated "placed" from "place," and "measured" from "measure." But as regards absolute things opinions differ. Plato held the existence of separate ideas (Q. 84, A. 4) of all things, and that individuals were denominated by them as participating in the separate ideas; for instance, that Socrates is called man according to the separate idea of man. Now just as he laid down separate ideas of man and horse which he called absolute man and absolute horse, so likewise he laid down separate ideas of "being" and of "one," and these he called absolute being and absolute oneness; and by participation of these, everything was called "being" or "one"; and what was thus absolute being and absolute one, he said was the supreme good. And because good is convertible with being, as one is also; he called God the absolute good, from whom all things are called good by way of participation.

I answer that, When it comes to relative things, we have to accept that they have external names; for example, something is called "placed" because of its "place," and "measured" because of its "measure." However, opinions vary regarding absolute things. Plato believed in the existence of separate ideas (Q. 84, A. 4) for all things, and that individuals are named based on their participation in these separate ideas; for instance, Socrates is called a man due to the separate idea of man. Just as he established separate ideas of man and horse, which he referred to as absolute man and absolute horse, he also established separate ideas of "being" and "one," which he called absolute being and absolute oneness; and through participation in these, everything was referred to as "being" or "one." What he defined as absolute being and absolute one, he claimed was the highest good. Since good is interchangeable with being, just like one is, he referred to God as the absolute good, from whom all things are named good by way of participation.

Although this opinion appears to be unreasonable in affirming separate ideas of natural things as subsisting of themselves—as Aristotle argues in many ways—still, it is absolutely true that there is first something which is essentially being and essentially good, which we call God, as appears from what is shown above (Q. 2, A. 3), and Aristotle agrees with this. Hence from the first being, essentially such, and good, everything can be called good and a being, inasmuch as it participates in it by way of a certain assimilation which is far removed and defective; as appears from the above (Q. 4, A. 3).

Although this view might seem unreasonable in suggesting that natural things exist independently, as Aristotle argues in various ways, it is completely accurate to say that there is ultimately something that is fundamentally being and fundamentally good, which we refer to as God, as indicated in the previous discussion (Q. 2, A. 3), and Aristotle agrees with this. Therefore, from this first being, which is inherently such and good, everything can be considered good and a being, to the extent that it shares in it through a certain form of assimilation that is quite distant and imperfect; as shown above (Q. 4, A. 3).

Everything is therefore called good from the divine goodness, as from the first exemplary effective and final principle of all goodness. Nevertheless, everything is called good by reason of the similitude of the divine goodness belonging to it, which is formally its own goodness, whereby it is denominated good. And so of all things there is one goodness, and yet many goodnesses.

Everything is considered good because of divine goodness, which is the primary example of all goodness. However, everything is labeled as good due to the reflection of divine goodness that it possesses, which is its own inherent goodness, and that's what makes it good. Thus, while there is one ultimate goodness, there are many instances of goodness.

This is a sufficient Reply to the Objections. _______________________

This is a satisfactory response to the objections. _______________________

QUESTION 7

THE INFINITY OF GOD
(In Four Articles)

THE INFINITY OF GOD
(In Four Articles)

After considering the divine perfection we must consider the divine infinity, and God's existence in things: for God is everywhere, and in all things, inasmuch as He is boundless and infinite.

After reflecting on divine perfection, we need to think about divine infinity and God's presence in everything: God is everywhere and in all things, since He is limitless and infinite.

Concerning the first, there are four points of inquiry:

Concerning the first, there are four points to consider:

(1) Whether God is infinite?

Is God infinite?

(2) Whether anything besides Him is infinite in essence?

(2) Is there anything besides Him that is infinite in essence?

(3) Whether anything can be infinitude in magnitude?

(3) Can anything be infinite in size?

(4) Whether an infinite multitude can exist? _______________________

(4) Can an infinite multitude exist? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 7, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 7, Art. 1]

Whether God Is Infinite?

Is God Infinite?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not infinite. For everything infinite is imperfect, as the Philosopher says; because it has parts and matter, as is said in Phys. iii. But God is most perfect; therefore He is not infinite.

Objection 1: It seems that God is not infinite. For everything that is infinite is imperfect, as the Philosopher says; because it has parts and material aspects, as stated in Phys. iii. But God is the most perfect being; therefore, He is not infinite.

Obj. 2: Further, according to the Philosopher (Phys. i), finite and infinite belong to quantity. But there is no quantity in God, for He is not a body, as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 1). Therefore it does not belong to Him to be infinite.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, according to the Philosopher (Phys. i), finite and infinite relate to quantity. However, there is no quantity in God, since He is not a physical body, as demonstrated above (Q. 3, A. 1). Therefore, being infinite does not apply to Him.

Obj. 3: Further, what is here in such a way as not to be elsewhere, is finite according to place. Therefore that which is a thing in such a way as not to be another thing, is finite according to substance. But God is this, and not another; for He is not a stone or wood. Therefore God is not infinite in substance.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, what exists in a specific way that it cannot exist anywhere else is finite in terms of location. Therefore, something that exists in a way that it is not something else is finite in terms of substance. But God exists this way, not like a stone or wood. Therefore, God is not infinite in substance.

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 4) that "God is infinite and eternal, and boundless."

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 4) that "God is infinite and eternal, and boundless."

I answer that, All the ancient philosophers attribute infinitude to the first principle, as is said (Phys. iii), and with reason; for they considered that things flow forth infinitely from the first principle. But because some erred concerning the nature of the first principle, as a consequence they erred also concerning its infinity; forasmuch as they asserted that matter was the first principle; consequently they attributed to the first principle a material infinity to the effect that some infinite body was the first principle of things.

I respond that all the ancient philosophers attributed infinity to the first principle, as is stated (Phys. iii), and rightly so; because they believed that everything originates infinitely from the first principle. However, since some misunderstood the nature of the first principle, they also misjudged its infinity; because they claimed that matter was the first principle, they consequently assigned a material infinity to it, as if some infinite body were the first principle of all things.

We must consider therefore that a thing is called infinite because it is not finite. Now matter is in a way made finite by form, and the form by matter. Matter indeed is made finite by form, inasmuch as matter, before it receives its form, is in potentiality to many forms; but on receiving a form, it is terminated by that one. Again, form is made finite by matter, inasmuch as form, considered in itself, is common to many; but when received in matter, the form is determined to this one particular thing. Now matter is perfected by the form by which it is made finite; therefore infinite as attributed to matter, has the nature of something imperfect; for it is as it were formless matter. On the other hand, form is not made perfect by matter, but rather is contracted by matter; and hence the infinite, regarded on the part of the form not determined by matter, has the nature of something perfect. Now being is the most formal of all things, as appears from what is shown above (Q. 4, A. 1, Obj. 3). Since therefore the divine being is not a being received in anything, but He is His own subsistent being as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 4), it is clear that God Himself is infinite and perfect.

We must therefore recognize that something is called infinite because it is not finite. Matter is somewhat made finite by form, and form is finite because of matter. Matter is made finite by form because, before it takes on a form, matter has the potential for many forms; but when it adopts a form, it is limited to that one. On the other hand, form is made finite by matter because, when considered independently, a form is common to many; but when it is received in matter, the form is specific to this one particular thing. Matter is completed by the form that makes it finite; therefore, when we describe matter as infinite, it implies something imperfect, as it is like formless matter. Conversely, form is not perfected by matter but is rather restricted by it; thus, when we consider the infinite aspect of form not defined by matter, it embodies the nature of something perfect. Being is the most fundamental of all things, as shown previously (Q. 4, A. 1, Obj. 3). Since the divine being is not something that is received from anything else, but instead is His own independent being as previously shown (Q. 3, A. 4), it is clear that God Himself is infinite and perfect.

From this appears the Reply to the First Objection.

From this comes the response to the first objection.

Reply Obj. 2: Quantity is terminated by its form, which can be seen in the fact that a figure which consists in quantity terminated, is a kind of quantitative form. Hence the infinite of quantity is the infinite of matter; such a kind of infinite cannot be attributed to God; as was said above, in this article.

Reply Obj. 2: Quantity ends with its form, which can be seen in the fact that a figure, which consists of a definite quantity, is a type of quantitative form. Therefore, the infinite quantity relates to the infinite matter; this type of infinity cannot be ascribed to God, as mentioned earlier in this article.

Reply Obj. 3: The fact that the being of God is self-subsisting, not received in any other, and is thus called infinite, shows Him to be distinguished from all other beings, and all others to be apart from Him. Even so, were there such a thing as a self-subsisting whiteness, the very fact that it did not exist in anything else, would make it distinct from every other whiteness existing in a subject. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The fact that God's existence is independent and not reliant on anything else, and is therefore described as infinite, clearly sets Him apart from all other beings, while all others are separate from Him. Similarly, if there were such a thing as a self-sustaining whiteness, the mere fact that it didn't exist in anything else would make it different from any other whiteness found in a subject.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 7, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 7, Art. 2]

Whether Anything but God Can Be Essentially Infinite?

Whether Anything but God Can Be Essentially Infinite?

Objection 1: It seems that something else besides God can be essentially infinite. For the power of anything is proportioned to its essence. Now if the essence of God is infinite, His power must also be infinite. Therefore He can produce an infinite effect, since the extent of a power is known by its effect.

Objection 1: It appears that something other than God can be essentially infinite. The power of anything is determined by its essence. If God's essence is infinite, then His power must also be infinite. Therefore, He can create an infinite effect, since the measure of power is seen through its results.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever has infinite power, has an infinite essence. Now the created intellect has an infinite power; for it apprehends the universal, which can extend itself to an infinitude of singular things. Therefore every created intellectual substance is infinite.

Obj. 2: Also, anything that has infinite power has an infinite essence. Now, the created intellect has infinite power because it understands the universal, which can extend to countless individual things. Therefore, every created intellectual substance is infinite.

Obj. 3: Further, primary matter is something other than God, as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 8). But primary matter is infinite. Therefore something besides God can be infinite.

Obj. 3: Moreover, primary matter is distinct from God, as demonstrated earlier (Q. 3, A. 8). However, primary matter is infinite. Therefore, something other than God can be infinite.

On the contrary, The infinite cannot have a beginning, as said in Phys. iii. But everything outside God is from God as from its first principle. Therefore besides God nothing can be infinite.

On the contrary, The infinite cannot have a beginning, as stated in Phys. iii. But everything outside God comes from God as its first cause. Therefore, apart from God, nothing can be infinite.

I answer that, Things other than God can be relatively infinite, but not absolutely infinite. For with regard to infinite as applied to matter, it is manifest that everything actually existing possesses a form; and thus its matter is determined by form. But because matter, considered as existing under some substantial form, remains in potentiality to many accidental forms, which is absolutely finite can be relatively infinite; as, for example, wood is finite according to its own form, but still it is relatively infinite, inasmuch as it is in potentiality to an infinite number of shapes. But if we speak of the infinite in reference to form, it is manifest that those things, the forms of which are in matter, are absolutely finite, and in no way infinite. If, however, any created forms are not received into matter, but are self-subsisting, as some think is the case with angels, these will be relatively infinite, inasmuch as such kinds of forms are not terminated, nor contracted by any matter. But because a created form thus subsisting has being, and yet is not its own being, it follows that its being is received and contracted to a determinate nature. Hence it cannot be absolutely infinite.

I respond that while things other than God can be relatively infinite, they cannot be absolutely infinite. When it comes to matter, it's clear that everything that actually exists has a form, and so its matter is defined by that form. However, since matter, as it exists under a substantial form, remains in potentiality to many accidental forms, it can be relatively infinite; for example, wood is finite according to its own form, yet it can take on an infinite number of shapes. On the other hand, if we consider the infinite in relation to form, it's clear that those things whose forms exist in matter are absolutely finite and not infinite at all. If, however, any created forms exist independently of matter, as some believe is the case with angels, then these forms would be relatively infinite, since they aren't limited or constrained by any matter. Yet, because a created form that exists independently has being but is not its own being, its being is indeed received and limited to a determinate nature. Therefore, it cannot be absolutely infinite.

Reply Obj. 1: It is against the nature of a made thing for its essence to be its existence; because subsisting being is not a created being; hence it is against the nature of a made thing to be absolutely infinite. Therefore, as God, although He has infinite power, cannot make a thing to be not made (for this would imply that two contradictories are true at the same time), so likewise He cannot make anything to be absolutely infinite.

Reply Obj. 1: It goes against the nature of something that is made for its essence to be its existence, because something that exists on its own isn’t a created thing. Thus, it’s against the nature of a made thing to be completely infinite. Therefore, just as God, despite having infinite power, cannot create something that isn’t made (since that would mean two contradictions are true at the same time), He also cannot create anything that is absolutely infinite.

Reply Obj. 2: The fact that the power of the intellect extends itself in a way to infinite things, is because the intellect is a form not in matter, but either wholly separated from matter, as is the angelic substance, or at least an intellectual power, which is not the act of any organ, in the intellectual soul joined to a body.

Reply Obj. 2: The reason the power of the intellect can reach an infinite number of things is that the intellect is a form that exists outside of matter. It is either completely separate from matter, like the essence of angels, or at least it is an intellectual power that does not depend on any physical organ, as seen in the intellectual soul united with a body.

Reply Obj. 3: Primary matter does not exist by itself in nature, since it is not actually being, but potentially only; hence it is something concreated rather than created. Nevertheless, primary matter even as a potentiality is not absolutely infinite, but relatively, because its potentiality extends only to natural forms. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Primary matter doesn’t exist on its own in nature, since it is not actual being, but only potential; thus, it is something that exists together with other things rather than something created out of nothing. However, even as a potentiality, primary matter is not infinitely so, but rather relatively, because its potentiality is limited to natural forms.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 7, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 7, Art. 3]

Whether an Actually Infinite Magnitude Can Exist?

Whether an Actually Infinite Magnitude Can Exist?

Objection 1: It seems that there can be something actually infinite in magnitude. For in mathematics there is no error, since "there is no lie in things abstract," as the Philosopher says (Phys. ii). But mathematics uses the infinite in magnitude; thus, the geometrician in his demonstrations says, "Let this line be infinite." Therefore it is not impossible for a thing to be infinite in magnitude.

Objection 1: It seems that something can genuinely be infinite in size. In mathematics, there are no mistakes, since "there is no deception in abstract things," as the Philosopher says (Phys. ii). However, mathematics incorporates the concept of infinity in size; for example, the mathematician in their proofs states, "Let this line be infinite." Therefore, it’s not impossible for something to be infinite in size.

Obj. 2: Further, what is not against the nature of anything, can agree with it. Now to be infinite is not against the nature of magnitude; but rather both the finite and the infinite seem to be properties of quantity. Therefore it is not impossible for some magnitude to be infinite.

Obj. 2: Additionally, what doesn't go against the nature of something can be in harmony with it. Now, being infinite doesn't contradict the nature of magnitude; instead, both finite and infinite appear to be aspects of quantity. So, it's not impossible for some magnitude to be infinite.

Obj. 3: Further, magnitude is infinitely divisible, for the continuous is defined that which is infinitely divisible, as is clear from Phys. iii. But contraries are concerned about one and the same thing. Since therefore addition is opposed to division, and increase opposed to diminution, it appears that magnitude can be increased to infinity. Therefore it is possible for magnitude to be infinite.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, magnitude can be divided infinitely because continuity is defined as that which can be infinitely divided, as is clear from Phys. iii. However, opposites are related to the same concept. Since addition is the opposite of division, and increase is the opposite of decrease, it seems that magnitude can be increased to infinity. Therefore, it is possible for magnitude to be infinite.

Obj. 4: Further, movement and time have quantity and continuity derived from the magnitude over which movement passes, as is said in Phys. iv. But it is not against the nature of time and movement to be infinite, since every determinate indivisible in time and circular movement is both a beginning and an end. Therefore neither is it against the nature of magnitude to be infinite.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, movement and time have quantity and continuity based on the size of the area through which movement occurs, as mentioned in Phys. iv. However, it is not contrary to the nature of time and movement to be infinite, since every specific indivisible moment in time and circular movement has both a beginning and an end. Therefore, it is also not contrary to the nature of size to be infinite.

On the contrary, Every body has a surface. But every body which has a surface is finite; because surface is the term of a finite body. Therefore all bodies are finite. The same applies both to surface and to a line. Therefore nothing is infinite in magnitude.

On the contrary, Every body has a surface. But every body that has a surface is finite; because surface describes a finite body. So, all bodies are finite. The same goes for surface and a line. Therefore, nothing is infinite in size.

I answer that, It is one thing to be infinite in essence, and another to be infinite in magnitude. For granted that a body exists infinite in magnitude, as fire or air, yet this could not be infinite in essence, because its essence would be terminated in a species by its form, and confined to individuality by matter. And so assuming from these premises that no creature is infinite in essence, it still remains to inquire whether any creature can be infinite in magnitude.

I respond that, it's one thing to be infinite in essence and quite another to be infinite in size. Even if we assume that a body exists that is infinite in size, like fire or air, it still couldn't be infinite in essence because its essence would be limited by its form and tied to individuality by matter. So, assuming from these points that no creature is infinite in essence, we still need to explore whether any creature can be infinite in size.

We must therefore observe that a body, which is a complete magnitude, can be considered in two ways; mathematically, in respect to its quantity only; and naturally, as regards its matter and form.

We should note that a body, which is a complete entity, can be viewed in two ways: mathematically, in terms of its quantity alone, and naturally, concerning its matter and form.

Now it is manifest that a natural body cannot be actually infinite. For every natural body has some determined substantial form. Since therefore the accidents follow upon the substantial form, it is necessary that determinate accidents should follow upon a determinate form; and among these accidents is quantity. So every natural body has a greater or smaller determinate quantity. Hence it is impossible for a natural body to be infinite. The same appears from movement; because every natural body has some natural movement; whereas an infinite body could not have any natural movement; neither direct, because nothing moves naturally by a direct movement unless it is out of its place; and this could not happen to an infinite body, for it would occupy every place, and thus every place would be indifferently its own place. Neither could it move circularly; forasmuch as circular motion requires that one part of the body is necessarily transferred to a place occupied by another part, and this could not happen as regards an infinite circular body: for if two lines be drawn from the centre, the farther they extend from the centre, the farther they are from each other; therefore, if a body were infinite, the lines would be infinitely distant from each other; and thus one could never occupy the place belonging to any other.

Now it’s clear that a natural body cannot be truly infinite. Every natural body has a specific substantial form. Since the properties depend on the substantial form, it’s essential that specific properties follow a specific form; and among these properties is quantity. So, every natural body has a definite quantity, whether larger or smaller. Therefore, it’s impossible for a natural body to be infinite. The same idea holds for movement; because every natural body has a natural movement. An infinite body, however, wouldn’t be able to have any natural movement, neither straight nor circular. Nothing moves naturally in a straight line unless it’s out of its place, which could never happen with an infinite body, as it would occupy every location, making every spot equally its own place. It also couldn’t move in a circular way, since circular motion requires one part of the body to move to a place occupied by another part. This wouldn’t work with an infinite circular body; if two lines are drawn from the center, the farther they extend, the farther apart they become. Therefore, if a body were infinite, the lines would be infinitely distant from each other, meaning one could never occupy the space of another.

The same applies to a mathematical body. For if we imagine a mathematical body actually existing, we must imagine it under some form, because nothing is actual except by its form; hence, since the form of quantity as such is figure, such a body must have some figure, and so would be finite; for figure is confined by a term or boundary.

The same goes for a mathematical body. If we picture a mathematical body actually existing, we have to think of it in some form, because nothing is real unless it has form. Since the form of quantity is shape, this body must have a specific shape, which means it would be finite; after all, a shape is limited by a boundary.

Reply Obj. 1: A geometrician does not need to assume a line actually infinite, but takes some actually finite line, from which he subtracts whatever he finds necessary; which line he calls infinite.

Reply Obj. 1: A geometrician doesn’t need to assume an actually infinite line, but uses a finite line instead, from which he removes whatever he finds necessary; this line is what he refers to as infinite.

Reply Obj. 2: Although the infinite is not against the nature of magnitude in general, still it is against the nature of any species of it; thus, for instance, it is against the nature of a bicubical or tricubical magnitude, whether circular or triangular, and so on. Now what is not possible in any species cannot exist in the genus; hence there cannot be any infinite magnitude, since no species of magnitude is infinite.

Reply Obj. 2: While the infinite isn't contrary to the general concept of magnitude, it is incompatible with any specific type of it; for example, it goes against the nature of a bicubic or cubic magnitude, whether it's circular or triangular, and so on. Now, what isn't possible in any specific type can't exist in the general category; therefore, there can't be any infinite magnitude, since no specific type of magnitude is infinite.

Reply Obj. 3: The infinite in quantity, as was shown above, belongs to matter. Now by division of the whole we approach to matter, forasmuch as parts have the aspect of matter; but by addition we approach to the whole which has the aspect of a form. Therefore the infinite is not in the addition of magnitude, but only in division.

Reply Obj. 3: The infinite in quantity, as mentioned earlier, pertains to matter. When we divide the whole, we get closer to matter, since parts resemble matter; however, when we add, we move towards the whole, which appears as a form. Therefore, the infinite exists only in division, not in the addition of magnitude.

Reply Obj. 4: Movement and time are whole, not actually but successively; hence they have potentiality mixed with actuality. But magnitude is an actual whole; therefore the infinite in quantity refers to matter, and does not agree with the totality of magnitude; yet it agrees with the totality of time and movement: for it is proper to matter to be in potentiality. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Movement and time are complete, not in a real sense but sequentially; therefore, they contain a mix of potential and actual states. However, magnitude is a complete reality; thus, the infinite in quantity relates to matter, which does not align with the entirety of magnitude; yet it coincides with the entirety of time and movement because it is inherent to matter to exist in potentiality.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 7, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 7, Art. 4]

Whether an Infinite Multitude Can Exist?

Whether an infinite multitude can exist?

Objection 1: It seems that an actually infinite multitude is possible. For it is not impossible for a potentiality to be made actual. But number can be multiplied to infinity. Therefore it is possible for an infinite multitude actually to exist.

Objection 1: It seems that an actually infinite number is possible. For it is not impossible for a potentiality to become actual. But numbers can be multiplied to infinity. Therefore, it is possible for an infinite number to actually exist.

Obj. 2: Further, it is possible for any individual of any species to be made actual. But the species of figures are infinite. Therefore an infinite number of actual figures is possible.

Obj. 2: Also, it's possible for any individual of any species to become actual. But the kinds of figures are infinite. Therefore, an infinite number of actual figures is possible.

Obj. 3: Further, things not opposed to each other do not obstruct each other. But supposing a multitude of things to exist, there can still be many others not opposed to them. Therefore it is not impossible for others also to coexist with them, and so on to infinitude; therefore an actual infinite number of things is possible.

Obj. 3: Additionally, things that are not in conflict with one another do not hinder each other. However, if many things exist, there can still be many others that are not opposed to them. Thus, it is possible for others to coexist with them as well, and this can continue indefinitely; therefore, an actual infinite number of things is possible.

On the contrary, It is written, "Thou hast ordered all things in measure, and number, and weight" (Wis. 11:21).

On the contrary, It is written, "You have ordered everything in measure, number, and weight" (Wis. 11:21).

I answer that, A twofold opinion exists on this subject. Some, as Avicenna and Algazel, said that it was impossible for an actually infinite multitude to exist absolutely; but that an accidentally infinite multitude was not impossible. A multitude is said to be infinite absolutely, when an infinite multitude is necessary that something may exist. Now this is impossible; because it would entail something dependent on an infinity for its existence; and hence its generation could never come to be, because it is impossible to pass through an infinite medium.

I respond that, there are two main views on this topic. Some, like Avicenna and Algazel, argue that an actually infinite number of things cannot exist in an absolute sense; however, an accidentally infinite number is possible. A multitude is considered absolutely infinite when it is essential for the existence of something. This is impossible because it would mean that something relies on infinity for its existence, and thus its creation could never occur, as it is impossible to traverse through an infinite amount.

A multitude is said to be accidentally infinite when its existence as such is not necessary, but accidental. This can be shown, for example, in the work of a carpenter requiring a certain absolute multitude; namely, art in the soul, the movement of the hand, and a hammer; and supposing that such things were infinitely multiplied, the carpentering work would never be finished, forasmuch as it would depend on an infinite number of causes. But the multitude of hammers, inasmuch as one may be broken and another used, is an accidental multitude; for it happens by accident that many hammers are used, and it matters little whether one or two, or many are used, or an infinite number, if the work is carried on for an infinite time. In this way they said that there can be an accidentally infinite multitude.

A group is considered accidentally infinite when its existence isn't necessary but happens by chance. This can be illustrated in a carpenter's work, which requires a specific absolute collection of items: skill in the mind, hand movements, and a hammer. If these things were infinitely many, the carpentry job would never get done since it would rely on an infinite number of factors. The number of hammers, however, is just an accidental collection; it’s by chance that multiple hammers are used, and it doesn’t really matter if one, two, or many are used, or even an infinite number, if the work goes on indefinitely. In this way, they argued that there can be an accidentally infinite collection.

This, however, is impossible; since every kind of multitude must belong to a species of multitude. Now the species of multitude are to be reckoned by the species of numbers. But no species of number is infinite; for every number is multitude measured by one. Hence it is impossible for there to be an actually infinite multitude, either absolute or accidental. Likewise multitude in nature is created; and everything created is comprehended under some clear intention of the Creator; for no agent acts aimlessly. Hence everything created must be comprehended in a certain number. Therefore it is impossible for an actually infinite multitude to exist, even accidentally. But a potentially infinite multitude is possible; because the increase of multitude follows upon the division of magnitude; since the more a thing is divided, the greater number of things result. Hence, as the infinite is to be found potentially in the division of the continuous, because we thus approach matter, as was shown in the preceding article, by the same rule, the infinite can be also found potentially in the addition of multitude.

This, however, is impossible; because every type of crowd must belong to a specific kind of crowd. The types of crowds can be categorized by the types of numbers. But no type of number is infinite; every number is a crowd measured by one. Therefore, it's impossible for there to be an actually infinite crowd, whether absolute or accidental. Additionally, crowds in nature are created; and everything that is created falls under some clear intention of the Creator; since no agent acts without purpose. Thus, everything created must be defined by a certain number. For this reason, it is impossible for an actually infinite crowd to exist, even by chance. However, a potentially infinite crowd is possible; because the increase of a crowd comes from the division of magnitude; as the more a thing is divided, the greater number of things results. Thus, just as infinity can be found potentially in the division of the continuous, as was shown in the previous article, by the same principle, infinity can also be found potentially in the addition of crowds.

Reply Obj. 1: Every potentiality is made actual according to its mode of being; for instance, a day is reduced to act successively, and not all at once. Likewise the infinite in multitude is reduced to act successively, and not all at once; because every multitude can be succeeded by another multitude to infinity.

Reply Obj. 1: Every potential is made real according to how it exists; for example, a day unfolds into action gradually, not all at once. Similarly, the infinite number of things becomes real gradually, not all at once; because every group can be followed by another group infinitely.

Reply Obj. 2: Species of figures are infinite by infinitude of number. Now there are various species of figures, such as trilateral, quadrilateral and so on; and as an infinitely numerable multitude is not all at once reduced to act, so neither is the multitude of figures.

Reply Obj. 2: Types of figures are infinite because there are countless numbers. There are different types of figures, like triangles, quadrilaterals, and so on; and just as an infinite number of things cannot all exist at the same time, the same goes for the variety of figures.

Reply Obj. 3: Although the supposition of some things does not preclude the supposition of others, still the supposition of an infinite number is opposed to any single species of multitude. Hence it is not possible for an actually infinite multitude to exist. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: While assuming certain things doesn’t rule out the assumption of others, the idea of an infinite number contradicts any specific type of multitude. Therefore, an actually infinite multitude cannot exist.

QUESTION 8

THE EXISTENCE OF GOD IN THINGS
(In Four Articles)

THE EXISTENCE OF GOD IN THINGS
(In Four Articles)

Since it evidently belongs to the infinite to be present everywhere, and in all things, we now consider whether this belongs to God; and concerning this there arise four points of inquiry:

Since it clearly belongs to the infinite to be present everywhere and in all things, we will now consider whether this applies to God; and regarding this, there are four points of inquiry that arise:

(1) Whether God is in all things?

Is God in everything?

(2) Whether God is everywhere?

Is God everywhere?

(3) Whether God is everywhere by essence, power, and presence?

(3) Is God present everywhere in essence, power, and presence?

(4) Whether to be everywhere belongs to God alone? _______________________

(4) Is it only God who should be everywhere? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 8, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 8, Art. 1]

Whether God Is in All Things?

Whether God Is in All Things?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not in all things. For what is above all things is not in all things. But God is above all, according to the Psalm (Ps. 112:4), "The Lord is high above all nations," etc. Therefore God is not in all things.

Objection 1: It seems that God is not in everything. Since what is above all things cannot be in all things, and God is above all, as stated in the Psalm (Ps. 112:4), "The Lord is high above all nations," etc. Therefore, God is not in everything.

Obj. 2: Further, what is in anything is thereby contained. Now
God is not contained by things, but rather does He contain them.
Therefore God is not in things but things are rather in Him. Hence
Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. 20), that "in Him things are,
rather than He is in any place."

Obj. 2: Furthermore, whatever exists within anything is contained by it. Now
God is not contained by anything, but instead, He contains everything.
Therefore, God is not found in things; rather, things exist within Him. Hence
Augustine states (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. 20) that "things exist in Him,
rather than He exists in any place."

Obj. 3: Further, the more powerful an agent is, the more extended is its action. But God is the most powerful of all agents. Therefore His action can extend to things which are far removed from Him; nor is it necessary that He should be in all things.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the more powerful an agent is, the broader its influence. But God is the most powerful of all agents. Therefore, His influence can reach things that are far away from Him; nor is it necessary for Him to be present in all things.

Obj. 4: Further, the demons are beings. But God is not in the demons; for there is no fellowship between light and darkness (2 Cor. 6:14). Therefore God is not in all things.

Obj. 4: Additionally, demons are beings. But God is not in the demons; there is no partnership between light and darkness (2 Cor. 6:14). Therefore, God is not in all things.

On the contrary, A thing is wherever it operates. But God operates in all things, according to Isa. 26:12, "Lord . . . Thou hast wrought all our works in [Vulg.: 'for'] us." Therefore God is in all things.

On the contrary, A thing exists wherever it has an effect. But God has an effect in all things, as stated in Isa. 26:12, "Lord . . . You have accomplished all our works in [Vulg.: 'for'] us." Therefore, God is present in everything.

I answer that, God is in all things; not, indeed, as part of their essence, nor as an accident, but as an agent is present to that upon which it works. For an agent must be joined to that wherein it acts immediately and touch it by its power; hence it is proved in Phys. vii that the thing moved and the mover must be joined together. Now since God is very being by His own essence, created being must be His proper effect; as to ignite is the proper effect of fire. Now God causes this effect in things not only when they first begin to be, but as long as they are preserved in being; as light is caused in the air by the sun as long as the air remains illuminated. Therefore as long as a thing has being, God must be present to it, according to its mode of being. But being is innermost in each thing and most fundamentally inherent in all things since it is formal in respect of everything found in a thing, as was shown above (Q. 7, A. 1). Hence it must be that God is in all things, and innermostly.

I answer that, God is present in everything; not as a part of their essence or as an accident, but as an agent that interacts with what it influences. An agent must connect with and exert its power on what it acts upon; therefore, it’s demonstrated in Phys. vii that the mover and the moved need to be joined together. Since God is the very essence of being, created beings must be His proper effect, just as igniting is the natural effect of fire. God brings about this effect in things not only when they first come into existence but also as long as they remain in existence; just as the sun causes light to be present in the air for as long as the air is illuminated. Hence, as long as anything exists, God must be present to it according to its nature. Being is the most fundamental aspect of each thing and is innately inherent in all things since it is the form of everything found within them, as previously mentioned (Q. 7, A. 1). Therefore, it must be that God is in all things, and in the most profound way.

Reply Obj. 1: God is above all things by the excellence of His nature; nevertheless, He is in all things as the cause of the being of all things; as was shown above in this article.

Reply Obj. 1: God surpasses everything because of the greatness of His nature; however, He is present in all things as the source of their existence, as was explained earlier in this article.

Reply Obj. 2: Although corporeal things are said to be in another as in that which contains them, nevertheless, spiritual things contain those things in which they are; as the soul contains the body. Hence also God is in things containing them; nevertheless, by a certain similitude to corporeal things, it is said that all things are in God; inasmuch as they are contained by Him.

Reply Obj. 2: Although physical things are said to be in something that contains them, spiritual things contain the things in which they exist, just like the soul contains the body. Similarly, God is present in the things that contain Him; however, in a way similar to physical things, it is said that all things exist in God because they are held within Him.

Reply Obj. 3: No action of an agent, however powerful it may be, acts at a distance, except through a medium. But it belongs to the great power of God that He acts immediately in all things. Hence nothing is distant from Him, as if it could be without God in itself. But things are said to be distant from God by the unlikeness to Him in nature or grace; as also He is above all by the excellence of His own nature.

Reply Obj. 3: No action of an agent, no matter how powerful, can operate at a distance without a medium. However, it is in God's great power that He acts directly in all things. Therefore, nothing is truly distant from Him, as nothing can exist apart from God. Things are considered distant from God due to their differences from Him in nature or grace; just as He is above all by the greatness of His own nature.

Reply Obj. 4: In the demons there is their nature which is from God, and also the deformity of sin which is not from Him; therefore, it is not to be absolutely conceded that God is in the demons, except with the addition, "inasmuch as they are beings." But in things not deformed in their nature, we must say absolutely that God is. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The demons have a nature that comes from God, but they also have the corruption of sin that does not. Therefore, we can't say that God is in the demons in a complete sense, except when we add, "as they are beings." However, for things that are not corrupted in their nature, we can definitely say that God is present. _______________________

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 8, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 8, Art. 2]

Whether God Is Everywhere?

Is God everywhere?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not everywhere. For to be everywhere means to be in every place. But to be in every place does not belong to God, to Whom it does not belong to be in place at all; for "incorporeal things," as Boethius says (De Hebdom.), "are not in a place." Therefore God is not everywhere.

Objection 1: It seems that God is not everywhere. To be everywhere means to be in every location. But being in every location does not apply to God, who does not belong to any specific place at all; because, as Boethius says (De Hebdom.), "incorporeal things are not in a place." Therefore, God is not everywhere.

Obj. 2: Further, the relation of time to succession is the same as the relation of place to permanence. But one indivisible part of action or movement cannot exist in different times; therefore neither can one indivisible part in the genus of permanent things be in every place. Now the divine being is not successive but permanent. Therefore God is not in many places; and thus He is not everywhere.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the relationship of time to succession is the same as the relationship of place to permanence. However, one indivisible part of an action or movement cannot exist at different times; therefore, one indivisible part in the category of permanent things cannot be in every place. Now, the divine being is not successive but permanent. Therefore, God is not in many places; and thus He is not everywhere.

Obj. 3: Further, what is wholly in any one place is not in part elsewhere. But if God is in any one place He is all there; for He has no parts. No part of Him then is elsewhere; and therefore God is not everywhere.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, what exists entirely in one place cannot partly exist elsewhere. But if God is in one place, He is fully there; He doesn't have parts. So, no part of Him exists in another place; therefore, God is not everywhere.

On the contrary, It is written, "I fill heaven and earth." (Jer. 23:24).

On the contrary, it is written, "I fill heaven and earth." (Jer. 23:24).

I answer that, Since place is a thing, to be in place can be understood in a twofold sense; either by way of other things—i.e. as one thing is said to be in another no matter how; and thus the accidents of a place are in place; or by a way proper to place; and thus things placed are in a place. Now in both these senses, in some way God is in every place; and this is to be everywhere. First, as He is in all things giving them being, power and operation; so He is in every place as giving it existence and locative power. Again, things placed are in place, inasmuch as they fill place; and God fills every place; not, indeed, like a body, for a body is said to fill place inasmuch as it excludes the co-presence of another body; whereas by God being in a place, others are not thereby excluded from it; indeed, by the very fact that He gives being to the things that fill every place, He Himself fills every place.

I answer that, Since a place is a real thing, being in a place can be understood in two ways: either through other things—meaning that one thing is said to be in another in any manner; and thus the characteristics of a place are in the place; or in a way that is specific to place; and so things positioned are in a place. In both of these senses, God is in some way in every place; and this means being everywhere. First, as He exists in all things, giving them being, power, and action; He is in every place by giving it existence and the ability to hold things. Moreover, things located in a place are in that place because they occupy it; and God occupies every place; not in the way a physical body does, since a body is said to fill a place by preventing the presence of another body; whereas God's presence in a place does not exclude others from being in it; in fact, by giving existence to the things that occupy every place, He Himself occupies every place.

Reply Obj. 1: Incorporeal things are in place not by contact of dimensive quantity, as bodies are but by contact of power.

Reply Obj. 1: Incorporeal things exist in a location not through physical contact of size, like bodies do, but through the interaction of their influence.

Reply Obj. 2: The indivisible is twofold. One is the term of the continuous; as a point in permanent things, and as a moment in succession; and this kind of the indivisible in permanent things, forasmuch as it has a determinate site, cannot be in many parts of place, or in many places; likewise the indivisible of action or movement, forasmuch as it has a determinate order in movement or action, cannot be in many parts of time. Another kind of the indivisible is outside of the whole genus of the continuous; and in this way incorporeal substances, like God, angel and soul, are called indivisible. Such a kind of indivisible does not belong to the continuous, as a part of it, but as touching it by its power; hence, according as its power can extend itself to one or to many, to a small thing, or to a great one, in this way it is in one or in many places, and in a small or large place.

Reply Obj. 2: The indivisible has two aspects. One refers to continuity; it’s like a point in permanent things and a moment in time. This type of indivisible in permanent things, due to its specific location, cannot exist in multiple parts of space or in different places. Similarly, the indivisible in action or movement, because it follows a specific sequence, cannot occur in multiple parts of time. The other type of indivisible exists outside the whole category of continuity; in this sense, incorporeal substances like God, angels, and souls are considered indivisible. This type of indivisible doesn’t belong to continuity as a part of it, but rather interacts with it through its power. Therefore, depending on how its power extends—whether to one thing or many, to something small or large—it can exist in one or multiple places, and in a small or large area.

Reply Obj. 3: A whole is so called with reference to its parts. Now part is twofold: viz. a part of the essence, as the form and the matter are called parts of the composite, while genus and difference are called parts of species. There is also part of quantity into which any quantity is divided. What therefore is whole in any place by totality of quantity, cannot be outside of that place, because the quantity of anything placed is commensurate to the quantity of the place; and hence there is no totality of quantity without totality of place. But totality of essence is not commensurate to the totality of place. Hence it is not necessary for that which is whole by totality of essence in a thing, not to be at all outside of it. This appears also in accidental forms which have accidental quantity; as an example, whiteness is whole in each part of the surface if we speak of its totality of essence; because according to the perfect idea of its species it is found to exist in every part of the surface. But if its totality be considered according to quantity which it has accidentally, then it is not whole in every part of the surface. On the other hand, incorporeal substances have no totality either of themselves or accidentally, except in reference to the perfect idea of their essence. Hence, as the soul is whole in every part of the body, so is God whole in all things and in each one. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: A whole is defined in relation to its parts. Now, a part can be categorized in two ways: one part is related to essence, such as form and matter which are considered parts of a composite, while genus and difference are seen as parts of a species. The second type of part relates to quantity, which is how any quantity can be divided. Therefore, something that is whole in a particular place regarding total quantity cannot exist outside of that place, because the quantity of anything in a location corresponds to the quantity of that location; thus, there can be no total quantity without corresponding total space. However, total essence does not correspond to total space. Therefore, it’s not necessary for what is whole in terms of essence within something to also be entirely outside of it. This is also evident in accidental forms that have accidental quantities; for example, whiteness is whole in each part of the surface when considered in terms of its essence since, according to the perfect representation of its species, it exists in every part of the surface. But, if we look at its totality in terms of the quantity it has accidentally, then it is not whole in every part of the surface. On the other hand, incorporeal substances do not have totality in themselves or accidentally, except in relation to the perfect idea of their essence. So, just as the soul is whole in every part of the body, God is whole in everything and in each individual thing.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 8, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 8, Art. 3]

Whether God Is Everywhere by Essence, Presence and Power?

Whether God is everywhere by essence, presence, and power?

Objection 1: It seems that the mode of God's existence in all things is not properly described by way of essence, presence and power. For what is by essence in anything, is in it essentially. But God is not essentially in things; for He does not belong to the essence of anything. Therefore it ought not to be said that God is in things by essence, presence and power.

Objection 1: It appears that the way God exists in all things is not accurately described using essence, presence, and power. Whatever is in something by essence is essentially part of it. However, God is not essentially in things; He doesn’t belong to the essence of anything. Therefore, it shouldn't be said that God is in things through essence, presence, and power.

Obj. 2: Further, to be present in anything means not to be absent from it. Now this is the meaning of God being in things by His essence, that He is not absent from anything. Therefore the presence of God in all things by essence and presence means the same thing. Therefore it is superfluous to say that God is present in things by His essence, presence and power.

Obj. 2: Additionally, being present in something means not being absent from it. This is what it means for God to be in things by His essence; He is not absent from anything. Therefore, the presence of God in all things by essence and presence is the same concept. As a result, it's unnecessary to say that God is present in things by His essence, presence, and power.

Obj. 3: Further, as God by His power is the principle of all things, so He is the same likewise by His knowledge and will. But it is not said that He is in things by knowledge and will. Therefore neither is He present by His power.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, just as God is the source of everything through His power, He is also the same through His knowledge and will. However, it is not stated that He is in things through knowledge and will. Therefore, He is not present through His power either.

Obj. 4: Further, as grace is a perfection added to the substance of a thing, so many other perfections are likewise added. Therefore if God is said to be in certain persons in a special way by grace, it seems that according to every perfection there ought to be a special mode of God's existence in things.

Obj. 4: Additionally, since grace is a perfection added to the essence of something, many other perfections are also added. Therefore, if God is said to be present in certain individuals in a unique way through grace, it appears that for every perfection, there should be a specific way of God's existence in things.

On the contrary, A gloss on the Canticle of Canticles (5) says that, "God by a common mode is in all things by His presence, power and substance; still He is said to be present more familiarly in some by grace." [*The quotation is from St. Gregory, (Hom. viii in Ezech.)].

On the contrary, A commentary on the Song of Songs (5) says that, "God is present in all things through His presence, power, and essence; however, He is said to be more intimately present in some through grace." [*The quotation is from St. Gregory, (Hom. viii in Ezech.)].

I answer that, God is said to be in a thing in two ways; in one way after the manner of an efficient cause; and thus He is in all things created by Him; in another way he is in things as the object of operation is in the operator; and this is proper to the operations of the soul, according as the thing known is in the one who knows; and the thing desired in the one desiring. In this second way God is especially in the rational creature which knows and loves Him actually or habitually. And because the rational creature possesses this prerogative by grace, as will be shown later (Q. 12). He is said to be thus in the saints by grace.

I respond that, God is said to be in a thing in two ways; one is in the way an efficient cause is involved, and in this sense, He is in all things He created; the other way is like how the object of action is present in the one taking the action; this applies to the operations of the soul, where the thing known exists in the knower, and the thing desired exists in the person desiring. In this second sense, God is especially present in rational beings who know and love Him, whether actually or habitually. Moreover, since rational beings have this privilege through grace, as will be explained later (Q. 12), He is said to be present in the saints through grace.

But how He is in other things created by Him, may be considered from human affairs. A king, for example, is said to be in the whole kingdom by his power, although he is not everywhere present. Again a thing is said to be by its presence in other things which are subject to its inspection; as things in a house are said to be present to anyone, who nevertheless may not be in substance in every part of the house. Lastly, a thing is said to be by way of substance or essence in that place in which its substance may be. Now there were some (the Manichees) who said that spiritual and incorporeal things were subject to the divine power; but that visible and corporeal things were subject to the power of a contrary principle. Therefore against these it is necessary to say that God is in all things by His power.

But how He is in other things He created can be understood through human affairs. For instance, a king is said to be present throughout the entire kingdom by his power, even though he’s not physically everywhere. Similarly, something is considered to be present in other things that it oversees; for example, items in a house are said to be present to someone who might not physically be in every part of the house. Finally, a thing is said to exist by way of substance or essence in the place where its substance is located. Now, there were some (the Manichees) who claimed that spiritual and non-physical things were under divine power, while visible and physical things were under the control of an opposing principle. Therefore, in response to this, it is essential to assert that God is present in all things by His power.

But others, though they believed that all things were subject to the divine power, still did not allow that divine providence extended to these inferior bodies, and in the person of these it is said, "He walketh about the poles of the heavens; and He doth not consider our things [*Vulg.: 'He doth not consider . . . and He walketh,' etc.]" (Job 22:14). Against these it is necessary to say that God is in all things by His presence.

But others, while believing that everything is under divine power, still didn't think that divine providence applied to these lower beings. It’s mentioned in the context of these that, "He walks around the poles of the heavens; and He doesn’t pay attention to our matters" (Job 22:14). In response to this, it must be said that God is present in all things.

Further, others said that, although all things are subject to God's providence, still all things are not immediately created by God; but that He immediately created the first creatures, and these created the others. Against these it is necessary to say that He is in all things by His essence.

Further, others said that, although everything is under God's control, not everything is created directly by Him; rather, He created the first beings directly, and those beings went on to create the others. In response to this, it must be stated that He is present in all things through His essence.

Therefore, God is in all things by His power, inasmuch as all things are subject to His power; He is by His presence in all things, as all things are bare and open to His eyes; He is in all things by His essence, inasmuch as He is present to all as the cause of their being.

Therefore, God is in everything by His power, since everything is under His authority; He is present in all things, because everything is exposed and visible to Him; He is in everything by His essence, as He exists as the source of their being.

Reply Obj. 1: God is said to be in all things by essence, not indeed by the essence of the things themselves, as if He were of their essence; but by His own essence; because His substance is present to all things as the cause of their being.

Reply Obj. 1: God is described as being in all things by His essence, not by the essence of the things themselves, as if He were part of their essence; rather, He is present by His own essence because His substance is the reason for their existence.

Reply Obj. 2: A thing can be said to be present to another, when in its sight, though the thing may be distant in substance, as was shown in this article; and therefore two modes of presence are necessary; viz. by essence and by presence.

Reply Obj. 2: Something can be said to be present to another when it can be seen, even if the thing is far away in substance, as was explained in this article; therefore, two types of presence are necessary: by essence and by presence.

Reply Obj. 3: Knowledge and will require that the thing known should be in the one who knows, and the thing willed in the one who wills. Hence by knowledge and will things are more truly in God than God in things. But power is the principle of acting on another; hence by power the agent is related and applied to an external thing; thus by power an agent may be said to be present to another.

Reply Obj. 3: Knowledge and will mean that what is known must exist in the one who knows, and what is willed must exist in the one who wills. Therefore, through knowledge and will, things exist more truly in God than God exists in things. However, power is the basis for acting on another; thus, through power, the agent is connected and applied to an external thing; in this way, an agent can be said to be present to another.

Reply Obj. 4: No other perfection, except grace, added to substance, renders God present in anything as the object known and loved; therefore only grace constitutes a special mode of God's existence in things. There is, however, another special mode of God's existence in man by union, which will be treated of in its own place (Part III). _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: No other perfection, except grace, added to substance, makes God present in anything as the object known and loved; therefore only grace creates a unique way for God to exist in things. However, there is another unique way for God to exist in humans through union, which will be discussed later (Part III).

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 8, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 8, Art. 4]

Whether to Be Everywhere Belongs to God Alone?

Whether being everywhere is a power that belongs to God alone?

Objection 1: It seems that to be everywhere does not belong to God alone. For the universal, according to the Philosopher (Poster. i), is everywhere, and always; primary matter also, since it is in all bodies, is everywhere. But neither of these is God, as appears from what is said above (Q. 3). Therefore to be everywhere does not belong to God alone.

Objection 1: It appears that being everywhere isn't exclusive to God. The universal, according to the Philosopher (Poster. i), is everywhere and always; primary matter, since it exists in all bodies, is also everywhere. However, neither of these is God, as mentioned above (Q. 3). Therefore, being everywhere isn't limited to God alone.

Obj. 2: Further, number is in things numbered. But the whole universe is constituted in number, as appears from the Book of Wisdom (Wis. 11:21). Therefore there is some number which is in the whole universe, and is thus everywhere.

Obj. 2: Also, number is found in things that are numbered. But the entire universe is made up of numbers, as shown in the Book of Wisdom (Wis. 11:21). Therefore, there is some number that exists in the whole universe and is thus everywhere.

Obj. 3: Further, the universe is a kind of "whole perfect body" (Coel. et Mund. i). But the whole universe is everywhere, because there is no place outside it. Therefore to be everywhere does not belong to God alone.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the universe is like a "complete perfect body" (Coel. et Mund. i). But the entire universe is everywhere, since there is nowhere outside of it. So, being everywhere isn’t something that belongs only to God.

Obj. 4: Further, if any body were infinite, no place would exist outside of it, and so it would be everywhere. Therefore to be everywhere does not appear to belong to God alone.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, if anything were infinite, there would be no space outside of it, meaning it would be everywhere. Therefore, being everywhere does not seem to be an exclusive trait of God.

Obj. 5: Further, the soul, as Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 6), is "whole in the whole body, and whole in every one of its parts." Therefore if there was only one animal in the world, its soul would be everywhere; and thus to be everywhere does not belong to God alone.

Obj. 5: Additionally, as Augustine states (De Trin. vi, 6), the soul is "whole in the whole body, and whole in each of its parts." Therefore, if there was only one animal in the world, its soul would be everywhere; thus, being everywhere is not something that only belongs to God.

Obj. 6: Further, as Augustine says (Ep. 137), "The soul feels where it sees, and lives where it feels, and is where it lives." But the soul sees as it were everywhere: for in a succession of glances it comprehends the entire space of the heavens in its sight. Therefore the soul is everywhere.

Obj. 6: Additionally, as Augustine states (Ep. 137), "The soul feels where it sees, and lives where it feels, and is where it lives." But the soul sees as if it were everywhere: for in a series of glances, it understands the whole expanse of the heavens within its sight. Therefore, the soul is everywhere.

On the contrary, Ambrose says (De Spir. Sanct. i, 7): "Who dares to call the Holy Ghost a creature, Who in all things, and everywhere, and always is, which assuredly belongs to the divinity alone?"

On the contrary, Ambrose says (De Spir. Sanct. i, 7): "Who would dare to call the Holy Spirit a creature, Who is in all things, everywhere, and always, which certainly belongs only to the divine?"

I answer that, To be everywhere primarily and absolutely, is proper to God. Now to be everywhere primarily is said of that which in its whole self is everywhere; for if a thing were everywhere according to its parts in different places, it would not be primarily everywhere, forasmuch as what belongs to anything according to part does not belong to it primarily; thus if a man has white teeth, whiteness belongs primarily not to the man but to his teeth. But a thing is everywhere absolutely when it does not belong to it to be everywhere accidentally, that is, merely on some supposition; as a grain of millet would be everywhere, supposing that no other body existed. It belongs therefore to a thing to be everywhere absolutely when, on any supposition, it must be everywhere; and this properly belongs to God alone. For whatever number of places be supposed, even if an infinite number be supposed besides what already exist, it would be necessary that God should be in all of them; for nothing can exist except by Him. Therefore to be everywhere primarily and absolutely belongs to God and is proper to Him: because whatever number of places be supposed to exist, God must be in all of them, not as to a part of Him, but as to His very self.

I respond that, to be everywhere in a primary and absolute sense is something that belongs to God. To be everywhere primarily refers to something that is entirely present everywhere; if something were present in multiple locations only by its parts, it wouldn’t be primarily everywhere, since what pertains to something in part doesn’t belong to it primarily. For example, if a person has white teeth, the quality of whiteness applies primarily to the teeth, not to the person. A thing is considered absolutely everywhere when it isn’t just present by accident or merely by a certain condition; for instance, a grain of millet would be everywhere only if no other matter existed. Therefore, it’s essential for a thing to be absolutely everywhere when, under any circumstance, it must exist everywhere; and this quality belongs solely to God. Regardless of how many places are imagined, even if there were an infinite number alongside those that currently exist, it would be necessary for God to be present in all of them; because nothing can exist aside from Him. Hence, to be everywhere primarily and absolutely is a quality that belongs to God alone: because whatever number of places are considered, God must be in all of them, not just as a part of Him, but as His very essence.

Reply Obj. 1: The universal, and also primary matter are indeed everywhere; but not according to the same mode of existence.

Reply Obj. 1: The universal, and also primary matter is indeed everywhere; but not in the same way of existing.

Reply Obj. 2: Number, since it is an accident, does not, of itself, exist in place, but accidentally; neither is the whole but only part of it in each of the things numbered; hence it does not follow that it is primarily and absolutely everywhere.

Reply Obj. 2: Number, being an accident, doesn’t inherently exist in a specific place but rather exists by chance; also, it’s not in the whole but only in part of each of the things that are numbered; therefore, it doesn’t mean that it is primarily and absolutely everywhere.

Reply Obj. 3: The whole body of the universe is everywhere, but not primarily; forasmuch as it is not wholly in each place, but according to its parts; nor again is it everywhere absolutely, because, supposing that other places existed besides itself, it would not be in them.

Reply Obj. 3: The entire body of the universe is everywhere, but not in a primary way; because it is not completely present in each location, but according to its parts; nor is it absolutely everywhere, since if other places existed besides itself, it would not be in them.

Reply Obj. 4: If an infinite body existed, it would be everywhere; but according to its parts.

Reply Obj. 4: If an infinite body existed, it would be everywhere, but it would depend on its parts.

Reply Obj. 5: Were there one animal only, its soul would be everywhere primarily indeed, but only accidentally.

Reply Obj. 5: If there were only one animal, its soul would be everywhere primarily, but only as a secondary matter.

Reply Obj. 6: When it is said that the soul sees anywhere, this can be taken in two senses. In one sense the adverb "anywhere" determines the act of seeing on the part of the object; and in this sense it is true that while it sees the heavens, it sees in the heavens; and in the same way it feels in the heavens; but it does not follow that it lives or exists in the heavens, because to live and to exist do not import an act passing to an exterior object. In another sense it can be understood according as the adverb determines the act of the seer, as proceeding from the seer; and thus it is true that where the soul feels and sees, there it is, and there it lives according to this mode of speaking; and thus it does not follow that it is everywhere. _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: When we say that the soul sees anywhere, this can be understood in two ways. In one way, the word "anywhere" focuses on what is being seen; and in this sense, it's true that while it sees the heavens, it sees within the heavens; and similarly, it feels in the heavens; but this does not mean that it lives or exists in the heavens, because living and existing do not imply an action directed at an external object. In another way, it can be understood as referring to the act of the seer, coming from the seer; and in this sense, it's true that where the soul feels and sees, there it is, and there it lives according to this way of speaking; and therefore, it does not follow that it is everywhere.

QUESTION 9

THE IMMUTABILITY OF GOD
(In Two Articles)

THE IMMUTABILITY OF GOD
(In Two Articles)

We next consider God's immutability, and His eternity following on His immutability. On the immutability of God there are two points of inquiry:

We now look at God's unchanging nature and His eternity, which follows from His unchanging nature. There are two key points to explore regarding God's unchanging nature:

(1) Whether God is altogether immutable?

Is God totally unchanging?

(2) Whether to be immutable belongs to God alone? _______________________

(2) Is it up to God alone to be unchangeable? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 9, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 9, Art. 1]

Whether God is altogether immutable?

Is God completely unchanging?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not altogether immutable. For whatever moves itself is in some way mutable. But, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit, viii, 20), "The Creator Spirit moves Himself neither by time, nor by place." Therefore God is in some way mutable.

Objection 1: It appears that God is not completely unchanging. Anything that moves itself is somewhat changeable. However, as Augustine states (Gen. ad lit, viii, 20), "The Creator Spirit does not move Himself by time or by place." Therefore, God is in some way changeable.

Obj. 2: Further, it is said of Wisdom, that "it is more mobile than all things active [Vulg. 'mobilior']" (Wis. 7:24). But God is wisdom itself; therefore God is movable.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, it is said about Wisdom that "it is more mobile than all things active" (Wis. 7:24). But God is wisdom itself; therefore, God is movable.

Obj. 3: Further, to approach and to recede signify movement. But these are said of God in Scripture, "Draw nigh to God and He will draw nigh to you" (James 4:8). Therefore God is mutable.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, to approach and to move away implies action. But these actions are attributed to God in Scripture, "Draw near to God and He will draw near to you" (James 4:8). Therefore, God is changeable.

On the contrary, It is written, "I am the Lord, and I change not" (Malachi 3:6).

On the contrary, it is written, "I am the Lord, and I do not change" (Malachi 3:6).

I answer that, From what precedes, it is shown that God is altogether immutable. First, because it was shown above that there is some first being, whom we call God; and that this first being must be pure act, without the admixture of any potentiality, for the reason that, absolutely, potentiality is posterior to act. Now everything which is in any way changed, is in some way in potentiality. Hence it is evident that it is impossible for God to be in any way changeable. Secondly, because everything which is moved, remains as it was in part, and passes away in part; as what is moved from whiteness to blackness, remains the same as to substance; thus in everything which is moved, there is some kind of composition to be found. But it has been shown above (Q. 3, A. 7) that in God there is no composition, for He is altogether simple. Hence it is manifest that God cannot be moved. Thirdly, because everything which is moved acquires something by its movement, and attains to what it had not attained previously. But since God is infinite, comprehending in Himself all the plenitude of perfection of all being, He cannot acquire anything new, nor extend Himself to anything whereto He was not extended previously. Hence movement in no way belongs to Him. So, some of the ancients, constrained, as it were, by the truth, decided that the first principle was immovable.

I answer that, Based on what has been discussed, it's clear that God is completely unchangeable. First, it was established earlier that there is a first being, which we call God; and this first being must be pure act, with no potentiality involved, because, in absolute terms, potentiality comes after act. Now, everything that changes in any way is, in some sense, in potentiality. Therefore, it’s evident that God cannot be changeable in any way. Secondly, everything that is moved retains some aspects of its original state while losing others; for example, something changing from white to black still maintains its substance. Thus, in anything that moves, there's a type of composition present. However, it’s been shown earlier (Q. 3, A. 7) that in God there is no composition, as He is entirely simple. Hence, it’s clear that God cannot be moved. Thirdly, everything that is moved gains something through its movement and reaches what it didn't have before. But since God is infinite, encompassing all the fullness of perfection of all existence, He cannot gain anything new, nor can He extend Himself to something He wasn't already extended to. Therefore, movement does not apply to Him. As a result, some ancient thinkers, compelled by the truth, concluded that the first principle is unmovable.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine there speaks in a similar way to Plato, who said that the first mover moves Himself; calling every operation a movement, even as the acts of understanding, and willing, and loving, are called movements. Therefore because God understands and loves Himself, in that respect they said that God moves Himself, not, however, as movement and change belong to a thing existing in potentiality, as we now speak of change and movement.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine talks similarly to Plato, who said that the first mover moves itself; referring to every action as a movement, just like the acts of understanding, willing, and loving are called movements. So, because God understands and loves Himself, in that sense, they said that God moves Himself, but not in the way that movement and change apply to things that exist in potentiality, as we now refer to change and movement.

Reply Obj. 2: Wisdom is called mobile by way of similitude, according as it diffuses its likeness even to the outermost of things; for nothing can exist which does not proceed from the divine wisdom by way of some kind of imitation, as from the first effective and formal principle; as also works of art proceed from the wisdom of the artist. And so in the same way, inasmuch as the similitude of the divine wisdom proceeds in degrees from the highest things, which participate more fully of its likeness, to the lowest things which participate of it in a lesser degree, there is said to be a kind of procession and movement of the divine wisdom to things; as when we say that the sun proceeds to the earth, inasmuch as the ray of light touches the earth. In this way Dionysius (Coel. Hier. i) expounds the matter, that every procession of the divine manifestation comes to us from the movement of the Father of light.

Reply Obj. 2: Wisdom is called mobile in a similar sense, as it spreads its likeness even to the farthest things; because nothing can exist that doesn’t stem from divine wisdom in some way, as the first effective and formal principle, just like works of art come from the artist’s wisdom. Similarly, the likeness of divine wisdom comes in degrees, from the highest things that share more of its likeness to the lowest things that share it to a lesser extent. This is seen as a kind of procession and movement of divine wisdom towards things; akin to how we say that the sun moves toward the earth when its ray of light reaches the earth. In this way, Dionysius (Coel. Hier. i) explains that every expression of divine manifestation comes to us from the movement of the Father of light.

Reply Obj. 3: These things are said of God in Scripture metaphorically. For as the sun is said to enter a house, or to go out, according as its rays reach the house, so God is said to approach to us, or to recede from us, when we receive the influx of His goodness, or decline from Him. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: These things are described about God in the Scriptures metaphorically. Just as the sun is said to enter a house or go out depending on how its rays reach it, God is said to come close to us or pull away from us when we receive His goodness or turn away from Him.

SECOND ARTICLE [I. Q. 9, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I. Q. 9, Art. 2]

Whether to Be Immutable Belongs to God Alone?

Whether being unchangeable belongs to God alone?

Objection 1: It seems that to be immutable does not belong to God alone. For the Philosopher says (Metaph. ii) that "matter is in everything which is moved." But, according to some, certain created substances, as angels and souls, have not matter. Therefore to be immutable does not belong to God alone.

Objection 1: It seems that being unchanging isn’t something that only God has. The Philosopher says (Metaph. ii) that "matter exists in everything that is moved." However, according to some, certain created beings, like angels and souls, don’t have matter. Therefore, being unchanging doesn’t belong to God alone.

Obj. 2: Further, everything in motion moves to some end. What therefore has already attained its ultimate end, is not in motion. But some creatures have already attained to their ultimate end; as all the blessed in heaven. Therefore some creatures are immovable.

Obj. 2: Additionally, everything that is in motion is moving towards a goal. Therefore, what has already reached its ultimate goal is not in motion. However, some beings have already reached their ultimate goal, like all the blessed in heaven. So, some beings are unmovable.

Obj. 3: Further, everything which is mutable is variable. But forms are invariable; for it is said (Sex Princip. i) that "form is essence consisting of the simple and invariable." Therefore it does not belong to God alone to be immutable.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, everything that can change is variable. However, forms are constant; as it is said (Sex Princip. i) that "form is essence made up of the simple and unchanging." Therefore, being unchangeable does not belong to God alone.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Nat. Boni. i), "God alone is immutable; and whatever things He has made, being from nothing, are mutable."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Nat. Boni. i), "God alone is unchanging; and everything He has created, coming from nothing, can change."

I answer that, God alone is altogether immutable; whereas every creature is in some way mutable. Be it known therefore that a mutable thing can be called so in two ways: by a power in itself; and by a power possessed by another. For all creatures before they existed, were possible, not by any created power, since no creature is eternal, but by the divine power alone, inasmuch as God could produce them into existence. Thus, as the production of a thing into existence depends on the will of God, so likewise it depends on His will that things should be preserved; for He does not preserve them otherwise than by ever giving them existence; hence if He took away His action from them, all things would be reduced to nothing, as appears from Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 12). Therefore as it was in the Creator's power to produce them before they existed in themselves, so likewise it is in the Creator's power when they exist in themselves to bring them to nothing. In this way therefore, by the power of another—namely, of God—they are mutable, inasmuch as they are producible from nothing by Him, and are by Him reducible from existence to non-existence.

I respond that, God alone is completely unchanging; while every creature can change in some way. It should be understood that something is deemed mutable in two ways: by a power within itself and by a power from another source. Before they existed, all creatures were potential, not through any created power, since no creature is eternal, but through divine power alone, as God had the ability to bring them into existence. Therefore, just as the creation of something relies on God's will, so too does its preservation; He only preserves them by continuously giving them existence; thus, if He withdrew His action, everything would revert to nothing, as Augustine points out (Gen. ad lit. iv, 12). Consequently, just as it was in the Creator's power to bring them into existence before they existed independently, it is also in the Creator's power, while they exist, to eliminate them. Hence, through the power of another—specifically God—they are mutable, as they can be brought from nothing by Him and can also be returned from existence to non-existence by Him.

If, however, a thing is called mutable by a power in itself, thus also in some manner every creature is mutable. For every creature has a twofold power, active and passive; and I call that power passive which enables anything to attain its perfection either in being, or in attaining to its end. Now if the mutability of a thing be considered according to its power for being, in that way all creatures are not mutable, but those only in which what is potential in them is consistent with non-being. Hence, in the inferior bodies there is mutability both as regards substantial being, inasmuch as their matter can exist with privation of their substantial form, and also as regards their accidental being, supposing the subject to coexist with privation of accident; as, for example, this subject man can exist with not-whiteness and can therefore be changed from white to not-white. But supposing the accident to be such as to follow on the essential principles of the subject, then the privation of such an accident cannot coexist with the subject. Hence the subject cannot be changed as regards that kind of accident; as, for example, snow cannot be made black. Now in the celestial bodies matter is not consistent with privation of form, because the form perfects the whole potentiality of the matter; therefore these bodies are not mutable as to substantial being, but only as to locality, because the subject is consistent with privation of this or that place. On the other hand incorporeal substances, being subsistent forms which, although with respect to their own existence are as potentiality to act, are not consistent with the privation of this act; forasmuch as existence is consequent upon form, and nothing corrupts except it lose its form. Hence in the form itself there is no power to non-existence; and so these kinds of substances are immutable and invariable as regards their existence. Wherefore Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "intellectual created substances are pure from generation and from every variation, as also are incorporeal and immaterial substances." Still, there remains in them a twofold mutability: one as regards their potentiality to their end; and in that way there is in them a mutability according to choice from good to evil, as Damascene says (De Fide ii, 3,4); the other as regards place, inasmuch as by their finite power they attain to certain fresh places—which cannot be said of God, who by His infinity fills all places, as was shown above (Q. 8, A. 2).

If something is called changeable by a power within itself, then in some way, every creature is changeable. Each creature has two types of powers: active and passive. I refer to passive power as that which allows anything to reach its full potential in being or in achieving its purpose. If we consider the changeability of something in terms of its ability to exist, not all creatures are changeable; only those in which what is potential can also be non-existent. Therefore, in lower beings, there’s changeability both concerning their substantial existence, since their matter can exist without their essential form, and also concerning their accidental existence, provided the subject can exist without the accident. For example, a subject like man can exist without whiteness, meaning it can change from white to not-white. However, if the accident necessarily follows the essential principles of the subject, then the absence of that accident cannot coexist with the subject. For instance, snow cannot be changed to black. In celestial bodies, matter cannot exist without its form because the form completes all potential in the matter; therefore, these bodies are not changeable in terms of their essential being, but only in terms of location, since the subject can exist in different places. On the other hand, incorporeal substances, being independent forms that have potential to act in relation to their existence, cannot lack this action; since existence follows form, and nothing decays unless it loses its form. Thus, within the form itself, there is no power for non-existence, making these substances unchanging and constant regarding their existence. Therefore, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv) that "intellectual created substances are free from generation and every variation, as are incorporeal and immaterial substances." However, they still possess two types of changeability: one concerning their ability to achieve their end, allowing change from good to evil, as Damascene states (De Fide ii, 3,4); and the other regarding location, as they can move to new places through their limited power—something that cannot be said of God, who, due to His infinity, occupies all places, as discussed above (Q. 8, A. 2).

Thus in every creature there is a potentiality to change either as regards substantial being as in the case of things corruptible; or as regards locality only, as in the case of the celestial bodies; or as regards the order to their end, and the application of their powers to divers objects, as in the case with the angels; and universally all creatures generally are mutable by the power of the Creator, in Whose power is their existence and non-existence. Hence since God is in none of these ways mutable, it belongs to Him alone to be altogether immutable.

Thus, every creature has the potential to change, either in terms of its substantial existence, like corruptible things; or in terms of its location, as seen with celestial bodies; or regarding their purpose and how they apply their abilities to various objects, like angels do. In general, all creatures can change because of the Creator's power, which is what gives them existence and can also lead to their non-existence. Therefore, since God is not mutable in any of these ways, it is solely His nature to be completely unchangeable.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection proceeds from mutability as regards substantial or accidental being; for philosophers treated of such movement.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection comes from the changes concerning essential or incidental existence, as philosophers have discussed such changes.

Reply Obj. 2: The good angels, besides their natural endowment of immutability of being, have also immutability of election by divine power; nevertheless there remains in them mutability as regards place.

Reply Obj. 2: The good angels, in addition to their natural ability to be unchanging, also have an unchanging choice through divine power; however, they still have the ability to change in terms of location.

Reply Obj. 3: Forms are called invariable, forasmuch as they cannot be subjects of variation; but they are subject to variation because by them their subject is variable. Hence it is clear that they vary in so far as they are; for they are not called beings as though they were the subject of being, but because through them something has being. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Forms are called unchanging because they can't change themselves; however, they do change because the things they are part of can change. So, it's clear that they change in the way they exist; they aren't referred to as beings as if they are the source of being, but because they enable something to exist.

QUESTION 10

THE ETERNITY OF GOD
(In Six Articles)

THE ETERNITY OF GOD
(In Six Articles)

We must now consider the eternity of God, concerning which arise six points of inquiry:

We now need to think about the eternity of God, which raises six questions:

(1) What is eternity?

What is forever?

(2) Whether God is eternal?

Is God eternal?

(3) Whether to be eternal belongs to God alone?

(3) Is it for God alone to decide who is eternal?

(4) Whether eternity differs from time?

(4) Does eternity differ from time?

(5) The difference of aeviternity and of time.

(5) The difference between eternity and time.

(6) Whether there is only one aeviternity, as there is one time, and one eternity? _______________________

(6) Is there only one aeviternity, just like there is one time and one eternity? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 10, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 10, Art. 1]

Whether This Is a Good Definition of Eternity, "The Simultaneously-
Whole and Perfect Possession of Interminable Life"?

Whether This Is a Good Definition of Eternity, "The Simultaneously-
Whole and Perfect Possession of Endless Life"?

Objection 1: It seems that the definition of eternity given by Boethius (De Consol. v) is not a good one: "Eternity is the simultaneously-whole and perfect possession of interminable life." For the word "interminable" is a negative one. But negation only belongs to what is defective, and this does not belong to eternity. Therefore in the definition of eternity the word "interminable" ought not to be found.

Objection 1: The definition of eternity provided by Boethius (De Consol. v) doesn’t seem very good: "Eternity is the completely whole and perfect possession of endless life." The term "endless" has a negative connotation. But negativity only applies to things that are flawed, and that doesn't apply to eternity. Therefore, the term "endless" shouldn't be used in the definition of eternity.

Obj. 2: Further, eternity signifies a certain kind of duration. But duration regards existence rather than life. Therefore the word "life" ought not to come into the definition of eternity; but rather the word "existence."

Obj. 2: Additionally, eternity signifies a specific type of duration. However, duration pertains to existence rather than life. Therefore, the term "life" should not be included in the definition of eternity; instead, the term "existence" should be used.

Obj. 3: Further, a whole is what has parts. But this is alien to eternity which is simple. Therefore it is improperly said to be "whole."

Obj. 3: Also, a whole is made up of parts. But this concept doesn't apply to eternity, which is simple. So, it's not correct to describe it as "whole."

Obj. 4: Many days cannot occur together, nor can many times exist all at once. But in eternity, days and times are in the plural, for it is said, "His going forth is from the beginning, from the days of eternity" (Micah 5:2); and also it is said, "According to the revelation of the mystery hidden from eternity" (Rom. 16:25). Therefore eternity is not omni-simultaneous.

Obj. 4: Many days can’t happen at the same time, nor can many moments exist all at once. However, in eternity, days and moments are numerous, as it is stated, "His going forth is from the beginning, from the days of eternity" (Micah 5:2); and it is also said, "According to the revelation of the mystery hidden from eternity" (Rom. 16:25). Therefore, eternity is not all-at-once.

Obj. 5: Further, the whole and the perfect are the same thing. Supposing, therefore, that it is "whole," it is superfluously described as "perfect."

Obj. 5: Furthermore, the whole and the perfect are the same thing. Therefore, if it is "whole," it is unnecessarily described as "perfect."

Obj. 6: Further, duration does not imply "possession." But eternity is a kind of duration. Therefore eternity is not possession.

Obj. 6: Also, duration doesn’t mean "possession." But eternity is a type of duration. Therefore, eternity is not possession.

I answer that, As we attain to the knowledge of simple things by way of compound things, so must we reach to the knowledge of eternity by means of time, which is nothing but the numbering of movement by before and after. For since succession occurs in every movement, and one part comes after another, the fact that we reckon before and after in movement, makes us apprehend time, which is nothing else but the measure of before and after in movement. Now in a thing bereft of movement, which is always the same, there is no before or after. As therefore the idea of time consists in the numbering of before and after in movement; so likewise in the apprehension of the uniformity of what is outside of movement, consists the idea of eternity.

I answer that, Just as we gain knowledge of simple things through complex ones, we also come to understand eternity through time, which is simply the counting of movement through before and after. Since every movement involves succession, and one part follows another, the way we measure before and after in movement allows us to grasp time, which is merely the measure of before and after in movement. In a thing that is devoid of movement, which remains the same, there is no before or after. Therefore, just as the concept of time is rooted in counting before and after in movement, the concept of eternity is rooted in understanding the consistency of what exists outside of movement.

Further, those things are said to be measured by time which have a beginning and an end in time, because in everything which is moved there is a beginning, and there is an end. But as whatever is wholly immutable can have no succession, so it has no beginning, and no end.

Additionally, things that have a beginning and an end in time are said to be measured by time because everything that moves has both a start and a finish. However, anything that is completely unchangeable cannot have any progression, which means it has no beginning and no end.

Thus eternity is known from two sources: first, because what is eternal is interminable—that is, has no beginning nor end (that is, no term either way); secondly, because eternity has no succession, being simultaneously whole.

Thus, eternity is understood from two perspectives: first, because what is eternal is endless—that is, it has no beginning or end (no limit in either direction); second, because eternity has no sequence, existing as a complete whole at once.

Reply Obj. 1: Simple things are usually defined by way of negation; as "a point is that which has no parts." Yet this is not to be taken as if the negation belonged to their essence, but because our intellect which first apprehends compound things, cannot attain to the knowledge of simple things except by removing the opposite.

Reply Obj. 1: Simple things are usually defined by what they lack; for example, "a point is something that has no parts." However, this shouldn't be interpreted as if the lack is part of their essence, but rather because our understanding, which initially grasps complex things, can only understand simple things by eliminating their opposites.

Reply Obj. 2: What is truly eternal, is not only being, but also living; and life extends to operation, which is not true of being. Now the protraction of duration seems to belong to operation rather than to being; hence time is the numbering of movement.

Reply Obj. 2: What is truly eternal is not just existence, but also living; and life involves action, which isn't the case for mere existence. Now, the extension of duration seems to relate more to action than to existence; therefore, time is the measurement of motion.

Reply Obj. 3: Eternity is called whole, not because it has parts, but because it is wanting in nothing.

Reply Obj. 3: Eternity is considered complete, not because it has separate parts, but because it lacks nothing.

Reply Obj. 4: As God, although incorporeal, is named in Scripture metaphorically by corporeal names, so eternity though simultaneously whole, is called by names implying time and succession.

Reply Obj. 4: Just like God, who is incorporeal, is referred to with physical terms in Scripture, eternity, even though it is simultaneously complete, is given names that suggest time and sequence.

Reply Obj. 5: Two things are to be considered in time: time itself, which is successive; and the "now" of time, which is imperfect. Hence the expression "simultaneously-whole" is used to remove the idea of time, and the word "perfect" is used to exclude the "now" of time.

Reply Obj. 5: Two things need to be considered regarding time: time itself, which is continuous; and the "now" of time, which is incomplete. Therefore, the term "simultaneously-whole" is used to eliminate the notion of time, and the word "perfect" is used to exclude the "now" of time.

Reply Obj. 6: Whatever is possessed, is held firmly and quietly; therefore to designate the immutability and permanence of eternity, we use the word "possession." _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: Anything that is owned is held securely and calmly; therefore, to convey the unchanging and lasting nature of eternity, we use the term "possession."

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 10, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 10, Art. 2]

Whether God is Eternal?

Is God eternal?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not eternal. For nothing made can be predicated of God; for Boethius says (De Trin. iv) that, "The now that flows away makes time, the now that stands still makes eternity;" and Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. 28) "that God is the author of eternity." Therefore God is not eternal.

Objection 1: It seems that God is not eternal. Nothing that is created can be said about God; Boethius states (De Trin. iv) that "The moment that passes creates time, while the moment that remains unchanged creates eternity;" and Augustine mentions (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. 28) "that God is the creator of eternity." Therefore, God is not eternal.

Obj. 2: Further, what is before eternity, and after eternity, is not measured by eternity. But, as Aristotle says (De Causis), "God is before eternity and He is after eternity": for it is written that "the Lord shall reign for eternity, and beyond [*Douay: 'for ever and ever']" (Ex. 15:18). Therefore to be eternal does not belong to God.

Obj. 2: Moreover, what exists before eternity and after eternity isn't measured by eternity. But, as Aristotle states (De Causis), "God exists before eternity and after eternity": as it is written, "the Lord shall reign forever, and beyond" (Ex. 15:18). Therefore, being eternal does not pertain to God.

Obj. 3: Further, eternity is a kind of measure. But to be measured belongs not to God. Therefore it does not belong to Him to be eternal.

Obj. 3: Also, eternity is a kind of measurement. But being measured does not apply to God. So, it does not apply to Him to be eternal.

Obj. 4: Further, in eternity, there is no present, past or future, since it is simultaneously whole; as was said in the preceding article. But words denoting present, past and future time are applied to God in Scripture. Therefore God is not eternal.

Obj. 4: Also, in eternity, there is no present, past, or future, since it is entirely whole at the same time; as mentioned in the previous article. Yet words that refer to present, past, and future time are used for God in Scripture. Therefore, God is not eternal.

On the contrary, Athanasius says in his Creed: "The Father is eternal, the Son is eternal, the Holy Ghost is eternal."

On the contrary, Athanasius says in his Creed: "The Father is eternal, the Son is eternal, the Holy Spirit is eternal."

I answer that, The idea of eternity follows immutability, as the idea of time follows movement, as appears from the preceding article. Hence, as God is supremely immutable, it supremely belongs to Him to be eternal. Nor is He eternal only; but He is His own eternity; whereas, no other being is its own duration, as no other is its own being. Now God is His own uniform being; and hence as He is His own essence, so He is His own eternity.

I respond that, The concept of eternity stems from immutability, much like the concept of time arises from movement, as explained in the previous article. Therefore, since God is supremely unchanging, it is fitting that He is also supremely eternal. Moreover, He is not just eternal; He is His own eternity, while no other being is its own duration, just as no other is its own existence. Now, God is His own consistent being; therefore, just as He is His own essence, He is also His own eternity.

Reply Obj. 1: The "now" that stands still, is said to make eternity according to our apprehension. As the apprehension of time is caused in us by the fact that we apprehend the flow of the "now," so the apprehension of eternity is caused in us by our apprehending the "now" standing still. When Augustine says that "God is the author of eternity," this is to be understood of participated eternity. For God communicates His eternity to some in the same way as He communicates His immutability.

Reply Obj. 1: The "now" that is constant is said to create eternity as we perceive it. Our understanding of time comes from our experience of the flow of the "now," and our understanding of eternity comes from our experience of the "now" being unchanging. When Augustine says that "God is the author of eternity," this should be understood as referring to shared eternity. God shares His eternity with some people in the same way He shares His unchanging nature.

Reply Obj. 2: From this appears the answer to the Second Objection. For God is said to be before eternity, according as it is shared by immaterial substances. Hence, also, in the same book, it is said that "intelligence is equal to eternity." In the words of Exodus, "The Lord shall reign for eternity, and beyond," eternity stands for age, as another rendering has it. Thus it is said that the Lord will reign beyond eternity, inasmuch as He endures beyond every age, i.e. beyond every kind of duration. For age is nothing more than the period of each thing, as is said in the book De Coelo i. Or to reign beyond eternity can be taken to mean that if any other thing were conceived to exist for ever, as the movement of the heavens according to some philosophers, then God would still reign beyond, inasmuch as His reign is simultaneously whole.

Reply Obj. 2: This gives us the answer to the Second Objection. God is said to exist before eternity, as it is perceived by immaterial beings. Therefore, in the same book, it's stated that "intelligence is equivalent to eternity." In the words of Exodus, "The Lord shall reign for eternity and beyond," where eternity refers to an age, as another translation suggests. So, it is stated that the Lord will reign beyond eternity, since He exists beyond every age, meaning beyond any type of duration. An age is simply the length of time for each thing, as noted in the book De Coelo i. Alternatively, to reign beyond eternity can also mean that if anything else were to be imagined as existing forever, like the movement of the heavens according to some philosophers, God would still reign beyond that, since His reign is complete and simultaneous.

Reply Obj. 3: Eternity is nothing else but God Himself. Hence God is not called eternal, as if He were in any way measured; but the idea of measurement is there taken according to the apprehension of our mind alone.

Reply Obj. 3: Eternity is simply God Himself. Therefore, God isn't called eternal as if He could be measured in any way; instead, the concept of measurement is understood only from our own perception.

Reply Obj. 4: Words denoting different times are applied to God, because His eternity includes all times; not as if He Himself were altered through present, past and future. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Words that refer to different times are used for God because His eternity encompasses all times; not as if He Himself changes due to present, past, and future.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 10, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 10, Art. 3]

Whether to Be Eternal Belongs to God Alone?

Whether being eternal belongs to God alone?

Objection 1: It seems that it does not belong to God alone to be eternal. For it is written that "those who instruct many to justice," shall be "as stars unto perpetual eternities [*Douay: 'for all eternity']" (Dan. 12:3). Now if God alone were eternal, there could not be many eternities. Therefore God alone is not the only eternal.

Objection 1: It looks like being eternal isn't something that only God possesses. It's written that "those who lead many to righteousness" will be "like stars forever" (Dan. 12:3). If only God were eternal, there wouldn't be multiple eternities. Therefore, God isn't the only one who is eternal.

Obj. 2: Further, it is written "Depart, ye cursed into eternal [Douay: 'everlasting'] fire" (Matt. 25:41). Therefore God is not the only eternal.

Obj. 2: Moreover, it says, "Depart, you cursed, into eternal [Douay: 'everlasting'] fire" (Matt. 25:41). Therefore, God is not the only one who is eternal.

Obj. 3: Further, every necessary thing is eternal. But there are many necessary things; as, for instance, all principles of demonstration and all demonstrative propositions. Therefore God is not the only eternal.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, everything that is necessary is eternal. There are many necessary things, such as all the principles of demonstration and all demonstrative propositions. Therefore, God is not the only eternal being.

On the contrary, Jerome says (Ep. ad Damasum, xv) that "God is the only one who has no beginning." Now whatever has a beginning, is not eternal. Therefore God is the only one eternal.

On the contrary, Jerome says (Ep. ad Damasum, xv) that "God is the only one who has no beginning." Anything that has a beginning is not eternal. Therefore, God is the only eternal one.

I answer that, Eternity truly and properly so called is in God alone, because eternity follows on immutability; as appears from the first article. But God alone is altogether immutable, as was shown above (Q. 9, A. 1). Accordingly, however, as some receive immutability from Him, they share in His eternity. Thus some receive immutability from God in the way of never ceasing to exist; in that sense it is said of the earth, "it standeth for ever" (Eccl. 1:4). Again, some things are called eternal in Scripture because of the length of their duration, although they are in nature corruptible; thus (Ps. 75:5) the hills are called "eternal" and we read "of the fruits of the eternal hills." (Deut. 33:15). Some again, share more fully than others in the nature of eternity, inasmuch as they possess unchangeableness either in being or further still in operation; like the angels, and the blessed, who enjoy the Word, because "as regards that vision of the Word, no changing thoughts exist in the Saints," as Augustine says (De Trin. xv). Hence those who see God are said to have eternal life; according to that text, "This is eternal life, that they may know Thee the only true God," etc. (John 17:3).

I respond that true and proper eternity exists only in God, because eternity is linked to immutability, as shown in the first article. God alone is completely immutable, as demonstrated earlier (Q. 9, A. 1). Therefore, while some beings derive their immutability from Him, they participate in His eternity. Some beings are granted immutability from God by never ceasing to exist; in this way, it is said of the earth, "it stands forever" (Eccl. 1:4). Additionally, some things are referred to as eternal in Scripture due to their long duration, even though they are ultimately changeable; for instance, the hills are called "eternal" (Ps. 75:5), and we read "of the fruits of the eternal hills" (Deut. 33:15). Others share more fully in the essence of eternity, as they possess unchangeability either in existence or, even more so, in action; like the angels and the blessed, who experience the Word, because "as far as that vision of the Word is concerned, there are no changing thoughts in the Saints," as Augustine states (De Trin. xv). Therefore, those who see God are said to have eternal life, based on the scripture, "This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God," etc. (John 17:3).

Reply Obj. 1: There are said to be many eternities, accordingly as many share in eternity, by the contemplation of God.

Reply Obj. 1: It's said that there are many eternities, depending on how many people participate in eternity through the contemplation of God.

Reply Obj. 2: The fire of hell is called eternal, only because it never ends. Still, there is change in the pains of the lost, according to the words "To extreme heat they will pass from snowy waters" (Job 24:19). Hence in hell true eternity does not exist, but rather time; according to the text of the Psalm "Their time will be for ever" (Ps. 80:16).

Reply Obj. 2: The fire of hell is referred to as eternal only because it never ends. However, the suffering of the damned does change, as indicated by the phrase "To extreme heat they will pass from snowy waters" (Job 24:19). Therefore, in hell, true eternity does not exist, but rather time; as stated in the Psalm, "Their time will be for ever" (Ps. 80:16).

Reply Obj. 3: Necessary means a certain mode of truth; and truth, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. vi), is in the mind. Therefore in this sense the true and necessary are eternal, because they are in the eternal mind, which is the divine intellect alone; hence it does not follow that anything beside God is eternal. ______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Necessary means a specific way of understanding truth; and truth, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. vi), exists in the mind. Therefore, in this sense, the true and necessary are eternal because they are part of the eternal mind, which is solely the divine intellect; thus, it doesn't imply that anything other than God is eternal.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I. Q. 10, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I. Q. 10, Art. 4]

Whether Eternity Differs from Time?

Does Eternity Differ from Time?

Objection 1: It seems that eternity does not differ from time. For two measures of duration cannot exist together, unless one is part of the other; for instance two days or two hours cannot be together; nevertheless, we may say that a day or an hour are together, considering hour as part of a day. But eternity and time occur together, each of which imports a certain measure of duration. Since therefore eternity is not a part of time, forasmuch as eternity exceeds time, and includes it, it seems that time is a part of eternity, and is not a different thing from eternity.

Objection 1: It seems that eternity and time are the same thing. Two measures of duration can't exist together unless one is part of the other; for example, two days or two hours can't exist together. However, we can say that a day or an hour can coexist, with the hour being part of the day. But eternity and time coexist, each representing a certain measure of duration. Since eternity is not a part of time, because it surpasses time and encompasses it, it seems that time is a part of eternity and isn't fundamentally different from it.

Obj. 2: Further, according to the Philosopher (Phys. iv), the "now" of time remains the same in the whole of time. But the nature of eternity seems to be that it is the same indivisible thing in the whole space of time. Therefore eternity is the "now" of time. But the "now" of time is not substantially different from time. Therefore eternity is not substantially different from time.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, as the Philosopher states (Phys. iv), the "now" of time is consistent throughout all of time. However, the essence of eternity appears to be that it is the same indivisible entity across the entire span of time. Therefore, eternity is the "now" of time. But the "now" of time is not fundamentally different from time. Thus, eternity is not fundamentally different from time.

Obj. 3: Further, as the measure of the first movement is the measure of every movement, as said in Phys. iv, it thus appears that the measure of the first being is that of every being. But eternity is the measure of the first being—that is, of the divine being. Therefore eternity is the measure of every being. But the being of things corruptible is measured by time. Time therefore is either eternity or is a part of eternity.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, since the measure of the first movement is the measure of every movement, as mentioned in Phys. iv, it seems that the measure of the first being is also the measure of every being. But eternity is the measure of the first being—that is, of the divine being. Therefore, eternity is the measure of every being. However, the existence of corruptible things is measured by time. So, time is either eternity or a part of eternity.

On the contrary, Eternity is simultaneously whole. But time has a "before" and an "after." Therefore time and eternity are not the same thing.

On the contrary, Eternity is complete all at once. But time has a "before" and an "after." Therefore, time and eternity are not the same.

I answer that, It is manifest that time and eternity are not the same. Some have founded this difference on the fact that eternity has neither beginning nor an end; whereas time has a beginning and an end. This, however, makes a merely accidental, and not an absolute difference because, granted that time always was and always will be, according to the idea of those who think the movement of the heavens goes on for ever, there would yet remain a difference between eternity and time, as Boethius says (De Consol. v), arising from the fact that eternity is simultaneously whole; which cannot be applied to time: for eternity is the measure of a permanent being; while time is a measure of movement. Supposing, however, that the aforesaid difference be considered on the part of the things measured, and not as regards the measures, then there is some reason for it, inasmuch as that alone is measured by time which has beginning and end in time. Hence, if the movement of the heavens lasted always, time would not be of its measure as regards the whole of its duration, since the infinite is not measurable; but it would be the measure of that part of its revolution which has beginning and end in time.

I answer that, It's clear that time and eternity are not the same. Some people base this difference on the fact that eternity has no beginning or end, while time does. However, this creates only a superficial, not a fundamental, difference because, even if time always existed and always will, according to those who believe that the movement of the heavens continues forever, there would still be a distinction between eternity and time, as Boethius states (De Consol. v). This distinction comes from the fact that eternity is entirely complete at once, which cannot be applied to time: eternity measures a permanent existence, while time measures change. If we consider this difference based on the things being measured rather than the measures themselves, then there is some validity to it, since only those things that have a beginning and end in time can be measured by it. Therefore, if the movement of the heavens were eternal, time would not measure it in terms of its entire duration, as the infinite cannot be measured; rather, it would only measure that segment of its cycle that has a beginning and end in time.

Another reason for the same can be taken from these measures in themselves, if we consider the end and the beginning as potentialities; because, granted also that time always goes on, yet it is possible to note in time both the beginning and the end, by considering its parts: thus we speak of the beginning and the end of a day or of a year; which cannot be applied to eternity. Still these differences follow upon the essential and primary differences, that eternity is simultaneously whole, but that time is not so.

Another reason for this can be understood from these measures themselves if we think of the end and the beginning as potential. While it's true that time always moves forward, we can still recognize both the beginning and the end by looking at its segments: for instance, we talk about the beginning and the end of a day or a year; this doesn't apply to eternity. These distinctions arise from the fundamental differences that eternity is complete all at once, whereas time is not.

Reply Obj. 1: Such a reason would be a valid one if time and eternity were the same kind of measure; but this is seen not to be the case when we consider those things of which the respective measures are time and eternity.

Reply Obj. 1: This reasoning would be valid if time and eternity were measured in the same way; however, this is not the case when we look at things that are measured by time and eternity.

Reply Obj. 2: The "now" of time is the same as regards its subject in the whole course of time, but it differs in aspect; for inasmuch as time corresponds to movement, its "now" corresponds to what is movable; and the thing movable has the same one subject in all time, but differs in aspect a being here and there; and such alteration is movement. Likewise the flow of the "now" as alternating in aspect is time. But eternity remains the same according to both subject and aspect; and hence eternity is not the same as the "now" of time.

Reply Obj. 2: The "now" in time is the same in terms of its subject throughout all of time, but it varies in how it appears; because time relates to movement, its "now" relates to what can change; and while the thing that changes has the same subject across all of time, it appears differently depending on its location; and this change is what we call movement. Similarly, the continuous flow of "now" with its varying appearances is what we refer to as time. However, eternity remains unchanged in both subject and appearance; therefore, eternity is not the same as the "now" of time.

Reply Obj. 3: As eternity is the proper measure of permanent being, so time is the proper measure of movement; and hence, according as any being recedes from permanence of being, and is subject to change, it recedes from eternity, and is subject to time. Therefore the being of things corruptible, because it is changeable, is not measured by eternity, but by time; for time measures not only things actually changed, but also things changeable; hence it not only measures movement but it also measures repose, which belongs to whatever is naturally movable, but is not actually in motion. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Just as eternity is the true measurement of what is permanent, time is the true measurement of movement. Therefore, as any being moves away from being permanent and is subject to change, it also moves away from eternity and is subject to time. For this reason, the existence of corruptible things, because they can change, is measured by time and not by eternity. Time measures not only things that have actually changed but also things that are capable of change; thus, it measures both movement and stillness, which applies to anything that is naturally able to move but isn’t currently in motion.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 10, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 10, Art. 5]

The Difference of Aeviternity and Time

The Difference Between Aeviternity and Time

Objection 1: It seems that aeviternity is the same as time. For Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 20, 22, 23), that "God moves the spiritual through time." But aeviternity is said to be the measure of spiritual substances. Therefore time is the same as aeviternity.

Objection 1: It appears that aeviternity is the same as time. For Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 20, 22, 23) that "God moves the spiritual through time." But aeviternity is described as the measure of spiritual substances. Therefore, time is the same as aeviternity.

Obj. 2: Further, it is essential to time to have "before" and "after"; but it is essential to eternity to be simultaneously whole, as was shown above in the first article. Now aeviternity is not eternity; for it is written (Ecclus. 1:1) that eternal "Wisdom is before age." Therefore it is not simultaneously whole but has "before" and "after"; and thus it is the same as time.

Obj. 2: Additionally, it's important for time to have "before" and "after"; but for eternity, it's essential to be complete all at once, as was discussed earlier in the first article. Now, aeviternity is not the same as eternity; because it is stated (Ecclus. 1:1) that eternal "Wisdom is before age." Therefore, it isn't complete all at once but has "before" and "after"; and thus it is similar to time.

Obj. 3: Further, if there is no "before" and "after" in aeviternity, it follows that in aeviternal things there is no difference between being, having been, or going to be. Since then it is impossible for aeviternal things not to have been, it follows that it is impossible for them not to be in the future; which is false, since God can reduce them to nothing.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if there’s no "before" and "after" in eternal time, it means that in eternal things, there is no difference between being, having been, or going to be. Since it’s impossible for eternal things not to have existed, it follows that they also must exist in the future; this is false because God can bring them to nothing.

Obj. 4: Further, since the duration of aeviternal things is infinite as to subsequent duration, if aeviternity is simultaneously whole, it follows that some creature is actually infinite; which is impossible. Therefore aeviternity does not differ from time.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, since the duration of eternal things is infinite in terms of future duration, if eternity is completely whole at once, it follows that some being is actually infinite; which is impossible. Therefore, eternity is not different from time.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Consol. iii) "Who commandest time to be separate from aeviternity."

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Consol. iii) "You who command time to be separate from eternity."

I answer that, Aeviternity differs from time, and from eternity, as the mean between them both. This difference is explained by some to consist in the fact that eternity has neither beginning nor end, aeviternity, a beginning but no end, and time both beginning and end. This difference, however, is but an accidental one, as was shown above, in the preceding article; because even if aeviternal things had always been, and would always be, as some think, and even if they might sometimes fail to be, which is possible to God to allow; even granted this, aeviternity would still be distinguished from eternity, and from time.

I respond that, Aeviternity is different from time and eternity, serving as the midpoint between the two. Some explain this difference by pointing out that eternity has no beginning or end, aeviternity has a beginning but no end, and time has both a beginning and an end. However, this distinction is merely an incidental one, as demonstrated in the previous article; because even if aeviternal things had always existed and would always exist, as some believe, or even if they might sometimes cease to exist, which God could allow; even if that were the case, aeviternity would still be distinct from both eternity and time.

Others assign the difference between these three to consist in the fact that eternity has no "before" and "after"; but that time has both, together with innovation and veteration; and that aeviternity has "before" and "after" without innovation and veteration. This theory, however, involves a contradiction; which manifestly appears if innovation and veteration be referred to the measure itself. For since "before" and "after" of duration cannot exist together, if aeviternity has "before" and "after," it must follow that with the receding of the first part of aeviternity, the after part of aeviternity must newly appear; and thus innovation would occur in aeviternity itself, as it does in time. And if they be referred to the things measured, even then an incongruity would follow. For a thing which exists in time grows old with time, because it has a changeable existence, and from the changeableness of a thing measured, there follows "before" and "after" in the measure, as is clear from Physic. iv. Therefore the fact that an aeviternal thing is neither inveterate, nor subject to innovation, comes from its changelessness; and consequently its measure does not contain "before" and "after." We say then that since eternity is the measure of a permanent being, in so far as anything recedes from permanence of being, it recedes from eternity. Now some things recede from permanence of being, so that their being is subject to change, or consists in change; and these things are measured by time, as are all movements, and also the being of all things corruptible. But others recede less from permanence of being, forasmuch as their being neither consists in change, nor is the subject of change; nevertheless they have change annexed to them either actually or potentially. This appears in the heavenly bodies, the substantial being of which is unchangeable; and yet with unchangeable being they have changeableness of place. The same applies to the angels, who have an unchangeable being as regards their nature with changeableness as regards choice; moreover they have changeableness of intelligence, of affections and of places in their own degree. Therefore these are measured by aeviternity which is a mean between eternity and time. But the being that is measured by eternity is not changeable, nor is it annexed to change. In this way time has "before" and "after"; aeviternity in itself has no "before" and "after," which can, however, be annexed to it; while eternity has neither "before" nor "after," nor is it compatible with such at all.

Others say that the difference between these three lies in the fact that eternity has no "before" or "after," while time has both, along with change and permanence; and that aeviternity has "before" and "after" without change and permanence. However, this theory leads to a contradiction, which becomes clear if change and permanence are applied to the measure itself. Since "before" and "after" cannot coexist in duration, if aeviternity has "before" and "after," it follows that as the first part of aeviternity recedes, the later part of aeviternity must appear anew; and thus change would occur in aeviternity itself, just like it does in time. If applied to the things being measured, even then an inconsistency arises. A thing that exists in time ages with time, because it has a changeable existence, and from the changeability of a measured thing, "before" and "after" follow in the measure, as is clear from Physic. iv. Therefore, the fact that an aeviternal thing is neither old nor subject to change comes from its unchanging nature; and consequently, its measure does not contain "before" and "after." We then say that since eternity is the measure of something permanent, anything that deviates from being permanent also deviates from eternity. Some things do deviate from being permanent, meaning their existence is subject to change or consists of change; these things are measured by time, as are all movements and the existence of all corruptible things. Other things deviate less from permanence, as their existence neither consists in change nor is subject to it; nonetheless, they do have change associated with them either actually or potentially. This is evident in heavenly bodies, whose substantial existence is unchangeable; yet, with their unchangeable existence, they have change in location. The same applies to angels, who have an unchangeable existence concerning their nature but changeability concerning choice; they also have varying intelligence, emotions, and locations in their own way. Therefore, these are measured by aeviternity, which is a middle ground between eternity and time. However, the existence measured by eternity is unchangeable and not subject to change. In this sense, time has "before" and "after"; aeviternity in itself has no "before" and "after," although such can be associated with it; while eternity has neither "before" nor "after," nor is it compatible with such at all.

Reply Obj. 1: Spiritual creatures as regards successive affections and intelligences are measured by time. Hence also Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 20, 22, 23) that to be moved through time, is to be moved by affections. But as regards their nature they are measured by aeviternity; whereas as regards the vision of glory, they have a share of eternity.

Reply Obj. 1: Spiritual beings, in terms of their successive experiences and understandings, are measured by time. Therefore, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 20, 22, 23) that being affected over time means being influenced by emotions. However, in terms of their essence, they are measured by aeviternity; while in regard to the vision of glory, they partake in eternity.

Reply Obj. 2: Aeviternity is simultaneously whole; yet it is not eternity, because "before" and "after" are compatible with it.

Reply Obj. 2: Aeviternity is complete in itself; however, it is not eternity, because "before" and "after" can exist alongside it.

Reply Obj. 3: In the very being of an angel considered absolutely, there is no difference of past and future, but only as regards accidental change. Now to say that an angel was, or is, or will be, is to be taken in a different sense according to the acceptation of our intellect, which apprehends the angelic existence by comparison with different parts of time. But when we say that an angel is, or was, we suppose something, which being supposed, its opposite is not subject to the divine power. Whereas when we say he will be, we do not as yet suppose anything. Hence, since the existence and non-existence of an angel considered absolutely is subject to the divine power, God can make the existence of an angel not future; but He cannot cause him not to be while he is, or not to have been, after he has been.

Reply Obj. 3: When we consider an angel in its essence, there's no difference between the past and future, only in terms of accidental change. Saying that an angel was, is, or will be has different meanings based on how our minds understand the angel's existence in relation to different points in time. When we say an angel is or was, we assume something, and with that assumption, its opposite is not under God's power. But when we say he will be, we haven't assumed anything yet. Therefore, since the existence and non-existence of an angel, considered in its essence, is under God's power, God can make it so that an angel's existence is not in the future; however, He cannot make it so that the angel is not existing while it is, or that it hasn't existed after it has existed.

Reply Obj. 4: The duration of aeviternity is infinite, forasmuch as it is not finished by time. Hence, there is no incongruity in saying that a creature is infinite, inasmuch as it is not ended by any other creature. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The length of aeviternity is infinite because it isn’t limited by time. Therefore, there’s nothing strange about saying that a creature can be infinite, as it’s not concluded by any other creature.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I. Q. 10, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I. Q. 10, Art. 6]

Whether There Is Only One Aeviternity?

Whether There Is Only One Aeviternity?

Objection 1: It seems that there is not only one aeviternity; for it is written in the apocryphal books of Esdras: "Majesty and power of ages are with Thee, O Lord."

Objection 1: It appears that there isn't just one eternal state; as it is stated in the apocryphal books of Esdras: "Majesty and power of ages are with You, O Lord."

Obj. 2: Further, different genera have different measures. But some aeviternal things belong to the corporeal genus, as the heavenly bodies; and others are spiritual substances, as are the angels. Therefore there is not only one aeviternity.

Obj. 2: Additionally, different kinds have different standards. However, some eternal things belong to the physical category, like celestial bodies; while others are spiritual entities, like angels. Therefore, there isn’t just one type of eternity.

Obj. 3: Further, since aeviternity is a term of duration, where there is one aeviternity, there is also one duration. But not all aeviternal things have one duration, for some begin to exist after others; as appears in the case especially of human souls. Therefore there is not only one aeviternity.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, since aeviternity refers to a period of time, whenever there is one aeviternity, there is also one duration. However, not all aeviternal things share the same duration, as some come into existence after others, particularly in the case of human souls. Therefore, there isn't just one aeviternity.

Obj. 4: Further, things not dependent on each other do not seem to have one measure of duration; for there appears to be one time for all temporal things; since the first movement, measured by time, is in some way the cause of all movement. But aeviternal things do not depend on each other, for one angel is not the cause of another angel. Therefore there is not only one aeviternity.

Obj. 4: Additionally, things that aren't dependent on one another don't seem to share a single measure of duration; it seems there's one time for all temporal things, as the initial movement, measured by time, is somehow the cause of all movement. However, aeviternal things are independent of each other, since one angel doesn't cause another angel. Therefore, there isn't just one aeviternity.

On the contrary, Aeviternity is a more simple thing than time, and is nearer to eternity. But time is one only. Therefore much more is aeviternity one only.

On the contrary, Aeviternity is simpler than time and is closer to eternity. But time is singular. Therefore, aeviternity is even more singular.

I answer that, A twofold opinion exists on this subject. Some say there is only one aeviternity; others that there are many aeviternities. Which of these is true, may be considered from the cause why time is one; for we can rise from corporeal things to the knowledge of spiritual things.

I respond that, There are two opinions on this topic. Some believe there is only one eternal existence; others argue that there are multiple eternal existences. Which of these is correct can be examined by looking at why time is singular; we can move from physical things to an understanding of spiritual things.

Now some say that there is only one time for temporal things, forasmuch as one number exists for all things numbered; as time is a number, according to the Philosopher (Physic. iv). This, however, is not a sufficient reason; because time is not a number abstracted from the thing numbered, but existing in the thing numbered; otherwise it would not be continuous; for ten ells of cloth are continuous not by reason of the number, but by reason of the thing numbered. Now number as it exists in the thing numbered, is not the same for all; but it is different for different things. Hence, others assert that the unity of eternity as the principle of all duration is the cause of the unity of time. Thus all durations are one in that view, in the light of their principle, but are many in the light of the diversity of things receiving duration from the influx of the first principle. On the other hand others assign primary matter as the cause why time is one; as it is the first subject of movement, the measure of which is time. Neither of these reasons, however, is sufficient; forasmuch as things which are one in principle, or in subject, especially if distant, are not one absolutely, but accidentally. Therefore the true reason why time is one, is to be found in the oneness of the first movement by which, since it is most simple, all other movements are measured. Therefore time is referred to that movement, not only as a measure is to the thing measured, but also as accident is to subject; and thus receives unity from it. Whereas to other movements it is compared only as the measure is to the thing measured. Hence it is not multiplied by their multitude, because by one separate measure many things can be measured.

Now, some people say that there is only one time for all things that exist in time, since there is one number for everything that is counted; time is a number, according to the Philosopher (Physic. iv). However, that's not a strong enough argument, because time isn't a number detached from the things being counted, but exists within those things; otherwise, it wouldn’t be continuous. For example, ten yards of fabric are continuous not because of the number, but because of the fabric itself. The number as it exists in the counted thing is not the same for everything; it varies between different things. Therefore, some argue that the unity of eternity, as the foundation of all duration, is what causes the unity of time. In this view, all durations are one, based on their principle, but they are many when considering the variety of things that receive duration from the influence of that first principle. On the other hand, others attribute the oneness of time to primary matter, as it is the first subject of movement, which is measured by time. Neither of these explanations, however, is sufficient; because things that are one in principle or in subject, especially when distant, are not absolutely one, but only accidentally so. Thus, the true reason why time is one lies in the singularity of the first movement, which is the simplest, and by which all other movements are measured. Time relates to that movement not just as a measure relates to what is measured, but also as an accident relates to its subject; and thus derives its unity from it. In contrast, to other movements, time is compared only as a measure to what is measured. Therefore, it’s not divided by the multiplicity of those other movements, because one separate measure can measure many things.

This being established, we must observe that a twofold opinion existed concerning spiritual substances. Some said that all proceeded from God in a certain equality, as Origen said (Peri Archon. i); or at least many of them, as some others thought. Others said that all spiritual substances proceeded from God in a certain degree and order; and Dionysius (Coel. Hier. x) seems to have thought so, when he said that among spiritual substances there are the first, the middle and the last; even in one order of angels. Now according to the first opinion, it must be said that there are many aeviternities as there are many aeviternal things of first degree. But according to the second opinion, it would be necessary to say that there is one aeviternity only; because since each thing is measured by the most simple element of its genus, it must be that the existence of all aeviternal things should be measured by the existence of the first aeviternal thing, which is all the more simple the nearer it is to the first. Wherefore because the second opinion is truer, as will be shown later (Q. 47, A. 2); we concede at present that there is only one aeviternity.

Once this is established, we must note that there were two main views about spiritual substances. Some believed that all of them came from God in a similar way, as Origen suggested (Peri Archon. i); or at least many of them, according to others. Others claimed that all spiritual substances emerged from God in a certain hierarchy and order; Dionysius (Coel. Hier. x) appeared to think this when he said that within spiritual substances there are those that are first, those that are in the middle, and those that are last; even among one order of angels. Now, following the first opinion, we would conclude that there are many eternal existences just as there are many eternal things of the first degree. However, according to the second opinion, we would need to assert that there is only one eternal existence; because each thing is measured by the most fundamental element of its kind, it must be that the existence of all eternal things should be measured by the existence of the first eternal thing, which becomes more fundamental the closer it is to the first. Therefore, since the second opinion is more accurate, as will be shown later (Q. 47, A. 2), we currently accept that there is only one eternal existence.

Reply Obj. 1: Aeviternity is sometimes taken for age, that is, a space of a thing's duration; and thus we say many aeviternities when we mean ages.

Reply Obj. 1: Aeviternity is sometimes considered as age, meaning a measure of how long something lasts; therefore, we refer to many aeviternities when we talk about ages.

Reply Obj. 2: Although the heavenly bodies and spiritual things differ in the genus of their nature, still they agree in having a changeless being, and are thus measured by aeviternity.

Reply Obj. 2: Even though heavenly bodies and spiritual things are different in their nature, they both share the quality of having an unchanging existence, and are therefore measured by aeviternity.

Reply Obj. 3: All temporal things did not begin together; nevertheless there is one time for all of them, by reason of the first measured by time; and thus all aeviternal things have one aeviternity by reason of the first, though all did not begin together.

Reply Obj. 3: Not all temporal things started at the same time; however, there is one time for all of them based on the first measured by time. Thus, all everlasting things share one eternity due to the first, even though they did not all begin together.

Reply Obj. 4: For things to be measured by one, it is not necessary that the one should be the cause of all, but that it be more simple than the rest. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: For things to be measured by one, it doesn't have to be the cause of everything, but it should be simpler than the others.

QUESTION 11

THE UNITY OF GOD
(In Four Articles)

THE UNITY OF GOD
(In Four Articles)

After the foregoing, we consider the divine unity; concerning which there are four points of inquiry:

After the above, we look into the concept of divine unity, which raises four key questions:

(1) Whether "one" adds anything to "being"?

(1) Does "one" add anything to "being"?

(2) Whether "one" and "many" are opposed to each other?

(2) Are "one" and "many" opposed to each other?

(3) Whether God is one?

Is God one?

(4) Whether He is in the highest degree one? _______________________

(4) Is He the highest one? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 11, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 11, Art. 1]

Whether "One" Adds Anything to "Being"?

Whether "One" Adds Anything to "Being"?

Objection 1: It seems that "one" adds something to "being." For everything is in a determinate genus by addition to being, which penetrates all genera. But "one" is a determinate genus, for it is the principle of number, which is a species of quantity. Therefore "one" adds something to "being."

Objection 1: It looks like "one" adds something to "being." Everything falls under a specific genus by adding to being, which encompasses all genera. But "one" is a specific genus because it is the basis of number, which is a type of quantity. Therefore, "one" adds something to "being."

Obj. 2: Further, what divides a thing common to all, is an addition to it. But "being" is divided by "one" and by "many." Therefore "one" is an addition to "being."

Obj. 2: Additionally, what separates a shared thing is an addition to it. But "being" is differentiated by "one" and "many." Therefore, "one" is an addition to "being."

Obj. 3: Further, if "one" is not an addition to "being," "one" and "being" must have the same meaning. But it would be nugatory to call "being" by the name of "being"; therefore it would be equally so to call being "one." Now this is false. Therefore "one" is an addition to "being."

Obj. 3: Additionally, if "one" isn't an addition to "being," then "one" and "being" must mean the same thing. But it would be pointless to refer to "being" as "being"; therefore, it would also be pointless to call being "one." However, this is not true. So, "one" must be an addition to "being."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. 5, ult.): "Nothing which exists is not in some way one," which would be false if "one" were an addition to "being," in the sense of limiting it. Therefore "one" is not an addition to "being."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. 5, ult.): "Nothing that exists is not in some way one," which would be false if "one" were an addition to "being," in the sense of limiting it. Therefore, "one" is not an addition to "being."

I answer that, "One" does not add any reality to "being"; but is only a negation of division; for "one" means undivided "being." This is the very reason why "one" is the same as "being." Now every being is either simple or compound. But what is simple is undivided, both actually and potentially. Whereas what is compound, has not being whilst its parts are divided, but after they make up and compose it. Hence it is manifest that the being of anything consists in undivision; and hence it is that everything guards its unity as it guards its being.

I answer that, "One" doesn’t add any reality to "being"; it simply negates division because "one" refers to undivided "being." This is exactly why "one" is the same as "being." Every being is either simple or compound. Simple things are undivided, both in reality and potential. On the other hand, a compound thing doesn’t have being while its parts are separated, but only when those parts come together to form it. Therefore, it is clear that the essence of anything lies in its undivided nature; that’s why everything protects its unity as if it were its own being.

Reply Obj. 1: Some, thinking that the "one" convertible with "being" is the same as the "one" which is the principle of number, were divided into contrary opinions. Pythagoras and Plato, seeing that the "one" convertible with "being" did not add any reality to "being," but signified the substance of "being" as undivided, thought that the same applied to the "one" which is the principle of number. And because number is composed of unities, they thought that numbers were the substances of all things. Avicenna, however, on the contrary, considering that "one" which is the principle of number, added a reality to the substance of "being" (otherwise number made of unities would not be a species of quantity), thought that the "one" convertible with "being" added a reality to the substance of beings; as "white" to "man." This, however, is manifestly false, inasmuch as each thing is "one" by its substance. For if a thing were "one" by anything else but by its substance, since this again would be "one," supposing it were again "one" by another thing, we should be driven on to infinity. Hence we must adhere to the former statement; therefore we must say that the "one" which is convertible with "being," does not add a reality to being; but that the "one" which is the principle of number, does add a reality to "being," belonging to the genus of quantity.

Reply Obj. 1: Some people, thinking that the "one" that can be equated with "being" is the same as the "one" that serves as the principle of number, ended up with conflicting opinions. Pythagoras and Plato, noticing that the "one" equated with "being" did not contribute any actual reality to "being," but represented the essence of "being" as undivided, believed the same applied to the "one" that is the foundation of number. They reasoned that since numbers are made up of individual units, these numbers represented the fundamental substances of everything. On the other hand, Avicenna argued that the "one" which is the principle of number does indeed add a reality to the essence of "being" (otherwise, a number composed of units would not be a type of quantity), and so he believed that the "one" that equates with "being" also adds a reality to the essence of beings, similar to how "white" applies to "man." However, this is clearly incorrect, since each thing is "one" based on its essence. If a thing were "one" by something other than its essence, and that thing were also "one," assuming it were again "one" by another, we would end up in an endless regression. Therefore, we need to stick with the earlier conclusion; thus, we should assert that the "one" that equates with "being" does not add any reality to being, while the "one" that is the principle of number does indeed add a reality to "being," fitting within the category of quantity.

Reply Obj. 2: There is nothing to prevent a thing which in one way is divided, from being another way undivided; as what is divided in number, may be undivided in species; thus it may be that a thing is in one way "one," and in another way "many." Still, if it is absolutely undivided, either because it is so according to what belongs to its essence, though it may be divided as regards what is outside its essence, as what is one in subject may have many accidents; or because it is undivided actually, and divided potentially, as what is "one" in the whole, and is "many" in parts; in such a case a thing will be "one" absolutely and "many" accidentally. On the other hand, if it be undivided accidentally, and divided absolutely, as if it were divided in essence and undivided in idea or in principle or cause, it will be "many" absolutely and "one" accidentally; as what are "many" in number and "one" in species or "one" in principle. Hence in that way, being is divided by "one" and by "many"; as it were by "one" absolutely and by "many" accidentally. For multitude itself would not be contained under "being," unless it were in some way contained under "one." Thus Dionysius says (Div. Nom., cap. ult.) that "there is no kind of multitude that is not in a way one. But what are many in their parts, are one in their whole; and what are many in accidents, are one in subject; and what are many in number, are one in species; and what are many in species, are one in genus; and what are many in processions, are one in principle."

Reply Obj. 2: There's nothing stopping something that is divided in one way from being undivided in another way; for example, what is divided numerically can be undivided in terms of its type. So, something can be considered "one" in one sense and "many" in another. However, if something is completely undivided, it might be because it’s undivided in its essence, even if it can be divided in relation to what’s outside its essence, like how something singular in subject can have multiple attributes. Or, it could be undivided in reality and divided potentially, like how something may be "one" as a whole but "many" in its parts. In these cases, it would be "one" absolutely and "many" in terms of its attributes. Conversely, if it is accidentally undivided but absolutely divided, as in when something is divided in essence but undivided in concept, principle, or cause, it would be "many" absolutely and "one" accidentally, such as when there are "many" numerically but "one" in type or "one" in principle. Therefore, being can be categorized by "one" and "many"; it's "one" absolutely and "many" accidentally. In fact, something known as multitude couldn’t fall under "being" if it wasn’t somehow under "one." As Dionysius states (Div. Nom., cap. ult.), "there's no kind of multitude that isn't in some way one. What is many in parts is one in the whole; what is many in attributes is one in subject; what is many in number is one in type; what is many in types is one in a broader category; and what is many in processes is one in principle."

Reply Obj. 3: It does not follow that it is nugatory to say "being" is "one"; forasmuch as "one" adds an idea to "being." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: It's not pointless to say "being" is "one," because "one" adds an idea to "being."

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 11, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 11, Art. 2]

Whether "One" and "Many" Are Opposed to Each Other?

Whether "One" and "Many" Are Opposed to Each Other?

Objection 1: It seems that "one" and "many" are not mutually opposed. For no opposite thing is predicated of its opposite. But every multitude is in a certain way one, as appears from the preceding article. Therefore "one" is not opposed to "multitude."

Objection 1: It seems that "one" and "many" are not actually opposing concepts. Since nothing is said about its opposite that contradicts it. However, every multitude is in some way one, as shown in the previous section. Therefore, "one" is not opposed to "multitude."

Obj. 2: Further, no opposite thing is constituted by its opposite. But multitude is constituted by one. Therefore it is not opposed to "multitude."

Obj. 2: Also, no opposite thing is made up of its opposite. But multitude is made up of one. Therefore, it is not in opposition to "multitude."

Obj. 3: Further, "one" is opposed to "one." But the idea of "few" is opposed to "many." Therefore "one" is not opposed to "many."

Obj. 3: Also, "one" is the opposite of "one." However, the concept of "few" is the opposite of "many." So, "one" is not the opposite of "many."

Obj. 4: Further, if "one" is opposed to "multitude," it is opposed as the undivided is to the divided; and is thus opposed to it as privation is to habit. But this appears to be incongruous; because it would follow that "one" comes after "multitude," and is defined by it; whereas, on the contrary, "multitude" is defined by "one." Hence there would be a vicious circle in the definition; which is inadmissible. Therefore "one" and "many" are not opposed.

Obj. 4: Moreover, if "one" is compared to "multitude," it is compared as the undivided is to the divided; and is opposed to it as absence is to presence. But this seems inconsistent; because it would imply that "one" comes after "multitude" and is defined by it; whereas, in reality, "multitude" is defined by "one." Thus, there would be a circular reasoning in the definition, which is unacceptable. Therefore, "one" and "many" are not opposites.

On the contrary, Things which are opposed in idea, are themselves opposed to each other. But the idea of "one" consists in indivisibility; and the idea of "multitude" contains division. Therefore "one" and "many" are opposed to each other.

On the contrary, Things that are different in concept oppose one another. The concept of "one" is about being indivisible, while the concept of "many" involves division. Therefore, "one" and "many" are in opposition to each other.

I answer that, "One" is opposed to "many," but in various ways. The one which is the principle of number is opposed to multitude which is number, as the measure is to the thing measured. For "one" implies the idea of a primary measure; and number is multitude measured by one, as is clear from Metaph. x. But the one which is convertible with being is opposed to multitude by way of privation; as the undivided is to the thing divided.

I respond that, "One" contrasts with "many" in several ways. The one that serves as the foundation of number stands in opposition to multitude, which signifies number, just as a measure relates to what is being measured. "One" suggests the concept of a primary measure; and number is multitude quantified by one, as is evident from Metaph. x. However, the one that is synonymous with being opposes multitude through lack; like the undivided is compared to the divided thing.

Reply Obj. 1: No privation entirely takes away the being of a thing, inasmuch as privation means "negation in the subject," according to the Philosopher (Categor. viii). Nevertheless every privation takes away some being; and so in being, by reason of its universality, the privation of being has its foundation in being; which is not the case in privations of special forms, as of sight, or of whiteness and the like. And what applies to being applies also to one and to good, which are convertible with being, for the privation of good is founded in some good; likewise the removal of unity is founded in some one thing. Hence it happens that multitude is some one thing; and evil is some good thing, and non-being is some kind of being. Nevertheless, opposite is not predicated of opposite; forasmuch as one is absolute, and the other is relative; for what is relative being (as a potentiality) is non-being absolutely, i.e. actually; or what is absolute being in the genus of substance is non-being relatively as regards some accidental being. In the same way, what is relatively good is absolutely bad, or vice versa; likewise what is absolutely one is relatively many, and vice versa.

Reply Obj. 1: No lack completely eliminates the existence of something, since lack means "negation in the subject," according to the Philosopher (Categor. viii). However, every lack does remove some existence; therefore, in being, due to its overall nature, the lack of being is rooted in being itself; this is not true for lacks of specific forms, like sight or whiteness and similar things. What applies to being also applies to one and to good, which are interchangeable with being, because the lack of good is based on some good; similarly, the absence of unity is based on some one thing. As a result, multitude is a kind of one thing; evil is a type of good thing, and non-being is a kind of being. Nevertheless, the opposite is not characterized by the opposite, since one is absolute and the other is relative; for what is relatively being (as potential) is absolutely non-being, i.e., actually; or what is absolute being in the category of substance is relatively non-being in relation to some accidental being. In the same way, what is relatively good is absolutely bad, or vice versa; likewise, what is absolutely one is relatively many, and vice versa.

Reply Obj. 2: A whole is twofold. In one sense it is homogeneous, composed of like parts; in another sense it is heterogeneous, composed of dissimilar parts. Now in every homogeneous whole, the whole is made up of parts having the form of the whole; as, for instance, every part of water is water; and such is the constitution of a continuous thing made up of its parts. In every heterogeneous whole, however, every part is wanting in the form belonging to the whole; as, for instance, no part of a house is a house, nor is any part of a man a man. Now multitude is such a kind of a whole. Therefore inasmuch as its part has not the form of the multitude, the latter is composed of unities, as a house is composed of not houses; not, indeed, as if unities constituted multitude so far as they are undivided, in which way they are opposed to multitude; but so far as they have being, as also the parts of a house make up the house by the fact that they are beings, not by the fact that they are not houses.

Reply Obj. 2: A whole has two aspects. On one hand, it is homogeneous, made up of similar parts; on the other hand, it is heterogeneous, made up of different parts. In every homogeneous whole, the parts have the same nature as the whole; for example, every part of water is still water. This is how a continuous thing is structured with its parts. However, in every heterogeneous whole, each part lacks the characteristics of the whole; for example, no part of a house is itself a house, and no part of a person is a person. Now, a multitude is a type of whole. Therefore, since its parts do not share the characteristics of the multitude, it consists of individual units, just like a house is made up of not-houses; not in the sense that these units make up the multitude as long as they remain undivided, which would set them against the multitude; but in the sense that they exist, just as the parts of a house come together to form the house because they exist, not because they are not houses.

Reply Obj. 3: "Many" is taken in two ways: absolutely, and in that sense it is opposed to "one"; in another way as importing some kind of excess, in which sense it is opposed to "few"; hence in the first sense two are many but not in the second sense.

Reply Obj. 3: "Many" can be understood in two ways: absolutely, where it contrasts with "one"; and in another way that implies some kind of excess, where it contrasts with "few"; thus, in the first sense, two is considered many, but not in the second sense.

Reply Obj. 4: "One" is opposed to "many" privatively, inasmuch as the idea of "many" involves division. Hence division must be prior to unity, not absolutely in itself, but according to our way of apprehension. For we apprehend simple things by compound things; and hence we define a point to be, "what has no part," or "the beginning of a line." "Multitude" also, in idea, follows on "one"; because we do not understand divided things to convey the idea of multitude except by the fact that we attribute unity to every part. Hence "one" is placed in the definition of "multitude"; but "multitude" is not placed in the definition of "one." But division comes to be understood from the very negation of being: so what first comes to mind is being; secondly, that this being is not that being, and thus we apprehend division as a consequence; thirdly, comes the notion of one; fourthly, the notion of multitude. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: "One" is the opposite of "many" in a way that suggests division is involved. So, division must come before unity—not in itself, but in how we understand things. We grasp simple concepts through more complex ones; this is why we define a point as "what has no part" or "the start of a line." The idea of "multitude" also comes after "one" because we only understand divided things as being many by recognizing unity in each part. Therefore, "one" is included in the definition of "multitude," but "multitude" isn't included in the definition of "one." Division is understood from the very absence of being: first, we think of being; second, we realize that this being is not that being, leading us to understand division as a result; third, we get the idea of one; and fourth, the idea of multitude.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 11, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 11, Art. 3]

Whether God Is One?

Is God one?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not one. For it is written "For there be many gods and many lords" (1 Cor. 8:5).

Objection 1: It seems that God is not one. For it is written, "For there are many gods and many lords" (1 Cor. 8:5).

Obj. 2: Further, "One," as the principle of number, cannot be predicated of God, since quantity is not predicated of God; likewise, neither can "one" which is convertible with "being" be predicated of God, because it imports privation, and every privation is an imperfection, which cannot apply to God. Therefore God is not one.

Obj. 2: Additionally, "One," as the principle of number, cannot be described in relation to God, since quantity does not apply to God; similarly, the term "one," which is interchangeable with "being," also cannot be applied to God, because it suggests lack, and any lack indicates an imperfection, which cannot pertain to God. Therefore, God is not one.

On the contrary, It is written "Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God is one Lord" (Deut. 6:4).

On the contrary, it is written, "Listen, Israel, the Lord our God is one Lord" (Deut. 6:4).

I answer that, It can be shown from these three sources that God is one. First from His simplicity. For it is manifest that the reason why any singular thing is "this particular thing" is because it cannot be communicated to many: since that whereby Socrates is a man, can be communicated to many; whereas, what makes him this particular man, is only communicable to one. Therefore, if Socrates were a man by what makes him to be this particular man, as there cannot be many Socrates, so there could not in that way be many men. Now this belongs to God alone; for God Himself is His own nature, as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 3). Therefore, in the very same way God is God, and He is this God. Impossible is it therefore that many Gods should exist.

I respond that, it can be demonstrated from these three sources that God is one. First, from His simplicity. It is clear that the reason any single thing is "this particular thing" is because it cannot be shared with many; the quality that makes Socrates a man can be shared, but what makes him this specific man can only be shared with one. Therefore, if Socrates were a man based on what makes him this specific man, since there cannot be many Socrates, there also could not be many men in that sense. This attribute belongs to God alone; for God Himself is His own nature, as was discussed previously (Q. 3, A. 3). Thus, in the same way, God is God, and He is this God. It is therefore impossible for multiple Gods to exist.

Secondly, this is proved from the infinity of His perfection. For it was shown above (Q. 4, A. 2) that God comprehends in Himself the whole perfection of being. If then many gods existed, they would necessarily differ from each other. Something therefore would belong to one which did not belong to another. And if this were a privation, one of them would not be absolutely perfect; but if a perfection, one of them would be without it. So it is impossible for many gods to exist. Hence also the ancient philosophers, constrained as it were by truth, when they asserted an infinite principle, asserted likewise that there was only one such principle.

Secondly, this is proven by the infinite nature of His perfection. As previously mentioned (Q. 4, A. 2), God contains all perfection of being within Himself. If multiple gods existed, they would have to differ from one another. Therefore, something would exist in one that didn't exist in another. If this difference is a lack, then one of them wouldn't be completely perfect; but if it's a form of perfection, then one of them would lack it. Thus, it's impossible for many gods to exist. This is also why ancient philosophers, driven by the truth, when they proposed an infinite principle, also claimed that there could only be one such principle.

Thirdly, this is shown from the unity of the world. For all things that exist are seen to be ordered to each other since some serve others. But things that are diverse do not harmonize in the same order, unless they are ordered thereto by one. For many are reduced into one order by one better than by many: because one is the per se cause of one, and many are only the accidental cause of one, inasmuch as they are in some way one. Since therefore what is first is most perfect, and is so per se and not accidentally, it must be that the first which reduces all into one order should be only one. And this one is God.

Thirdly, this is evident from the unity of the world. All existing things are arranged in relation to each other, as some support others. However, diverse things don’t harmonize in the same way unless they are unified by one. It's because many are brought into one order by a single entity more effectively than by several: one is the per se cause of one, while many are only the accidental cause of one, as they are in some way unified. Therefore, since what is first is the most perfect and is such per se, and not accidentally, the first that brings everything into one order must be singular. And that singular entity is God.

Reply Obj. 1: Gods are called many by the error of some who worshipped many deities, thinking as they did that the planets and other stars were gods, and also the separate parts of the world. Hence the Apostle adds: "Our God is one," etc.

Reply Obj. 1: Some people mistakenly call many beings gods because they worship multiple deities. They believe that the planets and other stars are gods, as well as different parts of the world. That's why the Apostle adds: "Our God is one," etc.

Reply Obj. 2: "One" which is the principle of number is not predicated of God, but only of material things. For "one" the principle of number belongs to the genus of mathematics, which are material in being, and abstracted from matter only in idea. But "one" which is convertible with being is a metaphysical entity and does not depend on matter in its being. And although in God there is no privation, still, according to the mode of our apprehension, He is known to us by way only of privation and remotion. Thus there is no reason why a certain kind of privation should not be predicated of God; for instance, that He is incorporeal and infinite; and in the same way it is said of God that He is one. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The term "one," which represents the principle of number, does not apply to God but only to material things. The concept of "one" as the principle of number belongs to mathematics, which deals with the physical world and is only abstracted from matter in our minds. However, "one," when conceptualized as being, is a metaphysical entity that doesn't rely on matter for its existence. Although God is free from any lack or deficiency, we understand Him through negation and removal. Therefore, there's no reason why we can't attribute a certain type of negation to God; for example, that He is non-physical and infinite; similarly, it is stated that God is one.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 11, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 11, Art. 4]

Whether God Is Supremely One?

Is God supremely one?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not supremely one. For "one" is so called from the privation of division. But privation cannot be greater or less. Therefore God is not more "one" than other things which are called "one."

Objection 1: It appears that God is not fundamentally one. The term "one" refers to the lack of division. However, the absence of division cannot be greater or lesser. Hence, God is not more "one" than other things that are also referred to as "one."

Obj. 2: Further, nothing seems to be more indivisible than what is actually and potentially indivisible; such as a point and unity. But a thing is said to be more "one" according as it is indivisible. Therefore God is not more one than unity is one and a point is one.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, nothing appears to be more indivisible than what is actually and potentially indivisible; for example, a point and unity. A thing is considered more "one" to the extent that it is indivisible. Therefore, God is not more one than unity is one, and a point is one.

Obj. 3: Further, what is essentially good is supremely good. Therefore what is essentially one is supremely one. But every being is essentially one, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. iv). Therefore every being is supremely one; and therefore God is not one more than any other being is one.

Obj. 3: Additionally, what is fundamentally good is the highest form of good. Therefore, what is fundamentally one is the highest form of one. But every being is fundamentally one, as the philosopher states (Metaph. iv). Therefore, every being is the highest form of one; and this means that God is not one any more than any other being is one.

On the contrary, Bernard says (De Consid. v): "Among all things called one, the unity of the Divine Trinity holds the first place."

On the contrary, Bernard says (De Consid. v): "Of all things referred to as one, the unity of the Divine Trinity is the most important."

I answer that, Since one is an undivided being, if anything is supremely one it must be supremely being, and supremely undivided. Now both of these belong to God. For He is supremely being, inasmuch as His being is not determined by any nature to which it is adjoined; since He is being itself, subsistent, absolutely undetermined. But He is supremely undivided inasmuch as He is divided neither actually nor potentially, by any mode of division; since He is altogether simple, as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 7). Hence it is manifest that God is one in the supreme degree.

I respond that, since one is an indivisible entity, if anything is supremely one, it must be supremely being and completely indivisible. Both of these characteristics apply to God. He is supremely being because His existence isn’t defined by any nature that it’s attached to; He is being itself, existing independently, and completely undetermined. He is also supremely indivisible because He is not divided either actually or potentially by any means of division; He is entirely simple, as was established earlier (Q. 3, A. 7). Therefore, it is clear that God is one in the highest sense.

Reply Obj. 1: Although privation considered in itself is not susceptive of more or less, still according as its opposite is subject to more or less, privation also can be considered itself in the light of more and less. Therefore according as a thing is more divided, or is divisible, either less or not at all, in the degree it is called more, or less, or supremely, one.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though deprivation on its own doesn't have degrees of more or less, it can still be viewed in terms of more and less based on its opposite. So, depending on whether something is more fragmented or divisible, it can be considered to a greater or lesser extent, or not at all, in terms of being called more, less, or supremely, one.

Reply Obj. 2: A point and unity which is the principle of number, are not supremely being, inasmuch as they have being only in some subject. Hence neither of them can be supremely one. For as a subject cannot be supremely one, because of the difference within it of accident and subject, so neither can an accident.

Reply Obj. 2: A point and unity, which are the foundation of number, do not represent the highest form of being since they exist only in a certain subject. Therefore, neither of them can be supremely one. Just as a subject can't be supremely one due to the distinctions between accident and subject, neither can an accident.

Reply Obj. 3: Although every being is one by its substance, still every such substance is not equally the cause of unity; for the substance of some things is compound and of others simple. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Even though every being is one in its essence, not every essence has the same role in creating unity; some substances are complex while others are simple.

QUESTION 12

HOW GOD IS KNOWN BY US
(In Thirteen Articles)

HOW GOD IS KNOWN BY US
(In Thirteen Articles)

As hitherto we have considered God as He is in Himself, we now go on to consider in what manner He is in the knowledge of creatures; concerning which there are thirteen points of inquiry:

As we have looked at God as He is in Himself, we now turn to how He is understood in the knowledge of creatures; there are thirteen points of inquiry regarding this:

(1) Whether any created intellect can see the essence of God?

(1) Can any created intellect see the essence of God?

(2) Whether the essence of God is seen by the intellect through any created image?

(2) Can the mind grasp the essence of God through any created image?

(3) Whether the essence of God can be seen by the corporeal eye?

(3) Can the essence of God be seen by the physical eye?

(4) Whether any created intellectual substance is sufficient by its own natural powers to see the essence of God?

(4) Can any created intellectual being, on its own, understand the essence of God?

(5) Whether the created intellect needs any created light in order to see the essence of God?

(5) Does the created intellect need any created light to understand the essence of God?

(6) Whether of those who see God, one sees Him more perfectly than another?

(6) Do some of those who see God see Him more clearly than others?

(7) Whether any created intellect can comprehend the essence of God?

(7) Can any created intellect understand the essence of God?

(8) Whether the created intellect seeing the essence of God, knows all things in it?

(8) Does the created intellect, by seeing the essence of God, understand everything within it?

(9) Whether what is there known is known by any similitudes?

(9) Is what is known there recognized by any similarities?

(10) Whether the created intellect knows at once what it sees in God?

(10) Does the created intellect understand immediately what it perceives in God?

(11) Whether in the state of this life any man can see the essence of God?

(11) Can anyone see the essence of God while living in this life?

(12) Whether by natural reason we can know God in this life?

(12) Can we know God in this life through reason alone?

(13) Whether there is in this life any knowledge of God through grace above the knowledge of natural reason? _______________________

(13) Is there any understanding of God in this life through grace that goes beyond what we can know through natural reason? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 1]

Whether Any Created Intellect Can See the Essence of God?

Whether any created intellect can see the essence of God?

Objection 1: It seems that no created intellect can see the essence of God. For Chrysostom (Hom. xiv. in Joan.) commenting on John 1:18, "No man hath seen God at any time," says: "Not prophets only, but neither angels nor archangels have seen God. For how can a creature see what is increatable?" Dionysius also says (Div. Nom. i), speaking of God: "Neither is there sense, nor image, nor opinion, nor reason, nor knowledge of Him."

Objection 1: It appears that no created intellect can perceive the essence of God. Chrysostom (Hom. xiv. in Joan.), commenting on John 1:18, says, "No one has seen God at any time." He explains that not only prophets but also angels and archangels have not seen God. For how can a creature perceive what is uncreated? Dionysius also states (Div. Nom. i) when referring to God: "There is neither sense, nor image, nor opinion, nor reason, nor knowledge of Him."

Obj. 2: Further, everything infinite, as such, is unknown. But
God is infinite, as was shown above (Q. 7, A. 1). Therefore in
Himself He is unknown.

Obj. 2: In addition, everything that is infinite, by its very nature, is unknown. But
God is infinite, as demonstrated earlier (Q. 7, A. 1). Therefore, in
Himself, He is unknown.

Obj. 3: Further, the created intellect knows only existing things. For what falls first under the apprehension of the intellect is being. Now God is not something existing; but He is rather super-existence, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv). Therefore God is not intelligible; but above all intellect.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the created intellect can only understand things that exist. The first thing that the intellect perceives is being. However, God is not simply something that exists; instead, He is beyond existence, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv). Therefore, God is not comprehensible; He is beyond all understanding.

Obj. 4: Further, there must be some proportion between the knower and the known, since the known is the perfection of the knower. But no proportion exists between the created intellect and God; for there is an infinite distance between them. Therefore the created intellect cannot see the essence of God.

Obj. 4: Additionally, there has to be some kind of relationship between the one who knows and what is known, since the known represents the completion of the knower. However, there is no relationship between the created intellect and God; there is an infinite gap between them. Therefore, the created intellect cannot grasp the essence of God.

On the contrary, It is written: "We shall see Him as He is" (1 John 2:2).

On the contrary, it is written: "We shall see Him as He is" (1 John 2:2).

I answer that, Since everything is knowable according as it is actual, God, Who is pure act without any admixture of potentiality, is in Himself supremely knowable. But what is supremely knowable in itself, may not be knowable to a particular intellect, on account of the excess of the intelligible object above the intellect; as, for example, the sun, which is supremely visible, cannot be seen by the bat by reason of its excess of light.

I answer that, Since everything can be known based on its actual existence, God, who is pure action without any potentiality, is ultimately knowable in Himself. However, what is completely knowable in itself may not be understandable to a specific intellect due to the overwhelming nature of the intelligible object compared to the intellect; for instance, the sun, which is fully visible, cannot be seen by a bat due to its overwhelming brightness.

Therefore some who considered this, held that no created intellect can see the essence of God. This opinion, however, is not tenable. For as the ultimate beatitude of man consists in the use of his highest function, which is the operation of his intellect; if we suppose that the created intellect could never see God, it would either never attain to beatitude, or its beatitude would consist in something else beside God; which is opposed to faith. For the ultimate perfection of the rational creature is to be found in that which is the principle of its being; since a thing is perfect so far as it attains to its principle. Further the same opinion is also against reason. For there resides in every man a natural desire to know the cause of any effect which he sees; and thence arises wonder in men. But if the intellect of the rational creature could not reach so far as to the first cause of things, the natural desire would remain void.

Therefore, some who considered this believed that no created intellect can truly grasp the essence of God. However, this view isn't valid. The ultimate happiness for humans is found in using their highest function, which is the operation of their intellect. If we assume that a created intellect could never see God, it would mean it could either never achieve true happiness or that happiness would consist in something other than God, which contradicts faith. The ultimate perfection of a rational being lies in what is the source of its existence; a thing is perfect to the extent that it reaches its source. Moreover, this opinion also contradicts reason. Every person has a natural desire to know the cause of any effect they observe, which leads to wonder. But if the intellect of a rational being couldn’t reach the first cause of things, this natural desire would be unfulfilled.

Hence it must be absolutely granted that the blessed see the essence of God.

So it must be completely accepted that the blessed see the essence of God.

Reply Obj. 1: Both of these authorities speak of the vision of comprehension. Hence Dionysius premises immediately before the words cited, "He is universally to all incomprehensible," etc. Chrysostom likewise after the words quoted says: "He says this of the most certain vision of the Father, which is such a perfect consideration and comprehension as the Father has of the Son."

Reply Obj. 1: Both of these authorities mention the vision of understanding. Therefore, Dionysius notes just before the cited words, "He is universally incomprehensible," etc. Chrysostom similarly states after the quoted words: "He refers to the most certain vision of the Father, which is a perfect understanding and comprehension that the Father has of the Son."

Reply Obj. 2: The infinity of matter not made perfect by form, is unknown in itself, because all knowledge comes by the form; whereas the infinity of the form not limited by matter, is in itself supremely known. God is Infinite in this way, and not in the first way: as appears from what was said above (Q. 7, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 2: The infinity of matter that isn’t made perfect by form is unknown in itself, because all knowledge comes through form; whereas the infinity of form that isn’t limited by matter is known in itself to the highest degree. God is Infinite in this sense, and not in the first sense: as was stated above (Q. 7, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 3: God is not said to be not existing as if He did not exist at all, but because He exists above all that exists; inasmuch as He is His own existence. Hence it does not follow that He cannot be known at all, but that He exceeds every kind of knowledge; which means that He is not comprehended.

Reply Obj. 3: God is not described as not existing as if He doesn’t exist at all, but because He exists above everything else; since He is His own existence. Therefore, it doesn’t mean that He cannot be known at all, but rather that He goes beyond every type of knowledge; which means He cannot be fully understood.

Reply Obj. 4: Proportion is twofold. In one sense it means a certain relation of one quantity to another, according as double, treble and equal are species of proportion. In another sense every relation of one thing to another is called proportion. And in this sense there can be a proportion of the creature to God, inasmuch as it is related to Him as the effect of its cause, and as potentiality to its act; and in this way the created intellect can be proportioned to know God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Proportion has two meanings. In one way, it refers to a specific relationship between two quantities, like double, triple, and equal being types of proportion. In another way, any relationship between one thing and another is called proportion. In this sense, there can be a proportion between the creature and God, since the creature relates to Him as the effect relates to its cause, and as potential relates to its actualization; in this way, the created intellect can be aligned to know God.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 2]

Whether the Essence of God Is Seen by the Created Intellect Through an
Image?

Whether the Essence of God Can Be Perceived by Human Intellect Through an
Image?

Objection 1: It seems that the essence of God is seen through an image by the created intellect. For it is written: "We know that when He shall appear, we shall be like to Him, and [Vulg.: 'because'] we shall see Him as He is" (1 John 3:2).

Objection 1: It appears that the nature of God is understood through an image by human intellect. For it is written: "We know that when He appears, we will be like Him, because we will see Him as He is" (1 John 3:2).

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Trin. v): "When we know God, some likeness of God is made in us."

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (De Trin. v): "When we know God, a certain likeness of God is created within us."

Obj. 3: Further, the intellect in act is the actual intelligible; as sense in act is the actual sensible. But this comes about inasmuch as sense is informed with the likeness of the sensible object, and the intellect with the likeness of the thing understood. Therefore, if God is seen by the created intellect in act, it must be that He is seen by some similitude.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the active intellect is the actual object of understanding; just as the active senses are the actual objects of perception. This happens because the senses are infused with the likeness of what is perceived, and the intellect is infused with the likeness of what is comprehended. Therefore, if God is perceived by the created intellect in action, He must be perceived through some similarity.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xv) that when the Apostle says, "We see through a glass and in an enigma [*Douay: 'in a dark manner']," "by the terms 'glass' and 'enigma' certain similitudes are signified by him, which are accommodated to the vision of God." But to see the essence of God is not an enigmatic nor a speculative vision, but is, on the contrary, of an opposite kind. Therefore the divine essence is not seen through a similitude.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xv) that when the Apostle states, "We see through a glass and in an enigma [*Douay: 'in a dark manner']," "the terms 'glass' and 'enigma' signify certain similarities that relate to the perception of God." However, seeing the essence of God is neither an ambiguous nor a theoretical vision; instead, it is something completely different. Therefore, the divine essence is not perceived through a similarity.

I answer that, Two things are required both for sensible and for intellectual vision—viz. power of sight, and union of the thing seen with the sight. For vision is made actual only when the thing seen is in a certain way in the seer. Now in corporeal things it is clear that the thing seen cannot be by its essence in the seer, but only by its likeness; as the similitude of a stone is in the eye, whereby the vision is made actual; whereas the substance of the stone is not there. But if the principle of the visual power and the thing seen were one and the same thing, it would necessarily follow that the seer would receive both the visual power and the form whereby it sees, from that one same thing.

I answer that, Two things are necessary for both physical and mental vision—namely, the ability to see and the connection of the object with the sight. Vision only happens when the object being seen is, in a certain way, present in the observer. In the case of physical objects, it’s clear that the object cannot literally exist in the observer, but only as an image; for example, the likeness of a stone exists in the eye, which makes the vision happen, while the actual substance of the stone is not present there. However, if the source of the visual ability and the object being seen were the same, it would mean that the observer would receive both the ability to see and the form that enables sight from that same object.

Now it is manifest both that God is the author of the intellectual power, and that He can be seen by the intellect. And since the intellective power of the creature is not the essence of God, it follows that it is some kind of participated likeness of Him who is the first intellect. Hence also the intellectual power of the creature is called an intelligible light, as it were, derived from the first light, whether this be understood of the natural power, or of some perfection superadded of grace or of glory. Therefore, in order to see God, there must be some similitude of God on the part of the visual faculty, whereby the intellect is made capable of seeing God. But on the part of the object seen, which must necessarily be united to the seer, the essence of God cannot be seen by any created similitude. First, because as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. i), "by the similitudes of the inferior order of things, the superior can in no way be known;" as by the likeness of a body the essence of an incorporeal thing cannot be known. Much less therefore can the essence of God be seen by any created likeness whatever. Secondly, because the essence of God is His own very existence, as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 4), which cannot be said of any created form; and so no created form can be the similitude representing the essence of God to the seer. Thirdly, because the divine essence is uncircumscribed, and contains in itself super-eminently whatever can be signified or understood by the created intellect. Now this cannot in any way be represented by any created likeness; for every created form is determined according to some aspect of wisdom, or of power, or of being itself, or of some like thing. Hence to say that God is seen by some similitude, is to say that the divine essence is not seen at all; which is false.

Now it’s clear that God is the source of intellectual power and that He can be perceived by the intellect. Since the intellect of a creature is not the same as God's essence, it follows that it is a kind of shared resemblance to Him, who is the first intellect. Therefore, the intellectual power of the creature is referred to as an intelligible light, which comes from the first light, whether this refers to natural ability or some added perfection of grace or glory. Thus, to see God, there must be some similarity to God in the visual faculty that enables the intellect to perceive Him. However, regarding the object being seen, which must necessarily connect with the observer, God's essence cannot be perceived through any created likeness. First, because, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. i), "the superior cannot be known at all through the likenesses of inferior things"; just as the essence of a non-physical thing cannot be understood through the likeness of a physical thing. Even more so, God's essence cannot be seen through any created likeness. Second, because God's essence is His very existence, as explained above (Q. 3, A. 4), which cannot be attributed to any created form; thus, no created form can represent the essence of God to the observer. Third, because the divine essence is limitless and contains within itself, in an exceptionally superior way, everything that can be signified or understood by created intellect. This cannot be represented by any created likeness because every created form is defined by some aspect of wisdom, power, existence, or something similar. Therefore, to claim that God is perceived through some likeness is to imply that the divine essence is not seen at all, which is false.

Therefore it must be said that to see the essence of God, there is required some similitude in the visual faculty, namely, the light of glory strengthening the intellect to see God, which is spoken of in the Psalm (35:10), "In Thy light we shall see light." The essence of God, however, cannot be seen by any created similitude representing the divine essence itself as it really is.

Therefore, it must be said that in order to perceive the essence of God, some similarity in our ability to see is required, specifically the light of glory that empowers the intellect to comprehend God. This is mentioned in the Psalm (35:10), "In Your light we will see light." However, no created likeness can truly represent the divine essence as it actually is.

Reply Obj. 1: That authority speaks of the similitude which is caused by participation of the light of glory.

Reply Obj. 1: That authority talks about the similarity that comes from sharing in the light of glory.

Reply Obj. 2: Augustine speaks of the knowledge of God here on earth.

Reply Obj. 2: Augustine discusses the knowledge of God here on earth.

Reply Obj. 3: The divine essence is existence itself. Hence as other intelligible forms which are not their own existence are united to the intellect by means of some entity, whereby the intellect itself is informed, and made in act; so the divine essence is united to the created intellect, as the object actually understood, making the intellect in act by and of itself. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The divine essence is existence itself. Just like other intelligible forms that don’t possess their own existence but are connected to the intellect through some entity, which informs and activates the intellect, the divine essence is also linked to the created intellect as the object that is actually understood, thus making the intellect active on its own.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 3]

Whether the Essence of God Can Be Seen with the Bodily Eye?

Whether the Essence of God Can Be Seen with the Physical Eye?

Objection 1: It seems that the essence of God can be seen by the
corporeal eye. For it is written (Job 19:26): "In my flesh I shall see
. . . God," and (Job 42:5), "With the hearing of the ear I have heard
Thee, but now my eye seeth Thee."

Objection 1: It seems that the essence of God can be seen by the
physical eye. For it is written (Job 19:26): "In my flesh I shall see
. . . God," and (Job 42:5), "With my ears I heard You, but now my eye sees You."

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xxix, 29): "Those eyes" (namely the glorified) "will therefore have a greater power of sight, not so much to see more keenly, as some report of the sight of serpents or of eagles (for whatever acuteness of vision is possessed by these creatures, they can see only corporeal things) but to see even incorporeal things." Now whoever can see incorporeal things, can be raised up to see God. Therefore the glorified eye can see God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xxix, 29): "Those eyes" (meaning the glorified) "will therefore have a greater power of sight, not so much to see more sharply, like some claim about the vision of snakes or eagles (because no matter how acute their vision is, they can only see physical things) but to perceive even non-physical things." Now, anyone who can see non-physical things can be uplifted to see God. Therefore, the glorified eye can see God.

Obj. 3: Further, God can be seen by man through a vision of the imagination. For it is written: "I saw the Lord sitting upon a throne," etc. (Isa. 6:1). But an imaginary vision originates from sense; for the imagination is moved by sense to act. Therefore God can be seen by a vision of sense.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, people can see God through a vision created by their imagination. As it is written: "I saw the Lord sitting on a throne," etc. (Isa. 6:1). However, an imaginary vision comes from the senses; the imagination is influenced by the senses to take action. Therefore, God can be seen through a sensory vision.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Vid. Deum, Ep. cxlvii): "No one has ever seen God either in this life, as He is, nor in the angelic life, as visible things are seen by corporeal vision."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Vid. Deum, Ep. cxlvii): "No one has ever seen God either in this life, as He is, nor in the angelic life, as visible things are seen through physical sight."

I answer that, It is impossible for God to be seen by the sense of sight, or by any other sense, or faculty of the sensitive power. For every such kind of power is the act of a corporeal organ, as will be shown later (Q. 78). Now act is proportional to the nature which possesses it. Hence no power of that kind can go beyond corporeal things. For God is incorporeal, as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 1). Hence He cannot be seen by the sense or the imagination, but only by the intellect.

I answer that, It is impossible for God to be seen by sight or any other sense or ability of the sensory powers. Every one of these powers relies on a physical organ, as will be explained later (Q. 78). Now, an action corresponds to the nature of the being that performs it. Therefore, no power of this sort can extend beyond physical things. Since God is non-physical, as was explained above (Q. 3, A. 1), He cannot be perceived by the senses or the imagination, but only by the intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: The words, "In my flesh I shall see God my Saviour," do not mean that God will be seen with the eye of the flesh, but that man existing in the flesh after the resurrection will see God. Likewise the words, "Now my eye seeth Thee," are to be understood of the mind's eye, as the Apostle says: "May He give unto you the spirit of wisdom . . . in the knowledge of Him, that the eyes of your heart" may be "enlightened" (Eph. 1:17, 18).

Reply Obj. 1: The phrase, "In my flesh I shall see God my Savior," doesn’t mean that God will be visible to the physical eye, but rather that a person in the flesh after the resurrection will see God. Similarly, the phrase, "Now my eye sees You," should be understood as the mind's eye, as the Apostle mentions: "May He give you the spirit of wisdom... in the knowledge of Him, so that the eyes of your heart" may be "enlightened" (Eph. 1:17, 18).

Reply Obj. 2: Augustine speaks as one inquiring, and conditionally. This appears from what he says previously: "Therefore they will have an altogether different power (viz. the glorified eyes), if they shall see that incorporeal nature;" and afterwards he explains this, saying: "It is very credible, that we shall so see the mundane bodies of the new heaven and the new earth, as to see most clearly God everywhere present, governing all corporeal things, not as we now see the invisible things of God as understood by what is made; but as when we see men among whom we live, living and exercising the functions of human life, we do not believe they live, but see it." Hence it is evident how the glorified eyes will see God, as now our eyes see the life of another. But life is not seen with the corporeal eye, as a thing in itself visible, but as the indirect object of the sense; which indeed is not known by sense, but at once, together with sense, by some other cognitive power. But that the divine presence is known by the intellect immediately on the sight of, and through, corporeal things, happens from two causes—viz. from the perspicuity of the intellect, and from the refulgence of the divine glory infused into the body after its renovation.

Reply Obj. 2: Augustine speaks as someone who is questioning and being cautious. This is evident from what he states earlier: "Therefore they will have a completely different capability (specifically, the glorified eyes), if they see that incorporeal nature;" and later he elaborates this by saying: "It’s very believable that we will see the physical bodies of the new heaven and the new earth in such a way that we will clearly see God everywhere present, governing all physical things, not like we now perceive the invisible aspects of God through what is made; but rather, like when we see the people around us, living and carrying out the functions of human life, we don't just believe they are alive, we see it." Thus, it is clear how the glorified eyes will perceive God, just as our eyes now perceive another's life. But life isn't seen with the physical eye, as something visible in itself, but as the indirect object of our senses; it's not known through sense alone but also through another cognitive ability that works alongside it. However, the divine presence is recognized by the intellect immediately through the sight of, and by means of, physical things due to two reasons—namely, the clarity of the intellect, and the brilliance of the divine glory infused into the body after it is renewed.

Reply Obj. 3: The essence of God is not seen in a vision of the imagination; but the imagination receives some form representing God according to some mode of similitude; as in the divine Scripture divine things are metaphorically described by means of sensible things. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The essence of God isn't perceived through an imagined vision; instead, the imagination grasps a form that represents God based on some similarity. This is similar to how divine concepts are described metaphorically in the Scriptures using tangible things.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 4]

Whether Any Created Intellect by Its Natural Powers Can See the Divine
Essence?

Whether any created intellect by its natural powers can see the Divine
Essence?

Objection 1: It seems that a created intellect can see the Divine essence by its own natural power. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv): "An angel is a pure mirror, most clear, receiving, if it is right to say so, the whole beauty of God." But if a reflection is seen, the original thing is seen. Therefore since an angel by his natural power understands himself, it seems that by his own natural power he understands the Divine essence.

Objection 1: It seems that a created mind can perceive the Divine essence through its own natural ability. For Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv): "An angel is a pure, clear mirror, reflecting, if it’s appropriate to say so, the entire beauty of God." But if a reflection can be seen, then the original must also be visible. So, since an angel understands itself through its natural ability, it seems that it can understand the Divine essence through that same ability.

Obj. 2: Further, what is supremely visible, is made less visible to us by reason of our defective corporeal or intellectual sight. But the angelic intellect has no such defect. Therefore, since God is supremely intelligible in Himself, it seems that in like manner He is supremely so to an angel. Therefore, if he can understand other intelligible things by his own natural power, much more can he understand God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, what is ultimately clear becomes less clear to us because of our imperfect physical or intellectual vision. However, angels do not have this limitation. Since God is perfectly understandable in Himself, it follows that He is equally understandable to an angel. Therefore, if an angel can grasp other understandable things through their natural abilities, they can understand God even more effectively.

Obj. 3: Further, corporeal sense cannot be raised up to understand incorporeal substance, which is above its nature. Therefore if to see the essence of God is above the nature of every created intellect, it follows that no created intellect can reach up to see the essence of God at all. But this is false, as appears from what is said above (A. 1). Therefore it seems that it is natural for a created intellect to see the Divine essence.

Obj. 3: Additionally, physical senses cannot comprehend spiritual substance, which is beyond their nature. Therefore, if perceiving the essence of God is beyond the capacity of any created intellect, it follows that no created intellect can ever perceive the essence of God. However, this is incorrect, as shown in what was stated earlier (A. 1). Thus, it appears that it is natural for a created intellect to perceive the Divine essence.

On the contrary, It is written: "The grace of God is life everlasting" (Rom. 6:23). But life everlasting consists in the vision of the Divine essence, according to the words: "This is eternal life, that they may know Thee the only true God," etc. (John 17:3). Therefore to see the essence of God is possible to the created intellect by grace, and not by nature.

On the contrary, it is written: "The grace of God is eternal life" (Rom. 6:23). But eternal life consists in seeing the Divine essence, as stated: "This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God," etc. (John 17:3). Therefore, to see the essence of God is possible for the created mind through grace, not by nature.

I answer that, It is impossible for any created intellect to see the essence of God by its own natural power. For knowledge is regulated according as the thing known is in the knower. But the thing known is in the knower according to the mode of the knower. Hence the knowledge of every knower is ruled according to its own nature. If therefore the mode of anything's being exceeds the mode of the knower, it must result that the knowledge of the object is above the nature of the knower. Now the mode of being of things is manifold. For some things have being only in this one individual matter; as all bodies. But others are subsisting natures, not residing in matter at all, which, however, are not their own existence, but receive it; and these are the incorporeal beings, called angels. But to God alone does it belong to be His own subsistent being. Therefore what exists only in individual matter we know naturally, forasmuch as our soul, whereby we know, is the form of certain matter. Now our soul possesses two cognitive powers; one is the act of a corporeal organ, which naturally knows things existing in individual matter; hence sense knows only the singular. But there is another kind of cognitive power in the soul, called the intellect; and this is not the act of any corporeal organ. Wherefore the intellect naturally knows natures which exist only in individual matter; not as they are in such individual matter, but according as they are abstracted therefrom by the considering act of the intellect; hence it follows that through the intellect we can understand these objects as universal; and this is beyond the power of the sense. Now the angelic intellect naturally knows natures that are not in matter; but this is beyond the power of the intellect of our soul in the state of its present life, united as it is to the body. It follows therefore that to know self-subsistent being is natural to the divine intellect alone; and this is beyond the natural power of any created intellect; for no creature is its own existence, forasmuch as its existence is participated. Therefore the created intellect cannot see the essence of God, unless God by His grace unites Himself to the created intellect, as an object made intelligible to it.

I answer that, It’s impossible for any created mind to comprehend the essence of God using its own natural ability. Knowledge is shaped by how the known thing exists within the knower. The way something exists is dependent on the knower's perspective. Therefore, each knower's understanding is shaped by its own nature. If the way of being of something surpasses the knower's understanding, then the knowledge of that object will be beyond the knower's capabilities. The ways of being are diverse. Some things exist solely in this particular matter, like all physical bodies. Others exist as independent natures that do not rely on matter for their existence; these beings, which are not self-existent, receive their existence from elsewhere, and we refer to them as incorporeal beings, or angels. Only God has the nature of being His own existence. Thus, we can naturally understand what exists only in individual matter because our soul, which allows us to know, is the form of certain matter. Our soul has two ways of knowing; one is through a physical organ, which naturally perceives things in specific matter, so the senses can only grasp the singular. The other way of knowing is through the intellect, which doesn’t rely on any physical organ. Consequently, the intellect can naturally understand natures that exist solely in individual matter—not as they exist in that matter, but as the intellect abstracts them; therefore, through the intellect, we can grasp these objects as universal, which is beyond the sensing ability. The angelic intellect knows natures that aren’t in matter, but this is beyond what our intellect can achieve while it’s currently connected to the body. Therefore, understanding self-subsistent being is unique to the divine intellect alone, and this is beyond the natural ability of any created mind; because no creature possesses its own existence—its existence is shared. Thus, the created intellect cannot grasp the essence of God unless God, through His grace, connects Himself to the created intellect in a way that makes it intelligible.

Reply Obj. 1: This mode of knowing God is natural to an angel—namely, to know Him by His own likeness refulgent in the angel himself. But to know God by any created similitude is not to know the essence of God, as was shown above (A. 2). Hence it does not follow that an angel can know the essence of God by his own power.

Reply Obj. 1: This way of knowing God is natural for an angel—specifically, knowing Him through His own likeness shining in the angel itself. However, to know God through any created likeness does not mean knowing the essence of God, as was demonstrated earlier (A. 2). Therefore, it doesn’t imply that an angel can know the essence of God by its own ability.

Reply Obj. 2: The angelic intellect is not defective, if defect be taken to mean privation, as if it were without anything which it ought to have. But if the defect be taken negatively, in that sense every creature is defective, when compared with God; forasmuch as it does not possess the excellence which is in God.

Reply Obj. 2: The angelic mind isn't lacking if we understand "lacking" to mean being without something it should have. However, if we consider "lacking" in a negative sense, then every creature is lacking when compared to God because it doesn't have the greatness that God possesses.

Reply Obj. 3: The sense of sight, as being altogether material, cannot be raised up to immateriality. But our intellect, or the angelic intellect, inasmuch as it is elevated above matter in its own nature, can be raised up above its own nature to a higher level by grace. The proof is, that sight cannot in any way know abstractedly what it knows concretely; for in no way can it perceive a nature except as this one particular nature; whereas our intellect is able to consider abstractedly what it knows concretely. Now although it knows things which have a form residing in matter, still it resolves the composite into both of these elements; and it considers the form separately by itself. Likewise, also, the intellect of an angel, although it naturally knows the concrete in any nature, still it is able to separate that existence by its intellect; since it knows that the thing itself is one thing, and its existence is another. Since therefore the created intellect is naturally capable of apprehending the concrete form, and the concrete being abstractedly, by way of a kind of resolution of parts; it can by grace be raised up to know separate subsisting substance, and separate subsisting existence. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The sense of sight, being entirely physical, can't reach immateriality. However, our intellect, or the intellect of angels, because it is naturally higher than matter, can be elevated to an even higher level by grace. The evidence is that sight can’t understand abstractly what it knows in a concrete way; it can only perceive a nature as that specific nature. In contrast, our intellect can think about abstract concepts from concrete examples. Even if it knows things that have a physical form, it can break down that composite into its elements and consider the form separately. Similarly, the intellect of an angel can naturally understand the concrete in any nature, but it can also distinguish that existence using its intellect, recognizing that the thing itself and its existence are two different aspects. Therefore, since the created intellect is naturally able to grasp the concrete form and the concrete being in an abstract way by breaking them down into parts, it can, through grace, be elevated to know separate subsisting substances and separate subsisting existence.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 5]

Whether the Created Intellect Needs Any Created Light in Order to See the
Essence of God?

Whether the Created Intellect Needs Any Created Light in Order to See the
Essence of God?

Objection 1: It seems that the created intellect does not need any created light in order to see the essence of God. For what is of itself lucid in sensible things does not require any other light in order to be seen. Therefore the same applies to intelligible things. Now God is intelligible light. Therefore He is not seen by means of any created light.

Objection 1: It appears that the created intellect does not require any created light to perceive the essence of God. For what is inherently clear in physical things doesn’t need any additional light to be observed. Thus, the same holds true for intelligible things. Now, God is intelligible light. Therefore, He is not seen through any created light.

Obj. 2: Further, if God is seen through a medium, He is not seen in His essence. But if seen by any created light, He is seen through a medium. Therefore He is not seen in His essence.

Obj. 2: Additionally, if God is perceived through a medium, He is not perceived in His essence. However, if perceived by any created light, He is perceived through a medium. Therefore, He is not seen in His essence.

Obj. 3: Further, what is created can be natural to some creature. Therefore if the essence of God is seen through any created light, such a light can be made natural to some other creature; and thus, that creature would not need any other light to see God; which is impossible. Therefore it is not necessary that every creature should require a superadded light in order to see the essence of God.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, what is created can be natural to some being. So if God's essence is visible through any created light, that light can be made natural to another being; and therefore, that being would not need any other light to see God, which is impossible. Hence, it's not necessary for every being to require an additional light in order to see God's essence.

On the contrary, It is written: "In Thy light we shall see light" (Ps. 35:10).

On the contrary, it is written: "In Your light we will see light" (Ps. 35:10).

I answer that, Everything which is raised up to what exceeds its nature, must be prepared by some disposition above its nature; as, for example, if air is to receive the form of fire, it must be prepared by some disposition for such a form. But when any created intellect sees the essence of God, the essence of God itself becomes the intelligible form of the intellect. Hence it is necessary that some supernatural disposition should be added to the intellect in order that it may be raised up to such a great and sublime height. Now since the natural power of the created intellect does not avail to enable it to see the essence of God, as was shown in the preceding article, it is necessary that the power of understanding should be added by divine grace. Now this increase of the intellectual powers is called the illumination of the intellect, as we also call the intelligible object itself by the name of light of illumination. And this is the light spoken of in the Apocalypse (Apoc. 21:23): "The glory of God hath enlightened it"—viz. the society of the blessed who see God. By this light the blessed are made "deiform"—i.e. like to God, according to the saying: "When He shall appear we shall be like to Him, and [Vulg.: 'because'] we shall see Him as He is" (1 John 2:2).

I respond that, everything that rises above its natural state must be prepared by some process that goes beyond its nature. For instance, if air is to take on the form of fire, it needs to be prepared in a way to be able to do so. When a created intellect perceives the essence of God, that essence itself becomes the intelligible form of the intellect. Therefore, it is essential that some supernatural arrangement is added to the intellect so that it can be elevated to such a great and lofty level. Since the natural capacity of the created intellect cannot enable it to perceive the essence of God, as demonstrated in the previous discussion, it is necessary for the power of understanding to be enhanced by divine grace. This enhancement of intellectual abilities is referred to as the illumination of the intellect, and we also call the intelligible object itself the light of illumination. This is the light mentioned in the Apocalypse (Apoc. 21:23): "The glory of God has illuminated it"—namely, the community of the blessed who see God. Through this light, the blessed become "deiform"—that is, like God, according to the saying: "When He appears we shall be like Him, because we shall see Him as He is" (1 John 2:2).

Reply Obj. 1: The created light is necessary to see the essence of God, not in order to make the essence of God intelligible, which is of itself intelligible, but in order to enable the intellect to understand in the same way as a habit makes a power abler to act. Even so corporeal light is necessary as regards external sight, inasmuch as it makes the medium actually transparent, and susceptible of color.

Reply Obj. 1: The created light is needed to see the essence of God, not to make God's essence understandable, which is inherently understandable, but to help the intellect comprehend it, similar to how a skill enhances one's ability to act. Similarly, physical light is necessary for external sight because it makes the medium actually transparent and able to show color.

Reply Obj. 2: This light is required to see the divine essence, not as a similitude in which God is seen, but as a perfection of the intellect, strengthening it to see God. Therefore it may be said that this light is to be described not as a medium in which God is seen, but as one by which He is seen; and such a medium does not take away the immediate vision of God.

Reply Obj. 2: This light is necessary to perceive the divine essence, not as an image through which God is seen, but as a refinement of the intellect, empowering it to realize God. Therefore, it can be stated that this light should be characterized not as a substance in which God is seen, but as one through which He is seen; and this kind of substance does not hinder the direct vision of God.

Reply Obj. 3: The disposition to the form of fire can be natural only to the subject of that form. Hence the light of glory cannot be natural to a creature unless the creature has a divine nature; which is impossible. But by this light the rational creature is made deiform, as is said in this article. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The tendency toward the form of fire can only be natural to what embodies that form. Therefore, the light of glory cannot be natural to a creature unless the creature possesses a divine nature, which is impossible. However, through this light, the rational creature is made godlike, as stated in this article.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I. Q. 12, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I. Q. 12, Art. 6]

Whether of Those Who See the Essence of God, One Sees More Perfectly Than
Another?

Whether those who see the essence of God see more clearly than others?

Objection 1: It seems that of those who see the essence of God, one does not see more perfectly than another. For it is written (1 John 3:2): "We shall see Him as He is." But He is only in one way. Therefore He will be seen by all in one way only; and therefore He will not be seen more perfectly by one and less perfectly by another.

Objection 1: It seems that among those who perceive the essence of God, no one sees it more clearly than another. For it is written (1 John 3:2): "We shall see Him as He is." But He exists in only one form. Therefore, He will be perceived by everyone in only one way; thus, one person will not see Him more perfectly than another.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xxxii): "One person cannot see one and the same thing more perfectly than another." But all who see the essence of God, understand the Divine essence, for God is seen by the intellect and not by sense, as was shown above (A. 3). Therefore of those who see the divine essence, one does not see more clearly than another.

Obj. 2: Augustine also mentions (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xxxii): "No one person can perceive the same thing more clearly than another." However, everyone who understands the essence of God grasps the Divine essence, since God is perceived through the intellect rather than the senses, as stated earlier (A. 3). Therefore, among those who perceive the divine essence, no one sees it more clearly than anyone else.

Obj. 3: Further, That anything be seen more perfectly than another can happen in two ways: either on the part of the visible object, or on the part of the visual power of the seer. On the part of the object, it may so happen because the object is received more perfectly in the seer, that is, according to the greater perfection of the similitude; but this does not apply to the present question, for God is present to the intellect seeing Him not by way of similitude, but by His essence. It follows then that if one sees Him more perfectly than another, this happens according to the difference of the intellectual power; thus it follows too that the one whose intellectual power is higher, will see Him the more clearly; and this is incongruous; since equality with angels is promised to men as their beatitude.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the way one thing can be seen more clearly than another can occur in two ways: either because of the qualities of the visible object or due to the vision of the observer. Regarding the object, it may be perceived more clearly because it's received in a more perfect way by the observer, meaning the similarity is greater; however, this doesn’t apply to our current discussion, since God is known to the intellect seeing Him not through similarity, but through His essence. Therefore, if one person sees Him more clearly than another, it’s due to differences in their intellectual abilities; thus, it follows that someone with greater intellectual ability will perceive Him more distinctly, which is not consistent with the notion that humans are promised equality with angels as their ultimate happiness.

On the contrary, Eternal life consists in the vision of God, according to John 17:3: "This is eternal life, that they may know Thee the only true God," etc. Therefore if all saw the essence of God equally in eternal life, all would be equal; the contrary to which is declared by the Apostle: "Star differs from star in glory" (1 Cor. 15:41).

On the contrary, eternal life is about experiencing the presence of God, as stated in John 17:3: "This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God," etc. So, if everyone experienced the essence of God equally in eternal life, they would all be equal; however, the Apostle says otherwise: "Star differs from star in glory" (1 Cor. 15:41).

I answer that, Of those who see the essence of God, one sees Him more perfectly than another. This, indeed, does not take place as if one had a more perfect similitude of God than another, since that vision will not spring from any similitude; but it will take place because one intellect will have a greater power or faculty to see God than another. The faculty of seeing God, however, does not belong to the created intellect naturally, but is given to it by the light of glory, which establishes the intellect in a kind of "deiformity," as appears from what is said above, in the preceding article.

I respond that, among those who perceive the essence of God, some have a clearer vision of Him than others. This doesn’t mean that one has a more perfect likeness of God than another, as that vision doesn’t come from any likeness; rather, it happens because one intellect has a greater ability or capacity to perceive God than another. However, the ability to see God doesn’t belong to the created intellect by nature, but is granted by the light of glory, which allows the intellect to achieve a kind of "deiformity," as mentioned above in the previous article.

Hence the intellect which has more of the light of glory will see God the more perfectly; and he will have a fuller participation of the light of glory who has more charity; because where there is the greater charity, there is the more desire; and desire in a certain degree makes the one desiring apt and prepared to receive the object desired. Hence he who possesses the more charity, will see God the more perfectly, and will be the more beatified.

Therefore, the intellect that has more of the light of glory will see God more clearly; and the one who has more love will fully participate in the light of glory. This is because where there is greater love, there is a stronger desire; and desire, to some extent, makes the person desiring ready and prepared to receive what they want. Thus, the person who has more love will see God more clearly and will experience greater bliss.

Reply Obj. 1: In the words, "We shall see Him as He is," the conjunction "as" determines the mode of vision on the part of the object seen, so that the meaning is, we shall see Him to be as He is, because we shall see His existence, which is His essence. But it does not determine the mode of vision on the part of the one seeing; as if the meaning was that the mode of seeing God will be as perfect as is the perfect mode of God's existence.

Reply Obj. 1: In the phrase, "We shall see Him as He is," the word "as" defines how we perceive the object we are seeing, meaning we will recognize Him for who He truly is, since we will understand His existence, which is His essence. However, it does not define how the one who sees perceives; it doesn't mean that our perception of God will be as perfect as the absolute nature of God's existence.

Thus appears the answer to the Second Objection. For when it is said that one intellect does not understand one and the same thing better than another, this would be true if referred to the mode of the thing understood, for whoever understands it otherwise than it really is, does not truly understand it, but not if referred to the mode of understanding, for the understanding of one is more perfect than the understanding of another.

Thus appears the answer to the Second Objection. When it is stated that one intellect does not grasp the same thing better than another, this would be true if talking about the way the thing is understood, because anyone who understands it differently than it actually is, does not really understand it. However, this is not the case when referencing the way of understanding, since one person's understanding can be more complete than another's.

Reply Obj. 3: The diversity of seeing will not arise on the part of the object seen, for the same object will be presented to all—viz. the essence of God; nor will it arise from the diverse participation of the object seen by different similitudes; but it will arise on the part of the diverse faculty of the intellect, not, indeed, the natural faculty, but the glorified faculty. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The variety in perception won't come from the object being seen, since the same object—namely, the essence of God—will be presented to everyone. It also won't come from the different ways that the object can be perceived. Instead, it will stem from the different abilities of the intellect, specifically the glorified intellect, not the natural intellect.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 7]

Whether Those Who See the Essence of God Comprehend Him?

Whether Those Who See the Essence of God Understand Him?

Objection 1: It seems that those who see the divine essence, comprehend God. For the Apostle says (Phil. 3:12): "But I follow after, if I may by any means comprehend [Douay: 'apprehend']." But the Apostle did not follow in vain; for he said (1 Cor. 9:26): "I . . . so run, not as at an uncertainty." Therefore he comprehended; and in the same way, others also, whom he invites to do the same, saying: "So run that you may comprehend."

Objection 1: It seems that those who perceive the divine essence understand God. For the Apostle says (Phil. 3:12): "But I pursue, if I may somehow grasp [Douay: 'apprehend']." But the Apostle did not pursue in vain; for he stated (1 Cor. 9:26): "I . . . run, not in uncertainty." Therefore, he understood; and in the same way, others also, whom he encourages to do the same, saying: "Run in such a way that you may understand."

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Vid. Deum, Ep. cxlvii): "That is comprehended which is so seen as a whole, that nothing of it is hidden from the seer." But if God is seen in His essence, He is seen whole, and nothing of Him is hidden from the seer, since God is simple. Therefore whoever sees His essence, comprehends Him.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (De Vid. Deum, Ep. cxlvii): "What is comprehended is seen in its entirety, with nothing hidden from the observer." If God is perceived in His essence, He is seen completely, and nothing about Him is concealed from the observer, since God is simple. Thus, whoever perceives His essence fully understands Him.

Obj. 3: Further, if we say that He is seen as a "whole," but not "wholly," it may be contrarily urged that "wholly" refers either to the mode of the seer, or to the mode of the thing seen. But he who sees the essence of God, sees Him wholly, if the mode of the thing seen is considered; forasmuch as he sees Him as He is; also, likewise, he sees Him wholly if the mode of the seer is meant, forasmuch as the intellect will with its full power see the Divine essence. Therefore all who see the essence of God see Him wholly; therefore they comprehend Him.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if we say that He is seen as a "whole," but not "wholly," it could be argued that "wholly" refers either to how the observer perceives or to how the thing being observed is perceived. However, anyone who perceives the essence of God sees Him wholly when considering how the thing observed is perceived because they see Him as He truly is. Similarly, they also see Him wholly if we consider how the observer perceives, since the intellect, with its full capacity, will see the Divine essence. Therefore, everyone who perceives the essence of God sees Him wholly; hence, they comprehend Him.

On the contrary, It is written: "O most mighty, great, and powerful, the Lord of hosts is Thy Name. Great in counsel, and incomprehensible in thought" (Jer. 32:18,19). Therefore He cannot be comprehended.

On the contrary, it is written: "O most mighty, great, and powerful, the Lord of hosts is Your Name. Great in counsel and impossible to fully understand in thought" (Jer. 32:18,19). Therefore, He cannot be fully understood.

I answer that, It is impossible for any created intellect to comprehend God; yet "for the mind to attain to God in some degree is great beatitude," as Augustine says (De Verb. Dom., Serm. xxxviii).

I answer that, It's impossible for any created mind to understand God; yet "for the mind to reach God in some way is great happiness," as Augustine says (De Verb. Dom., Serm. xxxviii).

In proof of this we must consider that what is comprehended is perfectly known; and that is perfectly known which is known so far as it can be known. Thus, if anything which is capable of scientific demonstration is held only by an opinion resting on a probably proof, it is not comprehended; as, for instance, if anyone knows by scientific demonstration that a triangle has three angles equal to two right angles, he comprehends that truth; whereas if anyone accepts it as a probable opinion because wise men or most men teach it, he cannot be said to comprehend the thing itself, because he does not attain to that perfect mode of knowledge of which it is intrinsically capable. But no created intellect can attain to that perfect mode of the knowledge of the Divine intellect whereof it is intrinsically capable. Which thus appears—Everything is knowable according to its actuality. But God, whose being is infinite, as was shown above (Q. 7), is infinitely knowable. Now no created intellect can know God infinitely. For the created intellect knows the Divine essence more or less perfectly in proportion as it receives a greater or lesser light of glory. Since therefore the created light of glory received into any created intellect cannot be infinite, it is clearly impossible for any created intellect to know God in an infinite degree. Hence it is impossible that it should comprehend God.

To prove this, we must consider that what is understood is fully known, and what is fully known is known to the extent it can be known. Therefore, if anything that can be scientifically demonstrated is only accepted based on an opinion relying on a probable proof, it is not truly understood; for example, if someone knows through scientific demonstration that a triangle has three angles equal to two right angles, they grasp that truth. However, if someone accepts it as a likely opinion because wise people or most people say so, they cannot be said to truly understand it, since they do not achieve the perfect type of knowledge it is inherently capable of. But no created mind can reach that perfect understanding of the Divine intellect to which it is inherently suited. This leads us to realize—everything can be known according to its actual existence. However, God, whose essence is infinite, as previously discussed (Q. 7), is infinitely knowable. Yet, no created intellect can know God infinitely. A created intellect knows the Divine essence more or less perfectly, depending on the degree of light of glory it receives. Since the light of glory received by any created intellect cannot be infinite, it is evident that no created intellect can know God to an infinite extent. Therefore, it is impossible for it to fully comprehend God.

Reply Obj. 1: "Comprehension" is twofold: in one sense it is taken strictly and properly, according as something is included in the one comprehending; and thus in no way is God comprehended either by intellect, or in any other way; forasmuch as He is infinite and cannot be included in any finite being; so that no finite being can contain Him infinitely, in the degree of His own infinity. In this sense we now take comprehension. But in another sense "comprehension" is taken more largely as opposed to "non-attainment"; for he who attains to anyone is said to comprehend him when he attains to him. And in this sense God is comprehended by the blessed, according to the words, "I held him, and I will not let him go" (Cant. 3:4); in this sense also are to be understood the words quoted from the Apostle concerning comprehension. And in this way "comprehension" is one of the three prerogatives of the soul, responding to hope, as vision responds to faith, and fruition responds to charity. For even among ourselves not everything seen is held or possessed, forasmuch as things either appear sometimes afar off, or they are not in our power of attainment. Neither, again, do we always enjoy what we possess; either because we find no pleasure in them, or because such things are not the ultimate end of our desire, so as to satisfy and quell it. But the blessed possess these three things in God; because they see Him, and in seeing Him, possess Him as present, having the power to see Him always; and possessing Him, they enjoy Him as the ultimate fulfilment of desire.

Reply Obj. 1: "Comprehension" has two meanings: in one sense, it refers to understanding something as it truly is, and in that way, God cannot be fully understood by any intellect or in any other manner; He is infinite and cannot be contained within any finite being, meaning that no finite being can completely hold Him in the same way His infinity exists. This is how we are using "comprehension" here. But in another sense, "comprehension" can mean being able to grasp or attain something, so a person who reaches someone is said to comprehend them. In this sense, God is comprehended by the blessed, as indicated by the words, "I held him, and I will not let him go" (Cant. 3:4); the words from the Apostle regarding comprehension should be understood in this way as well. Thus, "comprehension" is one of the three special qualities of the soul, corresponding to hope, as vision corresponds to faith, and enjoyment corresponds to charity. For even among us, not everything we see is held or possessed; sometimes things are only visible from a distance, or they are beyond our ability to reach. Furthermore, we don’t always enjoy what we have; either because we don’t find them satisfying, or because they aren’t the ultimate goal of our desire that truly fulfills and calms it. However, the blessed possess these three things in God; they see Him, and by seeing Him, they hold Him as present, having the ability to see Him always; and by possessing Him, they enjoy Him as the ultimate fulfillment of their desires.

Reply Obj. 2: God is called incomprehensible not because anything of Him is not seen; but because He is not seen as perfectly as He is capable of being seen; thus when any demonstrable proposition is known by probable reason only, it does not follow that any part of it is unknown, either the subject, or the predicate, or the composition; but that it is not as perfectly known as it is capable of being known. Hence Augustine, in his definition of comprehension, says the whole is comprehended when it is seen in such a way that nothing of it is hidden from the seer, or when its boundaries can be completely viewed or traced; for the boundaries of a thing are said to be completely surveyed when the end of the knowledge of it is attained.

Reply Obj. 2: God is called incomprehensible not because there’s anything about Him that can’t be seen, but because He isn’t seen as perfectly as He could be. So, when a demonstrable idea is understood only through probable reasoning, it doesn’t mean that any part of it is unknown—neither the subject, the predicate, nor their combination. It just means it’s not known as completely as it can be. That’s why Augustine, in his definition of comprehension, states that something is fully comprehended when it’s seen in a way that nothing about it is hidden from the observer, or when its edges can be fully viewed or traced. A thing’s edges are said to be fully surveyed when the limits of understanding it are reached.

Reply Obj. 3: The word "wholly" denotes a mode of the object; not that the whole object does not come under knowledge, but that the mode of the object is not the mode of the one who knows. Therefore he who sees God's essence, sees in Him that He exists infinitely, and is infinitely knowable; nevertheless, this infinite mode does not extend to enable the knower to know infinitely; thus, for instance, a person can have a probable opinion that a proposition is demonstrable, although he himself does not know it as demonstrated. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The word "wholly" refers to the way the object is understood; it doesn't mean that the whole object can't be known, but that the way the object is known is different from the way the person knowing perceives it. So, when someone perceives God's essence, they recognize that He exists infinitely and can be known infinitely; however, this infinite understanding doesn't allow the knower to comprehend infinitely. For example, someone might have a reasonable belief that a statement can be proven, even if they don't know it to be proven themselves.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 8]

Whether Those Who See the Essence of God See All in God?

Whether those who perceive the essence of God see everything in God?

Objection 1: It seems that those who see the essence of God see all things in God. For Gregory says (Dialog. iv): "What do they not see, who see Him Who sees all things?" But God sees all things. Therefore those who see God see all things.

Objection 1: It seems that those who understand the essence of God understand all things in God. For Gregory says (Dialog. iv): "What do they not see, who see Him Who sees all things?" But God sees all things. Therefore, those who see God see all things.

Obj. 2: Further, whoever sees a mirror, sees what is reflected in the mirror. But all actual or possible things shine forth in God as in a mirror; for He knows all things in Himself. Therefore whoever sees God, sees all actual things in Him, and also all possible things.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, anyone who looks at a mirror sees what is reflected in it. But all actual or possible things are reflected in God like in a mirror; He knows everything within Himself. Therefore, whoever sees God sees all actual things in Him, as well as all possible things.

Obj. 3: Further, whoever understands the greater, can understand the least, as is said in De Anima iii. But all that God does, or can do, are less than His essence. Therefore whoever understands God, can understand all that God does, or can do.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, anyone who understands the greater can understand the lesser, as stated in De Anima iii. But everything that God does, or is capable of doing, is less than His essence. Therefore, anyone who understands God can understand everything that God does or can do.

Obj. 4: Further, the rational creature naturally desires to know all things. Therefore if in seeing God it does not know all things, its natural desire will not rest satisfied; thus, in seeing God it will not be fully happy; which is incongruous. Therefore he who sees God knows all things.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, a rational being naturally wants to know everything. So, if in seeing God it doesn't know everything, its natural desire won't be fully satisfied; therefore, in seeing God, it won’t be completely happy, which doesn’t make sense. Thus, whoever sees God knows everything.

On the contrary, The angels see the essence of God; and yet do not know all things. For as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. vii), "the inferior angels are cleansed from ignorance by the superior angels." Also they are ignorant of future contingent things, and of secret thoughts; for this knowledge belongs to God alone. Therefore whosoever sees the essence of God, does not know all things.

On the contrary, the angels perceive the essence of God, yet they do not know everything. As Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. vii), "the lower angels are freed from ignorance by the higher angels." They are also unaware of future events and hidden thoughts, as this knowledge is exclusive to God. Therefore, anyone who sees the essence of God does not know everything.

I answer that, The created intellect, in seeing the divine essence, does not see in it all that God does or can do. For it is manifest that things are seen in God as they are in Him. But all other things are in God as effects are in the power of their cause. Therefore all things are seen in God as an effect is seen in its cause. Now it is clear that the more perfectly a cause is seen, the more of its effects can be seen in it. For whoever has a lofty understanding, as soon as one demonstrative principle is put before him can gather the knowledge of many conclusions; but this is beyond one of a weaker intellect, for he needs things to be explained to him separately. And so an intellect can know all the effects of a cause and the reasons for those effects in the cause itself, if it comprehends the cause wholly. Now no created intellect can comprehend God wholly, as shown above (A. 7). Therefore no created intellect in seeing God can know all that God does or can do, for this would be to comprehend His power; but of what God does or can do any intellect can know the more, the more perfectly it sees God.

I answer that, A created intellect, when it perceives the divine essence, does not see everything that God does or can do. It's clear that things are seen in God as they exist within Him. However, all other things exist in God like effects exist in their cause. Thus, all things are perceived in God as an effect is seen in its cause. It’s evident that the more completely a cause is understood, the more of its effects can be recognized within it. For someone with a deep understanding can grasp many conclusions quickly once a single demonstrative principle is presented, whereas someone with a weaker intellect needs explanations of things one by one. Therefore, an intellect can understand all the effects of a cause and the reasons for those effects within the cause itself, if it fully grasps the cause. However, no created intellect can fully comprehend God, as stated above (A. 7). Hence, no created intellect, when seeing God, can grasp everything that God does or can do, as that would mean comprehending His power; yet any intellect can know more about what God does or can do, the more perfectly it sees God.

Reply Obj. 1: Gregory speaks as regards the object being sufficient, namely, God, who in Himself sufficiently contains and shows forth all things; but it does not follow that whoever sees God knows all things, for he does not perfectly comprehend Him.

Reply Obj. 1: Gregory talks about the object being sufficient, specifically God, who in Himself completely contains and reveals all things; however, it doesn’t mean that anyone who sees God understands all things, as they do not fully comprehend Him.

Reply Obj. 2: It is not necessary that whoever sees a mirror should see all that is in the mirror, unless his glance comprehends the mirror itself.

Reply Obj. 2: It’s not necessary for someone looking in a mirror to see everything that’s reflected, unless they understand the mirror itself.

Reply Obj. 3: Although it is more to see God than to see all things else, still it is a greater thing to see Him so that all things are known in Him, than to see Him in such a way that not all things, but the fewer or the more, are known in Him. For it has been shown in this article that the more things are known in God according as He is seen more or less perfectly.

Reply Obj. 3: Even though seeing God is greater than seeing anything else, it's even more significant to see Him in a way that allows all things to be understood in Him, rather than just some things. This article has shown that the more perfectly God is seen, the more things can be understood in Him.

Reply Obj. 4: The natural desire of the rational creature is to know everything that belongs to the perfection of the intellect, namely, the species and the genera of things and their types, and these everyone who sees the Divine essence will see in God. But to know other singulars, their thoughts and their deeds does not belong to the perfection of the created intellect nor does its natural desire go out to these things; neither, again, does it desire to know things that exist not as yet, but which God can call into being. Yet if God alone were seen, Who is the fount and principle of all being and of all truth, He would so fill the natural desire of knowledge that nothing else would be desired, and the seer would be completely beatified. Hence Augustine says (Confess. v): "Unhappy the man who knoweth all these" (i.e. all creatures) "and knoweth not Thee! but happy whoso knoweth Thee although he know not these. And whoso knoweth both Thee and them is not the happier for them, but for Thee alone." _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The natural desire of a rational being is to know everything that contributes to the perfection of the intellect, specifically the categories and types of things, and everyone who perceives the Divine essence will recognize these in God. However, knowing other individual things, their thoughts, and their actions does not contribute to the perfection of the created intellect, nor is there a natural desire for such knowledge; similarly, there is no desire to know things that do not yet exist but that God can bring into existence. Yet, if God alone were to be seen, as the source and principle of all being and all truth, He would completely satisfy the natural desire for knowledge to the point that nothing else would be desired, and the observer would be entirely blessed. Therefore, Augustine says (Confess. v): "Unhappy is the person who knows all these" (i.e., all creatures) "and does not know You! But happy is one who knows You even if they do not know these. And one who knows both You and them is not happier because of them, but because of You alone."

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 9]

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 9]

Whether What Is Seen in God by Those Who See the Divine Essence, Is Seen
Through Any Similitude?

Whether what is seen in God by those who perceive the Divine Essence is seen
through any likeness?

Objection 1: It seems that what is seen in God by those who see the Divine essence, is seen by means of some similitude. For every kind of knowledge comes about by the knower being assimilated to the object known. For thus the intellect in act becomes the actual intelligible, and the sense in act becomes the actual sensible, inasmuch as it is informed by a similitude of the object, as the eye by the similitude of color. Therefore if the intellect of one who sees the Divine essence understands any creatures in God, it must be informed by their similitudes.

Objection 1: It seems that what those who perceive the Divine essence see in God is understood through some kind of likeness. Every type of knowledge occurs when the knower is aligned with the object known. Thus, the active intellect becomes what it understands, and the senses become what they perceive, as they are informed by a likeness of the object, like how the eye perceives color through its likeness. Therefore, if the intellect of someone who sees the Divine essence comprehends any creatures in God, it must be informed by their likenesses.

Obj. 2: Further, what we have seen, we keep in memory. But Paul, seeing the essence of God whilst in ecstasy, when he had ceased to see the Divine essence, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii, 28,34), remembered many of the things he had seen in the rapture; hence he said: "I have heard secret words which it is not granted to man to utter" (2 Cor. 12:4). Therefore it must be said that certain similitudes of what he remembered, remained in his mind; and in the same way, when he actually saw the essence of God, he had certain similitudes or ideas of what he actually saw in it.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, what we have seen stays in our memory. However, Paul, when he experienced the essence of God during his ecstasy, once he stopped seeing the Divine essence, as Augustine mentions (Gen. ad lit. ii, 28,34), recalled many of the things he had witnessed in that rapture; therefore, he stated: "I have heard secret words which no human is permitted to speak" (2 Cor. 12:4). Thus, it can be concluded that certain likenesses of what he remembered remained in his mind; similarly, when he actually viewed the essence of God, he retained certain likenesses or concepts of what he truly saw in it.

On the contrary, A mirror and what is in it are seen by means of one likeness. But all things are seen in God as in an intelligible mirror. Therefore if God Himself is not seen by any similitude but by His own essence, neither are the things seen in Him seen by any similitudes or ideas.

On the contrary, a mirror and what’s reflected in it are perceived through a single likeness. But everything is viewed in God like an understandable mirror. Therefore, if God Himself isn’t seen through any likeness but by His own essence, then the things seen in Him are also not seen through any likenesses or ideas.

I answer that, Those who see the divine essence see what they see in God not by any likeness, but by the divine essence itself united to their intellect. For each thing is known in so far as its likeness is in the one who knows. Now this takes place in two ways. For as things which are like one and the same thing are like to each other, the cognitive faculty can be assimilated to any knowable object in two ways. In one way it is assimilated by the object itself, when it is directly informed by a similitude, and then the object is known in itself. In another way when informed by a similitude which resembles the object; and in this way, the knowledge is not of the thing in itself, but of the thing in its likeness. For the knowledge of a man in himself differs from the knowledge of him in his image. Hence to know things thus by their likeness in the one who knows, is to know them in themselves or in their own nature; whereas to know them by their similitudes pre-existing in God, is to see them in God. Now there is a difference between these two kinds of knowledge. Hence, according to the knowledge whereby things are known by those who see the essence of God, they are seen in God Himself not by any other similitudes but by the Divine essence alone present to the intellect; by which also God Himself is seen.

I answer that, Those who perceive the divine essence see God not through any likeness, but through the divine essence itself connected to their understanding. Each thing is known according to how its likeness exists in the one who knows. This occurs in two ways. Just as things that resemble a single object are similar to each other, the cognitive ability can relate to any knowable object in two different ways. First, it is related by the object itself when it is directly informed by a likeness, and then the object is known as it is. Second, it is informed by a likeness that resembles the object; in this case, the knowledge is not of the object itself, but of the object through its likeness. For example, knowing a person in themselves is different from knowing them through their image. Thus, knowing things through their likeness in the knower is to understand them in their true nature; while knowing them through their likenesses that exist in God is to see them in God. There is a distinction between these two types of knowledge. Accordingly, through the knowledge that recognizes things, those who see the essence of God perceive them within God Himself, not by any other likenesses but solely through the Divine essence that is present to the intellect; through which God Himself is also seen.

Reply Obj. 1: The created intellect of one who sees God is assimilated to what is seen in God, inasmuch as it is united to the Divine essence, in which the similitudes of all things pre-exist.

Reply Obj. 1: The created mind of someone who sees God aligns with what is seen in God, as it is connected to the Divine essence, in which the representations of all things exist beforehand.

Reply Obj. 2: Some of the cognitive faculties form other images from those first conceived; thus the imagination from the preconceived images of a mountain and of gold can form the likeness of a golden mountain; and the intellect, from the preconceived ideas of genus and difference, forms the idea of species; in like manner from the similitude of an image we can form in our minds the similitude of the original of the image. Thus Paul, or any other person who sees God, by the very vision of the divine essence, can form in himself the similitudes of what is seen in the divine essence, which remained in Paul even when he had ceased to see the essence of God. Still this kind of vision whereby things are seen by this likeness thus conceived, is not the same as that whereby things are seen in God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Some of our thinking abilities create new images based on the ones we initially have; for instance, the imagination can combine the mental images of a mountain and gold to form the idea of a golden mountain. Similarly, the intellect, using the concepts of genus and difference, develops the idea of a species. In the same way, from the likeness of an image, we can create a mental representation of the original image. Therefore, Paul, or anyone else who encounters God, through the direct vision of the divine essence, can internally visualize the representations of what is perceived in that divine essence, which continues to exist within Paul even after he stops seeing the essence of God. However, this type of vision, where things are perceived through a conceived likeness, is distinct from the vision of things as they are seen in God.

TENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 10]

TENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 10]

Whether Those Who See the Essence of God See All They See in It at the
Same Time?

Whether those who perceive the essence of God see everything they see in it at the
same time?

Objection 1: It seems that those who see the essence of God do not see all they see in Him at one and the same time. For according to the Philosopher (Topic. ii): "It may happen that many things are known, but only one is understood." But what is seen in God, is understood; for God is seen by the intellect. Therefore those who see God do not see all in Him at the same time.

Objection 1: It seems that those who perceive the essence of God do not comprehend everything they see in Him all at once. As stated by the Philosopher (Topic. ii): "Many things can be known, but only one can be understood at a time." However, what is perceived in God is understood, because God is comprehended by the intellect. Therefore, those who perceive God do not grasp everything about Him simultaneously.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 22, 23), "God moves the spiritual creature according to time"—i.e. by intelligence and affection. But the spiritual creature is the angel who sees God. Therefore those who see God understand and are affected successively; for time means succession.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. viii, 22, 23), "God moves the spiritual being according to time"—meaning through intelligence and emotion. The spiritual being refers to the angel who sees God. Therefore, those who see God comprehend and are influenced in succession; as time implies a sequence.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xvi): "Our thoughts will not be unstable, going to and fro from one thing to another; but we shall see all we know at one glance."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xvi): "Our thoughts won't be unstable, flipping back and forth between different things; instead, we will see everything we know in one glance."

I answer that, What is seen in the Word is seen not successively, but at the same time. In proof whereof, we ourselves cannot know many things all at once, forasmuch as understand many things by means of many ideas. But our intellect cannot be actually informed by many diverse ideas at the same time, so as to understand by them; as one body cannot bear different shapes simultaneously. Hence, when many things can be understood by one idea, they are understood at the same time; as the parts of a whole are understood successively, and not all at the same time, if each one is understood by its own idea; whereas if all are understood under the one idea of the whole, they are understood simultaneously. Now it was shown above that things seen in God, are not seen singly by their own similitude; but all are seen by the one essence of God. Hence they are seen simultaneously, and not successively.

I reply that,

Reply Obj. 1: We understand one thing only when we understand by one idea; but many things understood by one idea are understood simultaneously, as in the idea of a man we understand "animal" and "rational"; and in the idea of a house we understand the wall and the roof.

Reply Obj. 1: We only understand one thing clearly when we grasp it through one idea; however, when multiple things are understood through one idea, they are understood at the same time. For example, in the idea of a man, we understand "animal" and "rational"; in the idea of a house, we grasp the wall and the roof.

Reply Obj. 2: As regards their natural knowledge, whereby they know things by diverse ideas given them, the angels do not know all things simultaneously, and thus they are moved in the act of understanding according to time; but as regards what they see in God, they see all at the same time. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: When it comes to their natural understanding, through which they know things via different ideas presented to them, angels do not know everything at once, and therefore they process understanding over time; however, in terms of what they perceive in God, they see it all at once.

ELEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 11]

ELEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 11]

Whether Anyone in This Life Can See the Essence of God?

Whether anyone in this life can see the essence of God?

Objection 1: It seems that one can in this life see the Divine essence. For Jacob said: "I have seen God face to face" (Gen. 32:30). But to see Him face to face is to see His essence, as appears from the words: "We see now in a glass and in a dark manner, but then face to face" (1 Cor. 13:12).

Objection 1: It appears that someone can see the Divine essence in this life. Jacob said, "I have seen God face to face" (Gen. 32:30). However, seeing Him face to face means seeing His essence, as indicated by the words: "We see now in a mirror dimly, but then face to face" (1 Cor. 13:12).

Obj. 2: Further, the Lord said to Moses: "I speak to him mouth to mouth, and plainly, and not by riddles and figures doth he see the Lord" (Num. 12:8); but this is to see God in His essence. Therefore it is possible to see the essence of God in this life.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Lord said to Moses: "I speak to him directly and clearly, not through riddles or symbols; he sees the Lord" (Num. 12:8); but this means seeing God in His true form. Therefore, it is possible to see the essence of God in this life.

Obj. 3: Further, that wherein we know all other things, and whereby we judge of other things, is known in itself to us. But even now we know all things in God; for Augustine says (Confess. viii): "If we both see that what you say is true, and we both see that what I say is true; where, I ask, do we see this? neither I in thee, nor thou in me; but both of us in the very incommutable truth itself above our minds." He also says (De Vera Relig. xxx) that, "We judge of all things according to the divine truth"; and (De Trin. xii) that, "it is the duty of reason to judge of these corporeal things according to the incorporeal and eternal ideas; which unless they were above the mind could not be incommutable." Therefore even in this life we see God Himself.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the way we understand everything else and judge things is known to us in itself. Right now, we know everything through God; Augustine states (Confess. viii): "If we both recognize that what you say is true, and we both recognize that what I say is true; then I ask, where do we see this? Neither in you nor in me, but both of us in the very unchangeable truth itself that exists beyond our minds." He also mentions (De Vera Relig. xxx) that, "We judge everything according to divine truth"; and (De Trin. xii) that, "It is the role of reason to assess these physical things based on incorporeal and eternal ideas; which, if they were not above the mind, could not be unchangeable." Therefore, even in this life, we see God Himself.

Obj. 4: Further, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. xii, 24, 25), those things that are in the soul by their essence are seen by intellectual vision. But intellectual vision is of intelligible things, not by similitudes, but by their very essences, as he also says (Gen. ad lit. xiii, 24, 25). Therefore since God is in our soul by His essence, it follows that He is seen by us in His essence.

Obj. 4: Additionally, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. xii, 24, 25), the things that exist in the soul by their essence are perceived through intellectual vision. This kind of vision pertains to intelligible things, not through representations, but by their true essences, as he also states (Gen. ad lit. xiii, 24, 25). Therefore, since God exists in our soul by His essence, it follows that we perceive Him in His essence.

On the contrary, It is written, "Man shall not see Me, and live" (Ex. 32:20), and a gloss upon this says, "In this mortal life God can be seen by certain images, but not by the likeness itself of His own nature."

On the contrary, It is written, "No one can see Me and live" (Ex. 32:20), and a note on this says, "In this mortal life, God can be seen through certain images, but not through the likeness of His own nature."

I answer that, God cannot be seen in His essence by a mere human being, except he be separated from this mortal life. The reason is because, as was said above (A. 4), the mode of knowledge follows the mode of the nature of the knower. But our soul, as long as we live in this life, has its being in corporeal matter; hence naturally it knows only what has a form in matter, or what can be known by such a form. Now it is evident that the Divine essence cannot be known through the nature of material things. For it was shown above (AA. 2, 9) that the knowledge of God by means of any created similitude is not the vision of His essence. Hence it is impossible for the soul of man in this life to see the essence of God. This can be seen in the fact that the more our soul is abstracted from corporeal things, the more it is capable of receiving abstract intelligible things. Hence in dreams and alienations of the bodily senses divine revelations and foresight of future events are perceived the more clearly. It is not possible, therefore, that the soul in this mortal life should be raised up to the supreme of intelligible objects, i.e. to the divine essence.

I respond that, God cannot be seen in His true essence by a human being unless they are separated from this mortal life. The reason is that, as mentioned earlier (A. 4), the way we know things depends on the nature of the one knowing. Our soul, while we live in this life, exists in physical matter; therefore, it naturally knows only what has a form in matter or what can be understood through such forms. Clearly, the Divine essence cannot be known through the nature of material things. As explained before (AA. 2, 9), knowing God through any created likeness is not the same as seeing His essence. Thus, it's impossible for the human soul in this life to see the essence of God. This is evident in the fact that the more our soul separates from physical things, the more it can grasp abstract, intelligible concepts. Consequently, in dreams and when the body's senses are altered, divine revelations and foresight of future events are perceived more clearly. Therefore, it is not possible for the soul in this mortal life to ascend to the highest of intelligible objects, i.e., to the divine essence.

Reply Obj. 1: According to Dionysius (Coel. Hier. iv) a man is said in the Scriptures to see God in the sense that certain figures are formed in the senses or imagination, according to some similitude representing in part the divinity. So when Jacob says, "I have seen God face to face," this does not mean the Divine essence, but some figure representing God. And this is to be referred to some high mode of prophecy, so that God seems to speak, though in an imaginary vision; as will later be explained (II-II, Q. 174) in treating of the degrees of prophecy. We may also say that Jacob spoke thus to designate some exalted intellectual contemplation, above the ordinary state.

Reply Obj. 1: According to Dionysius (Coel. Hier. iv), in the Scriptures, a person is said to see God in the sense that certain images are formed in the senses or imagination, reflecting some aspect of the divine. So when Jacob says, "I have seen God face to face," it doesn't mean the Divine essence, but rather some image representing God. This should be understood as relating to a higher mode of prophecy, where God appears to speak, even if it's in an imagined vision; this will be further explained (II-II, Q. 174) when discussing the levels of prophecy. We can also say that Jacob said this to indicate a kind of elevated intellectual contemplation, beyond the usual state.

Reply Obj. 2: As God works miracles in corporeal things, so also He does supernatural wonders above the common order, raising the minds of some living in the flesh beyond the use of sense, even up to the vision of His own essence; as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 26, 27, 28) of Moses, the teacher of the Jews; and of Paul, the teacher of the Gentiles. This will be treated more fully in the question of rapture (II-II, Q. 175).

Reply Obj. 2: Just as God performs miracles in physical things, He also does extraordinary wonders outside of the usual order, elevating the minds of some people living in the flesh beyond sensory perception, even to the vision of His own essence; as Augustine mentions (Gen. ad lit. xii, 26, 27, 28) regarding Moses, the Jewish teacher, and Paul, the teacher of the Gentiles. This will be discussed in more detail in the question of rapture (II-II, Q. 175).

Reply Obj. 3: All things are said to be seen in God and all things are judged in Him, because by the participation of His light, we know and judge all things; for the light of natural reason itself is a participation of the divine light; as likewise we are said to see and judge of sensible things in the sun, i.e., by the sun's light. Hence Augustine says (Soliloq. i, 8), "The lessons of instruction can only be seen as it were by their own sun," namely God. As therefore in order to see a sensible object, it is not necessary to see the substance of the sun, so in like manner to see any intelligible object, it is not necessary to see the essence of God.

Reply Obj. 3: Everything is said to be seen in God, and everything is judged in Him because, through the participation of His light, we understand and evaluate everything. The light of natural reason itself is a reflection of divine light, just as we see and judge physical things in the sunlight, meaning by the sun's light. Augustine says (Soliloq. i, 8), "The lessons of instruction can only be seen as it were by their own sun," which refers to God. Therefore, just as it isn't necessary to see the substance of the sun to perceive a physical object, similarly, it isn't necessary to see the essence of God to understand an intelligible object.

Reply Obj. 4: Intellectual vision is of the things which are in the soul by their essence, as intelligible things are in the intellect. And thus God is in the souls of the blessed; not thus is He in our soul, but by presence, essence and power. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Intellectual vision is about the things that exist in the soul in their true form, just like understandable things exist in the intellect. Therefore, God is within the souls of the blessed; He is not in our soul in the same way, but rather through presence, essence, and power.

TWELFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 12]

TWELFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 12]

Whether God Can Be Known in This Life by Natural Reason?

Whether God Can Be Known in This Life by Natural Reason?

Objection 1: It seems that by natural reason we cannot know God in this life. For Boethius says (De Consol. v) that "reason does not grasp simple form." But God is a supremely simple form, as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 7). Therefore natural reason cannot attain to know Him.

Objection 1: It seems that through natural reason we cannot know God in this life. For Boethius says (De Consol. v) that "reason does not grasp simple form." But God is a supremely simple form, as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 7). Therefore, natural reason cannot reach the knowledge of Him.

Obj. 2: Further, the soul understands nothing by natural reason without the use of the imagination. But we cannot have an imagination of God, Who is incorporeal. Therefore we cannot know God by natural knowledge.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the soul doesn't understand anything through natural reason without using the imagination. But we can't imagine God, who is incorporeal. Therefore, we can't know God through natural knowledge.

Obj. 3: Further, the knowledge of natural reason belongs to both good and evil, inasmuch as they have a common nature. But the knowledge of God belongs only to the good; for Augustine says (De Trin. i): "The weak eye of the human mind is not fixed on that excellent light unless purified by the justice of faith." Therefore God cannot be known by natural reason.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the understanding of natural reason applies to both good and evil, since they share a common nature. However, the knowledge of God applies only to the good; as Augustine states (De Trin. i): "The limited vision of the human mind cannot focus on that brilliant light unless it is purified by the fairness of faith." Therefore, God cannot be understood through natural reason.

On the contrary, It is written (Rom. 1:19), "That which is known of God," namely, what can be known of God by natural reason, "is manifest in them."

On the contrary, It is written (Rom. 1:19), "What can be known about God," specifically, what can be understood about God through natural reasoning, "is evident within them."

I answer that, Our natural knowledge begins from sense. Hence our natural knowledge can go as far as it can be led by sensible things. But our mind cannot be led by sense so far as to see the essence of God; because the sensible effects of God do not equal the power of God as their cause. Hence from the knowledge of sensible things the whole power of God cannot be known; nor therefore can His essence be seen. But because they are His effects and depend on their cause, we can be led from them so far as to know of God "whether He exists," and to know of Him what must necessarily belong to Him, as the first cause of all things, exceeding all things caused by Him.

I respond that, Our understanding of the world starts with our senses. Therefore, our knowledge is limited to the extent that it can be guided by what we can perceive. However, our minds cannot rely on our senses to fully grasp the essence of God, because the observable effects of God don’t reflect the full magnitude of God’s power as their cause. Thus, from our experiences with the tangible world, we cannot fully know God’s power or see His essence. Yet, since these effects are a result of God and rely on Him as their source, we can conclude from them whether God exists and understand certain attributes that must belong to Him, as the primary cause of everything, surpassing all that He has created.

Hence we know that His relationship with creatures so far as to be the cause of them all; also that creatures differ from Him, inasmuch as He is not in any way part of what is caused by Him; and that creatures are not removed from Him by reason of any defect on His part, but because He superexceeds them all.

Hence we know that His relationship with creatures is the reason for their existence; also that creatures are different from Him because He is not in any way part of what He created; and that creatures are not separate from Him due to any flaw on His part, but because He surpasses them all.

Reply Obj. 1: Reason cannot reach up to simple form, so as to know "what it is"; but it can know "whether it is."

Reply Obj. 1: Reason can't grasp the simple form enough to know "what it is"; however, it can determine "whether it exists."

Reply Obj. 2: God is known by natural knowledge through the images of His effects.

Reply Obj. 2: God is understood through natural knowledge by observing the signs of His effects.

Reply Obj. 3: As the knowledge of God's essence is by grace, it belongs only to the good; but the knowledge of Him by natural reason can belong to both good and bad; and hence Augustine says (Retract. i), retracting what he had said before: "I do not approve what I said in prayer, 'God who willest that only the pure should know truth.' For it can be answered that many who are not pure can know many truths," i.e. by natural reason. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Since understanding God's essence is a gift of grace, it is reserved for the good; however, the knowledge of Him through natural reason can be accessible to both the good and the bad. Augustine mentions (Retract. i), revising his earlier statement: "I do not stand by what I said in prayer, 'God who desires that only the pure should know truth.' For it's possible to argue that many who are not pure can understand many truths," meaning they can do so through natural reason.

THIRTEENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 13]

THIRTEENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 12, Art. 13]

Whether by Grace a Higher Knowledge of God Can Be Obtained Than by
Natural Reason?

Whether grace offers a deeper understanding of God than natural reason?

Objection 1: It seems that by grace a higher knowledge of God is not obtained than by natural reason. For Dionysius says (De Mystica Theol. i) that whoever is the more united to God in this life, is united to Him as to one entirely unknown. He says the same of Moses, who nevertheless obtained a certain excellence by the knowledge conferred by grace. But to be united to God while ignoring of Him "what He is," comes about also by natural reason. Therefore God is not more known to us by grace than by natural reason.

Objection 1: It appears that we don’t gain a deeper understanding of God through grace than we do through natural reason. Dionysius states (De Mystica Theol. i) that whoever is more united to God in this life is united to Him as someone completely unknown. He makes the same point about Moses, who nonetheless attained a certain excellence through the knowledge given by grace. However, being united with God while being unaware of "what He is" can also happen through natural reason. Therefore, we do not know God better through grace than we do through natural reason.

Obj. 2: Further, we can acquire the knowledge of divine things by natural reason only through the imagination; and the same applies to the knowledge given by grace. For Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. i) that "it is impossible for the divine ray to shine upon us except as screened round about by the many colored sacred veils." Therefore we cannot know God more fully by grace than by natural reason.

Obj. 2: Additionally, we can only understand divine matters through natural reason when it’s filtered through our imagination; this also applies to knowledge gained through grace. As Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. i), "the divine light can only reach us if it is surrounded by many colored sacred veils." Therefore, we cannot know God more completely through grace than through natural reason.

Obj. 3: Further, our intellect adheres to God by grace of faith. But faith does not seem to be knowledge; for Gregory says (Hom. xxvi in Ev.) that "things not seen are the objects of faith, and not of knowledge." Therefore there is not given to us a more excellent knowledge of God by grace.

Obj. 3: Additionally, our mind connects with God through the gift of faith. However, faith doesn’t appear to be knowledge; because Gregory states (Hom. xxvi in Ev.) that "things not seen are the objects of faith, not of knowledge." Therefore, we are not granted a superior understanding of God through grace.

On the contrary, The Apostle says that "God hath revealed to us His spirit," what "none of the princes of this world knew" (1 Cor. 2:10), namely, the philosophers, as the gloss expounds.

On the contrary, The Apostle says that "God has revealed to us His spirit," which "none of the rulers of this world knew" (1 Cor. 2:10), referring to the philosophers, as the gloss explains.

I answer that, We have a more perfect knowledge of God by grace than by natural reason. Which is proved thus. The knowledge which we have by natural reason contains two things: images derived from the sensible objects; and the natural intelligible light, enabling us to abstract from them intelligible conceptions.

I answer that, We have a clearer understanding of God through grace than through natural reasoning. This is shown as follows: The knowledge we gain through natural reasoning involves two elements: images taken from sensory objects, and the natural understanding that allows us to form concepts from them.

Now in both of these, human knowledge is assisted by the revelation of grace. For the intellect's natural light is strengthened by the infusion of gratuitous light; and sometimes also the images in the human imagination are divinely formed, so as to express divine things better than those do which we receive from sensible objects, as appears in prophetic visions; while sometimes sensible things, or even voices, are divinely formed to express some divine meaning; as in the Baptism, the Holy Ghost was seen in the shape of a dove, and the voice of the Father was heard, "This is My beloved Son" (Matt. 3:17).

Now, in both of these cases, human understanding is aided by the revelation of grace. The natural light of the intellect is enhanced by the addition of divine light; and sometimes the images in our minds are divinely shaped to represent divine matters more effectively than those we get from physical objects, as seen in prophetic visions. At times, physical things, or even sounds, are divinely designed to convey a divine message; for example, at the Baptism, the Holy Spirit appeared in the form of a dove, and the voice of the Father was heard saying, "This is My beloved Son" (Matt. 3:17).

Reply Obj. 1: Although by the revelation of grace in this life we cannot know of God "what He is," and thus are united to Him as to one unknown; still we know Him more fully according as many and more excellent of His effects are demonstrated to us, and according as we attribute to Him some things known by divine revelation, to which natural reason cannot reach, as, for instance, that God is Three and One.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though in this life we cannot fully know God "for who He is" and are connected to Him as to someone unknown, we understand Him better as we see more and better aspects of His creation, and as we recognize certain truths revealed by God that we can't grasp through natural reason, like the concept that God is Three and One.

Reply Obj. 2: From the images either received from sense in the natural order, or divinely formed in the imagination, we have so much the more excellent intellectual knowledge, the stronger the intelligible light is in man; and thus through the revelation given by the images a fuller knowledge is received by the infusion of the divine light.

Reply Obj. 2: From the images either perceived through our senses in the natural world or created by divine inspiration in our imagination, we gain a higher level of intellectual understanding; the stronger the understanding is in a person, the more brilliant the insight. Therefore, through the revelation provided by these images, a deeper understanding is achieved by the infusion of divine light.

Reply Obj. 3: Faith is a kind of knowledge, inasmuch as the intellect is determined by faith to some knowable object. But this determination to one object does not proceed from the vision of the believer, but from the vision of Him who is believed. Thus as far as faith falls short of vision, it falls short of the knowledge which belongs to science, for science determines the intellect to one object by the vision and understanding of first principles. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Faith is a type of knowledge, in that the mind is directed by faith toward a specific knowable object. However, this focus on one object doesn’t come from the believer's own vision, but from the vision of the one who is believed in. Therefore, since faith lacks the direct insight of vision, it also lacks the level of knowledge that comes with science, because science directs the mind toward one object through the understanding and perception of fundamental principles.

QUESTION 13

THE NAMES OF GOD
(In Twelve Articles)

THE NAMES OF GOD
(In Twelve Articles)

After the consideration of those things which belong to the divine knowledge, we now proceed to the consideration of the divine names. For everything is named by us according to our knowledge of it.

After thinking about the aspects of divine knowledge, we now move on to discuss the divine names. We name everything based on our understanding of it.

Under this head, there are twelve points for inquiry:

Under this topic, there are twelve points for investigation:

(1) Whether God can be named by us?

Can we name God?

(2) Whether any names applied to God are predicated of Him substantially?

(2) Are any names used for God applied to Him in a substantial way?

(3) Whether any names applied to God are said of Him literally, or are all to be taken metaphorically?

(3) Are the names used for God meant to be taken literally, or should they all be understood metaphorically?

(4) Whether any names applied to God are synonymous?

(4) Are any of the names used for God synonymous?

(5) Whether some names are applied to God and to creatures univocally or equivocally?

(5) Are some names used for God and for creatures in the same way or in different ways?

(6) Whether, supposing they are applied analogically, they are applied first to God or to creatures?

(6) When using them as analogies, are they applied first to God or to created beings?

(7) Whether any names are applicable to God from time?

(7) Are there any names that can be used for God throughout time?

(8) Whether this name "God" is a name of nature, or of the operation?

(8) Is the name "God" a name for nature or for action?

(9) Whether this name "God" is a communicable name?

(9) Is the name "God" a name that can be communicated?

(10) Whether it is taken univocally or equivocally as signifying God, by nature, by participation, and by opinion?

(10) Should it be understood in a single way or in multiple ways as representing God, by nature, by participation, and by opinion?

(11) Whether this name, "Who is," is the supremely appropriate name of God?

(11) Is the name "Who is" the most fitting name for God?

(12) Whether affirmative propositions can be formed about God? _______________________

(12) Can we make positive statements about God? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 1]

Whether a Name Can Be Given to God?

Whether a Name Can Be Given to God?

Objection 1: It seems that no name can be given to God. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. i) that, "Of Him there is neither name, nor can one be found of Him;" and it is written: "What is His name, and what is the name of His Son, if thou knowest?" (Prov. 30:4).

Objection 1: It appears that no name can be assigned to God. For Dionysius states (Div. Nom. i) that, "He has no name, nor can one be found for Him;" and it is written: "What is His name, and what is the name of His Son, if you know?" (Prov. 30:4).

Obj. 2: Further, every name is either abstract or concrete. But concrete names do not belong to God, since He is simple, nor do abstract names belong to Him, forasmuch as they do not signify any perfect subsisting thing. Therefore no name can be said of God.

Obj. 2: Moreover, every name is either abstract or concrete. However, concrete names do not apply to God, since He is simple, nor do abstract names apply to Him, because they do not signify any perfect existing being. Therefore, no name can accurately describe God.

Obj. 3: Further, nouns are taken to signify substance with quality; verbs and participles signify substance with time; pronouns the same with demonstration or relation. But none of these can be applied to God, for He has no quality, nor accident, nor time; moreover, He cannot be felt, so as to be pointed out; nor can He be described by relation, inasmuch as relations serve to recall a thing mentioned before by nouns, participles, or demonstrative pronouns. Therefore God cannot in any way be named by us.

Obj. 3: Additionally, nouns are used to represent substance with quality; verbs and participles represent substance with time; pronouns do the same with demonstration or relation. However, none of these can be applied to God, because He has no qualities, no accidents, and no time; furthermore, He cannot be perceived in a way that allows for identification; nor can He be described by relation, since relations refer back to something previously mentioned with nouns, participles, or demonstrative pronouns. Therefore, we cannot name God in any way.

On the contrary, It is written (Ex. 15:3): "The Lord is a man of war, Almighty is His name."

On the contrary, It is written (Ex. 15:3): "The Lord is a warrior, Almighty is His name."

I answer that, Since according to the Philosopher (Peri Herm. i), words are signs of ideas, and ideas the similitude of things, it is evident that words relate to the meaning of things signified through the medium of the intellectual conception. It follows therefore that we can give a name to anything in as far as we can understand it. Now it was shown above (Q. 12, AA. 11, 12) that in this life we cannot see the essence of God; but we know God from creatures as their principle, and also by way of excellence and remotion. In this way therefore He can be named by us from creatures, yet not so that the name which signifies Him expresses the divine essence in itself. Thus the name "man" expresses the essence of man in himself, since it signifies the definition of man by manifesting his essence; for the idea expressed by the name is the definition.

I answer that, According to the Philosopher (Peri Herm. i), words are symbols of ideas, and ideas are reflections of things. It's clear that words connect to the meaning of the things they represent through our understanding. Therefore, we can name anything as long as we can comprehend it. Now, it was shown earlier (Q. 12, AA. 11, 12) that in this life we cannot see God's essence; however, we understand God through His creations as their source and also by considering His excellence and what He is not. In this way, we can refer to Him based on His creations, but that doesn't mean the name we use fully captures His divine essence. For instance, the name "man" accurately represents the essence of man itself, since it conveys the definition of man by revealing his essence; the idea expressed by the name is essentially the definition.

Reply Obj. 1: The reason why God has no name, or is said to be above being named, is because His essence is above all that we understand about God, and signify in word.

Reply Obj. 1: The reason God has no name, or is said to be beyond naming, is that His essence is beyond anything we comprehend about God and can express in words.

Reply Obj. 2: Because we know and name God from creatures, the names we attribute to God signify what belongs to material creatures, of which the knowledge is natural to us. And because in creatures of this kind what is perfect and subsistent is compound; whereas their form is not a complete subsisting thing, but rather is that whereby a thing is; hence it follows that all names used by us to signify a complete subsisting thing must have a concrete meaning as applicable to compound things; whereas names given to signify simple forms, signify a thing not as subsisting, but as that whereby a thing is; as, for instance, whiteness signifies that whereby a thing is white. And as God is simple, and subsisting, we attribute to Him abstract names to signify His simplicity, and concrete names to signify His substance and perfection, although both these kinds of names fail to express His mode of being, forasmuch as our intellect does not know Him in this life as He is.

Reply Obj. 2: Since we understand and refer to God through the things we see around us, the names we give God reflect qualities of material creatures, which we naturally know. In these kinds of creatures, what is perfect and exists independently is made up of parts; while their form is not a fully independent existence, but rather represents what a thing is. Therefore, all the names we use to describe something that exists independently must have a concrete meaning related to composite things. On the other hand, names that describe simple forms refer to something not as existing independently, but as what defines a thing; for example, "whiteness" refers to what makes something white. Since God is simple and exists independently, we assign Him abstract names to indicate His simplicity, and concrete names to denote His essence and perfection, even though both types of names fail to capture how He actually exists, because our understanding in this life does not grasp Him as He truly is.

Reply Obj. 3: To signify substance with quality is to signify the suppositum with a nature or determined form in which it subsists. Hence, as some things are said of God in a concrete sense, to signify His subsistence and perfection, so likewise nouns are applied to God signifying substance with quality. Further, verbs and participles which signify time, are applied to Him because His eternity includes all time. For as we can apprehend and signify simple subsistences only by way of compound things, so we can understand and express simple eternity only by way of temporal things, because our intellect has a natural affinity to compound and temporal things. But demonstrative pronouns are applied to God as describing what is understood, not what is sensed. For we can only describe Him as far as we understand Him. Thus, according as nouns, participles and demonstrative pronouns are applicable to God, so far can He be signified by relative pronouns. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: To indicate substance with quality means to denote the suppositum with a nature or specific form in which it exists. Therefore, just as some things are referred to God in a concrete sense to signify His existence and perfection, nouns are also used for God that indicate substance with quality. Additionally, verbs and participles that denote time are attributed to Him because His eternity encompasses all time. Just as we can understand and represent simple existences only through complex things, we can understand and express simple eternity only through temporal concepts, since our intellect is naturally inclined toward compound and temporal things. However, demonstrative pronouns are used for God as descriptors of the understood, not the sensed. We can only describe Him to the extent that we comprehend Him. Thus, to the extent that nouns, participles, and demonstrative pronouns can be applied to God, He can also be signified by relative pronouns.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 2]

Whether Any Name Can Be Applied to God Substantially?

Whether Any Name Can Be Substantially Applied to God?

Objection 1: It seems that no name can be applied to God substantially. For Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 9): "Everything said of God signifies not His substance, but rather shows forth what He is not; or expresses some relation, or something following from His nature or operation."

Objection 1: It appears that no name can truly describe God. For Damascene states (De Fide Orth. i, 9): "Everything we say about God does not indicate His essence, but instead highlights what He is not; or it expresses a relationship, or something that comes from His nature or actions."

Obj. 2: Further, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. i): "You will find a chorus of holy doctors addressed to the end of distinguishing clearly and praiseworthily the divine processions in the denomination of God." Thus the names applied by the holy doctors in praising God are distinguished according to the divine processions themselves. But what expresses the procession of anything, does not signify its essence. Therefore the names applied to God are not said of Him substantially.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. i): "You will find a group of holy doctors aimed at clearly and appropriately distinguishing the divine processions in God's naming." Thus, the names used by the holy doctors to praise God are distinguished according to the divine processions themselves. However, what describes the procession of something does not indicate its essence. Therefore, the names given to God do not refer to His essence.

Obj. 3: Further, a thing is named by us according as we understand it. But God is not understood by us in this life in His substance. Therefore neither is any name we can use applied substantially to God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, we name things based on how we understand them. But we do not understand God in His essence in this life. Therefore, no name we can use applies fundamentally to God.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi): "The being of God is the being strong, or the being wise, or whatever else we may say of that simplicity whereby His substance is signified." Therefore all names of this kind signify the divine substance.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi): "The essence of God is the essence of strength, or the essence of wisdom, or whatever else we might say about that simplicity that represents His substance." Therefore, all names of this kind refer to the divine substance.

I answer that, Negative names applied to God, or signifying His relation to creatures manifestly do not at all signify His substance, but rather express the distance of the creature from Him, or His relation to something else, or rather, the relation of creatures to Himself.

I respond that, negative names used for God, or indicating His relationship to creatures, clearly do not signify His essence at all. Instead, they express the gap between the creature and Him, or His relation to something else, or more accurately, the relationship between creatures and Him.

But as regards absolute and affirmative names of God, as "good," "wise," and the like, various and many opinions have been given. For some have said that all such names, although they are applied to God affirmatively, nevertheless have been brought into use more to express some remotion from God, rather than to express anything that exists positively in Him. Hence they assert that when we say that God lives, we mean that God is not like an inanimate thing; and the same in like manner applies to other names; and this was taught by Rabbi Moses. Others say that these names applied to God signify His relationship towards creatures: thus in the words, "God is good," we mean, God is the cause of goodness in things; and the same rule applies to other names.

But when it comes to absolute and affirmative names for God, like "good," "wise," and others, there are many different opinions. Some argue that although these names are used to describe God positively, they were mainly created to show what God is not, rather than to convey anything that truly exists in Him. They claim that when we say God lives, we mean that God is not like an inanimate object; and this reasoning applies to other names as well, a view taught by Rabbi Moses. Others believe that these names refer to God's relationship with creation: so when we say, "God is good," we mean that God is the source of goodness in things; and the same idea applies to other names.

Both of these opinions, however, seem to be untrue for three reasons. First because in neither of them can a reason be assigned why some names more than others are applied to God. For He is assuredly the cause of bodies in the same way as He is the cause of good things; therefore if the words "God is good," signified no more than, "God is the cause of good things," it might in like manner be said that God is a body, inasmuch as He is the cause of bodies. So also to say that He is a body implies that He is not a mere potentiality, as is primary matter. Secondly, because it would follow that all names applied to God would be said of Him by way of being taken in a secondary sense, as healthy is secondarily said of medicine, forasmuch as it signifies only the cause of the health in the animal which primarily is called healthy. Thirdly, because this is against the intention of those who speak of God. For in saying that God lives, they assuredly mean more than to say the He is the cause of our life, or that He differs from inanimate bodies.

Both of these views, however, seem incorrect for three reasons. First, there’s no clear explanation for why some names are used for God more than others. After all, He is certainly the source of physical bodies just like He is the source of good things; therefore, if saying "God is good" simply meant "God is the cause of good things," it could similarly be argued that God is a physical body since He causes physical bodies. Also, to claim He is a physical body suggests that He is not just a potential existence, like primary matter. Secondly, this implies that all names used for God would only indicate His attributes in a secondary sense, much like how "healthy" is used to describe medicine, as it only refers to the cause of health in living beings that are primarily called healthy. Thirdly, this contradicts the intent of those who discuss God. When they say that God lives, they surely mean more than just that He is the cause of our life or that He differs from non-living bodies.

Therefore we must hold a different doctrine—viz. that these names signify the divine substance, and are predicated substantially of God, although they fall short of a full representation of Him. Which is proved thus. For these names express God, so far as our intellects know Him. Now since our intellect knows God from creatures, it knows Him as far as creatures represent Him. Now it is shown above (Q. 4, A. 2) that God prepossesses in Himself all the perfections of creatures, being Himself simply and universally perfect. Hence every creature represents Him, and is like Him so far as it possesses some perfection; yet it represents Him not as something of the same species or genus, but as the excelling principle of whose form the effects fall short, although they derive some kind of likeness thereto, even as the forms of inferior bodies represent the power of the sun. This was explained above (Q. 4, A. 3), in treating of the divine perfection. Therefore the aforesaid names signify the divine substance, but in an imperfect manner, even as creatures represent it imperfectly. So when we say, "God is good," the meaning is not, "God is the cause of goodness," or "God is not evil"; but the meaning is, "Whatever good we attribute to creatures, pre-exists in God," and in a more excellent and higher way. Hence it does not follow that God is good, because He causes goodness; but rather, on the contrary, He causes goodness in things because He is good; according to what Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. i, 32), "Because He is good, we are."

Therefore, we must adopt a different view—namely, that these names signify the divine essence and are fundamentally about God, even though they don’t fully represent Him. This can be demonstrated as follows: these names express God as much as our minds can understand Him. Since our understanding of God comes from His creations, we know Him to the extent that those creations reflect Him. As mentioned earlier (Q. 4, A. 2), God contains within Himself all the perfections of creatures, being in Himself completely and universally perfect. Thus, every creature reflects Him and is similar to Him as far as it possesses some goodness; however, it doesn’t represent Him as something of the same kind or category but as the superior principle whose form the effects fall short of while still having some resemblance to it, just as the forms of lower bodies reflect the power of the sun. This was discussed previously (Q. 4, A. 3) regarding divine perfection. Therefore, the names we use signify the divine essence, but in an imperfect way, just as creatures imperfectly reflect it. So when we say, "God is good," we don’t mean, "God is the source of goodness," or "God is not evil"; rather, we mean, "All the goodness we attribute to creatures exists in God" in a more excellent and elevated way. Thus, it does not mean that God is good simply because He creates goodness; on the contrary, He creates goodness in beings because He is good; as Augustine states (De Doctr. Christ. i, 32), "Because He is good, we are."

Reply Obj. 1: Damascene says that these names do not signify what God is, forasmuch as by none of these names is perfectly expressed what He is; but each one signifies Him in an imperfect manner, even as creatures represent Him imperfectly.

Reply Obj. 1: Damascene says that these names do not represent what God is because none of them perfectly expresses who He is; instead, each name represents Him in an imperfect way, just as creatures imperfectly reflect Him.

Reply Obj. 2: In the significance of names, that from which the name is derived is different sometimes from what it is intended to signify, as for instance, this name "stone" [lapis] is imposed from the fact that it hurts the foot [loedit pedem], but it is not imposed to signify that which hurts the foot, but rather to signify a certain kind of body; otherwise everything that hurts the foot would be a stone [*This refers to the Latin etymology of the word lapis, which has no place in English]. So we must say that these kinds of divine names are imposed from the divine processions; for as according to the diverse processions of their perfections, creatures are the representations of God, although in an imperfect manner; so likewise our intellect knows and names God according to each kind of procession; but nevertheless these names are not imposed to signify the procession themselves, as if when we say "God lives," the sense were, "life proceeds from Him"; but to signify the principle itself of things, in so far as life pre-exists in Him, although it pre-exists in Him in a more eminent way than can be understood or signified.

Reply Obj. 2: When it comes to the meaning of names, sometimes what the name is based on is different from what it is meant to represent. For example, the name "stone" is derived from its tendency to hurt the foot, but it's not meant to signify something that hurts the foot; instead, it refers to a specific type of material. Otherwise, anything that hurts the foot would be considered a stone. Therefore, we must say that these types of divine names are derived from the divine processions. Just as the various manifestations of their perfections lead creatures to represent God, albeit imperfectly, our intellect understands and names God according to each kind of procession. However, these names are not meant to signify the processions themselves. For instance, when we say "God lives," it doesn’t mean "life comes from Him," but rather signifies the essence of things, in that life exists in Him, though in a way that is more profound than we can comprehend or express.

Reply Obj. 3: We cannot know the essence of God in this life, as He really is in Himself; but we know Him accordingly as He is represented in the perfections of creatures; and thus the names imposed by us signify Him in that manner only. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: We can't know the essence of God in this life as He truly is; instead, we understand Him based on how He is reflected in the qualities of creatures. Therefore, the names we use for Him only represent Him in that way.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 3]

Whether Any Name Can Be Applied to God in Its Literal Sense?

Whether Any Name Can Be Literally Used for God?

Objection 1: It seems that no name is applied literally to God. For all names which we apply to God are taken from creatures; as was explained above (A. 1). But the names of creatures are applied to God metaphorically, as when we say, God is a stone, or a lion, or the like. Therefore names are applied to God in a metaphorical sense.

Objection 1: It seems that no name is literally used for God. All the names we use for God are borrowed from creatures, as explained above (A. 1). The names of creatures are used for God metaphorically, like when we say God is a stone or a lion, or something similar. Therefore, names are applied to God in a metaphorical way.

Obj. 2: Further, no name can be applied literally to anything if it should be withheld from it rather than given to it. But all such names as "good," "wise," and the like are more truly withheld from God than given to Him; as appears from Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. ii). Therefore none of these names belong to God in their literal sense.

Obj. 2: Additionally, no name can be applied literally to anything if it is kept away from it rather than assigned to it. However, names like "good," "wise," and similar terms are more accurately kept from God than given to Him, as Dionysius points out (Coel. Hier. ii). Therefore, none of these names apply to God in their literal sense.

Obj. 3: Further, corporeal names are applied to God in a metaphorical sense only; since He is incorporeal. But all such names imply some kind of corporeal condition; for their meaning is bound up with time and composition and like corporeal conditions. Therefore all these names are applied to God in a metaphorical sense.

Obj. 3: Also, physical names are only used for God in a metaphorical sense because He is not physical. However, all those names suggest some sort of physical condition; their meaning is tied to time and composition and similar physical states. So, all these names are metaphorically applied to God.

On the contrary, Ambrose says (De Fide ii), "Some names there are which express evidently the property of the divinity, and some which express the clear truth of the divine majesty, but others there are which are applied to God metaphorically by way of similitude." Therefore not all names are applied to God in a metaphorical sense, but there are some which are said of Him in their literal sense.

On the contrary, Ambrose says (De Fide ii), "There are some names that clearly show the qualities of the divine, and some that clearly express the truth of divine majesty, but there are others that are metaphorically applied to God as a way of comparison." So, not all names are used for God metaphorically; some are used in their literal sense.

I answer that, According to the preceding article, our knowledge of God is derived from the perfections which flow from Him to creatures, which perfections are in God in a more eminent way than in creatures. Now our intellect apprehends them as they are in creatures, and as it apprehends them it signifies them by names. Therefore as to the names applied to God—viz. the perfections which they signify, such as goodness, life and the like, and their mode of signification. As regards what is signified by these names, they belong properly to God, and more properly than they belong to creatures, and are applied primarily to Him. But as regards their mode of signification, they do not properly and strictly apply to God; for their mode of signification applies to creatures.

I answer that, According to the earlier article, our understanding of God comes from the qualities that flow from Him to creatures, which qualities exist in God in a more perfect way than they do in creatures. Our minds grasp these qualities as they appear in creatures, and as we grasp them, we label them with names. Therefore, regarding the names we use for God—specifically, the qualities they represent, like goodness, life, and similar traits—the meanings of these names rightfully belong to God, and even more so than they belong to creatures, and are primarily directed towards Him. However, when it comes to how these names signify their meanings, they do not strictly apply to God; the way they signify is relevant to creatures.

Reply Obj. 1: There are some names which signify these perfections flowing from God to creatures in such a way that the imperfect way in which creatures receive the divine perfection is part of the very signification of the name itself as "stone" signifies a material being, and names of this kind can be applied to God only in a metaphorical sense. Other names, however, express these perfections absolutely, without any such mode of participation being part of their signification as the words "being," "good," "living," and the like, and such names can be literally applied to God.

Reply Obj. 1: Some names indicate these qualities coming from God to creatures in a way that the imperfect way creatures receive divine perfection is part of what the name itself means, just as "stone" signifies a physical object. Names like these can only be applied to God metaphorically. However, other names express these qualities absolutely, without any sense of participation being part of their meaning, such as "being," "good," "living," and similar terms, and these names can be literally applied to God.

Reply Obj. 2: Such names as these, as Dionysius shows, are denied of God for the reason that what the name signifies does not belong to Him in the ordinary sense of its signification, but in a more eminent way. Hence Dionysius says also that God is above all substance and all life.

Reply Obj. 2: Names like these, as Dionysius points out, are not attributed to God because what the name represents doesn't apply to Him in the usual sense, but in a greater way. That's why Dionysius also states that God is beyond all substance and all life.

Reply Obj. 3: These names which are applied to God literally imply corporeal conditions not in the thing signified, but as regards their mode of signification; whereas those which are applied to God metaphorically imply and mean a corporeal condition in the thing signified. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The names used for God literally suggest physical attributes not in what they refer to, but in how they are interpreted; while those used metaphorically imply and denote a physical state in what they refer to.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 4]

Whether Names Applied to God Are Synonymous?

Whether Names Given to God Are Equivalent?

Objection 1: It seems that these names applied to God are synonymous names. For synonymous names are those which mean exactly the same. But these names applied to God mean entirely the same thing in God; for the goodness of God is His essence, and likewise it is His wisdom. Therefore these names are entirely synonymous.

Objection 1: It seems that the names used for God are synonymous. Synonymous names are those that mean exactly the same thing. But the names used for God convey entirely the same meaning in relation to God; the goodness of God is His essence, and the same goes for His wisdom. Therefore, these names are completely synonymous.

Obj. 2: Further, if it be said these names signify one and the same thing in reality, but differ in idea, it can be objected that an idea to which no reality corresponds is a vain notion. Therefore if these ideas are many, and the thing is one, it seems also that all these ideas are vain notions.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, if it is claimed that these names represent the same thing in reality but differ in concept, one could argue that an idea without any real counterpart is just a pointless notion. So, if there are many of these ideas but only one thing, it also seems that all these ideas are pointless notions.

Obj. 3: Further, a thing which is one in reality and in idea, is more one than what is one in reality and many in idea. But God is supremely one. Therefore it seems that He is not one in reality and many in idea; and thus the names applied to God do not signify different ideas; and thus they are synonymous.

Obj. 3: Moreover, something that is unified in both reality and thought is more unified than something that is unified in reality but seen as multiple in thought. But God is supremely unified. Therefore, it appears that He is not unified in reality and seen as multiple in thought; thus, the names used for God do not convey different concepts; they are therefore synonymous.

On the contrary, All synonyms united with each other are redundant, as when we say, "vesture clothing." Therefore if all names applied to God are synonymous, we cannot properly say "good God" or the like, and yet it is written, "O most mighty, great and powerful, the Lord of hosts is Thy name" (Jer. 32:18).

On the contrary, all synonyms that are used together are redundant, like when we say, "clothing vesture." So if all names for God are synonymous, we can't properly say "good God" or something similar, and yet it's written, "O most mighty, great and powerful, the Lord of hosts is Your name" (Jer. 32:18).

I answer that, These names spoken of God are not synonymous. This would be easy to understand, if we said that these names are used to remove, or to express the relation of cause to creatures; for thus it would follow that there are different ideas as regards the diverse things denied of God, or as regards diverse effects connoted. But even according to what was said above (A. 2), that these names signify the divine substance, although in an imperfect manner, it is also clear from what has been said (AA. 1, 2) that they have diverse meanings. For the idea signified by the name is the conception in the intellect of the thing signified by the name. But our intellect, since it knows God from creatures, in order to understand God, forms conceptions proportional to the perfections flowing from God to creatures, which perfections pre-exist in God unitedly and simply, whereas in creatures they are received and divided and multiplied. As therefore, to the different perfections of creatures, there corresponds one simple principle represented by different perfections of creatures in a various and manifold manner, so also to the various and multiplied conceptions of our intellect, there corresponds one altogether simple principle, according to these conceptions, imperfectly understood. Therefore although the names applied to God signify one thing, still because they signify that under many and different aspects, they are not synonymous.

I answer that, the names we use for God are not interchangeable. This becomes clearer when we consider that these names are meant to describe or express the relationship of cause to creatures; thus, it follows that there are different ideas associated with the various things that are denied of God or with the different effects implied. However, as mentioned earlier (A. 2), even though these names refer to the divine essence, albeit imperfectly, it is also evident from the previous discussion (AA. 1, 2) that they carry different meanings. The idea represented by a name is the understanding we have in our minds of the thing that the name stands for. Since our understanding of God comes from observing creatures, we form ideas that relate to the perfections that flow from God to creatures, which are unified and simple in God but received, divided, and multiplied in creatures. Thus, to the various perfections of creatures, there corresponds a single, simple principle depicted through the diverse perfections of those creatures in many ways. Likewise, to the different and multiple ideas in our minds, there corresponds one simple principle, reflected imperfectly according to these ideas. Therefore, while the names we use for God signify one essence, they do so under many different aspects, which means they are not synonymous.

Thus appears the solution of the First Objection, since synonymous terms signify one thing under one aspect; for words which signify different aspects of one thing, do not signify primarily and absolutely one thing; because the term only signifies the thing through the medium of the intellectual conception, as was said above.

Thus, the solution to the First Objection appears, since synonymous terms refer to one thing from one perspective; because words that refer to different aspects of one thing do not primarily and absolutely indicate one thing. The term signifies the thing only through the lens of intellectual understanding, as mentioned earlier.

Reply Obj. 2: The many aspects of these names are not empty and vain, for there corresponds to all of them one simple reality represented by them in a manifold and imperfect manner.

Reply Obj. 2: The various aspects of these names are not meaningless or trivial, as each one corresponds to a single reality that they represent in a diverse and imperfect way.

Reply Obj. 3: The perfect unity of God requires that what are manifold and divided in others should exist in Him simply and unitedly. Thus it comes about that He is one in reality, and yet multiple in idea, because our intellect apprehends Him in a manifold manner, as things represent Him. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The complete unity of God means that what is diverse and separated in other beings exists in Him simply and unitedly. Therefore, He is one in reality, yet multiple in concept, because our understanding perceives Him in various ways, as things reflect Him.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 5]

Whether What Is Said of God and of Creatures Is Univocally Predicated of Them?

Whether what is said about God and creatures is applied to them in the same way?

Objection 1: It seems that the things attributed to God and creatures are univocal. For every equivocal term is reduced to the univocal, as many are reduced to one; for if the name "dog" be said equivocally of the barking dog, and of the dogfish, it must be said of some univocally—viz. of all barking dogs; otherwise we proceed to infinitude. Now there are some univocal agents which agree with their effects in name and definition, as man generates man; and there are some agents which are equivocal, as the sun which causes heat, although the sun is hot only in an equivocal sense. Therefore it seems that the first agent to which all other agents are reduced, is an univocal agent: and thus what is said of God and creatures, is predicated univocally.

Objection 1: It seems that the characteristics attributed to God and creatures are the same. Every ambiguous term gets simplified to a clear one, just as many are reduced to one; for example, if the term "dog" is used ambiguously for both a barking dog and a dogfish, it should refer unambiguously to all barking dogs; otherwise, we would go on indefinitely. Now, there are some clear agents that align with their effects in both name and definition, like humans producing humans; however, there are also some agents that are ambiguous, like the sun, which causes heat even though the sun is only hot in an ambiguous sense. Therefore, it appears that the first agent, to which all other agents are connected, is a clear agent: thus, what is said about God and creatures is asserted clearly.

Obj. 2: Further, there is no similitude among equivocal things. Therefore as creatures have a certain likeness to God, according to the word of Genesis (Gen. 1:26), "Let us make man to our image and likeness," it seems that something can be said of God and creatures univocally.

Obj. 2: Additionally, there is no similarity among ambiguous things. So, since creatures share a certain resemblance to God, based on the verse from Genesis (Gen. 1:26), "Let us make man in our image and likeness," it appears that something can be stated about God and creatures in the same way.

Obj. 3: Further, measure is homogeneous with the thing measured. But God is the first measure of all beings. Therefore God is homogeneous with creatures; and thus a word may be applied univocally to God and to creatures.

Obj. 3: Also, measure is consistent with what is being measured. But God is the ultimate measure of all beings. Therefore, God is consistent with creatures; thus, a word can be used in the same way for both God and creatures.

On the contrary, whatever is predicated of various things under the same name but not in the same sense, is predicated equivocally. But no name belongs to God in the same sense that it belongs to creatures; for instance, wisdom in creatures is a quality, but not in God. Now a different genus changes an essence, since the genus is part of the definition; and the same applies to other things. Therefore whatever is said of God and of creatures is predicated equivocally.

On the contrary, when different things are described using the same name but in different ways, it’s known as equivocation. However, no name applies to God in the same way it applies to creatures; for example, wisdom in creatures is a characteristic, but not in God. A different category alters an essence, since the category is part of the definition; the same goes for other concepts. Therefore, anything said about God and creatures is described equivocally.

Further, God is more distant from creatures than any creatures are from each other. But the distance of some creatures makes any univocal predication of them impossible, as in the case of those things which are not in the same genus. Therefore much less can anything be predicated univocally of God and creatures; and so only equivocal predication can be applied to them.

Further, God is more distant from creatures than any creatures are from one another. However, the distance between some creatures makes it impossible to make a clear, direct statement about them, as seen with those that don’t belong to the same category. Therefore, it is even less possible to make a clear, direct statement about God and creatures; thus, only ambiguous statements can be applied to them.

I answer that, Univocal predication is impossible between God and creatures. The reason of this is that every effect which is not an adequate result of the power of the efficient cause, receives the similitude of the agent not in its full degree, but in a measure that falls short, so that what is divided and multiplied in the effects resides in the agent simply, and in the same manner; as for example the sun by exercise of its one power produces manifold and various forms in all inferior things. In the same way, as said in the preceding article, all perfections existing in creatures divided and multiplied, pre-exist in God unitedly. Thus when any term expressing perfection is applied to a creature, it signifies that perfection distinct in idea from other perfections; as, for instance, by the term "wise" applied to man, we signify some perfection distinct from a man's essence, and distinct from his power and existence, and from all similar things; whereas when we apply to it God, we do not mean to signify anything distinct from His essence, or power, or existence. Thus also this term "wise" applied to man in some degree circumscribes and comprehends the thing signified; whereas this is not the case when it is applied to God; but it leaves the thing signified as incomprehended, and as exceeding the signification of the name. Hence it is evident that this term "wise" is not applied in the same way to God and to man. The same rule applies to other terms. Hence no name is predicated univocally of God and of creatures.

I respond that, univocal predication is not possible between God and creatures. The reason for this is that every effect which is not a direct result of the power of the cause obtains the likeness of the agent not fully, but in a way that falls short. What is divided and multiplied in the effects exists in the agent simply and in the same manner; for example, the sun, through its single power, produces many diverse forms in all lower things. Similarly, as mentioned in the previous article, all perfections that exist in creatures as separate and varied pre-exist in God in a unified way. Therefore, when we use a term that expresses perfection in relation to a creature, it signifies that perfection as distinct in concept from other perfections. For instance, when we say “wise” in reference to a human, we indicate a perfection that is separate from a man's essence, power, existence, and everything alike; whereas when we apply this to God, we do not mean to indicate anything distinct from His essence, power, or existence. Also, the term “wise” when applied to a human somewhat limits and encompasses what it signifies; while this is not true when it comes to God, as it leaves what it signifies as incomprehensible and beyond the meaning of the name. Therefore, it is clear that the term "wise" does not apply in the same way to God and to man. The same principle holds for other terms. Therefore, no name is used univocally for God and for creatures.

Neither, on the other hand, are names applied to God and creatures in a purely equivocal sense, as some have said. Because if that were so, it follows that from creatures nothing could be known or demonstrated about God at all; for the reasoning would always be exposed to the fallacy of equivocation. Such a view is against the philosophers, who proved many things about God, and also against what the Apostle says: "The invisible things of God are clearly seen being understood by the things that are made" (Rom. 1:20). Therefore it must be said that these names are said of God and creatures in an analogous sense, i.e. according to proportion.

Names for God and creatures aren't used in a completely arbitrary way, as some people suggest. If that were the case, we wouldn't be able to know or prove anything about God from creatures, because the reasoning would always fall into confusion. This perspective opposes the philosophers, who have demonstrated many truths about God, and also contradicts what the Apostle says: "The invisible things of God are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made" (Rom. 1:20). Therefore, it should be noted that these names are used for God and creatures in an analogous way, meaning according to proportion.

Now names are thus used in two ways: either according as many things are proportionate to one, thus for example "healthy" predicated of medicine and urine in relation and in proportion to health of a body, of which the former is the sign and the latter the cause: or according as one thing is proportionate to another, thus "healthy" is said of medicine and animal, since medicine is the cause of health in the animal body. And in this way some things are said of God and creatures analogically, and not in a purely equivocal nor in a purely univocal sense. For we can name God only from creatures (A. 1). Thus whatever is said of God and creatures, is said according to the relation of a creature to God as its principle and cause, wherein all perfections of things pre-exist excellently. Now this mode of community of idea is a mean between pure equivocation and simple univocation. For in analogies the idea is not, as it is in univocals, one and the same, yet it is not totally diverse as in equivocals; but a term which is thus used in a multiple sense signifies various proportions to some one thing; thus "healthy" applied to urine signifies the sign of animal health, and applied to medicine signifies the cause of the same health.

Names are used in two main ways: either when many things relate to one, like how "healthy" is used for both medicine and urine in relation to the health of a body, where the former indicates health and the latter is its cause; or when one thing is related to another, as in how "healthy" describes both medicine and an animal, since medicine causes health in the animal body. In this sense, some terms are applied to God and creatures in an analogous way, rather than purely equivocal or purely univocal. We can only name God based on our understanding of creatures (A. 1). Therefore, whatever we say about God and creatures reflects the relationship between a creature and God as its principle and cause, where all the perfections of things exist in a superior form. This way of sharing an idea is a balance between total equivocation and simple univocation. In analogies, the concept isn't, as in univocals, exactly the same, but it isn't completely different as it is in equivocals; instead, a term used in this way signifies different relationships to one underlying concept. For instance, "healthy" when applied to urine indicates the sign of an animal's health, while when applied to medicine, it signifies the cause of that health.

Reply Obj. 1: Although equivocal predications must be reduced to univocal, still in actions, the non-univocal agent must precede the univocal agent. For the non-univocal agent is the universal cause of the whole species, as for instance the sun is the cause of the generation of all men; whereas the univocal agent is not the universal efficient cause of the whole species (otherwise it would be the cause of itself, since it is contained in the species), but is a particular cause of this individual which it places under the species by way of participation. Therefore the universal cause of the whole species is not an univocal agent; and the universal cause comes before the particular cause. But this universal agent, whilst it is not univocal, nevertheless is not altogether equivocal, otherwise it could not produce its own likeness, but rather it is to be called an analogical agent, as all univocal predications are reduced to one first non-univocal analogical predication, which is being.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though ambiguous statements need to be resolved into clear ones, in actions, the non-clear agent must come before the clear agent. The non-clear agent acts as the universal cause of the entire species, just like the sun causes the generation of all humans; however, the clear agent is not the absolute effective cause of the entire species (otherwise, it would cause itself since it's included in the species), but instead, it is a specific cause for an individual, which it places under the species through participation. Thus, the universal cause of the whole species is not a clear agent, and the universal cause comes before the specific cause. Yet, this universal agent, while not clear, isn't completely ambiguous either; otherwise, it wouldn't be able to create its own likeness. It should be considered an analogical agent, since all clear statements can be traced back to one primary non-clear analogical statement, which is being.

Reply Obj. 2: The likeness of the creature to God is imperfect, for it does not represent one and the same generic thing (Q. 4, A. 3).

Reply Obj. 2: The creature's similarity to God is imperfect because it doesn't represent one and the same general thing (Q. 4, A. 3).

Reply Obj. 3: God is not the measure proportioned to things measured; hence it is not necessary that God and creatures should be in the same genus.

Reply Obj. 3: God is not the standard to which things are measured; therefore, it is not required for God and creatures to belong to the same category.

The arguments adduced in the contrary sense prove indeed that these names are not predicated univocally of God and creatures; yet they do not prove that they are predicated equivocally. _______________________

The arguments presented in the opposite direction show that these names are not used in the same way for God and creatures; however, they don't prove that they are used in completely different ways.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 6]

Whether Names Predicated of God Are Predicated Primarily of Creatures?

Whether names used for God primarily apply to creatures?

Objection 1: It seems that names are predicated primarily of creatures rather than of God. For we name anything accordingly as we know it, since "names", as the Philosopher says, "are signs of ideas." But we know creatures before we know God. Therefore the names imposed by us are predicated primarily of creatures rather than of God.

Objection 1: It looks like names are primarily based on creatures rather than on God. We name things based on our understanding of them, since "names," as the Philosopher says, "are signs of ideas." But we understand creatures before we understand God. Therefore, the names we assign are primarily based on creatures rather than on God.

Obj. 2: Further, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. i): "We name God from creatures." But names transferred from creatures to God, are said primarily of creatures rather than of God, as "lion," "stone," and the like. Therefore all names applied to God and creatures are applied primarily to creatures rather than to God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. i): "We refer to God using names derived from creatures." However, names that are transferred from creatures to God are considered to primarily refer to creatures rather than to God, like "lion," "stone," and similar terms. Therefore, all names assigned to God and creatures are applied primarily to creatures instead of to God.

Obj. 3: Further, all names equally applied to God and creatures, are applied to God as the cause of all creatures, as Dionysius says (De Mystica Theol.). But what is applied to anything through its cause, is applied to it secondarily, for "healthy" is primarily predicated of animal rather than of medicine, which is the cause of health. Therefore these names are said primarily of creatures rather than of God.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, all names that can be equally used for God and creatures are used for God as the source of all creatures, as Dionysius states (De Mystica Theol.). However, what is attributed to something through its cause is attributed to it in a secondary manner, because "healthy" primarily refers to an animal rather than to medicine, which is the cause of health. Therefore, these names are primarily associated with creatures rather than with God.

On the contrary, It is written, "I bow my knees to the Father, of our Lord Jesus Christ, of Whom all paternity in heaven and earth is named" (Eph. 3:14,15); and the same applies to the other names applied to God and creatures. Therefore these names are applied primarily to God rather than to creatures.

On the contrary, it is written, "I kneel before the Father, of our Lord Jesus Christ, from whom every family in heaven and on earth is named" (Eph. 3:14,15); and the same goes for the other names used for God and His creations. Therefore, these names primarily refer to God rather than to His creations.

I answer that, In names predicated of many in an analogical sense, all are predicated because they have reference to some one thing; and this one thing must be placed in the definition of them all. And since that expressed by the name is the definition, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. iv), such a name must be applied primarily to that which is put in the definition of such other things, and secondarily to these others according as they approach more or less to that first. Thus, for instance, "healthy" applied to animals comes into the definition of "healthy" applied to medicine, which is called healthy as being the cause of health in the animal; and also into the definition of "healthy" which is applied to urine, which is called healthy in so far as it is the sign of the animal's health. Thus all names applied metaphorically to God, are applied to creatures primarily rather than to God, because when said of God they mean only similitudes to such creatures. For as "smiling" applied to a field means only that the field in the beauty of its flowering is like the beauty of the human smile by proportionate likeness, so the name of "lion" applied to God means only that God manifests strength in His works, as a lion in his. Thus it is clear that applied to God the signification of names can be defined only from what is said of creatures. But to other names not applied to God in a metaphorical sense, the same rule would apply if they were spoken of God as the cause only, as some have supposed. For when it is said, "God is good," it would then only mean "God is the cause of the creature's goodness"; thus the term good applied to God would included in its meaning the creature's goodness. Hence "good" would apply primarily to creatures rather than to God. But as was shown above (A. 2), these names are applied to God not as the cause only, but also essentially. For the words, "God is good," or "wise," signify not only that He is the cause of wisdom or goodness, but that these exist in Him in a more excellent way. Hence as regards what the name signifies, these names are applied primarily to God rather than to creatures, because these perfections flow from God to creatures; but as regards the imposition of the names, they are primarily applied by us to creatures which we know first. Hence they have a mode of signification which belongs to creatures, as said above (A. 3).

I answer that, When it comes to names used in an analogical way for many things, they all refer to one single concept. This single concept should be included in the definition of all of them. Since what the name conveys is its definition, as Aristotle mentions (Metaph. iv), such a name should primarily refer to the entity specified in the definitions of other things and secondarily to those other entities, depending on how closely they relate to the first. For example, the term "healthy" when applied to animals is included in the definition of "healthy" as it relates to medicine, which is deemed healthy because it causes health in animals; it is also included in the definition of "healthy" when referring to urine, which is considered healthy as it indicates the health of the animal. Thus, all names that are metaphorically applied to God are primarily applied to creatures rather than to God, because when referring to God, they only convey similarities to those creatures. Just as "smiling" when applied to a field suggests that the field's beauty during blooming resembles a human smile, saying "lion" in relation to God only implies that God displays strength in His actions, like a lion does. Therefore, it’s clear that when applied to God, the meaning of these names can only be defined based on what is said about creatures. The same principle would apply to other names not metaphorically linked to God if they were only seen as referring to Him as the cause, as some believe. When it’s stated, "God is good," it might only imply "God is the source of creatures' goodness"; in that case, the term good would suggest a stronger connection to creatures than to God. However, as previously shown (A. 2), these names are applied to God not just as the source but also inherently. The phrases "God is good" or "wise" signify that He is not only the source of wisdom or goodness but that these qualities exist in Him in a more profound way. Therefore, in terms of what the name conveys, these names are primarily attributed to God rather than to creatures, because these qualities emanate from God to creatures; but, with respect to how the names were established, we primarily apply them to creatures we recognize first. This gives them a mode of significance that relates to creatures, as mentioned earlier (A. 3).

Reply Obj. 1: This objection refers to the imposition of the name.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection is about the use of the name.

Reply Obj. 2: The same rule does not apply to metaphorical and to other names, as said above.

Reply Obj. 2: The same rule doesn't apply to metaphorical names and other types of names, as mentioned earlier.

Reply Obj. 3: This objection would be valid if these names were applied to God only as cause, and not also essentially, for instance as "healthy" is applied to medicine. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: This objection would be valid if these names were used to describe God only as a cause, and not also in an essential way, for example, like "healthy" is used to describe medicine.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 7]

Whether Names Which Imply Relation to Creatures Are Predicated of
God Temporally?

Whether names that imply a connection to creatures can be attributed to God in a temporary sense?

Objection 1: It seems that names which imply relation to creatures are not predicated of God temporally. For all such names signify the divine substance, as is universally held. Hence also Ambrose says (De Fide i) that this name "Lord" is the name of power, which is the divine substance; and "Creator" signifies the action of God, which is His essence. Now the divine substance is not temporal, but eternal. Therefore these names are not applied to God temporally, but eternally.

Objection 1: It appears that names suggesting a connection to creatures are not used to describe God in a temporal sense. All these names indicate the divine nature, which is commonly accepted. Additionally, Ambrose states (De Fide i) that the name "Lord" represents power, which embodies the divine nature; and "Creator" reflects God's action, which is part of His essence. The divine nature is not temporal but eternal. Thus, these names are not attributed to God in a temporal way, but rather in an eternal sense.

Obj. 2: Further, that to which something applies temporally can be described as made; for what is white temporally is made white. But to make does not apply to God. Therefore nothing can be predicated of God temporally.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, that which is applied in time can be described as made; for what is white in time is made white. However, to make does not apply to God. Therefore, nothing can be said about God in a temporal sense.

Obj. 3: Further, if any names are applied to God temporally as implying relation to creatures, the same rule holds good of all things that imply relation to creatures. But some names are spoken of God implying relation of God to creatures from eternity; for from eternity He knew and loved the creature, according to the word: "I have loved thee with an everlasting love" (Jer. 31:3). Therefore also other names implying relation to creatures, as "Lord" and "Creator," are applied to God from eternity.

Obj. 3: Moreover, if any names are used for God in a way that relates to created beings, the same principle applies to all things that indicate a relationship to creations. However, some names are ascribed to God that suggest His relationship to creatures from eternity; because, from eternity, He has known and loved creation, as stated in the scripture: "I have loved you with an everlasting love" (Jer. 31:3). Thus, other names that indicate a relationship to creatures, like "Lord" and "Creator," are also attributed to God from eternity.

Obj. 4: Further, names of this kind signify relation. Therefore that relation must be something in God, or in the creature only. But it cannot be that it is something in the creature only, for in that case God would be called "Lord" from the opposite relation which is in creatures; and nothing is named from its opposite. Therefore the relation must be something in God also. But nothing temporal can be in God, for He is above time. Therefore these names are not applied to God temporally.

Obj. 4: Additionally, names like this indicate a relationship. Therefore, that relationship must exist either in God or only in the creature. However, it can't be solely in the creature, because in that case, God would be called "Lord" based on the opposite relationship found in creatures, and nothing is named by its opposite. Therefore, the relationship must also exist in God. But nothing temporal can exist in God since He is beyond time. Thus, these names are not applied to God in a temporal sense.

Obj. 5: Further, a thing is called relative from relation; for instance lord from lordship, as white from whiteness. Therefore if the relation of lordship is not really in God, but only in idea, it follows that God is not really Lord, which is plainly false.

Obj. 5: Also, something is called relative based on its relation; for example, "lord" comes from "lordship," just as "white" comes from "whiteness." Therefore, if the relation of lordship doesn't actually exist in God, but only in concept, it means that God isn't truly a Lord, which is clearly not true.

Obj. 6: Further, in relative things which are not simultaneous in nature, one can exist without the other; as a thing knowable can exist without the knowledge of it, as the Philosopher says (Praedic. v). But relative things which are said of God and creatures are not simultaneous in nature. Therefore a relation can be predicated of God to the creature even without the existence of the creature; and thus these names "Lord" and "Creator" are predicated of God from eternity, and not temporally.

Obj. 6: Moreover, in relative concepts that aren't naturally simultaneous, one can exist without the other; for instance, something that can be known can exist without being known, as the Philosopher points out (Praedic. v). However, the relative concepts that refer to God and creatures are not simultaneous by nature. So, a relationship can be attributed to God in relation to the creature even if the creature doesn't exist; therefore, the terms "Lord" and "Creator" are attributed to God from eternity, not just in a temporal sense.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. v) that this relative appellation "Lord" is applied to God temporally.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. v) that this relative title "Lord" is used for God in a temporal sense.

I answer that, The names which import relation to creatures are applied to God temporally, and not from eternity.

I answer that, The names that relate to creatures are used to refer to God in time, and not from eternity.

To see this we must learn that some have said that relation is not a reality, but only an idea. But this is plainly seen to be false from the very fact that things themselves have a mutual natural order and habitude. Nevertheless it is necessary to know that since relation has two extremes, it happens in three ways that a relation is real or logical. Sometimes from both extremes it is an idea only, as when mutual order or habitude can only go between things in the apprehension of reason; as when we say a thing "the same as itself." For reason apprehending one thing twice regards it as two; thus it apprehends a certain habitude of a thing to itself. And the same applies to relations between being and non-being formed by reason, apprehending non-being as an extreme. The same is true of relations that follow upon an act of reason, as genus and species, and the like.

To understand this, we need to recognize that some people argue that relation isn’t a real thing, but just a concept. However, this is obviously untrue because things themselves have a natural order and connection to each other. Still, it’s important to know that since relation involves two extremes, there are three ways that a relation can be real or logical. Sometimes, from both extremes, it’s just an idea, like when we say a thing is "the same as itself." In this case, reason understands one thing as if it were two, which allows it to recognize a certain relationship of a thing to itself. The same applies to the relations between being and non-being that are created by reason, viewing non-being as one of the extremes. This also holds true for relations that arise from a reasoning process, such as genus and species, and similar concepts.

Now there are other relations which are realities as regards both extremes, as when for instance a habitude exists between two things according to some reality that belongs to both; as is clear of all relations, consequent upon quantity; as great and small, double and half, and the like; for quantity exists in both extremes: and the same applies to relations consequent upon action and passion, as motive power and the movable thing, father and son, and the like.

Now there are other relationships that are real regarding both extremes, like when there is a habit between two things based on some reality that applies to both. This is clear in all relationships based on quantity, such as big and small, double and half, and so on; because quantity exists in both extremes. The same goes for relationships based on action and reaction, like the relationship between a driving force and the object in motion, or between a parent and child, and similar examples.

Again, sometimes a relation in one extreme may be a reality, while in the other extreme it is an idea only; and this happens whenever two extremes are not of one order; as sense and science refer respectively to sensible things and to intellectual things; which, inasmuch as they are realities existing in nature, are outside the order of sensible and intellectual existence. Therefore in science and in sense a real relation exists, because they are ordered either to the knowledge or to the sensible perception of things; whereas the things looked at in themselves are outside this order, and hence in them there is no real relation to science and sense, but only in idea, inasmuch as the intellect apprehends them as terms of the relations of science and sense. Hence the Philosopher says (Metaph. v) that they are called relative, not forasmuch as they are related to other things, but as others are related to them. Likewise for instance, "on the right" is not applied to a column, unless it stands as regards an animal on the right side; which relation is not really in the column, but in the animal.

Again, sometimes a relationship at one end of the spectrum can be real, while at the other end, it's just an idea; this happens when the two extremes don't belong to the same category. For example, sense and science refer to tangible things and intellectual concepts, respectively. Because both of these are realities that exist in nature, they fall outside the realm of our sensory and intellectual experiences. Therefore, there is a genuine relationship in science and sense since they are connected either to understanding or to perceiving things. However, the things themselves exist outside this relationship, so they don’t have a real connection to science and sense, only in a conceptual way, as our minds comprehend them as elements of the relationships of science and sense. This is why the Philosopher says (Metaph. v) that they are considered relative—not because they relate to other things, but because other things relate to them. Similarly, "on the right" isn't applied to a column unless it stands relative to an animal on its right side; that relationship isn't actually in the column but in the animal.

Since therefore God is outside the whole order of creation, and all creatures are ordered to Him, and not conversely, it is manifest that creatures are really related to God Himself; whereas in God there is no real relation to creatures, but a relation only in idea, inasmuch as creatures are referred to Him. Thus there is nothing to prevent these names which import relation to the creature from being predicated of God temporally, not by reason of any change in Him, but by reason of the change of the creature; as a column is on the right of an animal, without change in itself, but by change in the animal.

Since God is beyond the entire order of creation, and all creatures are directed toward Him and not the other way around, it’s clear that creatures have a genuine relationship with God Himself. In contrast, God has no real connection to creatures; any relationship exists only as an idea because creatures are directed toward Him. Therefore, there’s nothing stopping us from attributing these names that suggest a relationship to creatures to God in a temporal sense, not because He changes, but due to the changes in the creatures; just like a column is to the right of an animal, without any change in itself, but because of the change in the animal.

Reply Obj. 1: Some relative names are imposed to signify the relative habitudes themselves, as "master" and "servant," "father," and "son," and the like, and these relatives are called predicamental [secundum esse]. But others are imposed to signify the things from which ensue certain habitudes, as the mover and the thing moved, the head and the thing that has a head, and the like: and these relatives are called transcendental [secundum dici]. Thus, there is the same two-fold difference in divine names. For some signify the habitude itself to the creature, as "Lord," and these do not signify the divine substance directly, but indirectly, in so far as they presuppose the divine substance; as dominion presupposes power, which is the divine substance. Others signify the divine essence directly, and consequently the corresponding habitudes, as "Saviour," "Creator," and suchlike; and these signify the action of God, which is His essence. Yet both names are said of God temporarily so far as they imply a habitude either principally or consequently, but not as signifying the essence, either directly or indirectly.

Reply Obj. 1: Some relative terms are used to indicate the relationships themselves, like "master" and "servant," "father" and "son," and similar terms, and these relatives are called predicamental [secundum esse]. Others are used to refer to the entities that produce certain relationships, like the mover and the thing being moved, the head and the thing that has a head, and so on; these relatives are called transcendental [secundum dici]. Similarly, there is a two-fold distinction in divine names. Some denote the relationship itself to the creature, such as "Lord," and these do not directly indicate the divine essence but do so indirectly since they imply the divine essence; for example, dominion implies power, which is the divine essence. Others directly indicate the divine essence and, accordingly, the related relationships, like "Saviour," "Creator," and similar terms; these refer to God's action, which is His essence. Both types of names are attributed to God conditionally in terms of their implication of a relationship, either primarily or as a consequence, but not in a way that signifies the essence, either directly or indirectly.

Reply Obj. 2: As relations applied to God temporally are only in God in our idea, so, "to become" or "to be made" are applied to God only in idea, with no change in Him, as for instance when we say, "Lord, Thou art become [Douay: 'hast been'] our refuge" (Ps. 89:1).

Reply Obj. 2: Just as our understanding of God's relationships in time exist only in our minds, the phrases "to become" or "to be made" apply to God only conceptually, without any actual change in Him. For example, when we say, "Lord, You have become our refuge" (Ps. 89:1).

Reply Obj. 3: The operation of the intellect and the will is in the operator, therefore names signifying relations following upon the action of the intellect or will, are applied to God from eternity; whereas those following upon the actions proceeding according to our mode of thinking to external effects are applied to God temporally, as "Saviour," "Creator," and the like.

Reply Obj. 3: The functioning of the intellect and the will resides in the one acting, so names that indicate relationships resulting from the actions of the intellect or will are attributed to God eternally; whereas those that arise from actions based on our way of thinking leading to external effects are attributed to God temporally, like "Savior," "Creator," and similar titles.

Reply Obj. 4: Relations signified by these names which are applied to God temporally, are in God only in idea; but the opposite relations in creatures are real. Nor is it incongruous that God should be denominated from relations really existing in the thing, yet so that the opposite relations in God should also be understood by us at the same time; in the sense that God is spoken of relatively to the creature, inasmuch as the creature is related to Him: thus the Philosopher says (Metaph. v) that the object is said to be knowable relatively because knowledge relates to it.

Reply Obj. 4: The relationships represented by these names that refer to God in a temporal sense exist only in concept within God; however, the corresponding relationships in creatures are real. It’s not strange for God to be described based on relationships that genuinely exist in things, while we also understand the opposing relationships in God simultaneously. This means that God is talked about in relation to the creature, as the creature is related to Him. Thus, the Philosopher states (Metaph. v) that an object is considered knowable in a relative sense because knowledge pertains to it.

Reply Obj. 5: Since God is related to the creature for the reason that the creature is related to Him: and since the relation of subjection is real in the creature, it follows that God is Lord not in idea only, but in reality; for He is called Lord according to the manner in which the creature is subject to Him.

Reply Obj. 5: Since God is connected to the creature because the creature is connected to Him; and since the relationship of subjection is real in the creature, it follows that God is Lord not just in theory, but in reality; for He is called Lord based on how the creature is subject to Him.

Reply Obj. 6: To know whether relations are simultaneous by nature or otherwise, it is not necessary [to consider the order] of things to which they belong but the meaning of the relations themselves. For if one in its idea includes another, and vice versa, then they are simultaneous by nature: as double and half, father and son, and the like. But if one in its idea includes another, and not vice versa, they are not simultaneous by nature. This applies to science and its object; for the object knowable is considered as a potentiality, and the science as a habit, or as an act. Hence the knowable object in its mode of signification exists before science, but if the same object is considered in act, then it is simultaneous with science in act; for the object known is nothing as such unless it is known. Thus, though God is prior to the creature, still because the signification of Lord includes the idea of a servant and vice versa, these two relative terms, "Lord" and "servant," are simultaneous by nature. Hence, God was not "Lord" until He had a creature subject to Himself. _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: To determine whether relationships are inherently simultaneous or not, we should focus on the nature of the relationships themselves rather than the order of the things they relate to. If one concept inherently includes another, and the reverse is also true, then they are considered simultaneous by nature: like double and half, or father and son. However, if one concept includes another but not vice versa, then they are not simultaneous by nature. This is true for science and its subject; the subject of knowledge is seen as a potentiality, while science is viewed as a habit or an action. Therefore, the knowable subject exists in its significance before science, but when the same subject is considered in action, it occurs simultaneously with science in action, because a known object holds no value unless it is known. Thus, although God is prior to creation, since the concept of "Lord" includes the idea of a "servant" and vice versa, these two terms "Lord" and "servant" are inherently simultaneous. Therefore, God was not "Lord" until He had a creature that was subject to Him.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 8]

Whether This Name "God" Is a Name of the Nature?

Whether the name "God" refers to the nature?

Objection 1: It seems that this name, "God," is not a name of the nature. For Damascene says (De Fide Orth. 1) that "God (Theos) is so called from theein which means to take care of, and to cherish all things; or from aithein that is, to burn, for our God is a fire consuming all malice; or from theasthai, which means to consider all things." But all these names belong to operation. Therefore this name "God" signifies His operation and not His nature.

Objection 1: It seems that the name "God" doesn’t refer to His nature. Damascene says (De Fide Orth. 1) that "God (Theos) is called such because of theein, which means to take care of and cherish all things; or because of aithein, meaning to burn, since our God is a fire that consumes all evil; or because of theasthai, which means to consider all things." But all these terms relate to action. Therefore, the name "God" signifies His actions, not His nature.

Obj. 2: Further, a thing is named by us as we know it. But the divine nature is unknown to us. Therefore this name "God" does not signify the divine nature.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, we name things based on what we understand. However, the divine nature is beyond our understanding. Therefore, the name "God" does not truly signify the divine nature.

On the contrary, Ambrose says (De Fide i) that "God" is a name of the nature.

On the contrary, Ambrose says (De Fide i) that "God" refers to the nature.

I answer that, Whence a name is imposed, and what the name signifies are not always the same thing. For as we know substance from its properties and operations, so we name substance sometimes for its operation, or its property; e.g. we name the substance of a stone from its act, as for instance that it hurts the foot [loedit pedem]; but still this name is not meant to signify the particular action, but the stone's substance. The things, on the other hand, known to us in themselves, such as heat, cold, whiteness and the like, are not named from other things. Hence as regards such things the meaning of the name and its source are the same.

I answer that, the reason a name is given and what that name means are not always the same. Just as we understand a substance through its properties and actions, we sometimes name a substance based on its action or property. For example, we refer to the substance of a stone by its effect, like how it can hurt a foot; however, this name isn't meant to indicate the specific action, but rather the substance of the stone itself. On the other hand, things that we know for what they are—like heat, cold, whiteness, and so forth—aren't named based on other things. Therefore, for such things, the meaning of the name and its origin are the same.

Because therefore God is not known to us in His nature, but is made known to us from His operations or effects, we name Him from these, as said in A. 1; hence this name "God" is a name of operation so far as relates to the source of its meaning. For this name is imposed from His universal providence over all things; since all who speak of God intend to name God as exercising providence over all; hence Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ii), "The Deity watches over all with perfect providence and goodness." But taken from this operation, this name "God" is imposed to signify the divine nature.

Since we don't know God in His essence, but only recognize Him through His actions or effects, we refer to Him based on these. As mentioned in A. 1, the name "God" relates to His operations, reflecting the source of its meaning. This name comes from His universal care for everything; when people talk about God, they mean the one who provides for all. Dionysius states (Div. Nom. ii), "The Deity oversees everything with perfect care and goodness." Derived from this action, the name "God" is also used to represent the divine essence.

Reply Obj. 1: All that Damascene says refers to providence; which is the source of the signification of the name "God."

Reply Obj. 1: Everything that Damascene mentions is about providence, which is the source of the meaning of the name "God."

Reply Obj. 2: We can name a thing according to the knowledge we have of its nature from its properties and effects. Hence because we can know what stone is in itself from its property, this name "stone" signifies the nature of the stone itself; for it signifies the definition of stone, by which we know what it is, for the idea which the name signifies is the definition, as is said in Metaph. iv. Now from the divine effects we cannot know the divine nature in itself, so as to know what it is; but only by way of eminence, and by way of causality, and of negation as stated above (Q. 12, A. 12). Thus the name "God" signifies the divine nature, for this name was imposed to signify something existing above all things, the principle of all things and removed from all things; for those who name God intend to signify all this. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: We can name something based on our understanding of its nature through its properties and effects. Therefore, because we can know what a stone is by its characteristics, the name "stone" represents the essence of the stone itself; it signifies the definition of a stone, which allows us to understand what it is, since the idea that the name conveys is the definition, as mentioned in Metaph. iv. However, from the divine effects, we cannot fully know the divine nature itself to understand what it is; we can only grasp it in terms of greatness, causality, and negation as previously stated (Q. 12, A. 12). Thus, the name "God" signifies the divine nature, as this name was chosen to denote something that exists above all things, the source of all things, and separate from all things; those who refer to God aim to convey all of this.

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 9]

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 9]

Whether This Name "God" Is Communicable?

Whether This Name "God" Is Communicable?

Objection 1: It seems that this name "God" is communicable. For whosoever shares in the thing signified by a name shares in the name itself. But this name "God" signifies the divine nature, which is communicable to others, according to the words, "He hath given us great [Vulg.: 'most great'] and precious promises, that by these we [Vulg.: 'ye'] may be made partakers of the divine nature" (2 Pet. 1:4). Therefore this name "God" can be communicated to others.

Objection 1: It looks like the name "God" can be communicated. Because anyone who participates in what a name signifies also participates in the name itself. But this name "God" refers to the divine nature, which can be shared with others, as mentioned in the words, "He has given us great and precious promises, so that through these we may become partakers of the divine nature" (2 Pet. 1:4). Therefore, the name "God" can be shared with others.

Obj. 2: Further, only proper names are not communicable. Now this name "God" is not a proper, but an appellative noun; which appears from the fact that it has a plural, according to the text, "I have said, You are gods" (Ps. 81:6). Therefore this name "God" is communicable.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, only proper names cannot be communicated. The name "God" is not a proper noun, but a common noun; this is evident from the fact that it has a plural, as stated in the text, "I have said, You are gods" (Ps. 81:6). Therefore, the name "God" can be communicated.

Obj. 3: Further, this name "God" comes from operation, as explained.
But other names given to God from His operations or effects are
communicable; as "good," "wise," and the like. Therefore this name
"God" is communicable.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the name "God" is derived from His actions, as explained.
Other names given to God based on His actions or effects are
communicable, such as "good," "wise," and similar terms. Therefore, this name
"God" is also communicable.

On the contrary, It is written: "They gave the incommunicable name to wood and stones" (Wis. 14:21), in reference to the divine name. Therefore this name "God" is incommunicable.

On the contrary, It is written: "They gave the incommunicable name to wood and stones" (Wis. 14:21), in reference to the divine name. Therefore this name "God" is incommunicable.

I answer that, A name is communicable in two ways: properly, and by similitude. It is properly communicable in the sense that its whole signification can be given to many; by similitude it is communicable according to some part of the signification of the name. For instance this name "lion" is properly communicable to all things of the same nature as "lion"; by similitude it is communicable to those who participate in the nature of a lion, as for instance by courage, or strength, and those who thus participate are called lions metaphorically. To know, however, what names are properly communicable, we must consider that every form existing in the singular subject, by which it is individualized, is common to many either in reality, or in idea; as human nature is common to many in reality, and in idea; whereas the nature of the sun is not common to many in reality, but only in idea; for the nature of the sun can be understood as existing in many subjects; and the reason is because the mind understands the nature of every species by abstraction from the singular. Hence to be in one singular subject or in many is outside the idea of the nature of the species. So, given the idea of a species, it can be understood as existing in many. But the singular, from the fact that it is singular, is divided off from all others. Hence every name imposed to signify any singular thing is incommunicable both in reality and idea; for the plurality of this individual thing cannot be; nor can it be conceived in idea. Hence no name signifying any individual thing is properly communicable to many, but only by way of similitude; as for instance a person can be called "Achilles" metaphorically, forasmuch as he may possess something of the properties of Achilles, such as strength. On the other hand, forms which are individualized not by any suppositum, but by and of themselves, as being subsisting forms, if understood as they are in themselves, could not be communicable either in reality or in idea; but only perhaps by way of similitude, as was said of individuals. Forasmuch as we are unable to understand simple self-subsisting forms as they really are, we understand them as compound things having forms in matter; therefore, as was said in the first article, we give them concrete names signifying a nature existing in some suppositum. Hence, so far as concerns images, the same rules apply to names we impose to signify the nature of compound things as to names given to us to signify simple subsisting natures.

I respond that, A name can be shared in two ways: accurately and by similarity. It is accurately shareable in the sense that its complete meaning can be applied to many; by similarity, it's shareable based on part of the name's meaning. For example, the name "lion" can be accurately applied to all things of the same nature as a "lion"; by similarity, it can be applied to those who share qualities of a lion, such as courage or strength, and those who share these qualities are metaphorically called lions. To determine which names can be accurately shared, we need to consider that every form that exists in a single subject, making it unique, is shared by many either in reality or in concept; for instance, human nature is shared by many in reality and in concept, while the nature of the sun is not shared by many in reality, but only in concept; because the nature of the sun can be understood as existing in multiple subjects. This is because the mind comprehends the nature of every species by abstracting from the singular. Thus, being in one singular subject or in many is outside the concept of the species' nature. Given the idea of a species, it can be understood as existing in many. However, a singular thing, by being singular, is set apart from others. Therefore, every name assigned to indicate any singular thing is not shareable in reality or in concept; because this individual thing cannot have plurality; nor can it be conceptualized. Thus, no name indicating an individual thing can be accurately shared with many, but only by way of similarity; for example, a person can be metaphorically called "Achilles" if they possess some of Achilles's characteristics, like strength. On the other hand, forms that are individualized not by any suppositum, but in and of themselves, as self-sustaining forms, if understood as they really are, could not be shared either in reality or in concept; but only perhaps by way of similarity, just like individuals. Since we cannot fully understand simple self-sustaining forms as they truly are, we perceive them as composite things having forms in matter; therefore, as mentioned in the first article, we give them concrete names indicating a nature that exists in some suppositum. Consequently, regarding the images, the same rules apply to names we assign to signify the nature of composite things as those assigned to indicate simple self-sustaining natures.

Since, then, this name "God" is given to signify the divine nature as stated above (A. 8), and since the divine nature cannot be multiplied as shown above (Q. 11, A. 3), it follows that this name "God" is incommunicable in reality, but communicable in opinion; just in the same way as this name "sun" would be communicable according to the opinion of those who say there are many suns. Therefore, it is written: "You served them who by nature are not gods," (Gal. 4:8), and a gloss adds, "Gods not in nature, but in human opinion." Nevertheless this name "God" is communicable, not in its whole signification, but in some part of it by way of similitude; so that those are called gods who share in divinity by likeness, according to the text, "I have said, You are gods" (Ps. 81:6).

Since the name "God" is used to refer to the divine nature as mentioned above (A. 8), and since the divine nature cannot be divided as previously explained (Q. 11, A. 3), it follows that the name "God" is incommunicable in its true essence, but can be communicated in people's opinions; similar to how the name "sun" could be used in the opinion of those who believe there are many suns. Therefore, it is written: "You served them who by nature are not gods," (Gal. 4:8), and a commentary adds, "Gods not in nature, but in human opinion." However, the name "God" can be communicated, not in its entire meaning, but in a part of it by way of similarity; so those are called gods who partake in divinity through likeness, according to the text, "I have said, You are gods" (Ps. 81:6).

But if any name were given to signify God not as to His nature but as to His suppositum, accordingly as He is considered as "this something," that name would be absolutely incommunicable; as, for instance, perhaps the Tetragrammaton among the Hebrew; and this is like giving a name to the sun as signifying this individual thing.

But if we were to give any name to indicate God not in terms of His nature but in terms of His suppositum, as He is seen as "this specific entity," that name would be completely incommunicable; for example, maybe the Tetragrammaton among the Hebrew. This is similar to naming the sun to indicate this individual thing.

Reply Obj. 1: The divine nature is only communicable according to the participation of some similitude.

Reply Obj. 1: The divine nature can only be shared through some form of similarity.

Reply Obj. 2: This name "God" is an appellative name, and not a proper name, for it signifies the divine nature in the possessor; although God Himself in reality is neither universal nor particular. For names do not follow upon the mode of being in things, but upon the mode of being as it is in our mind. And yet it is incommunicable according to the truth of the thing, as was said above concerning the name "sun."

Reply Obj. 2: The name "God" is a general term, not a specific name, as it indicates the divine nature of the person who possesses it; however, God Himself is neither universal nor particular in reality. Names do not reflect the actual state of being in things, but rather how we perceive being in our minds. Yet, it cannot be truly shared or communicated as it genuinely is, just like what was mentioned earlier about the name "sun."

Reply Obj. 3: These names "good," "wise," and the like, are imposed from the perfections proceeding from God to creatures; but they do not signify the divine nature, but rather signify the perfections themselves absolutely; and therefore they are in truth communicable to many. But this name "God" is given to God from His own proper operation, which we experience continually, to signify the divine nature. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The terms "good," "wise," and similar names are assigned based on the qualities that come from God to creatures; they don't indicate the divine nature itself, but rather denote the qualities themselves in an absolute sense, and so they can truly be shared among many. However, the name "God" is designated to God based on His own unique actions, which we constantly observe, to represent the divine nature.

TENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 10]

TENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 10]

Whether This Name "God" Is Applied to God Univocally by Nature, by Participation, and According to Opinion?

Whether the name "God" is used for God in the same way by nature, by participation, and according to opinion?

Objection 1: It seems that this name "God" is applied to God univocally by nature, by participation, and according to opinion. For where a diverse signification exists, there is no contradiction of affirmation and negation; for equivocation prevents contradiction. But a Catholic who says: "An idol is not God," contradicts a pagan who says: "An idol is God." Therefore "God" in both senses is spoken of univocally.

Objection 1: It seems that the name "God" is used univocally, both inherently and through participation, and as a matter of perspective. Where there is different meaning, there can't be a contradiction between affirmation and denial; because equivocation prevents contradiction. But a Catholic who says, "An idol is not God," contradicts a pagan who says, "An idol is God." Therefore, "God" is used in the same way in both instances.

Obj. 2: Further, as an idol is God in opinion, and not in truth, so the enjoyment of carnal pleasures is called happiness in opinion, and not in truth. But this name "beatitude" is applied univocally to this supposed happiness, and also to true happiness. Therefore also this name "God" is applied univocally to the true God, and to God also in opinion.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, just as an idol is considered God in people's views, and not in reality, the enjoyment of physical pleasures is referred to as happiness in opinion, and not in reality. However, this term "beatitude" is used in the same way for this supposed happiness as it is for true happiness. Therefore, the term "God" is also used consistently for the true God and for the God that exists only in opinion.

Obj. 3: Further, names are called univocal because they contain one idea. Now when a Catholic says: "There is one God," he understands by the name God an omnipotent being, and one venerated above all; while the heathen understands the same when he says: "An idol is God." Therefore this name "God" is applied univocally to both.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, names are considered univocal because they express a single idea. When a Catholic says, "There is one God," he means by the term God an all-powerful being who is revered above all; meanwhile, a pagan means the same when he says, "An idol is God." Therefore, the term "God" is used univocally for both.

On the contrary, The idea in the intellect is the likeness of what is in the thing as is said in Peri Herm. i. But the word "animal" applied to a true animal, and to a picture of one, is equivocal. Therefore this name "God" applied to the true God and to God in opinion is applied equivocally.

On the contrary, The concept in the mind is similar to what exists in reality, as mentioned in Peri Herm. i. However, the term "animal" refers to both a real animal and a picture of one, which creates ambiguity. Thus, the name "God" used for the true God and for God as conceived in people's opinions is also used ambiguously.

Further, No one can signify what he does not know. But the heathen does not know the divine nature. So when he says an idol is God, he does not signify the true Deity. On the other hand, a Catholic signifies the true Deity when he says that there is one God. Therefore this name "God" is not applied univocally, but equivocally to the true God, and to God according to opinion.

Furthermore, no one can represent what they don't understand. But the pagan doesn't understand the divine nature. So when he claims that an idol is God, he doesn't represent the true Deity. In contrast, a Catholic represents the true Deity when stating that there is one God. Therefore, the term "God" is not used in the same way; it's used ambiguously for the true God and for God as per people's opinion.

I answer that, This name "God" in the three aforesaid significations is taken neither univocally nor equivocally, but analogically. This is apparent from this reason: Univocal terms mean absolutely the same thing, but equivocal terms absolutely different; whereas in analogical terms a word taken in one signification must be placed in the definition of the same word taken in other senses; as, for instance, "being" which is applied to "substance" is placed in the definition of being as applied to "accident"; and "healthy" applied to animal is placed in the definition of healthy as applied to urine and medicine. For urine is the sign of health in the animal, and medicine is the cause of health.

I answer that, the name "God" in the three mentioned meanings is not used in the same way (univocally) or completely differently (equivocally), but in an analogical sense. This is clear for this reason: Univocal terms mean exactly the same thing, while equivocal terms mean completely different things; however, in analogical terms, a word used in one meaning must be included in the definition of that same word used in other meanings. For example, the term "being" when applied to "substance" is included in the definition of being when applied to "accident"; and "healthy" when used for an animal is included in the definition of healthy when applied to urine and medicine. This is because urine indicates the health of the animal, and medicine is what causes health.

The same applies to the question at issue. For this name "God," as signifying the true God, includes the idea of God when it is used to denote God in opinion, or participation. For when we name anyone god by participation, we understand by the name of god some likeness of the true God. Likewise, when we call an idol god, by this name god we understand and signify something which men think is God; thus it is manifest that the name has different meanings, but that one of them is comprised in the other significations. Hence it is manifestly said analogically.

The same goes for the question at hand. The name "God," when referring to the true God, carries the idea of God whether it's used in opinion or association. When we call someone a god because of their qualities, we’re understanding the term to mean a resemblance to the true God. Similarly, when we refer to an idol as a god, by using that name, we indicate something that people believe is God; it’s clear that the name has different meanings, but one is included within the others. Therefore, it’s clearly used analogically.

Reply Obj. 1: The multiplication of names does not depend on the predication of the name, but on the signification: for this name "man," of whomsoever it is predicated, whether truly or falsely, is predicated in one sense. But it would be multiplied if by the name "man" we meant to signify different things; for instance, if one meant to signify by this name "man" what man really is, and another meant to signify by the same name a stone, or something else. Hence it is evident that a Catholic saying that an idol is not God contradicts the pagan asserting that it is God; because each of them uses this name "God" to signify the true God. For when the pagan says an idol is God, he does not use this name as meaning God in opinion, for he would then speak the truth, as also Catholics sometimes use the name in that sense, as in the Psalm, "All the gods of the Gentiles are demons" (Ps. 95:5).

Reply Obj. 1: The variety of names doesn't rely on how the name is used, but on what it signifies. For the name "man," regardless of who it's attributed to, is understood in the same way. However, it would become more complex if we used the name "man" to indicate different things; for example, if one person used "man" to refer to the essence of humanity, while another used the same name to refer to a stone or something entirely different. Therefore, it's clear that when a Catholic says an idol is not God, it contradicts the pagan who claims it is God; each person is using the name "God" to refer to the true God. When the pagan asserts that an idol is God, they aren’t using the name to mean "God" in their opinion, as that would be a truthful statement. Catholics sometimes use the name in that way too, as reflected in the Psalm, "All the gods of the Gentiles are demons" (Ps. 95:5).

The same remark applies to the Second and Third Objections. For these reasons proceed from the different predication of the name, and not from its various significations.

The same point applies to the Second and Third Objections. These reasons come from the different ways the name is used, not from its various meanings.

Reply Obj. 4 ["On the contrary," par. 1]: The term "animal" applied to a true and a pictured animal is not purely equivocal; for the Philosopher takes equivocal names in a large sense, including analogous names; because also being, which is predicated analogically, is sometimes said to be predicated equivocally of different predicaments.

Reply Obj. 4 ["On the contrary," par. 1]: The term "animal" as it applies to both a real animal and a depicted one is not entirely ambiguous; the Philosopher uses equivocal terms in a broad sense, which includes analogous terms. This is because being, which is described analogically, is sometimes said to be described ambiguously across different categories.

Reply Obj. 5 ["On the contrary," par. 2] : Neither a Catholic nor a pagan knows the very nature of God as it is in itself; but each one knows it according to some idea of causality, or excellence, or remotion (Q. 12, A. 12). So a pagan can take this name "God" in the same way when he says an idol is God, as the Catholic does in saying an idol is not God. But if anyone should be quite ignorant of God altogether, he could not even name Him, unless, perhaps, as we use names the meaning of which we know not. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5 ["On the contrary," par. 2]: Neither a Catholic nor a pagan fully understands the true nature of God; however, each person recognizes it through some concept of causality, excellence, or negation (Q. 12, A. 12). Therefore, a pagan uses the term "God" in the same way when referring to an idol as a Catholic uses it when stating that an idol is not God. But if someone were entirely unaware of God, they wouldn't even be able to name Him, unless, perhaps, they used names whose meanings are unknown to them.

ELEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 11]

ELEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 11]

Whether This Name, HE WHO IS, Is the Most Proper Name of God?

Whether this name, He Who Is, is the most appropriate name for God?

Objection 1: It seems that this name HE WHO IS is not the most proper name of God. For this name "God" is an incommunicable name. But this name HE WHO IS, is not an incommunicable name. Therefore this name HE WHO IS is not the most proper name of God.

Objection 1: It appears that the name HE WHO IS is not the most appropriate name for God. This is because the name "God" is an incommunicable name. However, the name HE WHO IS is not an incommunicable name. Therefore, the name HE WHO IS is not the most appropriate name for God.

Obj. 2: Further, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iii) that "the name of good excellently manifests all the processions of God." But it especially belongs to God to be the universal principle of all things. Therefore this name "good" is supremely proper to God, and not this name HE WHO IS.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iii) that "the name of good perfectly reveals all the processions of God." However, it particularly pertains to God to be the universal principle of everything. Therefore, the name "good" is ultimately fitting for God, rather than the name HE WHO IS.

Obj. 3: Further, every divine name seems to imply relation to creatures, for God is known to us only through creatures. But this name HE WHO IS imports no relation to creatures. Therefore this name HE WHO IS is not the most applicable to God.

Obj. 3: Moreover, every name for God seems to suggest a connection to creatures, since we only know God through them. However, the name HE WHO IS carries no connection to creatures. Therefore, this name HE WHO IS is not the most fitting for God.

On the contrary, It is written that when Moses asked, "If they should say to me, What is His name? what shall I say to them?" The Lord answered him, "Thus shalt thou say to them, HE WHO IS hath sent me to you" (Ex. 3:13, 14). Therefore this name HE WHO IS most properly belongs to God.

On the contrary, it is written that when Moses asked, "If they say to me, What is His name? what should I say to them?" The Lord replied, "You shall say to them, HE WHO IS has sent me to you" (Ex. 3:13, 14). Therefore, this name HE WHO IS rightfully belongs to God.

I answer that, This name HE WHO IS is most properly applied to God, for three reasons:

I answer that, This name HE WHO IS is most appropriately used for God, for three reasons:

First, because of its signification. For it does not signify form, but simply existence itself. Hence since the existence of God is His essence itself, which can be said of no other (Q. 3, A. 4), it is clear that among other names this one specially denominates God, for everything is denominated by its form.

First, because of what it means. It doesn’t signify form, but simply existence itself. Since God’s existence is His essence, which can’t be said of anything else (Q. 3, A. 4), it’s clear that this name specifically refers to God, because everything is defined by its form.

Secondly, on account of its universality. For all other names are either less universal, or, if convertible with it, add something above it at least in idea; hence in a certain way they inform and determine it. Now our intellect cannot know the essence of God itself in this life, as it is in itself, but whatever mode it applies in determining what it understands about God, it falls short of the mode of what God is in Himself. Therefore the less determinate the names are, and the more universal and absolute they are, the more properly they are applied to God. Hence Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i) that, "HE WHO IS, is the principal of all names applied to God; for comprehending all in itself, it contains existence itself as an infinite and indeterminate sea of substance." Now by any other name some mode of substance is determined, whereas this name HE WHO IS, determines no mode of being, but is indeterminate to all; and therefore it denominates the "infinite ocean of substance."

Secondly, because of its universality. All other names are either less universal or, if they can be interchangeable, they add something extra in thought; thus, in a way, they inform and shape it. Our intellect cannot fully grasp the essence of God in this life as it is in itself, but whatever way it tries to define its understanding of God, it falls short of truly capturing what God is in Himself. So, the less specific the names are and the more universal and absolute they are, the more appropriately they apply to God. Therefore, Damascene states (De Fide Orth. i) that "HE WHO IS is the most fundamental of all names for God; because it encompasses all within itself, it contains existence itself as an infinite and undetermined sea of substance." Any other name specifies some aspect of substance, while this name HE WHO IS does not define any particular mode of being but is undetermined in regard to all; thus, it refers to the "infinite ocean of substance."

Thirdly, from its consignification, for it signifies present existence; and this above all properly applies to God, whose existence knows not past or future, as Augustine says (De Trin. v).

Thirdly, based on its meaning, it signifies present existence; and this especially applies to God, whose existence has no past or future, as Augustine says (De Trin. v).

Reply Obj. 1: This name HE WHO IS is the name of God more properly than this name "God," as regards its source, namely, existence; and as regards the mode of signification and consignification, as said above. But as regards the object intended by the name, this name "God" is more proper, as it is imposed to signify the divine nature; and still more proper is the Tetragrammaton, imposed to signify the substance of God itself, incommunicable and, if one may so speak, singular.

Reply Obj. 1: The name HE WHO IS is a more accurate name for God than "God" when it comes to its origin, which is existence, and also in the way it conveys meaning, as mentioned earlier. However, in terms of what the name refers to, "God" is a more appropriate name because it is used to indicate the divine nature; even more fitting is the Tetragrammaton, which signifies the very essence of God, something that cannot be shared and, so to speak, unique.

Reply Obj. 2: This name "good" is the principal name of God in so far as He is a cause, but not absolutely; for existence considered absolutely comes before the idea of cause.

Reply Obj. 2: The name "good" is the main name of God in the sense that He is a cause, but not in an absolute way; because existence, when considered absolutely, precedes the idea of cause.

Reply Obj. 3: It is not necessary that all the divine names should import relation to creatures, but it suffices that they be imposed from some perfections flowing from God to creatures. Among these the first is existence, from which comes this name, HE WHO IS. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: It's not necessary for all divine names to relate directly to creatures, but it’s enough that they come from some qualities coming from God to creatures. The foremost of these is existence, which gives rise to the name, HE WHO IS.

TWELFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 12]

TWELFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 13, Art. 12]

Whether Affirmative Propositions Can Be Formed About God?

Whether Affirmative Statements Can Be Made About God?

Objection 1: It seems that affirmative propositions cannot be formed about God. For Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. ii) that "negations about God are true; but affirmations are vague."

Objection 1: It appears that we can't make clear affirmative statements about God. For Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. ii) that "negative statements about God are true; but affirmative statements are vague."

Obj. 2: Further, Boethius says (De Trin. ii) that "a simple form cannot be a subject." But God is the most absolutely simple form, as shown (Q. 3): therefore He cannot be a subject. But everything about which an affirmative proposition is made is taken as a subject. Therefore an affirmative proposition cannot be formed about God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Boethius states (De Trin. ii) that "a simple form cannot be a subject." However, God is the most completely simple form, as shown (Q. 3); therefore, He cannot be a subject. But everything that an affirmative statement is made about is regarded as a subject. Thus, an affirmative statement cannot be formed about God.

Obj. 3: Further, every intellect is false which understands a thing otherwise than as it is. But God has existence without any composition as shown above (Q. 3, A. 7). Therefore since every affirmative intellect understands something as compound, it follows that a true affirmative proposition about God cannot be made.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, any intellect that understands something differently than it actually is, is incorrect. But God exists without any composition, as demonstrated above (Q. 3, A. 7). Therefore, since every affirmative intellect perceives something as composite, it follows that a true affirmative statement about God cannot be made.

On the contrary, What is of faith cannot be false. But some affirmative propositions are of faith; as that God is Three and One; and that He is omnipotent. Therefore true affirmative propositions can be formed about God.

On the contrary, What is based on faith cannot be false. But some affirmative statements are based on faith; such as that God is Three and One; and that He is all-powerful. Therefore, true affirmative statements can be made about God.

I answer that, True affirmative propositions can be formed about God. To prove this we must know that in every true affirmative proposition the predicate and the subject signify in some way the same thing in reality, and different things in idea. And this appears to be the case both in propositions which have an accidental predicate, and in those which have an essential predicate. For it is manifest that "man" and "white" are the same in subject, and different in idea; for the idea of man is one thing, and that of whiteness is another. The same applies when I say, "man is an animal"; since the same thing which is man is truly animal; for in the same suppositum there is sensible nature by reason of which he is called animal, and the rational nature by reason of which he is called man; hence here again predicate and subject are the same as to suppositum, but different as to idea. But in propositions where one same thing is predicated of itself, the same rule in some way applies, inasmuch as the intellect draws to the suppositum what it places in the subject; and what it places in the predicate it draws to the nature of the form existing in the suppositum; according to the saying that "predicates are to be taken formally, and subjects materially." To this diversity in idea corresponds the plurality of predicate and subject, while the intellect signifies the identity of the thing by the composition itself.

I respond that, true affirmative statements can be made about God. To demonstrate this, we need to recognize that in every true affirmative statement, the predicate and the subject in some way represent the same thing in reality while being different things in concept. This is true for both propositions that have an accidental predicate and those with an essential predicate. It is clear that "man" and "white" refer to the same subject but are different in concept; the idea of "man" is one thing, while the idea of "whiteness" is another. The same thing happens when I say, "man is an animal," since what we refer to as man is truly an animal; in the same suppositum, there exists a sensible nature that makes him an animal, and a rational nature that makes him a man; thus here again, the predicate and subject are the same regarding suppositum, but different regarding concept. However, in statements where the same thing is predicated of itself, a similar principle applies, as the intellect connects to the suppositum what it places in the subject; and what it places in the predicate relates to the nature of the form present in the suppositum; according to the saying that "predicates are to be understood formally, and subjects materially." This difference in concept corresponds to the distinction between predicate and subject, while the intellect indicates the identity of the thing through the composition itself.

God, however, as considered in Himself, is altogether one and simple, yet our intellect knows Him by different conceptions because it cannot see Him as He is in Himself. Nevertheless, although it understands Him under different conceptions, it knows that one and the same simple object corresponds to its conceptions. Therefore the plurality of predicate and subject represents the plurality of idea; and the intellect represents the unity by composition.

God, however, when considered in Himself, is completely one and simple. Yet, our understanding of Him comes through different concepts because we can't perceive Him as He truly is. Even though we comprehend Him in various ways, we realize that there is one and the same simple reality that aligns with our concepts. Thus, the different subjects and predicates reflect the variety of ideas, and our understanding conveys that unity by bringing them together.

Reply Obj. 1: Dionysius says that the affirmations about God are vague or, according to another translation, "incongruous," inasmuch as no name can be applied to God according to its mode of signification.

Reply Obj. 1: Dionysius says that the statements about God are unclear or, in another translation, "inconsistent," since no name can be applied to God based on its meaning.

Reply Obj. 2: Our intellect cannot comprehend simple subsisting forms, as they really are in themselves; but it apprehends them as compound things in which there is something taken as subject and something that is inherent. Therefore it apprehends the simple form as a subject, and attributes something else to it.

Reply Obj. 2: Our minds can't fully grasp simple existing forms as they truly are; instead, we understand them as complex things where one part serves as the subject and another is inherent. So, we perceive the simple form as a subject and assign something else to it.

Reply Obj. 3: This proposition, "The intellect understanding anything otherwise than it is, is false," can be taken in two senses, accordingly as this adverb "otherwise" determines the word "understanding" on the part of the thing understood, or on the part of the one who understands. Taken as referring to the thing understood, the proposition is true, and the meaning is: Any intellect which understands that the thing is otherwise than it is, is false. But this does not hold in the present case; because our intellect, when forming a proposition about God, does not affirm that He is composite, but that He is simple. But taken as referring to the one who understands, the proposition is false. For the mode of the intellect in understanding is different from the mode of the thing in its essence. Since it is clear that our intellect understands material things below itself in an immaterial manner; not that it understands them to be immaterial things; but its manner of understanding is immaterial. Likewise, when it understands simple things above itself, it understands them according to its own mode, which is in a composite manner; yet not so as to understand them to be composite things. And thus our intellect is not false in forming composition in its ideas concerning God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The statement, "The intellect understanding anything differently than it is, is false," can be interpreted in two ways, depending on whether the adverb "differently" relates to the thing being understood or to the person understanding it. If we consider it in relation to the thing understood, the statement is true, meaning that any intellect that understands a thing as being different from what it truly is, is false. However, this doesn't apply in this case because our intellect, when making a statement about God, does not claim that He is composite, but rather that He is simple. On the other hand, if we consider it in relation to the person who understands, the statement is false. The way the intellect understands is different from the essence of the thing itself. It's clear that our intellect comprehends material things below it in an immaterial way; it does not understand them as immaterial things, but its way of understanding is immaterial. Similarly, when it grasps simple things above it, it understands them in its own way, which is through a composite perspective, yet it does not think of them as composite things. Therefore, our intellect is not mistaken in forming composite ideas about God.

QUESTION 14

OF GOD'S KNOWLEDGE
(In Sixteen Articles)

GOD'S KNOWLEDGE
(In Sixteen Articles)

Having considered what belongs to the divine substance, we have now to treat of God's operation. And since one kind of operation is immanent, and another kind of operation proceeds to the exterior effect, we treat first of knowledge and of will (for understanding abides in the intelligent agent, and will is in the one who wills); and afterwards of the power of God, the principle of the divine operation as proceeding to the exterior effect. Now because to understand is a kind of life, after treating of the divine knowledge, we consider the divine life. And as knowledge concerns truth, we consider truth and falsehood. Further, as everything known is in the knower, and the types of things as existing in the knowledge of God are called ideas, to the consideration of knowledge will be added the treatment of ideas.

Having thought about what belongs to the divine essence, we now need to discuss God's actions. Since one type of action is internal and another type leads to an external effect, we will first address knowledge and will (because understanding resides within the thinking agent, and will exists in the one who desires); and then we'll discuss God's power, which is the source of the divine actions that produce external effects. Because understanding is a form of life, after discussing divine knowledge, we will consider divine life. And since knowledge relates to truth, we will also look at truth and falsehood. Moreover, since everything known exists within the knower, and the concepts of things existing in God's knowledge are referred to as ideas, we will expand our discussion of knowledge to include the treatment of ideas.

Concerning knowledge, there are sixteen points for inquiry:

Concerning knowledge, there are sixteen points to explore:

(1) Whether there is knowledge in God?

Does God know everything?

(2) Whether God understands Himself?

Does God understand Himself?

(3) Whether He comprehends Himself?

Does He understand Himself?

(4) Whether His understanding is His substance?

(4) Is His understanding part of what He is?

(5) Whether He understands other things besides Himself?

(5) Does He understand anything else besides Himself?

(6) Whether He has a proper knowledge of them?

(6) Does He have a proper understanding of them?

(7) Whether the knowledge of God is discursive?

(7) Is knowledge of God based on reasoning?

(8) Whether the knowledge of God is the cause of things?

(8) Is the knowledge of God the reason for things?

(9) Whether God has knowledge of non-existing things?

(9) Does God have knowledge of things that don't exist?

(10) Whether He has knowledge of evil?

(10) Does He know about evil?

(11) Whether He has knowledge of individual things?

(11) Does He know about individual things?

(12) Whether He knows the infinite?

(12) Does He know the infinite?

(13) Whether He knows future contingent things?

(13) Does He know things that will happen in the future?

(14) Whether He knows enunciable things?

(14) Does He know things that can be expressed?

(15) Whether the knowledge of God is variable?

(15) Is the knowledge of God changeable?

(16) Whether God has speculative or practical knowledge of things? _______________________

(16) Does God have theoretical or practical knowledge of things? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 1]

Whether There Is Knowledge [*Scientia] in God?

Whether There Is Knowledge [*Scientia] in God?

Objection 1: It seems that in God there is not knowledge. For knowledge is a habit; and habit does not belong to God, since it is the mean between potentiality and act. Therefore knowledge is not in God.

Objection 1: It seems that God does not have knowledge. Knowledge is a habit, and habits don’t belong to God because they are a balance between potential and actual states. Therefore, knowledge is not in God.

Obj. 2: Further, since science is about conclusions, it is a kind of knowledge caused by something else which is the knowledge of principles. But nothing is caused in God; therefore science is not in God.

Obj. 2: Moreover, since science deals with conclusions, it represents a type of knowledge that depends on something else, which is the knowledge of principles. But nothing is caused by God; therefore, science does not exist in God.

Obj. 3: Further, all knowledge is universal, or particular. But in God there is no universal or particular (Q. 3, A. 5). Therefore in God there is not knowledge.

Obj. 3: Additionally, all knowledge is either universal or specific. But in God, there is neither universal nor specific knowledge (Q. 3, A. 5). Therefore, there is no knowledge in God.

On the contrary, The Apostle says, "O the depth of the riches of the wisdom and of the knowledge of God" (Rom. 11:33).

On the contrary, the Apostle says, "O the depth of the riches of the wisdom and of the knowledge of God" (Rom. 11:33).

I answer that, In God there exists the most perfect knowledge. To prove this, we must note that intelligent beings are distinguished from non-intelligent beings in that the latter possess only their own form; whereas the intelligent being is naturally adapted to have also the form of some other thing; for the idea of the thing known is in the knower. Hence it is manifest that the nature of a non-intelligent being is more contracted and limited; whereas the nature of intelligent beings has a greater amplitude and extension; therefore the Philosopher says (De Anima iii) that "the soul is in a sense all things." Now the contraction of the form comes from the matter. Hence, as we have said above (Q. 7, A. 1) forms according as they are the more immaterial, approach more nearly to a kind of infinity. Therefore it is clear that the immateriality of a thing is the reason why it is cognitive; and according to the mode of immateriality is the mode of knowledge. Hence it is said in De Anima ii that plants do not know, because they are wholly material. But sense is cognitive because it can receive images free from matter, and the intellect is still further cognitive, because it is more separated from matter and unmixed, as said in De Anima iii. Since therefore God is in the highest degree of immateriality as stated above (Q. 7, A. 1), it follows that He occupies the highest place in knowledge.

I answer that, God possesses the most perfect knowledge. To demonstrate this, we need to highlight that intelligent beings differ from non-intelligent beings in that the latter only have their own form; whereas an intelligent being is naturally capable of also having the form of something else; because the idea of the known thing exists in the knower. Therefore, it’s clear that the nature of a non-intelligent being is more limited and confined; while the nature of intelligent beings has a greater breadth and scope; thus the Philosopher states (De Anima iii) that "the soul is in a sense all things." Now, the limitation of the form comes from the matter. As we mentioned earlier (Q. 7, A. 1), forms that are more immaterial are closer to a kind of infinity. Therefore, it’s evident that the immateriality of a thing is the reason it has the capacity for knowledge; and the way of immateriality determines the way of knowledge. That’s why it is stated in De Anima ii that plants do not know, because they are entirely material. But sense perception is cognitive because it can receive images free from matter, and the intellect is even more cognitive, as it is more distanced from matter and unmixed, as mentioned in De Anima iii. Since God exists at the highest level of immateriality as stated earlier (Q. 7, A. 1), it follows that He holds the highest position in knowledge.

Reply Obj. 1: Because perfections flowing from God to creatures exist in a higher state in God Himself (Q. 4, A. 2), whenever a name taken from any created perfection is attributed to God, it must be separated in its signification from anything that belongs to that imperfect mode proper to creatures. Hence knowledge is not a quality of God, nor a habit; but substance and pure act.

Reply Obj. 1: Since the qualities that come from God to creatures exist in a higher form in God Himself (Q. 4, A. 2), whenever a name derived from any created quality is used to describe God, it must be understood differently from anything that relates to the imperfect way creatures possess it. Therefore, knowledge is not merely a quality of God, nor just an acquired ability; it is His essence and pure existence.

Reply Obj. 2: Whatever is divided and multiplied in creatures exists in God simply and unitedly (Q. 13, A. 4). Now man has different kinds of knowledge, according to the different objects of His knowledge. He has intelligence as regards the knowledge of principles; he has science as regards knowledge of conclusions; he has wisdom, according as he knows the highest cause; he has counsel or prudence, according as he knows what is to be done. But God knows all these by one simple act of knowledge, as will be shown (A. 7). Hence the simple knowledge of God can be named by all these names; in such a way, however, that there must be removed from each of them, so far as they enter into divine predication, everything that savors of imperfection; and everything that expresses perfection is to be retained in them. Hence it is said, "With Him is wisdom and strength, He hath counsel and understanding" (Job 12:13).

Reply Obj. 2: Whatever is divided and multiplied in creatures exists in God simply and unitedly (Q. 13, A. 4). Now, humans have different types of knowledge, depending on what they know. They have intelligence when it comes to understanding principles; they have science when they know conclusions; they have wisdom as they understand the highest cause; and they have counsel or prudence based on knowing what should be done. But God knows all these through one simple act of knowledge, as will be explained (A. 7). Therefore, the simple knowledge of God can be described by all these terms; however, any imperfections must be removed as they relate to divine understanding, while everything that represents perfection should be retained. This explains why it is said, "With Him is wisdom and strength, He hath counsel and understanding" (Job 12:13).

Reply Obj. 3: Knowledge is according to the mode of the one who knows; for the thing known is in the knower according to the mode of the knower. Now since the mode of the divine essence is higher than that of creatures, divine knowledge does not exist in God after the mode of created knowledge, so as to be universal or particular, or habitual, or potential, or existing according to any such mode. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Knowledge depends on how the person knows; the thing known exists in the knower based on that person's perspective. Since the nature of divine essence is superior to that of created beings, God's knowledge doesn't exist in the same way as human knowledge, meaning it isn't universal or particular, habitual or potential, or any of those types.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 2]

Whether God Understands Himself?

Does God understand Himself?

Objection 1: It seems that God does not understand Himself. For it is said by the Philosopher (De Causis), "Every knower who knows his own essence, returns completely to his own essence." But God does not go out from His own essence, nor is He moved at all; thus He cannot return to His own essence. Therefore He does not know His own essence.

Objection 1: It looks like God doesn’t understand Himself. The Philosopher says (De Causis), "Every knower who knows his own essence completely returns to his own essence." But God doesn’t move away from His own essence, nor does He move at all; therefore, He can’t return to His own essence. So, He doesn’t know His own essence.

Obj. 2: Further, to understand is a kind of passion and movement, as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii); and knowledge also is a kind of assimilation to the object known; and the thing known is the perfection of the knower. But nothing is moved, or suffers, or is made perfect by itself, "nor," as Hilary says (De Trin. iii), "is a thing its own likeness." Therefore God does not understand Himself.

Obj. 2: Additionally, understanding is a form of passion and movement, as the Philosopher states (De Anima iii); knowledge is also a way of becoming similar to what is known; and the known thing represents the perfection of the one who knows. However, nothing is moved, suffers, or becomes perfect by itself, "nor," as Hilary notes (De Trin. iii), "can a thing be its own likeness." Therefore, God does not understand Himself.

Obj. 3: Further, we are like to God chiefly in our intellect, because we are the image of God in our mind, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. vi). But our intellect understands itself, only as it understands other things, as is said in De Anima iii. Therefore God understands Himself only so far perchance as He understands other things.

Obj. 3: Also, we resemble God mainly in our intellect, as we are made in God's image in our minds, as Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. vi). However, our intellect only understands itself to the extent that it understands other things, as mentioned in De Anima iii. Therefore, God may understand Himself only as much as He understands other things.

On the contrary, It is written: "The things that are of God no man knoweth, but the Spirit of God" (1 Cor. 2:11).

On the contrary, it is written: "No one knows the things of God except the Spirit of God" (1 Cor. 2:11).

I answer that, God understands Himself through Himself. In proof whereof it must be known that although in operations which pass to an external effect, the object of the operation, which is taken as the term, exists outside the operator; nevertheless in operations that remain in the operator, the object signified as the term of operation, resides in the operator; and accordingly as it is in the operator, the operation is actual. Hence the Philosopher says (De Anima iii) that "the sensible in act is sense in act, and the intelligible in act is intellect in act." For the reason why we actually feel or know a thing is because our intellect or sense is actually informed by the sensible or intelligible species. And because of this only, it follows that sense or intellect is distinct from the sensible or intelligible object, since both are in potentiality.

I answer that, God understands Himself through Himself. To prove this, it’s important to know that while in actions that lead to an external effect, the object of the action exists outside the doer; in actions that remain within the doer, the object indicated as the goal of the action exists within the doer. Therefore, as it exists within the doer, the action is real. This is why the Philosopher states (De Anima iii) that "the sensible in act is sense in act, and the intelligible in act is intellect in act." The reason we actually feel or know something is that our intellect or senses are truly informed by the sensible or intelligible forms. Thus, it follows that sense or intellect is different from the sensible or intelligible object, since both exist in potentiality.

Since therefore God has nothing in Him of potentiality, but is pure act, His intellect and its object are altogether the same; so that He neither is without the intelligible species, as is the case with our intellect when it understands potentially; nor does the intelligible species differ from the substance of the divine intellect, as it differs in our intellect when it understands actually; but the intelligible species itself is the divine intellect itself, and thus God understands Himself through Himself.

Since God has no potentiality in Him and is pure action, His intellect and its object are entirely the same; He does not lack intelligible forms, like our intellect when it understands in potentiality; nor does the intelligible form differ from the essence of the divine intellect, as it does in our actual understanding; rather, the intelligible form is the divine intellect itself, and so God understands Himself through Himself.

Reply Obj. 1: Return to its own essence means only that a thing subsists in itself. Inasmuch as the form perfects the matter by giving it existence, it is in a certain way diffused in it; and it returns to itself inasmuch as it has existence in itself. Therefore those cognitive faculties which are not subsisting, but are the acts of organs, do not know themselves, as in the case of each of the senses; whereas those cognitive faculties which are subsisting, know themselves; hence it is said in De Causis that, "whoever knows his essence returns to it." Now it supremely belongs to God to be self-subsisting. Hence according to this mode of speaking, He supremely returns to His own essence, and knows Himself.

Reply Obj. 1: To return to its own essence simply means that something exists by itself. Since the form enhances the matter by giving it existence, it is somewhat present within it; and it returns to itself because it has existence on its own. Therefore, cognitive abilities that do not exist on their own, but are functions of organs, do not know themselves, like the senses do; whereas those cognitive abilities that exist on their own can know themselves. Thus, it is stated in De Causis that, "whoever knows his essence returns to it." Now, it is fundamentally true for God that He is self-existing. Therefore, in this way of speaking, He fully returns to His own essence and knows Himself.

Reply Obj. 2: Movement and passion are taken equivocally, according as to understand is described as a kind of movement or passion, as stated in De Anima iii. For to understand is not a movement that is an act of something imperfect passing from one to another, but it is an act, existing in the agent itself, of something perfect. Likewise that the intellect is perfected by the intelligible object, i.e. is assimilated to it, this belongs to an intellect which is sometimes in potentiality; because the fact of its being in a state of potentiality makes it differ from the intelligible object and assimilates it thereto through the intelligible species, which is the likeness of the thing understood, and makes it to be perfected thereby, as potentiality is perfected by act. On the other hand, the divine intellect, which is no way in potentiality, is not perfected by the intelligible object, nor is it assimilated thereto, but is its own perfection, and its own intelligible object.

Reply Obj. 2: Movement and passion can be interpreted in different ways, depending on whether understanding is described as a type of movement or passion, as mentioned in De Anima iii. Understanding isn’t a movement that involves something imperfect transitioning from one state to another; rather, it’s an act that exists within the agent itself, involving something perfect. Furthermore, the intellect is improved by the intelligible object, meaning it becomes similar to it. This relates to an intellect that is sometimes in a state of potentiality; being in potentiality distinguishes it from the intelligible object and aligns it with it through the intelligible species, which is the likeness of the understood thing, thereby allowing it to be perfected as potentiality is fulfilled by act. In contrast, the divine intellect, which is not in any state of potentiality, is not perfected by the intelligible object, nor is it made similar to it, but is its own perfection and its own intelligible object.

Reply Obj. 3: Existence in nature does not belong to primary matter, which is a potentiality, unless it is reduced to act by a form. Now our passive intellect has the same relation to intelligible objects as primary matter has to natural things; for it is in potentiality as regards intelligible objects, just as primary matter is to natural things. Hence our passive intellect can be exercised concerning intelligible objects only so far as it is perfected by the intelligible species of something; and in that way it understands itself by an intelligible species, as it understands other things: for it is manifest that by knowing the intelligible object it understands also its own act of understanding, and by this act knows the intellectual faculty. But God is a pure act in the order of existence, as also in the order of intelligible objects; therefore He understands Himself through Himself. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Existence in nature doesn't belong to primary matter, which is a potential state, unless it is made actual by a form. Our passive intellect relates to intelligible objects in the same way that primary matter relates to natural things; it is in potentiality with respect to intelligible objects, just as primary matter is to natural things. Therefore, our passive intellect can only engage with intelligible objects as it is refined by the intelligible nature of something; in this way, it understands itself through an intelligible nature, just like it understands other things. It's clear that by knowing an intelligible object, it also understands its own act of understanding, and through this act, it knows the intellectual capacity. On the other hand, God is pure act in terms of existence and in terms of intelligible objects; thus, He understands Himself through Himself.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 3]

Whether God Comprehends Himself?

Does God understand Himself?

Objection 1: It seems that God does not comprehend Himself. For
Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. xv), that "whatever comprehends
itself is finite as regards itself." But God is in all ways infinite.
Therefore He does not comprehend Himself.

Objection 1: It seems that God doesn't understand Himself. For
Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. xv), that "whatever understands
itself is finite regarding itself." But God is infinite in every way.
Therefore, He does not understand Himself.

Obj. 2: If it is said that God is infinite to us, and finite to Himself, it can be urged to the contrary, that everything in God is truer than it is in us. If therefore God is finite to Himself, but infinite to us, then God is more truly finite than infinite; which is against what was laid down above (Q. 7, A. 1). Therefore God does not comprehend Himself.

Obj. 2: If we say that God is infinite to us but finite to Himself, we can argue the opposite—that everything in God is more true than it is in us. If God is finite to Himself but infinite to us, then God is, in fact, more truly finite than infinite; this contradicts what was stated earlier (Q. 7, A. 1). Therefore, God does not fully understand Himself.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. xv), that "Everything that understands itself, comprehends itself." But God understands Himself. Therefore He comprehends Himself.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. xv), that "Everything that knows itself understands itself." But God knows Himself. Therefore, He understands Himself.

I answer that, God perfectly comprehends Himself, as can be thus proved. A thing is said to be comprehended when the end of the knowledge of it is attained, and this is accomplished when it is known as perfectly as it is knowable; as, for instance, a demonstrable proposition is comprehended when known by demonstration, not, however, when it is known by some probable reason. Now it is manifest that God knows Himself as perfectly as He is perfectly knowable. For everything is knowable according to the mode of its own actuality; since a thing is not known according as it is in potentiality, but in so far as it is in actuality, as said in Metaph. ix. Now the power of God in knowing is as great as His actuality in existing; because it is from the fact that He is in act and free from all matter and potentiality, that God is cognitive, as shown above (AA. 1, 2). Whence it is manifest that He knows Himself as much as He is knowable; and for that reason He perfectly comprehends Himself.

I answer that, God fully understands Himself, and this can be demonstrated. Something is said to be understood when the full knowledge of it is achieved, which happens when it is known as completely as it can be known; for example, a demonstrable statement is understood when it is known through demonstration, but not when it is understood through some likely reasoning. It is clear that God knows Himself as completely as He can be known. Everything is knowable based on its own actual state; a thing is not known as it is in potential but as it is in actuality, as stated in Metaph. ix. God's capability to know is as vast as His existence; because it is due to His being in act and free from all matter and potentiality that God is aware, as shown above (AA. 1, 2). Hence, it is clear that He knows Himself as much as He is knowable, and for that reason, He fully understands Himself.

Reply Obj. 1: The strict meaning of "comprehension" signifies that one thing holds and includes another; and in this sense everything comprehended is finite, as also is everything included in another. But God is not said to be comprehended by Himself in this sense, as if His intellect were a faculty apart from Himself, and as if it held and included Himself; for these modes of speaking are to be taken by way of negation. But as God is said to be in Himself, forasmuch as He is not contained by anything outside of Himself; so He is said to be comprehended by Himself, forasmuch as nothing in Himself is hidden from Himself. For Augustine says (De Vid. Deum. ep. cxii), "The whole is comprehended when seen, if it is seen in such a way that nothing of it is hidden from the seer."

Reply Obj. 1: The strict meaning of "comprehension" means that one thing contains and includes another; in this sense, everything that is comprehended is finite, as is everything included in something else. However, God is not said to be comprehended by Himself in this way, as if His intellect were a separate part of Himself that holds and includes Him; those expressions should be understood in a negative sense. Just as God is said to be in Himself since He is not contained by anything outside of Himself, He is also said to be comprehended by Himself because nothing within Him is hidden from Him. As Augustine says (De Vid. Deum. ep. cxii), "The whole is comprehended when seen, if it is seen in such a way that nothing of it is hidden from the seer."

Reply Obj. 2: When it is said, "God is finite to Himself," this is to be understood according to a certain similitude of proportion, because He has the same relation in not exceeding His intellect, as anything finite has in not exceeding finite intellect. But God is not to be called finite to Himself in this sense, as if He understood Himself to be something finite. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: When it's said, "God is finite to Himself," it should be understood in a certain way of proportionality, because He has a similar relationship in not exceeding His own intellect, just as anything finite does in not exceeding a finite intellect. However, God shouldn't be labeled as finite to Himself in this way, as if He perceives Himself to be something finite.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 4]

Whether the Act of God's Intellect Is His Substance?

Whether the Act of God's Intellect Is His Essence?

Objection 1: It seems that the act of God's intellect is not His substance. For to understand is an operation. But an operation signifies something proceeding from the operator. Therefore the act of God's intellect is not His substance.

Objection 1: It looks like God's intellect isn't the same as His essence. Understanding is an action. But an action indicates something coming from the one performing it. So, the act of God's intellect isn't His essence.

Obj. 2: Further, to understand one's act of understanding, is to understand something that is neither great nor chiefly understood, but secondary and accessory. If therefore God be his own act of understanding, His act of understanding will be as when we understand our act of understanding: and thus God's act of understanding will not be something great.

Obj. 2: Additionally, to grasp how one understands is to comprehend something that is neither profound nor primarily understood, but rather secondary and supplementary. If God is His own act of understanding, then His act of understanding will align with how we understand our own understanding: therefore, God's act of understanding will not be something extraordinary.

Obj. 3: Further, every act of understanding means understanding something. When therefore God understands Himself, if He Himself is not distinct from this act of understanding, He understands that He understands Himself; and so on to infinity. Therefore the act of God's intellect is not His substance.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, every act of understanding involves understanding something. So when God understands Himself, if He is not separate from this act of understanding, He knows that He understands Himself; and this goes on infinitely. Therefore, the act of God's intellect is not His substance.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vii), "In God to be is the same as to be wise." But to be wise is the same thing as to understand. Therefore in God to be is the same thing as to understand. But God's existence is His substance, as shown above (Q. 3, A. 4). Therefore the act of God's intellect is His substance.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vii), "In God, existence is the same as wisdom." And wisdom is the same as understanding. So in God, existence is the same as understanding. But God's existence is His substance, as explained earlier (Q. 3, A. 4). Therefore, the action of God's intellect is His substance.

I answer that, It must be said that the act of God's intellect is His substance. For if His act of understanding were other than His substance, then something else, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. xii), would be the act and perfection of the divine substance, to which the divine substance would be related, as potentiality is to act, which is altogether impossible; because the act of understanding is the perfection and act of the one understanding. Let us now consider how this is. As was laid down above (A. 2), to understand is not an act passing to anything extrinsic; for it remains in the operator as his own act and perfection; as existence is the perfection of the one existing: just as existence follows on the form, so in like manner to understand follows on the intelligible species. Now in God there is no form which is something other than His existence, as shown above (Q. 3). Hence as His essence itself is also His intelligible species, it necessarily follows that His act of understanding must be His essence and His existence.

I respond that we should note that God's understanding is His essence. If His act of understanding were separate from His essence, then something else, as the Philosopher states (Metaph. xii), would be the act and fulfillment of the divine essence, and the divine essence would relate to it like potentiality relates to act, which is completely impossible; because the act of understanding is the fulfillment and act of the one who understands. Now, let's examine how this works. As mentioned earlier (A. 2), to understand is not an action directed towards anything outside; it remains with the doer as their own act and fulfillment; just as existence is the fulfillment of the one existing: just as existence derives from form, so too does understanding derive from the intelligible species. Now, in God, there is no form that is separate from His existence, as explained earlier (Q. 3). Therefore, since His essence is also His intelligible species, it follows that His act of understanding must be His essence and His existence.

Thus it follows from all the foregoing that in God, intellect, and the object understood, and the intelligible species, and His act of understanding are entirely one and the same. Hence when God is said to be understanding, no kind of multiplicity is attached to His substance.

Thus, it follows from everything mentioned that in God, intellect, the object being understood, the intelligible concept, and His act of understanding are completely the same. Therefore, when it is stated that God understands, there is no kind of multiplicity associated with His essence.

Reply Obj. 1: To understand is not an operation proceeding out of the operator, but remaining in him.

Reply Obj. 1: Understanding isn't an action that comes from the person doing it; rather, it stays within them.

Reply Obj. 2: When that act of understanding which is not subsistent is understood, something not great is understood; as when we understand our act of understanding; and so this cannot be likened to the act of the divine understanding which is subsistent.

Reply Obj. 2: When we understand an act of understanding that isn’t independent, it’s not something significant; it’s similar to when we grasp our act of understanding. Therefore, this can't be compared to the act of divine understanding, which is independent.

Thus appears the Reply to the Third Objection. For the act of divine understanding subsists in itself, and belongs to its very self and is not another's; hence it need not proceed to infinity. _______________________

Thus appears the Reply to the Third Objection. For the act of divine understanding exists in itself, belongs to itself, and is not someone else's; therefore, it doesn't need to go on infinitely.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 5]

Whether God Knows Things Other Than Himself?

Whether God knows things other than Himself?

Objection 1: It seems that God does not know things besides Himself.
For all other things but God are outside of God. But Augustine says
(Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xlvi) that "God does not behold anything out
of Himself." Therefore He does not know things other than Himself.

Objection 1: It seems that God does not know anything beyond Himself.
All things apart from God exist outside of Him. But Augustine says
(Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xlvi) that "God does not see anything outside
of Himself." So, He does not know things other than Himself.

Obj. 2: Further, the object understood is the perfection of the one who understands. If therefore God understands other things besides Himself, something else will be the perfection of God, and will be nobler than He; which is impossible.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the object being understood is the perfection of the one who understands. If God understands other things besides Himself, then something else would be God's perfection and would be greater than Him; which is impossible.

Obj. 3: Further, the act of understanding is specified by the intelligible object, as is every other act from its own object. Hence the intellectual act is so much the nobler, the nobler the object understood. But God is His own intellectual act. If therefore God understands anything other than Himself, then God Himself is specified by something else than Himself; which cannot be. Therefore He does not understand things other than Himself.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the act of understanding is defined by the intelligible object, just as each act is defined by its own object. Therefore, the intellectual act is greater when the object understood is greater. But God is His own intellectual act. If God understands anything outside of Himself, then He would be defined by something other than Himself, which cannot be the case. Therefore, He does not understand things outside of Himself.

On the contrary, It is written: "All things are naked and open to His eyes" (Heb. 4:13).

On the contrary, it is written: "Everything is exposed and visible to His eyes" (Heb. 4:13).

I answer that, God necessarily knows things other than Himself. For it is manifest that He perfectly understands Himself; otherwise His existence would not be perfect, since His existence is His act of understanding. Now if anything is perfectly known, it follows of necessity that its power is perfectly known. But the power of anything can be perfectly known only by knowing to what its power extends. Since therefore the divine power extends to other things by the very fact that it is the first effective cause of all things, as is clear from the aforesaid (Q. 2, A. 3), God must necessarily know things other than Himself. And this appears still more plainly if we add that the very existence of the first effective cause—viz. God—is His own act of understanding. Hence whatever effects pre-exist in God, as in the first cause, must be in His act of understanding, and all things must be in Him according to an intelligible mode: for everything which is in another, is in it according to the mode of that in which it is.

I answer that, God necessarily knows things beyond Himself. For it is clear that He fully understands Himself; otherwise, His existence wouldn’t be perfect, since His existence is tied to His act of understanding. Now, if something is perfectly known, it follows that its power is also perfectly known. However, the power of anything can only be perfectly known by understanding what its power encompasses. Since the divine power covers other things because it is the primary effective cause of all things, as demonstrated earlier (Q. 2, A. 3), God must necessarily know things beyond Himself. This becomes even more obvious when we add that the very existence of the primary effective cause—namely, God—is His own act of understanding. Thus, whatever effects exist in God, as in the first cause, must be present in His act of understanding, and all things must exist in Him in an intelligible way: for anything that is in another exists in it according to the way of that in which it is.

Now in order to know how God knows things other than Himself, we must consider that a thing is known in two ways: in itself, and in another. A thing is known in itself when it is known by the proper species adequate to the knowable object; as when the eye sees a man through the image of a man. A thing is seen in another through the image of that which contains it; as when a part is seen in the whole by the image of the whole; or when a man is seen in a mirror by the image in the mirror, or by any other mode by which one thing is seen in another.

Now, to understand how God knows things beyond Himself, we need to recognize that something can be known in two ways: by itself and through something else. A thing is known by itself when it’s recognized through its own qualities, like how the eye sees a man by perceiving his image. A thing is known through another when it’s recognized via the image of what contains it; for example, when a part is seen in the whole by the whole’s image, or when a person is seen in a mirror by the reflection in the mirror, or by any other way one thing is seen through another.

So we say that God sees Himself in Himself, because He sees Himself through His essence; and He sees other things not in themselves, but in Himself; inasmuch as His essence contains the similitude of things other than Himself.

So we say that God sees Himself in Himself, because He sees Himself through His essence; and He sees other things not by themselves, but in Himself since His essence includes the likeness of things other than Himself.

Reply Obj. 1: The passage of Augustine in which it is said that God "sees nothing outside Himself" is not to be taken in such a way, as if God saw nothing outside Himself, but in the sense that what is outside Himself He does not see except in Himself, as above explained.

Reply Obj. 1: The quote from Augustine that states God "sees nothing outside Himself" shouldn't be interpreted literally, as if God perceives nothing beyond Himself. Instead, it means that He only sees what is outside Himself through the lens of Himself, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 2: The object understood is a perfection of the one understanding not by its substance, but by its image, according to which it is in the intellect, as its form and perfection, as is said in De Anima iii. For "a stone is not in the soul, but its image." Now those things which are other than God are understood by God, inasmuch as the essence of God contains their images as above explained; hence it does not follow that there is any perfection in the divine intellect other than the divine essence.

Reply Obj. 2: The object being understood is a perfection of the one understanding not by its substance, but by its image, according to which it exists in the mind, as its form and perfection, as stated in De Anima iii. For "a stone is not in the soul, but its image." Now, those things that are not God are understood by God, since the essence of God contains their images as explained above; therefore, it doesn’t mean that there is any perfection in the divine intellect apart from the divine essence.

Reply Obj. 3: The intellectual act is not specified by what is understood in another, but by the principal object understood in which other things are understood. For the intellectual act is specified by its object, inasmuch as the intelligible form is the principle of the intellectual operation: since every operation is specified by the form which is its principle of operation; as heating by heat. Hence the intellectual operation is specified by that intelligible form which makes the intellect in act. And this is the image of the principal thing understood, which in God is nothing but His own essence in which all images of things are comprehended. Hence it does not follow that the divine intellectual act, or rather God Himself, is specified by anything else than the divine essence itself. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The intellectual act isn't defined by what is understood in something else, but by the main object being understood, which allows other things to be understood. The intellectual act is defined by its object because the intelligible form is what drives the intellectual operation; every action is defined by the form that guides it, like heating is defined by heat. Therefore, the intellectual operation is defined by the intelligible form that actualizes the intellect. This form represents the primary thing being understood, which in God is simply His own essence, encompassing all representations of other things. Consequently, it follows that the divine intellectual act, or more accurately, God Himself, is not defined by anything other than the divine essence itself.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 6]

Whether God Knows Things Other Than Himself by Proper Knowledge?

Whether God Knows Things Other Than Himself by Proper Knowledge?

Objection 1: It seems that God does not know things other than Himself by proper knowledge. For, as was shown (A. 5), God knows things other than Himself, according as they are in Himself. But other things are in Him as in their common and universal cause, and are known by God as in their first and universal cause. This is to know them by general, and not by proper knowledge. Therefore God knows things besides Himself by general, and not by proper knowledge.

Objection 1: It seems that God does not know anything other than Himself in a proper way. As was shown (A. 5), God knows things outside of Himself based on how they exist in Him. However, other things exist in Him as their overall and universal cause, and are understood by God as their primary and universal cause. This means He knows them in a general sense, not in a specific way. Therefore, God knows things besides Himself in a general manner, not with a proper knowledge.

Obj. 2: Further, the created essence is as distant from the divine essence, as the divine essence is distant from the created essence. But the divine essence cannot be known by the created essence, as said above (Q. 12, A. 2). Therefore neither can the created essence be known by the divine essence. Thus as God knows only by His essence, it follows that He does not know what the creature is in its essence, so as to know "what it is," which is to have proper knowledge of it.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the essence of creation is as different from the divine essence as the divine essence is from the created essence. However, the divine essence cannot be understood by the created essence, as mentioned earlier (Q. 12, A. 2). Therefore, the created essence cannot be understood by the divine essence either. Since God knows only through His essence, it follows that He does not comprehend what a creature is in its essence, which means He does not have full knowledge of "what it is."

Obj. 3: Further, proper knowledge of a thing can come only through its proper ratio [i.e., concept]. But as God knows all things by His essence, it seems that He does not know each thing by its proper ratio; for one thing cannot be the proper ratio of many and diverse things. Therefore God has not a proper knowledge of things, but a general knowledge; for to know things otherwise than by their proper ratio is to have only a common and general knowledge of them.

Obj. 3: Also, true understanding of something can only come from knowing it in the right way. But since God understands everything through His essence, it seems He doesn’t know each thing in its specific way; because one way of understanding can’t apply to many different things. Therefore, God doesn’t have specific knowledge of things, but rather a general understanding; because to know things in a way that isn’t specific means having only a common and general understanding of them.

On the contrary, To have a proper knowledge of things is to know them not only in general, but as they are distinct from each other. Now God knows things in that manner. Hence it is written that He reaches "even to the division of the soul and the spirit, of the joints also and the marrow, and is a discerner of thoughts and intents of the heart; neither is there any creature invisible in His sight" (Heb. 4:12,13).

On the contrary, Having a true understanding of things means knowing them not just in general, but also recognizing how they are different from one another. God knows things in that way. That's why it's written that He reaches "even to the division of the soul and the spirit, of the joints also and the marrow, and is a discerner of thoughts and intents of the heart; neither is there any creature invisible in His sight" (Heb. 4:12,13).

I answer that, Some have erred on this point, saying that God knows things other than Himself only in general, that is, only as beings. For as fire, if it knew itself as the principle of heat, would know the nature of heat, and all things else in so far as they are hot; so God, through knowing Himself as the principle of being, knows the nature of being, and all other things in so far as they are beings.

I respond that, Some have made mistakes about this, claiming that God understands things outside of Himself only in a general way, that is, only as beings. Just as fire, if it recognized itself as the source of heat, would understand the nature of heat and everything else to the extent that it is hot; similarly, God, by knowing Himself as the source of being, understands the nature of being and all other things to the extent that they are beings.

But this cannot be. For to know a thing in general and not in particular, is to have an imperfect knowledge. Hence our intellect, when it is reduced from potentiality to act, acquires first a universal and confused knowledge of things, before it knows them in particular; as proceeding from the imperfect to the perfect, as is clear from Phys. i. If therefore the knowledge of God regarding things other than Himself is only universal and not special, it would follow that His understanding would not be absolutely perfect; therefore neither would His being be perfect; and this is against what was said above (Q. 4, A. 1). We must therefore hold that God knows things other than Himself with a proper knowledge; not only in so far as being is common to them, but in so far as one is distinguished from the other. In proof thereof we may observe that some wishing to show that God knows many things by one, bring forward some examples, as, for instance, that if the centre knew itself, it would know all lines that proceed from the centre; or if light knew itself, it would know all colors.

But this can't be true. To know something in general without knowing it in detail means having imperfect knowledge. So, our intellect, when moving from potential to actual understanding, first gains a broad and vague understanding of things before it knows them in detail; this progression goes from imperfect to perfect, as shown in Phys. i. Therefore, if God's knowledge of things outside of Himself is just general and not specific, it would imply that His understanding isn't absolutely perfect; hence, His being wouldn't be perfect either, which contradicts what was mentioned earlier (Q. 4, A. 1). We must conclude that God knows things outside of Himself with precise knowledge, not just in terms of their common existence but also in how one differs from another. To support this, some argue that God knows many things through one example, like if the center knew itself, it would understand all lines radiating from it; or if light knew itself, it would comprehend all colors.

Now these examples although they are similar in part, namely, as regards universal causality, nevertheless they fail in this respect, that multitude and diversity are caused by the one universal principle, not as regards that which is the principle of distinction, but only as regards that in which they communicate. For the diversity of colors is not caused by the light only, but by the different disposition of the diaphanous medium which receives it; and likewise, the diversity of the lines is caused by their different position. Hence it is that this kind of diversity and multitude cannot be known in its principle by proper knowledge, but only in a general way. In God, however, it is otherwise. For it was shown above (Q. 4, A. 2) that whatever perfection exists in any creature, wholly pre-exists and is contained in God in an excelling manner. Now not only what is common to creatures—viz. being—belongs to their perfection, but also what makes them distinguished from each other; as living and understanding, and the like, whereby living beings are distinguished from the non-living, and the intelligent from the non-intelligent. Likewise every form whereby each thing is constituted in its own species, is a perfection; and thus all things pre-exist in God, not only as regards what is common to all, but also as regards what distinguishes one thing from another. And therefore as God contains all perfections in Himself, the essence of God is compared to all other essences of things, not as the common to the proper, as unity is to numbers, or as the centre (of a circle) to the (radiating) lines; but as perfect acts to imperfect; as if I were to compare man to animal; or six, a perfect number, to the imperfect numbers contained under it. Now it is manifest that by a perfect act imperfect acts can be known not only in general, but also by proper knowledge; thus, for example, whoever knows a man, knows an animal by proper knowledge; and whoever knows the number six, knows the number three also by proper knowledge.

Now, while these examples are similar in some ways, particularly regarding universal causality, they fall short in that variety and difference are caused by one universal principle not in terms of what distinguishes them, but only in terms of what they have in common. The difference in colors isn't caused solely by light, but also by the different characteristics of the transparent medium that receives it; similarly, the difference in lines arises from their varying positions. Because of this, this kind of diversity and multitude can't be fully understood in its principle through precise knowledge, only in a general sense. However, it’s different with God. As mentioned earlier (Q. 4, A. 2), any perfection found in a creature fully pre-exists and exists in God in a superior way. Not only does what is common to creatures—like existence—belong to their perfection, but also what distinguishes them from one another; for instance, attributes like being living or intelligent, which set living beings apart from non-living ones, and intelligent beings apart from those that are non-intelligent. Also, every form that defines each thing within its own category is a perfection; therefore, everything pre-exists in God, not just regarding what is common to all but also concerning what differentiates one thing from another. Thus, since God contains all perfections within Himself, His essence is related to all other essences of things not as the common to the specific, like unity is to numbers, or as the center of a circle is to the lines radiating from it, but rather as perfect acts to imperfect ones; for instance, comparing man to animal, or six, a perfect number, to the imperfect numbers that fall under it. It is clear that through a perfect act, imperfect acts can be understood not just generally, but also through precise knowledge; for example, anyone who knows a man understands an animal with precise knowledge, and anyone who knows the number six also understands the number three with the same level of knowledge.

As therefore the essence of God contains in itself all the perfection contained in the essence of any other being, and far more, God can know in Himself all of them with proper knowledge. For the nature proper to each thing consists in some degree of participation in the divine perfection. Now God could not be said to know Himself perfectly unless He knew all the ways in which His own perfection can be shared by others. Neither could He know the very nature of being perfectly, unless He knew all modes of being. Hence it is manifest that God knows all things with proper knowledge, in their distinction from each other.

As the essence of God includes all the perfection found in the essence of any other being, and much more, God can know all of them within Himself accurately. The nature unique to each thing involves a certain level of participation in divine perfection. God wouldn't be said to know Himself perfectly unless He was aware of all the ways His perfection can be reflected in others. Similarly, He couldn't fully understand the nature of being unless He knew all its various modes. Therefore, it is clear that God knows all things distinctly and accurately.

Reply Obj. 1: So to know a thing as it is in the knower, may be understood in two ways. In one way this adverb "so" imports the mode of knowledge on the part of the thing known; and in that sense it is false. For the knower does not always know the object known according to the existence it has in the knower; since the eye does not know a stone according to the existence it has in the eye; but by the image of the stone which is in the eye, the eye knows the stone according to its existence outside the eye. And if any knower has a knowledge of the object known according to the (mode of) existence it has in the knower, the knower nevertheless knows it according to its (mode of) existence outside the knower; thus the intellect knows a stone according to the intelligible existence it has in the intellect, inasmuch as it knows that it understands; while nevertheless it knows what a stone is in its own nature. If however the adverb 'so' be understood to import the mode (of knowledge) on the part of the knower, in that sense it is true that only the knower has knowledge of the object known as it is in the knower; for the more perfectly the thing known is in the knower, the more perfect is the mode of knowledge.

Reply Obj. 1: To understand something as it exists in the knower can be interpreted in two ways. First, the adverb "so" indicates the way knowledge is perceived by the known thing; in that sense, it’s inaccurate. The knower does not always perceive the object as it exists within the knower; for example, the eye does not see a stone as it exists in the eye, but rather through the image of the stone that the eye holds. The eye knows the stone based on its existence outside of itself. Even if a knower understands the object according to the way it exists in the knower, the knowledge still pertains to its reality outside the knower; for instance, the intellect comprehends a stone based on its intelligible existence within the intellect, while also understanding what a stone is in its own essence. However, if the adverb "so" refers to the way knowledge is perceived by the knower, then it is true that only the knower fully comprehends the object as it exists in the knower; because the more completely the known thing is understood by the knower, the more refined the knowledge is.

We must say therefore that God not only knows that all things are in Himself; but by the fact that they are in Him, He knows them in their own nature and all the more perfectly, the more perfectly each one is in Him.

We must say, then, that God not only knows that everything is within Him, but also, because everything exists in Him, He understands them in their true essence, and the better each one exists in Him, the more perfectly He knows them.

Reply Obj. 2: The created essence is compared to the essence of God as the imperfect to the perfect act. Therefore the created essence cannot sufficiently lead us to the knowledge of the divine essence, but rather the converse.

Reply Obj. 2: The created essence is compared to the essence of God as the imperfect compared to the perfect act. Therefore, the created essence cannot adequately lead us to understand the divine essence, but rather the opposite.

Reply Obj. 3: The same thing cannot be taken in an equal manner as the ratio of different things. But the divine essence excels all creatures. Hence it can be taken as the proper ratio of each thing according to the diverse ways in which diverse creatures participate in, and imitate it. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The same thing can't be treated the same way as the ratio of different things. However, the divine essence surpasses all creatures. Therefore, it can be considered the proper standard for each thing based on the different ways various creatures share in and reflect it.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 7]

Whether the Knowledge of God Is Discursive?

Whether the Knowledge of God Is Discursive?

Objection 1: It seems that the knowledge of God is discursive. For the knowledge of God is not habitual knowledge, but actual knowledge. Now the Philosopher says (Topic. ii): "The habit of knowledge may regard many things at once; but actual understanding regards only one thing at a time." Therefore as God knows many things, Himself and others, as shown above (AA. 2, 5), it seems that He does not understand all at once, but discourses from one to another.

Objection 1: It seems that knowledge of God is analytical. God's knowledge isn't just a matter of habitual understanding; it's actual, real knowledge. The Philosopher states (Topic. ii): "The habit of knowledge can relate to many things at once; however, actual understanding focuses on just one thing at a time." Therefore, since God knows many things, including Himself and others, as previously indicated (AA. 2, 5), it appears that He doesn't comprehend everything simultaneously but moves from one concept to another.

Obj. 2: Further, discursive knowledge is to know the effect through its cause. But God knows things through Himself; as an effect (is known) through its cause. Therefore His knowledge is discursive.

Obj. 2: In addition, discursive knowledge means understanding the effect through its cause. However, God knows things through Himself; as an effect is known through its cause. Therefore, His knowledge is discursive.

Obj. 3: Further, God knows each creature more perfectly than we know it. But we know the effects in their created causes; and thus we go discursively from causes to things caused. Therefore it seems that the same applies to God.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, God understands each creature more fully than we do. We recognize the effects through their created causes, and that’s how we move gradually from causes to the things they produce. So, it seems the same reasoning applies to God.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xv), "God does not see all things in their particularity or separately, as if He saw alternately here and there; but He sees all things together at once."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xv), "God doesn't see everything in particular or separately, as if He were looking here and there alternately; instead, He sees everything together at once."

I answer that, In the divine knowledge there is no discursion; the proof of which is as follows. In our knowledge there is a twofold discursion: one is according to succession only, as when we have actually understood anything, we turn ourselves to understand something else; while the other mode of discursion is according to causality, as when through principles we arrive at the knowledge of conclusions. The first kind of discursion cannot belong to God. For many things, which we understand in succession if each is considered in itself, we understand simultaneously if we see them in some one thing; if, for instance, we understand the parts in the whole, or see different things in a mirror. Now God sees all things in one (thing), which is Himself. Therefore God sees all things together, and not successively. Likewise the second mode of discursion cannot be applied to God. First, because this second mode of discursion presupposes the first mode; for whosoever proceeds from principles to conclusions does not consider both at once; secondly, because to discourse thus is to proceed from the known to the unknown. Hence it is manifest that when the first is known, the second is still unknown; and thus the second is known not in the first, but from the first. Now the term of discursive reasoning is attained when the second is seen in the first, by resolving the effects into their causes; and then the discursion ceases. Hence as God sees His effects in Himself as their cause, His knowledge is not discursive.

I answer that, In divine knowledge, there is no discursion; the proof of this is as follows. In our understanding, there are two types of discursion: one is based solely on succession, like when we understand one thing after another; the other type is based on causality, as when we reach conclusions through principles. The first type of discursion cannot apply to God. Many things that we understand sequentially, if each is considered individually, we understand simultaneously when we view them as part of a whole; for example, when we see the parts in a whole or look at different things in a mirror. God sees all things as one (thing), which is Himself. Therefore, God perceives all things together, not one after another. Similarly, the second type of discursion also does not apply to God. First, because this second type presupposes the first; whoever moves from principles to conclusions does not consider both at the same time; second, because to reason in this way is to move from the known to the unknown. Thus, it is clear that when the first is known, the second is still unknown; and so the second is understood not in the first, but from the first. The endpoint of discursive reasoning is achieved when the second is seen in the first, by tracing effects back to their causes; and then the discursion stops. As God sees His effects in Himself as their cause, His knowledge is not discursive.

Reply Obj. 1: Although there is only one act of understanding in itself, nevertheless many things may be understood in one (medium), as shown above.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though there is just one act of understanding itself, many things can still be understood through it (medium), as demonstrated above.

Reply Obj. 2: God does not know by their cause, known, as it were previously, effects unknown; but He knows the effects in the cause; and hence His knowledge is not discursive, as was shown above.

Reply Obj. 2: God doesn’t know the effects by their causes, as if He were aware of the effects before knowing the causes; rather, He knows the effects within the causes. Therefore, His knowledge isn’t piecemeal, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 3: God sees the effects of created causes in the causes themselves, much better than we can; but still not in such a manner that the knowledge of the effects is caused in Him by the knowledge of the created causes, as is the case with us; and hence His knowledge is not discursive. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: God sees the effects of created causes in the causes themselves much more clearly than we do; however, His understanding of these effects doesn't come from knowing the created causes like it does for us, so His knowledge isn't analytical.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 8]

Whether the Knowledge of God Is the Cause of Things?

Whether the Knowledge of God Is the Cause of Everything?

Objection 1: It seems that the knowledge of God is not the cause of things. For Origen says, on Rom. 8:30, "Whom He called, them He also justified," etc.: "A thing will happen not because God knows it as future; but because it is future, it is on that account known by God, before it exists."

Objection 1: It appears that God's knowledge is not the reason for things. Origen states, regarding Rom. 8:30, "Whom He called, them He also justified," and so on: "Something will take place not because God knows it will happen; rather, it is known by God because it is going to happen, even before it exists."

Obj. 2: Further, given the cause, the effect follows. But the knowledge of God is eternal. Therefore if the knowledge of God is the cause of things created, it seems that creatures are eternal.

Obj. 2: Additionally, since there is a cause, the effect follows. But God's knowledge is eternal. Therefore, if God's knowledge is the cause of created things, it appears that creatures are also eternal.

Obj. 3: Further, "The thing known is prior to knowledge, and is its measure," as the Philosopher says (Metaph. x). But what is posterior and measured cannot be a cause. Therefore the knowledge of God is not the cause of things.

Obj. 3: Moreover, "The thing known comes before knowledge and serves as its measure," as the Philosopher states (Metaph. x). However, what comes after and is measured cannot be a cause. Thus, the knowledge of God is not the cause of things.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xv), "Not because they are, does God know all creatures spiritual and temporal, but because He knows them, therefore they are."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xv), "God doesn't know all spiritual and temporal creatures because they exist; rather, they exist because He knows them."

I answer that, The knowledge of God is the cause of things. For the knowledge of God is to all creatures what the knowledge of the artificer is to things made by his art. Now the knowledge of the artificer is the cause of the things made by his art from the fact that the artificer works by his intellect. Hence the form of the intellect must be the principle of action; as heat is the principle of heating. Nevertheless, we must observe that a natural form, being a form that remains in that to which it gives existence, denotes a principle of action according only as it has an inclination to an effect; and likewise, the intelligible form does not denote a principle of action in so far as it resides in the one who understands unless there is added to it the inclination to an effect, which inclination is through the will. For since the intelligible form has a relation to opposite things (inasmuch as the same knowledge relates to opposites), it would not produce a determinate effect unless it were determined to one thing by the appetite, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. ix). Now it is manifest that God causes things by His intellect, since His being is His act of understanding; and hence His knowledge must be the cause of things, in so far as His will is joined to it. Hence the knowledge of God as the cause of things is usually called the "knowledge of approbation."

I respond that the knowledge of God is the source of all things. God's knowledge is to all creatures what an artist's understanding is to the creations of their craft. The artist's knowledge causes the things created by their art because the artist acts through their intellect. Thus, the form of the intellect must be the principle of action, just like heat is the principle of warming. However, we need to note that a natural form, which remains in that to which it gives existence, indicates a principle of action only as it has a tendency toward an effect; similarly, the intelligible form does not indicate a principle of action as long as it resides in the one who understands unless that understanding is combined with the inclination toward an effect, which comes from the will. Since the intelligible form relates to opposite things (as the same knowledge can relate to opposites), it would not produce a specific effect unless it is directed toward one thing by desire, as the Philosopher states (Metaph. ix). It is clear that God causes things through His intellect, since His existence is His act of understanding; therefore, His knowledge must be the source of things, as long as His will is aligned with it. Thus, God's knowledge as the cause of things is often referred to as the "knowledge of approbation."

Reply Obj. 1: Origen spoke in reference to that aspect of knowledge to which the idea of causality does not belong unless the will is joined to it, as is said above.

Reply Obj. 1: Origen referred to that part of knowledge where the idea of causality doesn't apply unless the will is involved, as mentioned earlier.

But when he says the reason why God foreknows some things is because they are future, this must be understood according to the cause of consequence, and not according to the cause of essence. For if things are in the future, it follows that God knows them; but not that the futurity of things is the cause why God knows them.

But when he says that the reason God knows some things in advance is because they are future, we need to understand this in terms of cause and effect, not in terms of the nature of things. Just because things are in the future, it follows that God knows them; however, the fact that they are future isn't the reason God knows them.

Reply Obj. 2: The knowledge of God is the cause of things according as things are in His knowledge. Now that things should be eternal was not in the knowledge of God; hence although the knowledge of God is eternal, it does not follow that creatures are eternal.

Reply Obj. 2: God's knowledge causes things to be as they are known by Him. However, the idea that things should be eternal was not part of God's knowledge; therefore, even though God's knowledge is eternal, it does not mean that creatures are eternal.

Reply Obj. 3: Natural things are midway between the knowledge of God and our knowledge: for we receive knowledge from natural things, of which God is the cause by His knowledge. Hence, as the natural objects of knowledge are prior to our knowledge, and are its measure, so, the knowledge of God is prior to natural things, and is the measure of them; as, for instance, a house is midway between the knowledge of the builder who made it, and the knowledge of the one who gathers his knowledge of the house from the house already built. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Natural things are in between God's knowledge and our understanding: we gain knowledge from natural things, which God knows as their cause. Just as natural objects come before our understanding and serve as its standard, God's knowledge comes before natural things and serves as their standard. For example, a house lies between the knowledge of the builder who created it and the knowledge of someone who learns about the house from the already built structure.

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 9]

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 9]

Whether God Has Knowledge of Things That Are Not?

Whether God Knows Things That Don't Exist?

Objection 1: It seems that God has not knowledge of things that are not. For the knowledge of God is of true things. But "truth" and "being" are convertible terms. Therefore the knowledge of God is not of things that are not.

Objection 1: It seems that God does not know things that do not exist. God's knowledge is of true things. But "truth" and "existence" are interchangeable terms. Therefore, God's knowledge does not include things that do not exist.

Obj. 2: Further, knowledge requires likeness between the knower and the thing known. But those things that are not cannot have any likeness to God, Who is very being. Therefore what is not, cannot be known by God.

Obj. 2: Moreover, knowledge requires a similarity between the person knowing and the thing being known. However, things that do not exist cannot have any similarity to God, Who is the essence of being. Therefore, what does not exist cannot be known by God.

Obj. 3: Further, the knowledge of God is the cause of what is known by Him. But it is not the cause of things that are not, because a thing that is not, has no cause. Therefore God has no knowledge of things that are not.

Obj. 3: Additionally, God's knowledge is the reason for what He knows. However, it does not cause things that do not exist, because something that doesn't exist has no cause. Therefore, God has no knowledge of things that do not exist.

On the contrary, The Apostle says: "Who . . . calleth those things that are not as those that are" (Rom. 4:17).

On the contrary, the Apostle says: "Who . . . calls things that are not as though they were" (Rom. 4:17).

I answer that, God knows all things whatsoever that in any way are. Now it is possible that things that are not absolutely, should be in a certain sense. For things absolutely are which are actual; whereas things which are not actual, are in the power either of God Himself or of a creature, whether in active power, or passive; whether in power of thought or of imagination, or of any other manner of meaning whatsoever. Whatever therefore can be made, or thought, or said by the creature, as also whatever He Himself can do, all are known to God, although they are not actual. And in so far it can be said that He has knowledge even of things that are not.

I respond that God knows everything that exists in any form. It's possible for things that don't exist in an absolute sense to exist in a certain way. Absolute existence pertains to what is actual; on the other hand, things that aren't actual may exist in the power of God Himself or of a creature, whether through active power or passive power, whether in the realm of thought, imagination, or any other form of meaning. Therefore, whatever can be created, thought, or expressed by a creature, as well as whatever God Himself can do, is known to God, even if it isn't actual. In this sense, it can be said that He has knowledge of even non-existent things.

Now a certain difference is to be noted in the consideration of those things that are not actual. For though some of them may not be in act now, still they were, or they will be; and God is said to know all these with the knowledge of vision: for since God's act of understanding, which is His being, is measured by eternity; and since eternity is without succession, comprehending all time, the present glance of God extends over all time, and to all things which exist in any time, as to objects present to Him. But there are other things in God's power, or the creature's, which nevertheless are not, nor will be, nor were; and as regards these He is said to have knowledge, not of vision, but of simple intelligence. This is so called because the things we see around us have distinct being outside the seer.

Now, there’s an important distinction to make when considering things that aren’t currently real. Some of them may not exist right now, but they either did exist or will exist; and God is said to know all these through His vision. This is because God’s understanding, which is part of His essence, is measured by eternity. Since eternity has no succession and encompasses all time, God’s current perception covers every moment and all things that exist at any time, appearing as present to Him. However, there are other things within God’s power or the power of created beings that neither exist, nor will exist, nor did exist. Regarding these matters, He is said to have knowledge, not through vision, but through simple intelligence. This is termed as such because the things we perceive around us have a distinct existence outside of the observer.

Reply Obj. 1: Those things that are not actual are true in so far as they are in potentiality; for it is true that they are in potentiality; and as such they are known by God.

Reply Obj. 1: Things that aren't actual are considered true as long as they exist in potential; it is true that they exist in potential, and God knows them as such.

Reply Obj. 2: Since God is very being everything is, in so far as it participates in the likeness of God; as everything is hot in so far as it participates in heat. So, things in potentiality are known by God, although they are not in act.

Reply Obj. 2: Since God is the essence of being, everything exists to the extent that it reflects God's likeness; just as everything is hot to the degree it shares in heat. Thus, things that are potential are known by God, even if they are not currently actualized.

Reply Obj. 3: The knowledge of God, joined to His will is the cause of things. Hence it is not necessary that what ever God knows, is, or was, or will be; but only is this necessary as regards what He wills to be, or permits to be. Further, it is in the knowledge of God not that they be, but that they be possible. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: God's knowledge, along with His will, is the reason for things. Therefore, it's not a requirement that everything God knows, exists, or has existed, or will exist; it's only necessary in relation to what He wants to exist or allows to exist. Moreover, in God's knowledge, it's not about their existence, but about their possibility.

TENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 10]

TENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 10]

Whether God Knows Evil Things?

Does God Know About Evil?

Objection 1: It seems that God does not know evil things. For the Philosopher (De Anima iii) says that the intellect which is not in potentiality does not know privation. But "evil is the privation of good," as Augustine says (Confess. iii, 7). Therefore, as the intellect of God is never in potentiality, but is always in act, as is clear from the foregoing (A. 2), it seems that God does not know evil things.

Objection 1: It seems that God does not know about evil. The Philosopher (De Anima iii) states that an intellect that isn't in potentiality doesn't understand what it lacks. But "evil is the absence of good," as Augustine mentions (Confess. iii, 7). Therefore, since God's intellect is never in potentiality but always in action, as shown earlier (A. 2), it seems God does not know evil.

Obj. 2: Further, all knowledge is either the cause of the thing known, or is caused by it. But the knowledge of God is not the cause of evil, nor is it caused by evil. Therefore God does not know evil things.

Obj. 2: Additionally, all knowledge is either the cause of what is known or is caused by it. However, God's knowledge is neither the cause of evil nor is it caused by it. Therefore, God does not know evil things.

Obj. 3: Further, everything known is known either by its likeness, or by its opposite. But whatever God knows, He knows through His essence, as is clear from the foregoing (A. 5). Now the divine essence neither is the likeness of evil, nor is evil contrary to it; for to the divine essence there is no contrary, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xii). Therefore God does not know evil things.

Obj. 3: Additionally, everything that is known is either recognized by its similarities or by its opposites. However, anything that God knows, He understands through His essence, as is evident from what was stated earlier (A. 5). The divine essence is neither a reflection of evil nor opposed to it; there is no opposite to the divine essence, as Augustine mentions (De Civ. Dei xii). Therefore, God does not know evil.

Obj. 4: Further, what is known through another and not through itself, is imperfectly known. But evil is not known by God; for the thing known must be in the knower. Therefore if evil is known through another, namely, through good, it would be known by Him imperfectly; which cannot be, for the knowledge of God is not imperfect. Therefore God does not know evil things.

Obj. 4: Also, what is known through something else and not directly is only partially known. But God does not know evil; because for something to be known, it must exist within the knower. So, if evil is known through something else, specifically through good, that would mean it's known by Him only partially; and that can't be true, as God's knowledge is complete. Therefore, God does not know evil things.

On the contrary, It is written (Prov. 15:11), "Hell and destruction are before God [Vulg: 'the Lord']."

On the contrary, It is written (Prov. 15:11), "Hell and destruction are before God [Vulg: 'the Lord']."

I answer that, Whoever knows a thing perfectly, must know all that can be accidental to it. Now there are some good things to which corruption by evil may be accidental. Hence God would not know good things perfectly, unless He also knew evil things. Now a thing is knowable in the degree in which it is; hence since this is the essence of evil that it is the privation of good, by the fact that God knows good things, He knows evil things also; as by light is known darkness. Hence Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii): "God through Himself receives the vision of darkness, not otherwise seeing darkness except through light."

I respond that, Anyone who fully understands something must also know everything that could happen to it by chance. There are some good things that can be harmed by evil. Therefore, God wouldn’t fully understand good things unless He also understood evil things. A thing can only be known to the extent that it exists; since the essence of evil is the absence of good, God knows evil things by knowing good things, just as light allows us to see darkness. Thus, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii): "God sees darkness through Himself, understanding darkness only through light."

Reply Obj. 1: The saying of the Philosopher must be understood as meaning that the intellect which is not in potentiality, does not know privation by privation existing in it; and this agrees with what he said previously, that a point and every indivisible thing are known by privation of division. This is because simple and indivisible forms are in our intellect not actually, but only potentially; for were they actually in our intellect, they would not be known by privation. It is thus that simple things are known by separate substances. God therefore knows evil, not by privation existing in Himself, but by the opposite good.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher's statement should be understood to mean that the intellect that is not in potential form doesn’t recognize absence by having that absence within it. This aligns with his earlier point that a point and every indivisible thing are known through the absence of division. This is because simple and indivisible forms exist in our intellect not in an actual way, but only potentially; if they were actually in our intellect, they wouldn’t be known through absence. This is how simple things are understood through separate substances. Therefore, God understands evil not by having absence within Himself, but through the presence of the opposite good.

Reply Obj. 2: The knowledge of God is not the cause of evil; but is the cause of the good whereby evil is known.

Reply Obj. 2: Knowing God doesn’t cause evil; rather, it’s the reason we understand what good is and, in turn, recognize evil.

Reply Obj. 3: Although evil is not opposed to the divine essence, which is not corruptible by evil; it is opposed to the effects of God, which He knows by His essence; and knowing them, He knows the opposite evils.

Reply Obj. 3: Even though evil doesn't go against the divine essence, which isn't tainted by evil, it does stand against the outcomes of God, which He understands through His essence; and by knowing those outcomes, He is aware of the opposing evils.

Reply Obj. 4: To know a thing by something else only, belongs to imperfect knowledge, if that thing is of itself knowable; but evil is not of itself knowable, forasmuch as the very nature of evil means the privation of good; therefore evil can neither be defined nor known except by good. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Knowing something through something else is a sign of incomplete understanding, if that thing can be known on its own; however, evil isn't knowable by itself because its nature is defined by the absence of good. Therefore, evil can't be defined or understood except in relation to good.

ELEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 11]

ELEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 11]

Whether God Knows Singular Things?

Does God know individual things?

Objection 1: It seems that God does not know singular things. For the divine intellect is more immaterial than the human intellect. Now the human intellect by reason of its immateriality does not know singular things; but as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii), "reason has to do with universals, sense with singular things." Therefore God does not know singular things.

Objection 1: It seems that God does not know individual things. The divine intellect is more immaterial than the human intellect. Now, the human intellect, due to its immaterial nature, does not know individual things; as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii), "reason deals with universals, while sense deals with individual things." Therefore, God does not know individual things.

Obj. 2: Further, in us those faculties alone know the singular, which
receive the species not abstracted from material conditions. But in
God things are in the highest degree abstracted from all materiality.
Therefore God does not know singular things.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the only faculties within us that understand the specific are those that receive the forms not separated from material conditions. But in God, things are completely abstracted from any materiality. Therefore, God does not know specific things.

Obj. 3: Further, all knowledge comes about through the medium of some likeness. But the likeness of singular things in so far as they are singular, does not seem to be in God; for the principle of singularity is matter, which, since it is in potentiality only, is altogether unlike God, Who is pure act. Therefore God cannot know singular things.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, all knowledge is acquired through some form of similarity. However, the similarity of individual things, as they exist as individuals, does not seem to be in God; because the principle of individuality is matter, which, being only potential, is completely different from God, who is pure actuality. Therefore, God cannot know individual things.

On the contrary, It is written (Prov. 16:2), "All the ways of a man are open to His eyes."

On the contrary, it is written (Prov. 16:2), "All a man's ways are clear to His eyes."

I answer that, God knows singular things. For all perfections found in creatures pre-exist in God in a higher way, as is clear from the foregoing (Q. 4, A. 2). Now to know singular things is part of our perfection. Hence God must know singular things. Even the Philosopher considers it incongruous that anything known by us should be unknown to God; and thus against Empedocles he argues (De Anima i and Metaph. iii) that God would be most ignorant if He did not know discord. Now the perfections which are divided among inferior beings, exist simply and unitedly in God; hence, although by one faculty we know the universal and immaterial, and by another we know singular and material things, nevertheless God knows both by His simple intellect.

I respond that, God knows individual things. All the perfections found in creatures exist in God in a higher form, as we've seen earlier (Q. 4, A. 2). Knowing individual things is part of our perfection. Therefore, God must know individual things. Even the philosopher argues that it would be ridiculous for anything we know to be unknown to God; against Empedocles, he states (De Anima i and Metaph. iii) that God would be woefully ignorant if He did not know discord. The perfections that are divided among lesser beings exist simply and unified in God; thus, while we know the universal and immaterial through one faculty and the individual and material through another, God knows both through His simple intellect.

Now some, wishing to show how this can be, said that God knows singular things by universal causes. For nothing exists in any singular thing, that does not arise from some universal cause. They give the example of an astrologer who knows all the universal movements of the heavens, and can thence foretell all eclipses that are to come. This, however, is not enough; for singular things from universal causes attain to certain forms and powers which, however they may be joined together, are not individualized except by individual matter. Hence he who knows Socrates because he is white, or because he is the son of Sophroniscus, or because of something of that kind, would not know him in so far as he is this particular man. Hence according to the aforesaid mode, God would not know singular things in their singularity.

Now some people, wanting to explain how this works, argue that God understands individual things through universal causes. Everything in any individual thing comes from some universal cause. They use the example of an astrologer who knows all the universal movements of the heavens and can therefore predict upcoming eclipses. However, this isn’t enough; individual things, derived from universal causes, acquire specific forms and abilities that, no matter how they are combined, are not made unique except through individual matter. Therefore, someone who knows Socrates because he is white, or because he is the son of Sophroniscus, or for reasons like that, wouldn’t truly know him as this specific man. So, in this way, God wouldn’t know individual things in their uniqueness.

On the other hand, others have said that God knows singular things by the application of universal causes to particular effects. But this will not hold; forasmuch as no one can apply a thing to another unless he first knows that thing; hence the said application cannot be the reason of knowing the particular, for it presupposes the knowledge of singular things.

On the other hand, some people argue that God understands individual things by applying universal causes to specific effects. But that doesn't make sense; because no one can apply one thing to another unless they first understand that thing, so this application can't be the basis for knowing the specific, as it assumes knowledge of individual things.

Therefore it must be said otherwise, that, since God is the cause of things by His knowledge, as stated above (A. 8), His knowledge extends as far as His causality extends. Hence as the active power of God extends not only to forms, which are the source of universality, but also to matter, as we shall prove further on (Q. 44, A. 2), the knowledge of God must extend to singular things, which are individualized by matter. For since He knows things other than Himself by His essence, as being the likeness of things, or as their active principle, His essence must be the sufficing principle of knowing all things made by Him, not only in the universal, but also in the singular. The same would apply to the knowledge of the artificer, if it were productive of the whole thing, and not only of the form.

Therefore, it should be expressed differently that, since God is the source of things through His knowledge, as mentioned earlier (A. 8), His knowledge reaches as far as His ability to cause things. Therefore, just as God’s active power extends not only to forms, which are the source of universality, but also to matter—as we will demonstrate later (Q. 44, A. 2)—God’s knowledge must also encompass individual things that are defined by matter. Since He understands things outside of Himself through His essence, as a representation of things or as their active principle, His essence must be the complete source of knowledge for everything He has made, not just in general but also in specifics. The same applies to the knowledge of the creator if it were responsible for the entire entity and not just the form.

Reply Obj. 1: Our intellect abstracts the intelligible species from the individualizing principles; hence the intelligible species in our intellect cannot be the likeness of the individual principles; and on that account our intellect does not know the singular. But the intelligible species in the divine intellect, which is the essence of God, is immaterial not by abstraction, but of itself, being the principle of all the principles which enter into the composition of things, whether principles of the species or principles of the individual; hence by it God knows not only universal, but also singular things.

Reply Obj. 1: Our intellect takes the universal concepts from the specific details; therefore, the concepts in our mind cannot mirror the specific details. Because of this, our intellect doesn't grasp the individual. However, the concepts in God's intellect, which represent His essence, are immaterial not because they are separated from anything but intrinsically, as they are the foundation of all the principles that make up things, whether those principles are universal or specific. Thus, through this, God understands not only the general but also the individual things.

Reply Obj. 2: Although as regards the species in the divine intellect its being has no material conditions like the images received in the imagination and sense, yet its power extends to both immaterial and material things.

Reply Obj. 2: Even though the essence of species in the divine intellect doesn’t have material conditions like the images we get from our imagination and senses, its influence reaches both immaterial and material things.

Reply Obj. 3: Although matter as regards its potentiality recedes from likeness to God, yet, even in so far as it has being in this wise, it retains a certain likeness to the divine being. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Even though matter, in terms of its potential, moves away from resembling God, it still retains a certain resemblance to the divine being simply by having existence in this way.

TWELFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 12]

TWELFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 12]

Whether God Can Know Infinite Things?

Whether God Can Know Infinite Things?

Objection 1: It seems that God cannot know infinite things. For the infinite, as such, is unknown; since the infinite is that which, "to those who measure it, leaves always something more to be measured," as the Philosopher says (Phys. iii). Moreover, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xii) that "whatever is comprehended by knowledge, is bounded by the comprehension of the knower." Now infinite things have no boundary. Therefore they cannot be comprehended by the knowledge of God.

Objection 1: It seems that God cannot know infinite things. The infinite, by its nature, is unknown; because the infinite is that which, "to those who measure it, always leaves something more to be measured," as the Philosopher says (Phys. iii). Additionally, Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xii) that "whatever is understood by knowledge is limited by the understanding of the knower." Since infinite things have no limits, they cannot be understood by the knowledge of God.

Obj. 2: Further, if we say that things infinite in themselves are finite in God's knowledge, against this it may be urged that the essence of the infinite is that it is untraversable, and the finite that it is traversable, as said in Phys. iii. But the infinite is not traversable either by the finite or by the infinite, as is proved in Phys. vi. Therefore the infinite cannot be bounded by the finite, nor even by the infinite; and so the infinite cannot be finite in God's knowledge, which is infinite.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, if we claim that things that are infinite in themselves are finite in God's knowledge, it can be argued that the essence of the infinite is that it cannot be fully explored, while the finite can be explored, as stated in Phys. iii. However, the infinite cannot be fully explored by either the finite or the infinite, as demonstrated in Phys. vi. Therefore, the infinite cannot be limited by the finite, nor even by the infinite; thus, the infinite cannot be considered finite in God's knowledge, which is itself infinite.

Obj. 3: Further, the knowledge of God is the measure of what is known. But it is contrary to the essence of the infinite that it be measured. Therefore infinite things cannot be known by God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the knowledge of God serves as the standard for what can be known. However, it's against the nature of the infinite to be measured. Therefore, infinite things cannot be fully understood by God.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xii), "Although we cannot number the infinite, nevertheless it can be comprehended by Him whose knowledge has no bounds."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xii), "Even though we can't count the infinite, it can still be understood by Him whose knowledge knows no limits."

I answer that, Since God knows not only things actual but also things possible to Himself or to created things, as shown above (A. 9), and as these must be infinite, it must be held that He knows infinite things. Although the knowledge of vision which has relation only to things that are, or will be, or were, is not of infinite things, as some say, for we do not say that the world is eternal, nor that generation and movement will go on for ever, so that individuals be infinitely multiplied; yet, if we consider more attentively, we must hold that God knows infinite things even by the knowledge of vision. For God knows even the thoughts and affections of hearts, which will be multiplied to infinity as rational creatures go on for ever.

I answer that, Since God knows not only things that exist but also things that could exist, as mentioned earlier (A. 9), and since these possibilities must be infinite, it follows that He knows infinite things. While some argue that the knowledge of vision, which relates only to things that are, will be, or have been, does not encompass infinite things—because we don’t claim that the world is eternal, nor that generation and movement will continue indefinitely, leading to an infinite multiplication of individuals—if we look more closely, we must conclude that God knows infinite things even through the knowledge of vision. This is because God is aware of even the thoughts and feelings of hearts, which will continue to multiply infinitely as rational beings persist forever.

The reason of this is to be found in the fact that the knowledge of every knower is measured by the mode of the form which is the principle of knowledge. For the sensible image in sense is the likeness of only one individual thing, and can give the knowledge of only one individual. But the intelligible species of our intellect is the likeness of the thing as regards its specific nature, which is participable by infinite particulars; hence our intellect by the intelligible species of man in a certain way knows infinite men; not however as distinguished from each other, but as communicating in the nature of the species; and the reason is because the intelligible species of our intellect is the likeness of man not as to the individual principles, but as to the principles of the species. On the other hand, the divine essence, whereby the divine intellect understands, is a sufficing likeness of all things that are, or can be, not only as regards the universal principles, but also as regards the principles proper to each one, as shown above. Hence it follows that the knowledge of God extends to infinite things, even as distinct from each other.

The reason for this lies in the fact that the knowledge of each knower is determined by the form that serves as the basis of knowledge. The sensory image perceived through the senses reflects only one specific thing and can provide knowledge of just that one individual. However, the intelligible concept in our intellect represents the essence of a thing in terms of its specific nature, which can be understood by countless individuals. Therefore, our intellect can understand many different people through the concept of humanity, but not as separate entities, rather as sharing in the nature of the species. This is because the concept in our intellect reflects humanity not in terms of individual traits, but in terms of the characteristics of the species. Conversely, the divine essence, through which the divine intellect comprehends, is a sufficient representation of all existing or possible things, not just in terms of universal principles but also regarding the specific traits of each. Thus, it follows that God's knowledge encompasses infinite things, even as they are distinct from one another.

Reply Obj. 1: The idea of the infinite pertains to quantity, as the Philosopher says (Phys. i). But the idea of quantity implies the order of parts. Therefore to know the infinite according to the mode of the infinite is to know part after part; and in this way the infinite cannot be known; for whatever quantity of parts be taken, there will always remain something else outside. But God does not know the infinite or infinite things, as if He enumerated part after part; since He knows all things simultaneously, and not successively, as said above (A. 7). Hence there is nothing to prevent Him from knowing infinite things.

Reply Obj. 1: The concept of the infinite relates to quantity, as the Philosopher states (Phys. i). However, the concept of quantity involves the arrangement of parts. Therefore, to understand the infinite in terms of the infinite means to recognize one part after another; and in this manner, the infinite cannot be fully understood; because no matter how many parts are considered, there will always be something else remaining beyond that. However, God does not perceive the infinite or infinite things as if He were counting parts one by one; instead, He knows everything at once, not one after the other, as mentioned earlier (A. 7). Thus, nothing stops Him from knowing infinite things.

Reply Obj. 2: Transition imports a certain succession of parts; and hence it is that the infinite cannot be traversed by the finite, nor by the infinite. But equality suffices for comprehension, because that is said to be comprehended which has nothing outside the comprehender. Hence it is not against the idea of the infinite to be comprehended by the infinite. And so, what is infinite in itself can be called finite to the knowledge of God as comprehended; but not as if it were traversable.

Reply Obj. 2: Transition involves a specific sequence of parts, which is why the infinite cannot be crossed by the finite or by the infinite. However, equality is enough for understanding, because something is considered understood when there’s nothing outside of the one understanding it. Therefore, it's not contradictory for the infinite to be understood by the infinite. So, what is infinite in itself can be viewed as finite from God’s perspective, as it is understood; but not as if it could be crossed.

Reply Obj. 3: The knowledge of God is the measure of things, not quantitatively, for the infinite is not subject to this kind of measure; but it is the measure of the essence and truth of things. For everything has truth of nature according to the degree in which it imitates the knowledge of God, as the thing made by art agrees with the art. Granted, however, an actually infinite number of things, for instance, an infinitude of men, or an infinitude in continuous quantity, as an infinitude of air, as some of the ancients held; yet it is manifest that these would have a determinate and finite being, because their being would be limited to some determinate nature. Hence they would be measurable as regards the knowledge of God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: God's knowledge is the measure of things, not in a quantitative way, since the infinite can't be measured like that; rather, it measures the essence and truth of things. Everything has a truth of nature based on how closely it imitates God's knowledge, just as a crafted item aligns with the art that created it. Even if we accept that there could be an actually infinite number of things, like an infinite number of people or an infinite quantity of air, as some ancient thinkers suggested, it's clear that these would still have a definite and finite existence because their existence would be limited by some definite nature. Therefore, they would be measurable in relation to God's knowledge.

THIRTEENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 13]

THIRTEENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 13]

Whether the Knowledge of God Is of Future Contingent Things?

Whether the Knowledge of God Is About Future Events?

Objection 1: It seems that the knowledge of God is not of future contingent things. For from a necessary cause proceeds a necessary effect. But the knowledge of God is the cause of things known, as said above (A. 8). Since therefore that knowledge is necessary, what He knows must also be necessary. Therefore the knowledge of God is not of contingent things.

Objection 1: It seems that God's knowledge does not extend to future events that could go either way. Because a necessary cause leads to a necessary effect. But God's knowledge is the cause of the things He knows, as mentioned earlier (A. 8). Therefore, since that knowledge is necessary, what He knows must also be necessary. So, God's knowledge does not include contingent things.

Obj. 2: Further, every conditional proposition of which the antecedent is absolutely necessary must have an absolutely necessary consequent. For the antecedent is to the consequent as principles are to the conclusion: and from necessary principles only a necessary conclusion can follow, as is proved in Poster. i. But this is a true conditional proposition, "If God knew that this thing will be, it will be," for the knowledge of God is only of true things. Now the antecedent conditional of this is absolutely necessary, because it is eternal, and because it is signified as past. Therefore the consequent is also absolutely necessary. Therefore whatever God knows, is necessary; and so the knowledge of God is not of contingent things.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, every conditional statement where the antecedent is absolutely necessary must have an absolutely necessary consequent. The antecedent relates to the consequent in the same way that principles relate to a conclusion: only necessary principles can lead to a necessary conclusion, as demonstrated in Poster. i. Take this true conditional statement: "If God knows that this thing will happen, it will happen," because God's knowledge only pertains to true things. The antecedent of this statement is absolutely necessary since it's eternal and is expressed as something past. Therefore, the consequent must also be absolutely necessary. Consequently, whatever God knows is necessary, meaning God's knowledge does not pertain to contingent things.

Obj. 3: Further, everything known by God must necessarily be, because even what we ourselves know, must necessarily be; and, of course, the knowledge of God is much more certain than ours. But no future contingent things must necessarily be. Therefore no contingent future thing is known by God.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, everything that God knows must necessarily exist, because even the things we know must necessarily exist; and, of course, God's knowledge is far more certain than ours. However, future events that are contingent cannot necessarily exist. Therefore, no future contingent thing is known by God.

On the contrary, It is written (Ps. 32:15), "He Who hath made the hearts of every one of them; Who understandeth all their works," i.e. of men. Now the works of men are contingent, being subject to free will. Therefore God knows future contingent things.

On the contrary, It is written (Ps. 32:15), "He who has made the hearts of all of them; who understands all their actions," meaning of people. Now, the actions of people are uncertain, as they are influenced by free will. Therefore, God knows future uncertain things.

I answer that, Since as was shown above (A. 9), God knows all things; not only things actual but also things possible to Him and creature; and since some of these are future contingent to us, it follows that God knows future contingent things.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (A. 9), God knows everything; not just what exists but also what is possible for Him and His creations; and since some of these things are events that could happen in the future for us, it follows that God knows future contingent events.

In evidence of this, we must consider that a contingent thing can be considered in two ways; first, in itself, in so far as it is now in act: and in this sense it is not considered as future, but as present; neither is it considered as contingent (as having reference) to one of two terms, but as determined to one; and on account of this it can be infallibly the object of certain knowledge, for instance to the sense of sight, as when I see that Socrates is sitting down. In another way a contingent thing can be considered as it is in its cause; and in this way it is considered as future, and as a contingent thing not yet determined to one; forasmuch as a contingent cause has relation to opposite things: and in this sense a contingent thing is not subject to any certain knowledge. Hence, whoever knows a contingent effect in its cause only, has merely a conjectural knowledge of it. Now God knows all contingent things not only as they are in their causes, but also as each one of them is actually in itself. And although contingent things become actual successively, nevertheless God knows contingent things not successively, as they are in their own being, as we do but simultaneously. The reason is because His knowledge is measured by eternity, as is also His being; and eternity being simultaneously whole comprises all time, as said above (Q. 10, A. 2). Hence all things that are in time are present to God from eternity, not only because He has the types of things present within Him, as some say; but because His glance is carried from eternity over all things as they are in their presentiality. Hence it is manifest that contingent things are infallibly known by God, inasmuch as they are subject to the divine sight in their presentiality; yet they are future contingent things in relation to their own causes.

To demonstrate this, we need to consider that a contingent thing can be viewed in two ways: first, in itself, as it currently exists; and in this sense, it's not seen as future but as present; it’s also not viewed as contingent (having reference) to two possibilities, but as determined to one. Because of this, it can be the certain object of knowledge, for example, when I see that Socrates is sitting down. In another sense, a contingent thing can be viewed regarding its cause; in this way, it’s seen as future and as a contingent thing not yet determined to one, since a contingent cause relates to opposite outcomes; therefore, in this sense, a contingent thing is not subject to any certain knowledge. So, whoever knows a contingent effect only through its cause has merely a conjectural understanding of it. Now, God knows all contingent things not only as they exist in their causes but also as each one actually exists in itself. And although contingent things become actual one after another, God knows them not one after another but all at once, as they exist in their being, unlike us who see them sequentially. The reason for this is that His knowledge is based on eternity, just like His existence; and eternity encompasses all time simultaneously. Thus, everything that exists in time is present to God from eternity, not only because He holds the essence of things within Him, as some suggest, but because His sight encompasses all things as they are present. Therefore, it is clear that contingent things are certainly known by God since they are subject to His divine sight in their presence, even though they are future contingent things in relation to their causes.

Reply Obj. 1: Although the supreme cause is necessary, the effect may be contingent by reason of the proximate contingent cause; just as the germination of a plant is contingent by reason of the proximate contingent cause, although the movement of the sun which is the first cause, is necessary. So likewise things known by God are contingent on account of their proximate causes, while the knowledge of God, which is the first cause, is necessary.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though the ultimate cause is essential, the effect can be dependent on the nearby contingent cause; just like the growth of a plant depends on its immediate causes, even though the sun's movement, which is the primary cause, is necessary. Similarly, things known by God are dependent because of their immediate causes, while God's knowledge, which is the primary cause, is essential.

Reply Obj. 2: Some say that this antecedent, "God knew this contingent to be future," is not necessary, but contingent; because, although it is past, still it imports relation to the future. This however does not remove necessity from it; for whatever has had relation to the future, must have had it, although the future sometimes does not follow. On the other hand some say that this antecedent is contingent, because it is a compound of necessary and contingent; as this saying is contingent, "Socrates is a white man." But this also is to no purpose; for when we say, "God knew this contingent to be future," contingent is used here only as the matter of the word, and not as the chief part of the proposition. Hence its contingency or necessity has no reference to the necessity or contingency of the proposition, or to its being true or false. For it may be just as true that I said a man is an ass, as that I said Socrates runs, or God is: and the same applies to necessary and contingent. Hence it must be said that this antecedent is absolutely necessary. Nor does it follow, as some say, that the consequent is absolutely necessary, because the antecedent is the remote cause of the consequent, which is contingent by reason of the proximate cause. But this is to no purpose. For the conditional would be false were its antecedent the remote necessary cause, and the consequent a contingent effect; as, for example, if I said, "if the sun moves, the grass will grow."

Reply Obj. 2: Some argue that this statement, "God knew this contingent to be future," isn’t necessary but rather contingent; because, although it refers to the past, it still relates to the future. However, this doesn’t take away from its necessity, since whatever has had a relation to the future must have had that relation, even if the future sometimes doesn’t follow. On the other hand, some claim this statement is contingent because it's a mix of necessary and contingent; like when we say, "Socrates is a white man." But this doesn’t make sense either; because when we say, "God knew this contingent to be future," the term contingent here is only a part of the wording, not the main part of the statement. Therefore, its status as contingent or necessary doesn’t affect the necessity or contingency of the statement itself, or whether it’s true or false. It could be just as true that I said a man is an ass as it is that I said Socrates runs, or that God is; and the same goes for necessary and contingent. Hence, it must be said that this statement is absolutely necessary. Furthermore, it doesn’t follow, as some say, that the consequent is absolutely necessary, just because the antecedent is the distant cause of the consequent, which is contingent due to the immediate cause. But this is irrelevant. For the conditional would be false if its antecedent were the distant necessary cause and the consequent a contingent effect; for example, if I said, "if the sun moves, the grass will grow."

Therefore we must reply otherwise; that when the antecedent contains anything belonging to an act of the soul, the consequent must be taken not as it is in itself, but as it is in the soul: for the existence of a thing in itself is different from the existence of a thing in the soul. For example, when I say, "What the soul understands is immaterial," this is to be understood that it is immaterial as it is in the intellect, not as it is in itself. Likewise if I say, "If God knew anything, it will be," the consequent must be understood as it is subject to the divine knowledge, i.e. as it is in its presentiality. And thus it is necessary, as also is the antecedent: "For everything that is, while it is, must be necessarily be," as the Philosopher says in Peri Herm. i.

Therefore, we need to respond differently; when the premise includes something related to a mental act, the conclusion should not be taken as it exists by itself, but as it exists within the mind: because the existence of something on its own is different from the existence of something in the mind. For instance, when I say, "What the mind understands is immaterial," this means it is immaterial as it is understood by the intellect, not as it exists independently. Similarly, if I say, "If God knows anything, it will exist," the conclusion should be understood as it is known to divine knowledge, that is, as it exists in its presence. Thus, this is necessary, as is the premise: "For everything that exists, while it exists, must necessarily exist," as the Philosopher says in Peri Herm. i.

Reply Obj. 3: Things reduced to act in time, as known by us successively in time, but by God (are known) in eternity, which is above time. Whence to us they cannot be certain, forasmuch as we know future contingent things as such; but (they are certain) to God alone, whose understanding is in eternity above time. Just as he who goes along the road, does not see those who come after him; whereas he who sees the whole road from a height, sees at once all travelling by the way. Hence what is known by us must be necessary, even as it is in itself; for what is future contingent in itself, cannot be known by us. Whereas what is known by God must be necessary according to the mode in which they are subject to the divine knowledge, as already stated, but not absolutely as considered in their own causes. Hence also this proposition, "Everything known by God must necessarily be," is usually distinguished; for this may refer to the thing, or to the saying. If it refers to the thing, it is divided and false; for the sense is, "Everything which God knows is necessary." If understood of the saying, it is composite and true; for the sense is, "This proposition, 'that which is known by God is' is necessary."

Reply Obj. 3: Things that happen in time are understood by us one after the other, but God knows them in eternity, which is outside of time. Because of this, we cannot be sure about them since we understand future events as uncertain; only God knows them with certainty, as His understanding exists in eternity beyond time. Just like a person walking down a road cannot see those coming behind, but someone looking at the entire road from above can see everyone traveling it. Therefore, what we know must be necessary in its own right; because what is uncertain about the future cannot be known by us. On the other hand, what God knows must be necessary based on how it relates to divine knowledge, as previously mentioned, but not absolutely when considering its own causes. Consequently, the statement, "Everything known by God must necessarily exist," is often clarified; it can refer to the thing itself or to the statement. If it refers to the thing, it is divided and incorrect; because the implication is, "Everything that God knows is necessary." If it refers to the statement, it is unified and true; as it means, "This statement, 'what is known by God exists' is necessary."

Now some urge an objection and say that this distinction holds good with regard to forms that are separable from the subject; thus if I said, "It is possible for a white thing to be black," it is false as applied to the saying, and true as applied to the thing: for a thing which is white, can become black; whereas this saying, "a white thing is black" can never be true. But in forms that are inseparable from the subject, this distinction does not hold, for instance, if I said, "A black crow can be white"; for in both senses it is false. Now to be known by God is inseparable from the thing; for what is known by God cannot be known. This objection, however, would hold if these words "that which is known" implied any disposition inherent to the subject; but since they import an act of the knower, something can be attributed to the thing known, in itself (even if it always be known), which is not attributed to it in so far as it stands under actual knowledge; thus material existence is attributed to a stone in itself, which is not attributed to it inasmuch as it is known. _______________________

Now some raise an objection and say that this distinction applies to forms that can be separated from the subject; for instance, if I say, "A white thing can be black," that statement is false in the context of the statement itself but true in relation to the thing: because a thing that is white can become black; however, the statement "a white thing is black" can never be true. But with forms that cannot be separated from the subject, this distinction doesn't apply. For example, if I say, "A black crow can be white," it is false in both senses. Now, being known by God is inseparable from the thing; because what is known by God cannot be unknown. This objection would be valid if the phrase "that which is known" suggested any inherent quality of the subject; but since it denotes an action of the knower, something can be assigned to the known thing in itself (even if it is always known), which is not assigned to it when it is viewed under actual knowledge. Thus, material existence is attributed to a stone in itself, which is not attributed to it as long as it is known.

FOURTEENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 14]

FOURTEENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 14]

Whether God Knows Enunciable Things?

Does God know understandable things?

Objection 1: It seems that God does not know enunciable things. For to know enunciable things belongs to our intellect as it composes and divides. But in the divine intellect, there is no composition. Therefore God does not know enunciable things.

Objection 1: It appears that God doesn't understand things that can be expressed. Knowing things that can be expressed is part of our intellect, as it creates and categorizes. However, in the divine intellect, there is no creation or categorization. Therefore, God does not know things that can be expressed.

Obj. 2: Further, every kind of knowledge is made through some likeness. But in God there is no likeness of enunciable things, since He is altogether simple. Therefore God does not know enunciable things.

Obj. 2: Also, all types of knowledge come from some kind of likeness. But in God, there is no likeness of things that can be articulated, since He is completely simple. So, God does not know things that can be expressed.

On the contrary, It is written: "The Lord knoweth the thoughts of men" (Ps. 93:11). But enunciable things are contained in the thoughts of men. Therefore God knows enunciable things.

On the contrary, It is written: "The Lord knows the thoughts of men" (Ps. 93:11). But expressible things are included in the thoughts of men. Therefore, God knows expressible things.

I answer that, Since it is in the power of our intellect to form enunciations, and since God knows whatever is in His own power or in that of creatures, as said above (A. 9), it follows of necessity that God knows all enunciations that can be formed.

I respond that, Since we can use our intellect to create statements, and since God knows everything that is within His own power or that of His creations, as mentioned above (A. 9), it necessarily follows that God knows all statements that can be made.

Now just as He knows material things immaterially, and composite things simply, so likewise He knows enunciable things not after the manner of enunciable things, as if in His intellect there were composition or division of enunciations; for He knows each thing by simple intelligence, by understanding the essence of each thing; as if we by the very fact that we understand what man is, were to understand all that can be predicated of man. This, however, does not happen in our intellect, which discourses from one thing to another, forasmuch as the intelligible species represents one thing in such a way as not to represent another. Hence when we understand what man is, we do not forthwith understand other things which belong to him, but we understand them one by one, according to a certain succession. On this account the things we understand as separated, we must reduce to one by way of composition or division, by forming an enunciation. Now the species of the divine intellect, which is God's essence, suffices to represent all things. Hence by understanding His essence, God knows the essences of all things, and also whatever can be accidental to them.

Now just as He knows physical things in a non-physical way and complex things simply, He also knows expressible things not in the way that expressible things are understood, as if His intellect contained any composition or division of expressions; instead, He knows each thing through simple understanding, grasping the essence of each one. It's as if we, by just understanding what a man is, could understand everything that can be said about him. However, this doesn't happen in our intellect, which moves from one thing to another, because the intelligible representation shows one thing without representing another. So, when we understand what a man is, we don't immediately understand other things related to him; instead, we grasp them one at a time, in a certain order. For this reason, the things we perceive as separate must be brought together through composition or division by forming a statement. However, the representation in God's intellect, which is His essence, is sufficient to encompass all things. Therefore, by understanding His essence, God knows the essences of all things and also everything that can be accidental to them.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection would avail if God knew enunciable things after the manner of enunciable things.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection would hold if God understood expressible things in the same way that we do.

Reply Obj. 2: Enunciatory composition signifies some existence of a thing; and thus God by His existence, which is His essence, is the similitude of all those things which are signified by enunciation. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Enunciatory composition indicates the existence of something; therefore, God, by His existence—which is His essence—serves as the likeness of all those things represented by enunciation.

FIFTEENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 15]

FIFTEENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 15]

Whether the Knowledge of God Is Variable?

Whether the Knowledge of God Changes?

Objection 1: It seems that the knowledge of God is variable. For knowledge is related to what is knowable. But whatever imports relation to the creature is applied to God from time, and varies according to the variation of creatures. Therefore the knowledge of God is variable according to the variation of creatures.

Objection 1: It seems that God's knowledge changes. Knowledge is linked to what can be known. But everything that has to do with creation is connected to God through time and changes along with the changes of creatures. Therefore, God's knowledge is variable based on the changes of creatures.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever God can make, He can know. But God can make more than He does. Therefore He can know more than He knows. Thus His knowledge can vary according to increase and diminution.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, whatever God creates, He can understand. But God can create more than He currently does. Therefore, He can understand more than He currently knows. So, His knowledge can change based on increase and decrease.

Obj. 3: Further, God knew that Christ would be born. But He does not know now that Christ will be born; because Christ is not to be born in the future. Therefore God does not know everything He once knew; and thus the knowledge of God is variable.

Obj. 3: Additionally, God knew that Christ would be born. However, He does not know now that Christ will be born; because Christ won't be born in the future. Therefore, God does not know everything He once knew; and thus, God's knowledge is changeable.

On the contrary, It is said, that in God "there is no change nor shadow of alteration" (James 1:17).

On the contrary, it is said that in God "there is no change nor shadow of alteration" (James 1:17).

I answer that, Since the knowledge of God is His substance, as is clear from the foregoing (A. 4), just as His substance is altogether immutable, as shown above (Q. 9, A. 1), so His knowledge likewise must be altogether invariable.

I answer that, Since God's knowledge is His essence, as previously noted (A. 4), and since His essence is entirely unchanging, as demonstrated above (Q. 9, A. 1), His knowledge must also be completely constant.

Reply Obj. 1: "Lord", "Creator" and the like, import relations to creatures in so far as they are in themselves. But the knowledge of God imports relation to creatures in so far as they are in God; because everything is actually understood according as it is in the one who understands. Now created things are in God in an invariable manner; while they exist variably in themselves. We may also say that "Lord", "Creator" and the like, import the relations consequent upon the acts which are understood as terminating in the creatures themselves, as they are in themselves; and thus these relations are attributed to God variously, according to the variation of creatures. But "knowledge" and "love," and the like, import relations consequent upon the acts which are understood to be in God; and therefore these are predicated of God in an invariable manner.

Reply Obj. 1: Terms like "Lord" and "Creator" refer to the relationship with creatures as they exist on their own. However, the knowledge of God reflects the relationship with creatures based on how they exist in God; everything is understood according to the perspective of the one who understands. Created things exist in God consistently, while they change independently. We can also say that "Lord," "Creator," and similar terms convey relationships that arise from actions directed towards creatures as they are in themselves; therefore, these terms are attributed to God in different ways depending on the variations among creatures. On the other hand, "knowledge," "love," and similar terms express relationships that arise from actions understood to occur in God; hence, these are consistently attributed to God.

Reply Obj. 2: God knows also what He can make, and does not make. Hence from the fact that He can make more than He makes, it does not follow that He can know more than He knows, unless this be referred to the knowledge of vision, according to which He is said to know those things which are in act in some period of time. But from the fact that He knows some things might be which are not, or that some things might not be which are, it does not follow that His knowledge is variable, but rather that He knows the variability of things. If, however, anything existed which God did not previously know, and afterwards knew, then His knowledge would be variable. But this could not be; for whatever is, or can be in any period of time, is known by God in His eternity. Therefore from the fact that a thing exists in some period of time, it follows that it is known by God from eternity. Therefore it cannot be granted that God can know more than He knows; because such a proposition implies that first of all He did not know, and then afterwards knew.

Reply Obj. 2: God also knows what He can create and what He doesn’t create. Just because He can make more than He does, it doesn't mean He can know more than He already knows, unless we’re talking about the knowledge of vision, where He is said to know things that are happening at any given time. However, the fact that He knows some things that could exist but don’t, or some things that do exist but could have not existed, doesn’t mean His knowledge changes. Instead, it shows He understands the variability of things. If there were anything that existed which God didn't know about beforehand but learned later, then His knowledge would be variable. But that can't be the case; because everything that is or could be at any time is known by God in His eternal state. So, just because something exists at a certain time, it means God has known it from eternity. Therefore, it can't be said that God can know more than He knows; because such a claim suggests that there was a time He didn't know, and later came to know.

Reply Obj. 3: The ancient Nominalists said that it was the same thing to say "Christ is born" and "will be born" and "was born"; because the same thing is signified by these three—viz. the nativity of Christ. Therefore it follows, they said, that whatever God knew, He knows; because now He knows that Christ is born, which means the same thing as that Christ will be born. This opinion, however, is false; both because the diversity in the parts of a sentence causes a diversity of enunciations; and because it would follow that a proposition which is true once would be always true; which is contrary to what the Philosopher lays down (Categor. iii) when he says that this sentence, "Socrates sits," is true when he is sitting, and false when he rises up. Therefore, it must be conceded that this proposition is not true, "Whatever God knew He knows," if referred to enunciable propositions. But because of this, it does not follow that the knowledge of God is variable. For as it is without variation in the divine knowledge that God knows one and the same thing sometime to be, and sometime not to be, so it is without variation in the divine knowledge that God knows an enunciable proposition is sometime true, and sometime false. The knowledge of God, however, would be variable if He knew enunciable things by way of enunciation, by composition and division, as occurs in our intellect. Hence our knowledge varies either as regards truth and falsity, for example, if when either as regards truth and falsity, for example, if when a thing suffers change we retained the same opinion about it; or as regards diverse opinions, as if we first thought that anyone was sitting, and afterwards thought that he was not sitting; neither of which can be in God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The ancient Nominalists argued that saying "Christ is born," "will be born," and "was born" all mean the same thing, as they refer to the birth of Christ. Therefore, they claimed that whatever God knew, He knows; because now He knows that Christ is born, which is the same as saying that Christ will be born. However, this view is incorrect; both because the different parts of a sentence lead to different statements, and because it would mean that a statement that is true at one time would always be true, which contradicts what the Philosopher states (Categor. iii) when he says that "Socrates sits" is true when he is sitting, and false when he stands up. Therefore, we must accept that the statement "Whatever God knew He knows" is not true if we are talking about statement-based propositions. However, this does not imply that God's knowledge changes. Just as it is unchanging in divine knowledge that God knows something can be the case at one time and not at another, it is likewise unchanging in divine knowledge that He knows a statement can be true at one time and false at another. God's knowledge would only vary if He understood propositional knowledge through statement forms, arrangement, and division, like we do. Thus, our knowledge changes either in terms of truth and falsehood—like if we held the same view when something changes—or in terms of different views—like if we first thought someone was sitting, then later thought they were not sitting; neither of which can occur in God.

SIXTEENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 16]

SIXTEENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 14, Art. 16]

Whether God Has a Speculative Knowledge of Things?

Whether God Has a Theoretical Knowledge of Things?

Objection 1: It seems that God has not a speculative knowledge of things. For the knowledge of God is the cause of things, as shown above (A. 8). But speculative knowledge is not the cause of the things known. Therefore the knowledge of God is not speculative.

Objection 1: It appears that God does not have theoretical knowledge of things. Since God's knowledge is the cause of things, as explained earlier (A. 8), and theoretical knowledge does not cause the things it understands, it follows that God's knowledge is not theoretical.

Obj. 2: Further, speculative knowledge comes by abstraction from things; which does not belong to the divine knowledge. Therefore the knowledge of God is not speculative.

Obj. 2: Additionally, speculative knowledge arises from abstracting concepts from things, which does not pertain to divine knowledge. Therefore, the knowledge of God is not speculative.

On the contrary, Whatever is the more excellent must be attributed to God. But speculative knowledge is more excellent than practical knowledge, as the Philosopher says in the beginning of Metaphysics. Therefore God has a speculative knowledge of things.

On the contrary, Whatever is greater must be attributed to God. However, theoretical knowledge is superior to practical knowledge, as the Philosopher states at the start of Metaphysics. Therefore, God has a theoretical knowledge of things.

I answer that, Some knowledge is speculative only; some is practical only; and some is partly speculative and partly practical. In proof whereof it must be observed that knowledge can be called speculative in three ways: first, on the part of the things known, which are not operable by the knower; such is the knowledge of man about natural or divine thing[s]. Secondly, as regards the manner of knowing—as, for instance, if a builder consider a house by defining and dividing, and considering what belongs to it in general: for this is to consider operable things in a speculative manner, and not as practically operable; for operable means the application of form to matter, and not the resolution of the composite into its universal formal principles. Thirdly, as regards the end; "for the practical intellect differs in its end from the speculative," as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii). For the practical intellect is ordered to the end of the operation; whereas the end of the speculative intellect is the consideration of truth. Hence if a builder should consider how a house can be made, not ordering this to the end of operation, but only to know (how to do it), this would be only a speculative considerations as regards the end, although it concerns an operable thing. Therefore knowledge which is speculative by reason of the thing itself known, is merely speculative. But that which is speculative either in its mode or as to its end is partly speculative and partly practical: and when it is ordained to an operative end it is simply practical.

I answer that, Some knowledge is purely theoretical, some is purely practical, and some is a mix of both. To illustrate this, we should note that knowledge can be considered theoretical in three ways: first, in terms of the things known, which cannot be acted upon by the knower; for example, the knowledge a person has about natural or divine matters. Secondly, it pertains to the way of knowing—like when a builder thinks about a house by defining, dividing, and considering its general attributes: this is to think about practical things in a theoretical way, rather than in a hands-on way. Practical means applying form to matter, not breaking down the whole into its universal formal components. Thirdly, it relates to the purpose; "for the practical intellect has a different purpose from the theoretical," as the Philosopher states (De Anima iii). The practical intellect is aimed at accomplishing a task; meanwhile, the purpose of the theoretical intellect is to understand the truth. Thus, if a builder focuses on how to construct a house without considering the actual process of building it—just to know (how to do it)—this would be only a theoretical consideration concerning the purpose, even though it relates to a practical subject. Therefore, knowledge that is theoretical because of the subject matter itself is simply theoretical. However, knowledge that is theoretical in its method or regarding its purpose is partly theoretical and partly practical; when it is directed towards a practical outcome, it is purely practical.

In accordance with this, therefore, it must be said that God has of Himself a speculative knowledge only; for He Himself is not operable. But of all other things He has both speculative and practical knowledge. He has speculative knowledge as regards the mode; for whatever we know speculatively in things by defining and dividing, God knows all this much more perfectly.

In line with this, it should be noted that God has only theoretical knowledge of Himself; He is not subject to action. However, He possesses both theoretical and practical knowledge of everything else. He has theoretical knowledge regarding the nature of things; for whatever we understand theoretically by defining and categorizing, God knows all of this in a far more complete way.

Now of things which He can make, but does not make at any time, He has not a practical knowledge, according as knowledge is called practical from the end. But He has a practical knowledge of what He makes in some period of time. And, as regards evil things, although they are not operable by Him, yet they fall under His practical knowledge, like good things, inasmuch as He permits, or impedes, or directs them; as also sicknesses fall under the practical knowledge of the physician, inasmuch as he cures them by his art.

Now, for the things He can create but doesn’t, He doesn’t have practical knowledge in the way we understand it, since knowledge is considered practical based on its purpose. However, He does have practical knowledge of what He creates within a specific timeframe. Regarding evil actions, even though He doesn’t actively cause them, they are still part of His practical knowledge, just like good actions, because He allows, prevents, or guides them; similarly, illnesses are part of a physician's practical knowledge as they treat them through their skill.

Reply Obj. 1: The knowledge of God is the cause, not indeed of Himself, but of other things. He is actually the cause of some, that is, of things that come to be in some period of time; and He is virtually the cause of others, that is, of things which He can make, and which nevertheless are never made.

Reply Obj. 1: God's knowledge is the cause, not of Himself, but of other things. He is actually the cause of some things, meaning those that come into existence over a certain period of time; and He is potentially the cause of others, meaning those that He can create, even though they are never actually created.

Reply Obj. 2: The fact that knowledge is derived from things known does not essentially belong to speculative knowledge, but only accidentally in so far as it is human.

Reply Obj. 2: The idea that knowledge comes from what is known isn't inherently tied to speculative knowledge; it only occurs by chance as far as it relates to humans.

In answer to what is objected on the contrary, we must say that perfect knowledge of operable things is obtainable only if they are known in so far as they are operable. Therefore, since the knowledge of God is in every way perfect, He must know what is operable by Him, formally as such, and not only in so far as they are speculative. Nevertheless this does not impair the nobility of His speculative knowledge, forasmuch as He sees all things other than Himself in Himself, and He knows Himself speculatively; and so in the speculative knowledge of Himself, he possesses both speculative and practical knowledge of all other things. _______________________

In response to the objections raised, we must say that a complete understanding of things we can act on can only be achieved if we know them as they are meant to be acted on. Therefore, since God's knowledge is completely perfect, He must know what He can do, directly in that context, and not just in a theoretical way. However, this doesn't diminish the greatness of His theoretical knowledge, as He perceives everything outside of Himself within Himself, and He understands Himself theoretically; thus, in His theoretical understanding of Himself, He has both theoretical and practical knowledge of all other things. _______________________

QUESTION 15

OF IDEAS
(In Three Articles)

OF IDEAS
(In Three Articles)

After considering the knowledge of God, it remains to consider ideas.
And about this there are three points of inquiry:

After thinking about the knowledge of God, we should now think about ideas.
There are three main questions to explore regarding this:

(1) Whether there are ideas?

Any ideas?

(2) Whether they are many, or one only?

(2) Are there many, or just one?

(3) Whether there are ideas of all things known by God? _______________________

(3) Are there ideas of everything that God knows? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 15, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 15, Art. 1]

Whether There Are Ideas?

Are there any ideas?

Objection 1: It seems that there are no ideas. For Dionysius says
(Div. Nom. vii), that God does not know things by ideas. But ideas
are for nothing else except that things may be known through them.
Therefore there are no ideas.

Objection 1: It seems that there are no ideas. For Dionysius says
(Div. Nom. vii) that God does not know things by ideas. But ideas
exist for no other reason than to help us understand things through them.
Therefore, there are no ideas.

Obj. 2: Further, God knows all things in Himself, as has been already said (Q. 14, A. 5). But He does not know Himself through an idea; neither therefore other things.

Obj. 2: Additionally, God knows everything within Himself, as mentioned earlier (Q. 14, A. 5). However, He doesn't know Himself through an idea; therefore, He does not know other things that way either.

Obj. 3: Further, an idea is considered to be the principle of knowledge and action. But the divine essence is a sufficient principle of knowing and effecting all things. It is not therefore necessary to suppose ideas.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, an idea is seen as the foundation of knowledge and action. However, the divine essence is a complete foundation for understanding and causing everything. Therefore, it isn't necessary to assume the existence of ideas.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xlvi), "Such is the power inherent in ideas, that no one can be wise unless they are understood."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xlvi), "The power of ideas is such that no one can be truly wise unless they are understood."

I answer that, It is necessary to suppose ideas in the divine mind. For the Greek word Idea is in Latin Forma. Hence by ideas are understood the forms of things, existing apart from the things themselves. Now the form of anything existing apart from the thing itself can be for one of two ends: either to be the type of that of which it is called the form, or to be the principle of the knowledge of that thing, inasmuch as the forms of things knowable are said to be in him who knows them. In either case we must suppose ideas, as is clear for the following reason:

I answer that, it is necessary to assume ideas exist in the divine mind. The Greek word Idea translates to Forma in Latin. Therefore, ideas refer to the forms of things, existing separately from the things themselves. The form of anything that exists apart from the object can serve one of two purposes: either to act as the model of what it represents, or to be the basis of our understanding of that thing, since the forms of knowable things are said to reside in the one who knows them. In either case, we must assume ideas, as the following reasoning makes clear:

In all things not generated by chance, the form must be the end of any generation whatsoever. But an agent does not act on account of the form, except in so far as the likeness of the form is in the agent, as may happen in two ways. For in some agents the form of the thing to be made pre-exists according to its natural being, as in those that act by their nature; as a man generates a man, or fire generates fire. Whereas in other agents (the form of the thing to be made pre-exists) according to intelligible being, as in those that act by the intellect; and thus the likeness of a house pre-exists in the mind of the builder. And this may be called the idea of the house, since the builder intends to build his house like to the form conceived in his mind. As then the world was not made by chance, but by God acting by His intellect, as will appear later (Q. 46, A. 1), there must exist in the divine mind a form to the likeness of which the world was made. And in this the notion of an idea consists.

In everything that isn't random, the form must be the ultimate goal of any creation. However, an agent acts because of the form only to the extent that a representation of that form exists within the agent, which can happen in two ways. In some agents, the form of the thing being created already exists naturally, as seen in those that act instinctively; for example, a man produces a man, or fire produces fire. In contrast, in other agents (the form of the thing to be created exists) in an intellectual sense, as in those that act with reason; thus, the concept of a house exists in the builder's mind. This can be referred to as the idea of the house, since the builder plans to construct his house to resemble the form he has imagined. Just as the world was not created by chance but by God acting through His intellect, as will be discussed later (Q. 46, A. 1), there must exist a form in God's mind that the world resembles. This concept embodies the notion of an idea.

Reply Obj. 1: God does not understand things according to an idea existing outside Himself. Thus Aristotle (Metaph. ix) rejects the opinion of Plato, who held that ideas existed of themselves, and not in the intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: God doesn’t understand things based on an idea that exists outside of Himself. Therefore, Aristotle (Metaph. ix) dismisses the belief of Plato, who thought that ideas existed on their own, rather than in the intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: Although God knows Himself and all else by His own essence, yet His essence is the operative principle of all things, except of Himself. It has therefore the nature of an idea with respect to other things; though not with respect to Himself.

Reply Obj. 2: While God understands Himself and everything else through His own essence, His essence serves as the driving force behind everything, except for Himself. Thus, it functions like an idea in relation to other things, but not in relation to Himself.

Reply Obj. 3: God is the similitude of all things according to His essence; therefore an idea in God is identical with His essence. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: God represents the likeness of all things in His essence; thus, an idea in God is the same as His essence.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 15, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 15, Art. 2]

Whether Ideas Are Many?

Are there many ideas?

Objection 1: It seems that ideas are not many. For an idea in God is His essence. But God's essence is one only. Therefore there is only one idea.

Objection 1: It appears that there aren't many ideas. In God, an idea is His essence. But God's essence is only one. Therefore, there is just one idea.

Obj. 2: Further, as the idea is the principle of knowing and operating, so are art and wisdom. But in God there are not several arts or wisdoms. Therefore in Him there is no plurality of ideas.

Obj. 2: Additionally, just as the idea is the basis for knowledge and action, so are art and wisdom. However, in God there are not multiple arts or wisdoms. Therefore, in Him, there is no variety of ideas.

Obj. 3: Further, if it be said that ideas are multiplied according to their relations to different creatures, it may be argued on the contrary that the plurality of ideas is eternal. If, then, ideas are many, but creatures temporal, then the temporal must be the cause of the eternal.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if it is claimed that ideas increase based on their connections to various beings, it can be argued instead that the number of ideas is eternal. Therefore, if there are many ideas but beings are temporary, then the temporary must be the source of the eternal.

Obj. 4: Further, these relations are either real in creatures only, or in God also. If in creatures only, since creatures are not from eternity, the plurality of ideas cannot be from eternity, if ideas are multiplied only according to these relations. But if they are real in God, it follows that there is a real plurality in God other than the plurality of Persons: and this is against the teaching of Damascene (De Fide Orth. i, 10), who says, in God all things are one, except "ingenerability, generation, and procession." Ideas therefore are not many.

Obj. 4: Additionally, these relationships are either real in creatures only, or also in God. If they are only real in creatures, since creatures aren't eternal, the many ideas can't be eternal either, if ideas only exist according to these relationships. But if they are real in God, it suggests there is a real plurality in God aside from the plurality of Persons, which contradicts the teaching of Damascene (De Fide Orth. i, 10), who states that in God, everything is one, except for "ingenerability, generation, and procession." Therefore, ideas are not numerous.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xlvi), "Ideas are certain principal forms, or permanent and immutable types of things, they themselves not being formed. Thus they are eternal, and existing always in the same manner, as being contained in the divine intelligence. Whilst, however, they themselves neither come into being nor decay, yet we say that in accordance with them everything is formed that can rise or decay, and all that actually does so."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xlvi), "Ideas are definite main forms or lasting and unchanging types of things, which themselves are not formed. Thus, they are eternal and always exist in the same way, as they are part of the divine intelligence. Although they don’t come into existence or perish, we say that everything that can come into being or decay, and all that actually does so, is shaped according to them."

I answer that, It must necessarily be held that ideas are many. In proof of which it is to be considered that in every effect the ultimate end is the proper intention of the principal agent, as the order of an army (is the proper intention) of the general. Now the highest good existing in things is the good of the order of the universe, as the Philosopher clearly teaches in Metaph. xii. Therefore the order of the universe is properly intended by God, and is not the accidental result of a succession of agents, as has been supposed by those who have taught that God created only the first creature, and that this creature created the second creature, and so on, until this great multitude of beings was produced. According to this opinion God would have the idea of the first created thing alone; whereas, if the order itself of the universe was created by Him immediately, and intended by Him, He must have the idea of the order of the universe. Now there cannot be an idea of any whole, unless particular ideas are had of those parts of which the whole is made; just as a builder cannot conceive the idea of a house unless he has the idea of each of its parts. So, then, it must needs be that in the divine mind there are the proper ideas of all things. Hence Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xlvi), "that each thing was created by God according to the idea proper to it," from which it follows that in the divine mind ideas are many. Now it can easily be seen how this is not repugnant to the simplicity of God, if we consider that the idea of a work is in the mind of the operator as that which is understood, and not as the image whereby he understands, which is a form that makes the intellect in act. For the form of the house in the mind of the builder, is something understood by him, to the likeness of which he forms the house in matter. Now, it is not repugnant to the simplicity of the divine mind that it understand many things; though it would be repugnant to its simplicity were His understanding to be formed by a plurality of images. Hence many ideas exist in the divine mind, as things understood by it; as can be proved thus. Inasmuch as He knows His own essence perfectly, He knows it according to every mode in which it can be known. Now it can be known not only as it is in itself, but as it can be participated in by creatures according to some degree of likeness. But every creature has its own proper species, according to which it participates in some degree in likeness to the divine essence. So far, therefore, as God knows His essence as capable of such imitation by any creature, He knows it as the particular type and idea of that creature; and in like manner as regards other creatures. So it is clear that God understands many particular types of things and these are many ideas.

I answer that, it's clear that there are many ideas. To support this, we should consider that in every effect, the ultimate purpose is the proper intention of the main agent, just like the order of an army reflects the general's intentions. The highest good in things is the good of the universe's order, as the Philosopher clearly teaches in Metaph. xii. Therefore, the universe's order is intentionally created by God and is not just a random outcome of a chain of agents, as some believe—that God created only the first creature, which then created the second, and so on, resulting in this vast array of beings. According to this view, God would only have the idea of the first created thing; however, if He directly created and intended the universe's order, He must have the idea of that order. An idea of a whole cannot exist without having particular ideas of the parts that make it up; just like a builder cannot envision a house without understanding each of its components. Thus, it follows that in the divine mind, there must be proper ideas of all things. That's why Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xlvi), "that each thing was created by God according to its own specific idea," which implies that there are many ideas in the divine mind. It can easily be seen how this doesn't contradict the simplicity of God when we consider that the idea of a work is in the mind of the creator as something understood, not as the image that he uses to understand, which shapes the intellect in action. For the form of the house in the builder's mind is something he understands, to which he then shapes the house in reality. It’s not contradictory to the simplicity of the divine mind for it to understand many things; however, it would be contradictory if His understanding were based on a multitude of images. Therefore, many ideas exist in the divine mind, as things understood by it. Since He knows His essence perfectly, He knows it in every way it can be known. This means it can be known not only as it is in itself but also as it can be reflected in creatures with some degree of resemblance. Each creature has its own specific nature, according to which it shares some likeness to the divine essence. Therefore, to the extent that God understands His essence as capable of being reflected by any creature, He knows it as that creature’s specific type and idea; and this is similarly true for other creatures. So it's evident that God understands many particular types of things, which are many ideas.

Reply Obj. 1: The divine essence is not called an idea in so far as it is that essence, but only in so far as it is the likeness or type of this or that thing. Hence ideas are said to be many, inasmuch as many types are understood through the self-same essence.

Reply Obj. 1: The divine essence isn’t referred to as an idea just because it is that essence, but only because it represents the likeness or type of one thing or another. Therefore, ideas are said to be many because many types are understood through the same essence.

Reply Obj. 2: By wisdom and art we signify that by which God understands; but an idea, that which God understands. For God by one understands many things, and that not only according to what they are in themselves, but also according as they are understood, and this is to understand the several types of things. In the same way, an architect is said to understand a house, when he understands the form of the house in matter. But if he understands the form of a house, as devised by himself, from the fact that he understands that he understands it, he thereby understands the type or idea of the house. Now not only does God understand many things by His essence, but He also understands that He understands many things by His essence. And this means that He understands the several types of things; or that many ideas are in His intellect as understood by Him.

Reply Obj. 2: By wisdom and art, we mean the means by which God understands; but an idea is what God understands. God understands many things through one concept, not just as they exist in themselves, but also as they are perceived, which is how He grasps the various types of things. Similarly, an architect is said to understand a house when he comprehends the design of the house in its materials. If he understands the design of a house that he's created, recognizing that he understands it, he then grasps the type or idea of the house. Moreover, God understands many things through His essence, and He is aware that He understands many things through His essence. This indicates that He comprehends the various types of things, meaning that many ideas exist in His intellect as understood by Him.

Reply Obj. 3: Such relations, whereby ideas are multiplied, are caused not by the things themselves, but by the divine intellect comparing its own essence with these things.

Reply Obj. 3: These relationships, through which ideas are expanded, are not caused by the things themselves, but by the divine intellect comparing its own essence with these things.

Reply Obj. 4: Relations multiplying ideas do not exist in created things, but in God. Yet they are not real relations, such as those whereby the Persons are distinguished, but relations understood by God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The relationships that multiply ideas don't exist in created things, but in God. However, they aren't real relationships like those that distinguish the Persons; they're relations understood by God.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 15, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 15, Art. 3]

Whether There Are Ideas of All Things That God Knows?

Whether There Are Ideas of All Things That God Knows?

Objection 1: It seems that there are not ideas in God of all things that He knows. For the idea of evil is not in God; since it would follow that evil was in Him. But evil things are known by God. Therefore there are not ideas of all things that God knows.

Objection 1: It appears that God does not have ideas of everything He knows. The idea of evil is not in God, as that would suggest evil exists in Him. However, God knows about evil things. Therefore, there aren’t ideas of all things that God knows.

Obj. 2: Further, God knows things that neither are, nor will be, nor have been, as has been said above (A. 9). But of such things there are no ideas, since, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. v): "Acts of the divine will are the determining and effective types of things." Therefore there are not in God ideas of all things known by Him.

Obj. 2: Additionally, God knows things that neither exist, nor will exist, nor have existed, as mentioned above (A. 9). However, there are no ideas for such things, since, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. v): "Acts of the divine will are the determining and effective types of things." Therefore, God does not have ideas of all things that He knows.

Obj. 3: Further, God knows primary matter, of which there can be no idea, since it has no form. Hence the same conclusion.

Obj. 3: In addition, God understands primary matter, of which there can be no concept since it has no shape. Therefore, the same conclusion applies.

Obj. 4: Further, it is certain that God knows not only species, but also genera, singulars, and accidents. But there are not ideas of these, according to Plato's teaching, who first taught ideas, as Augustine says (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xlvi). Therefore there are not ideas in God of all things known by Him.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, it's clear that God knows not just types, but also categories, individual items, and properties. However, there are no ideas of these according to Plato's theory, who was the first to propose the concept of ideas, as Augustine remarks (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xlvi). Therefore, God does not have ideas for all things He knows.

On the contrary, Ideas are types existing in the divine mind, as is clear from Augustine (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xlvi). But God has the proper types of all things that He knows; and therefore He has ideas of all things known by Him.

On the contrary, Ideas are forms that exist in the divine mind, as is clear from Augustine (Octog. Tri. Quaest. qu. xlvi). God possesses the perfect forms of everything He knows; therefore, He has ideas of all things known to Him.

I answer that, As ideas, according to Plato, are principles of the knowledge of things and of their generation, an idea has this twofold office, as it exists in the mind of God. So far as the idea is the principle of the making of things, it may be called an "exemplar," and belongs to practical knowledge. But so far as it is a principle of knowledge, it is properly called a "type," and may belong to speculative knowledge also. As an exemplar, therefore, it has respect to everything made by God in any period of time; whereas as a principle of knowledge it has respect to all things known by God, even though they never come to be in time; and to all things that He knows according to their proper type, in so far as they are known by Him in a speculative manner.

I answer that, According to Plato, ideas are the foundations of understanding things and how they come into existence. An idea serves this dual purpose as it exists in the mind of God. When an idea acts as a principle for creating things, it can be referred to as an "exemplar," and is part of practical knowledge. However, when it serves as a principle of understanding, it is more accurately called a "type," and can also fall under speculative knowledge. Thus, as an exemplar, it relates to everything made by God at any point in time; while as a principle of knowledge, it pertains to all things known by God, even those that never actually exist in time, and to all things that He understands according to their true type, as far as He knows them in a speculative way.

Reply Obj. 1: Evil is known by God not through its own type, but through the type of good. Evil, therefore, has no idea in God, neither in so far as an idea is an "exemplar" nor as a "type."

Reply Obj. 1: Evil is understood by God not through its own nature, but through the nature of good. Therefore, evil has no concept in God, neither as an "exemplar" nor as a "type."

Reply Obj. 2: God has no practical knowledge, except virtually, of things which neither are, nor will be, nor have been. Hence, with respect to these there is no idea in God in so far as idea signifies an "exemplar" but only in so far as it denotes a "type."

Reply Obj. 2: God has no practical knowledge, except in a virtual sense, of things that neither exist, nor will exist, nor have existed. Therefore, regarding these, there is no idea in God in the sense of an "exemplar," but only in the sense of a "type."

Reply Obj. 3: Plato is said by some to have considered matter as not created; and therefore he postulated not an idea of matter but a concause with matter. Since, however, we hold matter to be created by God, though not apart from form, matter has its idea in God; but not apart from the idea of the composite; for matter in itself can neither exist, nor be known.

Reply Obj. 3: Some people say that Plato believed matter was uncreated; therefore, he proposed not an idea of matter but a co-cause with matter. However, we believe that matter is created by God, although it is not separate from form. Matter has its idea in God, but not apart from the idea of the composite, because matter by itself cannot exist or be understood.

Reply Obj. 4: Genus can have no idea apart from the idea of species, in so far as idea denotes an "exemplar"; for genus cannot exist except in some species. The same is the case with those accidents that inseparably accompany their subject; for these come into being along with their subject. But accidents which supervene to the subject, have their special idea. For an architect produces through the form of the house all the accidents that originally accompany it; whereas those that are superadded to the house when completed, such as painting, or any other such thing, are produced through some other form. Now individual things, according to Plato, have no other idea than that of species; both because particular things are individualized by matter, which, as some say, he held to be uncreated and the concause with the idea; and because the intention of nature regards the species, and produces individuals only that in them the species may be preserved. However, divine providence extends not merely to species; but to individuals as will be shown later (Q. 22, A. 3). _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: A genus can’t have any concept apart from the concept of species, since the idea represents an "exemplar"; a genus can only exist within some species. The same applies to those inherent qualities that always accompany their subject because they come into existence together with it. However, qualities that arise later on have their own specific idea. An architect creates all the inherent qualities of a house through its form; in contrast, those that are added to the house once it's completed, like painting or other finishing touches, come from a different source. According to Plato, individual things have no other concept than that of species; this is because particular things are made unique by matter, which he believed to be uncreated and a partnering cause with the idea; and because nature’s intention focuses on species, producing individuals only so the species can be preserved. However, divine providence encompasses not just species but also individuals, as will be discussed later (Q. 22, A. 3).

QUESTION 16

OF TRUTH
(In Eight Articles)

OF TRUTH
(In Eight Articles)

Since knowledge is of things that are true, after the consideration of the knowledge of God, we must inquire concerning truth. About this there are eight points of inquiry:

Since knowledge is about what is true, after considering the knowledge of God, we need to look into the concept of truth. There are eight key questions to explore regarding this:

(1) Whether truth resides in the thing, or only in the intellect?

(1) Does truth exist in the object itself, or just in the mind?

(2) Whether it resides only in the intellect composing and dividing?

(2) Does it only exist in the mind that creates and separates?

(3) On the comparison of the true to being.

(3) On comparing the true to existence.

(4) On the comparison of the true to the good.

(4) Comparing the true to the good.

(5) Whether God is truth?

Is God the truth?

(6) Whether all things are true by one truth, or by many?

(6) Are all things true because of one truth, or multiple truths?

(7) On the eternity of truth.

(7) On the everlasting nature of truth.

(8) On the unchangeableness of truth. _______________________

(8) On the unchanging nature of truth. _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 1]

Whether Truth Resides Only in the Intellect?

Whether Truth Only Exists in the Mind?

Objection 1: It seems that truth does not reside only in the intellect, but rather in things. For Augustine (Soliloq. ii, 5) condemns this definition of truth, "That is true which is seen"; since it would follow that stones hidden in the bosom of the earth would not be true stones, as they are not seen. He also condemns the following, "That is true which is as it appears to the knower, who is willing and able to know," for hence it would follow that nothing would be true, unless someone could know it. Therefore he defines truth thus: "That is true which is." It seems, then, that truth resides in things, and not in the intellect.

Objection 1: It seems that truth doesn’t only exist in the mind, but rather in actual things. Augustine (Soliloq. ii, 5) criticizes this definition of truth, "What is true is what can be seen"; since it would mean that stones buried deep in the earth wouldn’t be true stones, as they can’t be seen. He also rejects the idea that "What is true is what it appears to the observer, who is willing and able to understand it," because that would imply that nothing could be true unless someone knows it. Therefore, he defines truth as: "What is true is what exists." So, it seems that truth exists in things, not in the mind.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is true, is true by reason of truth. If, then, truth is only in the intellect, nothing will be true except in so far as it is understood. But this is the error of the ancient philosophers, who said that whatever seems to be true is so. Consequently mutual contradictories seem to be true as seen by different persons at the same time.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, anything that is true is true because of truth itself. If truth exists only in the mind, then nothing can be true unless it is understood. But this is the mistake of the ancient philosophers, who claimed that whatever appears to be true actually is. As a result, opposing ideas seem to be true as perceived by different people at the same time.

Obj. 3: Further, "that, on account of which a thing is so, is itself more so," as is evident from the Philosopher (Poster. i). But it is from the fact that a thing is or is not, that our thought or word is true or false, as the Philosopher teaches (Praedicam. iii). Therefore truth resides rather in things than in the intellect.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, "the reason something is the way it is, is even more significant," as clearly stated by the Philosopher (Poster. i). Our thoughts or statements are true or false based on whether something exists or does not exist, as the Philosopher explains (Praedicam. iii). Therefore, truth exists more in things than in the mind.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Metaph. vi), " The true and the false reside not in things, but in the intellect."

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Metaph. vi), "The true and the false exist not in things, but in the mind."

I answer that, As the good denotes that towards which the appetite tends, so the true denotes that towards which the intellect tends. Now there is this difference between the appetite and the intellect, or any knowledge whatsoever, that knowledge is according as the thing known is in the knower, whilst appetite is according as the desirer tends towards the thing desired. Thus the term of the appetite, namely good, is in the object desirable, and the term of the intellect, namely true, is in the intellect itself. Now as good exists in a thing so far as that thing is related to the appetite—and hence the aspect of goodness passes on from the desirable thing to the appetite, in so far as the appetite is called good if its object is good; so, since the true is in the intellect in so far as it is conformed to the object understood, the aspect of the true must needs pass from the intellect to the object understood, so that also the thing understood is said to be true in so far as it has some relation to the intellect. Now a thing understood may be in relation to an intellect either essentially or accidentally. It is related essentially to an intellect on which it depends as regards its essence; but accidentally to an intellect by which it is knowable; even as we may say that a house is related essentially to the intellect of the architect, but accidentally to the intellect upon which it does not depend.

I answer that, Just as good represents what our desire aims for, true represents what our intellect seeks. There’s a key difference between desire and intellect, or any kind of knowledge: knowledge is defined by how the thing known exists within the knower, while desire is defined by how the desirer reaches out toward the desired thing. Therefore, the term for appetite, which is good, exists because the object is desirable, while the term for intellect, which is true, exists within the intellect itself. Good exists in something to the extent that it relates to desire; thus, the concept of goodness transfers from the desirable object to the appetite. Similarly, since the truth exists in the intellect as it aligns with the understood object, the notion of truth must transfer from the intellect to the understood object. Therefore, an understood thing is considered true to the extent that it has some relationship with the intellect. A thing understood can relate to an intellect either essentially or accidentally. It is essentially related to an intellect when it depends on that intellect for its essence, but accidentally related when it is knowable by that intellect; for example, a house is essentially related to the architect's intellect but accidentally related to an intellect it does not depend on.

Now we do not judge of a thing by what is in it accidentally, but by what is in it essentially. Hence, everything is said to be true absolutely, in so far as it is related to the intellect from which it depends; and thus it is that artificial things are said to be true as being related to our intellect. For a house is said to be true that expresses the likeness of the form in the architect's mind; and words are said to be true so far as they are the signs of truth in the intellect. In the same way natural things are said to be true in so far as they express the likeness of the species that are in the divine mind. For a stone is called true, which possesses the nature proper to a stone, according to the preconception in the divine intellect. Thus, then, truth resides primarily in the intellect, and secondarily in things according as they are related to the intellect as their principle. Consequently there are various definitions of truth. Augustine says (De Vera Relig. xxxvi), "Truth is that whereby is made manifest that which is;" and Hilary says (De Trin. v) that "Truth makes being clear and evident" and this pertains to truth according as it is in the intellect. As to the truth of things in so far as they are related to the intellect, we have Augustine's definition (De Vera Relig. xxxvi), "Truth is a supreme likeness without any unlikeness to a principle": also Anselm's definition (De Verit. xii), "Truth is rightness, perceptible by the mind alone"; for that is right which is in accordance with the principle; also Avicenna's definition (Metaph. viii, 6), "The truth of each thing is a property of the essence which is immutably attached to it." The definition that "Truth is the equation of thought and thing" is applicable to it under either aspect.

We don't judge something by what is accidentally in it, but by what is essentially in it. So, everything is considered absolutely true as it relates to the intellect it depends on; and that's why artificial things are called true as they connect to our intellect. A house is said to be true if it reflects the design in the architect's mind; and words are true as long as they signify truth in the intellect. Similarly, natural things are considered true as they represent the essence of the species present in the divine mind. A stone is called true if it has the characteristics that define a stone, according to the understanding in the divine intellect. Therefore, truth primarily exists in the intellect, and secondarily in things based on their relation to the intellect as their source. That's why there are different definitions of truth. Augustine states (De Vera Relig. xxxvi), "Truth is what makes clear what is"; and Hilary says (De Trin. v) that "Truth makes being clear and evident," which relates to truth as it exists in the intellect. Regarding the truth of things as they relate to the intellect, we consider Augustine's definition (De Vera Relig. xxxvi), "Truth is a supreme likeness without any unlikeness to a principle"; also Anselm's definition (De Verit. xii), "Truth is rightness, perceivable by the mind alone"; as that is right which aligns with the principle; and Avicenna's definition (Metaph. viii, 6), "The truth of each thing is a property of the essence that is unchangeably tied to it." The definition that "Truth is the equation of thought and thing" applies to it in both aspects.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine is speaking about the truth of things, and excludes from the notion of this truth, relation to our intellect; for what is accidental is excluded from every definition.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine is talking about the truth of things and leaves out the connection to our understanding; because anything accidental is excluded from every definition.

Reply Obj. 2: The ancient philosophers held that the species of natural things did not proceed from any intellect, but were produced by chance. But as they saw that truth implies relation to intellect, they were compelled to base the truth of things on their relation to our intellect. From this, conclusions result that are inadmissible, and which the Philosopher refutes (Metaph. iv). Such, however, do not follow, if we say that the truth of things consists in their relation to the divine intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: The ancient philosophers believed that the types of natural things didn't come from any intellect but happened by chance. However, since they recognized that truth involves a connection to intellect, they had to link the truth of things to our intellect. This led to conclusions that are unacceptable, which the Philosopher argues against (Metaph. iv). However, such conclusions don't arise if we say that the truth of things depends on their relationship to the divine intellect.

Reply Obj. 3: Although the truth of our intellect is caused by the thing, yet it is not necessary that truth should be there primarily, any more than that health should be primarily in medicine, rather than in the animal: for the virtue of medicine, and not its health, is the cause of health, for here the agent is not univocal. In the same way, the being of the thing, not its truth, is the cause of truth in the intellect. Hence the Philosopher says that a thought or a word is true "from the fact that a thing is, not because a thing is true." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: While the truth of our understanding is influenced by the thing itself, it doesn't have to be primarily present in it, just like health isn’t primarily found in medicine, but in the living being. The effectiveness of medicine, not its health, is what brings about health, since the cause here isn't straightforward. Similarly, the existence of the thing, not its truth, is what generates truth in our understanding. Therefore, the Philosopher states that a thought or a word is true "because a thing exists, not because a thing is true."

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 2]

Whether Truth Resides Only in the Intellect Composing and Dividing?

Whether Truth Exists Only in the Mind That Creates and Analyzes?

Objection 1: It seems that truth does not reside only in the intellect composing and dividing. For the Philosopher says (De Anima iii) that as the senses are always true as regards their proper sensible objects, so is the intellect as regards "what a thing is." Now composition and division are neither in the senses nor in the intellect knowing "what a thing is." Therefore truth does not reside only in the intellect composing and dividing.

Objection 1: It appears that truth isn't found only in the intellect that composes and divides. The Philosopher states (De Anima iii) that just as the senses are always accurate concerning their specific objects, the intellect is accurate concerning "what a thing is." Since composition and division don't occur in the senses or in the intellect understanding "what a thing is," it follows that truth doesn't exist solely in the intellect that composes and divides.

Obj. 2: Further, Isaac says in his book On Definitions that truth is the equation of thought and thing. Now just as the intellect with regard to complex things can be equated to things, so also with regard to simple things; and this is true also of sense apprehending a thing as it is. Therefore truth does not reside only in the intellect composing and dividing.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Isaac states in his book On Definitions that truth is the alignment of thought and reality. Just as the mind can relate complex concepts to real objects, it can also do so with simple concepts; this is also true for sensory perception understanding something as it truly is. Thus, truth is not solely found in the intellect that analyzes and categorizes.

On the contrary, the Philosopher says (Metaph. vi) that with regard to simple things and "what a thing is," truth is "found neither in the intellect nor in things."

On the contrary, the Philosopher says (Metaph. vi) that when it comes to simple things and "what a thing is," truth is "not found in the intellect or in things."

I answer that, As stated before, truth resides, in its primary aspect, in the intellect. Now since everything is true according as it has the form proper to its nature, the intellect, in so far as it is knowing, must be true, so far as it has the likeness of the thing known, this being its form, as knowing. For this reason truth is defined by the conformity of intellect and thing; and hence to know this conformity is to know truth. But in no way can sense know this. For although sight has the likeness of a visible thing, yet it does not know the comparison which exists between the thing seen and that which itself apprehends concerning it. But the intellect can know its own conformity with the intelligible thing; yet it does not apprehend it by knowing of a thing "what a thing is." When, however, it judges that a thing corresponds to the form which it apprehends about that thing, then first it knows and expresses truth. This it does by composing and dividing: for in every proposition it either applies to, or removes from the thing signified by the subject, some form signified by the predicate: and this clearly shows that the sense is true of any thing, as is also the intellect, when it knows "what a thing is"; but it does not thereby know or affirm truth. This is in like manner the case with complex or non-complex words. Truth therefore may be in the senses, or in the intellect knowing "what a thing is," as in anything that is true; yet not as the thing known in the knower, which is implied by the word "truth"; for the perfection of the intellect is truth as known. Therefore, properly speaking, truth resides in the intellect composing and dividing; and not in the senses; nor in the intellect knowing "what a thing is."

I answer that, As mentioned earlier, truth primarily exists in the intellect. Since everything is true based on its nature, the intellect, in its capacity for knowledge, must also be true as it reflects the thing known, which is its essence as a knowing entity. For this reason, truth is defined as the alignment between the intellect and the thing; thus, understanding this alignment is to understand truth. However, sensory perception cannot grasp this. Although sight mirrors a visible object, it cannot recognize the relationship between the observed object and what it understands about it. On the other hand, the intellect can understand its alignment with the intelligible object; however, it doesn't grasp it merely by knowing "what a thing is." It's only when it judges that an object matches the form it perceives of that object that it truly understands and articulates truth. It achieves this through the processes of composition and division: in every statement, it either applies to or removes a form indicated by the predicate from the subject. This clearly indicates that while the senses can be true about something, as can the intellect when it knows "what a thing is," it doesn't necessarily understand or affirm truth. The same applies to complex or simple words. Therefore, truth can exist in the senses or in the intellect knowing "what a thing is," as in anything true; however, it’s not the same as the thing known residing within the knower, which is what the term "truth" implies; for the true nature of the intellect is truth as understood. Thus, properly speaking, truth resides in the intellect through composition and division, not in the senses, nor in the intellect merely knowing "what a thing is."

And thus the Objections given are solved. _______________________

And so, the objections raised are resolved. _______________________

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 3]

Whether the True and Being Are Convertible Terms?

Whether "True" and "Being" Are Convertible Terms?

Objection 1: It seems that the true and being are not convertible terms. For the true resides properly in the intellect, as stated (A. 1); but being is properly in things. Therefore they are not convertible.

Objection 1: It appears that truth and being are not interchangeable terms. Truth is properly found in the intellect, as mentioned (A. 1); but being is fundamentally linked to things. Therefore, they are not interchangeable.

Obj. 2: Further, that which extends to being and not-being is not convertible with being. But the true extends to being and not-being; for it is true that what is, is; and that what is not, is not. Therefore the true and being are not convertible.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, what relates to being and non-being cannot be interchangeable with being. However, the truth pertains to being and non-being; it is indeed true that what exists, exists; and that what does not exist, does not exist. Therefore, truth and being are not interchangeable.

Obj. 3: Further, things which stand to each other in order of priority and posteriority seem not to be convertible. But the true appears to be prior to being; for being is not understood except under the aspect of the true. Therefore it seems they are not convertible.

Obj. 3: Additionally, things that are related in terms of priority and posteriority don’t seem to be interchangeable. However, the true is seen as prior to being; because being is only understood through the lens of the true. Therefore, it appears they are not interchangeable.

On the contrary, the Philosopher says (Metaph. ii) that there is the same disposition of things in being and in truth.

On the contrary, the Philosopher says (Metaph. ii) that there is the same arrangement of things in existence and in reality.

I answer that, As good has the nature of what is desirable, so truth is related to knowledge. Now everything, in as far as it has being, so far is it knowable. Wherefore it is said in De Anima iii that "the soul is in some manner all things," through the senses and the intellect. And therefore, as good is convertible with being, so is the true. But as good adds to being the notion of desirable, so the true adds relation to the intellect.

I respond that, just as goodness embodies what is desirable, truth is connected to knowledge. Everything that exists is knowable to some extent. This is why it is stated in De Anima iii that "the soul encompasses all things" through our senses and intellect. Thus, just as goodness is interchangeable with being, so is truth. However, while goodness adds the concept of desirability to being, truth adds a relationship to the intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: The true resides in things and in the intellect, as said before (A. 1). But the true that is in things is convertible with being as to substance; while the true that is in the intellect is convertible with being, as the manifestation with the manifested; for this belongs to the nature of truth, as has been said already (A. 1). It may, however, be said that being also is in things and in the intellect, as is the true; although truth is primarily in the intellect, while being is primarily in things; and this is so because truth and being differ in idea.

Reply Obj. 1: The truth exists in both things and in the intellect, as mentioned before (A. 1). The truth that exists in things is equivalent to existence in terms of substance, while the truth in the intellect is linked to existence, similar to how the manifestation relates to the manifested. This is part of the nature of truth, as previously stated (A. 1). However, it can also be argued that existence is present in both things and in the intellect, just like truth is; although truth primarily resides in the intellect, while existence is primarily found in things. This distinction exists because truth and existence differ in concept.

Reply Obj. 2: Not-being has nothing in itself whereby it can be known; yet it is known in so far as the intellect renders it knowable. Hence the true is based on being, inasmuch as not-being is a kind of logical being, apprehended, that is, by reason.

Reply Obj. 2: Non-existence has nothing in itself that allows it to be understood; however, it is understood because the intellect makes it knowable. Therefore, the truth is grounded in existence, since non-existence is a sort of logical entity that is understood by reason.

Reply Obj. 3: When it is said that being cannot be apprehended except under the notion of the true, this can be understood in two ways. In the one way so as to mean that being is not apprehended, unless the idea of the true follows apprehension of being; and this is true. In the other way, so as to mean that being cannot be apprehended unless the idea of the true be apprehended also; and this is false. But the true cannot be apprehended unless the idea of being be apprehended also; since being is included in the idea of the true. The case is the same if we compare the intelligible object with being. For being cannot be understood, unless being is intelligible. Yet being can be understood while its intelligibility is not understood. Similarly, being when understood is true, yet the true is not understood by understanding being. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: When people say that we can't grasp being without understanding it as true, there are two interpretations. One interpretation means that we don’t grasp being unless we also consider the idea of what’s true; and this is correct. The other interpretation suggests that we can’t grasp being unless we also grasp the idea of what’s true; and this is incorrect. However, we can't grasp what’s true without also grasping the concept of being, since being is part of what it means for something to be true. The same goes for comparing the intelligible object with being. We can't really understand being unless it is intelligible. Yet, we can understand being even if we don’t fully understand its intelligibility. Similarly, when being is understood, it is considered true, but we don’t grasp the concept of truth simply by understanding being.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 4]

Whether Good Is Logically Prior to the True?

Whether good is logically prior to the true?

Objection 1: It seems that good is logically prior to the true. For what is more universal is logically prior, as is evident from Phys. i. But the good is more universal than the true, since the true is a kind of good, namely, of the intellect. Therefore the good is logically prior to the true.

Objection 1: It appears that the good comes before the true in logical terms. What is more universal precedes what is less universal, as shown in Phys. i. The good is more universal than the true, because the true is a type of good, specifically related to the intellect. Therefore, the good logically comes before the true.

Obj. 2: Further, good is in things, but the true in the intellect composing and dividing as said above (A. 2). But that which is in things is prior to that which is in the intellect. Therefore good is logically prior to the true.

Obj. 2: Additionally, good exists in things, while the true exists in the intellect, which analyzes and categorizes as mentioned earlier (A. 2). However, what exists in things is prior to what exists in the intellect. Therefore, good is logically prior to the true.

Obj. 3: Further, truth is a species of virtue, as is clear from Ethic. iv. But virtue is included under good; since, as Augustine says (De Lib. Arbit. ii, 19), it is a good quality of the mind. Therefore the good is prior to the true.

Obj. 3: Additionally, truth is a type of virtue, as shown in Ethic. iv. But virtue falls under the category of good; since, as Augustine states (De Lib. Arbit. ii, 19), it is a positive quality of the mind. Therefore, the good comes before the true.

On the contrary, What is in more things is prior logically. But the true is in some things wherein good is not, as, for instance, in mathematics. Therefore the true is prior to good.

On the contrary, What is in more things is logically prior. However, the truth exists in some areas where good does not, such as in mathematics. Therefore, the truth is prior to good.

I answer that, Although the good and the true are convertible with being, as to suppositum, yet they differ logically. And in this manner the true, speaking absolutely, is prior to good, as appears from two reasons. First, because the true is more closely related to being than is good. For the true regards being itself simply and immediately; while the nature of good follows being in so far as being is in some way perfect; for thus it is desirable. Secondly, it is evident from the fact that knowledge naturally precedes appetite. Hence, since the true regards knowledge, but the good regards the appetite, the true must be prior in idea to the good.

I respond that, Although truth and goodness are interchangeable when it comes to existence, they differ logically. In this sense, the true, in the absolute sense, comes before the good, as shown by two reasons. First, because truth is more directly related to existence than goodness. Truth concerns existence itself directly and immediately, while the concept of goodness derives from existence in terms of its perfection; thus, it is desirable. Secondly, it is clear that knowledge naturally comes before desire. Therefore, since truth relates to knowledge, while goodness relates to desire, truth must come before goodness conceptually.

Reply Obj. 1: The will and the intellect mutually include one another: for the intellect understands the will, and the will wills the intellect to understand. So then, among things directed to the object of the will, are comprised also those that belong to the intellect; and conversely. Whence in the order of things desirable, good stands as the universal, and the true as the particular; whereas in the order of intelligible things the converse is the case. From the fact, then, that the true is a kind of good, it follows that the good is prior in the order of things desirable; but not that it is prior absolutely.

Reply Obj. 1: The will and the intellect are interconnected: the intellect understands the will, and the will desires the intellect to understand. Therefore, the things aimed at by the will also include those related to the intellect, and vice versa. In the hierarchy of things people want, good is seen as the universal, and true as the specific; whereas in the hierarchy of things that can be understood, it’s the opposite. Since the true is a type of good, it follows that good takes precedence in terms of what people desire, but that doesn't mean it is absolutely prior.

Reply Obj. 2: A thing is prior logically in so far as it is prior to the intellect. Now the intellect apprehends primarily being itself; secondly, it apprehends that it understands being; and thirdly, it apprehends that it desires being. Hence the idea of being is first, that of truth second, and the idea of good third, though good is in things.

Reply Obj. 2: Something is considered logically prior as long as it comes before the intellect. The intellect first understands being itself; next, it understands that it comprehends being; and finally, it understands that it desires being. Therefore, the concept of being comes first, followed by the concept of truth, and then the concept of good, even though good exists in things.

Reply Obj. 3: The virtue which is called "truth" is not truth in general, but a certain kind of truth according to which man shows himself in deed and word as he really is. But truth as applied to "life" is used in a particular sense, inasmuch as a man fulfills in his life that to which he is ordained by the divine intellect, as it has been said that truth exists in other things (A. 1). Whereas the truth of "justice" is found in man as he fulfills his duty to his neighbor, as ordained by law. Hence we cannot argue from these particular truths to truth in general. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The virtue called "truth" isn't just truth in general, but a specific type of truth where a person presents himself accurately in both actions and words. When we talk about "truth" in relation to "life," it has a specific meaning, as it refers to how a person lives out the purpose given to him by the divine intellect, as mentioned earlier regarding truth in other contexts (A. 1). Meanwhile, the truth of "justice" is seen in how a person fulfills their responsibilities to others, as defined by law. Therefore, we cannot draw conclusions about general truth based on these specific truths.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 5]

Whether God Is Truth?

Is God the truth?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not truth. For truth consists in the intellect composing and dividing. But in God there is not composition and division. Therefore in Him there is not truth.

Objection 1: It seems that God is not truth. Truth is based on the intellect's ability to create and separate ideas. But in God, there is no creation or separation. Therefore, there is no truth in Him.

Obj. 2: Further, truth, according to Augustine (De Vera Relig. xxxvi) is a "likeness to the principle." But in God there is no likeness to a principle. Therefore in God there is not truth.

Obj. 2: Additionally, truth, according to Augustine (De Vera Relig. xxxvi), is a "similarity to the principle." But in God, there is no similarity to a principle. Therefore, there is no truth in God.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever is said of God, is said of Him as of the first cause of all things; thus the being of God is the cause of all being; and His goodness the cause of all good. If therefore there is truth in God, all truth will be from Him. But it is true that someone sins. Therefore this will be from God; which is evidently false.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, anything said about God refers to Him as the first cause of everything; thus, God's existence is the cause of all existence, and His goodness is the cause of all good. Therefore, if there is truth in God, all truth comes from Him. However, it is true that someone sins. Therefore, this must come from God, which is clearly false.

On the contrary, Our Lord says, "I am the Way, the Truth, and the Life" (John 14:6).

On the contrary, Our Lord says, "I am the Way, the Truth, and the Life" (John 14:6).

I answer that, As said above (A. 1), truth is found in the intellect according as it apprehends a thing as it is; and in things according as they have being conformable to an intellect. This is to the greatest degree found in God. For His being is not only conformed to His intellect, but it is the very act of His intellect; and His act of understanding is the measure and cause of every other being and of every other intellect, and He Himself is His own existence and act of understanding. Whence it follows not only that truth is in Him, but that He is truth itself, and the sovereign and first truth.

I respond that, as mentioned earlier (A. 1), truth exists in the intellect as it understands something for what it truly is; and in things as they exist in accordance with an intellect. This is most completely realized in God. His existence is not only aligned with His intellect, but it is actually the very expression of His intellect; and His understanding is the standard and source of all other existence and intellect. He is both His own existence and act of understanding. Therefore, it follows that not only is truth found in Him, but that He is truth itself, the ultimate and first truth.

Reply Obj. 1: Although in the divine intellect there is neither composition nor division, yet in His simple act of intelligence He judges of all things and knows all things complex; and thus there is truth in His intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though there's no composition or division in the divine intellect, He still assesses all things and understands complex matters through His simple act of intelligence; therefore, there is truth in His intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: The truth of our intellect is according to its conformity with its principle, that is to say, to the things from which it receives knowledge. The truth also of things is according to their conformity with their principle, namely, the divine intellect. Now this cannot be said, properly speaking, of divine truth; unless perhaps in so far as truth is appropriated to the Son, Who has a principle. But if we speak of divine truth in its essence, we cannot understand this unless the affirmative must be resolved into the negative, as when one says: "the Father is of Himself, because He is not from another." Similarly, the divine truth can be called a "likeness to the principle," inasmuch as His existence is not dissimilar to His intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: The truth of our understanding depends on how well it aligns with its source, meaning the things from which it gains knowledge. The truth of things also relies on their alignment with their source, which is the divine intellect. This can't be correctly applied to divine truth, except perhaps in relation to the Son, who has a source. However, if we talk about divine truth in its essence, we can only comprehend it by recognizing that the affirmative must be understood through the negative, like when one says, "the Father is of Himself because He is not derived from another." In a similar way, divine truth can be seen as a "likeness to the source," since His existence is not unlike His intellect.

Reply Obj. 3: Not-being and privation have no truth of themselves, but only in the apprehension of the intellect. Now all apprehension of the intellect is from God. Hence all the truth that exists in the statement—"that a person commits fornication is true"—is entirely from God. But to argue, "Therefore that this person fornicates is from God", is a fallacy of Accident. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Non-existence and lack don’t have truth on their own, but only in how the mind understands them. All understanding comes from God. Therefore, all the truth in the statement—"that a person commits fornication is true"—comes entirely from God. However, to argue, "Therefore this person fornicates is from God," is a mistake based on an accident.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 6]

Whether There Is Only One Truth, According to Which All Things Are True?

Whether there is only one truth that makes everything true?

Objection 1: It seems that there is only one truth, according to which all things are true. For according to Augustine (De Trin. xv, 1), "nothing is greater than the mind of man, except God." Now truth is greater than the mind of man; otherwise the mind would be the judge of truth: whereas in fact it judges all things according to truth, and not according to its own measure. Therefore God alone is truth. Therefore there is no other truth but God.

Objection 1: It appears that there is only one truth, which makes everything true. As Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 1), "nothing is greater than the mind of man, except God." Truth is greater than the mind of man; otherwise, the mind would be the standard for truth. However, it actually evaluates everything based on truth, not its own perspective. Therefore, God alone is truth. So, there is no truth other than God.

Obj. 2: Further, Anselm says (De Verit. xiv), that, "as is the relation of time to temporal things, so is that of truth to true things." But there is only one time for all temporal things. Therefore there is only one truth, by which all things are true.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Anselm states (De Verit. xiv), that "the relationship between time and temporal things is like that between truth and true things." However, there is only one time for all temporal things. Therefore, there is only one truth, by which all things are true.

On the contrary, it is written (Ps. 11:2), "Truths are decayed from among the children of men."

On the contrary, it is written (Ps. 11:2), "Truths have faded away from among humans."

I answer that, In one sense truth, whereby all things are true, is one, and in another sense it is not. In proof of which we must consider that when anything is predicated of many things univocally, it is found in each of them according to its proper nature; as animal is found in each species of animal. But when anything is predicated of many things analogically, it is found in only one of them according to its proper nature, and from this one the rest are denominated. So healthiness is predicated of animal, of urine, and of medicine, not that health is only in the animal; but from the health of the animal, medicine is called healthy, in so far as it is the cause of health, and urine is called healthy, in so far as it indicates health. And although health is neither in medicine nor in urine, yet in either there is something whereby the one causes, and the other indicates health. Now we have said (A. 1) that truth resides primarily in the intellect; and secondarily in things, according as they are related to the divine intellect. If therefore we speak of truth, as it exists in the intellect, according to its proper nature, then are there many truths in many created intellects; and even in one and the same intellect, according to the number of things known. Whence a gloss on Ps. 11:2, "Truths are decayed from among the children of men," says: "As from one man's face many likenesses are reflected in a mirror, so many truths are reflected from the one divine truth." But if we speak of truth as it is in things, then all things are true by one primary truth; to which each one is assimilated according to its own entity. And thus, although the essences or forms of things are many, yet the truth of the divine intellect is one, in conformity to which all things are said to be true.

I answer that, in one way, truth, which makes everything true, is one, and in another way, it is not. To illustrate this, we need to consider that when something is said to be true of many things in the same way, it exists in each of them according to its true nature; for example, "animal" applies to each species of animal. However, when something is said to be true of many things in an analogous way, it exists in just one of them according to its true nature, and from this one, the others take their names. For instance, healthiness is attributed to an animal, to urine, and to medicine, not because health exists only in the animal, but because the health of the animal makes medicine be called healthy, as it causes health, and urine is called healthy as it indicates health. Even though health is neither in medicine nor in urine, there is something in each that either causes or indicates health. Now, we stated (A. 1) that truth primarily exists in the intellect and secondarily in things, according to how they relate to the divine intellect. Therefore, if we talk about truth as it exists in the intellect, according to its true nature, then there are many truths in many created intellects; and even within a single intellect, there are as many truths as there are things known. A commentary on Ps. 11:2, "Truths are decayed from among the children of men," says: "Just as a mirror reflects many images from one person's face, many truths are reflected from one divine truth." But if we talk about truth as it is in things, then everything is true by one primary truth, to which each one corresponds based on its own nature. Thus, even though the essences or forms of things are many, the truth of the divine intellect is one, and all things are said to be true in accordance with it.

Reply Obj. 1: The soul does not judge of things according to any kind of truth, but according to the primary truth, inasmuch as it is reflected in the soul, as in a mirror, by reason of the first principles of the understanding. It follows, therefore, that the primary truth is greater than the soul. And yet, even created truth, which resides in our intellect, is greater than the soul, not simply, but in a certain degree, in so far as it is its perfection; even as science may be said to be greater than the soul. Yet it is true that nothing subsisting is greater than the rational soul, except God.

Reply Obj. 1: The soul doesn’t judge things based on any kind of truth, but on the ultimate truth, as it is reflected in the soul like a mirror through the fundamental principles of understanding. Therefore, the ultimate truth is greater than the soul. However, even the created truth that exists in our intellect is greater than the soul, not in a simple way, but to some extent, as it represents its perfection; much like how we can say that knowledge is greater than the soul. Still, it is true that nothing that exists is greater than the rational soul, except for God.

Reply Obj. 2: The saying of Anselm is correct in so far as things are said to be true by their relation to the divine intellect. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Anselm's statement is accurate in that things are considered true based on their connection to the divine intellect.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 7]

Whether Created Truth Is Eternal?

Is created truth eternal?

Objection 1: It seems that created truth is eternal. For Augustine says (De Lib. Arbit. ii, 8) "Nothing is more eternal than the nature of a circle, and that two added to three make five." But the truth of these is a created truth. Therefore created truth is eternal.

Objection 1: It appears that created truth is eternal. For Augustine says (De Lib. Arbit. ii, 8) "Nothing is more eternal than the nature of a circle, and that two added to three make five." But the truth of these statements is a created truth. Therefore, created truth is eternal.

Obj. 2: Further, that which is always, is eternal. But universals are always and everywhere; therefore they are eternal. So therefore is truth, which is the most universal.

Obj. 2: Also, that which is always exists eternally. But universals are always present and everywhere; therefore, they are eternal. Thus, truth, which is the most universal concept, is also eternal.

Obj. 3: Further, it was always true that what is true in the present was to be in the future. But as the truth of a proposition regarding the present is a created truth, so is that of a proposition regarding the future. Therefore some created truth is eternal.

Obj. 3: Additionally, it has always been true that what is true now will also be true in the future. However, since the truth of a statement about the present is a created truth, the same goes for a statement about the future. Therefore, some created truth is eternal.

Obj. 4: Further, all that is without beginning and end is eternal. But the truth of enunciables is without beginning and end; for if their truth had a beginning, since it was not before, it was true that truth was not, and true, of course, by reason of truth; so that truth was before it began to be. Similarly, if it be asserted that truth has an end, it follows that it is after it has ceased to be, for it will still be true that truth is not. Therefore truth is eternal.

Obj. 4: Also, everything that has no beginning or end is eternal. But the truth of statements has no beginning or end; if its truth had a beginning, then before that moment it was true that truth did not exist, which is obviously a contradiction because it refers to truth itself; so that truth existed before it came into being. Likewise, if someone claims that truth has an end, it implies that it exists after it has ceased to be, because it will still be true that truth does not exist. Therefore, truth is eternal.

On the contrary, God alone is eternal, as laid down before (Q. 10, Art. 3).

On the contrary, God alone is eternal, as stated before (Q. 10, Art. 3).

I answer that, The truth of enunciations is no other than the truth of the intellect. For an enunciation resides in the intellect, and in speech. Now according as it is in the intellect it has truth of itself: but according as it is in speech, it is called enunciable truth, according as it signifies some truth of the intellect, not on account of any truth residing in the enunciation, as though in a subject. Thus urine is called healthy, not from any health within it but from the health of an animal which it indicates. In like manner it has been already said that things are called true from the truth of the intellect. Hence, if no intellect were eternal, no truth would be eternal. Now because only the divine intellect is eternal, in it alone truth has eternity. Nor does it follow from this that anything else but God is eternal; since the truth of the divine intellect is God Himself, as shown already (A. 5).

I answer that, The truth of statements is nothing other than the truth of the mind. An assertion exists in both the mind and in speech. When it exists in the mind, it holds truth in itself; but when it is expressed in speech, it is referred to as “enunciable truth,” as it signifies some truth of the mind, not due to any truth found in the statement itself, as if it were a subject. Just as urine is called healthy, not because it has any health within it, but because it indicates the health of an animal. Similarly, it has already been stated that things are considered true based on the truth of the mind. Therefore, if no intellect were eternal, no truth would be eternal. Since only the divine intellect is eternal, it alone possesses eternal truth. This does not imply that anything other than God is eternal, as the truth of the divine intellect is God Himself, as previously demonstrated (A. 5).

Reply Obj. 1: The nature of a circle, and the fact that two and three make five, have eternity in the mind of God.

Reply Obj. 1: The nature of a circle, and the fact that two and three make five, exist eternally in the mind of God.

Reply Obj. 2: That something is always and everywhere, can be understood in two ways. In one way, as having in itself the power of extension to all time and to all places, as it belongs to God to be everywhere and always. In the other way as not having in itself determination to any place or time, as primary matter is said to be one, not because it has one form, but by the absence of all distinguishing form. In this manner all universals are said to be everywhere and always, in so far as universals are independent of place and time. It does not, however, follow from this that they are eternal, except in an intellect, if one exists that is eternal.

Reply Obj. 2: The idea that something exists always and everywhere can be understood in two ways. One way is that it has the ability to be present in all times and places, which is true of God, who is everywhere and always. The other way is that it doesn't have a specific location or time, like primary matter, which is considered one not because it has a single form, but because it lacks any defining form. In this sense, all universals are said to exist everywhere and always, as universals are not limited by place and time. However, this doesn't mean they are eternal, except in a mind that is eternal, if such a mind exists.

Reply Obj. 3: That which now is, was future, before it (actually) was; because it was in its cause that it would be. Hence, if the cause were removed, that thing's coming to be was not future. But the first cause is alone eternal. Hence it does not follow that it was always true that what now is would be, except in so far as its future being was in the sempiternal cause; and God alone is such a cause.

Reply Obj. 3: What exists now was once in the future before it actually came to be; it was in its cause that it would exist. Therefore, if the cause were removed, that thing's coming into existence was not future. But the first cause is the only eternal one. Thus, it does not mean that it was always true that what exists now would happen, except in so far as its future existence was in the eternal cause; and only God is that cause.

Reply Obj. 4: Because our intellect is not eternal, neither is the truth of enunciable propositions which are formed by us, eternal, but it had a beginning in time. Now before such truth existed, it was not true to say that such a truth did exist, except by reason of the divine intellect, wherein alone truth is eternal. But it is true now to say that that truth did not then exist: and this is true only by reason of the truth that is now in our intellect; and not by reason of any truth in the things. For this is truth concerning not-being; and not-being has not truth of itself, but only so far as our intellect apprehends it. Hence it is true to say that truth did not exist, in so far as we apprehend its not-being as preceding its being. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Because our intellect is not eternal, the truth of the statements we create is also not eternal; it had a beginning in time. Before such truth existed, it wasn't accurate to say that such truth existed, except in relation to the divine intellect, where alone truth is eternal. But it is accurate now to say that that truth did not exist then: and this is only true because of the truth we now hold in our intellect; and not because of any truth found in the things themselves. This statement reflects a truth about non-existence; and non-existence does not possess truth by itself, but only to the extent that our intellect perceives it. Therefore, it is accurate to say that truth did not exist, as we perceive its non-existence as coming before its existence.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 16, Art. 8]

Whether Truth Is Immutable?

Is truth unchanging?

Objection 1: It seems that truth is immutable. For Augustine says (De Lib. Arbit. ii, 12), that "Truth and mind do not rank as equals, otherwise truth would be mutable, as the mind is."

Objection 1: It appears that truth is unchanging. Augustine says (De Lib. Arbit. ii, 12), that "Truth and mind are not on the same level; otherwise, truth would change, just like the mind does."

Obj. 2: Further, what remains after every change is immutable; as primary matter is unbegotten and incorruptible, since it remains after all generation and corruption. But truth remains after all change; for after every change it is true to say that a thing is, or is not. Therefore truth is immutable.

Obj. 2: Additionally, what is left after every change is unchanging; since primary matter is neither created nor destroyed, as it persists after all formation and decay. Similarly, truth persists after all changes; because after every alteration, it is accurate to state that something exists, or does not exist. Thus, truth is unchanging.

Obj. 3: Further, if the truth of an enunciation changes, it changes mostly with the changing of the thing. But it does not thus change. For truth, according to Anselm (De Verit. viii), "is a certain rightness" in so far as a thing answers to that which is in the divine mind concerning it. But this proposition that "Socrates sits", receives from the divine mind the signification that Socrates does sit; and it has the same signification even though he does not sit. Therefore the truth of the proposition in no way changes.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if the truth of a statement changes, it typically changes along with the thing itself. However, this is not the case here. According to Anselm (De Verit. viii), "truth is a certain rightness" in that a thing corresponds to what is in the divine mind about it. This statement "Socrates sits" receives from the divine mind the meaning that Socrates does sit; and it holds the same meaning even if he is not sitting. Thus, the truth of the statement does not change at all.

Obj. 4: Further, where there is the same cause, there is the same effect. But the same thing is the cause of the truth of the three propositions, "Socrates sits, will sit, sat." Therefore the truth of each is the same. But one or other of these must be the true one. Therefore the truth of these propositions remains immutable; and for the same reason that of any other.

Obj. 4: Additionally, if there's the same cause, there will be the same effect. The same thing is the reason for the truth of the three statements, "Socrates sits, will sit, sat." So, the truth of each statement is the same. However, one of these must be the true statement. Therefore, the truth of these statements is unchanging; and for the same reason, so is the truth of any other statements.

On the contrary, It is written (Ps. 11:2), "Truths are decayed from among the children of men."

On the contrary, It is written (Ps. 11:2), "Truths have disappeared among the children of men."

I answer that, Truth, properly speaking, resides only in the intellect, as said before (A. 1); but things are called true in virtue of the truth residing in an intellect. Hence the mutability of truth must be regarded from the point of view of the intellect, the truth of which consists in its conformity to the thing understood. Now this conformity may vary in two ways, even as any other likeness, through change in one of the two extremes. Hence in one way truth varies on the part of the intellect, from the fact that a change of opinion occurs about a thing which in itself has not changed, and in another way, when the thing is changed, but not the opinion; and in either way there can be a change from true to false. If, then, there is an intellect wherein there can be no alternation of opinions, and the knowledge of which nothing can escape, in this is immutable truth. Now such is the divine intellect, as is clear from what has been said before (Q. 14, A. 15). Hence the truth of the divine intellect is immutable. But the truth of our intellect is mutable; not because it is itself the subject of change, but in so far as our intellect changes from truth to falsity, for thus forms may be called mutable. Whereas the truth of the divine intellect is that according to which natural things are said to be true, and this is altogether immutable.

I answer that, Truth, in the strictest sense, exists only in the intellect, as mentioned earlier (A. 1); however, things are considered true because of the truth within an intellect. Therefore, the changeability of truth should be viewed through the lens of the intellect, which is based on its alignment with what it understands. This alignment can change in two ways, just like any other similarity, due to a change in one of the two extremes. First, truth can vary in the intellect when opinions about something change even though that thing itself hasn’t changed. Secondly, truth can also change when the object itself changes but the opinion doesn’t; in either case, there can be a shift from true to false. If there exists an intellect where opinions cannot fluctuate and from which nothing can be overlooked, then that intellect holds immutable truth. Such is the case with the divine intellect, as has been previously established (Q. 14, A. 15). Therefore, the truth of the divine intellect is unchanging. In contrast, the truth of our intellect is changeable; not because it is inherently subject to change, but because our intellect transitions from truth to falsehood, thus making its forms mutable. The truth of the divine intellect, however, is what defines natural things as true, and this truth is completely unchangeable.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine is speaking of divine truth.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine is talking about divine truth.

Reply Obj. 2: The true and being are convertible terms. Hence just as being is not generated nor corrupted of itself, but accidentally, in so far as this being or that is corrupted or generated, as is said in Phys. i, so does truth change, not so as that no truth remains, but because that truth does not remain which was before.

Reply Obj. 2: Truth and being are interchangeable concepts. Just as being isn’t created or destroyed by itself, but rather happens incidentally when a certain being is created or destroyed, as mentioned in Phys. i, truth also changes. This doesn’t mean that no truth persists, but rather that the truth that existed before no longer stays the same.

Reply Obj. 3: A proposition not only has truth, as other things are said to have it, in so far, that is, as they correspond to that which is the design of the divine intellect concerning them; but it is said to have truth in a special way, in so far as it indicates the truth of the intellect, which consists in the conformity of the intellect with a thing. When this disappears, the truth of an opinion changes, and consequently the truth of the proposition. So therefore this proposition, "Socrates sits," is true, as long as he is sitting, both with the truth of the thing, in so far as the expression is significative, and with the truth of signification, in so far as it signifies a true opinion. When Socrates rises, the first truth remains, but the second is changed.

Reply Obj. 3: A statement has truth, similar to how other things are said to have it, in that it aligns with what the divine intellect intended for them. However, it possesses truth in a unique way because it reflects the truth of the intellect, which is about the alignment of the intellect with reality. When this alignment is lost, the truth of an opinion shifts, and thus the truth of the statement changes as well. Therefore, the statement "Socrates sits" is true as long as he is sitting, both in terms of the reality it describes and in terms of the fact that it conveys a true opinion. When Socrates stands up, the reality remains, but the truth of the statement changes.

Reply Obj. 4: The sitting of Socrates, which is the cause of the truth of the proposition, "Socrates sits," has not the same meaning when Socrates sits, after he sits, and before he sits. Hence the truth which results, varies, and is variously signified by these propositions concerning present, past, or future. Thus it does not follow, though one of the three propositions is true, that the same truth remains invariable. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The act of Socrates sitting, which is the reason for the statement "Socrates sits" being true, doesn't have the same meaning when Socrates is sitting, after he has sat, and before he sits. Therefore, the truth that comes from this varies and is expressed differently in these statements about the present, past, or future. So, it doesn't follow that even if one of the three statements is true, the same truth stays constant.

QUESTION 17

CONCERNING FALSITY
(In Four Articles)

CONCERNING FALSITY
(In Four Parts)

We next consider falsity. About this four points of inquiry arise:

We now look at falsehood. Four questions come up regarding this:

(1) Whether falsity exists in things?

(1) Does falsity exist in things?

(2) Whether it exists in the sense?

(2) Does it exist in that sense?

(3) Whether it exists in the intellect?

(3) Does it exist in the mind?

(4) Concerning the opposition of the true and the false. _______________________

(4) About the clash between what is true and what is false. _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 17, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 17, Art. 1]

Whether Falsity Exists in Things?

Does falsity exist in things?

Objection 1: It appears that falsity does not exist in things. For Augustine says (Soliloq. ii, 8), "If the true is that which is, it will be concluded that the false exists nowhere; whatever reason may appear to the contrary."

Objection 1: It seems that falsehood doesn't exist in things. Augustine states (Soliloq. ii, 8), "If the true is what is, then it follows that the false exists nowhere, no matter what reasons might suggest otherwise."

Obj. 2: Further, false is derived from fallere (to deceive). But things do not deceive; for, as Augustine says (De Vera Relig. 33), they show nothing but their own species. Therefore the false is not found in things.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the word "false" comes from fallere (to deceive). However, things themselves do not deceive; as Augustine states (De Vera Relig. 33), they only show their own characteristics. Therefore, the false is not present in things.

Obj. 3: Further, the true is said to exist in things by conformity to the divine intellect, as stated above (Q. 16). But everything, in so far as it exists, imitates God. Therefore everything is true without admixture of falsity; and thus nothing is false.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, what is true is said to exist in things by aligning with the divine intellect, as mentioned above (Q. 16). However, everything that exists mirrors God. Therefore, everything is true without any mix of falsehood; and so, nothing is false.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Vera Relig. 34): "Every body is a true body and a false unity: for it imitates unity without being unity." But everything imitates the divine unity yet falls short of it. Therefore in all things falsity exists.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Vera Relig. 34): "Every body is a true body and a false unity: for it imitates unity without being unity." Yet everything imitates the divine unity but does not achieve it. Therefore, falsity exists in all things.

I answer that, Since true and false are opposed, and since opposites stand in relation to the same thing, we must needs seek falsity, where primarily we find truth; that is to say, in the intellect. Now, in things, neither truth nor falsity exists, except in relation to the intellect. And since every thing is denominated simply by what belongs to it per se, but is denominated relatively by what belongs to it accidentally; a thing indeed may be called false simply when compared with the intellect on which it depends, and to which it is compared per se but may be called false relatively as directed to another intellect, to which it is compared accidentally. Now natural things depend on the divine intellect, as artificial things on the human. Wherefore artificial things are said to be false simply and in themselves, in so far as they fall short of the form of the art; whence a craftsman is said to produce a false work, if it falls short of the proper operation of his art.

I respond that, since true and false are opposites, and opposites relate to the same subject, we must look for falsehood where we initially find truth; that is to say, in the mind. In reality, neither truth nor falsehood exists except in relation to the mind. And since everything is named simply by what belongs to it per se, but is named relatively by what belongs to it accidentally, something can indeed be called false when compared with the mind it depends on, and to which it is compared per se, but it may be called false relatively when directed toward another mind, to which it is compared accidentally. Natural things depend on divine intellect, just as artificial things depend on human intellect. Therefore, artificial things are described as false simply and in themselves, in that they do not meet the standards of their art; hence, a craftsman is said to produce a false work if it does not fulfill the proper operation of his art.

In things that depend on God, falseness cannot be found, in so far as they are compared with the divine intellect; since whatever takes place in things proceeds from the ordinance of that intellect, unless perhaps in the case of voluntary agents only, who have it in their power to withdraw themselves from what is so ordained; wherein consists the evil of sin. Thus sins themselves are called untruths and lies in the Scriptures, according to the words of the text, "Why do you love vanity, and seek after lying?" (Ps. 4:3): as on the other hand virtuous deeds are called the "truth of life" as being obedient to the order of the divine intellect. Thus it is said, "He that doth truth, cometh to the light" (John 3:21).

In matters that depend on God, there's no falseness when compared to the divine intellect; everything that happens is based on that intellect's will, except maybe when it comes to voluntary agents who can choose to act against what's ordained, which is the essence of sin. Therefore, sins are referred to as untruths and lies in the Scriptures, as seen in the phrase, "Why do you love vanity, and seek after lying?" (Ps. 4:3); on the other hand, virtuous actions are called the "truth of life" because they follow the order of the divine intellect. This is reflected in the statement, "He that does truth comes to the light" (John 3:21).

But in relation to our intellect, natural things which are compared thereto accidentally, can be called false; not simply, but relatively; and that in two ways. In one way according to the thing signified, and thus a thing is said to be false as being signified or represented by word or thought that is false. In this respect anything can be said to be false as regards any quality not possessed by it; as if we should say that a diameter is a false commensurable thing, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. v, 34). So, too, Augustine says (Soliloq. ii, 10): "The true tragedian is a false Hector": even as, on the contrary, anything can be called true, in regard to that which is becoming to it. In another way a thing can be called false, by way of cause—and thus a thing is said to be false that naturally begets a false opinion. And whereas it is innate in us to judge things by external appearances, since our knowledge takes its rise from sense, which principally and naturally deals with external accidents, therefore those external accidents, which resemble things other than themselves, are said to be false with respect to those things; thus gall is falsely honey; and tin, false gold. Regarding this, Augustine says (Soliloq. ii, 6): "We call those things false that appear to our apprehension like the true:" and the Philosopher says (Metaph. v, 34): "Things are called false that are naturally apt to appear such as they are not, or what they are not." In this way a man is called false as delighting in false opinions or words, and not because he can invent them; for in this way many wise and learned persons might be called false, as stated in Metaph. v, 34.

But in relation to our understanding, natural things that are compared to it accidentally can be considered false; not simply, but relatively; and this occurs in two ways. One way is according to the thing being represented, and thus something is said to be false if it is signified or represented by a word or thought that is false. In this regard, anything can be deemed false in relation to any quality it lacks; for example, if we call a diameter a false commensurable thing, as the Philosopher states (Metaph. v, 34). Similarly, Augustine says (Soliloq. ii, 10): "The true tragedian is a false Hector." Conversely, anything can also be called true in relation to what suits it. The other way a thing can be considered false is in terms of cause—meaning a thing is said to be false if it naturally produces a false opinion. Since it is instinctive for us to judge things by their outward appearances, our knowledge begins from our senses, which primarily and inherently deal with external aspects. Therefore, those external characteristics that resemble things other than themselves are called false in relation to those things; for instance, gall is falsely thought of as honey, and tin is falsely regarded as gold. In this context, Augustine states (Soliloq. ii, 6): "We call those things false that seem to us like the true," and the Philosopher declares (Metaph. v, 34): "Things are called false that are naturally likely to appear as what they are not, or what they are not." In this way, a person is labeled false if they take pleasure in false opinions or words, not because they can create them; for in this sense, many wise and learned individuals could be called false, as noted in Metaph. v, 34.

Reply Obj. 1: A thing compared with the intellect is said to be true in respect to what it is; and false in respect to what it is not. Hence, "The true tragedian is a false Hector," as stated in Soliloq. ii, 6. As, therefore, in things that are is found a certain non-being, so in things that are is found a degree of falseness.

Reply Obj. 1: When something is compared to the intellect, it's considered true based on what it is and false based on what it isn't. So, "The true tragedian is a false Hector," as mentioned in Soliloq. ii, 6. Just as there is a kind of non-being in things that exist, there is also a level of falseness in them.

Reply Obj. 2: Things do not deceive by their own nature, but by accident. For they give occasion to falsity, by the likeness they bear to things which they actually are not.

Reply Obj. 2: Things don’t deceive by their nature, but by chance. They create opportunities for falsehood because of the similarity they have to things that they really aren’t.

Reply Obj. 3: Things are said to be false, not as compared with the divine intellect, in which case they would be false simply, but as compared with our intellect; and thus they are false only relatively.

Reply Obj. 3: Things are considered false, not in relation to the divine intellect, since that would make them absolutely false, but in relation to our intellect; therefore, they are only relatively false.

To the argument which is urged on the contrary, likeness or defective representation does not involve the idea of falsity except in so far as it gives occasion to false opinion. Hence a thing is not always said to be false, because it resembles another thing; but only when the resemblance is such as naturally to produce a false opinion, not in any one case, but in the majority of instances. _______________________

To the argument that counters this, similarity or incomplete representation doesn't imply falsehood unless it leads to a mistaken belief. So, something isn't necessarily false just because it looks like something else; it's only considered false when the similarity tends to create a misleading impression, not just in one case, but in most instances.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 17, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 17, Art. 2]

Whether There Is Falsity in the Senses?

Whether There Is Falsity in the Senses?

Objection 1: It seems that falsity is not in the senses. For Augustine says (De Vera Relig. 33): "If all the bodily senses report as they are affected, I do not know what more we can require from them." Thus it seems that we are not deceived by the senses; and therefore that falsity is not in them.

Objection 1: It appears that falsehood is not found in the senses. Augustine states (De Vera Relig. 33): "If all the bodily senses report as they are affected, I don't know what more we can expect from them." Therefore, it seems that we are not misled by our senses; and as a result, falsehood is not present in them.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher says (Metaph. iv, 24) that falsity is not proper to the senses, but to the imagination.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the Philosopher states (Metaph. iv, 24) that falsehood is not inherent to the senses, but to the imagination.

Obj. 3: Further, in non-complex things there is neither true nor false, but in complex things only. But affirmation and negation do not belong to the senses. Therefore in the senses there is no falsity.

Obj. 3: Additionally, simple things aren't true or false, only complex things are. However, affirmation and negation aren't part of the senses. So, there's no falseness in the senses.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Soliloq. ii, 6), "It appears that the senses entrap us into error by their deceptive similitudes."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Soliloq. ii, 6), "It seems that the senses trick us into mistakes with their misleading appearances."

I answer that, Falsity is not to be sought in the senses except as truth is in them. Now truth is not in them in such a way as that the senses know truth, but in so far as they apprehend sensible things truly, as said above (Q. 16, A. 2), and this takes place through the senses apprehending things as they are, and hence it happens that falsity exists in the senses through their apprehending or judging things to be otherwise than they really are.

I respond that, Falsity shouldn't be found in the senses except in the same way that truth is found in them. Now, truth isn't in the senses in a way that the senses can understand truth, but rather in the sense that they correctly perceive sensible things, as mentioned earlier (Q. 16, A. 2). This occurs when the senses perceive things as they truly are, and therefore, falsity arises in the senses when they perceive or judge things differently from how they actually are.

The knowledge of things by the senses is in proportion to the existence of their likeness in the senses; and the likeness of a thing can exist in the senses in three ways. In the first way, primarily and of its own nature, as in sight there is the likeness of colors, and of other sensible objects proper to it. Secondly, of its own nature, though not primarily; as in sight there is the likeness of shape, size, and of other sensible objects common to more than one sense. Thirdly, neither primarily nor of its own nature, but accidentally, as in sight, there is the likeness of a man, not as man, but in so far as it is accidental to the colored object to be a man.

The understanding of things through the senses depends on the existence of their resemblance in those senses, and a thing can resemble another in three ways. First, primarily and inherently, like how colors and other visual objects are represented in sight. Second, inherently but not primarily; for instance, how the shape and size of objects can be seen in sight, which applies to more than one sense. Third, neither primarily nor inherently, but by chance; for example, in sight, one might see a man, not as a man per se, but as an accidental feature of the colored object that happens to resemble a man.

Sense, then, has no false knowledge about its proper objects, except accidentally and rarely, and then, because of the unsound organ it does not receive the sensible form rightly; just as other passive subjects because of their indisposition receive defectively the impressions of the agent. Hence, for instance, it happens that on account of an unhealthy tongue sweet seems bitter to a sick person. But as to common objects of sense, and accidental objects, even a rightly disposed sense may have a false judgment, because it is referred to them not directly, but accidentally, or as a consequence of being directed to other things.

Sense, then, doesn’t have incorrect understanding about its proper objects, except occasionally and rarely, and then it's due to a malfunctioning organ that doesn't accurately receive the sensory form; just like other passive subjects, which, due to their conditions, receive defective impressions from the agent. For example, a sick person may perceive sweetness as bitterness because of an unhealthy tongue. However, regarding common sensory objects and accidental objects, even a properly functioning sense can make incorrect judgments, because it relates to them not directly but indirectly, or as a result of being focused on other things.

Reply Obj. 1: The affection of sense is its sensation itself. Hence, from the fact that sense reports as it is affected, it follows that we are not deceived in the judgment by which we judge that we experience sensation. Since, however, sense is sometimes affected erroneously of that object, it follows that it sometimes reports erroneously of that object; and thus we are deceived by sense about the object, but not about the fact of sensation.

Reply Obj. 1: The feeling of our senses is their actual sensation. So, since our senses report based on how they are affected, it means we aren't mistaken in believing that we experience sensation. However, since our senses can sometimes react incorrectly to an object, they can also misreport that object; thus, we can be misled by our senses regarding the object, but not about the fact that we feel sensations.

Reply Obj. 2: Falsity is said not to be proper to sense, since sense is not deceived as to its proper object. Hence in another translation it is said more plainly, "Sense, about its proper object, is never false." Falsity is attributed to the imagination, as it represents the likeness of something even in its absence. Hence, when anyone perceives the likeness of a thing as if it were the thing itself, falsity results from such an apprehension; and for this reason the Philosopher says (Metaph. v, 34) that shadows, pictures, and dreams are said to be false inasmuch as they convey the likeness of things that are not present in substance.

Reply Obj. 2: Falsehood isn't associated with the senses because the senses aren't misled about their true objects. In another translation, it's stated more clearly, "The senses are never wrong about what they are meant to perceive." Falsehood is linked to the imagination since it can represent something even when it's not actually there. Therefore, when someone perceives a likeness of something as if it were the real thing, that leads to a false impression. This is why the Philosopher says (Metaph. v, 34) that shadows, pictures, and dreams are considered false because they show the likeness of things that aren't physically present.

Reply Obj. 3: This argument proves that the false is not in the sense, as in that which knows the true and the false. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: This argument shows that the false is not in the way that something recognizes the true and the false.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 17, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 17, Art. 3]

Whether Falsity Is in the Intellect?

Whether Falsehood Exists in the Mind?

Objection 1: It seems that falsity is not in the intellect. For Augustine says (Qq. lxxxiii, 32), "Everyone who is deceived, understands not that in which he is deceived." But falsity is said to exist in any knowledge in so far as we are deceived therein. Therefore falsity does not exist in the intellect.

Objection 1: It appears that falsehood is not present in the mind. For Augustine states (Qq. lxxxiii, 32), "Anyone who is misled does not understand what they are being misled about." However, falsehood is considered to exist in any knowledge to the extent that we are deceived by it. Therefore, falsehood does not exist in the mind.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 51) that the intellect is always right. Therefore there is no falsity in the intellect.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 51) that the intellect is always correct. Therefore, there is no falsehood in the intellect.

On the contrary, It is said in De Anima iii, 21, 22 that "where there is composition of objects understood, there is truth and falsehood." But such composition is in the intellect. Therefore truth and falsehood exist in the intellect.

On the contrary, it is stated in De Anima iii, 21, 22 that "where there is a combination of understood objects, there is truth and falsehood." But that combination exists in the intellect. So, truth and falsehood are present in the intellect.

I answer that, Just as a thing has being by its proper form, so the knowing faculty has knowledge by the likeness of the thing known. Hence, as natural things cannot fall short of the being that belongs to them by their form, but may fall short of accidental or consequent qualities, even as a man may fail to possess two feet, but not fail to be a man; so the faculty of knowing cannot fail in knowledge of the thing with the likeness of which it is informed; but may fail with regard to something consequent upon that form, or accidental thereto. For it has been said (A. 2) that sight is not deceived in its proper sensible, but about common sensibles that are consequent to that object; or about accidental objects of sense. Now as the sense is directly informed by the likeness of its proper object, so is the intellect by the likeness of the essence of a thing. Hence the intellect is not deceived about the essence of a thing, as neither the sense about its proper object. But in affirming and denying, the intellect may be deceived, by attributing to the thing of which it understands the essence, something which is not consequent upon it, or is opposed to it. For the intellect is in the same position as regards judging of such things, as sense is as to judging of common, or accidental, sensible objects. There is, however, this difference, as before mentioned regarding truth (Q. 16, A. 2), that falsity can exist in the intellect not only because the knowledge of the intellect is false, but because the intellect is conscious of that knowledge, as it is conscious of truth; whereas in sense falsity does not exist as known, as stated above (A. 2).

I respond that, Just like an object exists through its own form, our ability to know exists because of our understanding of what we recognize. Therefore, just as natural things can't lose the existence that comes from their form, they can lose additional traits; similarly, a person might lack two feet but still be a person. In the same way, our knowing faculty can't fail to understand the essence of what it recognizes, but it might struggle with things that are related to that essence or incidental to it. It's been said (A. 2) that sight isn't misled by its primary object, but it can be confused about general qualities that relate to that object or accidental sensory experiences. Just as the senses are directly influenced by their specific objects, the intellect is influenced by the essence of a thing. Thus, the intellect isn't misled about a thing's essence, just as the senses aren't misled about their main objects. However, when it comes to making affirmations or denials, the intellect can be mistaken by assigning qualities to what it understands that are not connected or that contradict it. The intellect operates similarly to the senses in judging these kinds of things. There is a key difference though, as previously mentioned regarding truth (Q. 16, A. 2), where falsehood can exist in the intellect not just because its understanding is wrong, but because the intellect is aware of its own knowledge, just as it is aware of the truth; whereas in the senses, falsehood does not exist as an awareness, as noted above (A. 2).

But because falsity of the intellect is concerned essentially only with the composition of the intellect, falsity occurs also accidentally in that operation of the intellect whereby it knows the essence of a thing, in so far as composition of the intellect is mixed up in it. This can take place in two ways. In one way, by the intellect applying to one thing the definition proper to another; as that of a circle to a man. Wherefore the definition of one thing is false of another. In another way, by composing a definition of parts which are mutually exclusive. For thus the definition is not only false of the thing, but false in itself. A definition such as "a reasonable four-footed animal" would be of this kind, and the intellect false in making it; for such a statement as "some reasonable animals are four-footed" is false in itself. For this reason the intellect cannot be false in its knowledge of simple essences; but it is either true, or it understands nothing at all.

But since falsehood in the intellect only relates to how the intellect is structured, falsehood can also occur accidentally in the process of understanding the essence of something, especially when the structure of the intellect gets mixed up with it. This can happen in two ways. First, the intellect can apply the definition of one thing to another, like using the definition of a circle for a man. So, the definition of one thing is incorrect for another. Second, by creating a definition from parts that cannot coexist. In this case, the definition is not only incorrect for the object but also inherently false. An example of this would be "a reasonable four-footed animal," which is misleading because the statement "some reasonable animals are four-footed" is fundamentally false. Therefore, the intellect cannot be mistaken when it understands simple essences; it can only be either correct or be completely uncomprehending.

Reply Obj. 1: Because the essence of a thing is the proper object of the intellect, we are properly said to understand a thing when we reduce it to its essence, and judge of it thereby; as takes place in demonstrations, in which there is no falsity. In this sense Augustine's words must be understood, "that he who is deceived, understands not that wherein he is deceived;" and not in the sense that no one is ever deceived in any operation of the intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: Since the essence of something is what the intellect should focus on, we can truly say we understand something when we grasp its essence and judge it based on that; this happens in demonstrations, where there is no falsehood. Augustine's statement should be interpreted in this way: "He who is deceived does not understand what he is being deceived about," not to imply that no one is ever misled in any intellectual process.

Reply Obj. 2: The intellect is always right as regards first principles; since it is not deceived about them for the same reason that it is not deceived about what a thing is. For self-known principles are such as are known as soon as the terms are understood, from the fact that the predicate is contained in the definition of the subject. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The intellect is always correct regarding first principles; it isn't misled about them for the same reason it isn't misled about what something is. Self-evident principles are known as soon as the terms are understood because the predicate is included in the definition of the subject.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 17, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 17, Art. 4]

Whether True and False Are Contraries?

Whether True and False Are Opposites?

Objection 1: It seems that true and false are not contraries. For true and false are opposed, as that which is to that which is not; for "truth," as Augustine says (Soliloq. ii, 5), "is that which is." But that which is and that which is not are not opposed as contraries. Therefore true and false are not contrary things.

Objection 1: It appears that true and false are not true opposites. True and false are in opposition, like what is to what isn't; as Augustine says (Soliloq. ii, 5), "truth" is what is. However, what is and what isn't are not opposed as true contraries. Therefore, true and false are not contrary things.

Obj. 2: Further, one of two contraries is not in the other. But falsity is in truth, because, as Augustine says, (Soliloq. ii, 10), "A tragedian would not be a false Hector, if he were not a true tragedian." Therefore true and false are not contraries.

Obj. 2: Additionally, one of two opposites is not found in the other. However, falsity exists within truth, because, as Augustine states, (Soliloq. ii, 10), "A tragedian wouldn’t be a false Hector if he weren’t a true tragedian." Therefore, true and false are not opposites.

Obj. 3: Further, in God there is no contrariety, for "nothing is contrary to the Divine Substance," as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xii, 2). But falsity is opposed to God, for an idol is called in Scripture a lie, "They have laid hold on lying" (Jer. 8:5), that is to say, "an idol," as a gloss says. Therefore false and true are not contraries.

Obj. 3: Additionally, there is no opposition in God, since "nothing conflicts with the Divine Substance," as Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xii, 2). However, falsehood is against God, as an idol is referred to in Scripture as a lie, "They have laid hold on lying" (Jer. 8:5), meaning "an idol," as clarified by a commentary. Therefore, false and true are not opposites.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Peri Herm. ii), that a false opinion is contrary to a true one.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Peri Herm. ii), that a false opinion contradicts a true one.

I answer that, True and false are opposed as contraries, and not, as some have said, as affirmation and negation. In proof of which it must be considered that negation neither asserts anything nor determines any subject, and can therefore be said of being as of not-being, for instance not-seeing or not-sitting. But privation asserts nothing, whereas it determines its subject, for it is "negation in a subject," as stated in Metaph. iv, 4: v. 27; for blindness is not said except of one whose nature it is to see. Contraries, however, both assert something and determine the subject, for blackness is a species of color. Falsity asserts something, for a thing is false, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. iv, 27), inasmuch as something is said or seems to be something that it is not, or not to be what it really is. For as truth implies an adequate apprehension of a thing, so falsity implies the contrary. Hence it is clear that true and false are contraries.

I answer that, true and false are opposites, not like affirmation and negation as some have claimed. To prove this, we must consider that negation doesn’t assert anything or define any subject, and can be applied to both being and non-being, like not-seeing or not-sitting. However, deprivation doesn’t assert anything either, yet it does define its subject because it is "negation in a subject," as mentioned in Metaph. iv, 4: v. 27; for blindness only refers to someone who is naturally able to see. In contrast, opposites both assert something and define the subject, like blackness being a type of color. Falsity does assert something, because something is considered false, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. iv, 27), when something is claimed or appears to be something that it is not, or not to be what it truly is. Just as truth requires an accurate understanding of something, falsity implies the opposite. Hence, it's clear that true and false are opposites.

Reply Obj. 1: What is in things is the truth of the thing; but what is apprehended, is the truth of the intellect, wherein truth primarily resides. Hence the false is that which is not as apprehended. To apprehend being, and not-being, implies contrariety; for, as the Philosopher proves (Peri Herm. ii), the contrary of this statement "God is good," is, "God is not good."

Reply Obj. 1: What's inherent in things is the essence of the thing; however, what is understood is the essence of the mind, where truth primarily exists. Therefore, the false is what does not match our understanding. To grasp being and non-being suggests opposition; because, as the Philosopher demonstrates (Peri Herm. ii), the opposite of the statement "God is good" is "God is not good."

Reply Obj. 2: Falsity is not founded in the truth which is contrary to it, just as evil is not founded in the good which is contrary to it, but in that which is its proper subject. This happens in either, because true and good are universals, and convertible with being. Hence, as every privation is founded in a subject, that is a being, so every evil is founded in some good, and every falsity in some truth.

Reply Obj. 2: Falsehood isn't based on the truth that opposes it, just as evil isn't based on the good that opposes it, but rather in what it actually pertains to. This occurs in both cases because truth and goodness are universal concepts and interchangeable with being. Therefore, just as every lack is based on a subject, which is a being, every evil is based on some good, and every falsehood is based on some truth.

Reply Obj. 3: Because contraries, and opposites by way of privation, are by nature about one and the same thing, therefore there is nothing contrary to God, considered in Himself, either with respect to His goodness or His truth, for in His intellect there can be nothing false. But in our apprehension of Him contraries exist, for the false opinion concerning Him is contrary to the true. So idols are called lies, opposed to the divine truth, inasmuch as the false opinion concerning them is contrary to the true opinion of the divine unity. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Because opposites, and things that are lacking as opposites, are naturally about the same subject, there is nothing that contradicts God, when considered in His essence, in terms of His goodness or truth, since in His understanding there can be nothing false. However, in how we perceive Him, opposites do exist, as mistaken beliefs about Him are contrary to the truth. Thus, idols are referred to as falsehoods, standing against divine truth, because the misconceptions about them contradict the true understanding of divine unity.

QUESTION 18

THE LIFE OF GOD
(In Four Articles)

THE LIFE OF GOD
(In Four Articles)

Since to understand belongs to living beings, after considering the divine knowledge and intellect, we must consider the divine life. About this, four points of inquiry arise:

Since understanding is a characteristic of living beings, after reflecting on divine knowledge and intellect, we need to examine divine life. This brings up four points of inquiry:

(1) To whom does it belong to live?

(1) Who does it belong to live?

(2) What is life?

What is life?

(3) Whether life is properly attributed to God?

(3) Is life properly attributed to God?

(4) Whether all things in God are life? _______________________

(4) Is everything in God alive? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 18, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 18, Art. 1]

Whether to Live Belongs to All Natural Things?

Whether living belongs to all natural things?

Objection 1: It seems that to live belongs to all natural things. For the Philosopher says (Phys. viii, 1) that "Movement is like a kind of life possessed by all things existing in nature." But all natural things participate in movement. Therefore all natural things partake of life.

Objection 1: It seems that living is a characteristic of all natural things. The Philosopher states (Phys. viii, 1) that "Movement is a sort of life inherent in all things that exist in nature." But all natural things engage in movement. Therefore, all natural things have a share in life.

Obj. 2: Further, plants are said to live, inasmuch as they have in themselves a principle of movement of growth and decay. But local movement is naturally more perfect than, and prior to, movement of growth and decay, as the Philosopher shows (Phys. viii, 56, 57). Since then, all natural bodies have in themselves some principle of local movement, it seems that all natural bodies live.

Obj. 2: Moreover, plants are considered to be alive because they have a principle of growth and decay within them. However, local movement is inherently more complete than, and comes before, the movement of growth and decay, as the Philosopher explains (Phys. viii, 56, 57). Therefore, since all natural bodies possess some principle of local movement, it suggests that all natural bodies are alive.

Obj. 3: Further, amongst natural bodies the elements are the less perfect. Yet life is attributed to them, for we speak of "living waters." Much more, therefore, have other natural bodies life.

Obj. 3: Additionally, among natural bodies, the elements are the least perfect. Yet we attribute life to them, as we talk about "living waters." Therefore, it logically follows that other natural bodies have even more life.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vi, 1) that "The last echo of life is heard in the plants," whereby it is inferred that their life is life in its lowest degree. But inanimate bodies are inferior to plants. Therefore they have not life.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vi, 1) that "The last echo of life is heard in the plants," which suggests that their life is the most basic form of life. However, inanimate objects are lesser than plants. Therefore, they are without life.

I answer that, We can gather to what things life belongs, and to what it does not, from such things as manifestly possess life. Now life manifestly belongs to animals, for it said in De Vegetab. i [*De Plantis i, 1] that in animals life is manifest. We must, therefore, distinguish living from lifeless things, by comparing them to that by reason of which animals are said to live: and this it is in which life is manifested first and remains last. We say then that an animal begins to live when it begins to move of itself: and as long as such movement appears in it, so long as it is considered to be alive. When it no longer has any movement of itself, but is only moved by another power, then its life is said to fail, and the animal to be dead. Whereby it is clear that those things are properly called living that move themselves by some kind of movement, whether it be movement properly so called, as the act of an imperfect being, i.e. of a thing in potentiality, is called movement; or movement in a more general sense, as when said of the act of a perfect thing, as understanding and feeling are called movement. Accordingly all things are said to be alive that determine themselves to movement or operation of any kind: whereas those things that cannot by their nature do so, cannot be called living, unless by a similitude.

I respond that, we can determine which things are alive and which are not by looking at things that clearly exhibit life. It is evident that life belongs to animals, as mentioned in De Vegetab. i [*De Plantis i, 1], where it states that life is obvious in animals. Therefore, we need to distinguish between living and lifeless things by comparing them to what defines animal life: that which shows life first and last. We say that an animal starts to live when it begins to move on its own, and as long as that movement is evident, it is considered alive. When it no longer moves on its own but is only moved by an external force, it is said that its life has ended, and the animal is dead. Thus, it is clear that living beings are appropriately called such if they can move themselves in some way, whether this movement is specifically what we call movement—in the sense of an imperfect being, or a thing in potentiality—or in a broader sense, such as when we refer to understanding and feeling as types of movement. Therefore, all things that can initiate movement or action in any form are considered alive, whereas those that, by their nature, cannot do so cannot truly be called living unless by analogy.

Reply Obj. 1: These words of the Philosopher may be understood either of the first movement, namely, that of the celestial bodies, or of the movement in its general sense. In either way is movement called the life, as it were, of natural bodies, speaking by a similitude, and not attributing it to them as their property. The movement of the heavens is in the universe of corporeal natures as the movement of the heart, whereby life is preserved, is in animals. Similarly also every natural movement in respect to natural things has a certain similitude to the operations of life. Hence, if the whole corporeal universe were one animal, so that its movement came from an "intrinsic moving force," as some in fact have held, in that case movement would really be the life of all natural bodies.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher’s words can be understood in two ways: either as referring to the initial movement of celestial bodies or in a broader sense of movement itself. In both cases, movement is described as the “life,” so to speak, of natural bodies, using a comparison rather than considering it an inherent characteristic. The movement of the heavens is to the physical universe what the heartbeat is to animals in terms of preserving life. Likewise, every natural movement related to natural entities resembles the functions of life. Therefore, if the entire physical universe were considered a single animal, with its movement originating from an "intrinsic moving force," as some have proposed, then movement would indeed represent the life of all natural bodies.

Reply Obj. 2: To bodies, whether heavy or light, movement does not belong, except in so far as they are displaced from their natural conditions, and are out of their proper place; for when they are in the place that is proper and natural to them, then they are at rest. Plants and other living things move with vital movement, in accordance with the disposition of their nature, but not by approaching thereto, or by receding from it, for in so far as they recede from such movement, so far do they recede from their natural disposition. Heavy and light bodies are moved by an extrinsic force, either generating them and giving them form, or removing obstacles from their way. They do not therefore move themselves, as do living bodies.

Reply Obj. 2: For physical objects, whether heavy or light, movement only happens when they are displaced from their natural state and out of their proper place; when they are in their proper and natural position, they are at rest. Plants and other living organisms move with vital movement, according to their natural characteristics, but not by approaching or moving away from it, because the more they move away from that movement, the further they stray from their natural state. Heavy and light objects are moved by an outside force, either shaping them and giving them form, or clearing obstacles from their path. Therefore, they do not move themselves, unlike living beings.

Reply Obj. 3: Waters are called living that have a continuous current: for standing waters, that are not connected with a continually flowing source, are called dead, as in cisterns and ponds. This is merely a similitude, inasmuch as the movement they are seen to possess makes them look as if they were alive. Yet this is not life in them in its real sense, since this movement of theirs is not from themselves but from the cause that generates them. The same is the case with the movement of other heavy and light bodies. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Waters are referred to as living when they have a continuous current; stagnant waters, which aren't linked to a constantly flowing source, are considered dead, like those found in cisterns and ponds. This is simply a comparison because the motion they display gives the impression that they are alive. However, this isn't true life in the genuine sense, since their movement doesn't come from them but from the source that creates it. The same applies to the motion of other heavy and light objects.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 18, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 18, Art. 2]

Whether Life Is an Operation?

Is Life an Operation?

Objection 1: It seems that life is an operation. For nothing is divided except into parts of the same genus. But life is divided by certain operations, as is clear from the Philosopher (De Anima ii, 13), who distinguishes four kinds of life, namely, nourishment, sensation, local movement and understanding. Therefore life is an operation.

Objection 1: It seems that life is an activity. For nothing is divided except into parts of the same kind. But life is divided by certain activities, as is clear from the Philosopher (De Anima ii, 13), who identifies four types of life: nourishment, sensation, movement, and understanding. Therefore, life is an activity.

Obj. 2: Further, the active life is said to be different from the contemplative. But the contemplative is only distinguished from the active by certain operations. Therefore life is an operation.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the active life is considered different from the contemplative. However, the contemplative is only distinguished from the active by specific activities. Therefore, life is an activity.

Obj. 3: Further, to know God is an operation. But this is life, as is clear from the words of John 18:3, "Now this is eternal life, that they may know Thee, the only true God." Therefore life is an operation.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, knowing God is an action. This is life, as shown in John 18:3, "Now this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God." Therefore, life is an action.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 37), "In living things, to live is to be."

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 37), "In living things, living means existing."

I answer that, As is clear from what has been said (Q. 17, A. 3), our intellect, which takes cognizance of the essence of a thing as its proper object, gains knowledge from sense, of which the proper objects are external accidents. Hence from external appearances we come to the knowledge of the essence of things. And because we name a thing in accordance with our knowledge of it, as is clear from what has already been said (Q. 13, A. 1), so from external properties names are often imposed to signify essences. Hence such names are sometimes taken strictly to denote the essence itself, the signification of which is their principal object; but sometimes, and less strictly, to denote the properties by reason of which they are imposed. And so we see that the word "body" is used to denote a genus of substances from the fact of their possessing three dimensions: and is sometimes taken to denote the dimensions themselves; in which sense body is said to be a species of quantity. The same must be said of life. The name is given from a certain external appearance, namely, self-movement, yet not precisely to signify this, but rather a substance to which self-movement and the application of itself to any kind of operation, belong naturally. To live, accordingly, is nothing else than to exist in this or that nature; and life signifies this, though in the abstract, just as the word "running" denotes "to run" in the abstract.

I answer that, As is clear from what has been said (Q. 17, A. 3), our intellect, which recognizes the essence of a thing as its primary focus, gains knowledge through our senses, which perceive external qualities. Thus, from these external appearances, we can understand the essence of things. Because we name things based on our understanding of them, as mentioned earlier (Q. 13, A. 1), names are often assigned from external traits to signify essences. Therefore, such names can sometimes refer specifically to the essence itself, which is their main focus; but other times, and less strictly, they refer to the properties that led to their assignment. For example, the term "body" is used to describe a category of substances because they have three dimensions, and it's sometimes used to refer to the dimensions themselves, in which case body is considered a type of quantity. The same applies to life. The name comes from a certain external trait, specifically self-movement, yet it does not exclusively signify this; rather, it refers to a substance that naturally possesses self-movement and can engage in various activities. To live, therefore, is simply to exist in one form or another; and life conveys this concept in the abstract, just as the term "running" implies "to run" in a general sense.

Hence "living" is not an accidental but an essential predicate. Sometimes, however, life is used less properly for the operations from which its name is taken, and thus the Philosopher says (Ethic. ix, 9) that to live is principally to sense or to understand.

Hence "living" is not an accidental but an essential attribute. Sometimes, however, life is improperly referred to in relation to the activities from which its name comes, and so the Philosopher states (Ethic. ix, 9) that to live is mainly to perceive or to comprehend.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher here takes "to live" to mean an operation of life. Or it would be better to say that sensation and intelligence and the like, are sometimes taken for the operations, sometimes for the existence itself of the operator. For he says (Ethic. ix, 9) that to live is to sense or to understand—in other words, to have a nature capable of sensation or understanding. Thus, then, he distinguishes life by the four operations mentioned. For in this lower world there are four kinds of living things. It is the nature of some to be capable of nothing more than taking nourishment, and, as a consequence, of growing and generating. Others are able, in addition, to sense, as we see in the case of shellfish and other animals without movement. Others have the further power of moving from place to place, as perfect animals, such as quadrupeds, and birds, and so on. Others, as man, have the still higher faculty of understanding.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher here refers to "to live" as a function of life. It would be more accurate to say that sensation and intelligence, and similar abilities, are sometimes seen as the functions themselves, and sometimes as the actual existence of the being. He states (Ethic. ix, 9) that to live means to sense or to understand—in other words, to possess a nature capable of sensing or understanding. So, he identifies different forms of life through the four functions mentioned. In this lower world, there are four types of living beings. Some can only take in nourishment, and as a result, they grow and reproduce. Others can also sense, like shellfish and other unmoving creatures. Some have the additional ability to move from place to place, like perfect animals such as four-legged creatures and birds, and so on. Lastly, humans possess the highest ability of understanding.

Reply Obj. 2: By vital operations are meant those whose principles are within the operator, and in virtue of which the operator produces such operations of itself. It happens that there exist in men not merely such natural principles of certain operations as are their natural powers, but something over and above these, such as habits inclining them like a second nature to particular kinds of operations, so that the operations become sources of pleasure. Thus, as by a similitude, any kind of work in which a man takes delight, so that his bent is towards it, his time spent in it, and his whole life ordered with a view to it, is said to be the life of that man. Hence some are said to lead a life of self-indulgence, others a life of virtue. In this way the contemplative life is distinguished from the active, and thus to know God is said to be life eternal.

Reply Obj. 2: By vital operations, we mean those actions that come from within the person, allowing them to carry out these actions naturally. In people, there are natural principles associated with certain actions, like their inherent abilities, but there are also additional factors, like habits, that guide them almost like a second nature to specific types of actions, making these actions enjoyable. Therefore, similarly, any kind of work that brings a person joy, where their interests align, their time is devoted to it, and their entire life is oriented around it, is referred to as that person's life. As a result, some are described as living a life of self-indulgence, while others live a life of virtue. This distinction separates the contemplative life from the active one, and knowing God is considered eternal life.

Wherefore the Reply to the Third Objection is clear. _______________________

Wherefore the response to the third objection is clear. _______________________

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 18, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 18, Art. 3]

Whether Life Is Properly Attributed to God?

Whether Life Is Properly Attributed to God?

Objection 1: It seems that life is not properly attributed to God.
For things are said to live inasmuch as they move themselves, as
previously stated (A. 2). But movement does not belong to God.
Neither therefore does life.

Objection 1: It appears that life is not properly assigned to God.
Things are considered alive in the sense that they can move themselves, as
previously mentioned (A. 2). But movement does not apply to God.
Therefore, life doesn't apply to Him either.

Obj. 2: Further, in all living things we must needs suppose some principle of life. Hence it is said by the Philosopher (De Anima ii, 4) that "the soul is the cause and principle of the living body." But God has no principle. Therefore life cannot be attributed to Him.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, in all living things, we must assume there is some principle of life. That's why the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 4) that "the soul is the cause and principle of the living body." But God has no principle. Therefore, life cannot be attributed to Him.

Obj. 3: Further, the principle of life in the living things that exist among us is the vegetative soul. But this exists only in corporeal things. Therefore life cannot be attributed to incorporeal things.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the principle of life in the living beings around us is the vegetative soul. However, this only exists in physical entities. Therefore, life cannot be ascribed to non-physical entities.

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 83:3): "My heart and my flesh have rejoiced in the living God."

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 83:3): "My heart and my flesh have rejoiced in the living God."

I answer that, Life is in the highest degree properly in God. In proof of which it must be considered that since a thing is said to live in so far as it operates of itself and not as moved by another, the more perfectly this power is found in anything, the more perfect is the life of that thing. In things that move and are moved, a threefold order is found. In the first place, the end moves the agent: and the principal agent is that which acts through its form, and sometimes it does so through some instrument that acts by virtue not of its own form, but of the principal agent, and does no more than execute the action. Accordingly there are things that move themselves, not in respect of any form or end naturally inherent in them, but only in respect of the executing of the movement; the form by which they act, and the end of the action being alike determined for them by their nature. Of this kind are plants, which move themselves according to their inherent nature, with regard only to executing the movements of growth and decay.

I respond that, Life is fundamentally centered in God. To support this, we must consider that something is said to live to the extent that it acts on its own and not as a result of another's influence. The more fully this ability is present in something

Other things have self-movement in a higher degree, that is, not only with regard to executing the movement, but even as regards to the form, the principle of movement, which form they acquire of themselves. Of this kind are animals, in which the principle of movement is not a naturally implanted form; but one received through sense. Hence the more perfect is their sense, the more perfect is their power of self-movement. Such as have only the sense of touch, as shellfish, move only with the motion of expansion and contraction; and thus their movement hardly exceeds that of plants. Whereas such as have the sensitive power in perfection, so as to recognize not only connection and touch, but also objects apart from themselves, can move themselves to a distance by progressive movement. Yet although animals of the latter kind receive through sense the form that is the principle of their movement, nevertheless they cannot of themselves propose to themselves the end of their operation, or movement; for this has been implanted in them by nature; and by natural instinct they are moved to any action through the form apprehended by sense. Hence such animals as move themselves in respect to an end they themselves propose are superior to these. This can only be done by reason and intellect; whose province it is to know the proportion between the end and the means to that end, and duly coordinate them. Hence a more perfect degree of life is that of intelligent beings; for their power of self-movement is more perfect. This is shown by the fact that in one and the same man the intellectual faculty moves the sensitive powers; and these by their command move the organs of movement. Thus in the arts we see that the art of using a ship, i.e. the art of navigation, rules the art of ship-designing; and this in its turn rules the art that is only concerned with preparing the material for the ship.

Other things have a higher degree of self-movement, meaning not just in how they move but also in the form and principle of that movement, which they acquire on their own. This includes animals, where the principle of movement isn’t a natural form but one that comes through their senses. Therefore, the more developed their senses, the greater their ability for self-movement. Animals like shellfish, which only have the sense of touch, move through expansion and contraction, so their movement is barely more than that of plants. In contrast, animals with advanced sensory abilities, capable of recognizing not just touch but also separate objects, can move themselves over distances through progressive movement. However, while these animals gain the principle of their movement through their senses, they cannot determine their own goals for movement; these are instilled in them by nature, and they act based on natural instincts influenced by their sensory understanding. Thus, animals that can move towards a goal they set for themselves are superior to these others. This ability can only be achieved through reason and intellect, which enable them to understand the relationship between their goals and the means to achieve them, and to coordinate them properly. Therefore, a higher level of life is found in intelligent beings because their ability for self-movement is more advanced. This is illustrated by the fact that within a single person, the intellectual faculties direct the sensory abilities, which then command the organs of movement. In the arts, for instance, the skill of navigating a ship—the art of navigation—oversees the art of ship design, which in turn governs the craft of preparing the materials for the ship.

But although our intellect moves itself to some things, yet others are supplied by nature, as are first principles, which it cannot doubt; and the last end, which it cannot but will. Hence, although with respect to some things it moves itself, yet with regard to other things it must be moved by another. Wherefore that being whose act of understanding is its very nature, and which, in what it naturally possesses, is not determined by another, must have life in the most perfect degree. Such is God; and hence in Him principally is life. From this the Philosopher concludes (Metaph. xii, 51), after showing God to be intelligent, that God has life most perfect and eternal, since His intellect is most perfect and always in act.

But even though our intellect engages with certain things, there are others that nature provides, like first principles, which it cannot doubt, and the ultimate purpose, which it cannot help but desire. So, while it has the ability to engage with some things on its own, in other cases it must be influenced by something else. Therefore, the being whose act of understanding is its very essence, and which is not determined by anything else in what it inherently possesses, must have life in the highest degree. That is God; and so life is primarily found in Him. From this, the Philosopher concludes (Metaph. xii, 51), after demonstrating that God is intelligent, that God possesses life in the most perfect and eternal form, since His intellect is the most perfect and always active.

Reply Obj. 1: As stated in Metaph. ix, 16, action is twofold. Actions of one kind pass out to external matter, as to heat or to cut; whilst actions of the other kind remain in the agent, as to understand, to sense and to will. The difference between them is this, that the former action is the perfection not of the agent that moves, but of the thing moved; whereas the latter action is the perfection of the agent. Hence, because movement is an act of the thing in movement, the latter action, in so far as it is the act of the operator, is called its movement, by this similitude, that as movement is an act of the thing moved, so an act of this kind is the act of the agent, although movement is an act of the imperfect, that is, of what is in potentiality; while this kind of act is an act of the perfect, that is to say, of what is in act as stated in De Anima iii, 28. In the sense, therefore, in which understanding is movement, that which understands itself is said to move itself. It is in this sense that Plato also taught that God moves Himself; not in the sense in which movement is an act of the imperfect.

Reply Obj. 1: As stated in Metaph. ix, 16, action is twofold. Some actions reach out to external things, like heating or cutting; while others stay within the agent, like understanding, sensing, and willing. The key difference is that the former action perfects the object being acted upon, not the agent doing the action, while the latter action perfects the agent. Therefore, since movement is a result of the thing in motion, the latter action, as it relates to the operator, is referred to as its movement. This is similar to how movement relates to the thing being moved. However, movement is an act of the imperfect, meaning something that has potential, whereas this type of act is an act of the perfect, which is to say, something that is in action, as mentioned in De Anima iii, 28. Therefore, in the sense that understanding is a type of movement, we say that that which understands itself moves itself. This is the sense in which Plato also taught that God moves Himself; not in the sense that movement is an act of the imperfect.

Reply Obj. 2: As God is His own very existence and understanding, so is He His own life; and therefore He so lives that He has no principle of life.

Reply Obj. 2: Since God is His own existence and understanding, He is also His own life; therefore, He lives in such a way that He has no external source of life.

Reply Obj. 3: Life in this lower world is bestowed on a corruptible nature, that needs generation to preserve the species, and nourishment to preserve the individual. For this reason life is not found here below apart from a vegetative soul: but this does not hold good with incorruptible natures. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Life in this lower world is given to a corruptible nature that requires reproduction to maintain the species and nourishment to sustain the individual. For this reason, life is not found down here without a vegetative soul; however, this doesn't apply to incorruptible natures.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 18, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 18, Art. 4]

Whether All Things Are Life in God?

Whether All Things Are Life in God?

Objection 1: It seems that not all things are life in God. For it is said (Acts 17:28), "In Him we live, and move, and be." But not all things in God are movement. Therefore not all things are life in Him.

Objection 1: It appears that not everything is life in God. For it says (Acts 17:28), "In Him we live, and move, and exist." But not everything in God involves movement. Therefore, not everything is life in Him.

Obj. 2: Further, all things are in God as their first model. But things modelled ought to conform to the model. Since, then, not all things have life in themselves, it seems that not all things are life in God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, everything exists in God as its original model. However, modeled things should match the model. Since not everything possesses life on its own, it appears that not everything is alive in God.

Obj. 3: Further, as Augustine says (De Vera Relig. 29), a living substance is better than a substance that does not live. If, therefore, things which in themselves have not life, are life in God, it seems that things exist more truly in God than themselves. But this appears to be false; since in themselves they exist actually, but in God potentially.

Obj. 3: Additionally, as Augustine states (De Vera Relig. 29), a living being is better than a non-living one. Therefore, if things that are not alive in themselves are considered alive in God, it seems that things exist more genuinely in God than they do on their own. However, this seems incorrect; since in themselves they exist actively, but in God they exist potentially.

Obj. 4: Further, just as good things and things made in time are known by God, so are bad things, and things that God can make, but that never will be made. If, therefore, all things are life in God, inasmuch as known by Him, it seems that even bad things and things that will never be made are life in God, as known by Him, and this appears inadmissible.

Obj. 4: Similarly, just as God knows good things and things that come into being, He also knows bad things and things that He could create but never will. Therefore, if everything exists in God because He knows about it, it seems that even bad things and things that will never exist also have existence in God through His knowledge, which seems unacceptable.

On the contrary, (John 1:3, 4), it is said, "What was made, in Him was life." But all things were made, except God. Therefore all things are life in God.

On the contrary, (John 1:3, 4), it says, "What was created, in Him was life." But everything was created, except for God. So, all things are life in God.

I answer that, In God to live is to understand, as before stated (A. 3). In God intellect, the thing understood, and the act of understanding, are one and the same. Hence whatever is in God as understood is the very living or life of God. Now, wherefore, since all things that have been made by God are in Him as things understood, it follows that all things in Him are the divine life itself.

I answer that, In God, to live is to understand, as mentioned earlier (A. 3). In God, the intellect, the thing that is understood, and the act of understanding are all one and the same. Therefore, whatever exists in God as understood is essentially the living or life of God. Now, since all things created by God exist in Him as understood things, it follows that everything in Him represents the divine life itself.

Reply Obj. 1: Creatures are said to be in God in a twofold sense. In one way, so far are they are held together and preserved by the divine power; even as we say that things that are in our power are in us. And creatures are thus said to be in God, even as they exist in their own natures. In this sense we must understand the words of the Apostle when he says, "In Him we live, move, and be"; since our being, living, and moving are themselves caused by God. In another sense things are said to be in God, as in Him who knows them, in which sense they are in God through their proper ideas, which in God are not distinct from the divine essence. Hence things as they are in God are the divine essence. And since the divine essence is life and not movement, it follows that things existing in God in this manner are not movement, but life.

Reply Obj. 1: Creatures are said to exist in God in two ways. First, they are held together and preserved by divine power; just as we say that things under our control are within us. Creatures are considered to be in God in this way, as they have their own existence. This understanding aligns with the Apostle's words when he says, "In Him we live, move, and exist"; since our being, living, and moving are all caused by God. Secondly, things are said to be in God as in the one who knows them, meaning they exist in God through their true ideas, which are not separate from the divine essence. Therefore, things as they are in God are the divine essence. Since the divine essence represents life and not movement, it follows that things existing in God in this way are not movement, but life.

Reply Obj. 2: The thing modelled must be like the model according to the form, not the mode of being. For sometimes the form has being of another kind in the model from that which it has in the thing modelled. Thus the form of a house has in the mind of the architect immaterial and intelligible being; but in the house that exists outside his mind, material and sensible being. Hence the ideas of things, though not existing in themselves, are life in the divine mind, as having a divine existence in that mind.

Reply Obj. 2: The thing that's modeled must resemble the model in terms of form, not in how it exists. Sometimes the form has a different kind of existence in the model than it does in the thing being modeled. For example, the idea of a house exists as an abstract and conceptual form in the architect's mind, while the actual house that exists outside of that mind is made of physical materials. Therefore, the ideas of things, even though they don’t exist on their own, live within the divine mind, having a form of divine existence there.

Reply Obj. 3: If form only, and not matter, belonged to natural things, then in all respects natural things would exist more truly in the divine mind, by the ideas of them, than in themselves. For which reason, in fact, Plato held that the separate man was the true man; and that man as he exists in matter, is man only by participation. But since matter enters into the being of natural things, we must say that those things have simply being in the divine mind more truly than in themselves, because in that mind they have an uncreated being, but in themselves a created being: whereas this particular being, a man, or horse, for example, has this being more truly in its own nature than in the divine mind, because it belongs to human nature to be material, which, as existing in the divine mind, it is not. Even so a house has nobler being in the architect's mind than in matter; yet a material house is called a house more truly than the one which exists in the mind; since the former is actual, the latter only potential.

Reply Obj. 3: If only the form, and not the matter, belonged to natural things, then natural things would exist more truly in the mind of the divine, through their ideas, than in reality. That's why Plato believed that the separate man was the true man, and that man as he exists in matter is only a man by participation. However, since matter is part of the existence of natural things, we must say that these things have a more genuine existence in the divine mind than in themselves, because in that mind they have an uncreated existence, while in themselves they have a created existence. On the other hand, a specific being, like a man or a horse, has a more genuine existence in its own nature than in the divine mind, because it’s part of human nature to be material, which it isn’t in the divine mind. Similarly, a house has a more noble existence in the architect's mind than in matter; yet a material house is considered a house more genuinely than the one that exists in the mind, since the former is actual, while the latter is only potential.

Reply Obj. 4: Although bad things are in God's knowledge, as being comprised under that knowledge, yet they are not in God as created by Him, or preserved by Him, or as having their type in Him. They are known by God through the types of good things. Hence it cannot be said that bad things are life in God. Those things that are not in time may be called life in God in so far as life means understanding only, and inasmuch as they are understood by God; but not in so far as life implies a principle of operation. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: While bad things are known to God, as part of His knowledge, they are not in God as things He created, preserved, or that have their essence in Him. He knows them through the concepts of good things. Therefore, it can't be said that bad things are alive in God. Things that exist outside of time may be considered alive in God only in the sense that "life" refers to understanding, as long as they are understood by God; but not in the sense that life implies an active principle.

QUESTION 19

THE WILL OF GOD
(In Twelve Articles)

THE WILL OF GOD
(In Twelve Articles)

After considering the things belonging to the divine knowledge, we consider what belongs to the divine will. The first consideration is about the divine will itself; the second about what belongs strictly to His will; the third about what belongs to the intellect in relation to His will. About His will itself there are twelve points of inquiry:

After thinking about the aspects of divine knowledge, we turn to what relates to divine will. The first focus is on the divine will itself; the second is on what is strictly part of His will; the third is on how the intellect relates to His will. Concerning His will itself, there are twelve points to explore:

(1) Whether there is will in God?

(1) Does God have a will?

(2) Whether God wills things apart from Himself?

(2) Does God will things outside of Himself?

(3) Whether whatever God wills, He wills necessarily?

(3) Does God will whatever He chooses necessarily?

(4) Whether the will of God is the cause of things?

(4) Is the will of God the reason for everything?

(5) Whether any cause can be assigned to the divine will?

(5) Can we attribute any reason to the divine will?

(6) Whether the divine will is always fulfilled?

(6) Is the divine will always fulfilled?

(7) Whether the will of God is mutable?

(7) Is the will of God changeable?

(8) Whether the will of God imposes necessity on the things willed?

(8) Does the will of God create a necessity for the things that are willed?

(9) Whether there is in God the will of evil?

(9) Does God have the will to do evil?

(10) Whether God has free will?

(10) Does God have free will?

(11) Whether the will of expression is distinguished in God?

(11) Is the will of expression distinguished in God?

(12) Whether five expressions of will are rightly assigned to the divine will? _______________________

(12) Are five expressions of will accurately attributed to the divine will? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 1]

Whether There Is Will in God?

Does God Have a Will?

Objection 1: It seems that there is not will in God. For the object of will is the end and the good. But we cannot assign to God any end. Therefore there is not will in God.

Objection 1: It seems that God does not have a will. The object of a will is an end and the good. But we cannot attribute any end to God. Therefore, God does not have a will.

Obj. 2: Further, will is a kind of appetite. But appetite, as it is directed to things not possessed, implies imperfection, which cannot be imputed to God. Therefore there is not will in God.

Obj. 2: Moreover, will is a form of desire. However, desire, as it relates to things that are not owned, suggests a lack, which cannot be attributed to God. Therefore, God does not possess will.

Obj. 3: Further, according to the Philosopher (De Anima iii, 54), the will moves, and is moved. But God is the first cause of movement, and Himself is unmoved, as proved in Phys. viii, 49. Therefore there is not will in God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, as the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 54), the will both initiates movement and is influenced by it. However, God is the primary cause of all movement and is Himself unchanging, as demonstrated in Phys. viii, 49. Therefore, there is no will in God.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Rom. 12:2): "That you may prove what is the will of God."

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Rom. 12:2): "So you can determine what God's will is."

I answer that, There is will in God, as there is intellect: since will follows upon intellect. For as natural things have actual existence by their form, so the intellect is actually intelligent by its intelligible form. Now everything has this aptitude towards its natural form, that when it has it not, it tends towards it; and when it has it, it is at rest therein. It is the same with every natural perfection, which is a natural good. This aptitude to good in things without knowledge is called natural appetite. Whence also intellectual natures have a like aptitude as apprehended through its intelligible form; so as to rest therein when possessed, and when not possessed to seek to possess it, both of which pertain to the will. Hence in every intellectual being there is will, just as in every sensible being there is animal appetite. And so there must be will in God, since there is intellect in Him. And as His intellect is His own existence, so is His will.

I respond that, God has both will and intellect, as will arises from intellect. Just as natural things exist because of their form, the intellect is truly intelligent due to its intelligible form. Everything naturally strives toward its proper form; when it lacks it, it seeks it, and when it possesses it, it finds rest in it. This applies to every natural perfection, which is inherently good. The tendency towards good in things without knowledge is called natural appetite. Therefore, intellectual beings have a similar tendency, as they seek rest in their intelligible form when they possess it and desire to obtain it when they do not, both of which relate to the will. Thus, every intellectual being has will, just as every sentient being has animal appetite. Therefore, God must have will since He has intellect. And just as His intellect is His very existence, so is His will.

Reply Obj. 1: Although nothing apart from God is His end, yet He
Himself is the end with respect to all things made by Him. And this
by His essence, for by His essence He is good, as shown above (Q. 6,
A. 3): for the end has the aspect of good.

Reply Obj. 1: Although nothing besides God is the ultimate goal, He
Himself is the goal for everything He created. This is true due to His essence, because by His essence He is good, as noted above (Q. 6,
A. 3): for the ultimate goal has a quality of goodness.

Reply Obj. 2: Will in us belongs to the appetitive part, which, although named from appetite, has not for its only act the seeking what it does not possess; but also the loving and the delighting in what it does possess. In this respect will is said to be in God, as having always good which is its object, since, as already said, it is not distinct from His essence.

Reply Obj. 2: Our will is part of our desires, which, although named after wanting, doesn’t only act by seeking what we don't have; it also involves loving and taking pleasure in what we do have. In this sense, God's will is understood as having always the good as its object, since, as mentioned before, it is not separate from His essence.

Reply Obj. 3: A will of which the principal object is a good outside itself, must be moved by another; but the object of the divine will is His goodness, which is His essence. Hence, since the will of God is His essence, it is not moved by another than itself, but by itself alone, in the same sense as understanding and willing are said to be movement. This is what Plato meant when he said that the first mover moves itself. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: A will that aims for something good beyond itself must be influenced by something else; however, the object of the divine will is His goodness, which is part of His essence. Therefore, since God's will is His essence, it is not prompted by anything outside of itself but moves by itself alone, similar to how understanding and willing are considered a form of movement. This is what Plato meant when he stated that the first mover moves itself.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 2]

Whether God Wills Things Apart from Himself?

Whether God Wants Things Separate from Himself?

Objection 1: It seems that God does not will things apart from
Himself. For the divine will is the divine existence. But God is not
other than Himself. Therefore He does not will things other than
Himself.

Objection 1: It appears that God does not will things apart from
Himself. For the divine will is the divine existence. But God is not
separate from Himself. Therefore, He does not will things other than
Himself.

Obj. 2: Further, the willed moves the willer, as the appetible the appetite, as stated in De Anima iii, 54. If, therefore, God wills anything apart from Himself, His will must be moved by another; which is impossible.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the one who makes a choice influences the chooser, just as the desirable influences desire, as noted in De Anima iii, 54. Therefore, if God wills anything outside of Himself, His will would have to be influenced by something else; which is impossible.

Obj. 3: Further, if what is willed suffices the willer, he seeks nothing beyond it. But His own goodness suffices God, and completely satisfies His will. Therefore God does not will anything apart from Himself.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if what someone wants is enough for them, they don't seek anything more. God's goodness is sufficient for Him and fully satisfies His desire. Therefore, God doesn't will anything apart from Himself.

Obj. 4: Further, acts of will are multiplied in proportion to the number of their objects. If, therefore, God wills Himself and things apart from Himself, it follows that the act of His will is manifold, and consequently His existence, which is His will. But this is impossible. Therefore God does not will things apart from Himself.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the number of acts of will increases with the number of objects. If God wills both Himself and things outside of Himself, then His act of will is diverse, and thus His existence, which is His will, is also diverse. But this is impossible. Therefore, God does not will things outside of Himself.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (1 Thess. 4:3): "This is the will of God, your sanctification."

On the contrary, The Apostle says (1 Thess. 4:3): "This is God's will, your sanctification."

I answer that, God wills not only Himself, but other things apart from Himself. This is clear from the comparison which we made above (A. 1). For natural things have a natural inclination not only towards their own proper good, to acquire it if not possessed, and, if possessed, to rest therein; but also to spread abroad their own good amongst others, so far as possible. Hence we see that every agent, in so far as it is perfect and in act, produces its like. It pertains, therefore, to the nature of the will to communicate as far as possible to others the good possessed; and especially does this pertain to the divine will, from which all perfection is derived in some kind of likeness. Hence, if natural things, in so far as they are perfect, communicate their good to others, much more does it appertain to the divine will to communicate by likeness its own good to others as much as possible. Thus, then, He wills both Himself to be, and other things to be; but Himself as the end, and other things as ordained to that end; inasmuch as it befits the divine goodness that other things should be partakers therein.

I answer that, God desires not only Himself but also other things that are separate from Him. This is evident from the comparison we made above (A. 1). Natural things have an inherent tendency not only to seek their own good and to attain it if they don’t have it, but also to share their goodness with others as much as possible. Therefore, we observe that every agent, to the extent that it is complete and active, produces something similar to itself. It belongs to the nature of the will to share its goodness with others as much as it can; this is especially true for the divine will, from which all perfection is derived in some way. Thus, if natural things, as they reach their full potential, share their goodness with others, it is even more inherent to the divine will to share its goodness with others as much as possible. Therefore, He wills both Himself to exist and other things to exist; Himself as the ultimate goal and other things as directed towards that goal, since it is fitting for divine goodness that other things should participate in it.

Reply Obj. 1: The divine will is God's own existence essentially, yet they differ in aspect, according to the different ways of understanding them and expressing them, as is clear from what has already been said (Q. 13, A. 4). For when we say that God exists, no relation to any other object is implied, as we do imply when we say that God wills. Therefore, although He is not anything apart from Himself, yet He does will things apart from Himself.

Reply Obj. 1: God's will is essentially God's own existence, but they differ in how we understand and express them, as has already been explained (Q. 13, A. 4). When we say that God exists, we don't imply a relationship to anything outside of Him, unlike when we say that God wills something. So, while He isn't anything separate from Himself, He does will things that are separate from Himself.

Reply Obj. 2: In things willed for the sake of the end, the whole reason for our being moved is the end, and this it is that moves the will, as most clearly appears in things willed only for the sake of the end. He who wills to take a bitter draught, in doing so wills nothing else than health; and this alone moves his will. It is different with one who takes a draught that is pleasant, which anyone may will to do, not only for the sake of health, but also for its own sake. Hence, although God wills things apart from Himself only for the sake of the end, which is His own goodness, it does not follow that anything else moves His will, except His goodness. So, as He understands things apart from Himself by understanding His own essence, so He wills things apart from Himself by willing His own goodness.

Reply Obj. 2: When we desire things for the sake of an end, the primary motivation behind our actions is that end, which drives our will, especially evident in situations where things are desired solely for the end result. For example, someone who chooses to drink a bitter potion does so with the single intention of achieving health; that aim is what guides their will. In contrast, someone who opts for a pleasant drink might do so not just for health reasons but also for the enjoyment of the drink itself. Therefore, even though God wills things outside of Himself solely for the purpose of His goodness, it doesn’t mean anything else drives His will apart from that goodness. Just as He comprehends things external to Himself by understanding His own essence, He also wills those external things by willing His own goodness.

Reply Obj. 3: From the fact that His own goodness suffices the divine will, it does not follow that it wills nothing apart from itself, but rather that it wills nothing except by reason of its goodness. Thus, too, the divine intellect, though its perfection consists in its very knowledge of the divine essence, yet in that essence knows other things.

Reply Obj. 3: Just because His own goodness is enough for the divine will doesn't mean it desires nothing beyond itself; instead, it means it only desires things due to its goodness. Similarly, although the divine intellect is perfected by its knowledge of the divine essence, it still knows other things within that essence.

Reply Obj. 4: As the divine intellect is one, as seeing the many only in the one, in the same way the divine will is one and simple, as willing the many only through the one, that is, through its own goodness. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Just as the divine intellect is unified, perceiving the many only in the one, the divine will is also singular and straightforward, desiring the many only through the one, which is its own goodness.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 3]

Whether Whatever God Wills He Wills Necessarily?

Whether whatever God wills, He wills necessarily?

Objection 1: It seems that whatever God wills He wills necessarily. For everything eternal is necessary. But whatever God wills, He wills from eternity, for otherwise His will would be mutable. Therefore whatever He wills, He wills necessarily.

Objection 1: It appears that whatever God wants, He wants necessarily. Everything eternal is necessary. But whatever God wants, He has wanted from eternity; otherwise, His will would change. Therefore, everything He wants, He wants necessarily.

Obj. 2: Further, God wills things apart from Himself, inasmuch as He wills His own goodness. Now God wills His own goodness necessarily. Therefore He wills things apart from Himself necessarily.

Obj. 2: Additionally, God desires things outside of Himself, since He desires His own goodness. Now, God necessarily desires His own goodness. Therefore, He necessarily desires things outside of Himself.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever belongs to the nature of God is necessary, for God is of Himself necessary being, and the principle of all necessity, as above shown (Q. 2, A. 3). But it belongs to His nature to will whatever He wills; since in God there can be nothing over and above His nature as stated in Metaph. v, 6. Therefore whatever He wills, He wills necessarily.

Obj. 3: Moreover, everything that is part of God's nature is necessary, because God is a necessary being in Himself and the source of all necessity, as previously shown (Q. 2, A. 3). It is also part of His nature to will whatever He chooses; since nothing can exist beyond His nature, as mentioned in Metaph. v, 6. Therefore, whatever He wills, He wills necessarily.

Obj. 4: Further, being that is not necessary, and being that is possible not to be, are one and the same thing. If, therefore, God does not necessarily will a thing that He wills, it is possible for Him not to will it, and therefore possible for Him to will what He does not will. And so the divine will is contingent upon one or the other of two things, and imperfect, since everything contingent is imperfect and mutable.

Obj. 4: Moreover, what is not necessary and what could possibly not exist are essentially the same. If God does not necessarily will what He chooses to will, it means He could choose not to will it, which also implies He could will something He does not will. Thus, the divine will relies on either of two possibilities and is imperfect, since everything that relies on something is imperfect and changeable.

Obj. 5: Further, on the part of that which is indifferent to one or the other of two things, no action results unless it is inclined to one or the other by some other power, as the Commentator [*Averroes] says in Phys. ii. If, then, the Will of God is indifferent with regard to anything, it follows that His determination to act comes from another; and thus He has some cause prior to Himself.

Obj. 5: Additionally, when it comes to something that doesn’t favor one of two things, no action occurs unless it is influenced toward one or the other by some external force, as the Commentator [*Averroes] states in Phys. ii. Therefore, if God’s Will is neutral regarding something, it implies that His decision to act is based on something else; thus, He has some cause that exists before Himself.

Obj. 6: Further, whatever God knows, He knows necessarily. But as the divine knowledge is His essence, so is the divine will. Therefore whatever God wills, He wills necessarily.

Obj. 6: Furthermore, everything that God knows, He knows necessarily. Just as divine knowledge is part of His essence, so is divine will. Therefore, whatever God wills, He wills necessarily.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Eph. 1:11): "Who worketh all things according to the counsel of His will." Now, what we work according to the counsel of the will, we do not will necessarily. Therefore God does not will necessarily whatever He wills.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Eph. 1:11): "He works everything according to the purpose of His will." Now, what we do based on the purpose of that will, we don't necessarily desire. Therefore, God doesn't necessarily will everything He chooses to will.

I answer that, There are two ways in which a thing is said to be necessary, namely, absolutely, and by supposition. We judge a thing to be absolutely necessary from the relation of the terms, as when the predicate forms part of the definition of the subject: thus it is absolutely necessary that man is an animal. It is the same when the subject forms part of the notion of the predicate; thus it is absolutely necessary that a number must be odd or even. In this way it is not necessary that Socrates sits: wherefore it is not necessary absolutely, though it may be so by supposition; for, granted that he is sitting, he must necessarily sit, as long as he is sitting. Accordingly as to things willed by God, we must observe that He wills something of absolute necessity: but this is not true of all that He wills. For the divine will has a necessary relation to the divine goodness, since that is its proper object. Hence God wills His own goodness necessarily, even as we will our own happiness necessarily, and as any other faculty has necessary relation to its proper and principal object, for instance the sight to color, since it tends to it by its own nature. But God wills things apart from Himself in so far as they are ordered to His own goodness as their end. Now in willing an end we do not necessarily will things that conduce to it, unless they are such that the end cannot be attained without them; as, we will to take food to preserve life, or to take ship in order to cross the sea. But we do not necessarily will things without which the end is attainable, such as a horse for a journey which we can take on foot, for we can make the journey without one. The same applies to other means. Hence, since the goodness of God is perfect, and can exist without other things inasmuch as no perfection can accrue to Him from them, it follows that His willing things apart from Himself is not absolutely necessary. Yet it can be necessary by supposition, for supposing that He wills a thing, then He is unable not to will it, as His will cannot change.

I answer that, There are two ways something can be considered necessary: absolutely and by assumption. We view a thing as absolutely necessary based on the relationship of its terms, like when the predicate is part of the definition of the subject: thus, it is absolutely necessary that a man is an animal. The same applies when the subject is part of the notion of the predicate; hence, it is absolutely necessary that a number must be odd or even. In this sense, it is not necessary that Socrates is sitting; therefore, it is not absolutely necessary, though it could be necessary by assumption; for, if he is sitting, he must necessarily be sitting, as long as he is indeed sitting. Regarding things willed by God, we must note that He wills something with absolute necessity: but this does not apply to everything He wills. The divine will has a necessary connection to divine goodness, as that is its proper object. Thus, God necessarily wills His own goodness, just as we necessarily will our own happiness, and as any other faculty has a necessary relation to its proper and primary object, such as sight to color, as it naturally aims for it. However, God wills things outside Himself insofar as they are ordered towards His own goodness as their ultimate purpose. Now, in willing an end, we do not necessarily will the means that lead to it unless those means are essential for achieving the end; for example, we will to eat to preserve life or to take a ship to cross the sea. But we do not necessarily will things without which the end can still be achieved, like a horse for a journey that we can undertake on foot, as we can complete the journey without one. The same goes for other means. Therefore, since God's goodness is perfect and can exist independently of other things—because no perfection can come to Him from them—it follows that His willing things outside of Himself is not absolutely necessary. Yet, it can be necessary by assumption, for if He wills something, then He cannot choose not to will it, as His will cannot change.

Reply Obj. 1: From the fact that God wills from eternity whatever He wills, it does not follow that He wills it necessarily; except by supposition.

Reply Obj. 1: Just because God has eternally intended everything He wills, it doesn’t mean that He necessarily wills it; only under the assumption.

Reply Obj. 2: Although God necessarily wills His own goodness, He does not necessarily will things willed on account of His goodness; for it can exist without other things.

Reply Obj. 2: While God definitely wants His own goodness, He doesn’t necessarily will things that are willed because of His goodness; because it can exist without other things.

Reply Obj. 3: It is not natural to God to will any of those other things that He does not will necessarily; and yet it is not unnatural or contrary to His nature, but voluntary.

Reply Obj. 3: It's not in God's nature to will anything that He doesn't will necessarily; however, it isn't unnatural or against His nature, but rather a choice.

Reply Obj. 4: Sometimes a necessary cause has a non-necessary relation to an effect; owing to a deficiency in the effect, and not in the cause. Even so, the sun's power has a non-necessary relation to some contingent events on this earth, owing to a defect not in the solar power, but in the effect that proceeds not necessarily from the cause. In the same way, that God does not necessarily will some of the things that He wills, does not result from defect in the divine will, but from a defect belonging to the nature of the thing willed, namely, that the perfect goodness of God can be without it; and such defect accompanies all created good.

Reply Obj. 4: Sometimes a necessary cause has a non-necessary relationship to an effect due to a shortcoming in the effect, not in the cause. For instance, the sun's power has a non-necessary relationship to certain events on earth because of a deficiency not in the solar power itself, but in the effect that doesn’t necessarily come from the cause. Similarly, the fact that God doesn’t necessarily will some of the things He chooses doesn’t indicate a flaw in the divine will, but rather a flaw in the nature of the thing being willed; specifically, that God's perfect goodness can exist without it, and this kind of flaw is present in all created good.

Reply Obj. 5: A naturally contingent cause must be determined to act by some external power. The divine will, which by its nature is necessary, determines itself to will things to which it has no necessary relation.

Reply Obj. 5: A naturally contingent cause must be influenced to act by some outside force. The divine will, which is inherently necessary, chooses to will things that it is not necessarily connected to.

Reply Obj. 6: As the divine essence is necessary of itself, so is the divine will and the divine knowledge; but the divine knowledge has a necessary relation to the thing known; not the divine will to the thing willed. The reason for this is that knowledge is of things as they exist in the knower; but the will is directed to things as they exist in themselves. Since then all other things have necessary existence inasmuch as they exist in God; but no absolute necessity so as to be necessary in themselves, in so far as they exist in themselves; it follows that God knows necessarily whatever He wills, but does not will necessarily whatever He wills. _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: Just as God's essence exists necessarily, so do God's will and knowledge; however, divine knowledge has a necessary connection to what it knows, while divine will does not have a necessary connection to what it chooses. This is because knowledge pertains to things as they are understood by the knower, whereas will is aimed at things as they are in their own nature. Therefore, while all other things have necessary existence because they exist in God, they do not have that existence necessarily on their own. It follows that God necessarily knows everything He chooses, but He does not necessarily choose everything He knows.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 4]

Whether the Will of God Is the Cause of Things?

Whether the Will of God Causes Things?

Objection 1: It seems that the will of God is not the cause of things. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv, 1): "As our sun, not by reason nor by pre-election, but by its very being, enlightens all things that can participate in its light, so the divine good by its very essence pours the rays of goodness upon everything that exists." But every voluntary agent acts by reason and pre-election. Therefore God does not act by will; and so His will is not the cause of things.

Objection 1: It seems that God's will is not the cause of things. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv, 1): "Just as our sun, not through reason or choice, but by its very nature, illuminates all things that can receive its light, the divine good, by its essence, radiates the light of goodness onto everything that exists." But every voluntary agent acts through reason and choice. Therefore, God does not act through will; so, His will is not the cause of things.

Obj. 2: Further, The first in any order is that which is essentially so, thus in the order of burning things, that comes first which is fire by its essence. But God is the first agent. Therefore He acts by His essence; and that is His nature. He acts then by nature, and not by will. Therefore the divine will is not the cause of things.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the first in any order is what is fundamentally first, so in the order of burning things, that which is fire by its essence comes first. But God is the first agent. Therefore, He acts according to His essence, which is His nature. So, He acts by nature, not by will. Therefore, divine will is not the cause of things.

Obj. 3: Further, Whatever is the cause of anything, through being such a thing, is the cause by nature, and not by will. For fire is the cause of heat, as being itself hot; whereas an architect is the cause of a house, because he wills to build it. Now Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. i, 32), "Because God is good, we exist." Therefore God is the cause of things by His nature, and not by His will.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, whatever causes something, simply by being that thing, is a cause by nature, not by choice. Fire causes heat because it is hot; an architect causes a house because he chooses to build it. Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. i, 32), "Because God is good, we exist." Therefore, God is the cause of things by His nature, not by His will.

Obj. 4: Further, Of one thing there is one cause. But the [cause of] created things is the knowledge of God, as said before (Q. 14, A. 8). Therefore the will of God cannot be considered the cause of things.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, for every one thing, there is one cause. But the cause of created things is the knowledge of God, as stated earlier (Q. 14, A. 8). Therefore, the will of God cannot be seen as the cause of things.

On the contrary, It is said (Wis. 11:26), "How could anything endure, if Thou wouldst not?"

On the contrary, It is said (Wis. 11:26), "How could anything last, if You didn't want it to?"

I answer that, We must hold that the will of God is the cause of things; and that He acts by the will, and not, as some have supposed, by a necessity of His nature.

I answer that, We must believe that the will of God is the reason for everything; and that He acts through His will, not, as some have thought, out of a necessity of His nature.

This can be shown in three ways: First, from the order itself of active causes. Since both intellect and nature act for an end, as proved in Phys. ii, 49, the natural agent must have the end and the necessary means predetermined for it by some higher intellect; as the end and definite movement is predetermined for the arrow by the archer. Hence the intellectual and voluntary agent must precede the agent that acts by nature. Hence, since God is first in the order of agents, He must act by intellect and will.

This can be demonstrated in three ways: First, from the order of active causes. Since both intellect and nature operate toward an end, as shown in Phys. ii, 49, the natural agent must have its end and the necessary means set by a higher intellect; similar to how the archer determines the end and direction for the arrow. Therefore, the intellectual and voluntary agent must come before the agent that acts by nature. Since God is the first in the order of agents, He must act through intellect and will.

This is shown, secondly, from the character of a natural agent, of which the property is to produce one and the same effect; for nature operates in one and the same way unless it be prevented. This is because the nature of the act is according to the nature of the agent; and hence as long as it has that nature, its acts will be in accordance with that nature; for every natural agent has a determinate being. Since, then, the Divine Being is undetermined, and contains in Himself the full perfection of being, it cannot be that He acts by a necessity of His nature, unless He were to cause something undetermined and indefinite in being: and that this is impossible has been already shown (Q. 7, A. 2). He does not, therefore, act by a necessity of His nature, but determined effects proceed from His own infinite perfection according to the determination of His will and intellect.

This is illustrated, secondly, by the nature of a natural agent, which consistently produces the same effect; nature works in a consistent manner unless something stops it. This is because the nature of the action reflects the nature of the agent; thus, as long as it retains that nature, its actions will align with it; every natural agent has a specific existence. Since the Divine Being is not limited and encompasses the full perfection of being, He cannot act out of a necessity of His nature unless He were to create something that is not limited or defined in being: and it has already been established that this is impossible (Q. 7, A. 2). Therefore, He does not act out of necessity but rather, specific effects arise from His infinite perfection in accordance with His will and understanding.

Thirdly, it is shown by the relation of effects to their cause. For effects proceed from the agent that causes them, in so far as they pre-exist in the agent; since every agent produces its like. Now effects pre-exist in their cause after the mode of the cause. Wherefore since the Divine Being is His own intellect, effects pre-exist in Him after the mode of intellect, and therefore proceed from Him after the same mode. Consequently, they proceed from Him after the mode of will, for His inclination to put in act what His intellect has conceived appertains to the will. Therefore the will of God is the cause of things.

Thirdly, it’s demonstrated by the relationship between effects and their causes. Effects come from the agent that causes them because they already exist in the agent; every agent produces something similar to itself. Effects exist in their cause in the same way the cause exists. Since the Divine Being is His own intellect, effects exist in Him in the way that intellect does, and so they come from Him in the same way. Therefore, they also come from Him in the way of will, because His desire to actualize what His intellect has envisioned is part of His will. Thus, the will of God is the cause of things.

Reply Obj. 1: Dionysius in these words does not intend to exclude election from God absolutely; but only in a certain sense, in so far, that is, as He communicates His goodness not merely to certain things, but to all; and as election implies a certain distinction.

Reply Obj. 1: Dionysius doesn’t mean to completely rule out God’s election. Rather, he’s indicating it in a specific way, in that God shares His goodness not just with certain things, but with everything; and since election suggests a certain distinction.

Reply Obj. 2: Because the essence of God is His intellect and will, from the fact of His acting by His essence, it follows that He acts after the mode of intellect and will.

Reply Obj. 2: Since the essence of God is His intellect and will, the fact that He acts according to His essence means that He acts in a way that reflects His intellect and will.

Reply Obj. 3: Good is the object of the will. The words, therefore, "Because God is good, we exist," are true inasmuch as His goodness is the reason of His willing all other things, as said before (A. 2, ad 2).

Reply Obj. 3: Good is the aim of the will. So, the statement "Because God is good, we exist" is true because His goodness is the reason He wills everything else, as mentioned earlier (A. 2, ad 2).

Reply Obj. 4: Even in us the cause of one and the same effect is knowledge as directing it, whereby the form of the work is conceived, and will as commanding it, since the form as it is in the intellect only is not determined to exist or not to exist in the effect, except by the will. Hence, the speculative intellect has nothing to say to operation. But the power is cause, as executing the effect, since it denotes the immediate principle of operation. But in God all these things are one. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Even in us, the reason for one and the same effect is knowledge guiding it, through which the form of the work is conceived, and will commanding it, since the form as it exists in the mind isn't determined to exist or not exist in the effect without the will. Therefore, the speculative intellect has no role in action. But the power is the cause, as it brings about the effect, since it represents the immediate principle of action. However, in God, all these aspects are unified.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 5]

Whether Any Cause Can Be Assigned to the Divine Will?

Whether Any Cause Can Be Assigned to the Divine Will?

Objection 1: It seems that some cause can be assigned to the divine will. For Augustine says (Qq. lxxxiii, 46): "Who would venture to say that God made all things irrationally?" But to a voluntary agent, what is the reason of operating, is the cause of willing. Therefore the will of God has some cause.

Objection 1: It seems that some reason can be attributed to the divine will. Augustine states (Qq. lxxxiii, 46): "Who would dare to claim that God created everything without reason?" However, for a voluntary agent, the reason for acting is the cause of wanting. Therefore, God's will has some cause.

Obj. 2: Further, in things made by one who wills to make them, and whose will is influenced by no cause, there can be no cause assigned except by the will of him who wills. But the will of God is the cause of all things, as has been already shown (A. 4). If, then, there is no cause of His will, we cannot seek in any natural things any cause, except the divine will alone. Thus all science would be in vain, since science seeks to assign causes to effects. This seems inadmissible, and therefore we must assign some cause to the divine will.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, in things created by someone who chooses to create them, and whose choice is not influenced by any external factor, there can be no cause assigned other than the choice of that creator. However, the will of God is the cause of everything, as previously established (A. 4). Therefore, if there is no cause for His will, we cannot look to any natural things for causes except the divine will itself. This would render all scientific inquiry pointless, since science aims to find causes for effects. This seems unacceptable, and so we must identify some cause for the divine will.

Obj. 3: Further, what is done by the willer, on account of no cause, depends simply on his will. If, therefore, the will of God has no cause, it follows that all things made depend simply on His will, and have no other cause. But this also is not admissible.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, what the willer does without any reason relies solely on their will. Therefore, if God's will has no reason, it means that everything created depends only on His will and has no other cause. However, this is also not acceptable.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Qq. lxxxiii, 28): "Every efficient cause is greater than the thing effected." But nothing is greater than the will of God. We must not then seek for a cause of it.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Qq. lxxxiii, 28): "Every efficient cause is greater than the thing affected." But nothing is greater than the will of God. We must not then seek a cause for it.

I answer that, In no wise has the will of God a cause. In proof of which we must consider that, since the will follows from the intellect, there is cause of the will in the person who wills, in the same way as there is a cause of the understanding, in the person that understands. The case with the understanding is this: that if the premiss and its conclusion are understood separately from each other, the understanding the premiss is the cause that the conclusion is known. If the understanding perceive the conclusion in the premiss itself, apprehending both the one and the other at the same glance, in this case the knowing of the conclusion would not be caused by understanding the premisses, since a thing cannot be its own cause; and yet, it would be true that the thinker would understand the premisses to be the cause of the conclusion. It is the same with the will, with respect to which the end stands in the same relation to the means to the end, as do the premisses to the conclusion with regard to the understanding.

I answer that, the will of God has no cause. To prove this, we need to consider that the will comes from the intellect, just as there is a cause for understanding in the person who understands. With understanding, if the premise and its conclusion are viewed separately, the understanding of the premise is what causes the conclusion to be known. If understanding sees the conclusion within the premise itself, grasping both at once, then knowing the conclusion isn't caused by understanding the premises, since something can't be its own cause; however, it would still be accurate to say that the thinker sees the premises as the cause of the conclusion. The same applies to the will, where the end relates to the means of achieving it just as the premises relate to the conclusion in understanding.

Hence, if anyone in one act wills an end, and in another act the means to that end, his willing the end will be the cause of his willing the means. This cannot be the case if in one act he wills both end and means; for a thing cannot be its own cause. Yet it will be true to say that he wills to order to the end the means to the end. Now as God by one act understands all things in His essence, so by one act He wills all things in His goodness. Hence, as in God to understand the cause is not the cause of His understanding the effect, for He understands the effect in the cause, so, in Him, to will an end is not the cause of His willing the means, yet He wills the ordering of the means to the end. Therefore, He wills this to be as means to that; but does not will this on account of that.

So, if someone in one action intends an end and in another action intends the means to that end, their intention for the end will be the reason for their intention for the means. This isn’t the case if in one action they intend both the end and the means, because something can’t be its own cause. However, it would be accurate to say that they aim to organize the means toward the end. Just as God understands everything in His essence in one single action, He also wills all things in His goodness in one act. Thus, for God, understanding the cause isn’t the reason for understanding the effect, because He comprehends the effect in relation to the cause. Similarly, to will an end is not the reason for His willing the means; yet, He desires the arrangement of the means toward the end. Therefore, He intends this as a means to that; but He doesn’t intend this because of that.

Reply Obj. 1: The will of God is reasonable, not because anything is to God a cause of willing, but in so far as He wills one thing to be on account of another.

Reply Obj. 1: God's will is reasonable, not because anything causes Him to will, but because He desires one thing for the sake of another.

Reply Obj. 2: Since God wills effects to proceed from definite causes, for the preservation of order in the universe, it is not unreasonable to seek for causes secondary to the divine will. It would, however, be unreasonable to do so, if such were considered as primary, and not as dependent on the will of God. In this sense Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 2): "Philosophers in their vanity have thought fit to attribute contingent effects to other causes, being utterly unable to perceive the cause that is shown above all others, the will of God."

Reply Obj. 2: Since God intends for effects to come from specific causes to maintain order in the universe, it’s logical to look for causes that are secondary to the divine will. However, it would be unreasonable to consider these secondary causes as primary and independent of God’s will. In this regard, Augustine states (De Trin. iii, 2): "Philosophers, in their arrogance, have mistakenly attributed random effects to other causes, completely failing to recognize the cause that stands out above all others, the will of God."

Reply Obj. 3: Since God wills effects to come from causes, all effects that presuppose some other effect do not depend solely on the will of God, but on something else besides: but the first effect depends on the divine will alone. Thus, for example, we may say that God willed man to have hands to serve his intellect by their work, and intellect, that he might be man; and willed him to be man that he might enjoy Him, or for the completion of the universe. But this cannot be reduced to other created secondary ends. Hence such things depend on the simple will of God; but the others on the order of other causes. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Since God intends for effects to arise from causes, all effects that rely on some other effect do not depend solely on God's will, but also on something else: however, the first effect relies only on God's divine will. For instance, we can say that God wanted man to have hands to help his intellect through their work, and intellect so that he might be human; and He intended for him to be human so that he could enjoy Him, or for the sake of completing the universe. But this cannot be reduced to other created secondary purposes. Therefore, these matters depend on God's simple will, while the others depend on the arrangement of other causes.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 6]

Whether the Will of God Is Always Fulfilled?

Whether the Will of God Is Always Fulfilled?

Objection 1: It seems that the will of God is not always fulfilled.
For the Apostle says (1 Tim. 2:4): "God will have all men to be saved,
and to come to the knowledge of the truth." But this does not happen.
Therefore the will of God is not always fulfilled.

Objection 1: It seems that God's will isn't always accomplished.
For the Apostle says (1 Tim. 2:4): "God wants all people to be saved,
and to come to the knowledge of the truth." But this doesn't happen.
Therefore, God's will isn't always fulfilled.

Obj. 2: Further, as is the relation of knowledge to truth, so is that of the will to good. Now God knows all truth. Therefore He wills all good. But not all good actually exists; for much more good might exist. Therefore the will of God is not always fulfilled.

Obj. 2: Also, just as knowledge relates to truth, so does the will relate to good. Now God knows all truth. Therefore, He intends all good. However, not all good actually exists; much more good could exist. So, God's will is not always accomplished.

Obj. 3: Further, since the will of God is the first cause, it does not exclude intermediate causes. But the effect of a first cause may be hindered by a defect of a secondary cause; as the effect of the motive power may be hindered by the weakness of the limb. Therefore the effect of the divine will may be hindered by a defect of the secondary causes. The will of God, therefore, is not always fulfilled.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, since God's will is the primary cause, it doesn't eliminate the role of intermediate causes. However, the results of a primary cause can be obstructed by flaws in a secondary cause; just like the effect of the driving force can be limited by the weakness of a limb. Therefore, the outcomes of God's will can be hindered by deficiencies in secondary causes. Thus, God's will is not always accomplished.

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 113:11): "God hath done all things, whatsoever He would."

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 113:11): "God has done everything He wanted."

I answer that, The will of God must needs always be fulfilled. In proof of which we must consider that since an effect is conformed to the agent according to its form, the rule is the same with active causes as with formal causes. The rule in forms is this: that although a thing may fall short of any particular form, it cannot fall short of the universal form. For though a thing may fail to be, for example, a man or a living being, yet it cannot fail to be a being. Hence the same must happen in active causes. Something may fall outside the order of any particular active cause, but not outside the order of the universal cause; under which all particular causes are included: and if any particular cause fails of its effect, this is because of the hindrance of some other particular cause, which is included in the order of the universal cause. Therefore an effect cannot possibly escape the order of the universal cause. Even in corporeal things this is clearly seen. For it may happen that a star is hindered from producing its effects; yet whatever effect does result, in corporeal things, from this hindrance of a corporeal cause, must be referred through intermediate causes to the universal influence of the first heaven. Since, then, the will of God is the universal cause of all things, it is impossible that the divine will should not produce its effect. Hence that which seems to depart from the divine will in one order, returns into it in another order; as does the sinner, who by sin falls away from the divine will as much as lies in him, yet falls back into the order of that will, when by its justice he is punished.

I answer that, The will of God must always be fulfilled. To prove this, we should consider that since an effect matches the agent according to its form, the principle applies to active causes just like it does to formal causes. The principle with forms is this: even if something falls short of a specific form, it cannot fall short of the universal form. For instance, while something might fail to be, say, a man or a living being, it cannot fail to be a being. The same applies to active causes. Something may fall outside the scope of a specific active cause, but not outside the scope of the universal cause, which encompasses all particular causes. If any specific cause doesn’t achieve its effect, it’s due to the obstruction of another specific cause, which is included in the order of the universal cause. Therefore, an effect cannot escape the order of the universal cause. This is evident even in physical things. A star might be prevented from producing its effects, yet whatever effect does emerge from this obstruction in physical causes must be traced through intermediate causes back to the universal influence of the first heaven. Since the will of God is the universal cause of all things, it’s impossible for the divine will not to produce its effect. Thus, what appears to stray from the divine will in one context ultimately returns to it in another context; similar to a sinner, who by sinning diverges from the divine will as much as possible, yet falls back into the order of that will when punished by its justice.

Reply Obj. 1: The words of the Apostle, "God will have all men to be saved," etc. can be understood in three ways. First, by a restricted application, in which case they would mean, as Augustine says (De praed. sanct. i, 8: Enchiridion 103), "God wills all men to be saved that are saved, not because there is no man whom He does not wish saved, but because there is no man saved whose salvation He does not will." Secondly, they can be understood as applying to every class of individuals, not to every individual of each class; in which case they mean that God wills some men of every class and condition to be saved, males and females, Jews and Gentiles, great and small, but not all of every condition. Thirdly, according to Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii, 29), they are understood of the antecedent will of God; not of the consequent will. This distinction must not be taken as applying to the divine will itself, in which there is nothing antecedent nor consequent, but to the things willed.

Reply Obj. 1: The Apostle's words, "God wants all people to be saved," etc. can be understood in three ways. First, in a limited sense, which means, as Augustine says (De praed. sanct. i, 8: Enchiridion 103), "God wants all people who are saved to be saved, not because there is anyone He doesn't want saved, but because there is no one saved whose salvation He doesn't will." Secondly, they can be understood as referring to every group of individuals, not to every individual within each group; meaning that God wants some people from every group and status to be saved—males and females, Jews and Gentiles, great and small—but not everyone from each status. Thirdly, according to Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii, 29), they refer to God's antecedent will, not His consequent will. This distinction should not be applied to God's will itself, which has neither antecedent nor consequent, but to the things that are willed.

To understand this we must consider that everything, in so far as it is good, is willed by God. A thing taken in its primary sense, and absolutely considered, may be good or evil, and yet when some additional circumstances are taken into account, by a consequent consideration may be changed into the contrary. Thus that a man should live is good; and that a man should be killed is evil, absolutely considered. But if in a particular case we add that a man is a murderer or dangerous to society, to kill him is a good; that he live is an evil. Hence it may be said of a just judge, that antecedently he wills all men to live; but consequently wills the murderer to be hanged. In the same way God antecedently wills all men to be saved, but consequently wills some to be damned, as His justice exacts. Nor do we will simply, what we will antecedently, but rather we will it in a qualified manner; for the will is directed to things as they are in themselves, and in themselves they exist under particular qualifications. Hence we will a thing simply inasmuch as we will it when all particular circumstances are considered; and this is what is meant by willing consequently. Thus it may be said that a just judge wills simply the hanging of a murderer, but in a qualified manner he would will him to live, to wit, inasmuch as he is a man. Such a qualified will may be called a willingness rather than an absolute will. Thus it is clear that whatever God simply wills takes place; although what He wills antecedently may not take place.

To understand this, we have to recognize that everything that is good is willed by God. A thing, when considered in its most basic sense, can be good or evil, and yet when we take additional circumstances into account, it may be seen in the opposite light. For example, it's good for a person to live; it's evil for a person to be killed, in a straightforward sense. But if we consider a specific situation where someone is a murderer or a threat to society, killing him becomes a good act, and allowing him to live becomes an evil one. Thus, we can say that a just judge wants all people to live at first; however, in light of circumstances, he also wants the murderer to be executed. Similarly, God desires that all people be saved, but due to His justice, He consequently wills that some be condemned. Moreover, we don't simply will what we want initially; instead, we will it in a specific context because our will is directed towards things as they truly are, which means they exist with particular qualifiers. Therefore, we will something simply when we want it while considering all the particular circumstances, which is what is meant by willing in a consequential manner. Thus, it can be said that a just judge wills the hanging of a murderer simply, but in a qualified way, he would want him to live, as he is a human. This qualified will might be better described as a willingness rather than an absolute will. Thus, it's clear that whatever God simply wills comes to pass, even if what He wills initially may not happen.

Reply Obj. 2: An act of the cognitive faculty is according as the thing known is in the knower; while an act of the appetite faculty is directed to things as they exist in themselves. But all that can have the nature of being and truth virtually exists in God, though it does not all exist in created things. Therefore God knows all truth; but does not will all good, except in so far as He wills Himself, in Whom all good virtually exists.

Reply Obj. 2: An act of thinking happens when the thing being known exists in the person knowing it; whereas an act of desire is aimed at things as they are in their true form. However, everything that has the nature of existence and truth exists in God, even if it doesn't all exist in created things. So, God knows all truth; but He does not will all good, except in so far as He wills Himself, in whom all good exists in potential.

Reply Obj. 3: A first cause can be hindered in its effect by deficiency in the secondary cause, when it is not the universal first cause, including within itself all causes; for then the effect could in no way escape its order. And thus it is with the will of God, as said above. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: A primary cause can be obstructed in its effect by shortcomings in the secondary cause, when it is not the universal primary cause that encompasses all causes; in that case, the effect couldn't possibly deviate from its intended order. This is also true for the will of God, as mentioned earlier.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 7]

Whether the Will of God Is Changeable?

Whether the Will of God Can Change?

Objection 1: It seems that the will of God is changeable. For the Lord says (Gen. 6:7): "It repenteth Me that I have made man." But whoever repents of what he has done, has a changeable will. Therefore God has a changeable will.

Objection 1: It seems that God's will can change. For the Lord says (Gen. 6:7): "I regret that I made man." But anyone who regrets what they've done has a will that can change. Therefore, God has a changeable will.

Obj. 2: Further, it is said in the person of the Lord: "I will speak against a nation and against a kingdom, to root out, and to pull down, and to destroy it; but if that nation shall repent of its evil, I also will repent of the evil that I have thought to do to them" (Jer. 18:7, 8). Therefore God has a changeable will.

Obj. 2: Additionally, it is stated by the Lord: "I will declare my intent against a nation and a kingdom, to tear it down, to destroy it; but if that nation turns away from its wrongdoing, I will also change my mind about the disaster I planned to bring upon them" (Jer. 18:7, 8). Therefore, God has a will that can change.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever God does, He does voluntarily. But God does not always do the same thing, for at one time He ordered the law to be observed, and at another time forbade it. Therefore He has a changeable will.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, everything God does, He does willingly. However, God doesn't always act the same way; at one time He commanded the law to be followed, and at another, He prohibited it. Therefore, His will is changeable.

Obj. 4: Further, God does not will of necessity what He wills, as said before (A. 3). Therefore He can both will and not will the same thing. But whatever can incline to either of two opposites, is changeable substantially; and that which can exist in a place or not in that place, is changeable locally. Therefore God is changeable as regards His will.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, God doesn't have to will what He wills, as stated earlier (A. 3). Therefore, He can both will and not will the same thing. But anything that can lean toward either of two opposites is essentially changeable; and that which can exist in a certain location or not exist in that location is changeable in terms of its place. Therefore, God is changeable regarding His will.

On the contrary, It is said: "God is not as a man, that He should lie, nor as the son of man, that He should be changed" (Num. 23:19).

On the contrary, it is said: "God is not like a man, that He should lie, nor like a human being, that He should change" (Num. 23:19).

I answer that, The will of God is entirely unchangeable. On this point we must consider that to change the will is one thing; to will that certain things should be changed is another. It is possible to will a thing to be done now, and its contrary afterwards; and yet for the will to remain permanently the same: whereas the will would be changed, if one should begin to will what before he had not willed; or cease to will what he had willed before. This cannot happen, unless we presuppose change either in the knowledge or in the disposition of the substance of the willer. For since the will regards good, a man may in two ways begin to will a thing. In one way when that thing begins to be good for him, and this does not take place without a change in him. Thus when the cold weather begins, it becomes good to sit by the fire; though it was not so before. In another way when he knows for the first time that a thing is good for him, though he did not know it before; hence we take counsel in order to know what is good for us. Now it has already been shown that both the substance of God and His knowledge are entirely unchangeable (QQ. 9, A. 1; 14, A. 15). Therefore His will must be entirely unchangeable.

I answer that, The will of God is completely unchangeable. We need to understand that changing the will is one thing, but wanting certain things to change is another. It's possible to want something to happen now and then want the opposite later, while the will itself remains unchanged. The will would only change if someone started wanting something they hadn't wanted before or stopped wanting something they had previously wanted. This can only happen if we assume there was a change in the knowledge or in the character of the person wanting. Since the will is focused on what is good, a person might start wanting something in two ways. One way is when that thing becomes good for them, which doesn't happen without some change within them. For example, when cold weather arrives, it becomes enjoyable to sit by the fire, even though it wasn't before. The other way is when they learn for the first time that something is good for them, even though they didn't know it before; that’s why we seek advice to understand what’s good for us. It's already been demonstrated that both the essence of God and His knowledge are completely unchangeable (QQ. 9, A. 1; 14, A. 15). Therefore, His will must also be completely unchangeable.

Reply Obj. 1: These words of the Lord are to be understood metaphorically, and according to the likeness of our nature. For when we repent, we destroy what we have made; although we may even do so without change of will; as, when a man wills to make a thing, at the same time intending to destroy it later. Therefore God is said to have repented, by way of comparison with our mode of acting, in so far as by the deluge He destroyed from the face of the earth man whom He had made.

Reply Obj. 1: These words of the Lord should be understood metaphorically and in relation to our human nature. When we repent, we essentially undo what we've created; this can happen even without a change in our intentions, just like when someone decides to create something while also planning to destroy it later. Therefore, God is described as having repented, in a way that compares to how we act, because through the flood, He wiped out the humans He had made from the earth.

Reply Obj. 2: The will of God, as it is the first and universal cause, does not exclude intermediate causes that have power to produce certain effects. Since however all intermediate causes are inferior in power to the first cause, there are many things in the divine power, knowledge and will that are not included in the order of inferior causes. Thus in the case of the raising of Lazarus, one who looked only on inferior causes might have said: "Lazarus will not rise again," but looking at the divine first cause might have said: "Lazarus will rise again." And God wills both: that is, that in the order of the inferior cause a thing shall happen; but that in the order of the higher cause it shall not happen; or He may will conversely. We may say, then, that God sometimes declares that a thing shall happen according as it falls under the order of inferior causes, as of nature, or merit, which yet does not happen as not being in the designs of the divine and higher cause. Thus He foretold to Ezechias: "Take order with thy house, for thou shalt die, and not live" (Isa. 38:1). Yet this did not take place, since from eternity it was otherwise disposed in the divine knowledge and will, which is unchangeable. Hence Gregory says (Moral. xvi, 5): "The sentence of God changes, but not His counsel"—that is to say, the counsel of His will. When therefore He says, "I also will repent," His words must be understood metaphorically. For men seem to repent, when they do not fulfill what they have threatened.

Reply Obj. 2: God's will, being the primary and universal cause, does not eliminate the role of intermediate causes that can produce certain effects. However, since all intermediate causes are lesser in power than the primary cause, there are many things in divine power, knowledge, and will that are not accounted for by inferior causes. For instance, when Lazarus was raised, someone focused only on inferior causes might have claimed, "Lazarus won’t rise again," but looking at the divine primary cause, one might say, "Lazarus will rise again." God wills both: that something happens according to the order of inferior causes, like nature or merit, and at the same time, it may not happen in the order of the higher cause; or He might will the opposite. We can then say that sometimes God proclaims that something will happen according to the order of inferior causes, yet it might not occur as it doesn't align with the designs of the divine and higher cause. For example, He told Hezekiah, "Put your house in order, for you will die and not live" (Isa. 38:1). Yet this did not happen, since it was determined differently in divine knowledge and will, which is unchangeable. Hence, Gregory says (Moral. xvi, 5): "The sentence of God changes, but not His counsel"—referring to the counsel of His will. Therefore, when He says, "I will also repent," His words should be understood metaphorically. For people seem to repent when they fail to carry out what they have threatened.

Reply Obj. 3: It does not follow from this argument that God has a will that changes, but that He sometimes wills that things should change.

Reply Obj. 3: This argument doesn't imply that God’s will changes, but rather that He sometimes decides that things should change.

Reply Obj. 4: Although God's willing a thing is not by absolute necessity, yet it is necessary by supposition, on account of the unchangeableness of the divine will, as has been said above (A. 3). _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Even though God’s will doesn’t make something absolutely necessary, it is necessary by assumption because of the unchanging nature of the divine will, as mentioned earlier (A. 3).

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 8]

Whether the Will of God Imposes Necessity on the Things Willed?

Whether God's Will Forces Necessity on What Is Willed?

Objection 1: It seems that the will of God imposes necessity on the things willed. For Augustine says (Enchiridion 103): "No one is saved, except whom God has willed to be saved. He must therefore be asked to will it; for if He wills it, it must necessarily be."

Objection 1: It appears that God's will gives necessity to the things He wills. For Augustine states (Enchiridion 103): "No one is saved, except those whom God has decided to save. Therefore, He must be asked to will it; for if He wills it, it must necessarily happen."

Obj. 2: Further, every cause that cannot be hindered, produces its effect necessarily, because, as the Philosopher says (Phys. ii, 84) "Nature always works in the same way, if there is nothing to hinder it." But the will of God cannot be hindered. For the Apostle says (Rom. 9:19): "Who resisteth His will?" Therefore the will of God imposes necessity on the things willed.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, every cause that cannot be prevented necessarily produces its effect, because, as the Philosopher says (Phys. ii, 84), "Nature always operates the same way unless something stops it." But God's will cannot be prevented. For the Apostle says (Rom. 9:19): "Who can resist His will?" Therefore, God's will creates necessity for the things that are willed.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever is necessary by its antecedent cause is necessary absolutely; it is thus necessary that animals should die, being compounded of contrary elements. Now things created by God are related to the divine will as to an antecedent cause, whereby they have necessity. For the conditional statement is true that if God wills a thing, it comes to pass; and every true conditional statement is necessary. It follows therefore that all that God wills is necessary absolutely.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, whatever is needed by its preceding cause is absolutely necessary; therefore, it is necessary for animals to die, as they are made up of opposing elements. Created things relate to God's will as their prior cause, which is how they become necessary. The conditional statement holds true that if God wants something, it happens; and every true conditional statement is necessary. Thus, it follows that everything God wants is absolutely necessary.

On the contrary, All good things that exist God wills to be. If therefore His will imposes necessity on things willed, it follows that all good happens of necessity; and thus there is an end of free will, counsel, and all other such things.

On the contrary, all good things that exist are willed by God. If His will makes things necessary, then it follows that all good happens necessarily; and that means there is no such thing as free will, choice, or any of those other concepts.

I answer that, The divine will imposes necessity on some things willed but not on all. The reason of this some have chosen to assign to intermediate causes, holding that what God produces by necessary causes is necessary; and what He produces by contingent causes contingent.

I respond that, The divine will makes some things necessary but not all. Some people attribute this to intermediate causes, believing that what God creates through necessary causes is necessary; while what He creates through contingent causes is contingent.

This does not seem to be a sufficient explanation, for two reasons. First, because the effect of a first cause is contingent on account of the secondary cause, from the fact that the effect of the first cause is hindered by deficiency in the second cause, as the sun's power is hindered by a defect in the plant. But no defect of a secondary cause can hinder God's will from producing its effect. Secondly, because if the distinction between the contingent and the necessary is to be referred only to secondary causes, this must be independent of the divine intention and will; which is inadmissible. It is better therefore to say that this happens on account of the efficacy of the divine will. For when a cause is efficacious to act, the effect follows upon the cause, not only as to the thing done, but also as to its manner of being done or of being. Thus from defect of active power in the seed it may happen that a child is born unlike its father in accidental points, that belong to its manner of being. Since then the divine will is perfectly efficacious, it follows not only that things are done, which God wills to be done, but also that they are done in the way that He wills. Now God wills some things to be done necessarily, some contingently, to the right ordering of things, for the building up of the universe. Therefore to some effects He has attached necessary causes, that cannot fail; but to others defectible and contingent causes, from which arise contingent effects. Hence it is not because the proximate causes are contingent that the effects willed by God happen contingently, but because God prepared contingent causes for them, it being His will that they should happen contingently.

This doesn’t seem like a sufficient explanation for two reasons. First, the effect of a first cause is dependent on a secondary cause, because the first cause's effect can be blocked by a shortcoming in the second cause, just like the sun's power is limited by a flaw in a plant. However, no shortcoming of a secondary cause can stop God’s will from producing its effect. Second, if the difference between what’s contingent and necessary is solely related to secondary causes, it must be separate from divine intention and will, which isn't acceptable. So it’s better to say that this occurs because of the effectiveness of God's will. When a cause effectively acts, the effect follows from the cause, not just regarding the action itself but also regarding how it happens or exists. For example, due to a lack of active power in the seed, a child can be born different from its father in some accidental traits that relate to how it exists. Since God’s will is fully effective, not only do the things God wants happen, but they also happen in the way He intends. God wills some things to happen necessarily and others contingently, for the proper ordering of everything and for building up the universe. Therefore, He has assigned necessary causes to certain effects that cannot fail, while others have imperfect and contingent causes, resulting in contingent effects. Thus, the effects willed by God occur contingently, not because the immediate causes are contingent, but because God chose to prepare contingent causes for them, wanting them to happen that way.

Reply Obj. 1: By the words of Augustine we must understand a necessity in things willed by God that is not absolute, but conditional. For the conditional statement that if God wills a thing it must necessarily be, is necessarily true.

Reply Obj. 1: According to Augustine, we should interpret a necessity in the things that God wills as not absolute but conditional. The conditional statement that if God wills something, it must necessarily happen, is necessarily true.

Reply Obj. 2: From the very fact that nothing resists the divine will, it follows that not only those things happen that God wills to happen, but that they happen necessarily or contingently according to His will.

Reply Obj. 2: Because nothing goes against the divine will, it means that not only do the things God wants to happen occur, but they happen either necessarily or dependently based on His will.

Reply Obj. 3: Consequents have necessity from their antecedents according to the mode of the antecedents. Hence things effected by the divine will have that kind of necessity that God wills them to have, either absolute or conditional. Not all things, therefore, are absolute necessities. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Consequences have necessity based on their preceding factors according to the nature of those factors. Therefore, things brought about by divine will possess the type of necessity that God wants them to have, either absolute or conditional. Thus, not everything is an absolute necessity.

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 8]

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 8]

Whether God Wills Evils?

Does God allow evil?

Objection 1: It seems that God wills evils. For every good that exists, God wills. But it is a good that evil should exist. For Augustine says (Enchiridion 95): "Although evil in so far as it is evil is not a good, yet it is good that not only good things should exist, but also evil things." Therefore God wills evil things.

Objection 1: It seems that God allows evil. For every good that exists, God wills it. But it is good that evil should exist. As Augustine says (Enchiridion 95): "Although evil, as it is evil, is not good, it is good that not only good things exist, but also evil things." Therefore, God allows evil things.

Obj. 2: Further, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv, 23): "Evil would conduce to the perfection of everything," i.e. the universe. And Augustine says (Enchiridion 10, 11): "Out of all things is built up the admirable beauty of the universe, wherein even that which is called evil, properly ordered and disposed, commends the good more evidently in that good is more pleasing and praiseworthy when contrasted with evil." But God wills all that appertains to the perfection and beauty of the universe, for this is what God desires above all things in His creatures. Therefore God wills evil.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv, 23): "Evil contributes to the perfection of everything," meaning the universe. Augustine also mentions (Enchiridion 10, 11): "The admirable beauty of the universe is created from all things, where even what is deemed evil, when properly ordered and arranged, highlights the good more clearly, as the good becomes more pleasing and commendable when compared to evil." God desires everything that relates to the perfection and beauty of the universe because that is what He seeks above all else in His creations. Therefore, God allows evil.

Obj. 3: Further, that evil should exist, and should not exist, are contradictory opposites. But God does not will that evil should not exist; otherwise, since various evils do exist, God's will would not always be fulfilled. Therefore God wills that evil should exist.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the existence of evil and the non-existence of evil are contradictory opposites. However, God does not desire for evil to not exist; otherwise, since various evils do exist, God's will would not always be achieved. Therefore, God desires for evil to exist.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Qq. 83,3): "No wise man is the cause of another man becoming worse. Now God surpasses all men in wisdom. Much less therefore is God the cause of man becoming worse; and when He is said to be the cause of a thing, He is said to will it." Therefore it is not by God's will that man becomes worse. Now it is clear that every evil makes a thing worse. Therefore God wills not evil things.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Qq. 83,3): "No wise person causes another to become worse. God is wiser than all people. Therefore, God does not cause anyone to become worse; and when it is said that He causes something, it means He wills it." So, it is not by God's will that a person becomes worse. It is clear that every evil thing makes something worse. Therefore, God does not will evil things.

I answer that, Since the ratio of good is the ratio of appetibility, as said before (Q. 5, A. 1), and since evil is opposed to good, it is impossible that any evil, as such, should be sought for by the appetite, either natural, or animal, or by the intellectual appetite which is the will. Nevertheless evil may be sought accidentally, so far as it accompanies a good, as appears in each of the appetites. For a natural agent intends not privation or corruption, but the form to which is annexed the privation of some other form, and the generation of one thing, which implies the corruption of another. Also when a lion kills a stag, his object is food, to obtain which the killing of the animal is only the means. Similarly the fornicator has merely pleasure for his object, and the deformity of sin is only an accompaniment. Now the evil that accompanies one good, is the privation of another good. Never therefore would evil be sought after, not even accidentally, unless the good that accompanies the evil were more desired than the good of which the evil is the privation. Now God wills no good more than He wills His own goodness; yet He wills one good more than another. Hence He in no way wills the evil of sin, which is the privation of right order towards the divine good. The evil of natural defect, or of punishment, He does will, by willing the good to which such evils are attached. Thus in willing justice He wills punishment; and in willing the preservation of the natural order, He wills some things to be naturally corrupted.

I answer that, Since the ratio of good is related to how desirable something is, as mentioned earlier (Q. 5, A. 1), and since evil is the opposite of good, it’s impossible for any evil, by itself, to be desired by our appetites—whether natural, animal, or the intellectual appetite, which is the will. However, evil can be sought accidentally, in cases where it comes along with a good, as seen in each type of appetite. A natural agent doesn’t intend to cause loss or decay, but aims for a certain form that involves the loss of another form and the creation of something new, which means the destruction of something else. Similarly, when a lion kills a stag, its goal is food, and the act of killing is simply the means to that end. In the same way, a fornicator primarily seeks pleasure, and the sin's ugliness is just a side effect. The evil that comes with one good is essentially the absence of another good. Therefore, evil would never be sought after, even accidentally, unless the good that accompanies the evil is more desired than the good that the evil lacks. God desires no good more than He desires His own goodness; however, He does will one good more than another. Therefore, He does not will the evil of sin, which disrupts the proper order towards divine good. He does will the evil of natural defects or punishment by wanting the good that such evils are linked to. So, in wanting justice, He also wills punishment; and in wanting to maintain the natural order, He allows some things to naturally decay.

Reply Obj. 1: Some have said that although God does not will evil, yet He wills that evil should be or be done, because, although evil is not a good, yet it is good that evil should be or be done. This they said because things evil in themselves are ordered to some good end; and this order they thought was expressed in the words "that evil should be or be done." This, however, is not correct; since evil is not of itself ordered to good, but accidentally. For it is beside the intention of the sinner, that any good should follow from his sin; as it was beside the intention of tyrants that the patience of the martyrs should shine forth from all their persecutions. It cannot therefore be said that such an ordering to good is implied in the statement that it is a good thing that evil should be or be done, since nothing is judged of by that which appertains to it accidentally, but by that which belongs to it essentially.

Reply Obj. 1: Some people argue that although God does not want evil, He allows it to exist or happen because, while evil itself isn’t good, it can lead to some good outcomes. They believe this idea is captured in the phrase "that evil should be or be done." However, this is not correct; evil is not inherently ordered towards good, but only accidentally so. The sinner does not intend for any good to come from their sin, just as the tyrants did not intend for the patience of the martyrs to shine through their persecutions. Therefore, it can't be said that this ordering towards good is implied by the statement that it is good for evil to exist or happen, since nothing is judged based on what happens to it accidentally, but by what it is fundamentally.

Reply Obj. 2: Evil does not operate towards the perfection and beauty of the universe, except accidentally, as said above (ad 1). Therefore Dionysius in saying that "evil would conduce to the perfection of the universe," draws a conclusion by reduction to an absurdity.

Reply Obj. 2: Evil doesn’t contribute to the perfection and beauty of the universe, except by chance, as mentioned earlier (ad 1). Therefore, when Dionysius claims that "evil would lead to the perfection of the universe," he is reaching a conclusion that is absurd.

Reply Obj. 3: The statements that evil exists, and that evil exists not, are opposed as contradictories; yet the statements that anyone wills evil to exist and that he wills it not to be, are not so opposed; since either is affirmative. God therefore neither wills evil to be done, nor wills it not to be done, but wills to permit evil to be done; and this is a good. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The claims that evil exists and that evil does not exist are contradictory; however, the claims that someone wishes for evil to exist and that they do not wish for it to exist are not contradictory, since either statement is affirmative. Therefore, God neither wants evil to happen nor does He wish for it not to happen, but allows evil to occur; and this is a good.

TENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 10]

TENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 10]

Whether God Has Free-Will?

Does God have free will?

Objection 1: It seems that God has not free-will. For Jerome says, in a homily on the prodigal son [*Ep. 146, ad Damas.]; "God alone is He who is not liable to sin, nor can be liable: all others, as having free-will, can be inclined to either side."

Objection 1: It appears that God does not have free will. Jerome says in a homily on the prodigal son [*Ep. 146, ad Damas.]; "God alone is the one who cannot sin, nor can ever be capable of sin; all others, having free will, can be drawn to either side."

Obj. 2: Further, free-will is the faculty of the reason and will, by which good and evil are chosen. But God does not will evil, as has been said (A. 9). Therefore there is not free-will in God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, free will is the ability of reason and will, through which we choose between good and evil. However, God does not will evil, as previously stated (A. 9). Therefore, there is no free will in God.

On the contrary, Ambrose says (De Fide ii, 3): "The Holy Spirit divideth unto each one as He will, namely, according to the free choice of the will, not in obedience to necessity."

On the contrary, Ambrose says (De Fide ii, 3): "The Holy Spirit gives to each person as He chooses, specifically based on the free choice of the will, not because of necessity."

I answer that, We have free-will with respect to what we will not of necessity, nor by natural instinct. For our will to be happy does not appertain to free-will, but to natural instinct. Hence other animals, that are moved to act by natural instinct, are not said to be moved by free-will. Since then God necessarily wills His own goodness, but other things not necessarily, as shown above (A. 3), He has free will with respect to what He does not necessarily will.

I respond that, We have free will regarding what we choose not out of necessity or natural instinct. Our desire for happiness relates to natural instinct, not free will. Therefore, other animals, which act based on natural instinct, are not considered to act out of free will. Since God necessarily wills His own goodness, but does not will other things necessarily, as previously demonstrated (A. 3), He has free will concerning what He does not will necessarily.

Reply Obj. 1: Jerome seems to deny free-will to God not simply, but only as regards the inclination to sin.

Reply Obj. 1: Jerome appears to deny God free will, but only in relation to the inclination to sin.

Reply Obj. 2: Since the evil of sin consists in turning away from the divine goodness, by which God wills all things, as above shown, it is manifestly impossible for Him to will the evil of sin; yet He can make choice of one of two opposites, inasmuch as He can will a thing to be, or not to be. In the same way we ourselves, without sin, can will to sit down, and not will to sit down. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Since the nature of sin involves turning away from God's goodness, which God desires for everything, it’s clear that He cannot will the evil of sin. However, He can choose between two opposites because He has the power to will something to exist or not exist. Similarly, we can choose, without sin, to either sit down or choose not to sit down.

ELEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 11]

ELEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 11]

Whether the Will of Expression Is to Be Distinguished in God?

Whether the Will of Expression Should Be Distinguished in God?

Objection 1: It seems that the will of expression is not to be distinguished in God. For as the will of God is the cause of things, so is His wisdom. But no expressions are assigned to the divine wisdom. Therefore no expressions ought to be assigned to the divine will.

Objection 1: It seems that we shouldn't differentiate the will of God when it comes to expression. Just as God's will is the source of things, so is His wisdom. However, there are no expressions attributed to divine wisdom. Therefore, there shouldn't be any expressions attributed to the divine will.

Obj. 2: Further, every expression that is not in agreement with the mind of him who expresses himself, is false. If therefore the expressions assigned to the divine will are not in agreement with that will, they are false. But if they do agree, they are superfluous. No expressions therefore must be assigned to the divine will.

Obj. 2: Additionally, any statement that doesn't align with the thoughts of the person expressing it is false. Therefore, if the statements attributed to the divine will do not match that will, they are false. However, if they do match, they are unnecessary. Therefore, no statements should be attributed to the divine will.

On the contrary, The will of God is one, since it is the very essence of God. Yet sometimes it is spoken of as many, as in the words of Ps. 110:2: "Great are the works of the Lord, sought out according to all His wills." Therefore sometimes the sign must be taken for the will.

On the contrary, God's will is unified, as it is the very essence of God. However, it is sometimes referred to as multiple, as in Psalm 110:2: "Great are the works of the Lord, sought out according to all His wills." Therefore, sometimes the sign must be interpreted as the will.

I answer that, Some things are said of God in their strict sense; others by metaphor, as appears from what has been said before (Q. 13, A. 3). When certain human passions are predicated of the Godhead metaphorically, this is done because of a likeness in the effect. Hence a thing that is in us a sign of some passion, is signified metaphorically in God under the name of that passion. Thus with us it is usual for an angry man to punish, so that punishment becomes an expression of anger. Therefore punishment itself is signified by the word anger, when anger is attributed to God. In the same way, what is usually with us an expression of will, is sometimes metaphorically called will in God; just as when anyone lays down a precept, it is a sign that he wishes that precept obeyed. Hence a divine precept is sometimes called by metaphor the will of God, as in the words: "Thy will be done on earth, as it is in heaven" (Matt. 6:10). There is, however, this difference between will and anger, that anger is never attributed to God properly, since in its primary meaning it includes passion; whereas will is attributed to Him properly. Therefore in God there are distinguished will in its proper sense, and will as attributed to Him by metaphor. Will in its proper sense is called the will of good pleasure; and will metaphorically taken is the will of expression, inasmuch as the sign itself of will is called will.

I respond that, Some things are said about God in their literal sense; others are described through metaphor, as has been discussed previously (Q. 13, A. 3). When certain human emotions are ascribed to the Godhead metaphorically, it reflects a similarity in the resulting effects. Therefore, something that indicates a specific emotion in us is metaphorically signified in God by that same emotion. For instance, it is common for an angry person to punish, making punishment a way to express anger. Thus, the term anger is used to signify punishment when it is attributed to God. Similarly, what typically indicates a desire in us is sometimes metaphorically referred to as will in God; for example, when someone establishes a command, it signifies that they want that command to be followed. Consequently, a divine command is sometimes metaphorically called the will of God, as seen in the phrase: "Thy will be done on earth, as it is in heaven" (Matt. 6:10). However, there is a distinction between will and anger: anger is never properly attributed to God, as its primary meaning involves passion, whereas will is properly attributed to Him. Thus, in God, we can distinguish between will in its proper sense and will as metaphorically attributed to Him. The proper sense of will is termed the will of good pleasure; the metaphorical will is referred to as the will of expression, since the sign itself of will is called will.

Reply Obj. 1: Knowledge is not the cause of a thing being done, unless through the will. For we do not put into act what we know, unless we will to do so. Accordingly expression is not attributed to knowledge, but to will.

Reply Obj. 1: Knowledge doesn't cause something to happen unless there's a choice involved. We don't act on what we know unless we decide to do it. Therefore, expression is linked to will, not just to knowledge.

Reply Obj. 2: Expressions of will are called divine wills, not as being signs that God wills anything; but because what in us is the usual expression of our will, is called the divine will in God. Thus punishment is not a sign that there is anger in God; but it is called anger in Him, from the fact that it is an expression of anger in ourselves. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Expressions of will are referred to as divine wills, not because they indicate that God desires anything; rather, what we typically express as our will is called the divine will in God. Therefore, punishment is not a sign of anger in God; it is termed anger in Him because it reflects an expression of anger in ourselves.

TWELFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 12]

TWELFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 19, Art. 12]

Whether Five Expressions of Will Are Rightly Assigned to the Divine
Will?

Whether Five Expressions of Will Are Rightly Assigned to the Divine
Will?

Objection 1: It seems that five expressions of will—namely, prohibition, precept, counsel, operation, and permission—are not rightly assigned to the divine will. For the same things that God bids us do by His precept or counsel, these He sometimes operates in us, and the same things that He prohibits, these He sometimes permits. They ought not therefore to be enumerated as distinct.

Objection 1: It seems that five expressions of will—prohibition, command, advice, action, and permission—aren't properly attributed to the divine will. The same things that God asks us to do through His command or advice, He sometimes accomplishes in us, and the same things He forbids, He sometimes allows. They shouldn't be listed as separate categories.

Obj. 2: Further, God works nothing unless He wills it, as the Scripture says (Wis. 11:26). But the will of expression is distinct from the will of good pleasure. Therefore operation ought not to be comprehended in the will of expression.

Obj. 2: Moreover, God does nothing without His will, as the Scripture says (Wis. 11:26). However, the will of expression is different from the will of good pleasure. Therefore, action should not be understood as part of the will of expression.

Obj. 3: Further, operation and permission appertain to all creatures in common, since God works in them all, and permits some action in them all. But precept, counsel, and prohibition belong to rational creatures only. Therefore they do not come rightly under one division, not being of one order.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, operation and permission apply to all creatures in general, since God acts in all of them and allows some actions in all of them. However, commands, advice, and prohibitions apply only to rational beings. Therefore, they don't fit into a single category, as they are not of the same kind.

Obj. 4: Further, evil happens in more ways than good, since "good happens in one way, but evil in all kinds of ways," as declared by the Philosopher (Ethic. ii, 6), and Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv, 22). It is not right therefore to assign one expression only in the case of evil—namely, prohibition—and two—namely, counsel and precept—in the case of good.

Obj. 4: Additionally, evil occurs in more ways than good, since "good happens in one way, but evil in all kinds of ways," as stated by the Philosopher (Ethic. ii, 6), and Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv, 22). Therefore, it isn't appropriate to assign just one term for evil—specifically, prohibition—and two terms for good—namely, counsel and precept.

I answer that, By these signs we name the expression of will by which we are accustomed to show that we will something. A man may show that he wills something, either by himself or by means of another. He may show it by himself, by doing something either directly, or indirectly and accidentally. He shows it directly when he works in his own person; in that way the expression of his will is his own working. He shows it indirectly, by not hindering the doing of a thing; for what removes an impediment is called an accidental mover. In this respect the expression is called permission. He declares his will by means of another when he orders another to perform a work, either by insisting upon it as necessary by precept, and by prohibiting its contrary; or by persuasion, which is a part of counsel. Since in these ways the will of man makes itself known, the same five are sometimes denominated with regard to the divine will, as the expression of that will. That precept, counsel, and prohibition are called the will of God is clear from the words of Matt. 6:10: "Thy will be done on earth as it is in heaven." That permission and operation are called the will of God is clear from Augustine (Enchiridion 95), who says: "Nothing is done, unless the Almighty wills it to be done, either by permitting it, or by actually doing it."

I respond that, By these signs we refer to the expression of will that we typically use to show that we want something. A person can demonstrate their desire either by themselves or through someone else. They can show it directly by taking action themselves; in this case, their expression of will is their own action. They show it indirectly by not preventing something from happening; what removes an obstacle is called an accidental mover. In this context, the expression is termed permission. A person expresses their will through another when they instruct someone else to carry out a task, either by insisting on it as necessary through a command, and by prohibiting its opposite; or through persuasion, which is a form of advice. Since these methods reveal a person's will, the same five are sometimes referred to concerning the divine will as an expression of that will. It is clear that precept, counsel, and prohibition are referred to as the will of God from the words of Matt. 6:10: "Your will be done on earth as it is in heaven." It is evident from Augustine (Enchiridion 95) that permission and action are also termed the will of God, as he states: "Nothing is done unless the Almighty wills it to be done, either by permitting it or by actively doing it."

Or it may be said that permission and operation refer to present time, permission being with respect to evil, operation with regard to good. Whilst as to future time, prohibition is in respect to evil, precept to good that is necessary and counsel to good that is of supererogation.

Or it can be said that permission and action relate to the present, with permission concerning evil and action concerning good. In terms of the future, prohibition relates to evil, directive relates to necessary good, and advice relates to good that is above and beyond what is required.

Reply Obj. 1: There is nothing to prevent anyone declaring his will about the same matter in different ways; thus we find many words that mean the same thing. Hence there is no reason why the same thing should not be the subject of precept, operation, and counsel; or of prohibition or permission.

Reply Obj. 1: There's nothing stopping someone from expressing their will about the same issue in different ways; we see plenty of words that mean the same thing. So, there's no reason why the same thing shouldn't be the focus of a rule, action, and advice; or of a ban or approval.

Reply Obj. 2: As God may by metaphor be said to will what by His will, properly speaking, He wills not; so He may by metaphor be said to will what He does, properly speaking, will. Hence there is nothing to prevent the same thing being the object of the will of good pleasure, and of the will of expression. But operation is always the same as the will of good pleasure; while precept and counsel are not; both because the former regards the present, and the two latter the future; and because the former is of itself the effect of the will; the latter its effect as fulfilled by means of another.

Reply Obj. 2: Just as God can metaphorically be said to will things that He does not actually will, He can also be metaphorically said to will things that He truly does will. Therefore, there's nothing stopping the same thing from being the target of His good pleasure and the target of His expression. However, the action always aligns with the will of good pleasure, while the command and advice do not; this is because the former relates to the present, while the latter two concern the future, and because the former is directly the result of the will, whereas the latter is its result as carried out through another.

Reply Obj. 3: Rational creatures are masters of their own acts; and for this reason certain special expressions of the divine will are assigned to their acts, inasmuch as God ordains rational creatures to act voluntarily and of themselves. Other creatures act only as moved by the divine operation; therefore only operation and permission are concerned with these.

Reply Obj. 3: Rational beings are in control of their own actions; for this reason, specific expressions of the divine will are linked to their actions since God intends rational beings to act freely and on their own. Other beings only act as guided by divine influence; therefore, only divine action and permission apply to them.

Reply Obj. 4: All evil of sin, though happening in many ways, agrees in being out of harmony with the divine will. Hence with regard to evil, only one expression is assigned, that of prohibition. On the other hand, good stands in various relations to the divine goodness, since there are good deeds without which we cannot attain to the fruition of that goodness, and these are the subject of precept; and there are others by which we attain to it more perfectly, and these are the subject of counsel. Or it may be said that counsel is not only concerned with the obtaining of greater good; but also with the avoiding of lesser evils. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: All sin, despite its many forms, is fundamentally discordant with divine will. Therefore, when it comes to evil, there is only one term used: prohibition. In contrast, good relates to divine goodness in various ways, since there are good actions essential for achieving that goodness, which are based on commands; and there are other actions that help us reach it more fully, which are based on advice. Alternatively, it can be said that counsel not only focuses on achieving greater good but also on avoiding lesser evils.

QUESTION 20

GOD'S LOVE
(In Four Articles)

GOD'S LOVE
(In Four Parts)

We next consider those things that pertain absolutely to the will of God. In the appetitive part of the soul there are found in ourselves both the passions of the soul, as joy, love, and the like; and the habits of the moral virtues, as justice, fortitude and the like. Hence we shall first consider the love of God, and secondly His justice and mercy. About the first there are four points of inquiry:

We will now look at the things that are directly related to the will of God. In the part of the soul that drives our desires, we find both our emotions, such as joy and love, and the habits of moral virtues, like justice and courage. Therefore, we will first explore the love of God, and then His justice and mercy. For the first topic, there are four points to discuss:

(1) Whether love exists in God?

(1) Does love exist in God?

(2) Whether He loves all things?

Does he love everything?

(3) Whether He loves one thing more than another?

(3) Does He love one thing more than another?

(4) Whether He loves more the better things? _______________________

(4) Does He love the better things more? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 20, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 20, Art. 1]

Whether Love Exists in God?

Does love exist in God?

Objection 1: It seems that love does not exist in God. For in God there are no passions. Now love is a passion. Therefore love is not in God.

Objection 1: It appears that love does not exist in God. This is because God is free from passions. Since love is considered a passion, it follows that love does not exist in God.

Obj. 2: Further, love, anger, sorrow and the like, are mutually divided against one another. But sorrow and anger are not attributed to God, unless by metaphor. Therefore neither is love attributed to Him.

Obj. 2: Additionally, love, anger, sorrow, and similar emotions stand in opposition to one another. However, sorrow and anger are not directly associated with God, except in a metaphorical sense. Therefore, love is also not attributed to Him.

Obj. 3: Further, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv): "Love is a uniting and binding force." But this cannot take place in God, since He is simple. Therefore love does not exist in God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv): "Love is a force that unites and binds." However, this cannot occur in God, since He is simple. Therefore, love does not exist in God.

On the contrary, It is written: "God is love" (John 4:16).

On the contrary, it is written: "God is love" (John 4:16).

I answer that, We must needs assert that in God there is love: because love is the first movement of the will and of every appetitive faculty. For since the acts of the will and of every appetitive faculty tend towards good and evil, as to their proper objects: and since good is essentially and especially the object of the will and the appetite, whereas evil is only the object secondarily and indirectly, as opposed to good; it follows that the acts of the will and appetite that regard good must naturally be prior to those that regard evil; thus, for instance, joy is prior to sorrow, love to hate: because what exists of itself is always prior to that which exists through another. Again, the more universal is naturally prior to what is less so. Hence the intellect is first directed to universal truth; and in the second place to particular and special truths. Now there are certain acts of the will and appetite that regard good under some special condition, as joy and delight regard good present and possessed; whereas desire and hope regard good not as yet possessed. Love, however, regards good universally, whether possessed or not. Hence love is naturally the first act of the will and appetite; for which reason all the other appetite movements presuppose love, as their root and origin. For nobody desires anything nor rejoices in anything, except as a good that is loved: nor is anything an object of hate except as opposed to the object of love. Similarly, it is clear that sorrow, and other things like to it, must be referred to love as to their first principle. Hence, in whomsoever there is will and appetite, there must also be love: since if the first is wanting, all that follows is also wanting. Now it has been shown that will is in God (Q. 19, A. 1), and hence we must attribute love to Him.

I answer that, We must affirm that God embodies love because love is the initial drive of the will and every desire. Since the actions of the will and every desire aim at good and evil, as their proper objects, and since good is fundamentally and primarily the focus of the will and desire, while evil is only a focus secondarily and indirectly, as a counterpart to good, it follows that the acts of the will and desire concerning good must come before those regarding evil. For example, joy comes before sorrow, and love comes before hate: because what exists by itself is always prior to what exists through something else. Also, the more universal concept naturally comes before the less universal one. Therefore, the intellect first seeks universal truth and then particular and specific truths. Now, there are particular acts of the will and desire that consider good under specific conditions, like joy and delight, which regard good that is present and possessed; while desire and hope consider good that is not yet possessed. However, love regards good in a universal sense, whether it is possessed or not. Thus, love is naturally the first act of the will and desire; for this reason, all other movements of desire are based on love as their root and source. No one desires anything or takes joy in anything except as a good that is loved, nor is anything hated except in opposition to what is loved. Similarly, it is evident that sorrow and similar feelings must relate back to love as their primary principle. Therefore, in anyone possessing will and desire, there must also be love: since if the first is absent, all that follows is also absent. It has been established that will exists in God (Q. 19, A. 1), and therefore we must attribute love to Him.

Reply Obj. 1: The cognitive faculty does not move except through the medium of the appetitive: and just as in ourselves the universal reason moves through the medium of the particular reason, as stated in De Anima iii, 58, 75, so in ourselves the intellectual appetite, or the will as it is called, moves through the medium of the sensitive appetite. Hence, in us the sensitive appetite is the proximate motive-force of our bodies. Some bodily change therefore always accompanies an act of the sensitive appetite, and this change affects especially the heart, which, as the Philosopher says (De part. animal. iii, 4), is the first principle of movement in animals. Therefore acts of the sensitive appetite, inasmuch as they have annexed to them some bodily change, are called passions; whereas acts of the will are not so called. Love, therefore, and joy and delight are passions; in so far as they denote acts of the intellective appetite, they are not passions. It is in this latter sense that they are in God. Hence the Philosopher says (Ethic. vii): "God rejoices by an operation that is one and simple," and for the same reason He loves without passion.

Reply Obj. 1: The mind doesn't act except through desire; just as our universal reason operates through our particular reason, as mentioned in De Anima iii, 58, 75, our intellectual desire, or will, also works through our sensitive desire. As a result, the sensitive desire is the immediate driving force for our bodies. Therefore, there is usually some physical change that accompanies an act of sensitive desire, which particularly affects the heart. The Philosopher notes (De part. animal. iii, 4) that the heart is the primary source of movement in animals. This means that acts of sensitive desire, since they involve some physical change, are referred to as passions; whereas acts of the will are not. Love, joy, and delight are thus considered passions; however, when they indicate acts of intellectual desire, they are not passions. In this latter sense, they exist in God. Consequently, the Philosopher states (Ethic. vii): "God rejoices through a single, simple operation," and for the same reason, He loves without passion.

Reply Obj. 2: In the passions of the sensitive appetite there may be distinguished a certain material element—namely, the bodily change—and a certain formal element, which is on the part of the appetite. Thus in anger, as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 15, 63, 64), the material element is the kindling of the blood about the heart; but the formal, the appetite for revenge. Again, as regards the formal element of certain passions a certain imperfection is implied, as in desire, which is of the good we have not, and in sorrow, which is about the evil we have. This applies also to anger, which supposes sorrow. Certain other passions, however, as love and joy, imply no imperfection. Since therefore none of these can be attributed to God on their material side, as has been said (ad 1); neither can those that even on their formal side imply imperfection be attributed to Him; except metaphorically, and from likeness of effects, as already show (Q. 3, A. 2, ad 2; Q. 19, A. 11). Whereas, those that do not imply imperfection, such as love and joy, can be properly predicated of God, though without attributing passion to Him, as said before (Q. 19, A. 11).

Reply Obj. 2: In the feelings of our sensitive appetite, we can distinguish a physical aspect—specifically, the bodily change—and a mental aspect that comes from the appetite itself. For example, in anger, as the Philosopher mentions (De Anima iii, 15, 63, 64), the physical aspect is the heating of the blood around the heart; while the mental aspect is the desire for revenge. Additionally, certain passions involve a level of imperfection, like desire, which concerns a good we don’t have, and sorrow, which relates to a bad we do have. This is also true for anger, which arises from sorrow. However, other passions, like love and joy, do not imply any imperfection. Therefore, since none of these can be attributed to God in their physical aspect, as stated (ad 1), those that suggest imperfection, even in their mental aspect, cannot be attributed to Him either; except in a metaphorical sense and due to the similarity of effects, as previously shown (Q. 3, A. 2, ad 2; Q. 19, A. 11). In contrast, those that do not suggest imperfection, such as love and joy, can be properly ascribed to God, though we should not ascribe passion to Him, as mentioned earlier (Q. 19, A. 11).

Reply Obj. 3: An act of love always tends towards two things; to the good that one wills, and to the person for whom one wills it: since to love a person is to wish that person good. Hence, inasmuch as we love ourselves, we wish ourselves good; and, so far as possible, union with that good. So love is called the unitive force, even in God, yet without implying composition; for the good that He wills for Himself, is no other than Himself, Who is good by His essence, as above shown (Q. 6, AA. 1, 3). And by the fact that anyone loves another, he wills good to that other. Thus he puts the other, as it were, in the place of himself; and regards the good done to him as done to himself. So far love is a binding force, since it aggregates another to ourselves, and refers his good to our own. And then again the divine love is a binding force, inasmuch as God wills good to others; yet it implies no composition in God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: An act of love always aims at two things: the good that someone desires and the person for whom that good is intended. To love someone means wishing that person well. Therefore, as we love ourselves, we wish ourselves well and, as much as possible, seek union with that good. Love is considered a unifying force, even in God, without suggesting any composition; the good He desires for Himself is no different from Himself, Who is good by His very nature, as explained above (Q. 6, AA. 1, 3). When someone loves another, they wish good for that other person. In this way, they place the other in the same regard as themselves and see the good done for the other as if it were done for themselves. Thus, love acts as a binding force, connecting another person to ourselves and relating their good to our own. Likewise, divine love is a binding force because God wishes good for others, yet this doesn’t imply any composition within God.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 20, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 20, Art. 2]

Whether God Loves All Things?

Does God Love Everyone?

Objection 1: It seems that God does not love all things. For according to Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv, 1), love places the lover outside himself, and causes him to pass, as it were, into the object of his love. But it is not admissible to say that God is placed outside of Himself, and passes into other things. Therefore it is inadmissible to say that God loves things other than Himself.

Objection 1: It seems that God doesn't love everything. According to Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv, 1), love causes the lover to step outside of themselves and, in a way, become one with the object of their affection. However, it's not acceptable to say that God exists outside of Himself or becomes part of other things. Therefore, it's not acceptable to say that God loves things that are not Himself.

Obj. 2: Further, the love of God is eternal. But things apart from God are not from eternity; except in God. Therefore God does not love anything, except as it exists in Himself. But as existing in Him, it is no other than Himself. Therefore God does not love things other than Himself.

Obj. 2: Additionally, God's love is eternal. However, things that are separate from God do not exist eternally, except in God. Therefore, God does not love anything unless it exists within Himself. But as it exists in Him, it is nothing but Himself. Therefore, God does not love anything other than Himself.

Obj. 3: Further, love is twofold—the love, namely, of desire, and the love of friendship. Now God does not love irrational creatures with the love of desire, since He needs no creature outside Himself. Nor with the love of friendship; since there can be no friendship with irrational creatures, as the Philosopher shows (Ethic. viii, 2). Therefore God does not love all things.

Obj. 3: Additionally, love comes in two forms—desire and friendship. However, God doesn't love irrational beings with desire since He doesn't need anything outside of Himself. Nor does He love them with friendship, as true friendship can't exist with irrational beings, as the Philosopher points out (Ethic. viii, 2). Therefore, God does not love all things.

Obj. 4: Further, it is written (Ps. 5:7): "Thou hatest all the workers of iniquity." Now nothing is at the same time hated and loved. Therefore God does not love all things.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, it says (Ps. 5:7): "You hate all the workers of iniquity." Since nothing can be simultaneously hated and loved, it follows that God does not love all things.

On the contrary, It is said (Wis. 11:25): "Thou lovest all things that are, and hatest none of the things which Thou hast made."

On the contrary, it is said (Wis. 11:25): "You love all things that exist and hate none of the things You have made."

I answer that, God loves all existing things. For all existing things, in so far as they exist, are good, since the existence of a thing is itself a good; and likewise, whatever perfection it possesses. Now it has been shown above (Q. 19, A. 4) that God's will is the cause of all things. It must needs be, therefore, that a thing has existence, or any kind of good, only inasmuch as it is willed by God. To every existing thing, then, God wills some good. Hence, since to love anything is nothing else than to will good to that thing, it is manifest that God loves everything that exists. Yet not as we love. Because since our will is not the cause of the goodness of things, but is moved by it as by its object, our love, whereby we will good to anything, is not the cause of its goodness; but conversely its goodness, whether real or imaginary, calls forth our love, by which we will that it should preserve the good it has, and receive besides the good it has not, and to this end we direct our actions: whereas the love of God infuses and creates goodness.

I answer that, God loves everything that exists. Everything that exists, as far as it exists, is good, because existence itself is a form of good, as is any perfection it may have. It has been shown above (Q. 19, A. 4) that God's will is the cause of everything. Therefore, a thing has existence, or any kind of goodness, only because it is willed by God. So, for every existing thing, God wills some good. Since loving something means wanting good for that thing, it's clear that God loves everything that exists. However, His love is different from ours. Our will is not the cause of the goodness of things; instead, it is influenced by goodness as its object. Our love, through which we wish good for something, does not create its goodness; rather, that goodness, whether real or imagined, evokes our love, prompting us to want it to maintain its goodness and obtain additional goodness. Our actions are directed toward this end, while God's love generates and infuses goodness.

Reply Obj. 1: A lover is placed outside himself, and made to pass into the object of his love, inasmuch as he wills good to the beloved; and works for that good by his providence even as he works for his own. Hence Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv, 1): "On behalf of the truth we must make bold to say even this, that He Himself, the cause of all things, by His abounding love and goodness, is placed outside Himself by His providence for all existing things."

Reply Obj. 1: A lover focuses on someone outside of themselves and becomes fully dedicated to the object of their love, as they genuinely desire good things for their beloved and actively strive for that good with the same effort they would put into their own well-being. Therefore, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv, 1): "For the sake of truth, we must boldly assert that He Himself, the source of everything, is so filled with love and goodness that He places Himself outside of Himself through His care for all created things."

Reply Obj. 2: Although creatures have not existed from eternity, except in God, yet because they have been in Him from eternity, God has known them eternally in their proper natures; and for that reason has loved them, even as we, by the images of things within us, know things existing in themselves.

Reply Obj. 2: Although creatures haven't existed forever, except in God, since they've always existed in Him, God has known them eternally in their true forms; and for that reason, He has loved them, just as we know things that exist in themselves through the images of those things within us.

Reply Obj. 3: Friendship cannot exist except towards rational creatures, who are capable of returning love, and communicating one with another in the various works of life, and who may fare well or ill, according to the changes of fortune and happiness; even as to them is benevolence properly speaking exercised. But irrational creatures cannot attain to loving God, nor to any share in the intellectual and beatific life that He lives. Strictly speaking, therefore, God does not love irrational creatures with the love of friendship; but as it were with the love of desire, in so far as He orders them to rational creatures, and even to Himself. Yet this is not because He stands in need of them; but only on account of His goodness, and of the services they render to us. For we can desire a thing for others as well as for ourselves.

Reply Obj. 3: Friendship can only exist between rational beings who are capable of returning love and communicating with each other through various experiences in life, and who can experience good or bad fortune and happiness; it is in this context that true kindness is expressed. However, irrational beings cannot love God or share in the intellectual and blissful life that He enjoys. Therefore, strictly speaking, God does not love irrational beings with the love of friendship; rather, He loves them with a desire-based love, as He directs them towards rational beings and even to Himself. This is not because He needs them, but rather because of His goodness and the benefits they provide to us. We can desire good things for others just as we do for ourselves.

Reply Obj. 4: Nothing prevents one and the same thing being loved under one aspect, while it is hated under another. God loves sinners in so far as they are existing natures; for they have existence and have it from Him. In so far as they are sinners, they have not existence at all, but fall short of it; and this in them is not from God. Hence under this aspect, they are hated by Him. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: There's nothing stopping one thing from being loved in one way while being hated in another. God loves sinners because they exist; they have their existence from Him. In their role as sinners, they don’t truly have existence; instead, they fall short of it, and this is not something given by God. Therefore, in this context, He hates them.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 20, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 20, Art. 3]

Whether God Loves All Things Equally?

Whether God Loves All Things Equally?

Objection 1: It seems that God loves all things equally. For it is said: "He hath equally care of all" (Wis. 6:8). But God's providence over things comes from the love wherewith He loves them. Therefore He loves all things equally.

Objection 1: It seems that God loves everything equally. For it is said: "He has equal care for all" (Wis. 6:8). But God's providence over things comes from the love with which He loves them. Therefore, He loves everything equally.

Obj. 2: Further, the love of God is His essence. But God's essence does not admit of degree; neither therefore does His love. He does not therefore love some things more than others.

Obj. 2: Additionally, God's love is part of His essence. But God's essence doesn't come in varying degrees; therefore, neither does His love. He doesn't love some things more than others.

Obj. 3: Further, as God's love extends to created things, so do His knowledge and will extend. But God is not said to know some things more than others; nor will one thing more than another. Neither therefore does He love some things more than others.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, just as God's love reaches out to all created things, so do His knowledge and will. However, God is not said to know some things better than others; nor does He will one thing more than another. Therefore, He does not love some things more than others.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Tract. in Joan. cx): "God loves all things that He has made, and amongst them rational creatures more, and of these especially those who are members of His only-begotten Son Himself."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Tract. in Joan. cx): "God loves everything He has made, and among those, He loves rational creatures the most, especially those who are part of His only-begotten Son."

I answer that, Since to love a thing is to will it good, in a twofold way anything may be loved more, or less. In one way on the part of the act of the will itself, which is more or less intense. In this way God does not love some things more than others, because He loves all things by an act of the will that is one, simple, and always the same. In another way on the part of the good itself that a person wills for the beloved. In this way we are said to love that one more than another, for whom we will a greater good, though our will is not more intense. In this way we must needs say that God loves some things more than others. For since God's love is the cause of goodness in things, as has been said (A. 2), no one thing would be better than another, if God did not will greater good for one than for another.

I answer that, To love something means to want good for it, and this can happen in two ways: you can love something more or less. First, there’s the way it relates to the act of will itself, which can be more or less intense. In this respect, God doesn’t love some things more than others because He loves all things with a singular, simple, and constant act of will. Second, it’s about the good that someone wishes for the one they love. In this sense, we say we love one person more than another if we wish a greater good for them, even if our will isn’t more intense. In this way, we have to say that God loves some things more than others. Since God's love is what brings goodness to things, as has been mentioned (A. 2), no one thing would be better than another if God didn’t will a greater good for one compared to another.

Reply Obj. 1: God is said to have equally care of all, not because by His care He deals out equal good to all, but because He administers all things with a like wisdom and goodness.

Reply Obj. 1: God is said to care for everyone equally, not because He gives everyone the same good, but because He manages everything with the same wisdom and goodness.

Reply Obj. 2: This argument is based on the intensity of love on the part of the act of the will, which is the divine essence. But the good that God wills for His creatures, is not the divine essence. Therefore there is no reason why it may not vary in degree.

Reply Obj. 2: This argument relies on the strength of love from the will, which reflects the divine essence. However, the good that God desires for His creatures is not the divine essence itself. Therefore, there's no reason that it can't differ in degrees.

Reply Obj. 3: To understand and to will denote the act alone, and do not include in their meaning objects from the diversity of which God may be said to know or will more or less, as has been said with respect to God's love. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: To understand and to will refer to the act itself and do not imply any objects from the variety which God may be said to know or will to different degrees, as was mentioned regarding God's love.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 20, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 20, Art. 4]

Whether God Always Loves More the Better Things?

Whether God Always Loves the Better Things More?

Objection 1: It seems that God does not always love more the better things. For it is manifest that Christ is better than the whole human race, being God and man. But God loved the human race more than He loved Christ; for it is said: "He spared not His own Son, but delivered Him up for us all" (Rom. 8:32). Therefore God does not always love more the better things.

Objection 1: It seems that God doesn't always love the better things more. It's clear that Christ is better than all of humanity since He is both God and man. However, God loved humanity more than He loved Christ; as it is stated: "He spared not His own Son, but delivered Him up for us all" (Rom. 8:32). Therefore, God does not always love the better things more.

Obj. 2: Further, an angel is better than a man. Hence it is said of man: "Thou hast made him a little less than the angels" (Ps. 8:6). But God loved men more than He loved the angels, for it is said: "Nowhere doth He take hold of the angels, but of the seed of Abraham He taketh hold" (Heb. 2:16). Therefore God does not always love more the better things.

Obj. 2: Additionally, an angel is superior to a human. That's why it says about humans: "You have made them a little lower than the angels" (Ps. 8:6). But God loves humans more than He loves the angels, because it is stated: "He doesn’t help the angels, but He helps the descendants of Abraham" (Heb. 2:16). Therefore, God doesn’t always love the better things more.

Obj. 3: Further, Peter was better than John, since he loved Christ more. Hence the Lord, knowing this to be true, asked Peter, saying: "Simon, son of John, lovest thou Me more than these?" Yet Christ loved John more than He loved Peter. For as Augustine says, commenting on the words, "Simon, son of John, lovest thou Me?": "By this very mark is John distinguished from the other disciples, not that He loved him only, but that He loved him more than the rest." Therefore God does not always love more the better things.

Obj. 3: Also, Peter was better than John because he loved Christ more. So the Lord, knowing this to be true, asked Peter, saying: "Simon, son of John, do you love Me more than these?" Yet Christ loved John more than He loved Peter. As Augustine notes, commenting on the words, "Simon, son of John, do you love Me?": "This very distinction sets John apart from the other disciples, not because He loved him only, but because He loved him more than the others." Therefore, God does not always love the better things more.

Obj. 4: Further, the innocent man is better than the repentant, since repentance is, as Jerome says (Cap. 3 in Isa.), "a second plank after shipwreck." But God loves the penitent more than the innocent; since He rejoices over him the more. For it is said: "I say to you that there shall be joy in heaven upon the one sinner that doth penance, more than upon ninety-nine just who need not penance" (Luke 15:7). Therefore God does not always love more the better things.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the innocent person is better than the one who has repented, since repentance is, as Jerome says (Cap. 3 in Isa.), "a second chance after a shipwreck." However, God loves the penitent more than the innocent, because He rejoices in them more. It is said: "I tell you, there is more joy in heaven over one sinner who repents than over ninety-nine righteous people who don’t need to repent" (Luke 15:7). Therefore, God doesn’t always love the better things more.

Obj. 5: Further, the just man who is foreknown is better than the predestined sinner. Now God loves more the predestined sinner, since He wills for him a greater good, life eternal. Therefore God does not always love more the better things.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, the righteous person who is known in advance is better than the predestined sinner. Now, God loves the predestined sinner more, since He desires a greater good for him, which is eternal life. Therefore, God does not always love the better things more.

On the contrary, Everything loves what is like it, as appears from (Ecclus. 13:19): "Every beast loveth its like." Now the better a thing is, the more like is it to God. Therefore the better things are more loved by God.

On the contrary, Everything loves what is similar to it, as shown in (Ecclus. 13:19): "Every beast loves its kind." The better something is, the more it resembles God. Therefore, better things are loved more by God.

I answer that, It must needs be, according to what has been said before, that God loves more the better things. For it has been shown (AA. 2, 3), that God's loving one thing more than another is nothing else than His willing for that thing a greater good: because God's will is the cause of goodness in things; and the reason why some things are better than others, is that God wills for them a greater good. Hence it follows that He loves more the better things.

I respond that it must be, based on what has been said before, that God loves the better things more. It's been shown (AA. 2, 3) that God's love for one thing over another is simply His desire for that thing to have a greater good; because God's will is what causes goodness in things. The reason some things are better than others is that God desires a greater good for them. Therefore, it follows that He loves the better things more.

Reply Obj. 1: God loves Christ not only more than He loves the whole human race, but more than He loves the entire created universe: because He willed for Him the greater good in giving Him "a name that is above all names," in so far as He was true God. Nor did anything of His excellence diminish when God delivered Him up to death for the salvation of the human race; rather did He become thereby a glorious conqueror: "The government was placed upon His shoulder," according to Isa. 9:6.

Reply Obj. 1: God loves Christ not just more than He loves all of humanity, but even more than He loves the entire created universe. This is because He intended for Him the greatest good by giving Him "a name that is above all names," since He is true God. Moreover, His excellence didn’t decrease when God allowed Him to die for the salvation of humanity; instead, He became a glorious conqueror: "The government was placed upon His shoulder," according to Isa. 9:6.

Reply Obj. 2: God loves the human nature assumed by the Word of God in the person of Christ more than He loves all the angels; for that nature is better, especially on the ground of the union with the Godhead. But speaking of human nature in general, and comparing it with the angelic, the two are found equal, in the order of grace and of glory: since according to Rev 21:17, the measure of a man and of an angel is the same. Yet so that, in this respect, some angels are found nobler than some men, and some men nobler than some angels. But as to natural condition an angel is better than a man. God therefore did not assume human nature because He loved man, absolutely speaking, more; but because the needs of man were greater; just as the master of a house may give some costly delicacy to a sick servant, that he does not give to his own son in sound health.

Reply Obj. 2: God loves the human nature taken on by the Word of God in the person of Christ more than He loves all the angels; for that nature is superior, especially because of its union with the Godhead. However, when considering human nature in general and comparing it to angelic nature, they are found to be equal in terms of grace and glory: as stated in Rev 21:17, the measure of a man and an angel is the same. Yet, within this comparison, some angels are found to be nobler than some men, and some men are nobler than some angels. But in terms of natural status, an angel is better than a man. Therefore, God did not assume human nature because He loved man, in absolute terms, more; rather, it was because the needs of man were greater, similar to how a master of a house may give a precious treat to a sick servant that he wouldn’t give to his own healthy son.

Reply Obj. 3: This doubt concerning Peter and John has been solved in various ways. Augustine interprets it mystically, and says that the active life, signified by Peter, loves God more than the contemplative signified by John, because the former is more conscious of the miseries of this present life, and therefore the more ardently desires to be freed from them, and depart to God. God, he says, loves more the contemplative life, since He preserves it longer. For it does not end, as the active life does, with the life of the body.

Reply Obj. 3: This question about Peter and John has been addressed in different ways. Augustine interprets it in a mystical sense, stating that the active life, represented by Peter, loves God more than the contemplative life, represented by John, because the former is more aware of the hardships of this life and thus more passionately wishes to be free from them and go to God. He claims that God loves the contemplative life more since it lasts longer; it doesn’t end, unlike the active life, with the end of the body’s life.

Some say that Peter loved Christ more in His members, and therefore was loved more by Christ also, for which reason He gave him the care of the Church; but that John loved Christ more in Himself, and so was loved more by Him; on which account Christ commended His mother to his care. Others say that it is uncertain which of them loved Christ more with the love of charity, and uncertain also which of them God loved more and ordained to a greater degree of glory in eternal life. Peter is said to have loved more, in regard to a certain promptness and fervor; but John to have been more loved, with respect to certain marks of familiarity which Christ showed to him rather than to others, on account of his youth and purity. While others say that Christ loved Peter more, from his more excellent gift of charity; but John more, from his gifts of intellect. Hence, absolutely speaking, Peter was the better and more beloved; but, in a certain sense, John was the better, and was loved the more. However, it may seem presumptuous to pass judgment on these matters; since "the Lord" and no other "is the weigher of spirits" (Prov. 16:2).

Some people say that Peter loved Christ more through His followers, which is why Christ loved him more in return and entrusted him with the care of the Church. Others believe that John loved Christ more directly, and therefore was loved more by Him; that's why Christ entrusted His mother to John. There are those who argue that it’s unclear which of them loved Christ more deeply and also uncertain who God loved more and appointed to a higher position in eternal life. Peter is thought to have loved more due to his eagerness and passion, while John is seen as being more loved because of the special closeness Christ showed him compared to others, due to his youth and purity. Some suggest that Christ loved Peter more because of his greater ability to love, but loved John more for his intellectual gifts. So, in general terms, Peter was the one who loved and was loved more; but in certain respects, John was superior and was loved more. Nevertheless, it might be arrogant to make judgments about these issues, as "the Lord" and no one else "is the weigher of spirits" (Prov. 16:2).

Reply Obj. 4: The penitent and the innocent are related as exceeding and exceeded. For whether innocent or penitent, those are the better and better loved who have most grace. Other things being equal, innocence is the nobler thing and the more beloved. God is said to rejoice more over the penitent than over the innocent, because often penitents rise from sin more cautious, humble, and fervent. Hence Gregory commenting on these words (Hom. 34 in Ev.) says that, "In battle the general loves the soldier who after flight returns and bravely pursues the enemy, more than him who has never fled, but has never done a brave deed."

Reply Obj. 4: The penitent and the innocent are connected as those who surpass and those who are surpassed. Whether someone is innocent or penitent, the ones who have the most grace are the more admirable and loved. All else being equal, innocence is the more noble and beloved state. God is said to rejoice more over the penitent than the innocent because penitents often emerge from sin more cautious, humble, and passionate. Therefore, Gregory comments on these words (Hom. 34 in Ev.) that, "In battle, the general appreciates the soldier who returns and bravely pursues the enemy after retreating, more than the one who has never fled but has never shown bravery."

Or it may be answered that gifts of grace, equal in themselves, are more as conferred on the penitent, who deserved punishment, than as conferred on the innocent, to whom no punishment was due; just as a hundred pounds [marcoe] are a greater gift to a poor man than to a king.

Or it might be said that gifts of grace, equal in themselves, are more significant when given to someone who is repentant and deserves punishment than when given to the innocent, who deserve no punishment; just like a hundred pounds are a bigger gift to a poor man than to a king.

Reply Obj. 5: Since God's will is the cause of goodness in things, the goodness of one who is loved by God is to be reckoned according to the time when some good is to be given to him by divine goodness. According therefore to the time, when there is to be given by the divine will to the predestined sinner a greater good, the sinner is better; although according to some other time he is the worse; because even according to some time he is neither good nor bad. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: Because God's will is what makes things good, the goodness of someone loved by God is measured by when they receive a blessing from divine goodness. So, at the time when the divine will is set to give a greater good to the predestined sinner, the sinner is considered better; although at another time, they might be worse, and at some times, they are neither good nor bad.

QUESTION 21

THE JUSTICE AND MERCY OF GOD
(In Four Articles)

THE JUSTICE AND MERCY OF GOD
(In Four Articles)

After considering the divine love, we must treat of God's justice and mercy. Under this head there are four points of inquiry:

After reflecting on divine love, we need to discuss God's justice and mercy. In this section, there are four key points to explore:

(1) Whether there is justice in God?

(1) Is there justice in God?

(2) Whether His justice can be called truth?

(2) Can we consider His justice to be truth?

(3) Whether there is mercy in God?

(3) Is there mercy in God?

(4) Whether in every work of God there are justice and mercy? _______________________

(4) Is there justice and mercy in all of God's works? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 21, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 21, Art. 1]

Whether There Is Justice in God?

Whether There Is Justice in God?

Objection 1: It seems that there is not justice in God. For justice is divided against temperance. But temperance does not exist in God: neither therefore does justice.

Objection 1: It appears that there is no justice in God. For justice is opposed to temperance. But temperance does not exist in God; therefore, neither does justice.

Obj. 2: Further, he who does whatsoever he wills and pleases does not work according to justice. But, as the Apostle says: "God worketh all things according to the counsel of His will" (Eph. 1:11). Therefore justice cannot be attributed to Him.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, someone who does whatever they want and finds joy in it does not act according to justice. But, as the Apostle says: "God works all things according to the counsel of His will" (Eph. 1:11). Therefore, justice cannot be ascribed to Him.

Obj. 3: Further, the act of justice is to pay what is due. But
God is no man's debtor. Therefore justice does not belong to God.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, justice means giving what is owed. But
God does not owe anything to anyone. Therefore, justice is not applicable to God.

Obj. 4: Further, whatever is in God, is His essence. But justice cannot belong to this. For Boethius says (De Hebdom.): "Good regards the essence; justice the act." Therefore justice does not belong to God.

Obj. 4: Additionally, everything in God is part of His essence. However, justice cannot be included in this. Boethius states (De Hebdom.): "Good relates to essence; justice relates to action." Therefore, justice does not belong to God.

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 10:8): "The Lord is just, and hath loved justice."

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 10:8): "The Lord is just and has loved justice."

I answer that, There are two kinds of justice. The one consists in mutual giving and receiving, as in buying and selling, and other kinds of intercourse and exchange. This the Philosopher (Ethic. v, 4) calls commutative justice, that directs exchange and intercourse of business. This does not belong to God, since, as the Apostle says: "Who hath first given to Him, and recompense shall be made him?" (Rom. 11:35). The other consists in distribution, and is called distributive justice; whereby a ruler or a steward gives to each what his rank deserves. As then the proper order displayed in ruling a family or any kind of multitude evinces justice of this kind in the ruler, so the order of the universe, which is seen both in effects of nature and in effects of will, shows forth the justice of God. Hence Dionysius says (Div. Nom. viii, 4): "We must needs see that God is truly just, in seeing how He gives to all existing things what is proper to the condition of each; and preserves the nature of each in the order and with the powers that properly belong to it."

I respond that, There are two types of justice. One is based on mutual giving and receiving, like buying and selling, as well as other forms of interaction and exchange. This is what the Philosopher (Ethic. v, 4) refers to as commutative justice, which governs business exchanges and interactions. This type does not pertain to God, since, as the Apostle says: "Who has first given to Him, and it will be repaid to him?" (Rom. 11:35). The other type involves distribution, known as distributive justice; here, a ruler or a steward allocates to each person what they deserve based on their position. Just as the proper order in governing a household or any group demonstrates this kind of justice in the ruler, the order of the universe—evident in both natural phenomena and the outcomes of will—reflects God's justice. Thus, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. viii, 4): "We must see that God is genuinely just, as we observe how He gives to all beings what is suitable for their condition and maintains each being's nature in the order and with the capabilities that are appropriate to it."

Reply Obj. 1: Certain of the moral virtues are concerned with the passions, as temperance with concupiscence, fortitude with fear and daring, meekness with anger. Such virtues as these can only metaphorically be attributed to God; since, as stated above (Q. 20, A. 1), in God there are no passions; nor a sensitive appetite, which is, as the Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 10), the subject of those virtues. On the other hand, certain moral virtues are concerned with works of giving and expending; such as justice, liberality, and magnificence; and these reside not in the sensitive faculty, but in the will. Hence, there is nothing to prevent our attributing these virtues to God; although not in civil matters, but in such acts as are not unbecoming to Him. For, as the Philosopher says (Ethic. x, 8), it would be absurd to praise God for His political virtues.

Reply Obj. 1: Some moral virtues relate to emotions, like temperance with desire, courage with fear and boldness, and meekness with anger. These virtues can only be applied to God in a metaphorical sense because, as mentioned earlier (Q. 20, A. 1), God does not experience emotions; nor does He have a sensitive appetite, which, as the Philosopher points out (Ethic. iii, 10), is the foundation of those virtues. On the other hand, some moral virtues are about acts of giving and spending, such as justice, generosity, and magnificence; and these are not based in emotions but in the will. Therefore, we can attribute these virtues to God, though not in political matters, but in actions that are appropriate for Him. As the Philosopher states (Ethic. x, 8), it would be ridiculous to praise God for His political virtues.

Reply Obj. 2: Since good as perceived by intellect is the object of the will, it is impossible for God to will anything but what His wisdom approves. This is, as it were, His law of justice, in accordance with which His will is right and just. Hence, what He does according to His will He does justly: as we do justly what we do according to law. But whereas law comes to us from some higher power, God is a law unto Himself.

Reply Obj. 2: Since what the intellect perceives as good is what the will desires, it’s impossible for God to will anything other than what His wisdom endorses. This is, in a sense, His law of justice, which means that His will is always right and just. Therefore, everything He does according to His will is done justly, just like we act justly when we follow the law. However, while laws are given to us by a higher authority, God is self-made law.

Reply Obj. 3: To each one is due what is his own. Now that which is directed to a man is said to be his own. Thus the master owns the servant, and not conversely, for that is free which is its own cause. In the word debt, therefore, is implied a certain exigence or necessity of the thing to which it is directed. Now a twofold order has to be considered in things: the one, whereby one created thing is directed to another, as the parts of the whole, accident to substance, and all things whatsoever to their end; the other, whereby all created things are ordered to God. Thus in the divine operations debt may be regarded in two ways, as due either to God, or to creatures, and in either way God pays what is due. It is due to God that there should be fulfilled in creatures what His will and wisdom require, and what manifests His goodness. In this respect, God's justice regards what befits Him; inasmuch as He renders to Himself what is due to Himself. It is also due to a created thing that it should possess what is ordered to it; thus it is due to man to have hands, and that other animals should serve him. Thus also God exercises justice, when He gives to each thing what is due to it by its nature and condition. This debt however is derived from the former; since what is due to each thing is due to it as ordered to it according to the divine wisdom. And although God in this way pays each thing its due, yet He Himself is not the debtor, since He is not directed to other things, but rather other things to Him. Justice, therefore, in God is sometimes spoken of as the fitting accompaniment of His goodness; sometimes as the reward of merit. Anselm touches on either view where he says (Prosolog. 10): "When Thou dost punish the wicked, it is just, since it agrees with their deserts; and when Thou dost spare the wicked, it is also just; since it befits Thy goodness."

Reply Obj. 3: Everyone deserves what is rightfully theirs. What is given to a person is considered their own. Therefore, the master owns the servant, and not the other way around, as that which is free is self-caused. The term debt implies a certain necessity related to what it is aimed at. We must consider two different orders in relation to things: the first is where one created thing is directed toward another, such as the parts of a whole, an accident to a substance, and everything towards its purpose; the second is where all created things are ordered to God. Therefore, in divine actions, debt can be seen in two ways: as owed to God or to created beings, and in either case, God fulfills what is owed. It is due to God that His will and wisdom are fulfilled in creatures, which also reflects His goodness. In this sense, God's justice pertains to what is right for Him, as He gives Himself what is due. Similarly, it is due to a created thing to have what is appropriate for it; thus, it is due to humans to have hands and for other animals to serve them. God also demonstrates justice by giving each thing what is due to it according to its nature and condition. This debt, however, is derived from the first order; what is owed to each thing is based on its relation to divine wisdom. Although God pays each thing its due in this way, He is not in debt to anyone since He is not directed toward other things, but rather everything is directed toward Him. Therefore, justice in God is sometimes described as a fitting aspect of His goodness, and at other times as a reward for merit. Anselm addresses both perspectives when he says (Prosolog. 10): "When You punish the wicked, it is just, since it aligns with their deserts; and when You spare the wicked, it is also just, since it suits Your goodness."

Reply Obj. 4: Although justice regards act, this does not prevent its being the essence of God; since even that which is of the essence of a thing may be the principle of action. But good does not always regard act; since a thing is called good not merely with respect to act, but also as regards perfection in its essence. For this reason it is said (De Hebdom.) that the good is related to the just, as the general to the special. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: While justice pertains to action, this doesn’t stop it from being part of God's essence; because even what is essential to something can also be the source of its actions. However, goodness doesn’t always pertain to action; a thing is considered good not just in relation to action, but also in terms of its essence being perfect. For this reason, it is stated (De Hebdom.) that good is related to justice, like the general concept is related to the specific one.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 21, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 21, Art. 2]

Whether the Justice of God Is Truth?

Is God's Justice the Truth?

Objection 1: It seems that the justice of God is not truth. For justice resides in the will; since, as Anselm says (Dial. Verit. 13), it is a rectitude of the will, whereas truth resides in the intellect, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. vi; Ethic. vi, 2,6). Therefore justice does not appertain to truth.

Objection 1: It appears that God's justice isn't the same as truth. Justice is rooted in the will; as Anselm states (Dial. Verit. 13), it is a correctness of the will, while truth is rooted in the intellect, as the Philosopher notes (Metaph. vi; Ethic. vi, 2,6). Thus, justice doesn't relate to truth.

Obj. 2: Further, according to the Philosopher (Ethic. iv, 7), truth is a virtue distinct from justice. Truth therefore does not appertain to the idea of justice.

Obj. 2: Additionally, according to the Philosopher (Ethic. iv, 7), truth is a virtue that is separate from justice. Therefore, truth is not part of the concept of justice.

On the contrary, it is said (Ps. 84:11): "Mercy and truth have met each other": where truth stands for justice.

On the contrary, it is said (Ps. 84:11): "Mercy and truth have met each other": where truth represents justice.

I answer that, Truth consists in the equation of mind and thing, as said above (Q. 16, A. 1). Now the mind, that is the cause of the thing, is related to it as its rule and measure; whereas the converse is the case with the mind that receives its knowledge from things. When therefore things are the measure and rule of the mind, truth consists in the equation of the mind to the thing, as happens in ourselves. For according as a thing is, or is not, our thoughts or our words about it are true or false. But when the mind is the rule or measure of things, truth consists in the equation of the thing to the mind; just as the work of an artist is said to be true, when it is in accordance with his art.

I answer that, Truth is about aligning the mind with reality, as mentioned earlier (Q. 16, A. 1). The mind, which creates the thing, serves as its standard and measure; on the other hand, the mind that learns from things works in reverse. When things serve as the standard for the mind, truth is the alignment of our thoughts and words with the reality of those things, as seen in ourselves. Whether something exists or not determines if our thoughts or words about it are true or false. However, when the mind serves as the standard for things, truth is about aligning the thing with the mind; similar to how an artist's work is considered true when it reflects their artistic vision.

Now as works of art are related to art, so are works of justice related to the law with which they accord. Therefore God's justice, which establishes things in the order conformable to the rule of His wisdom, which is the law of His justice, is suitably called truth. Thus we also in human affairs speak of the truth of justice.

Now, just as works of art are connected to art, works of justice are connected to the law they align with. Therefore, God's justice, which arranges things according to the order of His wisdom, which is the law of His justice, is rightly referred to as truth. Similarly, we also talk about the truth of justice in human affairs.

Reply Obj. 1: Justice, as to the law that governs, resides in the reason or intellect; but as to the command whereby our actions are governed according to the law, it resides in the will.

Reply Obj. 1: Justice, in terms of the law that governs, lies in reason or intellect; but in terms of the command that directs our actions in accordance with the law, it lies in the will.

Reply Obj. 2: The truth of which the Philosopher is speaking in this passage, is that virtue whereby a man shows himself in word and deed such as he really is. Thus it consists in the conformity of the sign with the thing signified; and not in that of the effect with its cause and rule: as has been said regarding the truth of justice. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The truth that the Philosopher is referring to in this passage is the virtue where a person expresses themselves in both words and actions as they truly are. It involves the alignment of the sign with what it represents, rather than the alignment of the effect with its cause and rule, as has been discussed regarding the truth of justice.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 21, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 21, Art. 3]

Whether Mercy Can Be Attributed to God?

Whether mercy can be attributed to God?

Objection 1: It seems that mercy cannot be attributed to God. For mercy is a kind of sorrow, as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 14). But there is no sorrow in God; and therefore there is no mercy in Him.

Objection 1: It appears that mercy cannot be ascribed to God. For mercy is a form of sorrow, as Damascene states (De Fide Orth. ii, 14). However, there is no sorrow in God; therefore, there is no mercy in Him.

Obj. 2: Further, mercy is a relaxation of justice. But God cannot remit what appertains to His justice. For it is said (2 Tim. 2:13): "If we believe not, He continueth faithful: He cannot deny Himself." But He would deny Himself, as a gloss says, if He should deny His words. Therefore mercy is not becoming to God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, mercy is a loosening of justice. However, God cannot overlook what is required by His justice. It states in 2 Tim. 2:13: "If we don’t believe, He remains faithful: He cannot deny Himself." But He would be denying Himself, as a commentary notes, if He were to deny His words. Therefore, mercy is not fitting for God.

On the contrary, it is said (Ps. 110:4): "He is a merciful and gracious Lord."

On the contrary, it is said (Ps. 110:4): "He is a compassionate and gracious Lord."

I answer that, Mercy is especially to be attributed to God, as seen in its effect, but not as an affection of passion. In proof of which it must be considered that a person is said to be merciful [misericors], as being, so to speak, sorrowful at heart [miserum cor]; being affected with sorrow at the misery of another as though it were his own. Hence it follows that he endeavors to dispel the misery of this other, as if it were his; and this is the effect of mercy. To sorrow, therefore, over the misery of others belongs not to God; but it does most properly belong to Him to dispel that misery, whatever be the defect we call by that name. Now defects are not removed, except by the perfection of some kind of goodness; and the primary source of goodness is God, as shown above (Q. 6, A. 4). It must, however, be considered that to bestow perfections appertains not only to the divine goodness, but also to His justice, liberality, and mercy; yet under different aspects. The communicating of perfections, absolutely considered, appertains to goodness, as shown above (Q. 6, AA. 1, 4); in so far as perfections are given to things in proportion, the bestowal of them belongs to justice, as has been already said (A. 1); in so far as God does not bestow them for His own use, but only on account of His goodness, it belongs to liberality; in so far as perfections given to things by God expel defects, it belongs to mercy.

I respond that Mercy is primarily attributed to God, as seen in its effects, but not as a result of emotional passion. To support this, we must recognize that a person is considered merciful [misericors] because they are, so to speak, pained at heart [miserum cor]; feeling sorrow for another's suffering as if it were their own. Consequently, this leads them to try to alleviate another's suffering as if it were theirs, and this is the effect of mercy. Therefore, feeling sorrow for the suffering of others does not apply to God; however, it rightly belongs to Him to eliminate that suffering, regardless of the deficiency we refer to. Deficiencies are only removed by some form of goodness; and the ultimate source of goodness is God, as previously mentioned (Q. 6, A. 4). It should also be noted that the act of bestowing perfections is not limited to divine goodness alone, but also includes His justice, generosity, and mercy; though in different ways. The granting of perfections, when considered in a general sense, belongs to goodness, as stated above (Q. 6, AA. 1, 4); in terms of bestowing perfections according to proportionality, it belongs to justice, as already mentioned (A. 1); in the sense that God does not give them for His own benefit, but purely out of His goodness, this is a matter of generosity; and in the way that perfections given by God eliminate deficiencies, it pertains to mercy.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument is based on mercy, regarded as an affection of passion.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument is based on mercy, seen as an emotion of passion.

Reply Obj. 2: God acts mercifully, not indeed by going against His justice, but by doing something more than justice; thus a man who pays another two hundred pieces of money, though owing him only one hundred, does nothing against justice, but acts liberally or mercifully. The case is the same with one who pardons an offence committed against him, for in remitting it he may be said to bestow a gift. Hence the Apostle calls remission a forgiving: "Forgive one another, as Christ has forgiven you" (Eph. 4:32). Hence it is clear that mercy does not destroy justice, but in a sense is the fulness thereof. And thus it is said: "Mercy exalteth itself above judgement" (James 2:13). _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: God acts with mercy, not by contradicting His justice, but by going beyond it; for example, when a person pays another two hundred pieces of money when they only owe one hundred, they aren't going against justice, but are being generous or merciful. The same applies to someone who forgives an offense against them, as they can be seen as giving a gift by letting it go. That's why the Apostle refers to forgiveness as an act of giving: "Forgive one another, as Christ has forgiven you" (Eph. 4:32). Therefore, it's clear that mercy doesn't eliminate justice, but rather fulfills it in a way. As it’s said: "Mercy exalteth itself above judgement" (James 2:13).

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 21, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 21, Art. 4]

Whether in Every Work of God There Are Mercy and Justice?

Whether in Every Work of God There Are Mercy and Justice?

Objection 1: It seems that not in every work of God are mercy and justice. For some works of God are attributed to mercy, as the justification of the ungodly; and others to justice, as the damnation of the wicked. Hence it is said: "Judgment without mercy to him that hath not done mercy" (James 2:13). Therefore not in every work of God do mercy and justice appear.

Objection 1: It seems that not every act of God reflects both mercy and justice. Some acts are associated with mercy, like the forgiveness of the ungodly; while others are linked to justice, such as the punishment of the wicked. As it says: "Judgment without mercy to the one who has shown no mercy" (James 2:13). Therefore, mercy and justice do not appear in every act of God.

Obj. 2: Further, the Apostle attributes the conversion of the Jews to justice and truth, but that of the Gentiles to mercy (Rom. 15). Therefore not in every work of God are justice and mercy.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Apostle links the conversion of the Jews to justice and truth, while that of the Gentiles is linked to mercy (Rom. 15). Therefore, not every work of God includes both justice and mercy.

Obj. 3: Further, many just persons are afflicted in this world; which is unjust. Therefore not in every work of God are justice and mercy.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, many good people suffer in this world, which is unfair. Therefore, justice and mercy are not present in every action of God.

Obj. 4: Further, it is the part of justice to pay what is due, but of mercy to relieve misery. Thus both justice and mercy presuppose something in their works: whereas creation presupposes nothing. Therefore in creation neither mercy nor justice is found.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, it's a matter of justice to give what is owed, but an act of mercy to ease suffering. Both justice and mercy rely on something in their actions, whereas creation relies on nothing. So, in creation, there is neither mercy nor justice.

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 24:10): "All the ways of the Lord are mercy and truth."

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 24:10): "All the paths of the Lord are filled with mercy and truth."

I answer that, Mercy and truth are necessarily found in all God's works, if mercy be taken to mean the removal of any kind of defect. Not every defect, however, can properly be called a misery; but only defect in a rational nature whose lot is to be happy; for misery is opposed to happiness. For this necessity there is a reason, because since a debt paid according to the divine justice is one due either to God, or to some creature, neither the one nor the other can be lacking in any work of God: because God can do nothing that is not in accord with His wisdom and goodness; and it is in this sense, as we have said, that anything is due to God. Likewise, whatever is done by Him in created things, is done according to proper order and proportion wherein consists the idea of justice. Thus justice must exist in all God's works. Now the work of divine justice always presupposes the work of mercy; and is founded thereupon. For nothing is due to creatures, except for something pre-existing in them, or foreknown. Again, if this is due to a creature, it must be due on account of something that precedes. And since we cannot go on to infinity, we must come to something that depends only on the goodness of the divine will—which is the ultimate end. We may say, for instance, that to possess hands is due to man on account of his rational soul; and his rational soul is due to him that he may be man; and his being man is on account of the divine goodness. So in every work of God, viewed at its primary source, there appears mercy. In all that follows, the power of mercy remains, and works indeed with even greater force; as the influence of the first cause is more intense than that of second causes. For this reason does God out of abundance of His goodness bestow upon creatures what is due to them more bountifully than is proportionate to their deserts: since less would suffice for preserving the order of justice than what the divine goodness confers; because between creatures and God's goodness there can be no proportion.

I respond that, Mercy and truth are inherently present in all of God's works, if we define mercy as the elimination of any kind of flaw. However, not every flaw can be accurately called a misery; only the flaw in a rational being whose purpose is to be happy qualifies, since misery is the opposite of happiness. There is a reason for this necessity because a debt settled according to divine justice is owed either to God or to a creature; neither can be absent in any of God's work, as God cannot act against His wisdom and goodness. In this sense, as we mentioned, anything owed is due to God. Similarly, whatever God does in the realm of creation occurs in a proper order and proportion, which is the essence of justice. Therefore, justice must be present in all of God's works. Moreover, the act of divine justice always assumes the act of mercy and is based on it. Nothing is owed to creatures, except for something that already exists in them or is known in advance. If something is owed to a creature, it must stem from something that comes before it. Since we cannot continue to infinity, we must arrive at something that relies solely on the goodness of God's will—which is the ultimate purpose. For instance, we can say that having hands is owed to humans because of their rational soul; and their rational soul is given to them so that they can be human; and being human is due to divine goodness. Thus, in every work of God, when observed at its source, mercy appears. In all that follows, the power of mercy continues to be active and indeed works even more strongly; as the influence of the first cause is greater than that of secondary causes. For this reason, God, out of the abundance of His goodness, generously grants creatures what is owed to them more lavishly than what is suited to their merits; since less would be adequate for maintaining the order of justice than what divine goodness provides; because there can be no proportion between creatures and God's goodness.

Reply Obj. 1: Certain works are attributed to justice, and certain others to mercy, because in some justice appears more forcibly and in others mercy. Even in the damnation of the reprobate mercy is seen, which, though it does not totally remit, yet somewhat alleviates, in punishing short of what is deserved.

Reply Obj. 1: Some actions are associated with justice, while others are linked to mercy, as in some instances justice stands out more clearly, and in others mercy does. Even in the punishment of the damned, mercy can be observed, which, although it doesn't completely eliminate punishment, still somewhat lessens it by imposing less than what is truly deserved.

In the justification of the ungodly, justice is seen, when God remits sins on account of love, though He Himself has mercifully infused that love. So we read of Magdalen: "Many sins are forgiven her, because she hath loved much" (Luke 7:47).

In the justification of the wicked, justice is evident when God forgives sins out of love, even though He is the one who graciously instills that love. We read about Magdalen: "Many sins are forgiven her, because she has loved much" (Luke 7:47).

Reply Obj. 2: God's justice and mercy appear both in the conversion of the Jews and of the Gentiles. But an aspect of justice appears in the conversion of the Jews which is not seen in the conversion of the Gentiles; inasmuch as the Jews were saved on account of the promises made to the fathers.

Reply Obj. 2: God's justice and mercy are evident in the conversion of both Jews and Gentiles. However, there's a distinct aspect of justice in the conversion of the Jews that isn’t present in the conversion of the Gentiles, since the Jews were saved due to the promises made to their ancestors.

Reply Obj. 3: Justice and mercy appear in the punishment of the just in this world, since by afflictions lesser faults are cleansed in them, and they are the more raised up from earthly affections to God. As to this Gregory says (Moral. xxvi, 9): "The evils that press on us in this world force us to go to God."

Reply Obj. 3: Justice and mercy show up in the punishment of the righteous in this life because their smaller faults are cleansed through hardships, and they are lifted up more from worldly attachments to God. As Gregory states (Moral. xxvi, 9): "The troubles that weigh on us in this life drive us to God."

Reply Obj. 4: Although creation presupposes nothing in the universe; yet it does presuppose something in the knowledge of God. In this way too the idea of justice is preserved in creation; by the production of beings in a manner that accords with the divine wisdom and goodness. And the idea of mercy, also, is preserved in the change of creatures from non-existence to existence. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: While creation doesn’t rely on anything in the universe, it does rely on something in God's knowledge. In this way, the concept of justice is upheld in creation through the way beings are produced in alignment with divine wisdom and goodness. Additionally, the idea of mercy is maintained in the transformation of creatures from non-existence to existence.

QUESTION 22

THE PROVIDENCE OF GOD
(In Four Articles)

THE PROVIDENCE OF GOD
(In Four Articles)

Having considered all that relates to the will absolutely, we must now proceed to those things which have relation to both the intellect and the will, namely providence, in respect to all created things; predestination and reprobation and all that is connected with these acts in respect especially of man as regards his eternal salvation. For in the science of morals, after the moral virtues themselves, comes the consideration of prudence, to which providence would seem to belong. Concerning God's providence there are four points of inquiry:

Having looked at everything regarding the will itself, we now need to move on to topics that involve both the intellect and the will, specifically providence, in relation to all created things; predestination and reprobation, and everything associated with these actions, especially concerning humanity's eternal salvation. In the study of morals, after the moral virtues, we must consider prudence, which seems to relate to providence. Regarding God's providence, there are four points to explore:

(1) Whether providence is suitably assigned to God?

(1) Is providence appropriately attributed to God?

(2) Whether everything comes under divine providence?

(2) Does everything fall under divine providence?

(3) Whether divine providence is immediately concerned with all things?

(3) Is divine providence directly involved with everything?

(4) Whether divine providence imposes any necessity upon things foreseen? _______________________

(4) Does divine providence create any necessity for things that are foreseen? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 22, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 22, Art. 1]

Whether Providence Can Suitably Be Attributed to God?

Whether Providence Can Appropriately Be Attributed to God?

Objection 1: It seems that providence is not becoming to God. For providence, according to Tully (De Invent. ii), is a part of prudence. But prudence, since, according to the Philosopher (Ethic. vi, 5, 9, 18), it gives good counsel, cannot belong to God, Who never has any doubt for which He should take counsel. Therefore providence cannot belong to God.

Objection 1: It seems that providence is not appropriate for God. Because providence, according to Tully (De Invent. ii), is a part of prudence. However, prudence, as the Philosopher states (Ethic. vi, 5, 9, 18), provides good advice and cannot apply to God, Who never has doubts that require guidance. Therefore, providence cannot apply to God.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is in God, is eternal. But providence is not anything eternal, for it is concerned with existing things that are not eternal, according to Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii, 29). Therefore there is no providence in God.

Obj. 2: Moreover, everything that is within God is eternal. However, providence is not something eternal, since it deals with existing things that are not eternal, according to Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii, 29). Therefore, there is no providence in God.

Obj. 3: Further, there is nothing composite in God. But providence seems to be something composite, because it includes both the intellect and the will. Therefore providence is not in God.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, there is nothing made up of parts in God. However, providence appears to be something made up of parts since it involves both intellect and will. Therefore, providence is not in God.

On the contrary, It is said (Wis. 14:3): "But Thou, Father, governest all things by providence [*Vulg. But 'Thy providence, O Father, governeth it.']."

On the contrary, It is said (Wis. 14:3): "But You, Father, govern everything with Your providence [*Vulg. But 'Your providence, O Father, governs it.']."

I answer that, It is necessary to attribute providence to God. For all the good that is in created things has been created by God, as was shown above (Q. 6, A. 4). In created things good is found not only as regards their substance, but also as regards their order towards an end and especially their last end, which, as was said above, is the divine goodness (Q. 21, A. 4). This good of order existing in things created, is itself created by God. Since, however, God is the cause of things by His intellect, and thus it behooves that the type of every effect should pre-exist in Him, as is clear from what has gone before (Q. 19, A. 4), it is necessary that the type of the order of things towards their end should pre-exist in the divine mind: and the type of things ordered towards an end is, properly speaking, providence. For it is the chief part of prudence, to which two other parts are directed—namely, remembrance of the past, and understanding of the present; inasmuch as from the remembrance of what is past and the understanding of what is present, we gather how to provide for the future. Now it belongs to prudence, according to the Philosopher (Ethic. vi, 12), to direct other things towards an end whether in regard to oneself—as for instance, a man is said to be prudent, who orders well his acts towards the end of life—or in regard to others subject to him, in a family, city or kingdom; in which sense it is said (Matt. 24:45), "a faithful and wise servant, whom his lord hath appointed over his family." In this way prudence or providence may suitably be attributed to God. For in God Himself there can be nothing ordered towards an end, since He is the last end. This type of order in things towards an end is therefore in God called providence. Whence Boethius says (De Consol. iv, 6) that "Providence is the divine type itself, seated in the Supreme Ruler; which disposeth all things": which disposition may refer either to the type of the order of things towards an end, or to the type of the order of parts in the whole.

I reply that, it's essential to attribute providence to God. All good in created things has been made by God, as mentioned earlier (Q. 6, A. 4). Goodness in created things is found not just in their substance but also in how they are arranged towards an end, particularly their ultimate end, which, as stated before, is divine goodness (Q. 21, A. 4). This goodness of order existing in created things is itself created by God. However, since God is the cause of things by His intellect, it follows that the idea of every effect must pre-exist in Him, as was previously explained (Q. 19, A. 4). Thus, the idea of the order of things towards their end must pre-exist in the divine mind: and the concept of things arranged towards an end is, strictly speaking, providence. Prudence is the main aspect of this, which has two other components: the remembrance of the past and understanding of the present; because from remembering what has happened and understanding what is happening now, we learn how to prepare for the future. According to the Philosopher (Ethic. vi, 12), prudence is responsible for directing other things towards an end, whether concerning oneself—since a prudent person is someone who organizes their actions towards the end of life—or concerning others under one’s care, like in a family, city, or kingdom; in this context, it is said (Matt. 24:45), "a faithful and wise servant, whom his lord has appointed over his household." Thus, prudence or providence can rightly be ascribed to God. For in God, nothing can be directed towards an end since He is the ultimate end. Therefore, this concept of order in things towards an end is referred to in God as providence. Hence, Boethius states (De Consol. iv, 6) that "Providence is the divine design itself, residing in the Supreme Ruler; which arranges all things": this arrangement can pertain either to the concept of the order of things towards an end or to the concept of the order of parts within the whole.

Reply Obj. 1: According to the Philosopher (Ethic. vi, 9, 10), "Prudence is what, strictly speaking, commands all that 'ebulia' has rightly counselled and 'synesis' rightly judged" [*Cf. I-II, Q. 57, A. 6]. Whence, though to take counsel may not be fitting to God, from the fact that counsel is an inquiry into matters that are doubtful, nevertheless to give a command as to the ordering of things towards an end, the right reason of which He possesses, does belong to God, according to Ps. 148:6: "He hath made a decree, and it shall not pass away." In this manner both prudence and providence belong to God. Although at the same time it may be said that the very reason of things to be done is called counsel in God; not because of any inquiry necessitated, but from the certitude of the knowledge, to which those who take counsel come by inquiry. Whence it is said: "Who worketh all things according to the counsel of His will" (Eph. 1:11).

Reply Obj. 1: According to the Philosopher (Ethic. vi, 9, 10), "Prudence is what, strictly speaking, commands all that 'ebulia' has rightly counseled and 'synesis' rightly judged" [*Cf. I-II, Q. 57, A. 6]. Therefore, even though it may not be suitable for God to seek advice since advice involves questioning uncertain matters, giving commands about organizing things towards an end—of which He has the proper understanding—does belong to God, as stated in Ps. 148:6: "He has made a decree, and it shall not pass away." In this way, both prudence and providence are attributes of God. At the same time, it can be said that the foundational reason for actions is referred to as counsel in God; not because of a need for inquiry, but due to the certainty of the knowledge that those who seek counsel arrive at through inquiry. Hence, it is said: "Who works all things according to the counsel of His will" (Eph. 1:11).

Reply Obj. 2: Two things pertain to the care of providence—namely, the "reason of order," which is called providence and disposition; and the execution of order, which is termed government. Of these, the first is eternal, and the second is temporal.

Reply Obj. 2: Two things relate to the care of providence—specifically, the "reason of order," known as providence and disposition; and the execution of order, referred to as government. Of these, the first is eternal, while the second is temporal.

Reply Obj. 3: Providence resides in the intellect; but presupposes the act of willing the end. Nobody gives a precept about things done for an end; unless he will that end. Hence prudence presupposes the moral virtues, by means of which the appetitive faculty is directed towards good, as the Philosopher says. Even if Providence has to do with the divine will and intellect equally, this would not affect the divine simplicity, since in God both the will and intellect are one and the same thing, as we have said above (Q. 19). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Providence exists in the intellect but assumes the act of wanting the end. No one gives guidance for actions aimed at a goal unless they desire that goal. Therefore, prudence assumes the moral virtues, which guide the desire towards good, as the Philosopher states. Even though Providence relates to the divine will and intellect equally, this does not impact divine simplicity, since in God, the will and intellect are one and the same, as we mentioned earlier (Q. 19).

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 22, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 22, Art. 2]

Whether Everything Is Subject to the Providence of God?

Whether Everything Is Subject to the Providence of God?

Objection 1: It seems that everything is not subject to divine providence. For nothing foreseen can happen by chance. If then everything was foreseen by God, nothing would happen by chance. And thus hazard and luck would disappear; which is against common opinion.

Objection 1: It seems that not everything is under divine providence. Since nothing anticipated can occur by chance, if everything was known by God, nothing would happen randomly. Therefore, chance and luck would vanish, which goes against common belief.

Obj. 2: Further, a wise provider excludes any defect or evil, as far as he can, from those over whom he has a care. But we see many evils existing. Either, then, God cannot hinder these, and thus is not omnipotent; or else He does not have care for everything.

Obj. 2: Also, a wise provider tries to eliminate any flaws or bad things, as much as possible, from those he looks after. But we observe that many bad things still exist. So either God can't stop these, which means He's not all-powerful, or He doesn't care for everything.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever happens of necessity does not require providence or prudence. Hence, according to the Philosopher (Ethic. vi, 5, 9, 10, 11): "Prudence is the right reason of things contingent concerning which there is counsel and choice." Since, then, many things happen from necessity, everything cannot be subject to providence.

Obj. 3: Additionally, anything that happens out of necessity doesn't need guidance or foresight. Thus, as the Philosopher states (Ethic. vi, 5, 9, 10, 11): "Prudence is the correct reasoning for uncertain matters that involve advice and choice." Since many things occur out of necessity, not everything can be governed by guidance.

Obj. 4: Further, whatsoever is left to itself cannot be subject to the providence of a governor. But men are left to themselves by God in accordance with the words: "God made man from the beginning, and left him in the hand of his own counsel" (Ecclus. 15:14). And particularly in reference to the wicked: "I let them go according to the desires of their heart" (Ps. 80:13). Everything, therefore, cannot be subject to divine providence.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, anything that is left to itself cannot be under the control of a leader. However, people are left to themselves by God, as stated: "God made man from the beginning and left him in the hands of his own choices" (Ecclus. 15:14). This is especially true concerning the wicked: "I let them go according to the desires of their heart" (Ps. 80:13). Therefore, not everything can be subject to divine providence.

Obj. 5: Further, the Apostle says (1 Cor. 9:9): "God doth not care for oxen [*Vulg. 'Doth God take care for oxen?']": and we may say the same of other irrational creatures. Thus everything cannot be under the care of divine providence.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, the Apostle says (1 Cor. 9:9): "Does God really care about oxen?" and we can say the same about other non-rational beings. Therefore, not everything can fall under the care of divine providence.

On the contrary, It is said of Divine Wisdom: "She reacheth from end to end mightily, and ordereth all things sweetly" (Wis. 8:1).

On the contrary, It is said of Divine Wisdom: "She reaches from one end to the other powerfully, and arranges everything gracefully" (Wis. 8:1).

I answer that, Certain persons totally denied the existence of providence, as Democritus and the Epicureans, maintaining that the world was made by chance. Others taught that incorruptible things only were subject to providence and corruptible things not in their individual selves, but only according to their species; for in this respect they are incorruptible. They are represented as saying (Job 22:14): "The clouds are His covert; and He doth not consider our things; and He walketh about the poles of heaven." Rabbi Moses, however, excluded men from the generality of things corruptible, on account of the excellence of the intellect which they possess, but in reference to all else that suffers corruption he adhered to the opinion of the others.

I answer that, Some people completely deny the existence of providence, like Democritus and the Epicureans, arguing that the world was created by chance. Others believe that only unchanging things are under providence, while changing things are not in their individual forms but only according to their species; because in this way, they are unchanging. They are described as saying (Job 22:14): "The clouds are His cover; and He does not pay attention to our matters; and He moves around the poles of heaven." Rabbi Moses, however, excluded humans from the category of changing things because of the superiority of their intellect, but regarding everything else that is corruptible, he agreed with the others.

We must say, however, that all things are subject to divine providence, not only in general, but even in their own individual selves. This is made evident thus. For since every agent acts for an end, the ordering of effects towards that end extends as far as the causality of the first agent extends. Whence it happens that in the effects of an agent something takes place which has no reference towards the end, because the effect comes from a cause other than, and outside the intention of the agent. But the causality of God, Who is the first agent, extends to all being, not only as to constituent principles of species, but also as to the individualizing principles; not only of things incorruptible, but also of things corruptible. Hence all things that exist in whatsoever manner are necessarily directed by God towards some end; as the Apostle says: "Those things that are of God are well ordered [*Vulg. 'Those powers that are, are ordained of God': 'Quae autem sunt, a Deo ordinatae sunt.' St. Thomas often quotes this passage, and invariably reads: 'Quae a Deo sunt, ordinata sunt.']" (Rom. 13:1). Since, therefore, as the providence of God is nothing less than the type of the order of things towards an end, as we have said; it necessarily follows that all things, inasmuch as they participate in existence, must likewise be subject to divine providence. It has also been shown (Q. 14, AA. 6, 11) that God knows all things, both universal and particular. And since His knowledge may be compared to the things themselves, as the knowledge of art to the objects of art, all things must of necessity come under His ordering; as all things wrought by art are subject to the ordering of that art.

We have to acknowledge that everything is under divine providence, not just in a general sense, but also in their specific individual contexts. This is clear for this reason: since every action is directed towards a purpose, the way things turn out is tied to the influence of the first cause. As a result, you might see outcomes from an agent that don’t connect to the intended purpose because those outcomes arise from a different cause, outside the agent’s intention. However, God’s influence, as the first cause, touches on all existence, not just in terms of general principles of types but also in terms of what makes each individual unique; this includes both eternal and temporary things. Therefore, everything that exists in any form is necessarily guided by God toward some purpose, as the Apostle states: "Those things that are of God are well ordered" (Rom. 13:1). Thus, since God’s providence reflects the order of things aimed at an end, it logically follows that everything, to the extent that they exist, must also be under divine providence. It's also been shown that God knows all things, both in general and in specific cases. And since His knowledge relates to things in a way similar to an artist's knowledge of their creations, everything must inevitably fall under His guidance, just as all creations of art are given structure by that art.

Reply Obj. 1: There is a difference between universal and particular causes. A thing can escape the order of a particular cause; but not the order of a universal cause. For nothing escapes the order of a particular cause, except through the intervention and hindrance of some other particular cause; as, for instance, wood may be prevented from burning, by the action of water. Since then, all particular causes are included under the universal cause, it could not be that any effect should take place outside the range of that universal cause. So far then as an effect escapes the order of a particular cause, it is said to be casual or fortuitous in respect to that cause; but if we regard the universal cause, outside whose range no effect can happen, it is said to be foreseen. Thus, for instance, the meeting of two servants, although to them it appears a chance circumstance, has been fully foreseen by their master, who has purposely sent them to meet at the one place, in such a way that the one knows not about the other.

Reply Obj. 1: There’s a difference between universal and particular causes. A thing can fall outside the influence of a specific cause, but not outside the reach of a universal cause. Nothing escapes a particular cause's influence unless some other particular cause intervenes or obstructs it; for example, water can stop wood from burning. Since all particular causes fall under the universal cause, it can't happen that any effect occurs outside the scope of that universal cause. To the extent that an effect evades a particular cause's influence, it’s considered random or accidental in relation to that cause; however, when we think of the universal cause, from which no effect can occur outside its scope, it’s viewed as foreseen. For instance, the encounter of two servants might seem like a coincidence to them, but their master has anticipated it entirely, having intentionally sent them to meet at one location without the other knowing.

Reply Obj. 2: It is otherwise with one who has care of a particular thing, and one whose providence is universal, because a particular provider excludes all defects from what is subject to his care as far as he can; whereas, one who provides universally allows some little defect to remain, lest the good of the whole should be hindered. Hence, corruption and defects in natural things are said to be contrary to some particular nature; yet they are in keeping with the plan of universal nature; inasmuch as the defect in one thing yields to the good of another, or even to the universal good: for the corruption of one is the generation of another, and through this it is that a species is kept in existence. Since God, then, provides universally for all being, it belongs to His providence to permit certain defects in particular effects, that the perfect good of the universe may not be hindered, for if all evil were prevented, much good would be absent from the universe. A lion would cease to live, if there were no slaying of animals; and there would be no patience of martyrs if there were no tyrannical persecution. Thus Augustine says (Enchiridion 2): "Almighty God would in no wise permit evil to exist in His works, unless He were so almighty and so good as to produce good even from evil." It would appear that it was on account of these two arguments to which we have just replied, that some were persuaded to consider corruptible things—e.g. casual and evil things—as removed from the care of divine providence.

Reply Obj. 2: It's different for someone responsible for a specific thing compared to someone who cares for everything. A particular caretaker tries to eliminate all flaws from what they oversee as much as possible, while someone who oversees everything accepts some minor flaws to avoid disrupting the overall good. Because of this, corruption and flaws in natural entities are seen as contrary to specific natures but align with the broader plan of universal nature. A defect in one thing can benefit another or contribute to the overall good: the decay of one thing can lead to the growth of another, maintaining the species. Since God oversees all existence, His providence allows for certain flaws in specific outcomes so that the complete goodness of the universe isn't compromised. If all evil were prevented, many good things would be missing from the universe. For instance, a lion wouldn't survive without killing other animals, and there wouldn't be the resilience of martyrs if there were no oppressive persecution. Augustine states (Enchiridion 2): "Almighty God would not allow evil to exist in His creations unless He was powerful and good enough to bring good out of evil." It seems that these two arguments we've just addressed led some to believe that corruptible things—like random and harmful things—are beyond the scope of divine providence.

Reply Obj. 3: Man is not the author of nature; but he uses natural things in applying art and virtue to his own use. Hence human providence does not reach to that which takes place in nature from necessity; but divine providence extends thus far, since God is the author of nature. Apparently it was this argument that moved those who withdrew the course of nature from the care of divine providence, attributing it rather to the necessity of matter, as Democritus, and others of the ancients.

Reply Obj. 3: Humans are not the creators of nature; instead, they utilize natural things by applying art and virtue for their own purposes. Therefore, human providence does not extend to what happens in nature out of necessity; however, divine providence does extend this far, since God is the creator of nature. It seems this argument influenced those who separated the course of nature from the care of divine providence, attributing it instead to the necessity of matter, like Democritus and other ancient thinkers.

Reply Obj. 4: When it is said that God left man to himself, this does not mean that man is exempt from divine providence; but merely that he has not a prefixed operating force determined to only the one effect; as in the case of natural things, which are only acted upon as though directed by another towards an end; and do not act of themselves, as if they directed themselves towards an end, like rational creatures, through the possession of free will, by which these are able to take counsel and make a choice. Hence it is significantly said: "In the hand of his own counsel." But since the very act of free will is traced to God as to a cause, it necessarily follows that everything happening from the exercise of free will must be subject to divine providence. For human providence is included under the providence of God, as a particular under a universal cause. God, however, extends His providence over the just in a certain more excellent way than over the wicked; inasmuch as He prevents anything happening which would impede their final salvation. For "to them that love God, all things work together unto good" (Rom. 8:28). But from the fact that He does not restrain the wicked from the evil of sin, He is said to abandon them: not that He altogether withdraws His providence from them; otherwise they would return to nothing, if they were not preserved in existence by His providence. This was the reason that had weight with Tully, who withdrew from the care of divine providence human affairs concerning which we take counsel.

Reply Obj. 4: When it’s said that God left man to himself, it doesn’t mean that man is free from divine providence; it just means he doesn’t have a pre-set force acting on him that produces a specific outcome. In contrast, natural things are acted upon as if guided by another toward an end, and they don’t act on their own as if directing themselves, unlike rational beings who have free will and can reflect and make choices. Thus, it’s emphasized: "In the hand of his own counsel." However, because the very act of free will is traced back to God as its cause, it follows that everything that happens as a result of free will is subject to divine providence. Human providence falls under God’s providence, as a particular under a universal cause. God extends His providence over the righteous in a more exceptional way than over the wicked, as He prevents anything from hindering their ultimate salvation. For "to those who love God, all things work together for good" (Rom. 8:28). But the fact that He doesn’t restrain the wicked from sin makes it seem like He abandons them; this doesn’t mean He completely withdraws His providence from them; otherwise, they would cease to exist if He didn’t sustain them. This was the reasoning that influenced Tully, who set aside the care of divine providence regarding human affairs that we deliberate about.

Reply Obj. 5: Since a rational creature has, through its free will, control over its actions, as was said above (Q. 19, A. 10), it is subject to divine providence in an especial manner, so that something is imputed to it as a fault, or as a merit; and there is given it accordingly something by way of punishment or reward. In this way, the Apostle withdraws oxen from the care of God: not, however, that individual irrational creatures escape the care of divine providence; as was the opinion of the Rabbi Moses. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: Since a rational being has control over its actions through free will, as mentioned earlier (Q. 19, A. 10), it is specifically subject to divine providence. This means that actions can be seen as faults or merits, and as a result, the being receives either punishment or reward. In this way, the Apostle excludes oxen from God’s care; however, this doesn’t mean that individual irrational creatures are beyond the reach of divine providence, as Rabbi Moses believed.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 22, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 22, Art. 3]

Whether God Has Immediate Providence Over Everything?

Whether God Has Immediate Control Over Everything?

Objection 1: It seems that God has not immediate providence over all things. For whatever is contained in the notion of dignity, must be attributed to God. But it belongs to the dignity of a king, that he should have ministers; through whose mediation he provides for his subjects. Therefore much less has God Himself immediate providence over all things.

Objection 1: It appears that God does not have direct control over everything. Since anything that implies dignity must be attributed to God, it is part of a king's dignity to have ministers who help him care for his subjects. Therefore, even more so, God does not have direct control over everything.

Obj. 2: Further, it belongs to providence to order all things to an end. Now the end of everything is its perfection and its good. But it appertains to every cause to direct its effect to good; wherefore every active cause is a cause of the effect of providence. If therefore God were to have immediate providence over all things, all secondary causes would be withdrawn.

Obj. 2: Additionally, it is the role of providence to manage everything towards a specific goal. The goal of everything is its perfection and its goodness. Each cause is responsible for directing its effect towards good; therefore, every active cause contributes to the effect of providence. If God were to have direct providence over all things, all secondary causes would be eliminated.

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine says (Enchiridion 17) that, "It is better to be ignorant of some things than to know them, for example, vile things": and the Philosopher says the same (Metaph. xii, 51). But whatever is better must be assigned to God. Therefore He has not immediate providence over bad and vile things.

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine says (Enchiridion 17) that, "It is better to be unaware of some things than to know them, like disgusting things": and the Philosopher says the same (Metaph. xii, 51). But whatever is better must be attributed to God. Therefore, He does not have direct providence over bad and disgusting things.

On the contrary, It is said (Job 34:13): "What other hath He appointed over the earth? or whom hath He set over the world which He made?" On which passage Gregory says (Moral. xxiv, 20): "Himself He ruleth the world which He Himself hath made."

On the contrary, It is said (Job 34:13): "What else has He appointed over the earth? Or who has He set over the world that He created?" To which Gregory says (Moral. xxiv, 20): "He Himself governs the world that He has made."

I answer that, Two things belong to providence—namely, the type of the order of things foreordained towards an end; and the execution of this order, which is called government. As regards the first of these, God has immediate providence over everything, because He has in His intellect the types of everything, even the smallest; and whatsoever causes He assigns to certain effects, He gives them the power to produce those effects. Whence it must be that He has beforehand the type of those effects in His mind. As to the second, there are certain intermediaries of God's providence; for He governs things inferior by superior, not on account of any defect in His power, but by reason of the abundance of His goodness; so that the dignity of causality is imparted even to creatures. Thus Plato's opinion, as narrated by Gregory of Nyssa (De Provid. viii, 3), is exploded. He taught a threefold providence. First, one which belongs to the supreme Deity, Who first and foremost has provision over spiritual things, and thus over the whole world as regards genus, species, and universal causes. The second providence, which is over the individuals of all that can be generated and corrupted, he attributed to the divinities who circulate in the heavens; that is, certain separate substances, which move corporeal things in a circular direction. The third providence, over human affairs, he assigned to demons, whom the Platonic philosophers placed between us and the gods, as Augustine tells us (De Civ. Dei, 1, 2: viii, 14).

I respond that, Two aspects are related to providence—specifically, the structure of the order of things that is determined for a purpose; and the implementation of this order, known as governance. Regarding the first aspect, God has direct providence over all things because He understands the blueprint of everything, even the tiniest details; whatever causes He associates with specific effects, He grants them the ability to create those effects. Therefore, it must be that He already conceives the blueprint of those effects in His mind. Concerning the second aspect, there are certain intermediaries in God's providence; He governs lower things through higher ones, not due to any limitation in His power, but because of the overflow of His goodness; thus, He imparts a measure of causality even to created beings. Consequently, Plato's view, as described by Gregory of Nyssa (De Provid. viii, 3), is rejected. He proposed a threefold providence. First, one that belongs to the supreme Deity, who initially oversees spiritual matters, and therefore the whole world in terms of categories, species, and universal causes. The second providence, which oversees the individuals of all that can be created or destroyed, he attributed to the gods who move about in the heavens; namely, certain separate beings that direct physical things in circular motion. The third providence, affecting human affairs, he assigned to demons, whom the Platonic philosophers positioned between us and the gods, as Augustine mentions (De Civ. Dei, 1, 2: viii, 14).

Reply Obj. 1: It pertains to a king's dignity to have ministers who execute his providence. But the fact that he has not the plan of those things which are done by them arises from a deficiency in himself. For every operative science is the more perfect, the more it considers the particular things with which its action is concerned.

Reply Obj. 1: It's part of a king's dignity to have ministers who carry out his plans. However, the reason he doesn't have a clear understanding of what they are doing is due to a lack on his part. Every practical science is more complete to the extent that it focuses on the specific details related to its actions.

Reply Obj. 2: God's immediate provision over everything does not exclude the action of secondary causes; which are the executors of His order, as was said above (Q. 19, AA. 5, 8).

Reply Obj. 2: God's direct involvement in everything does not prevent the actions of secondary causes, which carry out His will, as mentioned earlier (Q. 19, AA. 5, 8).

Reply Obj. 3: It is better for us not to know low and vile things, because by them we are impeded in our knowledge of what is better and higher; for we cannot understand many things simultaneously; because the thought of evil sometimes perverts the will towards evil. This does not hold with God, Who sees everything simultaneously at one glance, and whose will cannot turn in the direction of evil. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: It's better for us not to know low and disgusting things, because they hinder our understanding of what is better and greater; we can’t grasp many things at once, and the thought of evil can sometimes lead us to choose evil. This doesn’t apply to God, who sees everything at once and whose will can never lean toward evil.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 22, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 22, Art. 4]

Whether Providence Imposes Any Necessity on Things Foreseen?

Whether Providence Puts Any Requirement on Things That Are Foreseen?

Objection 1: It seems that divine providence imposes necessity upon things foreseen. For every effect that has a per se cause, either present or past, which it necessarily follows, happens from necessity; as the Philosopher proves (Metaph. vi, 7). But the providence of God, since it is eternal, pre-exists; and the effect flows from it of necessity, for divine providence cannot be frustrated. Therefore divine providence imposes a necessity upon things foreseen.

Objection 1: It seems that divine providence makes things that are foreseen necessary. For every effect that has a per se cause, whether present or past, which it necessarily follows, occurs out of necessity, as the Philosopher shows (Metaph. vi, 7). But God’s providence, being eternal, exists beforehand; and the effect follows from it necessarily, since divine providence cannot be thwarted. Therefore, divine providence imposes necessity on things that are foreseen.

Obj. 2: Further, every provider makes his work as stable as he can, lest it should fail. But God is most powerful. Therefore He assigns the stability of necessity to things provided.

Obj. 2: Moreover, every provider ensures their work is as stable as possible to prevent failure. But God is all-powerful. Therefore, He gives essential stability to the things created.

Obj. 3: Further, Boethius says (De Consol. iv, 6): "Fate from the immutable source of providence binds together human acts and fortunes by the indissoluble connection of causes." It seems therefore that providence imposes necessity upon things foreseen.

Obj. 3: Moreover, Boethius states (De Consol. iv, 6): "Fate from the unchanging source of providence links human actions and outcomes through the unbreakable connection of causes." Therefore, it seems that providence creates a necessity for things that are foreseen.

On the contrary, Dionysius says that (Div. Nom. iv, 23) "to corrupt nature is not the work of providence." But it is in the nature of some things to be contingent. Divine providence does not therefore impose any necessity upon things so as to destroy their contingency.

On the contrary, Dionysius states that (Div. Nom. iv, 23) "corrupting nature is not the role of providence." However, certain things are inherently conditional. Divine providence does not impose any necessity on these things that would eliminate their conditional nature.

I answer that, Divine providence imposes necessity upon some things; not upon all, as some formerly believed. For to providence it belongs to order things towards an end. Now after the divine goodness, which is an extrinsic end to all things, the principal good in things themselves is the perfection of the universe; which would not be, were not all grades of being found in things. Whence it pertains to divine providence to produce every grade of being. And thus it has prepared for some things necessary causes, so that they happen of necessity; for others contingent causes, that they may happen by contingency, according to the nature of their proximate causes.

I answer that, Divine providence creates necessity for some things; not for everything, as some believed in the past. Providence is responsible for organizing things towards a purpose. After the divine goodness, which serves as an external purpose for everything, the main good in things themselves is the perfection of the universe; which wouldn’t exist if all levels of being weren't present in things. Therefore, it is the role of divine providence to produce every level of being. Thus, it has arranged for certain things to have necessary causes, so they happen out of necessity; while for others, it has provided contingent causes, allowing them to occur by chance, depending on the nature of their immediate causes.

Reply Obj. 1: The effect of divine providence is not only that things should happen somehow; but that they should happen either by necessity or by contingency. Therefore whatsoever divine providence ordains to happen infallibly and of necessity happens infallibly and of necessity; and that happens from contingency, which the plan of divine providence conceives to happen from contingency.

Reply Obj. 1: The impact of divine providence is not just that things happen in some way; it's that they happen either out of necessity or by chance. So whatever divine providence determines to happen inevitably and necessarily does happen inevitably and necessarily; and what happens by chance occurs because divine providence has planned for it to happen that way.

Reply Obj. 2: The order of divine providence is unchangeable and certain, so far as all things foreseen happen as they have been foreseen, whether from necessity or from contingency.

Reply Obj. 2: The order of divine providence is unchangeable and certain, in that everything that is foreseen happens exactly as it was foreseen, whether out of necessity or by chance.

Reply Obj. 3: That indissolubility and unchangeableness of which Boethius speaks, pertain to the certainty of providence, which fails not to produce its effect, and that in the way foreseen; but they do not pertain to the necessity of the effects. We must remember that properly speaking "necessary" and "contingent" are consequent upon being, as such. Hence the mode both of necessity and of contingency falls under the foresight of God, who provides universally for all being; not under the foresight of causes that provide only for some particular order of things. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The indissolubility and unchangeableness mentioned by Boethius relate to the certainty of providence, which never fails to produce its intended effect, and does so as anticipated; however, they do not relate to the necessity of the effects. We should note that technically "necessary" and "contingent" are connected to being itself. Therefore, both necessity and contingency fall under God's foresight, who provides for all existence; they are not under the foresight of causes that only account for a specific order of things.

QUESTION 23

OF PREDESTINATION
(In Eight Articles)

OF PREDESTINATION
(In Eight Articles)

After consideration of divine providence, we must treat of predestination and the book of life. Concerning predestination there are eight points of inquiry:

After thinking about divine providence, we need to discuss predestination and the book of life. Regarding predestination, there are eight points to consider:

(1) Whether predestination is suitably attributed to God?

(1) Is it appropriate to attribute predestination to God?

(2) What is predestination, and whether it places anything in the predestined?

(2) What is predestination, and does it assign anything to those who are predestined?

(3) Whether to God belongs the reprobation of some men?

(3) Does God have the right to condemn some people?

(4) On the comparison of predestination to election; whether, that is to say, the predestined are chosen?

(4) On the comparison of predestination to election; in other words, are the predestined chosen?

(5) Whether merits are the cause or reason of predestination, or reprobation, or election?

(5) Are merits the cause or reason for predestination, reprobation, or election?

(6) of the certainty of predestination; whether the predestined will infallibly be saved?

(6) of the certainty of predestination; will those who are predestined definitely be saved?

(7) Whether the number of the predestined is certain?

(7) Is the number of the predestined certain?

(8) Whether predestination can be furthered by the prayers of the saints? _______________________

(8) Can the prayers of the saints influence predestination? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 1]

Whether Men Are Predestined by God?

Whether Men Are Predestined by God?

Objection 1: It seems that men are not predestined by God, for Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 30): "It must be borne in mind that God foreknows but does not predetermine everything, since He foreknows all that is in us, but does not predetermine it all." But human merit and demerit are in us, forasmuch as we are the masters of our own acts by free will. All that pertains therefore to merit or demerit is not predestined by God; and thus man's predestination is done away.

Objection 1: It seems that men are not predetermined by God, because Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 30): "It should be understood that God knows beforehand but does not decide everything, since He knows all that is within us, but does not determine it all." Human merit and demerit come from us, as we control our own actions through free will. Therefore, everything that relates to merit or demerit is not predetermined by God; and so, man's predestination is eliminated.

Obj. 2: Further, all creatures are directed to their end by divine providence, as was said above (Q. 22, AA. 1, 2). But other creatures are not said to be predestined by God. Therefore neither are men.

Obj. 2: Additionally, all beings are guided toward their purposes by divine providence, as mentioned earlier (Q. 22, AA. 1, 2). However, other beings are not described as predestined by God. Therefore, neither are humans.

Obj. 3: Further, the angels are capable of beatitude, as well as men. But predestination is not suitable to angels, since in them there never was any unhappiness (miseria); for predestination, as Augustine says (De praedest. sanct. 17), is the "purpose to take pity [miserendi]" [*See Q. 22, A. 3]. Therefore men are not predestined.

Obj. 3: Additionally, angels can experience happiness, just like humans. However, predestination doesn't apply to angels because they have never known unhappiness. As Augustine states (De praedest. sanct. 17), predestination is the "intention to show mercy." Therefore, humans are not predestined.

Obj. 4: Further, the benefits God confers upon men are revealed by the Holy Ghost to holy men according to the saying of the Apostle (1 Cor. 2:12): "Now we have received not the spirit of this world, but the Spirit that is of God: that we may know the things that are given us from God." Therefore if man were predestined by God, since predestination is a benefit from God, his predestination would be made known to each predestined; which is clearly false.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the benefits that God grants to people are revealed by the Holy Spirit to holy individuals, as the Apostle says (1 Cor. 2:12): "Now we have not received the spirit of this world, but the Spirit that is from God, so that we may understand the things that are given to us by God." Therefore, if a person were predestined by God, since predestination is a gift from God, that person's predestination would be revealed to each one who is predestined; which is clearly not true.

On the contrary, It is written (Rom. 8:30): "Whom He predestined, them He also called."

On the contrary, It is written (Rom. 8:30): "Those He predestined, He also called."

I answer that, It is fitting that God should predestine men. For all things are subject to His providence, as was shown above (Q. 22, A. 2). Now it belongs to providence to direct things towards their end, as was also said (Q. 22, AA. 1, 2). The end towards which created things are directed by God is twofold; one which exceeds all proportion and faculty of created nature; and this end is life eternal, that consists in seeing God which is above the nature of every creature, as shown above (Q. 12, A. 4). The other end, however, is proportionate to created nature, to which end created being can attain according to the power of its nature. Now if a thing cannot attain to something by the power of its nature, it must be directed thereto by another; thus, an arrow is directed by the archer towards a mark. Hence, properly speaking, a rational creature, capable of eternal life, is led towards it, directed, as it were, by God. The reason of that direction pre-exists in God; as in Him is the type of the order of all things towards an end, which we proved above to be providence. Now the type in the mind of the doer of something to be done, is a kind of pre-existence in him of the thing to be done. Hence the type of the aforesaid direction of a rational creature towards the end of life eternal is called predestination. For to destine, is to direct or send. Thus it is clear that predestination, as regards its objects, is a part of providence.

I answer that, It makes sense for God to predestine people. Everything is under His guidance, as explained earlier (Q. 22, A. 2). Providence is responsible for guiding things toward their purpose, as mentioned before (Q. 22, AA. 1, 2). The purpose God directs created things toward is twofold: one purpose surpasses everything that created nature can handle, which is eternal life that involves seeing God, something beyond the nature of any creature, as stated earlier (Q. 12, A. 4). The other purpose, however, aligns with created nature, which created beings can achieve based on their inherent abilities. If something cannot reach an end through its own power, it must be guided there by something else; for example, an archer directs an arrow toward a target. Therefore, a rational being, capable of eternal life, is guided toward it by God. The reason for this guidance exists in God, as He holds the blueprint of the order of everything toward an end, which we have established earlier to be providence. The blueprint in the mind of the doer of an action is a kind of pre-existence of the action itself. Thus, the blueprint of a rational being's direction toward eternal life is called predestination. To destine means to direct or send. So, it's clear that predestination, regarding its subjects, is part of providence.

Reply Obj. 1: Damascene calls predestination an imposition of necessity, after the manner of natural things which are predetermined towards one end. This is clear from his adding: "He does not will malice, nor does He compel virtue." Whence predestination is not excluded by Him.

Reply Obj. 1: Damascene refers to predestination as a necessary imposition, similar to natural things that are predetermined for a specific purpose. This is evident from his statement: "He does not will malice, nor does He force virtue." Therefore, predestination is not ruled out by Him.

Reply Obj. 2: Irrational creatures are not capable of that end which exceeds the faculty of human nature. Whence they cannot be properly said to be predestined; although improperly the term is used in respect of any other end.

Reply Obj. 2: Irrational beings cannot achieve goals that go beyond human abilities. Therefore, they can’t really be considered predestined; however, the term is used informally in relation to other goals.

Reply Obj. 3: Predestination applies to angels, just as it does to men, although they have never been unhappy. For movement does not take its species from the term wherefrom but from the term whereto. Because it matters nothing, in respect of the notion of making white, whether he who is made white was before black, yellow or red. Likewise it matters nothing in respect of the notion of predestination whether one is predestined to life eternal from the state of misery or not. Although it may be said that every conferring of good above that which is due pertains to mercy; as was shown previously (Q. 21, AA. 3, 4).

Reply Obj. 3: Predestination applies to angels just as it does to humans, even though they have never experienced unhappiness. Movement is defined by its destination rather than its starting point. It doesn't matter, in terms of the idea of being made white, whether the person being made white was previously black, yellow, or red. Similarly, it doesn't matter regarding predestination whether someone is destined for eternal life from a state of misery or not. Although it can be said that every act of giving goodness beyond what is deserved is an act of mercy, as was explained earlier (Q. 21, AA. 3, 4).

Reply Obj. 4: Even if by a special privilege their predestination were revealed to some, it is not fitting that it should be revealed to everyone; because, if so, those who were not predestined would despair; and security would beget negligence in the predestined. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Even if some were given a special privilege to know their predestination, it wouldn't be appropriate for everyone to know it; because if everyone knew, those who weren't predestined would lose hope, and that assurance would lead to carelessness among the predestined. _______________________

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 2]

Whether Predestination Places Anything in the Predestined?

Whether Predestination Assigns Anything to the Predestined?

Objection 1: It seems that predestination does place something in the predestined. For every action of itself causes passion. If therefore predestination is action in God, predestination must be passion in the predestined.

Objection 1: It seems that predestination does attribute something to the predestined. For every action in itself evokes a response. Therefore, if predestination is an action of God, then predestination must also evoke a response in the predestined.

Obj. 2: Further, Origen says on the text, "He who was predestined," etc. (Rom. 1:4): "Predestination is of one who is not; destination, of one who is." And Augustine says (De Praed. Sanct.): "What is predestination but the destination of one who is?" Therefore predestination is only of one who actually exists; and it thus places something in the predestined.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Origen comments on the phrase, "He who was predestined," etc. (Rom. 1:4): "Predestination is for someone who doesn’t exist; destination is for someone who does." Augustine states (De Praed. Sanct.): "What is predestination if not the destination of someone who exists?" Thus, predestination applies only to someone who actually exists; it therefore attributes something to the predestined person.

Obj. 3: Further, preparation is something in the thing prepared. But predestination is the preparation of God's benefits, as Augustine says (De Praed. Sanct. ii, 14). Therefore predestination is something in the predestined.

Obj. 3: Additionally, preparation exists within the thing that is prepared. However, predestination is the preparation of God's blessings, as Augustine states (De Praed. Sanct. ii, 14). Therefore, predestination is something that exists within the predestined.

Obj. 4: Further, nothing temporal enters into the definition of eternity. But grace, which is something temporal, is found in the definition of predestination. For predestination is the preparation of grace in the present; and of glory in the future. Therefore predestination is not anything eternal. So it must needs be that it is in the predestined, and not in God; for whatever is in Him is eternal.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, nothing temporary is included in the definition of eternity. However, grace, which is temporary, is part of the definition of predestination. Predestination is the arrangement of grace in the present and glory in the future. Therefore, predestination is not eternal. It must be in the predestined individuals, not in God, because everything in Him is eternal.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Praed. Sanct. ii, 14) that "predestination is the foreknowledge of God's benefits." But foreknowledge is not in the things foreknown, but in the person who foreknows them. Therefore, predestination is in the one who predestines, and not in the predestined.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Praed. Sanct. ii, 14) that "predestination is the foreknowledge of God's benefits." But foreknowledge is not found in the things being known beforehand, but in the person who knows them. Therefore, predestination exists in the one who predestines, and not in the ones who are predestined.

I answer that, Predestination is not anything in the predestined; but only in the person who predestines. We have said above that predestination is a part of providence. Now providence is not anything in the things provided for; but is a type in the mind of the provider, as was proved above (Q. 22, A. 1). But the execution of providence which is called government, is in a passive way in the thing governed, and in an active way in the governor. Whence it is clear that predestination is a kind of type of the ordering of some persons towards eternal salvation, existing in the divine mind. The execution, however, of this order is in a passive way in the predestined, but actively in God. The execution of predestination is the calling and magnification; according to the Apostle (Rom. 8:30): "Whom He predestined, them He also called and whom He called, them He also magnified [Vulg. 'justified']."

I answer that, Predestination isn’t something that exists in those who are predestined; it only exists in the one who does the predestining. As we mentioned earlier, predestination is part of providence. Now, providence isn’t found in the things it provides for; it exists as an idea in the mind of the provider, as was shown earlier (Q. 22, A. 1). However, the execution of providence, which we call governance, happens passively in the governed and actively in the governor. Therefore, it’s clear that predestination is a type of arrangement regarding some individuals aimed at eternal salvation, which exists in the divine mind. The execution of this arrangement occurs passively in the predestined but actively in God. The execution of predestination involves calling and glorifying; as the Apostle states (Rom. 8:30): "Whom He predestined, them He also called, and whom He called, them He also glorified [Vulg. 'justified']."

Reply Obj. 1: Actions passing out to external matter imply of themselves passion—for example, the actions of warming and cutting; but not so actions remaining in the agent, as understanding and willing, as said above (Q. 14, A. 2; Q. 18, A. 3, ad 1). Predestination is an action of this latter class. Wherefore, it does not put anything in the predestined. But its execution, which passes out to external things, has an effect in them.

Reply Obj. 1: Actions directed toward external things involve passion—like warming and cutting; however, actions that remain within the agent, like understanding and willing, do not, as mentioned earlier (Q. 14, A. 2; Q. 18, A. 3, ad 1). Predestination is an action of this latter type. Therefore, it doesn’t implant anything in the predestined. However, its execution, which extends to external things, does have an effect on them.

Reply Obj. 2: Destination sometimes denotes a real mission of someone to a given end; thus, destination can only be said of someone actually existing. It is taken, however, in another sense for a mission which a person conceives in the mind; and in this manner we are said to destine a thing which we firmly propose in our mind. In this latter way it is said that Eleazar "determined not to do any unlawful things for the love of life" (2 Macc. 6:20). Thus destination can be of a thing which does not exist. Predestination, however, by reason of the antecedent nature it implies, can be attributed to a thing which does not actually exist; in whatsoever way destination is accepted.

Reply Obj. 2: Destination sometimes refers to a real mission someone has towards a specific goal; therefore, we can only say someone has a destination if they actually exist. However, it can also refer to a mission that a person envisions in their mind; in this sense, we talk about destining something we firmly propose in our thoughts. In this latter sense, it's noted that Eleazar "determined not to do any unlawful things for the love of life" (2 Macc. 6:20). Thus, destination can apply to something that doesn't exist. On the other hand, predestination, due to its inherent nature, can be applied to something that doesn't actually exist, regardless of how destination is understood.

Reply Obj. 3: Preparation is twofold: of the patient in respect to passion and this is in the thing prepared; and of the agent to action, and this is in the agent. Such a preparation is predestination, and as an agent by intellect is said to prepare itself to act, accordingly as it preconceives the idea of what is to be done. Thus, God from all eternity prepared by predestination, conceiving the idea of the order of some towards salvation.

Reply Obj. 3: Preparation has two aspects: the patient's readiness concerning their feelings, which is about the thing being prepared; and the agent's readiness to act, which is within the agent. This type of preparation is predestination, and just as an agent uses intellect to get ready to act, based on what it envisions needs to be done. Therefore, God has prepared from all eternity through predestination, visualizing the plan for some to achieve salvation.

Reply Obj. 4: Grace does not come into the definition of predestination, as something belonging to its essence, but inasmuch as predestination implies a relation to grace, as of cause to effect, and of act to its object. Whence it does not follow that predestination is anything temporal. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Grace is not part of the definition of predestination in its essence, but rather, predestination involves a relationship to grace, like a cause to its effect and an action to its object. Therefore, it does not mean that predestination is temporary.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 3]

Whether God Reprobates Any Man?

Does God Reject Anyone?

Objection 1: It seems that God reprobates no man. For nobody reprobates what he loves. But God loves every man, according to (Wis. 11:25): "Thou lovest all things that are, and Thou hatest none of the things Thou hast made." Therefore God reprobates no man.

Objection 1: It appears that God doesn't reject anyone. After all, nobody rejects what they love. But God loves everyone, as stated in (Wis. 11:25): "You love all things that exist, and You hate none of the things You have made." Therefore, God rejects no one.

Obj. 2: Further, if God reprobates any man, it would be necessary for reprobation to have the same relation to the reprobates as predestination has to the predestined. But predestination is the cause of the salvation of the predestined. Therefore reprobation will likewise be the cause of the loss of the reprobate. But this false. For it is said (Osee 13:9): "Destruction is thy own, O Israel; Thy help is only in Me." God does not, then, reprobate any man.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, if God rejects anyone, then rejection must have the same relationship to those rejected as predestination has to the predestined. But predestination is the reason for the salvation of the predestined. Therefore, rejection would also be the reason for the loss of the rejected. However, this is not true. For it is said (Hosea 13:9): "Your destruction is your own, O Israel; Your help is only in Me." Thus, God does not reject anyone.

Obj. 3: Further, to no one ought anything be imputed which he cannot avoid. But if God reprobates anyone, that one must perish. For it is said (Eccles. 7:14): "Consider the works of God, that no man can correct whom He hath despised." Therefore it could not be imputed to any man, were he to perish. But this is false. Therefore God does not reprobate anyone.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, no one should be held responsible for things they cannot control. But if God rejects someone, that person must face destruction. As it is said (Eccles. 7:14): "Think about what God has done; no one can fix what He has despised." Therefore, it wouldn’t be fair to blame a person if they were to perish. But this is not true. Thus, God does not reject anyone.

On the contrary, It is said (Malachi 1:2,3): "I have loved Jacob, but have hated Esau."

On the contrary, It is said (Malachi 1:2,3): "I have loved Jacob, but have hated Esau."

I answer that, God does reprobate some. For it was said above (A. 1) that predestination is a part of providence. To providence, however, it belongs to permit certain defects in those things which are subject to providence, as was said above (Q. 22, A. 2). Thus, as men are ordained to eternal life through the providence of God, it likewise is part of that providence to permit some to fall away from that end; this is called reprobation. Thus, as predestination is a part of providence, in regard to those ordained to eternal salvation, so reprobation is a part of providence in regard to those who turn aside from that end. Hence reprobation implies not only foreknowledge, but also something more, as does providence, as was said above (Q. 22, A. 1). Therefore, as predestination includes the will to confer grace and glory; so also reprobation includes the will to permit a person to fall into sin, and to impose the punishment of damnation on account of that sin.

I answer that, God does reject some people. As mentioned earlier (A. 1), predestination is part of divine providence. It is within providence to allow certain shortcomings in things under its control, as noted before (Q. 22, A. 2). Just as people are chosen for eternal life through God's providence, it is also part of that providence to allow some to stray from that goal; this is known as reprobation. Therefore, just as predestination is part of providence concerning those designated for eternal salvation, reprobation is part of providence concerning those who deviate from that goal. Thus, reprobation involves not just foreknowledge but also something deeper, just like providence, as stated earlier (Q. 22, A. 1). Consequently, as predestination encompasses the intent to grant grace and glory, reprobation also includes the intent to allow a person to fall into sin and impose the punishment of damnation for that sin.

Reply Obj. 1: God loves all men and all creatures, inasmuch as He wishes them all some good; but He does not wish every good to them all. So far, therefore, as He does not wish this particular good—namely, eternal life—He is said to hate or reprobated them.

Reply Obj. 1: God loves all people and all creatures because He wants something good for everyone; however, He doesn't want the same good for everyone. In that sense, because He doesn't want this specific good—eternal life—for some individuals, it is said that He hates or rejects them.

Reply Obj. 2: Reprobation differs in its causality from predestination. This latter is the cause both of what is expected in the future life by the predestined—namely, glory—and of what is received in this life—namely, grace. Reprobation, however, is not the cause of what is in the present—namely, sin; but it is the cause of abandonment by God. It is the cause, however, of what is assigned in the future—namely, eternal punishment. But guilt proceeds from the free-will of the person who is reprobated and deserted by grace. In this way, the word of the prophet is true—namely, "Destruction is thy own, O Israel."

Reply Obj. 2: Reprobation is different in its cause compared to predestination. The latter is the reason for what the predestined expect in the afterlife—specifically, glory—and for what they receive in this life—specifically, grace. On the other hand, reprobation isn't the cause of what exists right now—specifically, sin; rather, it leads to abandonment by God. It is, however, the reason for what is destined in the future—specifically, eternal punishment. But guilt comes from the free will of the person who is reprobated and abandoned by grace. In this way, the prophet's words ring true—"Destruction is your own, O Israel."

Reply Obj. 3: Reprobation by God does not take anything away from the power of the person reprobated. Hence, when it is said that the reprobated cannot obtain grace, this must not be understood as implying absolute impossibility: but only conditional impossibility: as was said above (Q. 19, A. 3), that the predestined must necessarily be saved; yet a conditional necessity, which does not do away with the liberty of choice. Whence, although anyone reprobated by God cannot acquire grace, nevertheless that he falls into this or that particular sin comes from the use of his free-will. Hence it is rightly imputed to him as guilt. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: God's rejection doesn't take away the power of the person who is rejected. So, when we say that the rejected cannot receive grace, it shouldn't be understood as absolute impossibility, but rather as conditional impossibility. As mentioned earlier (Q. 19, A. 3), the predestined must be saved, yet this necessity is conditional and does not eliminate free will. Therefore, even though someone rejected by God cannot receive grace, the fact that they fall into this or that particular sin comes from their use of free will. Thus, it's rightfully considered their guilt.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 4]

Whether the Predestined Are Chosen by God? [*"Eligantur."]

Whether the Chosen Are Picked by God? [*"Eligantur."]

Objection 1: It seems that the predestined are not chosen by God. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv, 1) that as the corporeal sun sends his rays upon all without selection, so does God His goodness. But the goodness of God is communicated to some in an especial manner through a participation of grace and glory. Therefore God without any selection communicates His grace and glory; and this belongs to predestination.

Objection 1: It seems that those who are predestined are not chosen by God. Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv, 1) that just as the physical sun sends its rays to everyone without discrimination, God also shares His goodness universally. However, God's goodness is given to some people in a special way through a sharing of grace and glory. Therefore, God communicates His grace and glory without any favoritism, and this is related to predestination.

Obj. 2: Further, election is of things that exist. But predestination from all eternity is also of things which do not exist. Therefore, some are predestined without election.

Obj. 2: Additionally, election concerns things that exist. But predestination from all eternity also involves things that do not exist. Therefore, some are predestined without being elected.

Obj. 3: Further, election implies some discrimination. Now God "wills all men to be saved" (1 Tim. 2:4). Therefore, predestination which ordains men towards eternal salvation, is without election.

Obj. 3: Additionally, election involves some level of discrimination. Now God "wants everyone to be saved" (1 Tim. 2:4). Therefore, predestination, which directs people toward eternal salvation, occurs without election.

On the contrary, It is said (Eph. 1:4): "He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world."

On the contrary, it is said (Eph. 1:4): "He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world."

I answer that, Predestination presupposes election in the order of reason; and election presupposes love. The reason of this is that predestination, as stated above (A. 1), is a part of providence. Now providence, as also prudence, is the plan existing in the intellect directing the ordering of some things towards an end; as was proved above (Q. 22, A. 2). But nothing is directed towards an end unless the will for that end already exists. Whence the predestination of some to eternal salvation presupposes, in the order of reason, that God wills their salvation; and to this belong both election and love:—love, inasmuch as He wills them this particular good of eternal salvation; since to love is to wish well to anyone, as stated above (Q. 20, AA. 2 ,3):—election, inasmuch as He wills this good to some in preference to others; since He reprobates some, as stated above (A. 3). Election and love, however, are differently ordered in God, and in ourselves: because in us the will in loving does not cause good, but we are incited to love by the good which already exists; and therefore we choose someone to love, and so election in us precedes love. In God, however, it is the reverse. For His will, by which in loving He wishes good to someone, is the cause of that good possessed by some in preference to others. Thus it is clear that love precedes election in the order of reason, and election precedes predestination. Whence all the predestinate are objects of election and love.

I answer that, Predestination assumes election in the logical order; and election assumes love. The reason for this is that predestination, as previously mentioned (A. 1), is part of providence. Providence, like prudence, is the plan in the mind that directs the arrangement of things towards an end, as proven earlier (Q. 22, A. 2). However, nothing is directed towards an end unless the desire for that end already exists. Thus, the predestination of some individuals to eternal salvation logically assumes that God wills their salvation; and this involves both election and love:—love, because He desires their specific good of eternal salvation; since to love is to wish well for someone, as stated earlier (Q. 20, AA. 2, 3):—election, in that He desires this good for some over others; as He rejects some, as stated above (A. 3). However, election and love are ordered differently in God and in us: because in us, the will in loving does not create good, but we are motivated to love by the good that already exists; therefore, we choose someone to love, making election in us precede love. In God, however, it’s the opposite. His will, by which He loves and wishes good for someone, causes that good to be possessed by some over others. Thus, it is clear that love precedes election in the order of reason, and election precedes predestination. Therefore, all the predestined are subjects of election and love.

Reply Obj. 1: If the communication of the divine goodness in general be considered, God communicates His goodness without election; inasmuch as there is nothing which does not in some way share in His goodness, as we said above (Q. 6, A. 4). But if we consider the communication of this or that particular good, He does not allot it without election; since He gives certain goods to some men, which He does not give to others. Thus in the conferring of grace and glory election is implied.

Reply Obj. 1: When we think about how God's goodness is shared in general, He shares His goodness without choosing; because everything in some way shares in His goodness, as we mentioned above (Q. 6, A. 4). However, when we look at the sharing of specific goods, He doesn’t distribute them randomly; He gives certain goods to some people but not to others. Therefore, the granting of grace and glory involves a choice.

Reply Obj. 2: When the will of the person choosing is incited to make a choice by the good already pre-existing in the object chosen, the choice must needs be of those things which already exist, as happens in our choice. In God it is otherwise; as was said above (Q. 20, A. 2). Thus, as Augustine says (De Verb. Ap. Serm. 11): "Those are chosen by God, who do not exist; yet He does not err in His choice."

Reply Obj. 2: When someone is motivated to choose based on the good that is already inherent in the chosen object, their choice will naturally be of things that already exist, as is the case with us. However, it’s different with God; as mentioned earlier (Q. 20, A. 2). As Augustine states (De Verb. Ap. Serm. 11): "Those are chosen by God, who do not exist; yet He does not err in His choice."

Reply Obj. 3: God wills all men to be saved by His antecedent will, which is to will not simply but relatively; and not by His consequent will, which is to will simply. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: God wants everyone to be saved by His initial will, which is a relative desire; and not by His final will, which is an absolute desire.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 5]

Whether the Foreknowledge of Merits Is the Cause of Predestination?

Whether the Foreknowledge of Merits Is the Cause of Predestination?

Objection 1: It seems that foreknowledge of merits is the cause of predestination. For the Apostle says (Rom. 8:29): "Whom He foreknew, He also predestined." Again a gloss of Ambrose on Rom. 9:15: "I will have mercy upon whom I will have mercy" says: "I will give mercy to him who, I foresee, will turn to Me with his whole heart." Therefore it seems the foreknowledge of merits is the cause of predestination.

Objection 1: It appears that knowing someone's merits in advance is what leads to predestination. As the Apostle says in Romans 8:29: "Those whom He foreknew, He also predestined." Additionally, Ambrose's commentary on Romans 9:15 states: "I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy," which implies, "I will show mercy to those who, I foresee, will turn to Me with a sincere heart." Thus, it seems that the foreknowledge of merits is the reason for predestination.

Obj. 2: Further, Divine predestination includes the divine will, which by no means can be irrational; since predestination is "the purpose to have mercy," as Augustine says (De Praed. Sanct. ii, 17). But there can be no other reason for predestination than the foreknowledge of merits. Therefore it must be the cause of reason of predestination.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, divine predestination involves the divine will, which cannot be irrational; since predestination is "the intention to show mercy," as Augustine states (De Praed. Sanct. ii, 17). Thus, the only reason for predestination can be the foreknowledge of merits. Therefore, it must be the rational cause of predestination.

Obj. 3: Further, "There is no injustice in God" (Rom. 9:14). Now it would seem unjust that unequal things be given to equals. But all men are equal as regards both nature and original sin; and inequality in them arises from the merits or demerits of their actions. Therefore God does not prepare unequal things for men by predestinating and reprobating, unless through the foreknowledge of their merits and demerits.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, "There is no injustice in God" (Rom. 9:14). It may seem unfair for unequal things to be given to those who are equal. However, all people are equal in terms of both their nature and original sin; any inequality among them comes from the merits or demerits of their actions. Therefore, God does not assign unequal things to people by choosing some for salvation and others for condemnation, except through the foreknowledge of their merits and demerits.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Titus 3:5): "Not by works of justice which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us." But as He saved us, so He predestined that we should be saved. Therefore, foreknowledge of merits is not the cause or reason of predestination.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Titus 3:5): "Not by the good things we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us." But just as He saved us, He chose us to be saved. Therefore, knowing about our good deeds is not the cause or reason for our predestination.

I answer that, Since predestination includes will, as was said above (A. 4), the reason of predestination must be sought for in the same way as was the reason of the will of God. Now it was shown above (Q. 19, A. 5), that we cannot assign any cause of the divine will on the part of the act of willing; but a reason can be found on the part of the things willed; inasmuch as God wills one thing on account of something else. Wherefore nobody has been so insane as to say that merit is the cause of divine predestination as regards the act of the predestinator. But this is the question, whether, as regards the effect, predestination has any cause; or what comes to the same thing, whether God pre-ordained that He would give the effect of predestination to anyone on account of any merits.

I answer that, since predestination involves will, as mentioned above (A. 4), the reason for predestination must be sought in the same way as the reason for the will of God. Now it was indicated above (Q. 19, A. 5) that we cannot assign any cause for the divine will based on the act of willing; however, a reason can be found based on the things that are willed, since God wills one thing for the sake of something else. Therefore, no one has been so irrational as to claim that merit is the cause of divine predestination concerning the act of the one predestining. But the question is whether, regarding the effect, predestination has any cause; or, which is the same, whether God preordained that He would grant the effect of predestination to someone based on any merits.

Accordingly there were some who held that the effect of predestination was pre-ordained for some on account of pre-existing merits in a former life. This was the opinion of Origen, who thought that the souls of men were created in the beginning, and according to the diversity of their works different states were assigned to them in this world when united with the body. The Apostle, however, rebuts this opinion where he says (Rom. 9:11,12): "For when they were not yet born, nor had done any good or evil . . . not of works, but of Him that calleth, it was said of her: The elder shall serve the younger."

Some people believed that the impact of predestination was determined for certain individuals based on their previous merits in a past life. This was the view of Origen, who believed that human souls were created in the beginning, and depending on the variety of their actions, different circumstances were assigned to them in this world when they became physical beings. However, the Apostle challenges this view when he states (Rom. 9:11,12): "For when they were not yet born, nor had done any good or evil . . . not of works, but of Him that calls, it was said of her: The elder shall serve the younger."

Others said that pre-existing merits in this life are the reason and cause of the effect of predestination. For the Pelagians taught that the beginning of doing well came from us; and the consummation from God: so that it came about that the effect of predestination was granted to one, and not to another, because the one made a beginning by preparing, whereas the other did not. But against this we have the saying of the Apostle (2 Cor. 3:5), that "we are not sufficient to think anything of ourselves as of ourselves." Now no principle of action can be imagined previous to the act of thinking. Wherefore it cannot be said that anything begun in us can be the reason of the effect of predestination.

Others argued that our existing good deeds in this life are the reason for the effect of predestination. The Pelagians believed that the start of doing good comes from us, while the achievement comes from God. This view suggested that the effects of predestination were given to one person and not another because one made an effort to prepare, while the other did not. However, we have the Apostle's statement (2 Cor. 3:5) that "we are not sufficient to think anything of ourselves as of ourselves." No principle of action can exist before the act of thinking. Therefore, it can't be claimed that anything initiated in us can be the reason for the effect of predestination.

And so others said that merits following the effect of predestination are the reason of predestination; giving us to understand that God gives grace to a person, and pre-ordains that He will give it, because He knows beforehand that He will make good use of that grace, as if a king were to give a horse to a soldier because he knows he will make good use of it. But these seem to have drawn a distinction between that which flows from grace, and that which flows from free will, as if the same thing cannot come from both. It is, however, manifest that what is of grace is the effect of predestination; and this cannot be considered as the reason of predestination, since it is contained in the notion of predestination. Therefore, if anything else in us be the reason of predestination, it will outside the effect of predestination. Now there is no distinction between what flows from free will, and what is of predestination; as there is not distinction between what flows from a secondary cause and from a first cause. For the providence of God produces effects through the operation of secondary causes, as was above shown (Q. 22, A. 3). Wherefore, that which flows from free-will is also of predestination. We must say, therefore, that the effect of predestination may be considered in a twofold light—in one way, in particular; and thus there is no reason why one effect of predestination should not be the reason or cause of another; a subsequent effect being the reason of a previous effect, as its final cause; and the previous effect being the reason of the subsequent as its meritorious cause, which is reduced to the disposition of the matter. Thus we might say that God pre-ordained to give glory on account of merit, and that He pre-ordained to give grace to merit glory. In another way, the effect of predestination may be considered in general. Thus, it is impossible that the whole of the effect of predestination in general should have any cause as coming from us; because whatsoever is in man disposing him towards salvation, is all included under the effect of predestination; even the preparation for grace. For neither does this happen otherwise than by divine help, according to the prophet Jeremias (Lam. 5:21): "convert us, O Lord, to Thee, and we shall be converted." Yet predestination has in this way, in regard to its effect, the goodness of God for its reason; towards which the whole effect of predestination is directed as to an end; and from which it proceeds, as from its first moving principle.

Others argue that the merits that come from the effects of predestination actually explain predestination itself. They suggest that God grants grace to a person and has already decided to do so because He knows in advance that the person will use that grace well, similar to how a king would give a horse to a soldier knowing he will utilize it properly. However, it seems like they are trying to separate what comes from grace and what comes from free will, as if one cannot come from both. In reality, it's clear that what is of grace results from predestination, and this can't be the reason for predestination since it’s part of what predestination means. Therefore, if there's anything else in us that is the cause of predestination, it must lie outside the effects of predestination. There is no real difference between what comes from free will and what comes from predestination; just as there’s no distinction between the effects of a secondary cause and those of a primary cause. God's providence produces effects through the actions of secondary causes, as previously discussed (Q. 22, A. 3). Thus, what comes from free will is also part of predestination. We can view the effects of predestination in two ways: in a specific sense, where one effect of predestination can indeed serve as the reason or cause of another; a later effect might be the final cause of an earlier effect, and the earlier effect might be the meritorious cause of the later effect, which is connected to the state of the matter. We might say that God planned to grant glory for the sake of merit, and that He planned to give grace to enable merit for glory. In a more general sense, it’s impossible for the entirety of predestination's effects to have any cause from us, because everything within us that prepares us for salvation is included in the effects of predestination, even our readiness for grace. Nothing happens apart from divine assistance, as the prophet Jeremiah indicates (Lam. 5:21): "Convert us, O Lord, to You, and we shall be converted." In this context, predestination’s effect is rooted in God's goodness as its reason, directing all effects of predestination toward this ultimate purpose and deriving from it as the first moving principle.

Reply Obj. 1: The use of grace foreknown by God is not the cause of conferring grace, except after the manner of a final cause; as was explained above.

Reply Obj. 1: God's foreknowledge of grace isn't the reason grace is given, except in the sense of being a final cause, as explained earlier.

Reply Obj. 2: Predestination has its foundation in the goodness of God as regards its effects in general. Considered in its particular effects, however, one effect is the reason of another; as already stated.

Reply Obj. 2: Predestination is based on God's goodness regarding its overall effects. However, when looking at its specific effects, one effect serves as the reason for another, as mentioned earlier.

Reply Obj. 3: The reason for the predestination of some, and reprobation of others, must be sought for in the goodness of God. Thus He is said to have made all things through His goodness, so that the divine goodness might be represented in things. Now it is necessary that God's goodness, which in itself is one and undivided, should be manifested in many ways in His creation; because creatures in themselves cannot attain to the simplicity of God. Thus it is that for the completion of the universe there are required different grades of being; some of which hold a high and some a low place in the universe. That this multiformity of grades may be preserved in things, God allows some evils, lest many good things should never happen, as was said above (Q. 22, A. 2). Let us then consider the whole of the human race, as we consider the whole universe. God wills to manifest His goodness in men; in respect to those whom He predestines, by means of His mercy, as sparing them; and in respect of others, whom he reprobates, by means of His justice, in punishing them. This is the reason why God elects some and rejects others. To this the Apostle refers, saying (Rom. 9:22, 23): "What if God, willing to show His wrath [that is, the vengeance of His justice], and to make His power known, endured [that is, permitted] with much patience vessels of wrath, fitted for destruction; that He might show the riches of His glory on the vessels of mercy, which He hath prepared unto glory" and (2 Tim. 2:20): "But in a great house there are not only vessels of gold and silver; but also of wood and of earth; and some, indeed, unto honor, but some unto dishonor." Yet why He chooses some for glory, and reprobates others, has no reason, except the divine will. Whence Augustine says (Tract. xxvi. in Joan.): "Why He draws one, and another He draws not, seek not to judge, if thou dost not wish to err." Thus too, in the things of nature, a reason can be assigned, since primary matter is altogether uniform, why one part of it was fashioned by God from the beginning under the form of fire, another under the form of earth, that there might be a diversity of species in things of nature. Yet why this particular part of matter is under this particular form, and that under another, depends upon the simple will of God; as from the simple will of the artificer it depends that this stone is in part of the wall, and that in another; although the plan requires that some stones should be in this place, and some in that place. Neither on this account can there be said to be injustice in God, if He prepares unequal lots for not unequal things. This would be altogether contrary to the notion of justice, if the effect of predestination were granted as a debt, and not gratuitously. In things which are given gratuitously, a person can give more or less, just as he pleases (provided he deprives nobody of his due), without any infringement of justice. This is what the master of the house said: "Take what is thine, and go thy way. Is it not lawful for me to do what I will?" (Matt. 20:14,15). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The reason some are predestined and others are not lies in God's goodness. He created everything out of His goodness, so that divine goodness could be shown through creation. God's goodness, which is one and indivisible, must be expressed in various ways in His creation because created beings cannot reflect God's simplicity. Therefore, the universe needs different levels of existence, some of which are higher and some lower. To maintain this diversity of levels, God allows some evils so that more good can come into existence, as mentioned earlier (Q. 22, A. 2). Let’s view all of humanity as we consider the entire universe. God wants to show His goodness in people; for those He predestines, He does this through mercy by sparing them; for others whom He rejects, He demonstrates justice by punishing them. This explains why God chooses some and not others. The Apostle refers to this, saying (Rom. 9:22, 23): "What if God, wanting to show His wrath [that is, His just vengeance], and to make His power known, endured [that is, allowed] with great patience those destined for destruction; that He might reveal the richness of His glory on the vessels of mercy prepared for glory" and (2 Tim. 2:20): "But in a large house, there are not only vessels of gold and silver; there are also vessels of wood and clay; some for honor and some for dishonor." However, the reason He chooses some for glory and not others is solely based on His divine will. Augustine states (Tract. xxvi. in Joan.): "Do not seek to judge why He draws one and not another, if you do not want to err." In nature, a reason can be given, since the primary matter is completely uniform; some parts were fashioned by God from the beginning as fire, others as earth, so that there would be a variety of species in nature. Yet why this specific part of matter takes one form and that another, depends on God's simple will; just as it's up to the will of the creator that this stone is in one part of the wall and that stone is in another, although the design requires that some stones go here and others there. For this reason, it is not unjust for God to assign unequal fates to things that are not equal. It would be completely contrary to the concept of justice if the results of predestination were considered a debt, rather than a gift. In matters given freely, a person can give more or less as they choose (so long as no one is deprived of what they are owed) without violating justice. This is what the master of the house said: "Take what is yours and go your way. Is it not lawful for me to do what I want?" (Matt. 20:14,15).

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 6]

Whether Predestination Is Certain?

Is Predestination Certain?

Objection 1: It seems that predestination is not certain. Because on the words "Hold fast that which thou hast, that no one take thy crown," (Rev 3:11), Augustine says (De Corr. et Grat. 15): "Another will not receive, unless this one were to lose it." Hence the crown which is the effect of predestination can be both acquired and lost. Therefore predestination cannot be certain.

Objection 1: It seems that predestination isn't guaranteed. Because of the words "Hold fast that which you have, so that no one takes your crown," (Rev 3:11), Augustine says (De Corr. et Grat. 15): "Another will not receive, unless this one were to lose it." Therefore, the crown, which is the result of predestination, can be both gained and lost. So, predestination cannot be certain.

Obj. 2: Further, granted what is possible, nothing impossible follows. But it is possible that one predestined—e.g. Peter—may sin and then be killed. But if this were so, it would follow that the effect of predestination would be thwarted. This then, is not impossible. Therefore predestination is not certain.

Obj. 2: Additionally, given what is possible, nothing impossible follows. However, it is possible for someone who is predestined—like Peter—to sin and then be killed. If that were the case, it would mean that the purpose of predestination would be undermined. This is therefore not impossible. Hence, predestination is not certain.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever God could do in the past, He can do now. But He could have not predestined whom He hath predestined. Therefore now He is able not to predestine him. Therefore predestination is not certain.

Obj. 3: Also, whatever God was capable of doing in the past, He can do now. But He didn't have to predestine those He has predestined. So now He has the ability not to predestine them. Therefore, predestination is not guaranteed.

On the contrary, A gloss on Rom. 8:29: "Whom He foreknew, He also predestinated", says: "Predestination is the foreknowledge and preparation of the benefits of God, by which whosoever are freed will most certainly be freed."

On the contrary, A gloss on Rom. 8:29: "Whom He foreknew, He also predestinated", says: "Predestination is the foreknowledge and preparation of the benefits of God, by which whoever is freed will definitely be freed."

I answer that, Predestination most certainly and infallibly takes effect; yet it does not impose any necessity, so that, namely, its effect should take place from necessity. For it was said above (A. 1), that predestination is a part of providence. But not all things subject to providence are necessary; some things happening from contingency, according to the nature of the proximate causes, which divine providence has ordained for such effects. Yet the order of providence is infallible, as was shown above (Q. 22, A. 4). So also the order of predestination is certain; yet free-will is not destroyed; whence the effect of predestination has its contingency. Moreover all that has been said about the divine knowledge and will (Q. 14, A. 13; Q. 19, A. 4) must also be taken into consideration; since they do not destroy contingency in things, although they themselves are most certain and infallible.

I respond that, Predestination definitely and certainly takes effect; however, it doesn’t impose any necessity, meaning that its effect doesn’t have to happen out of necessity. It was mentioned earlier (A. 1) that predestination is part of providence. But not everything that falls under providence is necessary; some things occur by chance, based on the nature of the immediate causes that divine providence has arranged for those outcomes. Yet, the order of providence is infallible, as shown earlier (Q. 22, A. 4). Similarly, the order of predestination is certain; nonetheless, free will is not eliminated, which is why the effect of predestination has its element of chance. Furthermore, everything stated about divine knowledge and will (Q. 14, A. 13; Q. 19, A. 4) must also be considered; since they do not negate the chance in things, even though they themselves are absolutely certain and infallible.

Reply Obj. 1: The crown may be said to belong to a person in two ways; first, by God's predestination, and thus no one loses his crown: secondly, by the merit of grace; for what we merit, in a certain way is ours; and thus anyone may lose his crown by mortal sin. Another person receives that crown thus lost, inasmuch as he takes the former's place. For God does not permit some to fall, without raising others; according to Job 34:24: "He shall break in pieces many and innumerable, and make others to stand in their stead." Thus men are substituted in the place of the fallen angels; and the Gentiles in that of the Jews. He who is substituted for another in the state of grace, also receives the crown of the fallen in that in eternal life he will rejoice at the good the other has done, in which life he will rejoice at all good whether done by himself or by others.

Reply Obj. 1: The crown can be said to belong to someone in two ways; first, by God's predestination, and in this way, no one loses their crown. Secondly, by the merit of grace; what we earn is, in a certain sense, ours, and thus anyone can lose their crown through mortal sin. Another person receives that lost crown as they take the place of the former. God doesn’t allow some to fall without raising others; according to Job 34:24: "He shall break in pieces many and innumerable, and make others to stand in their stead." Thus, humans take the place of the fallen angels, and the Gentiles take the place of the Jews. The person who takes the place of another in a state of grace also receives the crown of the fallen, as in eternal life, they will rejoice in the good that the other has done; in that life, they will rejoice in all good done by themselves or by others.

Reply Obj. 2: Although it is possible for one who is predestinated considered in himself to die in mortal sin; yet it is not possible, supposed, as in fact it is supposed. that he is predestinated. Whence it does not follow that predestination can fall short of its effect.

Reply Obj. 2: While it's possible for someone who is predestined to die in mortal sin when looking at it from their own perspective, it isn't possible if we assume, as we actually do, that they are predestined. Therefore, it doesn't mean that predestination can fail to achieve its purpose.

Reply Obj. 3: Since predestination includes the divine will as stated above (A. 4): and the fact that God wills any created thing is necessary on the supposition that He so wills, on account of the immutability of the divine will, but is not necessary absolutely; so the same must be said of predestination. Wherefore one ought not to say that God is able not to predestinate one whom He has predestinated, taking it in a composite sense, thought, absolutely speaking, God can predestinate or not. But in this way the certainty of predestination is not destroyed. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Since predestination includes God's will as mentioned earlier (A. 4), and the fact that God desires any created thing is necessary based on the assumption that He does will it, because of the unchanging nature of God's will, but is not necessary in an absolute sense; the same applies to predestination. Therefore, one shouldn't say that God can choose not to predestinate someone He has already predestined, considering it in a combined sense, though, speaking absolutely, God can predestinate or not. However, this does not undermine the certainty of predestination.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 7]

Whether the Number of the Predestined Is Certain?

Whether the Number of the Predestined Is Certain?

Objection 1: It seems that the number of the predestined is not certain. For a number to which an addition can be made is not certain. But there can be an addition to the number of the predestined as it seems; for it is written (Deut. 1:11): "The Lord God adds to this number many thousands," and a gloss adds, "fixed by God, who knows those who belong to Him." Therefore the number of the predestined is not certain.

Objection 1: It appears that the number of the predestined is not definite. A number that can have more added to it is not definite. Yet there seems to be a possibility of adding to the number of the predestined, as it says (Deut. 1:11): "The Lord God adds to this number many thousands," and a commentary states, "set by God, who knows those who belong to Him." Therefore, the number of the predestined is not definite.

Obj. 2: Further, no reason can be assigned why God pre-ordains to salvation one number of men more than another. But nothing is arranged by God without a reason. Therefore the number to be saved pre-ordained by God cannot be certain.

Obj. 2: Additionally, there’s no reason to believe that God has chosen to save a certain number of people over another. But God doesn’t make arrangements without a reason. Therefore, the number of people destined for salvation determined by God cannot be definite.

Obj. 3: Further, the operations of God are more perfect than those of nature. But in the works of nature, good is found in the majority of things; defect and evil in the minority. If, then, the number of the saved were fixed by God at a certain figure, there would be more saved than lost. Yet the contrary follows from Matt. 7:13,14: "For wide is the gate, and broad the way that leadeth to destruction, and many there are who go in thereat. How narrow is the gate, and strait is the way that leadeth to life; and few there are who find it!" Therefore the number of those pre-ordained by God to be saved is not certain.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, God's actions are more perfect than those of nature. In nature, most things are good, while the defects and evils are in the minority. So, if God had predetermined a specific number of people to be saved, there would be more saved than lost. However, the opposite is stated in Matt. 7:13-14: "For wide is the gate, and broad is the way that leads to destruction, and many are those who enter through it. How narrow is the gate, and difficult is the way that leads to life; and few are those who find it!" Therefore, the number of people God has chosen to be saved is not fixed.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Corr. et Grat. 13): "The number of the predestined is certain, and can neither be increased nor diminished."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Corr. et Grat. 13): "The number of those who are predestined is certain and cannot be increased or decreased."

I answer that, The number of the predestined is certain. Some have said that it was formally, but not materially certain; as if we were to say that it was certain that a hundred or a thousand would be saved; not however these or those individuals. But this destroys the certainty of predestination; of which we spoke above (A. 6). Therefore we must say that to God the number of the predestined is certain, not only formally, but also materially. It must, however, be observed that the number of the predestined is said to be certain to God, not by reason of His knowledge, because, that is to say, He knows how many will be saved (for in this way the number of drops of rain and the sands of the sea are certain to God); but by reason of His deliberate choice and determination. For the further evidence of which we must remember that every agent intends to make something finite, as is clear from what has been said above when we treated of the infinite (Q. 7, AA. 2 ,3). Now whosoever intends some definite measure in his effect thinks out some definite number in the essential parts, which are by their very nature required for the perfection of the whole. For of those things which are required not principally, but only on account of something else, he does not select any definite number per se; but he accepts and uses them in such numbers as are necessary on account of that other thing. For instance, a builder thinks out the definite measurements of a house, and also the definite number of rooms which he wishes to make in the house; and definite measurements of the walls and roof; he does not, however, select a definite number of stones, but accepts and uses just so many as are sufficient for the required measurements of the wall. So also must we consider concerning God in regard to the whole universe, which is His effect. For He pre-ordained the measurements of the whole of the universe, and what number would befit the essential parts of that universe—that is to say, which have in some way been ordained in perpetuity; how many spheres, how many stars, how many elements, and how many species. Individuals, however, which undergo corruption, are not ordained as it were chiefly for the good of the universe, but in a secondary way, inasmuch as the good of the species is preserved through them. Whence, although God knows the total number of individuals, the number of oxen, flies and such like, is not pre-ordained by God per se; but divine providence produces just so many as are sufficient for the preservation of the species. Now of all creatures the rational creature is chiefly ordained for the good of the universe, being as such incorruptible; more especially those who attain to eternal happiness, since they more immediately reach the ultimate end. Whence the number of the predestined is certain to God; not only by way of knowledge, but also by way of a principal pre-ordination.

I answer that, The number of the predestined is definite. Some have claimed that it is certain in a formal sense, but not in a material sense; as if we were to say that it is certain that a hundred or a thousand will be saved, but not necessarily these specific individuals. However, this undermines the certainty of predestination we discussed earlier (A. 6). Therefore, we must assert that to God, the number of the predestined is certain, not only formally but also materially. It should be noted that the number of the predestined is considered certain to God, not because of His knowledge—because He knows how many will be saved (in this sense, the number of raindrops and grains of sand is also certain to God)—but because of His deliberate choice and decision. For further evidence, we must remember that every agent intends to create something finite, as was made clear in our earlier discussion on the infinite (Q. 7, AA. 2, 3). Now, anyone who intends to achieve a specific measure in their outcome thinks about a definite number in the essential parts, which are inherently required for the perfection of the whole. Regarding things that are not primarily required but only needed for something else, he does not select a specific number per se; instead, he uses whatever amount is necessary for that other thing. For example, a builder determines the exact measurements of a house, including the number of rooms he wants; he also specifies the measurements for the walls and roof. However, he does not choose a specific number of stones but uses just enough to meet the necessary wall measurements. In the same way, we must think about God in relation to the entire universe, which is His creation. He predetermined the measurements of the universe and the number that would suit its essential parts—that is, those parts that have been ordained in perpetuity; how many spheres, how many stars, how many elements, and how many species there are. However, individual entities that are subject to decay are not primarily ordained for the benefit of the universe, but rather secondarily, as they help preserve the good of the species. Therefore, although God knows the total number of individuals, the number of cattle, flies, and similar creatures is not preordained by God per se; divine providence produces just as many as are sufficient for the preservation of each species. Among all creatures, rational beings are primarily ordained for the good of the universe, being incorruptible in nature; especially those who achieve eternal happiness, as they most directly reach the ultimate goal. Hence, the number of the predestined is certain to God; not only in terms of knowledge but also as a primary preordination.

It is not exactly the same thing in the case of the number of the reprobate, who would seem to be pre-ordained by God for the good of the elect, in whose regard "all things work together unto good" (Rom. 8:28). Concerning the number of all the predestined, some say that so many men will be saved as angels fell; some, so many as there were angels left; others, as many as the number of angels created by God. It is, however, better to say that, "to God alone is known the number for whom is reserved eternal happiness [*From the 'secret' prayer of the missal, 'pro vivis et defunctis.']"

It’s not exactly the same when it comes to the number of the damned, who seem to be preordained by God for the benefit of the chosen, for whom "all things work together for good" (Rom. 8:28). Regarding the total number of the predestined, some believe the number of people saved will equal the number of angels that fell; others think it will match the number of angels that remained; and others suggest it will be as many as the total number of angels created by God. However, it's best to say that "only God knows the number reserved for eternal happiness [*From the 'secret' prayer of the missal, 'pro vivis et defunctis.']."

Reply Obj. 1: These words of Deuteronomy must be taken as applied to those who are marked out by God beforehand in respect to present righteousness. For their number is increased and diminished, but not the number of the predestined.

Reply Obj. 1: These words from Deuteronomy should be understood as referring to those who are chosen by God in relation to current righteousness. Their numbers can grow or shrink, but the number of the predestined remains constant.

Reply Obj. 2: The reason of the quantity of any one part must be judged from the proportion of that part of the whole. Thus in God the reason why He has made so many stars, or so many species of things, or predestined so many, is according to the proportion of the principal parts to the good of the whole universe.

Reply Obj. 2: The reason for the amount of any one part should be assessed based on its proportion to the whole. Therefore, in the case of God, the reason He created so many stars, or different types of things, or predestined so many, is based on how those principal parts contribute to the overall good of the universe.

Reply Obj. 3: The good that is proportionate to the common state of nature is to be found in the majority; and is wanting in the minority. The good that exceeds the common state of nature is to be found in the minority, and is wanting in the majority. Thus it is clear that the majority of men have a sufficient knowledge for the guidance of life; and those who have not this knowledge are said to be half-witted or foolish; but they who attain to a profound knowledge of things intelligible are a very small minority in respect to the rest. Since their eternal happiness, consisting in the vision of God, exceeds the common state of nature, and especially in so far as this is deprived of grace through the corruption of original sin, those who are saved are in the minority. In this especially, however, appears the mercy of God, that He has chosen some for that salvation, from which very many in accordance with the common course and tendency of nature fall short. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The good that aligns with the common state of nature is found in the majority, while the minority lacks it. The good that goes beyond the common state of nature is found in the minority, and the majority lacks it. Therefore, it's clear that most people have enough knowledge to guide their lives; those who lack this knowledge are considered simple or foolish. However, those who gain a deep understanding of complex matters are a very small minority compared to everyone else. Since their eternal happiness, which consists of seeing God, surpasses the common state of nature—especially since this is often hindered by original sin—those who are saved are in the minority. Nonetheless, it is in this that God's mercy is especially evident; He has chosen some for salvation, while many others fall short as per the usual course and tendency of nature.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 23, Art. 8]

Whether Predestination Can Be Furthered by the Prayers of the Saints?

Whether Predestination Can Be Advanced by the Prayers of the Saints?

Objection 1: It seems that predestination cannot be furthered by the prayers of the saints. For nothing eternal can be preceded by anything temporal; and in consequence nothing temporal can help towards making something else eternal. But predestination is eternal. Therefore, since the prayers of the saints are temporal, they cannot so help as to cause anyone to become predestined. Predestination therefore is not furthered by the prayers of the saints.

Objection 1: It appears that predestination cannot be influenced by the prayers of the saints. Nothing eternal can be influenced by anything temporary, and as a result, nothing temporary can contribute to making something else eternal. However, predestination is eternal. Therefore, since the prayers of the saints are temporary, they cannot help in causing anyone to be predestined. Consequently, predestination is not influenced by the prayers of the saints.

Obj. 2: Further, as there is no need of advice except on account of defective knowledge, so there is no need of help except through defective power. But neither of these things can be said of God when He predestines. Whence it is said: "Who hath helped the Spirit of the Lord? [*Vulg.: 'Who hath known the mind of the Lord?'] Or who hath been His counsellor?" (Rom. 11:34). Therefore predestination cannot be furthered by the prayers of the saints.

Obj. 2: Moreover, since advice is only necessary due to a lack of knowledge, help is only needed because of a lack of power. However, neither of these limitations applies to God when He predestines. This is why it is said: "Who has helped the Spirit of the Lord? Or who has been His counselor?" (Rom. 11:34). Therefore, predestination cannot be influenced by the prayers of the saints.

Obj. 3: Further, if a thing can be helped, it can also be hindered. But predestination cannot be hindered by anything. Therefore it cannot be furthered by anything.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if something can be assisted, it can also be obstructed. However, predestination cannot be obstructed by anything. Therefore, it cannot be assisted by anything.

On the contrary, It is said that "Isaac besought the Lord for his wife because she was barren; and He heard him and made Rebecca to conceive" (Gen. 25:21). But from that conception Jacob was born, and he was predestined. Now his predestination would not have happened if he had never been born. Therefore predestination can be furthered by the prayers of the saints.

On the contrary, it is said that "Isaac prayed to the Lord for his wife because she was unable to have children; and He heard him and made Rebecca conceive" (Gen. 25:21). From that conception, Jacob was born, and he was chosen beforehand. Now, his being chosen wouldn't have occurred if he had never been born. Therefore, predestination can be influenced by the prayers of the saints.

I answer that, Concerning this question, there were different errors. Some, regarding the certainty of divine predestination, said that prayers were superfluous, as also anything else done to attain salvation; because whether these things were done or not, the predestined would attain, and the reprobate would not attain, eternal salvation. But against this opinion are all the warnings of Holy Scripture, exhorting us to prayer and other good works.

I answer that, Regarding this question, there were various mistakes. Some, concerning the certainty of divine predestination, argued that prayers were unnecessary, as well as any actions taken to achieve salvation; because whether these things were done or not, the ones destined for salvation would achieve it, and the ones not destined would not. However, all the warnings in Holy Scripture, urging us to pray and perform other good deeds, contradict this opinion.

Others declared that the divine predestination was altered through prayer. This is stated to have the opinion of the Egyptians, who thought that the divine ordination, which they called fate, could be frustrated by certain sacrifices and prayers. Against this also is the authority of Scripture. For it is said: "But the triumpher in Israel will not spare and will not be moved to repentance" (1 Kings 15:29); and that "the gifts and the calling of God are without repentance" (Rom. 11:29).

Others argued that divine predestination could be changed through prayer. This belief is said to reflect the views of the Egyptians, who thought that the divine order, which they referred to as fate, could be thwarted by specific sacrifices and prayers. The authority of Scripture counters this idea. It says: "But the triumpher in Israel will not spare and will not be moved to repentance" (1 Kings 15:29); and that "the gifts and the calling of God are without repentance" (Rom. 11:29).

Wherefore we must say otherwise that in predestination two things are to be considered—namely, the divine ordination; and its effect. As regards the former, in no possible way can predestination be furthered by the prayers of the saints. For it is not due to their prayers that anyone is predestined by God. As regards the latter, predestination is said to be helped by the prayers of the saints, and by other good works; because providence, of which predestination is a part, does not do away with secondary causes but so provides effects, that the order of secondary causes falls also under providence. So, as natural effects are provided by God in such a way that natural causes are directed to bring about those natural effects, without which those effects would not happen; so the salvation of a person is predestined by God in such a way, that whatever helps that person towards salvation falls under the order of predestination; whether it be one's own prayers or those of another; or other good works, and such like, without which one would not attain to salvation. Whence, the predestined must strive after good works and prayer; because through these means predestination is most certainly fulfilled. For this reason it is said: "Labor more that by good works you may make sure your calling and election" (2 Pet. 1:10).

We must consider two key aspects of predestination—divine ordination and its effects. Regarding the former, no way can the prayers of the saints further predestination. It is not due to their prayers that anyone is predestined by God. As for the latter, predestination is said to be supported by the prayers of the saints and other good deeds. This is because providence, of which predestination is a part, does not eliminate secondary causes but ensures that the effects align with the order of secondary causes under providence. Just as God provides natural effects in a way that natural causes are directed to produce those effects—which would not happen without those causes—similarly, a person's salvation is predestined by God in such a way that anything that helps that person toward salvation is part of the order of predestination. This includes one's own prayers, those of others, and other good works, all of which are crucial for achieving salvation. Hence, those who are predestined should strive for good works and prayer because these means certainly fulfill predestination. That's why it says: "Labor more that by good works you may make sure your calling and election" (2 Pet. 1:10).

Reply Obj. 1: This argument shows that predestination is not furthered by the prayers of the saints, as regards the preordination.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument demonstrates that predestination is not influenced by the prayers of the saints concerning preordination.

Reply Obj. 2: One is said to be helped by another in two ways; in one way, inasmuch as he receives power from him: and to be helped thus belongs to the weak; but this cannot be said of God, and thus we are to understand, "Who hath helped the Spirit of the Lord?" In another way one is said to be helped by a person through whom he carries out his work, as a master through a servant. In this way God is helped by us; inasmuch as we execute His orders, according to 1 Cor. 3:9: "We are God's co-adjutors." Nor is this on account of any defect in the power of God, but because He employs intermediary causes, in order that the beauty of order may be preserved in the universe; and also that He may communicate to creatures the dignity of causality.

Reply Obj. 2: There are two ways someone can help another; first, by giving them strength, which is something only the weak need, so this doesn’t apply to God. This is what we should understand when we ask, "Who has helped the Spirit of the Lord?" The second way someone can help is by being the means through which another accomplishes their work, like a master using a servant. In this sense, God is helped by us as we carry out His commands, as stated in 1 Cor. 3:9: "We are God's co-workers." This isn’t due to any lack in God's power, but because He uses intermediary causes to maintain the beauty of order in the universe and to grant creatures the dignity of being causes themselves.

Reply Obj. 3: Secondary causes cannot escape the order of the first universal cause, as has been said above (Q. 19, A. 6), indeed, they execute that order. And therefore predestination can be furthered by creatures, but it cannot be impeded by them. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Secondary causes cannot bypass the plan of the first universal cause, as mentioned earlier (Q. 19, A. 6); in fact, they carry out that plan. Therefore, predestination can be advanced by creatures, but it cannot be hindered by them.

QUESTION 24

THE BOOK OF LIFE
(In Three Articles)

THE BOOK OF LIFE
(In Three Articles)

We now consider the book of life; concerning which there are three points of inquiry:

We now look at the book of life, which raises three questions:

(1) What is the book of life?

(1) What is the book of life?

(2) Of what life is it the book?

(2) What life is this book about?

(3) Whether anyone can be blotted out of the book of life? _______________________

(3) Can someone be removed from the book of life? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 24, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 24, Art. 1]

Whether the Book of Life Is the Same As Predestination?

Whether the Book of Life is the Same as Predestination?

Objection 1: It seems that the book of life is not the same thing as predestination. For it is said, "All things are the book of life" (Ecclus. 4:32)—i.e. the Old and New Testament according to a gloss. This, however, is not predestination. Therefore the book of life is not predestination.

Objection 1: It appears that the book of life is not the same as predestination. As it is stated, "All things are the book of life" (Ecclus. 4:32)—that is, both the Old and New Testament, according to a commentary. This, however, is not predestination. Therefore, the book of life is not predestination.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xx, 14) that "the book of life is a certain divine energy, by which it happens that to each one his good or evil works are recalled to memory." But divine energy belongs seemingly, not to predestination, but rather to divine power. Therefore the book of life is not the same thing as predestination.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xx, 14) that "the book of life is a certain divine force, through which each person's good or evil deeds are remembered." However, divine force seems to pertain not to predestination, but rather to divine power. Thus, the book of life is not the same as predestination.

Obj. 3: Further, reprobation is opposed to predestination. So, if the book of life were the same as predestination, there should also be a book of death, as there is a book of life.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, reprobation is opposed to predestination. Therefore, if the book of life were the same as predestination, there should also be a book of death, just like there is a book of life.

On the contrary, It is said in a gloss upon Ps. 68:29, "Let them be blotted out of the book of the living," "This book is the knowledge of God, by which He hath predestined to life those whom He foreknew."

On the contrary, it is noted in a commentary on Ps. 68:29, "Let them be blotted out of the book of the living," "This book represents God’s awareness, through which He has chosen those He knew in advance for life."

I answer that, The book of life is in God taken in a metaphorical sense, according to a comparison with human affairs. For it is usual among men that they who are chosen for any office should be inscribed in a book; as, for instance, soldiers, or counsellors, who formerly were called "conscript" fathers. Now it is clear from the preceding (Q. 23, A. 4) that all the predestined are chosen by God to possess eternal life. This conscription, therefore, of the predestined is called the book of life. A thing is said metaphorically to be written upon the mind of anyone when it is firmly held in the memory, according to Prov. 3:3: "Forget not My Law, and let thy heart keep My commandments," and further on, "Write them in the tables of thy heart." For things are written down in material books to help the memory. Whence, the knowledge of God, by which He firmly remembers that He has predestined some to eternal life, is called the book of life. For as the writing in a book is the sign of things to be done, so the knowledge of God is a sign in Him of those who are to be brought to eternal life, according to 2 Tim. 11:19: "The sure foundation of God standeth firm, having this seal; the Lord knoweth who are His."

I respond that, the book of life is understood metaphorically in relation to God, similar to how it relates to human affairs. It’s common for people in positions of responsibility to be listed in a book; for example, soldiers or advisors, who were once referred to as "conscript" fathers. It is evident from the previous discussion (Q. 23, A. 4) that all those destined for salvation are chosen by God to receive eternal life. Thus, this listing of the chosen is called the book of life. Something is metaphorically said to be written on someone's mind when it is firmly remembered, as noted in Proverbs 3:3: "Do not forget My Law, and let your heart keep My commandments," and later, "Write them on the tablets of your heart." People write in physical books to aid their memory. Therefore, God's knowledge, through which He firmly remembers those He has predestined for eternal life, is referred to as the book of life. Just as writing in a book signifies actions to be taken, God’s knowledge signifies those who will attain eternal life, as stated in 2 Timothy 2:19: "The solid foundation of God stands firm, having this seal; the Lord knows those who are His."

Reply Obj. 1: The book of life may be understood in two senses. In one sense as the inscription of those who are chosen to life; thus we now speak of the book of life. In another sense the inscription of those things which lead us to life may be called the book of life; and this also is twofold, either as of things to be done; and thus the Old and New Testament are called a book of life; or of things already done, and thus that divine energy by which it happens that to each one his deeds will be recalled to memory, is spoken of as the book of life. Thus that also may be called the book of war, whether it contains the names inscribed of those chosen for military service; or treats of the art of warfare, or relates the deeds of soldiers.

Reply Obj. 1: The book of life can be understood in two ways. In one way, it refers to the list of those chosen for life; this is how we commonly refer to the book of life. In another way, it refers to the record of things that guide us toward life, which can also be seen in two forms: one includes actions to be taken, so the Old and New Testament can be called a book of life; the other includes actions that have already been completed, and this divine influence that brings each person's deeds to memory is also referred to as the book of life. Similarly, it can be called the book of war, whether it contains the names of those selected for military service; discusses the art of war, or recounts the accomplishments of soldiers.

Hence the solution of the Second Objection.

Hence the solution to the Second Objection.

Reply Obj. 3: It is the custom to inscribe, not those who are rejected, but those who are chosen. Whence there is no book of death corresponding to reprobation; as the book of life to predestination.

Reply Obj. 3: It's common to record the names of those who are chosen, not those who are rejected. Therefore, there isn't a book of death that corresponds to reprobation, just like the book of life corresponds to predestination.

Reply Obj. 4: Predestination and the book of life are different aspects of the same thing. For this latter implies the knowledge of predestination; as also is made clear from the gloss quoted above. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Predestination and the book of life are different aspects of the same concept. The latter implies knowledge of predestination, which is also clarified in the gloss mentioned above.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 24, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 24, Art. 2]

Whether the Book of Life Regards Only the Life of Glory of the
Predestined?

Whether the Book of Life Only Concerns the Life of Glory of the
Predestined?

Objection 1: It seems that the book of life does not only regard the life of glory of the predestined. For the book of life is the knowledge of life. But God, through His own life, knows all other life. Therefore the book of life is so called in regard to divine life; and not only in regard to the life of the predestined.

Objection 1: It appears that the book of life is not just about the glorious life of the chosen ones. The book of life represents the understanding of life. But God, through His own existence, understands all other forms of life. So, the book of life is named as such in relation to divine life, and not only in relation to the life of the chosen ones.

Obj. 2: Further, as the life of glory comes from God, so also does the life of nature. Therefore, if the knowledge of the life of glory is called the book of life; so also should the knowledge of the life of nature be so called.

Obj. 2: Moreover, just as the life of glory comes from God, so does the life of nature. Therefore, if the knowledge of the life of glory is referred to as the book of life, then the knowledge of the life of nature should be called that as well.

Obj. 3: Further, some are chosen to the life of grace who are not chosen to the life of glory; as it is clear from what is said: "Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil?" (John 6:71). But the book of life is the inscription of the divine election, as stated above (A. 1). Therefore it applies also to the life of grace.

Obj. 3: Additionally, some are selected for the life of grace but not for the life of glory, as it is evident from the statement: "Did I not choose you twelve, and one of you is a devil?" (John 6:71). However, the book of life represents the record of divine selection, as mentioned earlier (A. 1). Therefore, it also pertains to the life of grace.

On the contrary, The book of life is the knowledge of predestination, as stated above (ibid.). But predestination does not regard the life of grace, except so far as it is directed to glory; for those are not predestined who have grace and yet fail to obtain glory. The book of life altogether is only so called in regard to the life of glory.

On the contrary, The book of life is the understanding of predestination, as mentioned earlier (ibid.). However, predestination doesn't apply to the life of grace, except as it leads to glory; because those who have grace but do not achieve glory are not predestined. The book of life is referred to in this way only in relation to the life of glory.

I answer that, The book of life, as stated above (A. 1), implies a conscription or a knowledge of those chosen to life. Now a man is chosen for something which does not belong to him by nature; and again that to which a man is chosen has the aspect of an end. For a soldier is not chosen or inscribed merely to put on armor, but to fight; since this is the proper duty to which military service is directed. But the life of glory is an end exceeding human nature, as said above (Q. 23, A. 1). Wherefore, strictly speaking, the book of life regards the life of glory.

I answer that, The book of life, as mentioned earlier (A. 1), refers to a record or knowledge of those chosen for eternal life. A person is chosen for something that isn’t naturally theirs; furthermore, what they are chosen for has the nature of a goal. Just as a soldier is not enlisted just to wear armor, but to fight—because that is the true purpose of military service. However, the life of glory is a goal that goes beyond human nature, as stated before (Q. 23, A. 1). Therefore, in a strict sense, the book of life pertains to the life of glory.

Reply Obj. 1: The divine life, even considered as a life of glory, is natural to God; whence in His regard there is no election, and in consequence no book of life: for we do not say that anyone is chosen to possess the power of sense, or any of those things that are consequent on nature.

Reply Obj. 1: Divine life, even when seen as a glorious life, is natural to God; therefore, there is no selection concerning Him, and as a result, no book of life exists: we do not claim that anyone is chosen to have the ability to sense or any of those things that follow from nature.

From this we gather the Reply to the Second Objection. For there is no election, nor a book of life, as regards the life of nature.

From this, we get the answer to the Second Objection. There is no choice or book of life when it comes to physical existence.

Reply Obj. 3: The life of grace has the aspect, not of an end, but of something directed towards an end. Hence nobody is said to be chosen to the life of grace, except so far as the life of grace is directed to glory. For this reason those who, possessing grace, fail to obtain glory, are not said to be chosen simply, but relatively. Likewise they are not said to be written in the book of life simply, but relatively; that is to say, that it is in the ordination and knowledge of God that they are to have some relation to eternal life, according to their participation in grace. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The life of grace is seen not as an ultimate goal, but as something aimed toward a goal. Therefore, no one is considered chosen for the life of grace unless this life is aimed at glory. For this reason, those who have grace but do not achieve glory are not regarded as chosen in a straightforward way, but in a relative sense. Similarly, they are not said to be written in the book of life in an absolute manner, but rather relatively; meaning that according to God's plan and understanding, they should have some connection to eternal life based on their participation in grace.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 24, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 24, Art. 3]

Whether Anyone May Be Blotted Out of the Book of Life?

Whether Anyone Can Be Removed from the Book of Life?

Objection 1: It seems that no one may be blotted out of the book of life. For Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xx, 15): "God's foreknowledge, which cannot be deceived, is the book of life." But nothing can be taken away from the foreknowledge of God, nor from predestination. Therefore neither can anyone be blotted out from the book of life.

Objection 1: It appears that no one can be removed from the book of life. Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xx, 15): "God's foreknowledge, which cannot be fooled, is the book of life." But nothing can be taken away from God's foreknowledge or from predestination. Therefore, no one can be removed from the book of life.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is in a thing is in it according to the disposition of that thing. But the book of life is something eternal and immutable. Therefore whatsoever is written therein, is there not in a temporary way, but immovably, and indelibly.

Obj. 2: Moreover, everything in a thing exists there according to its nature. But the book of life is eternal and unchanging. Therefore, whatever is written in it isn't just there temporarily; it's there permanently and cannot be erased.

Obj. 3: Further, blotting out is the contrary to inscription. But nobody can be written a second time in the book of life. Neither therefore can he be blotted out.

Obj. 3: Additionally, blotting out is the opposite of inscription. But no one can be written a second time in the book of life. Therefore, they also cannot be blotted out.

On the contrary, It is said, "Let them be blotted out from the book of the living" (Ps. 68:29).

On the contrary, it is said, "Let them be removed from the book of the living" (Ps. 68:29).

I answer that, Some have said that none could be blotted out of the book of life as a matter of fact, but only in the opinion of men. For it is customary in the Scriptures to say that something is done when it becomes known. Thus some are said to be written in the book of life, inasmuch as men think they are written therein, on account of the present righteousness they see in them; but when it becomes evident, either in this world or in the next, that they have fallen from that state of righteousness, they are then said to be blotted out. And thus a gloss explains the passage: "Let them be blotted out of the book of the living." But because not to be blotted out of the book of life is placed among the rewards of the just, according to the text, "He that shall overcome, shall thus be clothed in white garments, and I will not blot his name out of the book of life" (Apoc. 3:5) (and what is promised to holy men, is not merely something in the opinion of men), it can therefore be said that to be blotted out, and not blotted out, of the book of life is not only to be referred to the opinion of man, but to the reality of the fact. For the book of life is the inscription of those ordained to eternal life, to which one is directed from two sources; namely, from predestination, which direction never fails, and from grace; for whoever has grace, by this very fact becomes fitted for eternal life. This direction fails sometimes; because some are directed by possessing grace, to obtain eternal life, yet they fail to obtain it through mortal sin. Therefore those who are ordained to possess eternal life through divine predestination are written down in the book of life simply, because they are written therein to have eternal life in reality; such are never blotted out from the book of life. Those, however, who are ordained to eternal life, not through divine predestination, but through grace, are said to be written in the book of life not simply, but relatively, for they are written therein not to have eternal life in itself, but in its cause only. Yet though these latter can be said to be blotted out of the book of life, this blotting out must not be referred to God, as if God foreknew a thing, and afterwards knew it not; but to the thing known, namely, because God knows one is first ordained to eternal life, and afterwards not ordained when he falls from grace.

I answer that, Some have argued that no one can actually be removed from the book of life; it's just a matter of human opinion. The Scriptures often state that something is done once it becomes known. So, some are considered to be in the book of life because people think they are, based on the current righteousness they observe in them. But when it becomes clear, either in this life or the next, that they have lost that state of righteousness, they are then regarded as being removed. A commentary explains the passage: "Let them be blotted out of the book of the living." However, since being not blotted out of the book of life is presented as a reward for the righteous, according to the verse, "He who overcomes will be dressed in white garments, and I will not erase his name from the book of life" (Apoc. 3:5) (and what is promised to holy people isn't just something based on human opinion), it can be said that being blotted out or not from the book of life pertains not only to human perception but also to actual reality. The book of life is the record of those destined for eternal life, which is established through two sources: predestination, which is always reliable, and grace; anyone with grace is, by that fact, prepared for eternal life. This direction can sometimes fail because some who are graced and supposed to attain eternal life may lose it through mortal sin. Therefore, those destined for eternal life through divine predestination are recorded in the book of life simply, as they are written there to truly have eternal life; such individuals are never removed from the book of life. However, those who are meant for eternal life not by divine predestination but by grace are said to be written in the book of life not absolutely, but relatively, as they are recorded not to possess eternal life inherently, but only in its cause. Yet even though these latter individuals can indeed be considered blotted out of the book of life, this removal should not be ascribed to God, as if God initially knew something and then did not; rather, it relates to the known reality, since God recognizes one as originally intended for eternal life, and later as not intended when they fall from grace.

Reply Obj. 1: The act of blotting out does not refer to the book of life as regards God's foreknowledge, as if in God there were any change; but as regards things foreknown, which can change.

Reply Obj. 1: The act of erasing doesn't refer to the book of life in terms of God's foreknowledge, as if there were any change in God; rather, it relates to things that are known in advance, which can change.

Reply Obj. 2: Although things are immutably in God, yet in themselves they are subject to change. To this it is that the blotting out of the book of life refers.

Reply Obj. 2: Even though everything is unchanging in God, they are still capable of change in themselves. This is what the deletion of the book of life refers to.

Reply Obj. 3: The way in which one is said to be blotted out of the book of life is that in which one is said to be written therein anew; either in the opinion of men, or because he begins again to have relation towards eternal life through grace; which also is included in the knowledge of God, although not anew. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The way someone is said to be removed from the book of life is similar to how they are said to be written in it again; either in the eyes of people, or because they start to have a new relationship with eternal life through grace; this is also part of God's knowledge, even if it's not new.

QUESTION 25

THE POWER OF GOD
(In Six Articles)

THE POWER OF GOD
(In Six Articles)

After considering the divine foreknowledge and will, and other things pertaining thereto, it remains for us to consider the power of God. About this are six points of inquiry:

After thinking about divine knowledge and will, along with other related topics, we now need to look at the power of God. There are six key questions to explore regarding this:

(1) Whether there is power in God?

(1) Is there power in God?

(2) Whether His power is infinite?

Is His power limitless?

(3) Whether He is almighty?

Is He almighty?

(4) Whether He could make the past not to have been?

(4) Could He make the past not exist?

(5) Whether He could do what He does not, or not do what He does?

(5) Can He do what He doesn't, or not do what He does?

(6) Whether what He makes He could make better? _______________________

(6) Can He make something better than what He creates? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 25, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 25, Art. 1]

Whether There Is Power in God?

Whether There Is Power in God?

Objection 1: It seems that power is not in God. For as primary matter is to power, so God, who is the first agent, is to act. But primary matter, considered in itself, is devoid of all act. Therefore, the first agent—namely, God—is devoid of power.

Objection 1: It appears that power does not reside in God. Just as primary matter relates to power, God, who is the first agent, relates to action. However, primary matter, when considered on its own, lacks any action. Therefore, the first agent—specifically, God—lacks power.

Obj. 2: Further, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. vi, 19), better than every power is its act. For form is better than matter; and action than active power, since it is its end. But nothing is better than what is in God; because whatsoever is in God, is God, as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 3). Therefore, there is no power in God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, as stated by the Philosopher (Metaph. vi, 19), every act is better than its power. Form is superior to matter; and action is superior to active power because it is its purpose. However, nothing is better than what exists in God; because everything that exists in God is God, as demonstrated earlier (Q. 3, A. 3). Therefore, there is no power in God.

Obj. 3: Further, Power is the principle of operation. But the divine power is God's essence, since there is nothing accidental in God: and of the essence of God there is no principle. Therefore there is no power in God.

Obj. 3: Moreover, power is the principle of operation. But divine power is God's essence, since there is nothing random in God: and there is no principle in God's essence. Therefore, there is no power in God.

Obj. 4: Further, it was shown above (Q. 14, A. 8; Q. 19, A. 4) that God's knowledge and will are the cause of things. But the cause and principle of a thing are identical. We ought not, therefore, to assign power to God; but only knowledge and will.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, it was demonstrated earlier (Q. 14, A. 8; Q. 19, A. 4) that God’s knowledge and will are the reason for everything. However, the cause and the essence of a thing are the same. Therefore, we shouldn’t attribute power to God; only knowledge and will should be assigned.

On the contrary, It is said: "Thou art mighty, O Lord, and Thy truth is round about Thee" (Ps. 88:9).

On the contrary, it is said: "You are mighty, O Lord, and Your truth surrounds You" (Ps. 88:9).

I answer that, Power is twofold—namely, passive, which exists not at all in God; and active, which we must assign to Him in the highest degree. For it is manifest that everything, according as it is in act and is perfect, is the active principle of something: whereas everything is passive according as it is deficient and imperfect. Now it was shown above (Q. 3, A. 2; Q. 4, AA. 1, 2), that God is pure act, simply and in all ways perfect, nor in Him does any imperfection find place. Whence it most fittingly belongs to Him to be an active principle, and in no way whatsoever to be passive. On the other hand, the notion of active principle is consistent with active power. For active power is the principle of acting upon something else; whereas passive power is the principle of being acted upon by something else, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. v, 17). It remains, therefore, that in God there is active power in the highest degree.

I answer that, Power has two types—passive power, which doesn’t exist in God at all, and active power, which we must attribute to Him to the fullest extent. It’s clear that everything, as it exists in action and is perfect, is the active principle of something; while everything is passive when it is lacking and imperfect. As established earlier (Q. 3, A. 2; Q. 4, AA. 1, 2), God is pure action, wholly and completely perfect, and there is no imperfection in Him. Therefore, it is entirely appropriate for Him to be an active principle, and in no way can He be passive. Conversely, the idea of an active principle aligns with active power. Active power is the principle of acting on something else, while passive power is the principle of being acted upon by something else, as the Philosopher states (Metaph. v, 17). Thus, it follows that in God, there is active power to the highest degree.

Reply Obj. 1: Active power is not contrary to act, but is founded upon it, for everything acts according as it is actual: but passive power is contrary to act; for a thing is passive according as it is potential. Whence this potentiality is not in God, but only active power.

Reply Obj. 1: Active power isn’t opposed to action; rather, it’s based on it, because everything acts based on what it truly is. However, passive power opposes action; something is passive based on its potential. Therefore, this potential doesn’t exist in God, only active power does.

Reply Obj. 2: Whenever act is distinct from power, act must be nobler than power. But God's action is not distinct from His power, for both are His divine essence; neither is His existence distinct from His essence. Hence it does not follow that there should be anything in God nobler than His power.

Reply Obj. 2: Whenever an act is different from power, the act must be greater than the power. However, God's action is not separate from His power, as both are part of His divine essence; His existence is also not separate from His essence. Therefore, it does not make sense to say that there could be anything in God that is greater than His power.

Reply Obj. 3: In creatures, power is the principle not only of action, but likewise of effect. Thus in God the idea of power is retained, inasmuch as it is the principle of an effect; not, however, as it is a principle of action, for this is the divine essence itself; except, perchance, after our manner of understanding, inasmuch as the divine essence, which pre-contains in itself all perfection that exists in created things, can be understood either under the notion of action, or under that of power; as also it is understood under the notion of suppositum possessing nature, and under that of nature. Accordingly the notion of power is retained in God in so far as it is the principle of an effect.

Reply Obj. 3: In creatures, power is the principle not only of action but also of effect. Therefore, in God, the concept of power is maintained, as it serves as the principle of an effect; however, it is not maintained as a principle of action, since that is the divine essence itself. Except, perhaps, from our way of understanding, as the divine essence, which contains within itself all perfection that exists in created things, can be understood either as action or as power; it can also be understood as a suppositum possessing nature and as nature itself. Thus, the concept of power exists in God in terms of it being the principle of an effect.

Reply Obj. 4: Power is predicated of God not as something really distinct from His knowledge and will, but as differing from them logically; inasmuch as power implies a notion of a principle putting into execution what the will commands, and what knowledge directs, which three things in God are identified. Or we may say, that the knowledge or will of God, according as it is the effective principle, has the notion of power contained in it. Hence the consideration of the knowledge and will of God precedes the consideration of His power, as the cause precedes the operation and effect. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: God's power is not something that exists independently from His knowledge and will, but rather it differs from them on a logical level. Power implies the concept of a principle that carries out what the will commands and what knowledge directs, and these three aspects in God are unified. We can also say that God's knowledge or will, as the effective principle, includes the concept of power within it. Therefore, understanding God's knowledge and will comes before understanding His power, just as a cause comes before its action and effect.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 25, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 25, Art. 2]

Whether the Power of God Is Infinite?

Is God's power infinite?

Objection 1: It seems that the power of God is not infinite. For everything that is infinite is imperfect according to the Philosopher (Phys. iii, 6). But the power of God is far from imperfect. Therefore it is not infinite.

Objection 1: It appears that God's power is not infinite. Everything that is infinite is imperfect, according to the Philosopher (Phys. iii, 6). But God's power is far from imperfect. Therefore, it is not infinite.

Obj. 2: Further, every power is made known by its effect; otherwise it would be ineffectual. If, then, the power of God were infinite, it could produce an infinite effect, but this is impossible.

Obj. 2: Additionally, every power is revealed by its effects; otherwise, it would be useless. If God's power were infinite, it could create an infinite effect, but that is impossible.

Obj. 3: Further, the Philosopher proves (Phys. viii, 79) that if the power of any corporeal thing were infinite, it would cause instantaneous movement. God, however, does not cause instantaneous movement, but moves the spiritual creature in time, and the corporeal creature in place and time, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. 20, 22, 23). Therefore, His power is not infinite.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the Philosopher demonstrates (Phys. viii, 79) that if any physical thing had infinite power, it would create instantaneous movement. However, God does not create instantaneous movement; instead, He moves the spiritual creature through time and the physical creature in both place and time, as Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. 20, 22, 23). Therefore, His power is not infinite.

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. viii), that "God's power is immeasurable. He is the living mighty one." Now everything that is immeasurable is infinite. Therefore the power of God is infinite.

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. viii), that "God's power is immeasurable. He is the living mighty one." Now everything that is immeasurable is infinite. Therefore, God's power is infinite.

I answer that, As stated above (A. 1), active power exists in God according to the measure in which He is actual. Now His existence is infinite, inasmuch as it is not limited by anything that receives it, as is clear from what has been said, when we discussed the infinity of the divine essence (Q. 7, A. 1). Wherefore, it is necessary that the active power in God should be infinite. For in every agent is it found that the more perfectly an agent has the form by which it acts the greater its power to act. For instance, the hotter a thing is, the greater the power has it to give heat; and it would have infinite power to give heat, were its own heat infinite. Whence, since the divine essence, through which God acts, is infinite, as was shown above (Q. 7, A. 1) it follows that His power likewise is infinite.

I respond that, As mentioned earlier (A. 1), active power exists in God to the extent that He is actual. His existence is infinite because it isn't limited by anything that receives it, as we've discussed regarding the infinity of the divine essence (Q. 7, A. 1). Therefore, it is necessary for God's active power to be infinite. In every agent, the more completely it embodies the form by which it acts, the greater its power to act. For example, the hotter something is, the more power it has to produce heat; and it would have infinite power to give heat if its own heat were infinite. Thus, since the divine essence, through which God acts, is infinite, as previously shown (Q. 7, A. 1), it follows that His power is also infinite.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher is here speaking of an infinity in regard to matter not limited by any form; and such infinity belongs to quantity. But the divine essence is otherwise, as was shown above (Q. 7, A. 1); and consequently so also His power. It does not follow, therefore, that it is imperfect.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher is talking about a type of infinity related to matter that isn't restricted by any form; this kind of infinity relates to quantity. However, the divine essence is different, as explained earlier (Q. 7, A. 1); and so is His power. Therefore, it does not imply that it is imperfect.

Reply Obj. 2: The power of a univocal agent is wholly manifested in its effect. The generative power of man, for example, is not able to do more than beget man. But the power of a non-univocal agent does not wholly manifest itself in the production of its effect: as, for example, the power of the sun does not wholly manifest itself in the production of an animal generated from putrefaction. Now it is clear that God is not a univocal agent. For nothing agrees with Him either in species or in genus, as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 5; Q. 4, A. 3). Whence it follows that His effect is always less than His power. It is not necessary, therefore, that the infinite power of God should be manifested so as to produce an infinite effect. Yet even if it were to produce no effect, the power of God would not be ineffectual; because a thing is ineffectual which is ordained towards an end to which it does not attain. But the power of God is not ordered toward its effect as towards an end; rather, it is the end of the effect produced by it.

Reply Obj. 2: The ability of a univocal agent is fully shown in its result. For example, a man's generative power can only produce a man. However, the ability of a non-univocal agent isn't fully shown in the outcome it creates; for instance, the power of the sun doesn’t completely reveal itself in the creation of an animal that comes from decay. It’s clear that God is not a univocal agent. Nothing is the same as Him in terms of species or genus, as was discussed earlier (Q. 3, A. 5; Q. 4, A. 3). Therefore, it follows that His result is always less than His power. Thus, it’s not necessary for God’s infinite power to be shown in the creation of an infinite result. Even if it produced no result, God’s power would still not be ineffective; a thing is ineffective only if it is aimed at an end it cannot achieve. But God’s power isn’t directed toward its result as an end; instead, it is the end of the result it produces.

Reply Obj. 3: The Philosopher (Phys. viii, 79) proves that if a body had infinite power, it would cause a non-temporal movement. And he shows that the power of the mover of heaven is infinite, because it can move in an infinite time. It remains, therefore, according to his reckoning, that the infinite power of a body, if such existed, would move without time; not, however, the power of an incorporeal mover. The reason of this is that one body moving another is a univocal agent; wherefore it follows that the whole power of the agent is made known in its motion. Since then the greater the power of a moving body, the more quickly does it move; the necessary conclusion is that if its power were infinite, it would move beyond comparison faster, and this is to move without time. An incorporeal mover, however, is not a univocal agent; whence it is not necessary that the whole of its power should be manifested in motion, so as to move without time; and especially since it moves in accordance with the disposition of its will. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The Philosopher (Phys. viii, 79) demonstrates that if a body had infinite power, it would create a movement that isn’t bound by time. He explains that the power of the mover of heaven is infinite because it can move over an infinite duration. Therefore, according to his calculations, if a body with infinite power existed, it would move without time; however, this does not apply to the power of a non-physical mover. The reason for this is that one body moving another acts in a straightforward way; thus, the full power of the mover is evident in its motion. Since the greater the power of a moving body, the faster it moves, it follows that if its power were infinite, it would move incomparably faster, which means moving without time. On the other hand, a non-physical mover does not act in a straightforward way, so it’s not necessary for all of its power to be expressed in motion, allowing it to move in accordance with its will instead.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 25, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 25, Art. 3]

Whether God Is Omnipotent?

Is God Omnipotent?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not omnipotent. For movement and passiveness belong to everything. But this is impossible with God, for He is immovable, as was said above (Q. 2, A. 3). Therefore He is not omnipotent.

Objection 1: It seems that God is not all-powerful. Movement and passiveness apply to everything. But this can’t be true for God, since He is unchanging, as mentioned earlier (Q. 2, A. 3). Therefore, He is not all-powerful.

Obj. 2: Further, sin is an act of some kind. But God cannot sin, nor "deny Himself" as it is said in 2 Tim. 2:13. Therefore He is not omnipotent.

Obj. 2: Additionally, sin is a type of action. However, God cannot sin, nor can He "deny Himself," as stated in 2 Tim. 2:13. Therefore, He is not all-powerful.

Obj. 3: Further, it is said of God that He manifests His omnipotence "especially by sparing and having mercy" [*Collect, 10th Sunday after Pentecost]. Therefore the greatest act possible to the divine power is to spare and have mercy. There are things much greater, however, than sparing and having mercy; for example, to create another world, and the like. Therefore God is not omnipotent.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, it is said that God shows His power "especially by sparing and having mercy" [*Collect, 10th Sunday after Pentecost]. So, the greatest action of divine power is to spare and show mercy. However, there are things that are much greater than sparing and having mercy; for instance, creating another world and similar actions. Therefore, God is not all-powerful.

Obj. 4: Further, upon the text, "God hath made foolish the wisdom of this world" (1 Cor. 1:20), a gloss says: "God hath made the wisdom of this world foolish [*Vulg.: 'Hath not God', etc.] by showing those things to be possible which it judges to be impossible." Whence it would seem that nothing is to be judged possible or impossible in reference to inferior causes, as the wisdom of this world judges them; but in reference to the divine power. If God, then, were omnipotent, all things would be possible; nothing, therefore impossible. But if we take away the impossible, then we destroy also the necessary; for what necessarily exists is impossible not to exist. Therefore there would be nothing at all that is necessary in things if God were omnipotent. But this is an impossibility. Therefore God is not omnipotent.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, based on the text, "God has made the wisdom of this world foolish" (1 Cor. 1:20), a commentary states: "God has shown the wisdom of this world to be foolish by proving that those things it considers impossible are actually possible." From this, it seems that we shouldn't judge what is possible or impossible based on the understanding of worldly wisdom, but rather in light of divine power. If God were truly all-powerful, then everything would be possible, making nothing impossible. However, if we eliminate the impossible, we also lose what is necessary; because what must exist cannot not exist. Therefore, if God were omnipotent, there would be nothing that is necessary in existence. But this is not possible. Therefore, God is not omnipotent.

On the contrary, It is said: "No word shall be impossible with God" (Luke 1:37).

On the contrary, it is said: "Nothing will be impossible for God" (Luke 1:37).

I answer that, All confess that God is omnipotent; but it seems difficult to explain in what His omnipotence precisely consists: for there may be doubt as to the precise meaning of the word 'all' when we say that God can do all things. If, however, we consider the matter aright, since power is said in reference to possible things, this phrase, "God can do all things," is rightly understood to mean that God can do all things that are possible; and for this reason He is said to be omnipotent. Now according to the Philosopher (Metaph. v, 17), a thing is said to be possible in two ways. First in relation to some power, thus whatever is subject to human power is said to be possible to man. Secondly absolutely, on account of the relation in which the very terms stand to each other. Now God cannot be said to be omnipotent through being able to do all things that are possible to created nature; for the divine power extends farther than that. If, however, we were to say that God is omnipotent because He can do all things that are possible to His power, there would be a vicious circle in explaining the nature of His power. For this would be saying nothing else but that God is omnipotent, because He can do all that He is able to do.

I answer that, Everyone agrees that God is all-powerful, but it's tricky to explain exactly what His all-powerfulness means: there might be uncertainty about what we mean by the term 'all' when we say that God can do everything. However, if we think about it correctly, since power is discussed in relation to what is possible, the phrase "God can do all things" should be understood to mean that God can do everything that is possible; and for this reason, He is considered omnipotent. According to the Philosopher (Metaph. v, 17), something is considered possible in two ways. First, in relation to some power; thus, anything that falls under human ability is seen as possible for humans. Second, absolutely, based on the relationship between the terms themselves. However, we cannot say that God is all-powerful simply because He can do everything that is possible for created beings; His divine power goes beyond that. If we were to claim that God is omnipotent because He can do everything that is possible to His power, it would create a circular explanation of His power. This would merely mean that God is all-powerful because He can do everything He is capable of doing.

It remains therefore, that God is called omnipotent because He can do all things that are possible absolutely; which is the second way of saying a thing is possible. For a thing is said to be possible or impossible absolutely, according to the relation in which the very terms stand to one another, possible if the predicate is not incompatible with the subject, as that Socrates sits; and absolutely impossible when the predicate is altogether incompatible with the subject, as, for instance, that a man is a donkey.

It follows that God is called all-powerful because He can do everything that is absolutely possible; this is another way of saying that something is possible. Something is considered possible or impossible in absolute terms based on how the specific terms relate to each other. It is possible if the attribute does not conflict with the subject, like saying Socrates is sitting, and it is absolutely impossible when the attribute completely conflicts with the subject, such as saying a man is a donkey.

It must, however, be remembered that since every agent produces an effect like itself, to each active power there corresponds a thing possible as its proper object according to the nature of that act on which its active power is founded; for instance, the power of giving warmth is related as to its proper object to the being capable of being warmed. The divine existence, however, upon which the nature of power in God is founded, is infinite, and is not limited to any genus of being; but possesses within itself the perfection of all being. Whence, whatsoever has or can have the nature of being, is numbered among the absolutely possible things, in respect of which God is called omnipotent. Now nothing is opposed to the idea of being except non-being. Therefore, that which implies being and non-being at the same time is repugnant to the idea of an absolutely possible thing, within the scope of the divine omnipotence. For such cannot come under the divine omnipotence, not because of any defect in the power of God, but because it has not the nature of a feasible or possible thing. Therefore, everything that does not imply a contradiction in terms, is numbered amongst those possible things, in respect of which God is called omnipotent: whereas whatever implies contradiction does not come within the scope of divine omnipotence, because it cannot have the aspect of possibility. Hence it is better to say that such things cannot be done, than that God cannot do them. Nor is this contrary to the word of the angel, saying: "No word shall be impossible with God." For whatever implies a contradiction cannot be a word, because no intellect can possibly conceive such a thing.

It should be noted that since every agent produces an effect similar to itself, each active power corresponds to a possible object that aligns with the nature of the action on which its active power is based. For example, the ability to provide warmth is connected to something that can be warmed. However, the divine existence, which forms the basis of God's power, is infinite and not restricted to any specific category of being; it possesses the perfection of all existence. Therefore, anything that has or can have the nature of being is classified among the absolutely possible things, regarding which God is called omnipotent. Nothing contradicts the idea of being except for non-being. Consequently, something that simultaneously implies being and non-being is incompatible with the idea of an absolutely possible thing within the realm of divine omnipotence. Such scenarios cannot fall under divine omnipotence, not due to any limitation in God's power, but because they do not represent feasible or possible things. Therefore, everything that does not involve a contradiction in terms is considered among those possible things, for which God is called omnipotent. In contrast, anything that implies a contradiction does not fall into the sphere of divine omnipotence, because it cannot possess the aspect of possibility. Thus, it's more accurate to say that such things cannot happen rather than saying God cannot make them happen. This does not contradict the angel's statement: "No word shall be impossible with God." For anything that implies a contradiction cannot be a meaningful word since no mind can reasonably conceive of such a thing.

Reply Obj. 1: God is said to be omnipotent in respect to His active power, not to passive power, as was shown above (A. 1). Whence the fact that He is immovable or impassible is not repugnant to His omnipotence.

Reply Obj. 1: God is described as all-powerful regarding His ability to act, not in terms of His ability to be affected, as previously explained (A. 1). Therefore, the idea that He is unchanging or unaffected does not contradict His omnipotence.

Reply Obj. 2: To sin is to fall short of a perfect action; hence to be able to sin is to be able to fall short in action, which is repugnant to omnipotence. Therefore it is that God cannot sin, because of His omnipotence. Nevertheless, the Philosopher says (Topic. iv, 3) that God can deliberately do what is evil. But this must be understood either on a condition, the antecedent of which is impossible—as, for instance, if we were to say that God can do evil things if He will. For there is no reason why a conditional proposition should not be true, though both the antecedent and consequent are impossible: as if one were to say: "If man is a donkey, he has four feet." Or he may be understood to mean that God can do some things which now seem to be evil: which, however, if He did them, would then be good. Or he is, perhaps, speaking after the common manner of the heathen, who thought that men became gods, like Jupiter or Mercury.

Reply Obj. 2: To sin is to fail to achieve a perfect action; therefore, being able to sin means being able to fail in action, which contradicts omnipotence. That’s why God cannot sin, due to His omnipotence. However, the Philosopher states (Topic. iv, 3) that God can intentionally do what is evil. This should be understood either as a hypothetical situation, where the condition is impossible—like saying God can do evil if He chooses to. There’s no reason why a conditional statement can’t be true even if both the condition and the outcome are impossible, like saying, "If man is a donkey, he has four feet." Alternatively, it might mean that God can do some things that currently appear to be evil; however, if He did them, they would actually be good. Or he might be speaking in the common terms of the pagans, who believed that humans could become gods, like Jupiter or Mercury.

Reply Obj. 3: God's omnipotence is particularly shown in sparing and having mercy, because in this is it made manifest that God has supreme power, that He freely forgives sins. For it is not for one who is bound by laws of a superior to forgive sins of his own free will. Or, because by sparing and having mercy upon men, He leads them on to the participation of an infinite good; which is the ultimate effect of the divine power. Or because, as was said above (Q. 21, A. 4), the effect of the divine mercy is the foundation of all the divine works. For nothing is due to anyone, except on account of something already given him gratuitously by God. In this way the divine omnipotence is particularly made manifest, because to it pertains the first foundation of all good things.

Reply Obj. 3: God's power is especially evident in His ability to spare and show mercy, because it demonstrates His supreme authority in freely forgiving sins. Someone who is bound by the laws of a higher power cannot forgive sins on their own. Additionally, by sparing and showing mercy to people, He guides them toward sharing in an infinite good, which is the ultimate result of divine power. Furthermore, as mentioned earlier (Q. 21, A. 4), the effects of divine mercy are the basis for all divine works. Nothing is owed to anyone except due to something that God has already freely given them. In this way, divine omnipotence is especially evident, as it is the fundamental source of all good things.

Reply Obj. 4: The absolute possible is not so called in reference either to higher causes, or to inferior causes, but in reference to itself. But the possible in reference to some power is named possible in reference to its proximate cause. Hence those things which it belongs to God alone to do immediately—as, for example, to create, to justify, and the like—are said to be possible in reference to a higher cause. Those things, however, which are of such kind as to be done by inferior causes are said to be possible in reference to those inferior causes. For it is according to the condition of the proximate cause that the effect has contingency or necessity, as was shown above (Q. 14, A. 1, ad 2). Thus is it that the wisdom of the world is deemed foolish, because what is impossible to nature, it judges to be impossible to God. So it is clear that the omnipotence of God does not take away from things their impossibility and necessity. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The absolute possible is not called so in relation to higher causes or lower causes, but in relation to itself. However, what is possible in relation to some power is referred to as possible in relation to its immediate cause. Therefore, those things that only God can do directly—such as creating, justifying, and similar actions—are considered possible in relation to a higher cause. On the other hand, things that can be done by lower causes are considered possible in relation to those lower causes. The effect's contingency or necessity depends on the condition of the immediate cause, as discussed earlier (Q. 14, A. 1, ad 2). Thus, the wisdom of the world is seen as foolish because it assumes that what is impossible for nature is also impossible for God. Therefore, it is evident that God's omnipotence does not eliminate the impossibility and necessity of things.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 25, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 25, Art. 4]

Whether God Can Make the Past Not to Have Been?

Whether God can make the past not have happened?

Objection 1: It seems that God can make the past not to have been. For what is impossible in itself is much more impossible than that which is only impossible accidentally. But God can do what is impossible in itself, as to give sight to the blind, or to raise the dead. Therefore, and much more can He do what is only impossible accidentally. Now for the past not to have been is impossible accidentally: thus for Socrates not to be running is accidentally impossible, from the fact that his running is a thing of the past. Therefore God can make the past not to have been.

Objection 1: It seems that God can make it so the past never happened. What is impossible in itself is far more impossible than something that is only accidentally impossible. But God can do what is impossible in itself, like giving sight to the blind or raising the dead. Therefore, He can certainly do what is only accidentally impossible. Now, for the past not to have happened is accidentally impossible; just like it is accidentally impossible for Socrates not to be running, since his running is a thing of the past. Therefore, God can make it so the past never happened.

Obj. 2: Further, what God could do, He can do now, since His power is not lessened. But God could have effected, before Socrates ran, that he should not run. Therefore, when he has run, God could effect that he did not run.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, whatever God could do in the past, He can do now, because His power hasn't diminished. But God could have prevented Socrates from running before he actually ran. Therefore, once he has run, God could still prevent him from having run.

Obj. 3: Further, charity is a more excellent virtue than virginity. But God can supply charity that is lost; therefore also lost virginity. Therefore He can so effect that what was corrupt should not have been corrupt.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, charity is a greater virtue than virginity. But God can restore lost charity; therefore, He can also restore lost virginity. Thus, He can make it so that what was corrupted should not have been corrupted.

On the contrary, Jerome says (Ep. 22 ad Eustoch.): "Although God can do all things, He cannot make a thing that is corrupt not to have been corrupted." Therefore, for the same reason, He cannot effect that anything else which is past should not have been.

On the contrary, Jerome says (Ep. 22 ad Eustoch.): "Even though God can do anything, He cannot change something that has been corrupted to undo its corruption." Therefore, for the same reason, He cannot change the fact that anything else that has happened should not have happened.

I answer that, As was said above (Q. 7, A. 2), there does not fall under the scope of God's omnipotence anything that implies a contradiction. Now that the past should not have been implies a contradiction. For as it implies a contradiction to say that Socrates is sitting, and is not sitting, so does it to say that he sat, and did not sit. But to say that he did sit is to say that it happened in the past. To say that he did not sit, is to say that it did not happen. Whence, that the past should not have been, does not come under the scope of divine power. This is what Augustine means when he says (Contra Faust. xxix, 5): "Whosoever says, If God is almighty, let Him make what is done as if it were not done, does not see that this is to say: If God is almighty let Him effect that what is true, by the very fact that it is true, be false": and the Philosopher says (Ethic. vi, 2): "Of this one thing alone is God deprived—namely, to make undone the things that have been done."

I respond that, As mentioned earlier (Q. 7, A. 2), nothing that involves a contradiction falls within the scope of God's omnipotence. The idea that the past shouldn’t have happened is contradictory. Just as it’s contradictory to say that Socrates is sitting and not sitting at the same time, it’s also contradictory to say that he sat and didn’t sit. Saying that he did sit means it happened in the past. Saying that he didn’t sit means it didn’t happen. Therefore, the idea that the past shouldn’t have happened is not under divine power. This is what Augustine means when he states (Contra Faust. xxix, 5): "Anyone who says, If God is all-powerful, let Him make what has been done as if it wasn't done, doesn’t realize that this means: If God is all-powerful, let Him make what is true, by its very nature, false": and the Philosopher says (Ethic. vi, 2): "God is deprived of only one thing—namely, the ability to make undone the things that have been done."

Reply Obj. 1: Although it is impossible accidentally for the past not to have been, if one considers the past thing itself, as, for instance, the running of Socrates; nevertheless, if the past thing is considered as past, that it should not have been is impossible, not only in itself, but absolutely since it implies a contradiction. Thus, it is more impossible than the raising of the dead; in which there is nothing contradictory, because this is reckoned impossible in reference to some power, that is to say, some natural power; for such impossible things do come beneath the scope of divine power.

Reply Obj. 1: While it's impossible for the past to not have happened when you consider the event itself, like the running of Socrates, if you think about the event as something that is past, then it couldn't have not happened. This isn't just impossible in itself; it’s absolutely impossible because it leads to a contradiction. So, it's actually more impossible than raising the dead, which isn't contradictory because that’s considered impossible in regard to a certain power, specifically natural power. However, such impossible events can be under the influence of divine power.

Reply Obj. 2: As God, in accordance with the perfection of the divine power, can do all things, and yet some things are not subject to His power, because they fall short of being possible; so, also, if we regard the immutability of the divine power, whatever God could do, He can do now. Some things, however, at one time were in the nature of possibility, whilst they were yet to be done, which now fall short of the nature of possibility, when they have been done. So is God said not to be able to do them, because they themselves cannot be done.

Reply Obj. 2: Since God, because of His perfect divine power, can do anything, there are still some things outside His power because they aren't truly possible. Likewise, if we consider the unchanging nature of divine power, whatever God could do, He can do now. However, some things were once possible before they were accomplished, but now that they have been done, they aren't possible anymore. Therefore, God is said to be unable to do them because those things themselves can no longer be done.

Reply Obj. 3: God can remove all corruption of the mind and body from a woman who has fallen; but the fact that she had been corrupt cannot be removed from her; as also is it impossible that the fact of having sinned or having lost charity thereby can be removed from the sinner. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: God can take away all corruption of the mind and body from a woman who has fallen; however, the fact that she was corrupt can't be erased. Just as it’s impossible to erase the fact that someone has sinned or lost love because of it.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 25, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 25, Art. 5]

Whether God Can Do What He Does Not?

Whether God can do what He cannot?

Objection 1: It seems that God cannot do other than what He does. For God cannot do what He has not foreknown and pre-ordained that He would do. But He neither foreknew nor pre-ordained that He would do anything except what He does. Therefore He cannot do except what He does.

Objection 1: It seems that God can only do what He does. God cannot do anything that He hasn't already foreseen and planned to do. But He neither saw nor planned to do anything other than what He actually does. Therefore, He can only do what He does.

Obj. 2: Further, God can only do what ought to be done and what is right to be done. But God is not bound to do what He does not; nor is it right that He should do what He does not. Therefore He cannot do except what He does.

Obj. 2: Additionally, God can only do what should be done and what is right to do. However, God is not obligated to do what He does not; nor is it right for Him to do what He does not. Therefore, He can only do what He actually does.

Obj. 3: Further, God cannot do anything that is not good and befitting creation. But it is not good for creatures nor befitting them to be otherwise than as they are. Therefore God cannot do except what He does.

Obj. 3: Additionally, God cannot do anything that is not good and suitable for creation. However, it is neither good for creatures nor appropriate for them to be anything other than what they are. Therefore, God can only do what He is doing.

On the contrary, It is said: "Thinkest thou that I cannot ask My Father, and He will give Me presently more than twelve legions of angels?" (Matt. 26:53). But He neither asked for them, nor did His Father show them to refute the Jews. Therefore God can do what He does not.

On the contrary, it is said: "Do you think that I can't ask My Father, and He will immediately give Me more than twelve legions of angels?" (Matt. 26:53). But He neither asked for them, nor did His Father show them to refute the Jews. Therefore, God can do what He does not.

I answer that, In this matter certain persons erred in two ways. Some laid it down that God acts from natural necessity in such way that as from the action of nature nothing else can happen beyond what actually takes place—as, for instance, from the seed of man, a man must come, and from that of an olive, an olive; so from the divine operation there could not result other things, nor another order of things, than that which now is. But we showed above (Q. 19, A. 3) that God does not act from natural necessity, but that His will is the cause of all things; nor is that will naturally and from any necessity determined to those things. Whence in no way at all is the present course of events produced by God from any necessity, so that other things could not happen. Others, however, said that the divine power is restricted to this present course of events through the order of the divine wisdom and justice without which God does nothing. But since the power of God, which is His essence, is nothing else but His wisdom, it can indeed be fittingly said that there is nothing in the divine power which is not in the order of the divine wisdom; for the divine wisdom includes the whole potency of the divine power. Yet the order placed in creation by divine wisdom, in which order the notion of His justice consists, as said above (Q. 21, A. 2), is not so adequate to the divine wisdom that the divine wisdom should be restricted to this present order of things. Now it is clear that the whole idea of order which a wise man puts into things made by him is taken from their end. So, when the end is proportionate to the things made for that end, the wisdom of the maker is restricted to some definite order. But the divine goodness is an end exceeding beyond all proportion things created. Whence the divine wisdom is not so restricted to any particular order that no other course of events could happen. Wherefore we must simply say that God can do other things than those He has done.

I respond that, in this matter, certain individuals went wrong in two ways. Some claimed that God acts out of natural necessity, meaning that, just as nothing else can come from the actions of nature—like a man coming from a human seed, or an olive tree from an olive seed—there could be no different results or other order of things from divine action than what currently exists. However, we've already shown (Q. 19, A. 3) that God does not act from natural necessity; rather, His will is the cause of everything, and that will is not determined by any necessity to specific outcomes. Therefore, the current state of events is not produced by God out of necessity, meaning other outcomes could certainly occur. Others, however, argued that divine power is limited to the current state of affairs through the order of divine wisdom and justice, without which God does nothing. But since God's power, which is His essence, is essentially His wisdom, it can rightly be said that nothing in divine power exists outside the order of divine wisdom; for divine wisdom encompasses the entirety of divine power. Yet, the order established in creation by divine wisdom, which is where the notion of His justice lies, as stated above (Q. 21, A. 2), is not so fixed that divine wisdom is confined to this present order of things. It is clear that the entire concept of order a wise person applies to the things they create comes from their intended purpose. So, when the purpose aligns with the things made for that purpose, the creator's wisdom is bound to a specific order. However, divine goodness serves a purpose that exceeds all proportion relative to created things. Hence, divine wisdom is not so constrained by any particular order that no other course of events could occur. Thus, we must simply assert that God can do things besides what He has already done.

Reply Obj. 1: In ourselves, in whom power and essence are distinct from will and intellect, and again intellect from wisdom, and will from justice, there can be something in the power which is not in the just will nor in the wise intellect. But in God, power and essence, will and intellect, wisdom and justice, are one and the same. Whence, there can be nothing in the divine power which cannot also be in His just will or in His wise intellect. Nevertheless, because His will cannot be determined from necessity to this or that order of things, except upon supposition, as was said above (Q. 19, A. 3), neither are the wisdom and justice of God restricted to this present order, as was shown above; so nothing prevents there being something in the divine power which He does not will, and which is not included in the order which He has place in things. Again, because power is considered as executing, the will as commanding, and the intellect and wisdom as directing; what is attributed to His power considered in itself, God is said to be able to do in accordance with His absolute power. Of such a kind is everything which has the nature of being, as was said above (A. 3). What is, however, attributed to the divine power, according as it carries into execution the command of a just will, God is said to be able to do by His ordinary power. In this manner, we must say that God can do other things by His absolute power than those He has foreknown and pre-ordained He would do. But it could not happen that He should do anything which He had not foreknown, and had not pre-ordained that He would do, because His actual doing is subject to His foreknowledge and pre-ordination, though His power, which is His nature, is not so. For God does things because He wills so to do; yet the power to do them does not come from His will, but from His nature.

Reply Obj. 1: In ourselves, where power and essence are separate from will and intellect, and intellect is separate from wisdom, and will is separate from justice, there can be aspects of power that aren’t present in a just will or a wise intellect. But in God, power and essence, will and intellect, wisdom and justice are all one and the same. Therefore, there’s nothing in divine power that isn't also in His just will or wise intellect. However, since His will isn’t limited by necessity to a specific order of things without supposition, as mentioned earlier (Q. 19, A. 3), neither are God's wisdom and justice confined to the current order, as previously shown; so nothing stops there from being aspects of divine power that He doesn’t will and that aren’t included in the order He has established. Additionally, since power is viewed as executing, will as commanding, and intellect and wisdom as directing; what is attributed to His power in itself means God can carry out according to His absolute power. This includes everything that has the nature of existence, as stated earlier (A. 3). What is attributed to divine power as it implements the command of a just will indicates that God can perform actions through His ordinary power. In this way, we must say that God can do other things through His absolute power beyond what He has already foreseen and predetermined to do. However, He cannot do anything He hasn't foreseen or predetermined, because His actual actions are tied to His foreknowledge and pre-ordination, although His power, which is His nature, is not. God does things because He chooses to do them; however, the ability to do so comes from His nature, not from His will.

Reply Obj. 2: God is bound to nobody but Himself. Hence, when it is said that God can only do what He ought, nothing else is meant by this than that God can do nothing but what is befitting to Himself, and just. But these words "befitting" and "just" may be understood in two ways: one, in direct connection with the verb "is"; and thus they would be restricted to the present order of things; and would concern His power. Then what is said in the objection is false; for the sense is that God can do nothing except what is now fitting and just. If, however, they be joined directly with the verb "can" (which has the effect of extending the meaning), and then secondly with "is," the present will be signified, but in a confused and general way. The sentence would then be true in this sense: "God cannot do anything except that which, if He did it, would be suitable and just."

Reply Obj. 2: God is accountable to no one but Himself. So, when we say that God can only do what He ought, it means that God can only act in ways that are appropriate and just for Him. However, the terms "appropriate" and "just" can be understood in two ways: one, directly tied to the verb "is"; in which case, they would be limited to the current state of affairs and would relate to His power. Then what is stated in the objection is incorrect; the implication is that God can only do what is presently appropriate and just. If, however, these terms are linked directly with the verb "can" (which broadens the meaning), and then secondly with "is," the present will still be indicated, but in a vague and general way. The sentence could then be interpreted as: "God cannot do anything other than what, if He were to do it, would be suitable and just."

Reply Obj. 3: Although this order of things be restricted to what now exists, the divine power and wisdom are not thus restricted. Whence, although no other order would be suitable and good to the things which now are, yet God can do other things and impose upon them another order. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Although this arrangement is limited to what currently exists, God's power and wisdom are not limited in the same way. Therefore, even though no other arrangement would be suitable and good for the current things, God can create other things and establish a different order for them.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 25, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 25, Art. 6]

Whether God Can Do Better Than What He Does?

Whether God can do better than what He does?

Objection 1: It seems that God cannot do better than He does. For whatever God does, He does in a most powerful and wise way. But a thing is so much the better done as it is more powerfully and wisely done. Therefore God cannot do anything better than He does.

Objection 1: It seems that God can't do better than He does. Because whatever God does, He does in the most powerful and wise way. And a thing is only improved to the extent that it's done more powerfully and wisely. Therefore, God can't do anything better than what He does.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine thus argues (Contra Maximin. iii, 8): "If God could, but would not, beget a Son His equal, He would have been envious." For the same reason, if God could have made better things than He has done, but was not willing so to do, He would have been envious. But envy is far removed from God. Therefore God makes everything of the best. He cannot therefore make anything better than He does.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine argues (Contra Maximin. iii, 8): "If God had the ability to beget a Son equal to Himself but chose not to, He would be envious." Similarly, if God could have created better things than He has but decided against it, He would also be envious. However, envy is completely alien to God. Therefore, God creates everything to the highest standard. He cannot create anything better than what He has made.

Obj. 3: Further, what is very good and the best of all cannot be bettered; because nothing is better than the best. But as Augustine says (Enchiridion 10), "each thing that God has made is good, and, taken all together they are very good; because in them all consists the wondrous beauty of the universe." Therefore the good in the universe could not be made better by God.

Obj. 3: Moreover, what is truly good and the best of all cannot be improved; because nothing is better than the best. As Augustine mentions (Enchiridion 10), "every creation of God is good, and when considered as a whole, they are very good; because within them lies the amazing beauty of the universe." Therefore, the good in the universe could not be enhanced by God.

Obj. 4: Further, Christ as man is full of grace and truth, and has the Spirit without measure; and so He cannot be better. Again created happiness is described as the highest good, and thus cannot be better. And the Blessed Virgin Mary is raised above all the choirs of angels, and so cannot be better than she is. God cannot therefore make all things better than He has made them.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, Christ as a human is complete with grace and truth, and possesses the Spirit in abundance; therefore, He cannot be improved upon. Additionally, created happiness is defined as the highest good, and thus cannot be enhanced. The Blessed Virgin Mary is elevated above all the choirs of angels, so she cannot be surpassed. God cannot, therefore, make anything better than He has already made it.

On the contrary, It is said (Eph. 3:20): "God is able to do all things more abundantly than we desire or understand."

On the contrary, It is said (Eph. 3:20): "God can do everything far beyond what we ask or think."

I answer that, The goodness of anything is twofold; one, which is of the essence of it—thus, for instance, to be rational pertains to the essence of man. As regards this good, God cannot make a thing better than it is itself; although He can make another thing better than it; even as He cannot make the number four greater than it is; because if it were greater it would no longer be four, but another number. For the addition of a substantial difference in definitions is after the manner of the addition of unity of numbers (Metaph. viii, 10). Another kind of goodness is that which is over and above the essence; thus, the good of a man is to be virtuous or wise. As regards this kind of goodness, God can make better the things He has made. Absolutely speaking, however, God can make something else better than each thing made by Him.

I answer that, Goodness has two aspects; one is essential goodness—like how being rational is part of what it means to be human. Regarding this type of goodness, God cannot make something better than its own essence; although, He can create something else that is better. It's similar to how God can't make the number four bigger than it is; if it were larger, it wouldn't be four anymore, but a different number. Adding a substantial difference in definitions is like adding units in numbers (Metaph. viii, 10). The other type of goodness is additional to the essence; for example, a man’s goodness includes being virtuous or wise. In this sense of goodness, God can improve the things He has created. However, in absolute terms, God can create something that is better than any of the things He has made.

Reply Obj. 1: When it is said that God can make a thing better than He makes it, if "better" is taken substantively, this proposition is true. For He can always make something else better than each individual thing: and He can make the same thing in one way better than it is, and in another way not; as was explained above. If, however, "better" is taken as an adverb, implying the manner of the making; thus God cannot make anything better than He makes it, because He cannot make it from greater wisdom and goodness. But if it implies the manner of the thing done, He can make something better; because He can give to things made by Him a better manner of existence as regards the accidents, although not as regards the substance.

Reply Obj. 1: When we say that God can make something better than He does, if "better" is understood as a noun, this statement is true. He can always create something different that is better than each individual thing; and He can create the same thing in one way that is better than it currently is, and in another way that is not, as explained above. However, if "better" is understood as an adverb, relating to how something is made, then God cannot make anything better than He makes it, because He cannot make it with more wisdom and goodness. But if it refers to the way things are done, He can make something better; because He can give the things He makes a better way of existing when it comes to their attributes, even if not in terms of their substance.

Reply Obj. 2: It is of the nature of a son that he should be equal to his father, when he comes to maturity. But it is not of the nature of anything created, that it should be better than it was made by God. Hence the comparison fails.

Reply Obj. 2: It’s natural for a son to be equal to his father when he reaches adulthood. However, it’s not in the nature of anything created to be better than what God made. Therefore, the comparison doesn’t hold.

Reply Obj. 3: The universe, the present creation being supposed, cannot be better, on account of the most beautiful order given to things by God; in which the good of the universe consists. For if any one thing were bettered, the proportion of order would be destroyed; as if one string were stretched more than it ought to be, the melody of the harp would be destroyed. Yet God could make other things, or add something to the present creation; and then there would be another and a better universe.

Reply Obj. 3: The universe, assuming the current creation is what it is, cannot be improved because of the beautiful order established by God, which is the foundation of the universe's goodness. If even one thing were to be improved, the balance of order would be disrupted; it would be like stretching one string too much, ruining the melody of the harp. However, God could create other things or add to the current creation, resulting in a different and better universe.

Reply Obj. 4: The humanity of Christ, from the fact that it is united to the Godhead; and created happiness from the fact that it is the fruition of God; and the Blessed Virgin from the fact that she is the mother of God; have all a certain infinite dignity from the infinite good, which is God. And on this account there cannot be anything better than these; just as there cannot be anything better than God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The humanity of Christ has infinite dignity because it is united with the divine; created happiness has value because it is the enjoyment of God; and the Blessed Virgin has significance because she is the mother of God. All of these have an infinite worth that comes from the infinite good, which is God. Therefore, nothing can be better than these, just as nothing can be better than God.

QUESTION 26

OF THE DIVINE BEATITUDE
(In Four Articles)

OF THE DIVINE BEATITUDE
(In Four Articles)

After considering all that pertains to the unity of the divine essence, we come to treat of the divine beatitude. Concerning this, there are four points of inquiry:

After thinking about everything related to the unity of the divine essence, we will discuss divine happiness. There are four key points to consider:

(1) Whether beatitude belongs to God?

(1) Does happiness belong to God?

(2) In regard to what is God called blessed; does this regard His act of intellect?

(2) When it comes to why God is called blessed, does this relate to His intellect?

(3) Whether He is essentially the beatitude of each of the blessed?

(3) Is He essentially the happiness of each of the blessed?

(4) Whether all other beatitude is included in the divine beatitude? _______________________

(4) Is all other happiness included in divine happiness? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 26, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 26, Art. 1]

Whether Beatitude Belongs to God?

Does Beatitude Belong to God?

Objection 1: It seems that beatitude does not belong to God. For beatitude according to Boethius (De Consol. iv) "is a state made perfect by the aggregation of all good things." But the aggregation of goods has no place in God; nor has composition. Therefore beatitude does not belong to God.

Objection 1: It appears that happiness does not apply to God. According to Boethius (De Consol. iv), "happiness is a state perfected by the collection of all good things." But the collection of goods does not exist in God; nor does any kind of composition. Therefore, happiness does not apply to God.

Obj. 2: Further, beatitude or happiness is the reward of virtue, according to the Philosopher (Ethic. i, 9). But reward does not apply to God; as neither does merit. Therefore neither does beatitude.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, happiness is the reward of virtue, according to the Philosopher (Ethic. i, 9). However, reward doesn't apply to God, nor does merit. So, neither does happiness.

On the contrary, The Apostle says: "Which in His times He shall show, who is the Blessed and only Almighty, the King of Kings and Lord of Lords." (1 Tim. 6:15).

On the contrary, The Apostle says: "At the right time, He will show who is the Blessed and only Almighty, the King of Kings and Lord of Lords." (1 Tim. 6:15).

I answer that, Beatitude belongs to God in a very special manner. For nothing else is understood to be meant by the term beatitude than the perfect good of an intellectual nature; which is capable of knowing that it has a sufficiency of the good which it possesses, to which it is competent that good or ill may befall, and which can control its own actions. All of these things belong in a most excellent manner to God, namely, to be perfect, and to possess intelligence. Whence beatitude belongs to God in the highest degree.

I reply that, Beatitude uniquely belongs to God. The term beatitude refers to the ultimate good of an intelligent being; one that can recognize its own fulfillment in the good it possesses, can experience both good and bad circumstances, and can manage its own actions. All of these attributes are perfectly associated with God, including being perfect and possessing intelligence. Therefore, beatitude belongs to God to the greatest extent.

Reply Obj. 1: Aggregation of good is in God, after the manner not of composition, but of simplicity; for those things which in creatures is manifold, pre-exist in God, as was said above (Q. 4, A. 2; Q. 13, A. 4), in simplicity and unity.

Reply Obj. 1: The collection of good exists in God not in a way that suggests complexity, but rather in a simple manner; because the things that are multiple in creatures exist in God beforehand, as mentioned earlier (Q. 4, A. 2; Q. 13, A. 4), in simplicity and unity.

Reply Obj. 2: It belongs as an accident to beatitude or happiness to be the reward of virtue, so far as anyone attains to beatitude; even as to be the term of generation belongs accidentally to a being, so far as it passes from potentiality to act. As, then, God has being, though not begotten; so He has beatitude, although not acquired by merit. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: It is an aspect of happiness or bliss to be the reward for virtue, to the extent that anyone achieves happiness; just as the outcome of generation is an accidental attribute of a being, as it moves from potentiality to actuality. Similarly, just as God exists without being created, He possesses happiness, even though it isn't earned through merit.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 26, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 26, Art. 2]

Whether God Is Called Blessed in Respect of His Intellect?

Whether God is referred to as blessed in terms of His intellect?

Objection 1: It seems that God is not called blessed in respect to His intellect. For beatitude is the highest good. But good is said to be in God in regard to His essence, because good has reference to being which is according to essence, according to Boethius (De Hebdom.). Therefore beatitude also is said to be in God in regard to His essence, and not to His intellect.

Objection 1: It appears that God isn't described as blessed when it comes to His intellect. Beatitude is considered the highest good. However, goodness is ascribed to God in terms of His essence, since goodness relates to being that aligns with essence, according to Boethius (De Hebdom.). Therefore, beatitude is also attributed to God concerning His essence, and not to His intellect.

Obj. 2: Further, Beatitude implies the notion of end. Now the end is the object of the will, as also is the good. Therefore beatitude is said to be in God with reference to His will, and not with reference to His intellect.

Obj. 2: Additionally, beatitude suggests the idea of an end. The end is what the will aims for, just like the good is. So, beatitude is considered to be in God concerning His will, rather than in connection with His intellect.

On the contrary, Gregory says (Moral. xxxii, 7): "He is in glory, Who whilst He rejoices in Himself, needs not further praise." To be in glory, however, is the same as to be blessed. Therefore, since we enjoy God in respect to our intellect, because "vision is the whole of the reward," as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xxii), it would seem that beatitude is said to be in God in respect of His intellect. it would seem that beatitude is said to be in God in respect of His intellect.

On the contrary, Gregory states (Moral. xxxii, 7): "He is in glory, Who while He takes joy in Himself, needs no additional praise." To be in glory, however, is the same as to be blessed. Therefore, since we experience God through our intellect, because "vision is the entirety of the reward," as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xxii), it seems that beatitude is referred to in God concerning His intellect. It seems that beatitude is referred to in God concerning His intellect.

I answer that, Beatitude, as stated above (A. 1), is the perfect good of an intellectual nature. Thus it is that, as everything desires the perfection of its nature, intellectual nature desires naturally to be happy. Now that which is most perfect in any intellectual nature is the intellectual operation, by which in some sense it grasps everything. Whence the beatitude of every intellectual nature consists in understanding. Now in God, to be and to understand are one and the same thing; differing only in the manner of our understanding them. Beatitude must therefore be assigned to God in respect of His intellect; as also to the blessed, who are called blessed [beati] by reason of the assimilation to His beatitude.

I respond that, Beatitude, as mentioned earlier (A. 1), is the ultimate good of an intellectual being. Therefore, since everything seeks the fulfillment of its nature, intellectual beings naturally desire to be happy. The highest point of any intellectual being is its ability to think, which allows it to grasp everything in some way. Thus, the beatitude of every intellectual being lies in understanding. In God, being and understanding are the same; they only differ in how we perceive them. Beatitude should therefore be attributed to God concerning His intellect, and also to the blessed ones, who are called blessed [beati] because they are aligned with His beatitude.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument proves that beatitude belongs to God; not that beatitude pertains essentially to Him under the aspect of His essence; but rather under the aspect of His intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument shows that happiness belongs to God; not that happiness is essentially part of Him in terms of His essence; but rather in terms of His intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: Since beatitude is a good, it is the object of the will; now the object is understood as prior to the act of a power. Whence in our manner of understanding, divine beatitude precedes the act of the will at rest in it. This cannot be other than the act of the intellect; and thus beatitude is to be found in an act of the intellect. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Since happiness is a good, it is the target of the will; now the target is understood as existing prior to the act of a power. Therefore, in our understanding, divine happiness comes before the will's act that rests in it. This can’t be anything other than the act of the intellect; so happiness is found in an act of the intellect.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 26, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 26, Art. 3]

Whether God Is the Beatitude of Each of the Blessed?

Whether God is the happiness of each of the blessed?

Objection 1: It seems that God is the beatitude of each of the blessed. For God is the supreme good, as was said above (Q. 6, AA. 2, 4). But it is quite impossible that there should be many supreme goods, as also is clear from what has been said above (Q. 11, A. 3). Therefore, since it is of the essence of beatitude that it should be the supreme good, it seems that beatitude is nothing else but God Himself.

Objection 1: It seems like God is the source of happiness for each of the blessed. God is the highest good, as mentioned earlier (Q. 6, AA. 2, 4). But it’s impossible for there to be multiple highest goods, as also stated previously (Q. 11, A. 3). Therefore, since being truly happy means being the highest good, it appears that happiness is nothing other than God Himself.

Obj. 2: Further, beatitude is the last end of the rational nature. But to be the last end of the rational nature belongs only to God. Therefore the beatitude of every blessed is God alone.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, happiness is the ultimate goal of rational beings. However, only God can be the ultimate goal of rational beings. Therefore, the happiness of everyone who is blessed is only found in God.

On the contrary, The beatitude of one is greater than that of another, according to 1 Cor. 15:41: "Star differeth from star in glory." But nothing is greater than God. Therefore beatitude is something different from God.

On the contrary, the happiness of one person is greater than that of another, as stated in 1 Cor. 15:41: "Star differeth from star in glory." But nothing is greater than God. Therefore, happiness is something different from God.

I answer that, The beatitude of an intellectual nature consists in an act of the intellect. In this we may consider two things, namely, the object of the act, which is the thing understood; and the act itself which is to understand. If, then, beatitude be considered on the side of the object, God is the only beatitude; for everyone is blessed from this sole fact, that he understands God, in accordance with the saying of Augustine (Confess. v, 4): "Blessed is he who knoweth Thee, though he know nought else." But as regards the act of understanding, beatitude is a created thing in beatified creatures; but in God, even in this way, it is an uncreated thing.

I respond that, the happiness of an intellectual nature consists in an act of the intellect. In this, we can look at two things: the object of the act, which is the thing being understood, and the act itself, which is the process of understanding. If we consider happiness from the perspective of the object, God is the only source of true happiness; for everyone is blessed simply because they understand God, in line with Augustine's statement (Confess. v, 4): "Blessed is the one who knows You, even if they know nothing else." However, regarding the act of understanding, happiness is a created thing in those who are blessed; but in God, it remains uncreated even in this sense.

Reply Obj. 1: Beatitude, as regards its object, is the supreme good absolutely, but as regards its act, in beatified creatures it is their supreme good, not absolutely, but in that kind of goods which a creature can participate.

Reply Obj. 1: Beatitude, in terms of what it refers to, is the highest good overall, but in terms of its effect, for those who are beatified, it is their highest good, not in an absolute sense, but in the way that a creature can experience good.

Reply Obj. 2: End is twofold, namely, objective and subjective, as the Philosopher says (Greater Ethics i, 3), namely, the "thing itself" and "its use." Thus to a miser the end is money, and its acquisition. Accordingly God is indeed the last end of a rational creature, as the thing itself; but created beatitude is the end, as the use, or rather fruition, of the thing. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The end has two aspects, specifically, objective and subjective, as the Philosopher states (Greater Ethics i, 3), referring to the "thing itself" and "its use." For a miser, the goal is money and how to acquire it. Therefore, God is indeed the ultimate goal for a rational being, as the thing itself; however, created beatitude represents the goal in terms of its use or, more accurately, enjoyment of the thing.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 26, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 26, Art. 4]

Whether All Other Beatitude Is Included in the Beatitude of God?

Whether all other happiness is included in the happiness of God?

Objection 1: It seems that the divine beatitude does not embrace all other beatitudes. For there are some false beatitudes. But nothing false can be in God. Therefore the divine beatitude does not embrace all other beatitudes.

Objection 1: It appears that divine happiness doesn't include all other forms of happiness. Some of these are false forms of happiness. But nothing false can exist in God. Therefore, divine happiness doesn't include all other forms of happiness.

Obj. 2: Further, a certain beatitude, according to some, consists in things corporeal; as in pleasure, riches, and such like. Now none of these have to do with God, since He is incorporeal. Therefore His beatitude does not embrace all other beatitudes.

Obj. 2: Additionally, some believe that a certain happiness comes from physical things, like pleasure, wealth, and similar aspects. However, none of these relate to God, as He is not physical. Therefore, His happiness does not include all other forms of happiness.

On the contrary, Beatitude is a certain perfection. But the divine perfection embraces all other perfection, as was shown above (Q. 4, A. 2). Therefore the divine beatitude embraces all other beatitudes.

On the contrary, Beatitude is a specific kind of perfection. However, divine perfection includes all other forms of perfection, as was previously shown (Q. 4, A. 2). Therefore, divine beatitude includes all other beatitudes.

I answer that, Whatever is desirable in whatsoever beatitude, whether true or false, pre-exists wholly and in a more eminent degree in the divine beatitude. As to contemplative happiness, God possesses a continual and most certain contemplation of Himself and of all things else; and as to that which is active, He has the governance of the whole universe. As to earthly happiness, which consists in delight, riches, power, dignity, and fame, according to Boethius (De Consol. iii, 10), He possesses joy in Himself and all things else for His delight; instead of riches He has that complete self-sufficiency, which is promised by riches; in place of power, He has omnipotence; for dignities, the government of all things; and in place of fame, He possesses the admiration of all creatures.

I respond that, Everything desirable in any kind of happiness, whether real or imagined, already exists completely and to a greater extent in divine happiness. Regarding contemplative joy, God has an ongoing and absolutely certain understanding of Himself and everything else; and concerning active joy, He governs the entire universe. As for earthly happiness, which includes pleasure, wealth, power, status, and fame, according to Boethius (De Consol. iii, 10), He experiences joy in Himself and everything else for His pleasure; instead of wealth, He has total self-sufficiency, which is what wealth promises; in place of power, He has omnipotence; for status, the rule over everything; and in place of fame, He has the admiration of all creatures.

Reply Obj. 1: A particular kind of beatitude is false according as it falls short of the idea of true beatitude; and thus it is not in God. But whatever semblance it has, howsoever slight, of beatitude, the whole of it pre-exists in the divine beatitude.

Reply Obj. 1: A certain type of happiness is considered false because it doesn't align with the concept of true happiness; therefore, it doesn't exist in God. However, whatever tiny resemblance it might have to happiness, all of it is already contained in the divine happiness.

Reply Obj. 2: The good that exists in things corporeal in a corporeal manner, is also in God, but in a spiritual manner.

Reply Obj. 2: The goodness that exists in physical things in a physical way also exists in God, but in a spiritual way.

We have now spoken enough concerning what pertains to the unity of the divine essence. _______________________

We have now discussed enough about what relates to the unity of the divine essence.

TREATISE ON THE MOST HOLY TRINITY (QQ. 27-43) _______________________

TREATISE ON THE MOST HOLY TRINITY (QQ. 27-43) _______________________

QUESTION 27

THE PROCESSION OF THE DIVINE PERSONS
(In Five Articles)

THE PROCESSION OF THE DIVINE PERSONS
(In Five Articles)

Having considered what belongs to the unity of the divine essence, it remains to treat of what belongs to the Trinity of the persons in God. And because the divine Persons are distinguished from each other according to the relations of origin, the order of the doctrine leads us to consider firstly, the question of origin or procession; secondly, the relations of origin; thirdly, the persons.

Having thought about what relates to the unity of the divine essence, we now need to discuss what pertains to the Trinity of the persons in God. Since the divine Persons are distinguished from one another based on their relations of origin, the structure of our discussion will first address the question of origin or procession; second, the relations of origin; and third, the persons.

Concerning procession there are five points of inquiry:

Concerning procession, there are five key points to consider:

(1) Whether there is procession in God?

(1) Is there a procession in God?

(2) Whether any procession in God can be called generation?

(2) Can any procession in God be called generation?

(3) Whether there can be any other procession in God besides generation?

(3) Is there any other process in God besides generation?

(4) Whether that other procession can be called generation?

(4) Can that other procession be called generation?

(5) Whether there are more than two processions in God? _______________________

(5) Are there more than two processions in God? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 27, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 27, Art. 1]

Whether There Is Procession in God?

Whether There Is Procession in God?

Objection 1: It would seem that there cannot be any procession in God. For procession signifies outward movement. But in God there is nothing mobile, nor anything extraneous. Therefore neither is there procession in God.

Objection 1: It seems that there can't be any procession in God. For procession means outward movement. But in God, there is nothing that moves or anything external. Therefore, there is no procession in God.

Obj. 2: Further, everything which proceeds differs from that whence it proceeds. But in God there is no diversity; but supreme simplicity. Therefore in God there is no procession.

Obj. 2: Additionally, everything that comes from something is different from what it comes from. But in God, there is no diversity; only absolute simplicity. Therefore, in God, there is no process of coming forth.

Obj. 3: Further, to proceed from another seems to be against the nature of the first principle. But God is the first principle, as shown above (Q. 2, A. 3). Therefore in God there is no procession.

Obj. 3: Additionally, to derive from something else seems to contradict the nature of the first principle. But God is the first principle, as explained above (Q. 2, A. 3). Therefore, there is no procession in God.

On the contrary, Our Lord says, "From God I proceeded" (John 8:42).

On the contrary, Our Lord says, "I came from God" (John 8:42).

I answer that, Divine Scripture uses, in relation to God, names which signify procession. This procession has been differently understood. Some have understood it in the sense of an effect, proceeding from its cause; so Arius took it, saying that the Son proceeds from the Father as His primary creature, and that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father and the Son as the creature of both. In this sense neither the Son nor the Holy Ghost would be true God: and this is contrary to what is said of the Son, "That . . . we may be in His true Son. This is true God" (1 John 5:20). Of the Holy Ghost it is also said, "Know you not that your members are the temple of the Holy Ghost?" (1 Cor. 6:19). Now, to have a temple is God's prerogative. Others take this procession to mean the cause proceeding to the effect, as moving it, or impressing its own likeness on it; in which sense it was understood by Sabellius, who said that God the Father is called Son in assuming flesh from the Virgin, and that the Father also is called Holy Ghost in sanctifying the rational creature, and moving it to life. The words of the Lord contradict such a meaning, when He speaks of Himself, "The Son cannot of Himself do anything" (John 5:19); while many other passages show the same, whereby we know that the Father is not the Son. Careful examination shows that both of these opinions take procession as meaning an outward act; hence neither of them affirms procession as existing in God Himself; whereas, since procession always supposes action, and as there is an outward procession corresponding to the act tending to external matter, so there must be an inward procession corresponding to the act remaining within the agent. This applies most conspicuously to the intellect, the action of which remains in the intelligent agent. For whenever we understand, by the very fact of understanding there proceeds something within us, which is a conception of the object understood, a conception issuing from our intellectual power and proceeding from our knowledge of that object. This conception is signified by the spoken word; and it is called the word of the heart signified by the word of the voice.

I respond that, the Scriptures refer to God using names that imply procession. This procession has been interpreted in different ways. Some interpret it as an effect coming from its cause; Arius understood it this way, claiming that the Son comes from the Father as His first creation and that the Holy Spirit comes from both the Father and the Son as their creation. In this perspective, neither the Son nor the Holy Spirit would be considered true God, which contradicts what is said about the Son: "That ... we may be in His true Son. This is true God" (1 John 5:20). It is also said about the Holy Spirit, "Don't you know that your bodies are the temple of the Holy Spirit?" (1 Cor. 6:19). To have a temple is a right of God. Others believe this procession refers to the cause leading to the effect by moving it or impressing its likeness on it; this was the view of Sabellius, who argued that God the Father is called the Son when He takes on flesh from the Virgin and that the Father is also called the Holy Spirit when He sanctifies the rational creature and gives it life. The Lord's words contradict this interpretation when He says, "The Son can do nothing by Himself" (John 5:19); many other passages support this and show that the Father is not the Son. A careful look reveals that both views regard procession as an external act, thus neither acknowledges that procession exists within God Himself. Since procession always involves action, just as there is an outward procession corresponding to an act directed toward external matter, there must also be an inward procession corresponding to an act that remains within the agent. This is especially true for the intellect, whose action stays with the intelligent agent. Whenever we understand something, there arises within us a concept of the object understood, a conception originating from our intellectual ability and coming from our knowledge of that object. This conception is expressed through spoken words; it is called the word of the heart indicated by the word of the voice.

As God is above all things, we should understand what is said of God, not according to the mode of the lowest creatures, namely bodies, but from the similitude of the highest creatures, the intellectual substances; while even the similitudes derived from these fall short in the representation of divine objects. Procession, therefore, is not to be understood from what it is in bodies, either according to local movement or by way of a cause proceeding forth to its exterior effect, as, for instance, like heat from the agent to the thing made hot. Rather it is to be understood by way of an intelligible emanation, for example, of the intelligible word which proceeds from the speaker, yet remains in him. In that sense the Catholic Faith understands procession as existing in God.

As God is above everything, we should understand what is said about God not by the way of the lowest creatures, like physical bodies, but through the similarities found in the highest creatures, the intellectual beings; even then, those comparisons still don't fully capture divine realities. So, procession shouldn’t be understood in terms of what it means in physical bodies, whether as a local movement or as a cause producing an external effect, like heat moving from a source to the object being heated. Instead, it should be seen as an intelligible emanation, similar to an intelligible word that comes from the speaker yet remains within them. In this way, the Catholic Faith sees procession as existing within God.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection comes from the idea of procession in the sense of local motion, or of an action tending to external matter, or to an exterior effect; which kind of procession does not exist in God, as we have explained.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection arises from the concept of procession as local motion or as an action directed toward external matter or an outside effect. However, this kind of procession does not exist in God, as we have explained.

Reply Obj. 2: Whatever proceeds by way of outward procession is necessarily distinct from the source whence it proceeds, whereas, whatever proceeds within by an intelligible procession is not necessarily distinct; indeed, the more perfectly it proceeds, the more closely it is one with the source whence it proceeds. For it is clear that the more a thing is understood, the more closely is the intellectual conception joined and united to the intelligent agent; since the intellect by the very act of understanding is made one with the object understood. Thus, as the divine intelligence is the very supreme perfection of God (Q. 14, A. 2), the divine Word is of necessity perfectly one with the source whence He proceeds, without any kind of diversity.

Reply Obj. 2: Anything that comes from an external source is necessarily separate from that source. In contrast, anything that comes from an internal understanding isn’t necessarily separate; in fact, the more perfectly it originates, the closer it is to the source it comes from. It’s clear that the more we understand something, the more our intellectual concept is connected and unified with the thinker, since understanding makes the mind one with what it comprehends. Therefore, since divine intelligence represents the absolute perfection of God (Q. 14, A. 2), the divine Word is necessarily fully united with the source from which it comes, without any kind of distinction.

Reply Obj. 3: To proceed from a principle, so as to be something outside and distinct from that principle, is irreconcilable with the idea of a first principle; whereas an intimate and uniform procession by way of an intelligible act is included in the idea of a first principle. For when we call the builder the principle of the house, in the idea of such a principle is included that of his art; and it would be included in the idea of the first principle were the builder the first principle of the house. God, Who is the first principle of all things, may be compared to things created as the architect is to things designed. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: To take a principle and create something that is separate and different from it is inconsistent with the idea of a first principle; however, a close and consistent unfolding through an intelligible act is part of what a first principle means. For example, when we say the builder is the principle of the house, the idea of that principle includes his craft; this would also be part of the idea of the first principle if the builder were the first principle of the house. God, as the first principle of everything, can be compared to created things in the same way that an architect is to the things they design.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 27, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 27, Art. 2]

Whether Any Procession in God Can Be Called Generation?

Whether any procession in God can be called generation?

Objection 1: It would seem that no procession in God can be called generation. For generation is change from non-existence to existence, and is opposed to corruption; while matter is the subject of both. Nothing of all this belongs to God. Therefore generation cannot exist in God.

Objection 1: It seems that no action in God can be called generation. Generation means changing from non-existence to existence, and it's the opposite of corruption; while matter is the basis of both. None of this applies to God. So, generation can't exist in God.

Obj. 2: Further, procession exists in God, according to an intelligible mode, as above explained (A. 1). But such a process is not called generation in us; therefore neither is it to be so called in God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, procession exists in God in an intelligible way, as explained above (A. 1). However, this type of process isn't referred to as generation in our case; thus, it shouldn't be called that in God either.

Obj. 3: Further, anything that is generated derives existence from its generator. Therefore such existence is a derived existence. But no derived existence can be a self-subsistence. Therefore, since the divine existence is self-subsisting (Q. 3, A. 4), it follows that no generated existence can be the divine existence. Therefore there is no generation in God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, anything that is created gets its existence from its creator. So, this existence is derived. However, no derived existence can exist on its own. Therefore, since divine existence stands on its own (Q. 3, A. 4), it follows that no created existence can be divine existence. Therefore, there's no creation in God.

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 2:7): "This day have I begotten Thee."

On the contrary, it is said (Ps. 2:7): "Today I have become your father."

I answer that, The procession of the Word in God is called generation. In proof whereof we must observe that generation has a twofold meaning: one common to everything subject to generation and corruption; in which sense generation is nothing but change from non-existence to existence. In another sense it is proper and belongs to living things; in which sense it signifies the origin of a living being from a conjoined living principle; and this is properly called birth. Not everything of that kind, however, is called begotten; but, strictly speaking, only what proceeds by way of similitude. Hence a hair has not the aspect of generation and sonship, but only that has which proceeds by way of a similitude. Nor will any likeness suffice; for a worm which is generated from animals has not the aspect of generation and sonship, although it has a generic similitude; for this kind of generation requires that there should be a procession by way of similitude in the same specific nature; as a man proceeds from a man, and a horse from a horse. So in living things, which proceed from potential to actual life, such as men and animals, generation includes both these kinds of generation. But if there is a being whose life does not proceed from potentiality to act, procession (if found in such a being) excludes entirely the first kind of generation; whereas it may have that kind of generation which belongs to living things. So in this manner the procession of the Word in God is generation; for He proceeds by way of intelligible action, which is a vital operation:—from a conjoined principle (as above described):—by way of similitude, inasmuch as the concept of the intellect is a likeness of the object conceived:—and exists in the same nature, because in God the act of understanding and His existence are the same, as shown above (Q. 14, A. 4). Hence the procession of the Word in God is called generation; and the Word Himself proceeding is called the Son.

I answer that, The procession of the Word in God is called generation. To support this, we need to note that generation has two meanings: one that applies to everything that is created and destroyed, where generation simply means a change from non-existence to existence. The other meaning is specific to living things, where it refers to the origin of a living being from a combined living principle; this is what we call birth. However, not everything of this type is called begotten; strictly speaking, only what comes forth in a way of similarity is considered so. For example, a hair does not represent generation and sonship; only that which comes forth in a similar way does. Furthermore, mere similarity isn’t enough; for instance, a worm that arises from animals does not represent generation and sonship, even though it has a general similarity, because this type of generation requires a procession in the same specific nature: a man comes from a man, and a horse comes from a horse. Thus, in living things, which transition from potential to actual life, like humans and animals, generation encompasses both types of generation. However, if there is a being whose life does not evolve from potentiality to actuality, then any procession in that being completely excludes the first kind of generation; yet it may still have the type of generation relevant to living entities. Therefore, in this way, the procession of the Word in God is referred to as generation; for He proceeds through an intelligible action, which is a vital operation:—from a united principle (as described above):—in a way of similarity, since the concept of the intellect is a likeness of the object conceived:—and exists in the same nature, because in God the act of understanding and His existence are one and the same, as previously shown (Q. 14, A. 4). Hence, the procession of the Word in God is called generation; and the Word itself that proceeds is called the Son.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection is based on the idea of generation in the first sense, importing the issuing forth from potentiality to act; in which sense it is not found in God.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection is based on the concept of generation in the first sense, referring to the transition from potential to actual; in this sense, it is not applicable to God.

Reply Obj. 2: The act of human understanding in ourselves is not the substance itself of the intellect; hence the word which proceeds within us by intelligible operation is not of the same nature as the source whence it proceeds; so the idea of generation cannot be properly and fully applied to it. But the divine act of intelligence is the very substance itself of the one who understands (Q. 14, A. 4). The Word proceeding therefore proceeds as subsisting in the same nature; and so is properly called begotten, and Son. Hence Scripture employs terms which denote generation of living things in order to signify the procession of the divine Wisdom, namely, conception and birth; as is declared in the person of the divine Wisdom, "The depths were not as yet, and I was already conceived; before the hills, I was brought forth." (Prov. 8:24). In our way of understanding we use the word "conception" in order to signify that in the word of our intellect is found the likeness of the thing understood, although there be no identity of nature.

Reply Obj. 2: The act of human understanding within us is not the same as the substance of the intellect itself; therefore, the word that arises within us through understanding is not of the same kind as the source it comes from; so the idea of generation can't be fully and properly applied to it. However, the divine act of intelligence is the very essence of the one who understands (Q. 14, A. 4). The Word that proceeds, therefore, exists in the same nature; so it is properly called begotten and Son. For this reason, Scripture uses terms that refer to the generation of living beings to indicate the procession of divine Wisdom, namely, conception and birth; as stated in the context of divine Wisdom, "The depths were not yet, and I was already conceived; before the hills, I was brought forth." (Prov. 8:24). In our understanding, we use the word "conception" to mean that within the word of our intellect exists a likeness of the thing understood, even though there is no identity of nature.

Reply Obj. 3: Not everything derived from another has existence in another subject; otherwise we could not say that the whole substance of created being comes from God, since there is no subject that could receive the whole substance. So, then, what is generated in God receives its existence from the generator, not as though that existence were received into matter or into a subject (which would conflict with the divine self-subsistence); but when we speak of His existence as received, we mean that He Who proceeds receives divine existence from another; not, however, as if He were other from the divine nature. For in the perfection itself of the divine existence are contained both the Word intelligibly proceeding and the principle of the Word, with whatever belongs to His perfection (Q. 4, A. 2). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Not everything that comes from something else exists in another subject; otherwise, we couldn't say that the entire substance of created beings comes from God, since there isn't a subject that could hold that whole substance. Therefore, what is generated in God gets its existence from the generator, but not as if that existence were received into matter or into a subject (which would contradict divine self-sufficiency); when we talk about His existence as received, we mean that He Who proceeds receives divine existence from another; however, this doesn't imply that He is separate from the divine nature. For within the perfection of divine existence are included both the Word that proceeds intelligibly and the principle of the Word, along with everything related to His perfection (Q. 4, A. 2).

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 27, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 27, Art. 3]

Whether Any Other Procession Exists in God Besides That of the Word?

Whether there is any other procession in God apart from that of the Word?

Objection 1: It would seem that no other procession exists in God besides the generation of the Word. Because, for whatever reason we admit another procession, we should be led to admit yet another, and so on to infinitude; which cannot be. Therefore we must stop at the first, and hold that there exists only one procession in God.

Objection 1: It seems that there’s no other procession in God besides the generation of the Word. Because if we accept the existence of another procession for any reason, we would have to accept yet another, and so on indefinitely; which is not possible. Therefore, we must stop at the first and believe that there is only one procession in God.

Obj. 2: Further, every nature possesses but one mode of self-communication; because operations derive unity and diversity from their terms. But procession in God is only by way of communication of the divine nature. Therefore, as there is only one divine nature (Q. 11, A. 4), it follows that only one procession exists in God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, each nature has only one way of self-communication because actions gain unity and diversity from their terms. However, the way God communicates is solely through the sharing of the divine nature. Since there is only one divine nature (Q. 11, A. 4), it follows that there is only one procession in God.

Obj. 3: Further, if any other procession but the intelligible procession of the Word existed in God, it could only be the procession of love, which is by the operation of the will. But such a procession is identified with the intelligible procession of the intellect, inasmuch as the will in God is the same as His intellect (Q. 19, A. 1). Therefore in God there is no other procession but the procession of the Word.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if there were any other procession besides the understandable procession of the Word in God, it would only be the procession of love, which comes from the operation of the will. However, this kind of procession is the same as the understandable procession of the intellect because in God, the will is the same as His intellect (Q. 19, A. 1). Therefore, in God, there is no other procession except for the procession of the Word.

On the contrary, The Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father (John 15:26); and He is distinct from the Son, according to the words, "I will ask My Father, and He will give you another Paraclete" (John 14:16). Therefore in God another procession exists besides the procession of the Word.

On the contrary, The Holy Spirit comes from the Father (John 15:26); and He is separate from the Son, as stated in the words, "I will ask My Father, and He will give you another Helper" (John 14:16). Therefore, in God, there is another procession in addition to the procession of the Word.

I answer that, There are two processions in God; the procession of the Word, and another.

I answer that, There are two processions in God: the procession of the Word and another one.

In evidence whereof we must observe that procession exists in God, only according to an action which does not tend to anything external, but remains in the agent itself. Such an action in an intellectual nature is that of the intellect, and of the will. The procession of the Word is by way of an intelligible operation. The operation of the will within ourselves involves also another procession, that of love, whereby the object loved is in the lover; as, by the conception of the word, the object spoken of or understood is in the intelligent agent. Hence, besides the procession of the Word in God, there exists in Him another procession called the procession of love.

In support of this, we need to understand that procession exists in God, but only as an action that doesn’t reach out to anything outside of itself, instead staying within the agent. In an intellectual being, this action is that of the intellect and the will. The procession of the Word happens through an intelligible operation. The operation of the will within us also involves another procession, that of love, in which the object of love exists within the lover; similarly, through the conception of the word, the object being spoken about or understood exists in the intelligent agent. Therefore, along with the procession of the Word in God, there is also another procession called the procession of love.

Reply Obj. 1: There is no need to go on to infinitude in the divine processions; for the procession which is accomplished within the agent in an intellectual nature terminates in the procession of the will.

Reply Obj. 1: There’s no need to extend infinitely in the divine processions; because the procession that happens within the agent in an intellectual nature ends in the procession of the will.

Reply Obj. 2: All that exists in God, is God (Q. 3, AA. 3, 4); whereas the same does not apply to others. Therefore the divine nature is communicated by every procession which is not outward, and this does not apply to other natures.

Reply Obj. 2: Everything that exists in God is God (Q. 3, AA. 3, 4); however, this is not true for other beings. Therefore, the divine nature is transferred through every process that isn’t external, and this does not apply to other natures.

Reply Obj. 3: Though will and intellect are not diverse in God, nevertheless the nature of will and intellect requires the processions belonging to each of them to exist in a certain order. For the procession of love occurs in due order as regards the procession of the Word; since nothing can be loved by the will unless it is conceived in the intellect. So as there exists a certain order of the Word to the principle whence He proceeds, although in God the substance of the intellect and its concept are the same; so, although in God the will and the intellect are the same, still, inasmuch as love requires by its very nature that it proceed only from the concept of the intellect, there is a distinction of order between the procession of love and the procession of the Word in God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Although will and intellect are not separate in God, the nature of will and intellect still requires their activities to follow a specific order. The process of love comes after the process of the Word because the will can only love what it understands through the intellect. Just as there is a specific relationship between the Word and the principle from which He comes, even though in God the substance of the intellect and its concept are the same; in the same way, although the will and intellect are united in God, love inherently requires that it comes from the understanding of the intellect. Therefore, there is a distinct order between the process of love and the process of the Word in God.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 27, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 27, Art. 4]

Whether the Procession of Love in God Is Generation?

Whether the Procession of Love in God Is Generation?

Objection 1: It would seem that the procession of love in God is generation. For what proceeds by way of likeness of nature among living things is said to be generated and born. But what proceeds in God by way of love proceeds in the likeness of nature; otherwise it would be extraneous to the divine nature, and would be an external procession. Therefore what proceeds in God by way of love, proceeds as generated and born.

Objection 1: It seems that love in God is like a form of generation. Whatever comes from a similarity of nature among living beings is considered to be generated and born. Since what comes from love in God reflects a similarity of nature, it wouldn’t be separate from the divine nature; otherwise, it would be an external process. Therefore, what comes from love in God is generated and born.

Obj. 2: Further, as similitude is of the nature of the word, so does it belong to love. Hence it is said, that "every beast loves its like" (Ecclus. 13:19). Therefore if the Word is begotten and born by way of likeness, it seems becoming that love should proceed by way of generation.

Obj. 2: Additionally, just as similarity is part of the nature of the word, it also applies to love. That’s why it’s said, "every animal loves its kind" (Ecclus. 13:19). Therefore, if the Word is generated and born through likeness, it makes sense that love should also come about through generation.

Obj. 3: Further, what is not in any species is not in the genus. So if there is a procession of love in God, there ought to be some special name besides this common name of procession. But no other name is applicable but generation. Therefore the procession of love in God is generation.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if something is not found in any specific type, it cannot be found in the general category. So if there is a process of love in God, there should be a unique name in addition to the general term of process. However, no other name fits except for generation. Therefore, the process of love in God is generation.

On the contrary, Were this true, it would follow that the Holy Ghost Who proceeds as love, would proceed as begotten; which is against the statement of Athanasius: "The Holy Ghost is from the Father and the Son, not made, nor begotten, but proceeding."

On the contrary, If this were true, it would mean that the Holy Spirit, who comes from love, would come as if born; which goes against what Athanasius said: "The Holy Spirit is from the Father and the Son, not created, nor born, but proceeding."

I answer that, The procession of love in God ought not to be called generation. In evidence whereof we must consider that the intellect and the will differ in this respect, that the intellect is made actual by the object understood residing according to its own likeness in the intellect; whereas the will is made actual, not by any similitude of the object willed within it, but by its having a certain inclination to the thing willed. Thus the procession of the intellect is by way of similitude, and is called generation, because every generator begets its own like; whereas the procession of the will is not by way of similitude, but rather by way of impulse and movement towards an object.

I answer that, The flow of love in God shouldn't be referred to as generation. To support this, we need to consider that the intellect and the will are different in that the intellect becomes actualized by the object it understands, which exists in a way that reflects its likeness within the intellect. In contrast, the will becomes actualized not by any similarity of the object it desires within it, but by having a certain inclination towards the desired object. Therefore, the process of the intellect is about similarity and is called generation, because every generator produces something similar to itself; while the process of the will is not about similarity, but more about impulse and movement towards an object.

So what proceeds in God by way of love, does not proceed as begotten, or as son, but proceeds rather as spirit; which name expresses a certain vital movement and impulse, accordingly as anyone is described as moved or impelled by love to perform an action.

So what comes from God through love doesn't come as begotten or as a son, but rather comes as spirit; this term signifies a certain vital movement and impulse, as someone is described as being moved or driven by love to take action.

Reply Obj. 1: All that exists in God is one with the divine nature. Hence the proper notion of this or that procession, by which one procession is distinguished from another, cannot be on the part of this unity: but the proper notion of this or that procession must be taken from the order of one procession to another; which order is derived from the nature of the will and intellect. Hence, each procession in God takes its name from the proper notion of will and intellect; the name being imposed to signify what its nature really is; and so it is that the Person proceeding as love receives the divine nature, but is not said to be born.

Reply Obj. 1: Everything that exists in God is unified with the divine nature. Therefore, the correct understanding of this or that process, which allows us to distinguish one process from another, cannot come from this unity. Instead, the correct understanding of this or that process should be based on the relationship between one process and another, which is determined by the nature of the will and intellect. As a result, each process in God gets its name from the specific aspects of will and intellect; this naming is meant to reflect what it truly is in nature. Thus, the Person that proceeds as love receives the divine nature but is not said to be born.

Reply Obj. 2: Likeness belongs in a different way to the word and to love. It belongs to the word as being the likeness of the object understood, as the thing generated is the likeness of the generator; but it belongs to love, not as though love itself were a likeness, but because likeness is the principle of loving. Thus it does not follow that love is begotten, but that the one begotten is the principle of love.

Reply Obj. 2: Likeness is related to the word and to love in different ways. It relates to the word as the likeness of the object being understood, similar to how a created thing is the likeness of its creator; but with love, it's not that love itself is a likeness, but rather that likeness is the basis of loving. Therefore, it doesn't mean that love is produced; instead, the one produced is the basis of love.

Reply Obj. 3: We can name God only from creatures (Q. 13, A. 1). As in creatures generation is the only principle of communication of nature, procession in God has no proper or special name, except that of generation. Hence the procession which is not generation has remained without a special name; but it can be called spiration, as it is the procession of the Spirit. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: We can only refer to God using terms from creation (Q. 13, A. 1). Since in creation generation is the only principle for communicating nature, the process in God doesn't have a specific name other than generation. Therefore, the process that isn't generation lacks a specific name, but it can be called spiration, as it is the process of the Spirit.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 27, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 27, Art. 5]

Whether There Are More Than Two Processions in God?

Whether There Are More Than Two Processions in God?

Objection 1: It would seem that there are more than two processions in God. As knowledge and will are attributed to God, so is power. Therefore, if two processions exist in God, of intellect and will, it seems that there must also be a third procession of power.

Objection 1: It seems that there are more than two processions in God. Just as knowledge and will are assigned to God, so is power. Therefore, if there are two processions in God—of intellect and will—it seems that there must also be a third procession of power.

Obj. 2: Further, goodness seems to be the greatest principle of procession, since goodness is diffusive of itself. Therefore there must be a procession of goodness in God.

Obj. 2: Moreover, goodness appears to be the main principle of emergence, as goodness naturally spreads itself. Thus, there must be a flow of goodness within God.

Obj. 3: Further, in God there is greater power of fecundity than in us. But in us there is not only one procession of the word, but there are many: for in us from one word proceeds another; and also from one love proceeds another. Therefore in God there are more than two processions.

Obj. 3: Additionally, God has a greater power of creativity than we do. But in us, there isn't just one expression of the word; there are many: from one word comes another, and from one love comes another. Therefore, in God, there are more than two expressions.

On the contrary, In God there are not more than two who proceed—the Son and the Holy Ghost. Therefore there are in Him but two processions.

On the contrary, In God there are only two who proceed—the Son and the Holy Spirit. Therefore, there are in Him only two processions.

I answer that, The divine processions can be derived only from the actions which remain within the agent. In a nature which is intellectual, and in the divine nature these actions are two, the acts of intelligence and of will. The act of sensation, which also appears to be an operation within the agent, takes place outside the intellectual nature, nor can it be reckoned as wholly removed from the sphere of external actions; for the act of sensation is perfected by the action of the sensible object upon sense. It follows that no other procession is possible in God but the procession of the Word, and of Love.

I answer that, The divine processions can only come from actions that remain within the agent. In an intellectual nature, especially in the divine nature, these actions are two: the acts of understanding and will. The act of sensation, which also seems to be an operation within the agent, actually occurs outside of the intellectual nature, and it can't be considered entirely separate from external actions; because the act of sensation is completed by the action of the sensible object on the senses. This means that no other procession is possible in God besides the procession of the Word and of Love.

Reply Obj. 1: Power is the principle whereby one thing acts on another. Hence it is that external action points to power. Thus the divine power does not imply the procession of a divine person; but is indicated by the procession therefrom of creatures.

Reply Obj. 1: Power is the principle that allows one thing to influence another. So, external action shows the presence of power. Therefore, divine power doesn’t mean the emergence of a divine person; rather, it’s shown by the creation of creatures that come from it.

Reply Obj. 2: As Boethius says (De Hebdom.), goodness belongs to the essence and not to the operation, unless considered as the object of the will.

Reply Obj. 2: As Boethius says (De Hebdom.), goodness is part of the essence and not part of the action, unless viewed as the goal of the will.

Thus, as the divine processions must be denominated from certain actions; no other processions can be understood in God according to goodness and the like attributes except those of the Word and of love, according as God understands and loves His own essence, truth and goodness.

Thus, since the divine processions must be defined by certain actions, no other processions in God can be understood in terms of goodness and similar attributes except those of the Word and of love, as God understands and loves His own essence, truth, and goodness.

Reply Obj. 3: As above explained (Q. 14, A. 5; Q. 19, A. 5), God understands all things by one simple act; and by one act also He wills all things. Hence there cannot exist in Him a procession of Word from Word, nor of Love from Love: for there is in Him only one perfect Word, and one perfect Love; thereby being manifested His perfect fecundity. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: As explained above (Q. 14, A. 5; Q. 19, A. 5), God understands everything through a single simple act; and through one act, He also wills everything. Therefore, there can’t be a procession of Word from Word or of Love from Love in Him: because in Him, there is only one perfect Word and one perfect Love, which shows His perfect fruitfulness.

QUESTION 28

THE DIVINE RELATIONS
(In Four Articles)

THE DIVINE RELATIONSHIPS
(In Four Articles)

The divine relations are next to be considered, in four points of inquiry:

The divine relationships are next to be examined, focusing on four key points of inquiry:

(1) Whether there are real relations in God?

(1) Are there real relationships in God?

(2) Whether those relations are the divine essence itself, or are extrinsic to it?

(2) Are those relationships the divine essence itself, or are they separate from it?

(3) Whether in God there can be several relations distinct from each other?

(3) Can there be several distinct relations within God?

(4) The number of these relations. _______________________

(4) The number of these relationships. _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 28, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 28, Art. 1]

Whether There Are Real Relations in God?

Whether There Are Real Relations in God?

Objection 1: It would seem that there are no real relations in God. For Boethius says (De Trin. iv), "All possible predicaments used as regards the Godhead refer to the substance; for nothing can be predicated relatively." But whatever really exists in God can be predicated of Him. Therefore no real relation exists in God.

Objection 1: It seems that there are no real relationships in God. For Boethius says (De Trin. iv), "All possible categories concerning the Godhead refer to the substance; for nothing can be described relatively." But anything that truly exists in God can be described in relation to Him. Therefore, no real relationship exists in God.

Obj. 2: Further, Boethius says (De Trin. iv) that, "Relation in the Trinity of the Father to the Son, and of both to the Holy Ghost, is the relation of the same to the same." But a relation of this kind is only a logical one; for every real relation requires and implies in reality two terms. Therefore the divine relations are not real relations, but are formed only by the mind.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Boethius states (De Trin. iv) that, "The relationship within the Trinity of the Father to the Son, and of both to the Holy Spirit, is the relationship of the same to the same." However, this kind of relationship is purely logical; because every true relationship necessitates and implies two actual entities. Thus, the divine relationships are not real relationships, but are only constructed by the mind.

Obj. 3: Further, the relation of paternity is the relation of a principle. But to say that God is the principle of creatures does not import any real relation, but only a logical one. Therefore paternity in God is not a real relation; while the same applies for the same reason to the other relations in God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the relationship of fatherhood is a kind of principle. However, saying that God is the principle of creatures doesn't imply a real relationship, but only a logical one. Therefore, fatherhood in God isn't a real relationship; the same reasoning applies to the other relationships in God.

Obj. 4: Further, the divine generation proceeds by way of an intelligible word. But the relations following upon the operation of the intellect are logical relations. Therefore paternity and filiation in God, consequent upon generation, are only logical relations.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, divine generation happens through an understandable word. The relationships that come from the workings of the intellect are logical relationships. Thus, paternity and filiation in God, resulting from generation, are merely logical relationships.

On the contrary, The Father is denominated only from paternity; and the Son only from filiation. Therefore, if no real paternity or filiation existed in God, it would follow that God is not really Father or Son, but only in our manner of understanding; and this is the Sabellian heresy.

On the contrary, the Father is called that only because of fatherhood; and the Son is called that only because of sonship. So, if there were no actual fatherhood or sonship in God, it would mean that God isn't truly Father or Son, but just in the way we understand it; and this is the Sabellian heresy.

I answer that, relations exist in God really; in proof whereof we may consider that in relations alone is found something which is only in the apprehension and not in reality. This is not found in any other genus; forasmuch as other genera, as quantity and quality, in their strict and proper meaning, signify something inherent in a subject. But relation in its own proper meaning signifies only what refers to another. Such regard to another exists sometimes in the nature of things, as in those things which by their own very nature are ordered to each other, and have a mutual inclination; and such relations are necessarily real relations; as in a heavy body is found an inclination and order to the centre; and hence there exists in the heavy body a certain respect in regard to the centre and the same applies to other things. Sometimes, however, this regard to another, signified by relation, is to be found only in the apprehension of reason comparing one thing to another, and this is a logical relation only; as, for instance, when reason compares man to animal as the species to the genus. But when something proceeds from a principle of the same nature, then both the one proceeding and the source of procession, agree in the same order; and then they have real relations to each other. Therefore as the divine processions are in the identity of the same nature, as above explained (Q. 27, AA. 2, 4), these relations, according to the divine processions, are necessarily real relations.

I respond that, relations exist in God in a real way; to prove this, we can see that relations are the only concepts that exist solely in our understanding and not in reality. This is not true for any other category; other categories, like quantity and quality, in their strict sense, indicate something that is inherent to a subject. However, relation, in its proper sense, signifies only what refers to something else. This reference to another sometimes exists in the nature of things, as in those things that are, by their nature, oriented toward each other and have a mutual inclination; these types of relations are necessarily real relations. For example, a heavy object has an inclination and order toward the center, which means there exists some connection between the heavy object and the center, and this applies to other things as well. However, sometimes this reference to another, indicated by relation, exists only in our reasoning when we compare one thing to another, which is just a logical relation; for instance, when we compare a human to an animal as a species to a genus. But when something arises from a principle of the same nature, then both the source and the thing that emerges from it are aligned in the same order; thus, they have real relations to each other. Therefore, since the divine processions share the same nature, as explained earlier (Q. 27, AA. 2, 4), these relations, according to the divine processions, are necessarily real relations.

Reply Obj. 1: Relationship is not predicated of God according to its proper and formal meaning, that is to say, in so far as its proper meaning denotes comparison to that in which relation is inherent, but only as denoting regard to another. Nevertheless Boethius did not wish to exclude relation in God; but he wished to show that it was not to be predicated of Him as regards the mode of inherence in Himself in the strict meaning of relation; but rather by way of relation to another.

Reply Obj. 1: Relationship doesn't apply to God in its proper and formal sense, meaning that it doesn't refer to a comparison with something that inherently has a relation. Instead, it only indicates a consideration of another. However, Boethius didn't intend to completely dismiss the idea of relationship in God; he aimed to clarify that it shouldn't be attributed to Him based on how it exists within Himself in the strictest sense of the term, but rather in relation to something else.

Reply Obj. 2: The relation signified by the term "the same" is a logical relation only, if in regard to absolutely the same thing; because such a relation can exist only in a certain order observed by reason as regards the order of anything to itself, according to some two aspects thereof. The case is otherwise, however, when things are called the same, not numerically, but generically or specifically. Thus Boethius likens the divine relations to a relation of identity, not in every respect, but only as regards the fact that the substance is not diversified by these relations, as neither is it by relation of identity.

Reply Obj. 2: The relationship indicated by the term "the same" is a logical relationship only when it refers to exactly the same thing; because such a relationship can only exist in a specific order recognized by reason in relation to anything as it pertains to itself, according to some two aspects of it. However, things that are referred to as the same, not in a numerical sense, but generically or specifically, are different. Thus, Boethius compares divine relations to a relationship of identity, not in every way, but only in the sense that the substance is not differentiated by these relations, just as it isn't by the relationship of identity.

Reply Obj. 3: As the creature proceeds from God in diversity of nature, God is outside the order of the whole creation, nor does any relation to the creature arise from His nature; for He does not produce the creature by necessity of His nature, but by His intellect and will, as is above explained (Q. 14, AA. 3, 4; Q. 19, A. 8). Therefore there is no real relation in God to the creature; whereas in creatures there is a real relation to God; because creatures are contained under the divine order, and their very nature entails dependence on God. On the other hand, the divine processions are in one and the same nature. Hence no parallel exists.

Reply Obj. 3: Since the creature comes from God with a variety of natures, God exists beyond the entirety of creation, and no relationship to the creature comes from His nature. He doesn’t create the creature out of a necessity of His nature but through His intellect and will, as explained above (Q. 14, AA. 3, 4; Q. 19, A. 8). Therefore, there isn’t a real relationship in God towards the creature; however, creatures do have a real relationship to God because they fall under the divine order, and their very nature implies dependence on God. On the other hand, the divine processions occur within one and the same nature. Thus, no comparison can be made.

Reply Obj. 4: Relations which result from the mental operation alone in the objects understood are logical relations only, inasmuch as reason observes them as existing between two objects perceived by the mind. Those relations, however, which follow the operation of the intellect, and which exist between the word intellectually proceeding and the source whence it proceeds, are not logical relations only, but are real relations; inasmuch as the intellect and the reason are real things, and are really related to that which proceeds from them intelligibly; as a corporeal thing is related to that which proceeds from it corporeally. Thus paternity and filiation are real relations in God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Relationships that arise solely from mental processes in the objects we understand are just logical relationships, as reason recognizes them as existing between two objects perceived by the mind. However, the relationships that follow the operation of the intellect, and that exist between the word intellectually derived and the source it comes from, are more than just logical relationships; they are real relationships. This is because the intellect and reason are real entities, and they are genuinely related to what arises from them in an intelligible way, just as a physical object is related to what comes from it physically. Therefore, paternity and filiation are real relationships in God.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 28, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 28, Art. 2]

Whether Relation in God Is the Same As His Essence?

Whether the relationship in God is the same as His essence?

Objection 1: It would seem that the divine relation is not the same as the divine essence. For Augustine says (De Trin. v) that "not all that is said of God is said of His substance, for we say some things relatively, as Father in respect of the Son: but such things do not refer to the substance." Therefore the relation is not the divine essence.

Objection 1: It seems that the divine relation is not the same as the divine essence. Augustine states (De Trin. v) that "not everything said about God refers to His substance; some things are said relatively, like Father in relation to the Son: but these do not pertain to the substance." Therefore, the relation is not the divine essence.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Trin. vii) that, "every relative expression is something besides the relation expressed, as master is a man, and slave is a man." Therefore, if relations exist in God, there must be something else besides relation in God. This can only be His essence. Therefore essence differs from relation.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Augustine says (De Trin. vii) that, "every relative expression is something in addition to the relation expressed, such as master is a man, and slave is a man." Therefore, if relations exist in God, there must be something else in God besides the relation. This can only be His essence. Thus, essence is distinct from relation.

Obj. 3: Further, the essence of relation is the being referred to another, as the Philosopher says (Praedic. v). So if relation is the divine essence, it follows that the divine essence is essentially itself a relation to something else; whereas this is repugnant to the perfection of the divine essence, which is supremely absolute and self-subsisting (Q. 3, A. 4). Therefore relation is not the divine essence.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the core of relation is being connected to another, as the Philosopher explains (Praedic. v). So if relation is part of the divine essence, it implies that the divine essence is fundamentally a relation to something else; however, this contradicts the perfection of the divine essence, which is completely absolute and self-sufficient (Q. 3, A. 4). Therefore, relation is not the divine essence.

On the contrary, Everything which is not the divine essence is a creature. But relation really belongs to God; and if it is not the divine essence, it is a creature; and it cannot claim the adoration of latria; contrary to what is sung in the Preface: "Let us adore the distinction of the Persons, and the equality of their Majesty."

On the contrary, Everything that isn't the divine essence is a creature. But relationship truly belongs to God; and if it’s not the divine essence, it’s a creature; and it cannot demand the worship of latria; which goes against what is said in the Preface: "Let us worship the distinction of the Persons, and the equality of their Majesty."

I answer that, It is reported that Gilbert de la Porree erred on this point, but revoked his error later at the council of Rheims. For he said that the divine relations are assistant, or externally affixed.

I answer that, It is said that Gilbert de la Porree made a mistake on this point, but later corrected his mistake at the council of Rheims. He stated that the divine relations are supportive or externally attached.

To perceive the error here expressed, we must consider that in each of the nine genera of accidents there are two points for remark. One is the nature belonging to each one of them considered as an accident; which commonly applies to each of them as inherent in a subject, for the essence of an accident is to inhere. The other point of remark is the proper nature of each one of these genera. In the genera, apart from that of relation, as in quantity and quality, even the true idea of the genus itself is derived from a respect to the subject; for quantity is called the measure of substance, and quality is the disposition of substance. But the true idea of relation is not taken from its respect to that in which it is, but from its respect to something outside. So if we consider even in creatures, relations formally as such, in that aspect they are said to be "assistant," and not intrinsically affixed, for, in this way, they signify a respect which affects a thing related and tends from that thing to something else; whereas, if relation is considered as an accident, it inheres in a subject, and has an accidental existence in it. Gilbert de la Porree considered relation in the former mode only.

To understand the mistake expressed here, we need to recognize that in each of the nine types of accidents, there are two key points to note. One is the nature of each type as an accident; this typically applies to each one as it is inherent in a subject, since the essence of an accident is to inhere. The other point to note is the specific nature of each of these types. In the types, except for relation, such as quantity and quality, even the true concept of the type itself is understood in relation to the subject; for quantity is referred to as the measure of substance, and quality is the arrangement of substance. However, the true idea of relation is not derived from its connection to what it exists within, but rather from its connection to something external. So, even when we consider beings, relations, in their formal sense, are regarded as "assistant," and not intrinsically attached, because in this sense they indicate a connection that affects the related item and points from that item towards something else; whereas, if we think of relation as an accident, it resides within a subject and has an accidental existence within it. Gilbert de la Porree viewed relation only in the former way.

Now whatever has an accidental existence in creatures, when considered as transferred to God, has a substantial existence; for there is no accident in God; since all in Him is His essence. So, in so far as relation has an accidental existence in creatures, relation really existing in God has the existence of the divine essence in no way distinct therefrom. But in so far as relation implies respect to something else, no respect to the essence is signified, but rather to its opposite term.

Now, anything that exists accidentally in creatures, when viewed in relation to God, has a substantial existence because there are no accidents in God; everything in Him is His essence. Therefore, while relations have an accidental existence in creatures, the relations that genuinely exist in God are not separate from the divine essence at all. However, since a relation indicates a respect to something else, it does not signify respect to the essence itself, but rather to its counterpart.

Thus it is manifest that relation really existing in God is really the same as His essence and only differs in its mode of intelligibility; as in relation is meant that regard to its opposite which is not expressed in the name of essence. Thus it is clear that in God relation and essence do not differ from each other, but are one and the same.

Thus, it's clear that the relationship that actually exists in God is truly the same as His essence; the only difference lies in how we understand it. In relation, there is a reference to its opposite, which isn't captured by the name of essence. Therefore, it's evident that in God, relation and essence do not differ from each other but are one and the same.

Reply Obj. 1: These words of Augustine do not imply that paternity or any other relation which is in God is not in its very being the same as the divine essence; but that it is not predicated under the mode of substance, as existing in Him to Whom it is applied; but as a relation. So there are said to be two predicaments only in God, since other predicaments import habitude to that of which they are spoken, both in their generic and in their specific nature; but nothing that exists in God can have any relation to that wherein it exists or of whom it is spoken, except the relation of identity; and this by reason of God's supreme simplicity.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine's words do not suggest that paternity or any other relationship in God is not fundamentally the same as the divine essence. Rather, it indicates that these relationships are not described in terms of substance, as existing in the being to which they apply, but rather as relationships. Therefore, only two categories are said to exist in God, since other categories imply a relation to what they describe, both generally and specifically; but nothing that exists in God can have any relation to that in which it exists or to whom it refers, except for the relation of identity, due to God's absolute simplicity.

Reply Obj. 2: As the relation which exists in creatures involves not only a regard to another, but also something absolute, so the same applies to God, yet not in the same way. What is contained in the creature above and beyond what is contained in the meaning of relation, is something else besides that relation; whereas in God there is no distinction, but both are one and the same; and this is not perfectly expressed by the word "relation," as if it were comprehended in the ordinary meaning of that term. For it was above explained (Q. 13, A. 2), in treating of the divine names, that more is contained in the perfection of the divine essence than can be signified by any name. Hence it does not follow that there exists in God anything besides relation in reality; but only in the various names imposed by us.

Reply Obj. 2: The relationship that exists in creatures involves not just a connection to something else, but also something absolute, and the same is true for God, although not in the same way. What is present in the creature beyond just the idea of relation is something different from that relationship; however, in God, there is no distinction—both are one and the same. The term "relation" doesn’t fully capture this concept, as if it were covered by the usual meaning of that word. As explained earlier (Q. 13, A. 2), when discussing divine names, the perfection of the divine essence includes more than can be expressed by any single name. Therefore, it does not mean that there is anything in God beyond relation in reality; it only exists in the different names we assign to Him.

Reply Obj. 3: If the divine perfection contained only what is signified by relative names, it would follow that it is imperfect, being thus related to something else; as in the same way, if nothing more were contained in it than what is signified by the word "wisdom," it would not in that case be a subsistence. But as the perfection of the divine essence is greater than can be included in any name, it does not follow, if a relative term or any other name applied to God signify something imperfect, that the divine essence is in any way imperfect; for the divine essence comprehends within itself the perfection of every genus (Q. 4, A. 2). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: If divine perfection only included what is indicated by relative names, it would imply that it is imperfect, as it would depend on something else. Similarly, if it only included what is meant by the term "wisdom," it wouldn't be a complete existence. However, since the perfection of divine essence is greater than can be captured by any name, it doesn't mean that the divine essence is imperfect just because a relative term or any other name associated with God signifies something imperfect; the divine essence encompasses the perfection of every category (Q. 4, A. 2).

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 28, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 28, Art. 3]

Whether the Relations in God Are Really Distinguished from Each Other?

Whether the Relationships in God Are Actually Different from One Another?

Objection 1: It would seem that the divine relations are not really distinguished from each other. For things which are identified with the same, are identified with each other. But every relation in God is really the same as the divine essence. Therefore the relations are not really distinguished from each other.

Objection 1: It seems that the divine relations are not actually different from one another. For things that are identified with the same thing are identified with each other. But every relation in God is fundamentally the same as the divine essence. Therefore, the relations are not truly distinguished from one another.

Obj. 2: Further, as paternity and filiation are by name distinguished from the divine essence, so likewise are goodness and power. But this kind of distinction does not make any real distinction of the divine goodness and power. Therefore neither does it make any real distinction of paternity and filiation.

Obj. 2: Additionally, just as paternity and filiation are distinguished from the divine essence by name, so are goodness and power. However, this kind of distinction does not create a real difference in divine goodness and power. Therefore, it does not create any real difference in paternity and filiation.

Obj. 3: Further, in God there is no real distinction but that of origin. But one relation does not seem to arise from another. Therefore the relations are not really distinguished from each other.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, in God there is no real distinction except for that of origin. However, one relationship doesn't appear to come from another. So, the relationships are not truly distinguished from one another.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Trin.) that in God "the substance contains the unity; and relation multiplies the trinity." Therefore, if the relations were not really distinguished from each other, there would be no real trinity in God, but only an ideal trinity, which is the error of Sabellius.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Trin.) that in God "the substance contains the unity; and relation multiplies the trinity." Therefore, if the relations were not truly distinguished from one another, there would be no real trinity in God, just an ideal trinity, which is the mistake of Sabellius.

I answer that, The attributing of anything to another involves the attribution likewise of whatever is contained in it. So when "man" is attributed to anyone, a rational nature is likewise attributed to him. The idea of relation, however, necessarily means regard of one to another, according as one is relatively opposed to another. So as in God there is a real relation (A. 1), there must also be a real opposition. The very nature of relative opposition includes distinction. Hence, there must be real distinction in God, not, indeed, according to that which is absolute—namely, essence, wherein there is supreme unity and simplicity—but according to that which is relative.

I respond that, attributing something to another entails also attributing everything that is included in it. Therefore, when "man" is associated with someone, a rational nature is similarly assigned to him. The concept of relation inherently involves the consideration of one in relation to another, as one is relatively opposed to the other. Since there is a real relation in God (A. 1), there must also be a genuine opposition. The essence of relative opposition inherently includes distinction. Thus, there must be a real distinction in God, not according to what is absolute—meaning essence, in which there is ultimate unity and simplicity—but according to what is relative.

Reply Obj. 1: According to the Philosopher (Phys. iii), this argument holds, that whatever things are identified with the same thing are identified with each other, if the identity be real and logical; as, for instance, a tunic and a garment; but not if they differ logically. Hence in the same place he says that although action is the same as motion, and likewise passion; still it does not follow that action and passion are the same; because action implies reference as of something "from which" there is motion in the thing moved; whereas passion implies reference as of something "which is from" another. Likewise, although paternity, just as filiation, is really the same as the divine essence; nevertheless these two in their own proper idea and definitions import opposite respects. Hence they are distinguished from each other.

Reply Obj. 1: According to the Philosopher (Phys. iii), this argument stands that whatever things are identified with the same thing are also identified with each other if the identity is real and logical; for example, a tunic and a garment. However, this is not the case if they differ logically. Therefore, he states that while action is the same as motion, and similarly passion; it does not mean that action and passion are the same. This is because action implies a reference to something "from which" there is motion in the object being moved, while passion implies a reference to something "which is from" another source. Similarly, although paternity, like filiation, is genuinely the same as the divine essence, these two concepts have distinct meanings and definitions that indicate opposite perspectives. As a result, they are distinguished from one another.

Reply Obj. 2: Power and goodness do not import any opposition in their respective natures; and hence there is no parallel argument.

Reply Obj. 2: Power and goodness do not imply any conflict in their nature; therefore, there is no comparable argument.

Reply Obj. 3: Although relations, properly speaking, do not arise or proceed from each other, nevertheless they are considered as opposed according to the procession of one from another. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Although relationships, strictly speaking, don't emerge or come from one another, they are still seen as opposed based on the way one comes from another.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 28, Art. 3]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 28, Art. 3]

Whether in God There Are Only Four Real Relations—Paternity,
Filiation, Spiration, and Procession?

Whether in God There Are Only Four Real Relations—Paternity,
Filiation, Spiration, and Procession?

Objection 1: It would seem that in God there are not only four real relations—paternity, filiation, spiration and procession. For it must be observed that in God there exist the relations of the intelligent agent to the object understood; and of the one willing to the object willed; which are real relations not comprised under those above specified. Therefore there are not only four real relations in God.

Objection 1: It seems that in God there are not just four real relations—paternity, filiation, spiration, and procession. We should note that in God there are also the relations of the intelligent agent to the thing understood, and of the one who wants to the thing desired; these are real relations that aren’t included in the ones mentioned above. So, there are not only four real relations in God.

Obj. 2: Further, real relations in God are understood as coming from the intelligible procession of the Word. But intelligible relations are infinitely multiplied, as Avicenna says. Therefore in God there exists an infinite series of real relations.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, real relationships in God are seen as arising from the understandable procession of the Word. However, these understandable relationships can be infinitely varied, as Avicenna states. Thus, in God, there is an infinite series of real relationships.

Obj. 3: Further, ideas in God are eternal (Q. 15, A. 1); and are only distinguished from each other by reason of their regard to things, as above stated. Therefore in God there are many more eternal relations.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, ideas in God are eternal (Q. 15, A. 1); and they are only differentiated from one another based on their relation to things, as mentioned earlier. Therefore, in God, there are many more eternal relationships.

Obj. 4: Further, equality, and likeness, and identity are relations: and they are in God from eternity. Therefore several more relations are eternal in God than the above named.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, equality, likeness, and identity are all relations; and they have existed in God for eternity. Therefore, there are several other relations that are eternal in God beyond those just mentioned.

Obj. 5: Further, it may also contrariwise be said that there are fewer relations in God than those above named. For, according to the Philosopher (Phys. iii text 24), "It is the same way from Athens to Thebes, as from Thebes to Athens." By the same way of reasoning there is the same relation from the Father to the Son, that of paternity, and from the Son to the Father, that of filiation; and thus there are not four relations in God.

Obj. 5: Additionally, it could also be argued that there are fewer relationships in God than those mentioned above. According to the Philosopher (Phys. iii text 24), "The journey from Athens to Thebes is the same as from Thebes to Athens." Following that logic, the relationship from the Father to the Son is one of paternity, and from the Son to the Father is one of filiation; therefore, there are not four relationships in God.

I answer that, According to the Philosopher (Metaph. v), every relation is based either on quantity, as double and half; or on action and passion, as the doer and the deed, the father and the son, the master and the servant, and the like. Now as there is no quantity in God, for He is great without quantity, as Augustine says (De Trin. i, 1) it follows that a real relation in God can be based only on action. Such relations are not based on the actions of God according to any extrinsic procession, forasmuch as the relations of God to creatures are not real in Him (Q. 13, A. 7). Hence, it follows that real relations in God can be understood only in regard to those actions according to which there are internal, and not external, processions in God. These processions are two only, as above explained (Q. 27, A. 5), one derived from the action of the intellect, the procession of the Word; and the other from the action of the will, the procession of love. In respect of each of these processions two opposite relations arise; one of which is the relation of the person proceeding from the principle; the other is the relation of the principle Himself. The procession of the Word is called generation in the proper sense of the term, whereby it is applied to living things. Now the relation of the principle of generation in perfect living beings is called paternity; and the relation of the one proceeding from the principle is called filiation. But the procession of Love has no proper name of its own (Q. 27, A. 4); and so neither have the ensuing relations a proper name of their own. The relation of the principle of this procession is called spiration; and the relation of the person proceeding is called procession: although these two names belong to the processions or origins themselves, and not to the relations.

I answer that, According to the Philosopher (Metaph. v), every relationship is based either on quantity, like double and half, or on action and passion, such as the doer and the deed, the father and the son, the master and the servant, and similar cases. Since God has no quantity, as Augustine states (De Trin. i, 1), it follows that a real relation in God can only be based on action. These relationships do not depend on God's actions through any external process, because the relations of God to creatures are not real in Him (Q. 13, A. 7). Therefore, real relations in God can only be understood regarding those actions that involve internal, rather than external, processions within God. There are only two such processions, as previously explained (Q. 27, A. 5): one comes from the action of the intellect, which is the procession of the Word; and the other arises from the action of the will, which is the procession of love. For each of these processions, two opposing relations emerge: one is the relation of the person proceeding from the principle, and the other is the relation of the principle itself. The procession of the Word is called generation in its strict sense, which is applied to living beings. The relation of the principle of generation in perfect living beings is known as paternity, and the relation of the one proceeding from the principle is called filiation. However, the procession of Love does not have a specific name of its own (Q. 27, A. 4), nor do the resulting relations have their own specific names. The relation of the principle of this procession is referred to as spiration, while the relation of the person proceeding is called procession; although these two terms pertain to the processions or origins themselves, rather than the relations.

Reply Obj. 1: In those things in which there is a difference between the intellect and its object, and the will and its object, there can be a real relation, both of science to its object, and of the willer to the object willed. In God, however, the intellect and its object are one and the same; because by understanding Himself, God understands all other things; and the same applies to His will and the object that He wills. Hence it follows that in God these kinds of relations are not real; as neither is the relation of a thing to itself. Nevertheless, the relation to the word is a real relation; because the word is understood as proceeding by an intelligible action; and not as a thing understood. For when we understand a stone; that which the intellect conceives from the thing understood, is called the word.

Reply Obj. 1: In cases where there is a difference between the intellect and its object, as well as the will and its object, there can be a real connection between knowledge and what is known, and between the will and what it desires. However, in God, the intellect and its object are the same; by understanding Himself, God understands everything else as well. The same applies to His will and what He chooses. Therefore, in God, these kinds of relationships are not real; just like the relationship of something to itself isn't real. However, the relationship to the word is a real connection because the word is understood as coming from an intelligible action, rather than as something simply understood. When we understand a stone, what the intellect grasps from the thing understood is referred to as the word.

Reply Obj. 2: Intelligible relations in ourselves are infinitely multiplied, because a man understands a stone by one act, and by another act understands that he understands the stone, and again by another, understands that he understands this; thus the acts of understanding are infinitely multiplied, and consequently also the relations understood. This does not apply to God, inasmuch as He understands all things by one act alone.

Reply Obj. 2: The connections we comprehend within ourselves are endless because a person understands a stone in one way, then realizes that he understands the stone in another way, and then further understands that he understands this as well; therefore, the acts of understanding keep multiplying infinitely, along with the connections understood. This doesn’t apply to God since He understands everything in a single act.

Reply Obj. 3: Ideal relations exist as understood by God. Hence it does not follow from their plurality that there are many relations in God; but that God knows these many relations.

Reply Obj. 3: Ideal relationships exist as understood by God. Therefore, the fact that there are many of them doesn't mean there are multiple relations in God; rather, it means that God understands these many relationships.

Reply Obj. 4: Equality and similitude in God are not real relations; but are only logical relations (Q. 42, A. 3, ad 4).

Reply Obj. 4: Equality and similarity in God are not actual relationships; they are merely logical relationships (Q. 42, A. 3, ad 4).

Reply Obj. 5: The way from one term to another and conversely is the same; nevertheless the mutual relations are not the same. Hence, we cannot conclude that the relation of the father to the son is the same as that of the son to the father; but we could conclude this of something absolute, if there were such between them. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: The connection from one term to another and back is the same; however, the mutual relationships are not the same. Therefore, we can't say that the relationship of the father to the son is the same as that of the son to the father; but we could say this about something absolute, if there were such a thing between them.

QUESTION 29

THE DIVINE PERSONS
(In Four Articles)

THE DIVINE PERSONS
(In Four Parts)

Having premised what have appeared necessary notions concerning the processions and the relations, we must now approach the subject of the persons.

Having laid out the necessary ideas about the processions and the relationships, we now need to discuss the individuals involved.

First, we shall consider the persons absolutely, and then comparatively as regards each other. We must consider the persons absolutely first in common; and then singly.

First, we will look at the individuals in absolute terms, and then we will compare them to one another. We need to consider the individuals in absolute terms first in general, and then one by one.

The general consideration of the persons seemingly involves four points:

The general consideration of the people seems to involve four points:

(1) The signification of this word "person";

(1) The meaning of the word "person";

(2) the number of the persons;

the headcount

(3) what is involved in the number of persons, or is opposed thereto; as diversity, and similitude, and the like; and

(3) what is involved in the number of people, or is contrary to that; as diversity, similarity, and so on; and

(4) what belongs to our knowledge of the persons.

(4) what we know about the people.

Four subjects of inquiry are comprised in the first point:

Four areas of study are included in the first point:

(1) The definition of "person."

The meaning of "person."

(2) The comparison of person to essence, subsistence, and hypostasis.

(2) Comparing a person to essence, subsistence, and hypostasis.

(3) Whether the name of person is becoming to God?

(3) Does the name of a person reflect well on God?

(4) What does it signify in Him? _______________________

(4) What does it mean in Him? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 29, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 29, Art. 1]

The Definition of "Person"

The Meaning of "Person"

Objection 1: It would seem that the definition of person given by Boethius (De Duab. Nat.) is insufficient—that is, "a person is an individual substance of a rational nature." For nothing singular can be subject to definition. But "person" signifies something singular. Therefore person is improperly defined.

Objection 1: It seems that Boethius' definition of a person (De Duab. Nat.) is inadequate—that is, "a person is an individual substance of a rational nature." Since nothing unique can be defined completely, and "person" refers to something unique, it follows that the term "person" is not defined correctly.

Obj. 2: Further, substance as placed above in the definition of person, is either first substance, or second substance. If it is the former, the word "individual" is superfluous, because first substance is individual substance; if it stands for second substance, the word "individual" is false, for there is contradiction of terms; since second substances are the genera or species. Therefore this definition is incorrect.

Obj. 2: Moreover, the substance mentioned in the definition of a person is either a first substance or a second substance. If it's the first, the term "individual" is unnecessary because a first substance is already individual; if it's referring to second substance, then the term "individual" is inaccurate, as it contradicts itself; second substances are the categories or species. Therefore, this definition is wrong.

Obj. 3: Further, an intentional term must not be included in the definition of a thing. For to define a man as "a species of animal" would not be a correct definition; since man is the name of a thing, and species is a name of an intention. Therefore, since person is the name of a thing (for it signifies a substance of a rational nature), the word "individual" which is an intentional name comes improperly into the definition.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, an intentional term shouldn’t be part of the definition of a thing. Defining a man as "a type of animal" wouldn't be accurate; because "man" is the name of a thing, while "type" refers to an intention. Therefore, since "person" is the name of a thing (because it refers to a substance with rational nature), the term "individual," which is an intentional name, is wrongly included in the definition.

Obj. 4: Further, "Nature is the principle of motion and rest, in those things in which it is essentially, and not accidentally," as Aristotle says (Phys. ii). But person exists in things immovable, as in God, and in the angels. Therefore the word "nature" ought not to enter into the definition of person, but the word should rather be "essence."

Obj. 4: Furthermore, "Nature is the principle of motion and rest, in those things that it is fundamentally, and not just accidentally," as Aristotle says (Phys. ii). But a person exists in unchangeable things, like God and the angels. Therefore, the term "nature" should not be included in the definition of person; instead, the term should be "essence."

Obj. 5: Further, the separated soul is an individual substance of the rational nature; but it is not a person. Therefore person is not properly defined as above.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, the separated soul is a unique entity of rational nature; however, it is not a person. Therefore, the definition of a person given above is not accurate.

I answer that, Although the universal and particular exist in every genus, nevertheless, in a certain special way, the individual belongs to the genus of substance. For substance is individualized by itself; whereas the accidents are individualized by the subject, which is the substance; since this particular whiteness is called "this," because it exists in this particular subject. And so it is reasonable that the individuals of the genus substance should have a special name of their own; for they are called "hypostases," or first substances.

I answer that, even though universals and particulars exist in every category, the individual specifically belongs to the category of substance. Substance is individual in itself, while accidents are individual through the subject, which is the substance; for this particular whiteness is referred to as "this," because it exists in this specific subject. Therefore, it makes sense that the individuals of the substance category should have their own specific name; they are called "hypostases" or first substances.

Further still, in a more special and perfect way, the particular and the individual are found in the rational substances which have dominion over their own actions; and which are not only made to act, like others; but which can act of themselves; for actions belong to singulars. Therefore also the individuals of the rational nature have a special name even among other substances; and this name is "person."

Furthermore, in a more unique and complete way, the specific and individual are present in rational beings that have control over their own actions; and which are not just compelled to act like others; but can act independently; because actions are attributed to singulars. Thus, the individuals of rational nature have a distinctive name even among other substances; and that name is "person."

Thus the term "individual substance" is placed in the definition of person, as signifying the singular in the genus of substance; and the term "rational nature" is added, as signifying the singular in rational substances.

Thus the term "individual substance" is included in the definition of person, meaning the unique element within the category of substance; and the term "rational nature" is added, representing the unique element within rational substances.

Reply Obj. 1: Although this or that singular may not be definable, yet what belongs to the general idea of singularity can be defined; and so the Philosopher (De Praedic., cap. De substantia) gives a definition of first substance; and in this way Boethius defines person.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though this or that individual may not be definable, the general concept of singularity can be defined; and so the Philosopher (De Praedic., cap. De substantia) provides a definition of first substance; in the same way, Boethius defines person.

Reply Obj. 2: In the opinion of some, the term "substance" in the definition of person stands for first substance, which is the hypostasis; nor is the term "individual" superfluously added, forasmuch as by the name of hypostasis or first substance the idea of universality and of part is excluded. For we do not say that man in general is an hypostasis, nor that the hand is since it is only a part. But where "individual" is added, the idea of assumptibility is excluded from person; for the human nature in Christ is not a person, since it is assumed by a greater—that is, by the Word of God. It is, however, better to say that substance is here taken in a general sense, as divided into first and second, and when "individual" is added, it is restricted to first substance.

Reply Obj. 2: Some people believe that the term "substance" in the definition of a person refers to first substance, which is the hypostasis. The term "individual" is not unnecessarily included because the term hypostasis or first substance excludes the idea of universality and part. We don’t say that man in general is a hypostasis, nor do we say that the hand is, since it is just a part. However, when "individual" is included, it excludes the idea of being assumable from a person; for the human nature in Christ is not a person because it is taken on by something greater—that is, by the Word of God. It is more accurate to say that substance is understood in a general sense, divided into first and second, and when "individual" is included, it is limited to first substance.

Reply Obj. 3: Substantial differences being unknown to us, or at least unnamed by us, it is sometimes necessary to use accidental differences in the place of substantial; as, for example, we may say that fire is a simple, hot, and dry body: for proper accidents are the effects of substantial forms, and make them known. Likewise, terms expressive of intention can be used in defining realities if used to signify things which are unnamed. And so the term "individual" is placed in the definition of person to signify the mode of subsistence which belongs to particular substances.

Reply Obj. 3: Since we don't know substantial differences or at least haven't named them, it's sometimes necessary to rely on accidental differences instead; for example, we can say that fire is a simple, hot, and dry substance. Proper accidents are the effects of substantial forms and help us understand them. Similarly, terms that express intention can be used to define realities if they refer to things that are unnamed. Therefore, the term "individual" is included in the definition of person to indicate the way of existence that applies to specific substances.

Reply Obj. 4: According to the Philosopher (Metaph. v, 5), the word "nature" was first used to signify the generation of living things, which is called nativity. And because this kind of generation comes from an intrinsic principle, this term is extended to signify the intrinsic principle of any kind of movement. In this sense he defines "nature" (Phys. ii, 3). And since this kind of principle is either formal or material, both matter and form are commonly called nature. And as the essence of anything is completed by the form; so the essence of anything, signified by the definition, is commonly called nature. And here nature is taken in that sense. Hence Boethius says (De Duab. Nat.) that, "nature is the specific difference giving its form to each thing," for the specific difference completes the definition, and is derived from the special form of a thing. So in the definition of "person," which means the singular in a determined genus, it is more correct to use the term "nature" than "essence," because the latter is taken from being, which is most common.

Reply Obj. 4: According to the Philosopher (Metaph. v, 5), the word "nature" was first used to refer to the generation of living things, known as nativity. Since this kind of generation comes from an internal principle, this term is also used to mean the internal principle of any kind of movement. In this sense, he defines "nature" (Phys. ii, 3). Since this type of principle can be either formal or material, both matter and form are generally referred to as nature. Just as the essence of something is completed by its form, the essence of something defined in this way is commonly called nature. Here, nature is understood in that sense. Thus, Boethius states (De Duab. Nat.) that "nature is the specific difference that gives its form to each thing," since the specific difference completes the definition and comes from the specific form of a thing. Therefore, in the definition of "person," which means the singular within a specific genus, it is more accurate to use the term "nature" rather than "essence," because the latter is derived from being, which is more general.

Reply Obj. 5: The soul is a part of the human species; and so, although it may exist in a separate state, yet since it ever retains its nature of unibility, it cannot be called an individual substance, which is the hypostasis or first substance, as neither can the hand nor any other part of man; thus neither the definition nor the name of person belongs to it. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: The soul is part of what makes us human; therefore, even if it can exist separately, it still maintains its nature of unity and cannot be considered an individual substance, which is the essence or primary substance, just like the hand or any other part of a person cannot. Thus, the definition or title of "person" does not apply to it.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 29, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 29, Art. 2]

Whether "Person" Is the Same As Hypostasis, Subsistence, and Essence?

Whether "Person" Is the Same As Hypostasis, Subsistence, and Essence?

Objection 1: It would seem that "person" is the same as "hypostasis," "subsistence," and "essence." For Boethius says (De Duab. Nat.) that "the Greeks called the individual substance of the rational nature by the name hypostasis." But this with us signifies "person." Therefore "person" is altogether the same as "hypostasis."

Objection 1: It seems that "person" is the same as "hypostasis," "subsistence," and "essence." Boethius states (De Duab. Nat.) that "the Greeks referred to the individual substance of rational nature as hypostasis." But for us, this means "person." Therefore, "person" is completely the same as "hypostasis."

Obj. 2: Further, as we say there are three persons in God, so we say there are three subsistences in God; which implies that "person" and "subsistence" have the same meaning. Therefore "person" and "subsistence" mean the same.

Obj. 2: Additionally, just as we say there are three persons in God, we also say there are three subsistences in God; this suggests that "person" and "subsistence" have the same meaning. So, "person" and "subsistence" mean the same thing.

Obj. 3: Further, Boethius says (Com. Praed.) that the Greek ousia, which means essence, signifies a being composed of matter and form. Now that which is composed of matter and form is the individual substance called "hypostasis" and "person." Therefore all the aforesaid names seem to have the same meaning.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Boethius states (Com. Praed.) that the Greek ousia, which means essence, refers to a being made up of matter and form. What is made up of matter and form is the individual substance known as "hypostasis" and "person." So, all those names appear to have the same meaning.

Obj. 4: On the contrary, Boethius says (De Duab. Nat.) that genera and species only subsist; whereas individuals are not only subsistent, but also substand. But subsistences are so called from subsisting, as substance or hypostasis is so called from substanding. Therefore, since genera and species are not hypostases or persons, these are not the same as subsistences.

Obj. 4: On the contrary, Boethius states (De Duab. Nat.) that genera and species only exist, while individuals not only exist but also have substance. Subsistences are named for existing, just as substance or hypostasis is named for having substance. Therefore, because genera and species are not hypostases or individuals, they are not the same as subsistences.

Obj. 5: Further, Boethius says (Com. Praed.) that matter is called hypostasis, and form is called ousiosis—that is, subsistence. But neither form nor matter can be called person. Therefore person differs from the others.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, Boethius states (Com. Praed.) that matter is referred to as hypostasis, and form is referred to as ousiosis—meaning, subsistence. However, neither form nor matter can be classified as a person. Therefore, a person is distinct from the others.

I answer that, According to the Philosopher (Metaph. v), substance is twofold. In one sense it means the quiddity of a thing, signified by its definition, and thus we say that the definition means the substance of a thing; in which sense substance is called by the Greeks ousia, what we may call "essence." In another sense substance means a subject or suppositum, which subsists in the genus of substance. To this, taken in a general sense, can be applied a name expressive of an intention; and thus it is called suppositum. It is also called by three names signifying a reality—that is, "a thing of nature," "subsistence," and "hypostasis," according to a threefold consideration of the substance thus named. For, as it exists in itself and not in another, it is called "subsistence"; as we say that those things subsist which exist in themselves, and not in another. As it underlies some common nature, it is called "a thing of nature"; as, for instance, this particular man is a human natural thing. As it underlies the accidents, it is called "hypostasis," or "substance." What these three names signify in common to the whole genus of substances, this name "person" signifies in the genus of rational substances.

I respond that, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. v), substance has two meanings. Firstly, it refers to the essence of a thing, indicated by its definition, and so we say that the definition represents the substance of a thing; in this sense, substance is called by the Greeks ousia, which we may refer to as "essence." Secondly, substance means a subject or suppositum, which exists within the category of substance. To this, in a broad sense, we can apply a term that expresses intention; hence, it is referred to as suppositum. It is also known by three names that indicate a reality—namely, "a thing of nature," "subsistence," and "hypostasis," based on three different perspectives of the substance being named. Because it exists in itself and not in another, it is called "subsistence"; we say that those things subsist that exist independently. As it underlies a common nature, it is called "a thing of nature"; for example, this specific man is a human natural thing. As it underlies the accidents, it is called "hypostasis" or "substance." What these three names signify collectively for the entire category of substances, this name "person" signifies within the category of rational substances.

Reply Obj. 1: Among the Greeks the term "hypostasis," taken in the strict interpretation of the word, signifies any individual of the genus substance; but in the usual way of speaking, it means the individual of the rational nature, by reason of the excellence of that nature.

Reply Obj. 1: Among the Greeks, the term "hypostasis," when taken in its strictest sense, refers to any individual within the category of substance; however, in common usage, it denotes the individual of rational nature, due to the superiority of that nature.

Reply Obj. 2: As we say "three persons" plurally in God, and "three subsistences," so the Greeks say "three hypostases." But because the word "substance," which, properly speaking, corresponds in meaning to "hypostasis," is used among us in an equivocal sense, since it sometimes means essence, and sometimes means hypostasis, in order to avoid any occasion of error, it was thought preferable to use "subsistence" for hypostasis, rather than "substance."

Reply Obj. 2: Just like we refer to "three persons" in God and "three subsistences," the Greeks refer to "three hypostases." However, since the word "substance," which properly aligns with the meaning of "hypostasis," is used among us in a confusing way—sometimes meaning essence and other times meaning hypostasis—it was deemed better to use "subsistence" for hypostasis instead of "substance" to prevent any misunderstandings.

Reply Obj. 3: Strictly speaking, the essence is what is expressed by the definition. Now, the definition comprises the principles of the species, but not the individual principles. Hence in things composed of matter and form, the essence signifies not only the form, nor only the matter, but what is composed of matter and the common form, as the principles of the species. But what is composed of this matter and this form has the nature of hypostasis and person. For soul, flesh, and bone belong to the nature of man; whereas this soul, this flesh and this bone belong to the nature of this man. Therefore hypostasis and person add the individual principles to the idea of essence; nor are these identified with the essence in things composed of matter and form, as we said above when treating of divine simplicity (Q. 3, A. 3).

Reply Obj. 3: Strictly speaking, the essence is what the definition expresses. The definition includes the principles of the species but not the individual principles. Therefore, in things made up of matter and form, the essence refers to not just the form or just the matter, but to what is made of that matter and the common form, as the principles of the species. However, what is made from this matter and this form has the nature of hypostasis and person. For instance, soul, flesh, and bone are part of what it means to be human; whereas this specific soul, this specific flesh, and this specific bone are what make this particular man. Thus, hypostasis and person add individual principles to the concept of essence; and these are not the same as the essence in things made of matter and form, as we discussed earlier when addressing divine simplicity (Q. 3, A. 3).

Reply Obj. 4: Boethius says that genera and species subsist, inasmuch as it belongs to some individual things to subsist, from the fact that they belong to genera and species comprised in the predicament of substance, but not because the species and genera themselves subsist; except in the opinion of Plato, who asserted that the species of things subsisted separately from singular things. To substand, however, belongs to the same individual things in relation to the accidents, which are outside the essence of genera and species.

Reply Obj. 4: Boethius states that groups and types exist because certain individual things exist, as they belong to groups and types that fall under the category of substance. However, this is not because the groups and types themselves exist independently, except according to Plato, who believed that the types of things existed separately from individual things. However, existing in relation to accidents, which are outside the essence of groups and types, belongs to the same individual things.

Reply Obj. 5: The individual composed of matter and form substands in relation to accident from the very nature of matter. Hence Boethius says (De Trin.): "A simple form cannot be a subject." Its self-subsistence is derived from the nature of its form, which does not supervene to the things subsisting, but gives actual existence to the matter and makes it subsist as an individual. On this account, therefore, he ascribes hypostasis to matter, and ousiosis, or subsistence, to the form, because the matter is the principle of substanding, and form is the principle of subsisting. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: An individual made up of both matter and form exists in relation to accidents due to the very nature of matter. That's why Boethius states (De Trin.): "A simple form cannot be a subject." Its ability to exist independently comes from the nature of its form, which doesn’t just add to the things that exist but actually gives existence to the matter and allows it to exist as an individual. For this reason, he attributes hypostasis to matter and ousiosis, or subsistence, to the form, because matter is the foundation of existence, while form is what allows it to persist.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 29, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 29, Art. 3]

Whether the Word "Person" Should Be Said of God?

Whether the word "person" should be used to refer to God?

Objection 1: It would seem that the name "person" should not be said of God. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom.): "No one should ever dare to say or think anything of the supersubstantial and hidden Divinity, beyond what has been divinely expressed to us by the oracles." But the name "person" is not expressed to us in the Old or New Testament. Therefore "person" is not to be applied to God.

Objection 1: It seems like we shouldn't refer to God as a "person." Dionysius says (Div. Nom.): "No one should ever dare to say or think anything about the supereminent and hidden Divinity, beyond what has been revealed to us by the divine oracles." However, the term "person" is not mentioned in either the Old or New Testament. Therefore, we shouldn't apply "person" to God.

Obj. 2: Further, Boethius says (De Duab. Nat.): "The word person seems to be taken from those persons who represented men in comedies and tragedies. For person comes from sounding through [personando], since a greater volume of sound is produced through the cavity in the mask. These "persons" or masks the Greeks called prosopa, as they were placed on the face and covered the features before the eyes." This, however, can apply to God only in a metaphorical sense. Therefore the word "person" is only applied to God metaphorically.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Boethius states (De Duab. Nat.): "The term person seems to come from those characters who represented people in plays and dramas. The word person originates from sounding through [personando], as a larger volume of sound is produced through the cavity in the mask. These 'persons' or masks were referred to by the Greeks as prosopa, because they were worn on the face and concealed the features in front of the eyes." However, this can only be understood in a metaphorical sense when applied to God. Therefore, the term "person" is only used for God metaphorically.

Obj. 3: Further, every person is a hypostasis. But the word "hypostasis" does not apply to God, since, as Boethius says (De Duab. Nat.), it signifies what is the subject of accidents, which do not exist in God. Jerome also says (Ep. ad Damas.) that, "in this word hypostasis, poison lurks in honey." Therefore the word "person" should not be said of God.

Obj. 3: Moreover, every individual is a hypostasis. However, the term "hypostasis" does not apply to God, since, as Boethius mentions (De Duab. Nat.), it refers to what is the subject of accidents, which do not exist in God. Jerome also states (Ep. ad Damas.) that "in this term hypostasis, poison lurks in honey." Therefore, the term "person" should not be used for God.

Obj. 4: Further, if a definition is denied of anything, the thing defined is also denied of it. But the definition of "person," as given above, does not apply to God. Both because reason implies a discursive knowledge, which does not apply to God, as we proved above (Q. 14, A. 12); and thus God cannot be said to have "a rational nature." And also because God cannot be called an individual substance, since the principle of individuation is matter; while God is immaterial: nor is He the subject of accidents, so as to be called a substance. Therefore the word "person" ought not to be attributed to God.

Obj. 4: Additionally, if the definition of something is rejected, then the thing being defined is also rejected. However, the definition of "person," as stated above, does not apply to God. This is because reason implies a type of knowledge that is not relevant to God, as we demonstrated earlier (Q. 14, A. 12); thus, God cannot be described as having "a rational nature." Furthermore, God cannot be considered an individual substance since the principle of individuation is matter, and God is immaterial; He is also not the subject of accidents, which means He cannot be called a substance. Therefore, the term "person" should not be applied to God.

On the contrary, In the Creed of Athanasius we say: "One is the person of the Father, another of the Son, another of the Holy Ghost."

On the contrary, In the Creed of Athanasius we say: "One is the person of the Father, another is the Son, and another is the Holy Spirit."

I answer that, "Person" signifies what is most perfect in all nature—that is, a subsistent individual of a rational nature. Hence, since everything that is perfect must be attributed to God, forasmuch as His essence contains every perfection, this name "person" is fittingly applied to God; not, however, as it is applied to creatures, but in a more excellent way; as other names also, which, while giving them to creatures, we attribute to God; as we showed above when treating of the names of God (Q. 13, A. 2).

I respond that, "Person" refers to the highest form of existence in all of nature—that is, an individual being with a rational nature. Therefore, since everything that is perfect must be ascribed to God, because His essence encompasses all perfection, the term "person" is appropriately applied to God; not in the same way it is used for creatures, but in a more exalted sense; similar to other terms we use for creatures that we also apply to God, as we discussed earlier when examining the names of God (Q. 13, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 1: Although the word "person" is not found applied to God in Scripture, either in the Old or New Testament, nevertheless what the word signifies is found to be affirmed of God in many places of Scripture; as that He is the supreme self-subsisting being, and the most perfectly intelligent being. If we could speak of God only in the very terms themselves of Scripture, it would follow that no one could speak about God in any but the original language of the Old or New Testament. The urgency of confuting heretics made it necessary to find new words to express the ancient faith about God. Nor is such a kind of novelty to be shunned; since it is by no means profane, for it does not lead us astray from the sense of Scripture. The Apostle warns us to avoid "profane novelties of words" (1 Tim. 6:20).

Reply Obj. 1: While the word "person" is not used to describe God in Scripture, either in the Old or New Testament, the concepts it represents are affirmed about God throughout many parts of the Bible; for instance, that He is the ultimate self-sufficient being and the most perfectly intelligent being. If we could only talk about God using the exact terms found in Scripture, it would mean that no one could discuss God in any language other than the original languages of the Old or New Testament. The need to counter heretics made it essential to develop new terms to convey the ancient beliefs about God. This kind of innovation shouldn't be avoided; it's not disrespectful, as it doesn't steer us away from the meaning of Scripture. The Apostle warns us to steer clear of "profane novelties of words" (1 Tim. 6:20).

Reply Obj. 2: Although this name "person" may not belong to God as regards the origin of the term, nevertheless it excellently belongs to God in its objective meaning. For as famous men were represented in comedies and tragedies, the name "person" was given to signify those who held high dignity. Hence, those who held high rank in the Church came to be called "persons." Thence by some the definition of person is given as "hypostasis distinct by reason of dignity." And because subsistence in a rational nature is of high dignity, therefore every individual of the rational nature is called a "person." Now the dignity of the divine nature excels every other dignity; and thus the name "person" pre-eminently belongs to God.

Reply Obj. 2: While the term "person" may not originate from its connection to God, it certainly applies to God in its objective sense. Just as famous figures were portrayed in comedies and tragedies, the term "person" was used to signify those of high dignity. As a result, individuals of high rank in the Church came to be referred to as "persons." Thus, some define a person as "a distinct hypostasis due to its dignity." Since existence within a rational nature is considered dignified, every individual within that rational nature is called a "person." Now, the dignity of the divine nature surpasses all other forms of dignity; therefore, the title "person" most fittingly applies to God.

Reply Obj. 3: The word "hypostasis" does not apply to God as regards its source of origin, since He does not underlie accidents; but it applies to Him in its objective sense, for it is imposed to signify the subsistence. Jerome said that "poison lurks in this word," forasmuch as before it was fully understood by the Latins, the heretics used this term to deceive the simple, to make people profess many essences as they profess several hypostases, inasmuch as the word "substance," which corresponds to hypostasis in Greek, is commonly taken amongst us to mean essence.

Reply Obj. 3: The term "hypostasis" does not apply to God in terms of its origin, since He does not exist beneath accidents; however, it does apply to Him in its objective sense, as it is used to signify subsistence. Jerome mentioned that "poison lurks in this word," because before it was fully understood by the Latins, heretics used this term to mislead the simple-minded, convincing people to claim multiple essences as if they were professing several hypostases, since the word "substance," which corresponds to hypostasis in Greek, is generally understood among us to mean essence.

Reply Obj. 4: It may be said that God has a rational nature, if reason be taken to mean, not discursive thought, but in a general sense, an intelligent nature. But God cannot be called an "individual" in the sense that His individuality comes from matter; but only in the sense which implies incommunicability. "Substance" can be applied to God in the sense of signifying self-subsistence. There are some, however, who say that the definition of Boethius, quoted above (A. 1), is not a definition of person in the sense we use when speaking of persons in God. Therefore Richard of St. Victor amends this definition by adding that "Person" in God is "the incommunicable existence of the divine nature." _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: It could be argued that God has a rational nature, if we understand reason not as discursive thought, but more generally as an intelligent nature. However, God cannot be referred to as an "individual" in the way that His individuality arises from matter; rather, it is only in a sense that suggests incommunicability. "Substance" can be attributed to God in the sense of indicating self-subsistence. However, some argue that the definition of Boethius mentioned earlier (A. 1) does not define person in the same way we refer to persons in God. Therefore, Richard of St. Victor revises this definition by stating that "Person" in God is "the incommunicable existence of the divine nature."

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 29, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 29, Art. 4]

Whether This Word "Person" Signifies Relation?

Whether the word "person" signifies relation?

Objection 1: It would seem that this word "person," as applied to God, does not signify relation, but substance. For Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 6): "When we speak of the person of the Father, we mean nothing else but the substance of the Father, for person is said in regard to Himself, and not in regard to the Son."

Objection 1: It seems that the term "person," when referring to God, indicates substance rather than relation. Augustine states (De Trin. vii, 6): "When we talk about the person of the Father, we are referring solely to the substance of the Father, since person is used in relation to Himself, not in relation to the Son."

Obj. 2: Further, the interrogation "What?" refers to essence. But, as Augustine says: "When we say there are three who bear witness in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost, and it is asked, Three what? the answer is, Three persons." Therefore person signifies essence.

Obj. 2: Moreover, the question "What?" relates to essence. But, as Augustine states: "When we say there are three who bear witness in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and it is asked, Three what? the answer is, Three persons." Therefore, person signifies essence.

Obj. 3: According to the Philosopher (Metaph. iv), the meaning of a word is its definition. But the definition of "person" is this: "The individual substance of the rational nature," as above stated. Therefore "person" signifies substance.

Obj. 3: According to the Philosopher (Metaph. iv), the meaning of a word is its definition. But the definition of "person" is this: "The individual substance of rational nature," as mentioned above. Therefore, "person" signifies substance.

Obj. 4: Further, person in men and angels does not signify relation, but something absolute. Therefore, if in God it signified relation, it would bear an equivocal meaning in God, in man, and in angels.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the term 'person' in relation to men and angels does not indicate a relationship, but something absolute. Therefore, if it indicated a relationship in God, it would have an ambiguous meaning in God, in humans, and in angels.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Trin.) that "every word that refers to the persons signifies relation." But no word belongs to person more strictly than the very word "person" itself. Therefore this word "person" signifies relation.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Trin.) that "every word that refers to the persons signifies relation." But no word represents a person more closely than the word "person" itself. Therefore, this word "person" signifies relation.

I answer that, A difficulty arises concerning the meaning of this word "person" in God, from the fact that it is predicated plurally of the Three in contrast to the nature of the names belonging to the essence; nor does it in itself refer to another, as do the words which express relation.

I respond that, There's a challenge regarding the meaning of the word "person" when it comes to God, because it's used in the plural form for the Three, which is different from the names that relate to the essence; it also doesn't refer to another in the same way that relational terms do.

Hence some have thought that this word "person" of itself expresses absolutely the divine essence; as this name "God" and this word "Wise"; but that to meet heretical attack, it was ordained by conciliar decree that it was to be taken in a relative sense, and especially in the plural, or with the addition of a distinguishing adjective; as when we say, "Three persons," or, "one is the person of the Father, another of the Son," etc. Used, however, in the singular, it may be either absolute or relative. But this does not seem to be a satisfactory explanation; for, if this word "person," by force of its own signification, expresses the divine essence only, it follows that forasmuch as we speak of "three persons," so far from the heretics being silenced, they had still more reason to argue. Seeing this, others maintained that this word "person" in God signifies both the essence and the relation. Some of these said that it signifies directly the essence, and relation indirectly, forasmuch as "person" means as it were "by itself one" [per se una]; and unity belongs to the essence. And what is "by itself" implies relation indirectly; for the Father is understood to exist "by Himself," as relatively distinct from the Son. Others, however, said, on the contrary, that it signifies relation directly; and essence indirectly; forasmuch as in the definition of "person" the term nature is mentioned indirectly; and these come nearer to the truth.

Some have believed that the word "person" inherently represents the divine essence, much like the name "God" or the term "Wise." However, to counter heretical challenges, it was determined by conciliar decree that it should be understood in a relative sense, particularly in the plural or with a distinguishing adjective, as in "Three persons," or "one is the person of the Father, another of the Son," etc. When used in the singular, it can refer to either the absolute or the relative. Still, this explanation seems insufficient; if the word "person," by its own meaning, expresses the divine essence exclusively, it follows that speaking of "three persons" would actually give heretics even more ground to argue. In light of this, others argued that the term "person" in God encompasses both essence and relation. Some asserted that it directly signifies essence and indirectly signifies relation since "person" conveys the idea of "by itself one," and unity is part of the essence. What is meant by "by itself" suggests relation indirectly; for instance, the Father is understood to exist "by Himself," as relatively distinct from the Son. On the other hand, some argued that it directly signifies relation and indirectly signifies essence because the term nature is mentioned indirectly in defining "person," and these views come closer to the truth.

To determine the question, we must consider that something may be included in the meaning of a less common term, which is not included in the more common term; as "rational" is included in the meaning of "man," and not in the meaning of "animal." So that it is one thing to ask the meaning of the word animal, and another to ask its meaning when the animal in question is man. Also, it is one thing to ask the meaning of this word "person" in general; and another to ask the meaning of "person" as applied to God. For "person" in general signifies the individual substance of a rational figure. The individual in itself is undivided, but is distinct from others. Therefore "person" in any nature signifies what is distinct in that nature: thus in human nature it signifies this flesh, these bones, and this soul, which are the individuating principles of a man, and which, though not belonging to "person" in general, nevertheless do belong to the meaning of a particular human person.

To figure this out, we need to recognize that the meaning of a less common term might include something that isn’t found in the more common term; for example, "rational" is part of what we mean by "man," but not by "animal." This means it's one thing to ask what the word "animal" means, and another to ask what it means when we're talking about humans. Similarly, asking for the meaning of the word "person" in general is different from asking what "person" means when referring to God. In general, "person" refers to the individual substance of a rational being. An individual is inherently whole, yet distinct from others. So, "person" in any context highlights what is unique to that context: in human context, it refers to this body, these bones, and this soul, which are the elements that define a human, and while these do not apply to "person" in general, they are crucial for understanding what a specific human person means.

Now distinction in God is only by relation of origin, as stated above (Q. 28, AA. 2, 3), while relation in God is not as an accident in a subject, but is the divine essence itself; and so it is subsistent, for the divine essence subsists. Therefore, as the Godhead is God so the divine paternity is God the Father, Who is a divine person. Therefore a divine person signifies a relation as subsisting. And this is to signify relation by way of substance, and such a relation is a hypostasis subsisting in the divine nature, although in truth that which subsists in the divine nature is the divine nature itself. Thus it is true to say that the name "person" signifies relation directly, and the essence indirectly; not, however, the relation as such, but as expressed by way of a hypostasis. So likewise it signifies directly the essence, and indirectly the relation, inasmuch as the essence is the same as the hypostasis: while in God the hypostasis is expressed as distinct by the relation: and thus relation, as such, enters into the notion of the person indirectly. Thus we can say that this signification of the word "person" was not clearly perceived before it was attacked by heretics. Hence, this word "person" was used just as any other absolute term. But afterwards it was applied to express relation, as it lent itself to that signification, so that this word "person" means relation not only by use and custom, according to the first opinion, but also by force of its own proper signification.

Now, the distinction in God is based only on the relationship of origin, as mentioned earlier (Q. 28, AA. 2, 3). This relationship in God is not an accident occurring in a subject; rather, it is the divine essence itself, which is subsistent because the divine essence exists independently. Thus, just as the Godhead is God, divine paternity represents God the Father, who is a divine person. Therefore, a divine person indicates a relationship that exists on its own. This means that the relation is understood as a substance, and that relationship is a hypostasis existing within the divine nature, even though what exists within the divine nature is the divine nature itself. Consequently, it is accurate to say that the term "person" signifies a relationship directly and the essence indirectly—not the relationship itself, but as conveyed through a hypostasis. Similarly, it directly signifies the essence and indirectly signifies the relationship, given that the essence is identical to the hypostasis. In God, the hypostasis is understood as distinct through the relationship; thus, the relationship, as such, is indirectly involved in the concept of a person. We can conclude that this meaning of the word "person" wasn't clearly recognized until it was challenged by heretics. Initially, this word "person" was used just like any other absolute term. However, later on, it began to express relationship, as it naturally lent itself to that meaning, so that now the term "person" signifies relationship not only through usage and tradition, as per the first view, but also due to its own inherent meaning.

Reply Obj. 1: This word "person" is said in respect to itself, not to another; forasmuch as it signifies relation not as such, but by way of a substance—which is a hypostasis. In that sense Augustine says that it signifies the essence, inasmuch as in God essence is the same as the hypostasis, because in God what He is, and whereby He is are the same.

Reply Obj. 1: The term "person" refers to itself, not to something else; because it signifies relation not just as a concept, but as a substance—which is a hypostasis. In this way, Augustine states that it signifies essence, since in God, essence and hypostasis are identical, because in God, what He is and how He exists are the same.

Reply Obj. 2: The term "what" refers sometimes to the nature expressed by the definition, as when we ask; What is man? and we answer: A mortal rational animal. Sometimes it refers to the suppositum, as when we ask, What swims in the sea? and answer, A fish. So to those who ask, Three what? we answer, Three persons.

Reply Obj. 2: The term "what" sometimes refers to the nature expressed by the definition, as when we ask, What is man? and we answer: A mortal rational animal. Sometimes it refers to the suppositum, as in when we ask, What swims in the sea? and answer, A fish. So, to those who ask, Three what? we answer, Three persons.

Reply Obj. 3: In God the individual—i.e. distinct and incommunicable substance—includes the idea of relation, as above explained.

Reply Obj. 3: In God, the individual—meaning a unique and incommunicable substance—includes the concept of relation, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 4: The different sense of the less common term does not produce equivocation in the more common. Although a horse and an ass have their own proper definitions, nevertheless they agree univocally in animal, because the common definition of animal applies to both. So it does not follow that, although relation is contained in the signification of divine person, but not in that of an angelic or of a human person, the word "person" is used in an equivocal sense. Though neither is it applied univocally, since nothing can be said univocally of God and creatures (Q. 13, A. 5). _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The different meaning of the less common term doesn't create confusion in the more common one. Even though a horse and a donkey have their own specific definitions, they both clearly fall under the definition of "animal" because that definition applies to both. So, it doesn't prove that even though "relation" is part of what a divine person means, but not part of what an angelic or human person means, the word "person" is being used in a confusing way. It's also not used clearly, since nothing can be stated unambiguously about God and creatures (Q. 13, A. 5). _______________________

QUESTION 30

THE PLURALITY OF PERSONS IN GOD
(In Four Articles)

THE PLURALITY OF PERSONS IN GOD
(In Four Articles)

We are now led to consider the plurality of the persons: about which there are four points of inquiry:

We now need to think about the number of persons involved; there are four key questions to explore:

(1) Whether there are several persons in God?

(1) Are there multiple persons in God?

(2) How many are they?

How many are there?

(3) What the numeral terms signify in God?

(3) What do the numerical terms mean in relation to God?

(4) The community of the term "person." _______________________

(4) The community of the term "person."

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 30, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 30, Art. 1]

Whether There Are Several Persons in God?

Whether There Are Several Persons in God?

Objection 1: It would seem that there are not several persons in God. For person is "the individual substance of a rational nature." If then there are several persons in God, there must be several substances; which appears to be heretical.

Objection 1: It seems that there aren't multiple persons in God. A person is defined as "the individual substance of a rational nature." If there are multiple persons in God, then there must be multiple substances, which seems to be heretical.

Obj. 2: Further, Plurality of absolute properties does not make a distinction of persons, either in God, or in ourselves. Much less therefore is this effected by a plurality of relations. But in God there is no plurality but of relations (Q. 28, A. 3). Therefore there cannot be several persons in God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, having multiple absolute properties does not distinguish between persons, whether in God or in ourselves. Even less does a variety of relations accomplish this. However, in God, there is only a plurality of relations (Q. 28, A. 3). Therefore, there cannot be multiple persons in God.

Obj. 3: Further, Boethius says of God (De Trin. i), that "this is truly one which has no number." But plurality implies number. Therefore there are not several persons in God.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, Boethius states about God (De Trin. i) that "this is truly one which has no number." However, plurality implies number. Therefore, there are not multiple persons in God.

Obj. 4: Further, where number is, there is whole and part. Thus, if in God there exist a number of persons, there must be whole and part in God; which is inconsistent with the divine simplicity.

Obj. 4: Also, where there is a number, there are whole and part. Therefore, if there are multiple persons in God, there must be whole and part in God; this contradicts the idea of divine simplicity.

On the contrary, Athanasius says: "One is the person of the Father, another of the Son, another of the Holy Ghost." Therefore the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Ghost are several persons.

On the contrary, Athanasius says: "One is the person of the Father, another of the Son, another of the Holy Ghost." Therefore the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost are distinct persons.

I answer that, It follows from what precedes that there are several persons in God. For it was shown above (Q. 29, A. 4) that this word "person" signifies in God a relation as subsisting in the divine nature. It was also established (Q. 28, A. 1) that there are several real relations in God; and hence it follows that there are also several realities subsistent in the divine nature; which means that there are several persons in God.

I respond that, Based on what has been discussed, there are multiple persons in God. It was previously shown (Q. 29, A. 4) that the term "person" refers to a relation that exists within the divine nature. It was also established (Q. 28, A. 1) that there are several actual relations in God; therefore, it follows that there are also several realities that exist within the divine nature, meaning there are multiple persons in God.

Reply Obj. 1: The definition of "person" includes "substance," not as meaning the essence, but the suppositum which is made clear by the addition of the term "individual." To signify the substance thus understood, the Greeks use the name "hypostasis." So, as we say, "Three persons," they say "Three hypostases." We are not, however, accustomed to say Three substances, lest we be understood to mean three essences or natures, by reason of the equivocal signification of the term.

Reply Obj. 1: The definition of "person" includes "substance," not in the sense of essence, but as the suppositum, which is clarified by the addition of the term "individual." To denote the substance in this way, the Greeks use the term "hypostasis." So, while we say "Three persons," they say "Three hypostases." However, we don't typically say "Three substances," to avoid being interpreted as meaning three essences or natures, due to the ambiguous meaning of the term.

Reply Obj. 2: The absolute properties in God, such as goodness and wisdom, are not mutually opposed; and hence, neither are they really distinguished from each other. Therefore, although they subsist, nevertheless they are not several subsistent realities—that is, several persons. But the absolute properties in creatures do not subsist, although they are really distinguished from each other, as whiteness and sweetness; on the other hand, the relative properties in God subsist, and are really distinguished from each other (Q. 28, A. 3). Hence the plurality of persons in God.

Reply Obj. 2: The absolute qualities in God, like goodness and wisdom, don't conflict with each other; therefore, they aren't truly separate. So, while they exist, they aren't several distinct realities—that is, they aren’t several persons. However, the absolute qualities in creatures don't exist on their own, even though they are truly different from each other, like whiteness and sweetness; on the other hand, the relative qualities in God do exist and are truly distinct from each other (Q. 28, A. 3). This leads to the concept of multiple persons in God.

Reply Obj. 3: The supreme unity and simplicity of God exclude every kind of plurality of absolute things, but not plurality of relations. Because relations are predicated relatively, and thus the relations do not import composition in that of which they are predicated, as Boethius teaches in the same book.

Reply Obj. 3: The ultimate unity and simplicity of God rule out any kind of plurality of absolute entities, but not the plurality of relations. Since relations are described relatively, they do not imply a composition in what they are describing, as Boethius explains in the same book.

Reply Obj. 4: Number is twofold, simple or absolute, as two and three and four; and number as existing in things numbered, as two men and two horses. So, if number in God is taken absolutely or abstractedly, there is nothing to prevent whole and part from being in Him, and thus number in Him is only in our way of understanding; forasmuch as number regarded apart from things numbered exists only in the intellect. But if number be taken as it is in the things numbered, in that sense as existing in creatures, one is part of two, and two of three, as one man is part of two men, and two of three; but this does not apply to God, because the Father is of the same magnitude as the whole Trinity, as we shall show further on (Q. 42, AA. 1, 4). _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Number has two aspects: simple or absolute, like two, three, and four; and number as it exists in counted things, like two men and two horses. Therefore, if we consider number in God as absolute or abstract, there's nothing preventing whole and part from being in Him. In this way, number in Him only relates to our way of understanding; because number viewed apart from counted things exists only in our minds. However, if we take number as it exists in the counted things, then one is part of two, and two is part of three, like one man being part of two men, and two men being part of three. But this doesn't apply to God, as the Father is of the same magnitude as the whole Trinity, as we will explain later (Q. 42, AA. 1, 4).

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 30, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 30, Art. 2]

Whether There Are More Than Three Persons in God?

Whether There Are More Than Three Persons in God?

Objection 1: It would seem that there are more than three persons in God. For the plurality of persons in God arises from the plurality of the relative properties as stated above (A. 1). But there are four relations in God as stated above (Q. 28, A. 4), paternity, filiation, common spiration, and procession. Therefore there are four persons in God.

Objection 1: It seems that there are more than three persons in God. The idea of multiple persons in God comes from the multiple relative properties mentioned earlier (A. 1). However, as stated above (Q. 28, A. 4), there are four relations in God: paternity, filiation, common spiration, and procession. Therefore, there are four persons in God.

Obj. 2: The nature of God does not differ from His will more than from His intellect. But in God, one person proceeds from the will, as love; and another proceeds from His nature, as Son. Therefore another proceeds from His intellect, as Word, besides the one Who proceeds from His nature, as Son; thus again it follows that there are not only three persons in God.

Obj. 2: The essence of God is not different from His will any more than it is from His intellect. In God, one person comes from the will, as love; and another comes from His nature, as the Son. Therefore, another comes from His intellect, as the Word, in addition to the one Who comes from His nature, as the Son; so it follows again that there are not just three persons in God.

Obj. 3: Further, the more perfect a creature is, the more interior operations it has; as a man has understanding and will beyond other animals. But God infinitely excels every creature. Therefore in God not only is there a person proceeding from the will, and another from the intellect, but also in an infinite number of ways. Therefore there are an infinite number of persons in God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the more complete a being is, the more internal processes it has; just as a human has understanding and will beyond other animals. But God far surpasses every being. Therefore, in God, there isn’t just one person coming from the will and another from the intellect, but also in countless ways. Consequently, there are infinitely many persons in God.

Obj. 4: Further, it is from the infinite goodness of the Father that He communicates Himself infinitely in the production of a divine person. But also in the Holy Ghost is infinite goodness. Therefore the Holy Ghost produces a divine person; and that person another; and so to infinity.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, it is from the limitless goodness of the Father that He shares Himself infinitely in creating a divine person. But infinite goodness is also found in the Holy Spirit. Therefore, the Holy Spirit produces a divine person; and that person produces another; and this continues infinitely.

Obj. 5: Further, everything within a determinate number is measured, for number is a measure. But the divine persons are immense, as we say in the Creed of Athanasius: "The Father is immense, the Son is immense, the Holy Ghost is immense." Therefore the persons are not contained within the number three.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, everything within a specific number is measured, because number is a measure. However, the divine persons are immense, as stated in the Athanasian Creed: "The Father is immense, the Son is immense, the Holy Ghost is immense." Therefore, the persons are not limited to the number three.

On the contrary, It is said: "There are three who bear witness in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost" (1 John 5:7). To those who ask, "Three what?" we answer, with Augustine (De Trin. vii, 4), "Three persons." Therefore there are but three persons in God.

On the contrary, it is said: "There are three who bear witness in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit" (1 John 5:7). To those who ask, "Three what?" we reply, with Augustine (De Trin. vii, 4), "Three persons." Therefore, there are only three persons in God.

I answer that, As was explained above, there can be only three persons in God. For it was shown above that the several persons are the several subsisting relations really distinct from each other. But a real distinction between the divine relations can come only from relative opposition. Therefore two opposite relations must needs refer to two persons: and if any relations are not opposite they must needs belong to the same person. Since then paternity and filiation are opposite relations, they belong necessarily to two persons. Therefore the subsisting paternity is the person of the Father; and the subsisting filiation is the person of the Son. The other two relations are not opposed to each other; therefore these two cannot belong to one person: hence either one of them must belong to both of the aforesaid persons; or one must belong to one person, and the other to the other. Now, procession cannot belong to the Father and the Son, or to either of them; for thus it would follows that the procession of the intellect, which in God is generation, wherefrom paternity and filiation are derived, would issue from the procession of love, whence spiration and procession are derived, if the person generating and the person generated proceeded from the person spirating; and this is against what was laid down above (Q. 27, AA. 3, 4). We must consequently admit that spiration belongs to the person of the Father, and to the person of the Son, forasmuch as it has no relative opposition either to paternity or to filiation; and consequently that procession belongs to the other person who is called the person of the Holy Ghost, who proceeds by way of love, as above explained. Therefore only three persons exist in God, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost.

I answer that, As explained above, there can only be three persons in God. It was shown earlier that the different persons are distinct relations that really exist apart from one another. A real distinction between the divine relations can only arise from relative opposition. Therefore, two opposite relations must refer to two persons: if any relations aren't opposed, they must belong to the same person. Since paternity and filiation are opposite relations, they necessarily belong to two persons. Thus, the existing paternity is the person of the Father; and the existing filiation is the person of the Son. The other two relations are not opposed to each other; therefore, they cannot belong to one person: hence, either one of them must belong to both of the aforementioned persons, or one must belong to one person, and the other to the other. Now, procession cannot belong to the Father and the Son, or to either of them; if it did, it would mean that the procession of the intellect, which in God is generation, from which paternity and filiation originate, would come from the procession of love, from which spiration and procession arise, if the person generating and the person generated came from the person spirating; and this contradicts what was stated earlier (Q. 27, AA. 3, 4). We must therefore accept that spiration belongs to the person of the Father and to the person of the Son, since it has no relative opposition to paternity or to filiation; and consequently that procession belongs to the other person, who is called the person of the Holy Ghost, who proceeds through love, as explained above. Therefore, there are only three persons in God: the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost.

Reply Obj. 1: Although there are four relations in God, one of them, spiration, is not separated from the person of the Father and of the Son, but belongs to both; thus, although it is a relation, it is not called a property, because it does not belong to only one person; nor is it a personal relation—i.e. constituting a person. The three relations—paternity, filiation, and procession—are called personal properties, constituting as it were the persons; for paternity is the person of the Father, filiation is the person of the Son, procession is the person of the Holy Ghost proceeding.

Reply Obj. 1: Although there are four relationships in God, one of them, spiration, is not separate from the persons of the Father and the Son, but is shared by both; therefore, even though it is a relationship, it is not referred to as a property since it does not belong to just one person; nor is it a personal relationship — meaning it does not constitute a person. The three relationships—paternity, filiation, and procession—are referred to as personal properties, in a sense forming the persons; for paternity represents the person of the Father, filiation represents the person of the Son, and procession represents the person of the Holy Ghost who proceeds.

Reply Obj. 2: That which proceeds by way of intelligence, as word, proceeds according to similitude, as also that which proceeds by way of nature; thus, as above explained (Q. 27, A. 3), the procession of the divine Word is the very same as generation by way of nature. But love, as such, does not proceed as the similitude of that whence it proceeds; although in God love is co-essential as being divine; and therefore the procession of love is not called generation in God.

Reply Obj. 2: What comes from intelligence, like a word, comes according to resemblance, just like what comes from nature; thus, as explained above (Q. 27, A. 3), the coming forth of the divine Word is the same as generation through nature. However, love, as such, does not come from something that resembles what it comes from; although in God, love is essential since it is divine; therefore, the coming forth of love is not called generation in God.

Reply Obj. 3: As man is more perfect than other animals, he has more intrinsic operations than other animals, because his perfection is something composite. Hence the angels, who are more perfect and more simple, have fewer intrinsic operations than man, for they have no imagination, or feeling, or the like. In God there exists only one real operation—that is, His essence. How there are in Him two processions was above explained (Q. 27, AA. 1, 4).

Reply Obj. 3: Since humans are more advanced than other animals, they have more inherent abilities than other animals, as their perfection is complex. Therefore, angels, who are more perfect and simpler, have fewer inherent abilities than humans because they lack imagination, emotions, or similar traits. In God, there is only one true operation—that is, His essence. The two processions within Him were explained earlier (Q. 27, AA. 1, 4).

Reply Obj. 4: This argument would prove if the Holy Ghost possessed another goodness apart from the goodness of the Father; for then if the Father produced a divine person by His goodness, the Holy Ghost also would do so. But the Father and the Holy Ghost have one and the same goodness. Nor is there any distinction between them except by the personal relations. So goodness belongs to the Holy Ghost, as derived from another; and it belongs to the Father, as the principle of its communication to another. The opposition of relation does not allow the relation of the Holy Ghost to be joined with the relation of principle of another divine person; because He Himself proceeds from the other persons who are in God.

Reply Obj. 4: This argument would mean that the Holy Spirit has a different goodness from the Father’s goodness; if that were the case, then if the Father generated a divine person through His goodness, the Holy Spirit would also do the same. However, the Father and the Holy Spirit share the same goodness. There's no difference between them except for their personal relationships. Therefore, goodness belongs to the Holy Spirit as something received from another, while it belongs to the Father as the source of its passing on to another. The difference in their relationships prevents the relationship of the Holy Spirit from being connected with the relationship of the source of another divine person, because He Himself comes from the other persons who are in God.

Reply Obj. 5: A determinate number, if taken as a simple number, existing in the mind only, is measured by one. But when we speak of a number of things as applied to the persons in God, the notion of measure has no place, because the magnitude of the three persons is the same (Q. 42, AA. 1, 4), and the same is not measured by the same. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: A specific number, when considered just as a basic concept in the mind, is measured by one. However, when we refer to a number of entities as it relates to the persons in God, the idea of measurement doesn’t apply, since the essence of the three persons is identical (Q. 42, AA. 1, 4), and the same cannot be measured by the same.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 30, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 30, Art. 3]

Whether the Numeral Terms Denote Anything Real in God?

Whether the numeral terms refer to something real in God?

Objection 1: It would seem that the numeral terms denote something real in God. For the divine unity is the divine essence. But every number is unity repeated. Therefore every numeral term in God signifies the essence; and therefore it denotes something real in God.

Objection 1: It seems like the numerical terms indicate something real in God. The divine unity is the divine essence. But every number is just unity repeated. Therefore, every numerical term in God represents the essence, and thus it signifies something real in God.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is said of God and of creatures, belongs to God in a more eminent manner than to creatures. But the numeral terms denote something real in creatures; therefore much more so in God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, whatever is said about God and about creatures applies to God in a much more significant way than to creatures. However, the numerical terms indicate something real in creatures; therefore, they indicate even more so in God.

Obj. 3: Further, if the numeral terms do not denote anything real in God, and are introduced simply in a negative and removing sense, as plurality is employed to remove unity, and unity to remove plurality; it follows that a vicious circle results, confusing the mind and obscuring the truth; and this ought not to be. Therefore it must be said that the numeral terms denote something real in God.

Obj. 3: Moreover, if the number terms don’t refer to anything real in God and are used purely in a negative sense—like using plurality to negate unity, and unity to negate plurality—then it leads to a confusing cycle that muddles understanding and hides the truth; and that shouldn’t happen. Therefore, it must be stated that the number terms indeed signify something real in God.

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. iv): "If we admit companionship"—that is, plurality—"we exclude the idea of oneness and of solitude;" and Ambrose says (De Fide i): "When we say one God, unity excludes plurality of gods, and does not imply quantity in God." Hence we see that these terms are applied to God in order to remove something; and not to denote anything positive.

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. iv): "If we accept companionship"—meaning plurality—"we eliminate the idea of oneness and solitude;" and Ambrose says (De Fide i): "When we say one God, unity rules out the existence of multiple gods, and doesn't suggest any quantity in God." Therefore, we see that these terms are used for God to eliminate something, rather than to indicate anything positive.

I answer that, The Master (Sent. i, D, 24) considers that the numeral terms do not denote anything positive in God, but have only a negative meaning. Others, however, assert the contrary.

I answer that, The Master (Sent. i, D, 24) believes that the numerical terms don't indicate anything real in God, but only have a negative significance. Others, however, argue the opposite.

In order to resolve this point, we may observe that all plurality is a consequence of division. Now division is twofold; one is material, and is division of the continuous; from this results number, which is a species of quantity. Number in this sense is found only in material things which have quantity. The other kind of division is called formal, and is effected by opposite or diverse forms; and this kind of division results in a multitude, which does not belong to a genus, but is transcendental in the sense in which being is divided by one and by many. This kind of multitude is found only in immaterial things.

To clarify this point, we can see that all plurality stems from division. Division happens in two ways: one is material, which involves dividing continuous things; this produces number, a type of quantity. In this sense, number exists only in material objects that have quantity. The other type of division is called formal, and it occurs through opposing or different forms; this kind of division leads to a multitude that doesn't belong to a specific category but is transcendental in the way that being is divided into one and many. This kind of multitude is found only in non-material things.

Some, considering only that multitude which is a species of discrete quantity, and seeing that such kind of quantity has no place in God, asserted that the numeral terms do not denote anything real in God, but remove something from Him. Others, considering the same kind of multitude, said that as knowledge exists in God according to the strict sense of the word, but not in the sense of its genus (as in God there is no such thing as a quality), so number exists in God in the proper sense of number, but not in the sense of its genus, which is quantity.

Some people, looking only at the idea of a multitude as a distinct quantity and noting that this type of quantity doesn’t exist in God, claimed that numerical terms don’t represent anything real in God but rather take something away from Him. Others, observing the same concept of multitude, argued that since knowledge exists in God in the strictest sense, but not as a type of quality (as there are no qualities in God), so too does number exist in God in the true sense of number, but not as a type of quantity.

But we say that numeral terms predicated of God are not derived from number, a species of quantity, for in that sense they could bear only a metaphorical sense in God, like other corporeal properties, such as length, breadth, and the like; but that they are taken from multitude in a transcendent sense. Now multitude so understood has relation to the many of which it is predicated, as "one" convertible with "being" is related to being; which kind of oneness does not add anything to being, except a negation of division, as we saw when treating of the divine unity (Q. 11, A. 1); for "one" signifies undivided being. So, of whatever we say "one," we imply its undivided reality: thus, for instance, "one" applied to man signifies the undivided nature or substance of a man. In the same way, when we speak of many things, multitude in this latter sense points to those things as being each undivided in itself.

But we say that terms related to numbers when referring to God aren't based on numerical value, which is a type of quantity. If they were, they would only have a metaphorical meaning in relation to God, similar to other physical characteristics like length and width. Instead, they are understood to come from a broader sense of multitude. This understanding of multitude relates to the many that it describes, just like "one," which is interchangeable with "being," relates to existence. This type of oneness doesn't add anything to being, but rather negates division, as we discussed when addressing divine unity (Q. 11, A. 1); "one" signifies undivided existence. So, whenever we say "one," we imply its unified reality: for example, "one" when applied to a person signifies the undivided nature or essence of that person. Similarly, when we refer to many things, this kind of multitude indicates that each of those things is individually undivided.

But number, if taken as a species of quantity, denotes an accident added to being; as also does "one" which is the principle of that number. Therefore the numeral terms in God signify the things of which they are said, and beyond this they add negation only, as stated (Sent. i, D, 24); in which respect the Master was right (Sent. i, D, 24). So when we say, the essence is one, the term "one" signifies the essence undivided; and when we say the person is one, it signifies the person undivided; and when we say the persons are many, we signify those persons, and their individual undividedness; for it is of the very nature of multitude that it should be composed of units.

But when we consider number as a type of quantity, it represents an addition to existence; the same applies to "one," which is the basis of that number. Therefore, the numerical terms used for God refer to the entities they describe, and beyond that, they only imply negation, as stated (Sent. i, D, 24); in this regard, the Master was correct (Sent. i, D, 24). So when we say the essence is one, the term "one" refers to the essence as undivided; and when we say the person is one, it means the person is undivided; and when we say the persons are many, we refer to those persons and their individual undivided nature; for it is inherent to the concept of multitude that it is made up of individual units.

Reply Obj. 1: One, as it is a transcendental, is wider and more general than substance and relation. And so likewise is multitude; hence in God it may mean both substance and relation, according to the context. Still, the very signification of such names adds a negation of division, beyond substance and relation; as was explained above.

Reply Obj. 1: One, because it is a transcendental concept, is broader and more general than substance and relation. Similarly, multitude also fits this description; therefore, in the context of God, it can refer to both substance and relation. However, the very meaning of these names implies a negation of division, extending beyond substance and relation, as explained earlier.

Reply Obj. 2: Multitude, which denotes something real in creatures, is a species of quantity, and cannot be used when speaking of God: unlike transcendental multitude, which adds only indivision to those of which it is predicated. Such a kind of multitude is applicable to God.

Reply Obj. 2: Multitude, which refers to something real in beings, is a type of quantity and cannot be used when talking about God: unlike transcendental multitude, which adds only indivisibility to those it describes. This kind of multitude can be applied to God.

Reply Obj. 3: "One" does not exclude multitude, but division, which logically precedes one or multitude. Multitude does not remove unity, but division from each of the individuals which compose the multitude. This was explained when we treated of the divine unity (Q. 11, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 3: "One" doesn’t exclude many, but rather division, which logically comes before one or many. Having many doesn’t negate unity, but it does indicate a division among the individual elements that make up the whole. This was explained when we discussed divine unity (Q. 11, A. 2).

It must be observed, nevertheless, that the opposite arguments do not sufficiently prove the point advanced. Although the idea of solitude is excluded by plurality, and the plurality of gods by unity, it does not follow that these terms express this signification alone. For blackness is excluded by whiteness; nevertheless, the term whiteness does not signify the mere exclusion of blackness. _______________________

It should be noted, however, that the opposing arguments don't convincingly prove the point being made. While the concept of solitude is contradicted by plurality, and the plurality of gods is contradicted by unity, it doesn't mean that these terms only express that meaning. For example, blackness is excluded by whiteness; still, the term whiteness doesn't simply mean the absence of blackness.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 30, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 30, Art. 4]

Whether This Term "Person" Can Be Common to the Three Persons?

Whether the term "person" can be applicable to all three individuals?

Objection 1: It would seem that this term "person" cannot be common to the three persons. For nothing is common to the three persons but the essence. But this term "person" does not signify the essence directly. Therefore it is not common to all three.

Objection 1: It seems that the term "person" cannot apply to the three persons. The only thing that is common to the three persons is the essence. However, the term "person" does not directly indicate the essence. Therefore, it is not applicable to all three.

Obj. 2: Further, the common is the opposite to the incommunicable. But the very meaning of person is that it is incommunicable; as appears from the definition given by Richard of St. Victor (Q. 29, A. 3, ad 4). Therefore this term "person" is not common to all the three persons.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the common is the opposite of the incommunicable. However, the essence of a person is that it is incommunicable, as shown by the definition provided by Richard of St. Victor (Q. 29, A. 3, ad 4). Therefore, the term "person" does not apply equally to all three persons.

Obj. 3: Further, if the name "person" is common to the three, it is common either really, or logically. But it is not so really; otherwise the three persons would be one person; nor again is it so logically; otherwise person would be a universal. But in God there is neither universal nor particular; neither genus nor species, as we proved above (Q. 3, A. 5). Therefore this term 'person' is not common to the three.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if the term "person" applies to the three, it applies either in reality or logically. However, it does not apply in reality; otherwise, the three persons would be one person. Nor does it apply logically; otherwise, "person" would be a universal term. But in God, there is neither a universal nor a particular; neither a genus nor a species, as we discussed earlier (Q. 3, A. 5). Therefore, the term 'person' does not apply to the three.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 4) that when we ask, "Three what?" we say, "Three persons," because what a person is, is common to them.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 4) that when we ask, "Three what?" we say, "Three persons," because what a person is, is common to them.

I answer that, The very mode of expression itself shows that this term "person" is common to the three when we say "three persons"; for when we say "three men" we show that "man" is common to the three. Now it is clear that this is not community of a real thing, as if one essence were common to the three; otherwise there would be only one person of the three, as also one essence.

I answer that, The way we express this shows that the term "person" applies to all three when we say "three persons"; because when we say "three men," we indicate that "man" applies to all three. Now, it’s clear that this doesn’t mean they share a single reality, as if one essence were common to all three; otherwise, there would just be one person among the three, as well as one essence.

What is meant by such a community has been variously determined by those who have examined the subject. Some have called it a community of exclusion, forasmuch as the definition of "person" contains the word "incommunicable." Others thought it to be a community of intention, as the definition of person contains the word "individual"; as we say that to be a species is common to horse and ox. Both of these explanations, however, are excluded by the fact that "person" is not a name of exclusion nor of intention, but the name of a reality. We must therefore resolve that even in human affairs this name "person" is common by a community of idea, not as genus or species, but as a vague individual thing. The names of genera and species, as man or animal, are given to signify the common natures themselves, but not the intentions of those common natures, signified by the terms genus or species. The vague individual thing, as "some man," signifies the common nature with the determinate mode of existence of singular things—that is, something self-subsisting, as distinct from others. But the name of a designated singular thing signifies that which distinguishes the determinate thing; as the name Socrates signifies this flesh and this bone. But there is this difference—that the term "some man" signifies the nature, or the individual on the part of its nature, with the mode of existence of singular things; while this name "person" is not given to signify the individual on the part of the nature, but the subsistent reality in that nature. Now this is common in idea to the divine persons, that each of them subsists distinctly from the others in the divine nature. Thus this name "person" is common in idea to the three divine persons.

What is meant by such a community has been understood in different ways by those who have looked into the topic. Some have referred to it as a community of exclusion because the definition of "person" includes the term "incommunicable." Others view it as a community of intention, since the definition of person includes the term "individual"; just as we say that being a species is common to horse and ox. However, both of these interpretations are ruled out by the fact that "person" is not a term of exclusion or intention, but rather a term for a reality. We must conclude that even in human relationships, the term "person" refers to a common idea, not as genus or species, but as a vague individual entity. The names of genera and species, like man or animal, are used to signify the common natures themselves, rather than the intentions behind those common natures, which are indicated by the terms genus or species. The vague individual term, like "some man," reflects the common nature along with the specific existence of individual things—that is, something that exists independently, distinct from others. The name of a specific individual signifies what makes that particular thing unique; for instance, the name Socrates refers specifically to this flesh and this bone. However, there's a distinction: the term "some man" refers to the nature or the individual regarding its nature, along with its specific existence as an individual; while the term "person" is not meant to signify the individual as it relates to nature, but rather the existing reality within that nature. Now, this idea is shared among the divine persons, as each of them exists distinctly from the others within the divine nature. Thus, the term "person" is conceptually shared by the three divine persons.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument is founded on a real community.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument is based on a real community.

Reply Obj. 2: Although person is incommunicable, yet the mode itself of incommunicable existence can be common to many.

Reply Obj. 2: Even though a person is incommunicable, the way of existing in an incommunicable manner can still be shared by many.

Reply Obj. 3: Although this community is logical and not real, yet it does not follow that in God there is universal or particular, or genus, or species; both because neither in human affairs is the community of person the same as community of genus or species; and because the divine persons have one being; whereas genus and species and every other universal are predicated of many which differ in being. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Although this community is logical and not real, it doesn't mean that in God there is universal or particular, or genus, or species; this is because in human affairs, the community of person is not the same as the community of genus or species; and because the divine persons share one being; whereas genus, species, and every other universal apply to many that differ in being.

QUESTION 31

OF WHAT BELONGS TO THE UNITY OR PLURALITY IN GOD
(In Four Articles)

OF WHAT BELONGS TO THE UNITY OR PLURALITY IN GOD
(In Four Articles)

We now consider what belongs to the unity or plurality in God; which gives rise to four points of inquiry:

We will now look at what relates to the unity or multiplicity in God, which leads us to four key questions:

(1) Concerning the word "Trinity";

Regarding the term "Trinity";

(2) Whether we can say that the Son is other than the Father?

(2) Can we say that the Son is different from the Father?

(3) Whether an exclusive term, which seems to exclude otherness, can be joined to an essential name in God?

(3) Can an exclusive term, which appears to exclude otherness, be combined with an essential name for God?

(4) Whether it can be joined to a personal term? _______________________

(4) Can it be connected to a personal term? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 31, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 31, Art. 1]

Whether There Is Trinity in God?

Whether There Is Trinity in God?

Objection 1: It would seem there is not trinity in God. For every name in God signifies substance or relation. But this name "Trinity" does not signify the substance; otherwise it would be predicated of each one of the persons: nor does it signify relation; for it does not express a name that refers to another. Therefore the word "Trinity" is not to be applied to God.

Objection 1: It seems that there is no Trinity in God. Every name we use for God signifies either substance or relation. However, the term "Trinity" does not signify substance; otherwise, it would apply to each of the persons. Nor does it signify relation, as it doesn't refer to another name. Therefore, the term "Trinity" should not be applied to God.

Obj. 2: Further, this word "trinity" is a collective term, since it signifies multitude. But such a word does not apply to God; as the unity of a collective name is the least of unities, whereas in God there exists the greatest possible unity. Therefore this word "trinity" does not apply to God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the term "trinity" is a collective term, as it indicates a group. However, such a term does not fit God; the unity of a collective name represents the lowest form of unity, whereas God embodies the highest possible unity. Therefore, the term "trinity" is not appropriate for God.

Obj. 3: Further, every trine is threefold. But in God there is not triplicity; since triplicity is a kind of inequality. Therefore neither is there trinity in God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, every trine is threefold. But in God, there is no triplicity, since triplicity represents a kind of inequality. Therefore, there is no trinity in God.

Obj. 4: Further, all that exists in God exists in the unity of the divine essence; because God is His own essence. Therefore, if Trinity exists in God, it exists in the unity of the divine essence; and thus in God there would be three essential unities; which is heresy.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, everything that exists in God exists within the unity of the divine essence, because God is His own essence. Therefore, if the Trinity exists in God, it exists within the unity of the divine essence; and thus there would be three essential unities in God, which is heresy.

Obj. 5: Further, in all that is said of God, the concrete is predicated of the abstract; for Deity is God and paternity is the Father. But the Trinity cannot be called trine; otherwise there would be nine realities in God; which, of course, is erroneous. Therefore the word trinity is not to be applied to God.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, when discussing God, the specific is connected to the general; because Deity refers to God and paternity refers to the Father. However, the Trinity cannot be described as three; otherwise, there would be nine distinct realities in God, which is obviously incorrect. Therefore, the term Trinity should not be used in reference to God.

On the contrary, Athanasius says: "Unity in Trinity; and Trinity in Unity is to be revered."

On the contrary, Athanasius says: "Unity in Trinity; and Trinity in Unity is to be respected."

I answer that, The name "Trinity" in God signifies the determinate number of persons. And so the plurality of persons in God requires that we should use the word trinity; because what is indeterminately signified by plurality, is signified by trinity in a determinate manner.

I answer that, The term "Trinity" when referring to God indicates a specific number of persons. Therefore, the existence of multiple persons in God means we should use the term trinity; because what is generally indicated by plurality is specifically indicated by trinity.

Reply Obj. 1: In its etymological sense, this word "Trinity" seems to signify the one essence of the three persons, according as trinity may mean trine-unity. But in the strict meaning of the term it rather signifies the number of persons of one essence; and on this account we cannot say that the Father is the Trinity, as He is not three persons. Yet it does not mean the relations themselves of the Persons, but rather the number of persons related to each other; and hence it is that the word in itself does not express regard to another.

Reply Obj. 1: In its original sense, the word "Trinity" seems to represent the one essence of the three persons, as "trinity" can mean three-in-one. However, in its strict definition, it refers more to the number of persons that share one essence; for this reason, we cannot say that the Father is the Trinity, since He is not three persons. It also doesn't refer to the relationships among the Persons but rather the count of persons connected to one another; thus, the term itself does not imply a relationship to another.

Reply Obj. 2: Two things are implied in a collective term, plurality of the supposita, and a unity of some kind of order. For "people" is a multitude of men comprehended under a certain order. In the first sense, this word "trinity" is like other collective words; but in the second sense it differs from them, because in the divine Trinity not only is there unity of order, but also with this there is unity of essence.

Reply Obj. 2: Two things are included in a collective term: the plurality of the supposita and a unity of some kind of order. "People" refers to a group of individuals considered under a specific order. In the first sense, the word "trinity" is similar to other collective terms; however, in the second sense, it stands out because, in the divine Trinity, there is not only a unity of order but also a unity of essence.

Reply Obj. 3: "Trinity" is taken in an absolute sense; for it signifies the threefold number of persons. "Triplicity" signifies a proportion of inequality; for it is a species of unequal proportion, according to Boethius (Arithm. i, 23). Therefore in God there is not triplicity, but Trinity.

Reply Obj. 3: "Trinity" is used in an absolute sense; it refers to the three distinct persons. "Triplicity" implies an unequal proportion; it's a type of uneven ratio, according to Boethius (Arithm. i, 23). So, in God, there is not triplicity, but Trinity.

Reply Obj. 4: In the divine Trinity is to be understood both number and the persons numbered. So when we say, "Trinity in Unity," we do not place number in the unity of the essence, as if we meant three times one; but we place the Persons numbered in the unity of nature; as the supposita of a nature are said to exist in that nature. On the other hand, we say "Unity in Trinity"; meaning that the nature is in its supposita.

Reply Obj. 4: In the divine Trinity, both the number and the individual persons within that number should be understood. So when we say, "Trinity in Unity," we aren’t implying that the unity of essence means three times one; instead, we are acknowledging the Persons counted within the unity of nature, just as the supposita of a nature are considered to exist within that nature. Conversely, when we say "Unity in Trinity," we mean that the nature exists in its supposita.

Reply Obj. 5: When we say, "Trinity is trine," by reason of the number implied, we signify the multiplication of that number by itself; since the word trine imports a distinction in the supposita of which it is spoken. Therefore it cannot be said that the Trinity is trine; otherwise it follows that, if the Trinity be trine, there would be three supposita of the Trinity; as when we say, "God is trine," it follows that there are three supposita of the Godhead. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: When we say, "The Trinity is trine," the number implied indicates multiplying that number by itself; since the word trine suggests a distinction in the supposita being referred to. Therefore, we cannot claim that the Trinity is trine; otherwise, it would mean that if the Trinity is trine, there would be three supposita of the Trinity; just as when we say, "God is trine," it implies that there are three supposita of the Godhead.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 31, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 31, Art. 2]

Whether the Son Is Other Than the Father?

Whether the Son is Different from the Father?

Objection 1: It would seem that the Son is not other than the Father. For "other" is a relative term implying diversity of substance. If, then, the Son is other than the Father, He must be different from the Father; which is contrary to what Augustine says (De Trin. vii), that when we speak of three persons, "we do not mean to imply diversity."

Objection 1: It seems that the Son is not different from the Father. The term "different" suggests a difference in substance. So, if the Son is different from the Father, He must be distinct from the Father, which goes against what Augustine says (De Trin. vii), that when we talk about three persons, "we do not mean to imply diversity."

Obj. 2: Further, whosoever are other from one another, differ in some way from one another. Therefore, if the Son is other than the Father, it follows that He differs from the Father; which is against what Ambrose says (De Fide i), that "the Father and the Son are one in Godhead; nor is there any difference in substance between them, nor any diversity."

Obj. 2: Furthermore, anyone who is different from another differs in some way. Therefore, if the Son is different from the Father, it implies that He differs from the Father, which contradicts what Ambrose says (De Fide i), that "the Father and the Son are one in Godhead; there is no difference in substance between them, nor any diversity."

Obj. 3: Further, the term alien is taken from alius (other). But the Son is not alien from the Father, for Hilary says (De Trin. vii) that "in the divine persons there is nothing diverse, nothing alien, nothing separable." Therefore the Son is not other than the Father.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the term alien comes from alius (other). But the Son is not different from the Father, because Hilary states (De Trin. vii) that "in the divine persons there is nothing diverse, nothing alien, nothing separable." Therefore, the Son is not other than the Father.

Obj. 4: Further, the terms "other person" and "other thing" [alius et aliud] have the same meaning, differing only in gender. So if the Son is another person from the Father, it follows that the Son is a thing apart from the Father.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the terms "other person" and "other thing" have the same meaning, differing only in gender. So if the Son is a different person from the Father, it follows that the Son is a separate entity from the Father.

On the contrary, Augustine [*Fulgentius, De Fide ad Petrum i.] says: "There is one essence of the Father and Son and Holy Ghost, in which the Father is not one thing, the Son another, and the Holy Ghost another; although the Father is one person, the Son another, and the Holy Ghost another."

On the contrary, Augustine [*Fulgentius, De Fide ad Petrum i.] says: "There is one essence of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, in which the Father is not one thing, the Son another, and the Holy Spirit another; although the Father is one person, the Son is another, and the Holy Spirit is another."

I answer that, Since as Jerome remarks [*In substance, Ep. lvii.], a heresy arises from words wrongly used, when we speak of the Trinity we must proceed with care and with befitting modesty; because, as Augustine says (De Trin. i, 3), "nowhere is error more harmful, the quest more toilsome, the finding more fruitful." Now, in treating of the Trinity, we must beware of two opposite errors, and proceed cautiously between them—namely, the error of Arius, who placed a Trinity of substance with the Trinity of persons; and the error of Sabellius, who placed unity of person with the unity of essence.

I respond that, as Jerome points out [*In substance, Ep. lvii.], a heresy forms from misused words. When discussing the Trinity, we need to be careful and humble, because, as Augustine states (De Trin. i, 3), "nowhere is error more damaging, the search more difficult, the discovery more rewarding." While exploring the Trinity, we must be cautious of two opposing errors and navigate carefully between them—specifically, the error of Arius, who separated the Trinity of substance from the Trinity of persons; and the error of Sabellius, who confused the unity of person with the unity of essence.

Thus, to avoid the error of Arius we must shun the use of the terms diversity and difference in God, lest we take away the unity of essence: we may, however, use the term "distinction" on account of the relative opposition. Hence whenever we find terms of "diversity" or "difference" of Persons used in an authentic work, these terms of "diversity" or "difference" are taken to mean "distinction." But lest the simplicity and singleness of the divine essence be taken away, the terms "separation" and "division," which belong to the parts of a whole, are to be avoided: and lest quality be taken away, we avoid the use of the term "disparity": and lest we remove similitude, we avoid the terms "alien" and "discrepant." For Ambrose says (De Fide i) that "in the Father and the Son there is no discrepancy, but one Godhead": and according to Hilary, as quoted above, "in God there is nothing alien, nothing separable."

To avoid the mistake of Arius, we should steer clear of using the terms diversity and difference when talking about God, so we don’t undermine the unity of essence. However, we can use the term "distinction" because of the relative opposition. Therefore, whenever we come across the terms "diversity" or "difference" of Persons in a legitimate work, these terms should be understood as "distinction." To ensure that the simplicity and singularity of the divine essence are upheld, we need to avoid the terms "separation" and "division," which imply parts of a whole. To maintain quality, we should refrain from using "disparity," and to preserve similarity, we should avoid "alien" and "discrepant." As Ambrose states (De Fide i), "in the Father and the Son there is no discrepancy, but one Godhead," and according to Hilary, as mentioned above, "in God there is nothing alien, nothing separable."

To avoid the heresy of Sabellius, we must shun the term "singularity," lest we take away the communicability of the divine essence. Hence Hilary says (De Trin. vii): "It is sacrilege to assert that the Father and the Son are separate in Godhead." We must avoid the adjective "only" (unici) lest we take away the number of persons. Hence Hilary says in the same book: "We exclude from God the idea of singularity or uniqueness." Nevertheless, we say "the only Son," for in God there is no plurality of Sons. Yet, we do not say "the only God," for the Deity is common to several. We avoid the word "confused," lest we take away from the Persons the order of their nature. Hence Ambrose says (De Fide i): "What is one is not confused; and there is no multiplicity where there is no difference." The word "solitary" is also to be avoided, lest we take away the society of the three persons; for, as Hilary says (De Trin. iv), "We confess neither a solitary nor a diverse God."

To avoid the heresy of Sabellius, we need to steer clear of the term "singularity," so we don't diminish the shared essence of the divine. Hilary points out (De Trin. vii): "It's sacrilege to claim that the Father and the Son are separate in their Godhood." We should avoid the word "only" (unici) so we don't eliminate the concept of persons. In the same text, Hilary states: "We rule out the idea of singularity or uniqueness in God." Yet, we refer to "the only Son," because there isn’t a plurality of Sons in God. However, we don’t say "the only God," since the Deity is shared among many. We also avoid the word "confused," to maintain the order of nature among the Persons. Ambrose notes (De Fide i): "What is one is not confused; and there is no multiplicity where there is no difference." The term "solitary" should also be kept at bay, to preserve the community of the three persons; as Hilary states (De Trin. iv), "We acknowledge neither a solitary nor a diverse God."

This word "other" [alius], however, in the masculine sense, means only a distinction of suppositum; and hence we can properly say that "the Son is other than the Father," because He is another suppositum of the divine nature, as He is another person and another hypostasis.

This word "other," in the masculine sense, means only a distinction of suppositum; and so we can correctly say that "the Son is other than the Father," because He is another suppositum of the divine nature, as He is another person and another hypostasis.

Reply Obj. 1: "Other," being like the name of a particular thing, refers to the suppositum; and so, there is sufficient reason for using it, where there is a distinct substance in the sense of hypostasis or person. But diversity requires a distinct substance in the sense of essence. Thus we cannot say that the Son is diverse from the Father, although He is another.

Reply Obj. 1: "Other," which is similar to the name of a specific thing, refers to the suppositum; and therefore, it's reasonable to use it when there is a distinct substance in terms of hypostasis or person. However, diversity requires a distinct substance regarding essence. So, we cannot say that the Son is different from the Father, even though He is another.

Reply Obj. 2: "Difference" implies distinction of form. There is one form in God, as appears from the text, "Who, when He was in the form of God" (Phil. 2:6). Therefore the term "difference" does not properly apply to God, as appears from the authority quoted. Yet, Damascene (De Fide Orth. i, 5) employs the term "difference" in the divine persons, as meaning that the relative property is signified by way of form. Hence he says that the hypostases do not differ from each other in substance, but according to determinate properties. But "difference" is taken for "distinction," as above stated.

Reply Obj. 2: "Difference" means a distinction in form. There is one form in God, as indicated by the text, "Who, when He was in the form of God" (Phil. 2:6). Therefore, the term "difference" doesn't properly apply to God, as shown by the cited authority. However, Damascene (De Fide Orth. i, 5) uses the term "difference" to refer to the divine persons, meaning that the relative property is conveyed in terms of form. He explains that the hypostases do not differ from each other in substance but according to specific properties. But "difference" is understood as "distinction," as stated above.

Reply Obj. 3: The term "alien" means what is extraneous and dissimilar; which is not expressed by the term "other" [alius]; and therefore we say that the Son is "other" than the Father, but not that He is anything "alien."

Reply Obj. 3: The term "alien" refers to something foreign and different; this is not captured by the term "other" [alius]; therefore, we say that the Son is "other" than the Father, but we do not say that He is anything "alien."

Reply Obj. 4: The neuter gender is formless; whereas the masculine is formed and distinct; and so is the feminine. So the common essence is properly and aptly expressed by the neuter gender, but by the masculine and feminine is expressed the determined subject in the common nature. Hence also in human affairs, if we ask, Who is this man? we answer, Socrates, which is the name of the suppositum; whereas, if we ask, What is he? we reply, A rational and mortal animal. So, because in God distinction is by the persons, and not by the essence, we say that the Father is other than the Son, but not something else; while conversely we say that they are one thing, but not one person. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The neuter gender is formless, while the masculine is defined and distinct, and the same goes for the feminine. Therefore, the common essence is accurately represented by the neuter gender, but the masculine and feminine express the specific subject within that common nature. Similarly, in human matters, if we ask, Who is this man? we answer, Socrates, which is the name of the suppositum; however, if we ask, What is he? we respond, A rational and mortal animal. Thus, because in God the distinction is based on the persons and not the essence, we say the Father is different from the Son, but not something else; on the other hand, we say they are one thing, but not one person.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 31, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 31, Art. 3]

Whether the Exclusive Word "Alone" Should Be Added to the Essential
Term in God?

Whether the Specific Word "Alone" Should Be Added to the Essential
Term in God?

Objection 1: It would seem that the exclusive word "alone" [solus] is not to be added to an essential term in God. For, according to the Philosopher (Elench. ii, 3), "He is alone who is not with another." But God is with the angels and the souls of the saints. Therefore we cannot say that God is alone.

Objection 1: It seems that the exclusive term "alone" should not be attached to an essential term about God. According to the Philosopher (Elench. ii, 3), "He is alone who is not with another." But God is with the angels and the souls of the saints. Therefore, we cannot say that God is alone.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is joined to the essential term in God can be predicated of every person per se, and of all the persons together; for, as we can properly say that God is wise, we can say the Father is a wise God; and the Trinity is a wise God. But Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 9): "We must consider the opinion that the Father is not true God alone." Therefore God cannot be said to be alone.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, anything that is connected to the essential term in God can be attributed to each person per se, and to all the persons together; for just as we can accurately say that God is wise, we can say the Father is a wise God; and the Trinity is a wise God. However, Augustine states (De Trin. vi, 9): "We must consider the view that the Father is not the true God alone." Therefore, God cannot be said to be alone.

Obj. 3: Further if this expression "alone" is joined to an essential term, it would be so joined as regards either the personal predicate or the essential predicate. But it cannot be the former, as it is false to say, "God alone is Father," since man also is a father; nor, again, can it be applied as regards the latter, for, if this saying were true, "God alone creates," it would follow that the "Father alone creates," as whatever is said of God can be said of the Father; and it would be false, as the Son also creates. Therefore this expression "alone" cannot be joined to an essential term in God.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if the word "alone" is attached to an essential term, it would have to be related to either the personal or the essential predicate. But it can't be the first, because it would be incorrect to say, "God alone is Father," since a man can also be a father; nor can it relate to the second, because if we were to say, "God alone creates," it would imply that "the Father alone creates," since whatever applies to God also applies to the Father; and that would be incorrect because the Son also creates. Therefore, the term "alone" cannot be linked to an essential term in God.

On the contrary, It is said, "To the King of ages, immortal, invisible, the only God" (1 Tim. 1:17).

On the contrary, it is said, "To the King of ages, immortal, invisible, the only God" (1 Tim. 1:17).

I answer that, This term "alone" can be taken as a categorematical term, or as a syncategorematical term. A categorematical term is one which ascribes absolutely its meaning to a given suppositum; as, for instance, "white" to man, as when we say a "white man." If the term "alone" is taken in this sense, it cannot in any way be joined to any term in God; for it would mean solitude in the term to which it is joined; and it would follow that God was solitary, against what is above stated (A. 2). A syncategorematical term imports the order of the predicate to the subject; as this expression "every one" or "no one"; and likewise the term "alone," as excluding every other suppositum from the predicate. Thus, when we say, "Socrates alone writes," we do not mean that Socrates is solitary, but that he has no companion in writing, though many others may be with him. In this way nothing prevents the term "alone" being joined to any essential term in God, as excluding the predicate from all things but God; as if we said "God alone is eternal," because nothing but God is eternal.

I respond that, The term "alone" can be understood as a categorematical term, or as a syncategorematical term. A categorematical term assigns its meaning directly to a specific suppositum; for example, "white" refers to man when we say "a white man." If "alone" is understood in this way, it cannot be combined with any term related to God; doing so would imply solitude in the term it is connected to, which would suggest that God is solitary, contradicting what was previously stated (A. 2). A syncategorematical term reflects the relationship between the predicate and the subject; like the expressions "everyone" or "no one"; likewise, "alone" serves to exclude any other suppositum from the predicate. Therefore, when we say, "Socrates alone writes," we don't mean that Socrates is solitary, but that he has no one else writing with him, even if others may be present. In this sense, there’s no issue with the term "alone" being paired with any essential term in God, as it excludes the predicate from everything except God; for example, "God alone is eternal," since nothing other than God is eternal.

Reply Obj. 1: Although the angels and the souls of the saints are always with God, nevertheless, if plurality of persons did not exist in God, He would be alone or solitary. For solitude is not removed by association with anything that is extraneous in nature; thus anyone is said to be alone in a garden, though many plants and animals are with him in the garden. Likewise, God would be alone or solitary, though angels and men were with Him, supposing that several persons were not within Him. Therefore the society of angels and of souls does not take away absolute solitude from God; much less does it remove respective solitude, in reference to a predicate.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though angels and the souls of the saints are always with God, if there weren't multiple persons in God, He would be alone. Being alone isn't changed by having anything outside of Himself around; for example, someone can be alone in a garden, even if there are many plants and animals there. Similarly, God would still be alone even if angels and humans were with Him, if He didn't have multiple persons within Him. So, the presence of angels and souls doesn't eliminate God’s absolute solitude; it definitely doesn't eliminate His solitude in terms of specific attributes.

Reply Obj. 2: This expression "alone," properly speaking, does not affect the predicate, which is taken formally, for it refers to the suppositum, as excluding any other suppositum from the one which it qualifies. But the adverb "only," being exclusive, can be applied either to subject or predicate. For we can say, "Only Socrates"—that is, no one else—"runs: and Socrates runs only"—that is, he does nothing else. Hence it is not properly said that the Father is God alone, or the Trinity is God alone, unless some implied meaning be assumed in the predicate, as, for instance, "The Trinity is God Who alone is God." In that sense it can be true to say that the Father is that God Who alone is God, if the relative be referred to the predicate, and not to the suppositum. So, when Augustine says that the Father is not God alone, but that the Trinity is God alone, he speaks expositively, as he might explain the words, "To the King of ages, invisible, the only God," as applying not to the Father, but to the Trinity alone.

Reply Obj. 2: The term "alone" doesn’t really change the predicate, which is taken formally because it refers to the suppositum, excluding any other suppositum from the one it describes. However, the adverb "only," being exclusive, can apply to either the subject or the predicate. For example, we can say, "Only Socrates"—meaning no one else—"runs: and Socrates runs only"—meaning he does nothing else. Therefore, it’s not accurate to say that the Father is God alone, or that the Trinity is God alone, unless some implied meaning is understood in the predicate, such as "The Trinity is God Who alone is God." In that context, it can be true to say that the Father is that God Who alone is God, if the relative term refers to the predicate, not to the suppositum. So when Augustine says that the Father is not God alone, but that the Trinity is God alone, he speaks clarifyingly, similar to how he might explain the phrase, "To the King of ages, invisible, the only God," as referring not to the Father, but to the Trinity alone.

Reply Obj. 3: In both ways can the term "alone" be joined to an essential term. For this proposition, "God alone is Father," can mean two things, because the word "Father" can signify the person of the Father; and then it is true; for no man is that person: or it can signify that relation only; and thus it is false, because the relation of paternity is found also in others, though not in a univocal sense. Likewise it is true to say God alone creates; nor, does it follow, "therefore the Father alone creates," because, as logicians say, an exclusive diction so fixes the term to which it is joined that what is said exclusively of that term cannot be said exclusively of an individual contained in that term: for instance, from the premiss, "Man alone is a mortal rational animal," we cannot conclude, "therefore Socrates alone is such." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The term "alone" can be connected to an essential term in two ways. For the statement, "God alone is Father," it can mean two things. The word "Father" might refer to the person of the Father, which is true since no one else is that person. Alternatively, it could refer just to the relationship, which would be false, as the relationship of being a father also exists in others, even if not in the exact same way. Similarly, it is true to say that God alone creates; however, it doesn’t follow that "therefore the Father alone creates," because, as logicians point out, exclusive language ties the term it’s attached to so that what is exclusively stated about that term can't be said exclusively about an individual included in that term. For example, from the premise, "Man alone is a mortal rational animal," we cannot conclude, "therefore Socrates alone is such."

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 31, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 31, Art. 4]

Whether an Exclusive Diction Can Be Joined to the Personal Term?

Whether an Exclusive Diction Can Be Combined with the Personal Term?

Objection 1: It would seem that an exclusive diction can be joined to the personal term, even though the predicate is common. For our Lord speaking to the Father, said: "That they may know Thee, the only true God" (John 17:3). Therefore the Father alone is true God.

Objection 1: It seems that a specific vocabulary can be connected to the personal term, even if the predicate is general. For our Lord, speaking to the Father, said: "That they may know You, the only true God" (John 17:3). Therefore, the Father alone is the true God.

Obj. 2: Further, He said: "No one knows the Son but the Father" (Matt. 11:27); which means that the Father alone knows the Son. But to know the Son is common (to the persons). Therefore the same conclusion follows.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, He said: "No one knows the Son except the Father" (Matt. 11:27); which means that only the Father knows the Son. But knowing the Son is something that is shared (among the persons). Therefore, the same conclusion applies.

Obj. 3: Further, an exclusive diction does not exclude what enters into the concept of the term to which it is joined. Hence it does not exclude the part, nor the universal; for it does not follow that if we say "Socrates alone is white," that therefore "his hand is not white," or that "man is not white." But one person is in the concept of another; as the Father is in the concept of the Son; and conversely. Therefore, when we say, The Father alone is God, we do not exclude the Son, nor the Holy Ghost; so that such a mode of speaking is true.

Obj. 3: Additionally, an exclusive term doesn’t rule out what is included in the concept it’s paired with. So, it doesn’t exclude the part or the whole; it doesn’t mean that when we say "Socrates alone is white," we imply that "his hand isn't white," or that "man isn't white." One person is included in the concept of another; just like the Father is included in the concept of the Son, and vice versa. Therefore, when we say, The Father alone is God, we’re not excluding the Son or the Holy Spirit; so this way of speaking is accurate.

Obj. 4: Further, the Church sings: "Thou alone art Most High, O Jesus
Christ."

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the Church sings: "You alone are Most High, O Jesus
Christ."

On the contrary, This proposition "The Father alone is God" includes two assertions—namely, that the Father is God, and that no other besides the Father is God. But this second proposition is false, for the Son is another from the Father, and He is God. Therefore this is false, The Father alone is God; and the same of the like sayings.

On the contrary, this statement "The Father alone is God" has two claims—first, that the Father is God, and second, that no one else besides the Father is God. But the second claim is false, because the Son is distinct from the Father, and He is God. Therefore, the statement "The Father alone is God" is false, as are similar statements.

I answer that, When we say, "The Father alone is God," such a proposition can be taken in several senses. If "alone" means solitude in the Father, it is false in a categorematical sense; but if taken in a syncategorematical sense it can again be understood in several ways. For if it exclude (all others) from the form of the subject, it is true, the sense being "the Father alone is God"—that is, "He who with no other is the Father, is God." In this way Augustine expounds when he says (De Trin. vi, 6): "We say the Father alone, not because He is separate from the Son, or from the Holy Ghost, but because they are not the Father together with Him." This, however, is not the usual way of speaking, unless we understand another implication, as though we said "He who alone is called the Father is God." But in the strict sense the exclusion affects the predicate. And thus the proposition is false if it excludes another in the masculine sense; but true if it excludes it in the neuter sense; because the Son is another person than the Father, but not another thing; and the same applies to the Holy Ghost. But because this diction "alone," properly speaking, refers to the subject, it tends to exclude another Person rather than other things. Hence such a way of speaking is not to be taken too literally, but it should be piously expounded, whenever we find it in an authentic work.

I respond that, When we say, "The Father alone is God," this statement can have multiple interpretations. If "alone" is understood as being solitary in relation to the Father, then it is incorrect in a categorical sense; however, if it is meant in a syncategorematic sense, it can be interpreted in various ways. If it excludes everyone else from being part of the subject, then it is true, meaning "the Father alone is God"—that is, "He who is the Father without anyone else is God." Augustine explains this when he says (De Trin. vi, 6): "We say the Father alone, not because He is separate from the Son or the Holy Spirit, but because they do not share the title of Father with Him." However, this isn't the common way of expressing it, unless we consider another implication, as if we were saying "He who is uniquely called the Father is God." But in the strict sense, the exclusion impacts the predicate. Thus, the statement is false if it excludes another in a masculine sense; however, it's true if it excludes in a neuter sense, since the Son is a different person than the Father, but not a different essence; the same applies to the Holy Spirit. Nevertheless, because the term "alone," in a precise sense, refers to the subject, it tends to exclude another Person more than other essences. Therefore, such expressions should not be taken too literally, but should be understood reverently whenever we encounter them in authoritative texts.

Reply Obj. 1: When we say, "Thee the only true God," we do not understand it as referring to the person of the Father, but to the whole Trinity, as Augustine expounds (De Trin. vi, 9). Or, if understood of the person of the Father, the other persons are not excluded by reason of the unity of essence; in so far as the word "only" excludes another thing, as above explained.

Reply Obj. 1: When we say, "You are the only true God," we don't mean it as a reference to just the Father, but to the entire Trinity, as Augustine explains (De Trin. vi, 9). Or, if it's taken to mean the person of the Father, the other persons aren't excluded because of the unity of essence; because the word "only" excludes something else, as explained above.

The same Reply can be given to Obj. 2. For an essential term applied to the Father does not exclude the Son or the Holy Ghost, by reason of the unity of essence. Hence we must understand that in the text quoted the term "no one" [*Nemo = non-homo, i.e. no man] is not the same as "no man," which the word itself would seem to signify (for the person of the Father could not be excepted), but is taken according to the usual way of speaking in a distributive sense, to mean any rational nature.

The same response applies to Obj. 2. An essential term used for the Father doesn’t exclude the Son or the Holy Spirit because of the unity of essence. Therefore, we should understand that in the quoted text, the term "no one" [*Nemo = non-homo, i.e. no man] isn’t the same as "no man," which the word itself might suggest (since the person of the Father couldn’t be excluded), but is used in the usual way of speaking in a distributive sense, meaning any rational nature.

Reply Obj. 3: The exclusive diction does not exclude what enters into the concept of the term to which it is adjoined, if they do not differ in suppositum, as part and universal. But the Son differs in suppositum from the Father; and so there is no parity.

Reply Obj. 3: The specific wording doesn’t eliminate what falls under the meaning of the term to which it is attached, as long as they don’t differ in suppositum, like part and whole. However, the Son differs in suppositum from the Father; therefore, there is no equality.

Reply Obj. 4: We do not say absolutely that the Son alone is Most
High; but that He alone is Most High "with the Holy Ghost, in the
glory of God the Father."
_______________________

Reply Obj. 4: We don’t claim that the Son is the only Most High; rather, we say that He is the Most High "with the Holy Spirit, in the glory of God the Father."
_______________________

QUESTION 32

THE KNOWLEDGE OF THE DIVINE PERSONS
(In Four Articles)

THE KNOWLEDGE OF THE DIVINE PERSONS
(In Four Articles)

We proceed to inquire concerning the knowledge of the divine persons; and this involves four points of inquiry:

We move on to explore the understanding of the divine persons; and this includes four areas of investigation:

(1) Whether the divine persons can be known by natural reason?

(1) Can we know the divine persons through natural reason?

(2) Whether notions are to be attributed to the divine persons?

(2) Should we assign ideas to the divine individuals?

(3) The number of the notions?

(3) What are the number of the concepts?

(4) Whether we may lawfully have various contrary opinions of these notions? _______________________

(4) Can we legally hold different opposing views on these concepts? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 32, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 32, Art. 1]

Whether the Trinity of the Divine Persons Can Be Known by Natural
Reason?

Whether the Trinity of the Divine Persons Can Be Known by Natural
Reason?

Objection 1: It would seem that the trinity of the divine persons can be known by natural reason. For philosophers came to the knowledge of God not otherwise than by natural reason. Now we find that they said many things about the trinity of persons, for Aristotle says (De Coelo et Mundo i, 2): "Through this number"—namely, three—"we bring ourselves to acknowledge the greatness of one God, surpassing all things created." And Augustine says (Confess. vii, 9): "I have read in their works, not in so many words, but enforced by many and various reasons, that in the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God," and so on; in which passage the distinction of persons is laid down. We read, moreover, in a gloss on Rom. 1 and Ex. 8 that the magicians of Pharaoh failed in the third sign—that is, as regards knowledge of a third person—i.e. of the Holy Ghost—and thus it is clear that they knew at least two persons. Likewise Trismegistus says: "The monad begot a monad, and reflected upon itself its own heat." By which words the generation of the Son and procession of the Holy Ghost seem to be indicated. Therefore knowledge of the divine persons can be obtained by natural reason.

Objection 1: It seems that we can know the trinity of the divine persons through natural reason. Philosophers only came to know God through natural reasoning. We see that they spoke about the trinity of persons, as Aristotle states (De Coelo et Mundo i, 2): "Through this number"—meaning three—"we come to recognize the greatness of one God, surpassing all created things." Augustine also writes (Confess. vii, 9): "I have read in their works, not in those exact words, but supported by various reasons, that in the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God," and so on; this passage establishes the distinction of persons. Additionally, we read in a commentary on Rom. 1 and Ex. 8 that Pharaoh’s magicians failed to understand the third sign—that is, regarding knowledge of a third person—specifically, the Holy Ghost—showing that they at least recognized two persons. Similarly, Trismegistus states: "The monad begot a monad and reflected its own heat upon itself." These words seem to indicate the generation of the Son and the procession of the Holy Ghost. Therefore, understanding the divine persons can be achieved through natural reason.

Obj. 2: Further, Richard St. Victor says (De Trin. i, 4): "I believe without doubt that probable and even necessary arguments can be found for any explanation of the truth." So even to prove the Trinity some have brought forward a reason from the infinite goodness of God, who communicates Himself infinitely in the procession of the divine persons; while some are moved by the consideration that "no good thing can be joyfully possessed without partnership." Augustine proceeds (De Trin. x, 4; x, 11, 12) to prove the trinity of persons by the procession of the word and of love in our own mind; and we have followed him in this (Q. 27, AA. 1, 3). Therefore the trinity of persons can be known by natural reason.

Obj. 2: Moreover, Richard St. Victor states (De Trin. i, 4): "I firmly believe that there are valid and even necessary arguments to support any explanation of the truth." To prove the Trinity, some have suggested an argument based on the infinite goodness of God, who infinitely shares Himself in the procession of the divine persons; while others are influenced by the idea that "no good thing can be truly enjoyed without sharing." Augustine goes on (De Trin. x, 4; x, 11, 12) to demonstrate the trinity of persons through the procession of the word and love within our own minds; and we have followed his reasoning in this (Q. 27, AA. 1, 3). Thus, the trinity of persons can be understood through natural reason.

Obj. 3: Further, it seems to be superfluous to teach what cannot be known by natural reason. But it ought not to be said that the divine tradition of the Trinity is superfluous. Therefore the trinity of persons can be known by natural reason.

Obj. 3: Additionally, it seems unnecessary to teach what cannot be understood through natural reason. However, we shouldn't say that the divine tradition of the Trinity is unnecessary. Therefore, the Trinity of persons can be understood through natural reason.

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. i), "Let no man think to reach the sacred mystery of generation by his own mind." And Ambrose says (De Fide ii, 5), "It is impossible to know the secret of generation. The mind fails, the voice is silent." But the trinity of the divine persons is distinguished by origin of generation and procession (Q. 30, A. 2). Since, therefore, man cannot know, and with his understanding grasp that for which no necessary reason can be given, it follows that the trinity of persons cannot be known by reason.

On the contrary, Hilary states (De Trin. i), "No one should believe they can understand the sacred mystery of generation through their own intelligence." And Ambrose mentions (De Fide ii, 5), "It's impossible to grasp the secret of generation. The mind falls short, and words fail." However, the Trinity of divine persons is defined by the origins of generation and procession (Q. 30, A. 2). Therefore, since humans cannot know, and cannot comprehend what lacks a necessary explanation, it follows that the Trinity of persons cannot be understood through reason.

I answer that, It is impossible to attain to the knowledge of the Trinity by natural reason. For, as above explained (Q. 12, AA. 4, 12), man cannot obtain the knowledge of God by natural reason except from creatures. Now creatures lead us to the knowledge of God, as effects do to their cause. Accordingly, by natural reason we can know of God that only which of necessity belongs to Him as the principle of things, and we have cited this fundamental principle in treating of God as above (Q. 12, A. 12). Now, the creative power of God is common to the whole Trinity; and hence it belongs to the unity of the essence, and not to the distinction of the persons. Therefore, by natural reason we can know what belongs to the unity of the essence, but not what belongs to the distinction of the persons. Whoever, then, tries to prove the trinity of persons by natural reason, derogates from faith in two ways. Firstly, as regards the dignity of faith itself, which consists in its being concerned with invisible things, that exceed human reason; wherefore the Apostle says that "faith is of things that appear not" (Heb. 11:1), and the same Apostle says also, "We speak wisdom among the perfect, but not the wisdom of this world, nor of the princes of this world; but we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery which is hidden" (1 Cor. 2:6, 7). Secondly, as regards the utility of drawing others to the faith. For when anyone in the endeavor to prove the faith brings forward reasons which are not cogent, he falls under the ridicule of the unbelievers: since they suppose that we stand upon such reasons, and that we believe on such grounds.

I answer that, it's impossible to fully understand the Trinity through only natural reason. As explained earlier (Q. 12, AA. 4, 12), humans can only gain knowledge of God through His creations. Creations, in turn, point us to the knowledge of God, much like effects lead us back to their cause. Therefore, through natural reason, we can only know about God what is necessarily tied to Him as the source of all things, and we mentioned this fundamental principle earlier when discussing God (Q. 12, A. 12). The creative power of God is shared by the entire Trinity, and thus it is related to the unity of essence, not the distinction of the persons. So, through natural reason, we can understand the unity of the essence, but not the distinctions among the persons. Therefore, anyone attempting to prove the Trinity of persons using natural reason undermines faith in two ways. First, regarding the dignity of faith itself, which involves belief in unseen things that go beyond human reason; as the Apostle states, "faith is of things that appear not" (Heb. 11:1), and he also mentions, "We speak wisdom among the perfect, but not the wisdom of this world, nor of the princes of this world; but we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery which is hidden" (1 Cor. 2:6, 7). Second, this approach affects the usefulness of persuading others to the faith. When someone tries to support their beliefs with weak arguments, they invite ridicule from non-believers, who assume we rely on such reasons and believe on those grounds.

Therefore, we must not attempt to prove what is of faith, except by authority alone, to those who receive the authority; while as regards others it suffices to prove that what faith teaches is not impossible. Hence it is said by Dionysius (Div. Nom. ii): "Whoever wholly resists the word, is far off from our philosophy; whereas if he regards the truth of the word"—i.e. "the sacred word, we too follow this rule."

Therefore, we should only try to prove what is based on faith through authority for those who accept that authority; for others, it's enough to show that what faith teaches is not impossible. As Dionysius said (Div. Nom. ii): "Anyone who completely rejects the word is distant from our philosophy; however, if he acknowledges the truth of the word"—that is, "the sacred word, we also adhere to this principle."

Reply Obj. 1: The philosophers did not know the mystery of the trinity of the divine persons by its proper attributes, such as paternity, filiation, and procession, according to the Apostle's words, "We speak the wisdom of God which none of the princes of the world"—i.e. the philosophers—"knew" (1 Cor. 2:6). Nevertheless, they knew some of the essential attributes appropriated to the persons, as power to the Father, wisdom to the Son, goodness to the Holy Ghost; as will later on appear. So, when Aristotle said, "By this number," etc., we must not take it as if he affirmed a threefold number in God, but that he wished to say that the ancients used the threefold number in their sacrifices and prayers on account of some perfection residing in the number three. In the Platonic books also we find, "In the beginning was the word," not as meaning the Person begotten in God, but as meaning the ideal type whereby God made all things, and which is appropriated to the Son. And although they knew these were appropriated to the three persons, yet they are said to have failed in the third sign—that is, in the knowledge of the third person, because they deviated from the goodness appropriated to the Holy Ghost, in that knowing God "they did not glorify Him as God" (Rom. 1); or, because the Platonists asserted the existence of one Primal Being whom they also declared to be the father of the universe, they consequently maintained the existence of another substance beneath him, which they called "mind" or the "paternal intellect," containing the idea of all things, as Macrobius relates (Som. Scip. iv). They did not, however, assert the existence of a third separate substance which might correspond to the Holy Ghost. So also we do not assert that the Father and the Son differ in substance, which was the error of Origen and Arius, who in this followed the Platonists. When Trismegistus says, "Monad begot monad," etc., this does not refer to the generation of the Son, or to the procession of the Holy Ghost, but to the production of the world. For one God produced one world by reason of His love for Himself.

Reply Obj. 1: The philosophers didn't understand the mystery of the trinity of the divine persons through their specific attributes, like paternity, filiation, and procession, as the Apostle said, "We speak the wisdom of God which none of the rulers of this world"—meaning the philosophers—"knew" (1 Cor. 2:6). Still, they recognized some essential attributes associated with the persons, such as power for the Father, wisdom for the Son, and goodness for the Holy Spirit; as will be shown later. So, when Aristotle said, "By this number," etc., we shouldn't interpret it as him claiming that God has a threefold number, but rather that he meant the ancients used the number three in their sacrifices and prayers because of some perfection associated with the number three. We also find in Platonic writings, "In the beginning was the word," not referring to the Person begotten in God, but to the ideal form through which God created everything, which is associated with the Son. And while they acknowledged these attributes were linked to the three persons, they are said to have struggled with the third sign—that is, the knowledge of the third person—because they strayed from the goodness associated with the Holy Spirit, in that knowing God "they did not glorify Him as God" (Rom. 1); or because the Platonists claimed there was one Primal Being whom they also called the father of the universe, they subsequently insisted that there was another substance below him, which they referred to as "mind" or the "paternal intellect," containing the idea of all things, as Macrobius mentions (Som. Scip. iv). However, they didn't claim the existence of a third separate substance that corresponds to the Holy Spirit. Similarly, we do not claim that the Father and the Son differ in substance, which was the mistake of Origen and Arius, who followed the Platonists in this respect. When Trismegistus says, "Monad begot monad," etc., this does not refer to the generation of the Son or the procession of the Holy Spirit, but to the creation of the world. One God created one world because of His love for Himself.

Reply Obj. 2: Reason may be employed in two ways to establish a point: firstly, for the purpose of furnishing sufficient proof of some principle, as in natural science, where sufficient proof can be brought to show that the movement of the heavens is always of uniform velocity. Reason is employed in another way, not as furnishing a sufficient proof of a principle, but as confirming an already established principle, by showing the congruity of its results, as in astrology the theory of eccentrics and epicycles is considered as established, because thereby the sensible appearances of the heavenly movements can be explained; not, however, as if this proof were sufficient, forasmuch as some other theory might explain them. In the first way, we can prove that God is one; and the like. In the second way, reasons avail to prove the Trinity; as, when assumed to be true, such reasons confirm it. We must not, however, think that the trinity of persons is adequately proved by such reasons. This becomes evident when we consider each point; for the infinite goodness of God is manifested also in creation, because to produce from nothing is an act of infinite power. For if God communicates Himself by His infinite goodness, it is not necessary that an infinite effect should proceed from God: but that according to its own mode and capacity it should receive the divine goodness. Likewise, when it is said that joyous possession of good requires partnership, this holds in the case of one not having perfect goodness: hence it needs to share some other's good, in order to have the goodness of complete happiness. Nor is the image in our mind an adequate proof in the case of God, forasmuch as the intellect is not in God and ourselves univocally. Hence, Augustine says (Tract. xxvii. in Joan.) that by faith we arrive at knowledge, and not conversely.

Reply Obj. 2: Reason can be used in two ways to make a point: first, to provide solid proof of a principle, as in natural science, where we can show enough evidence that the movement of the heavens is always at a constant speed. Reason is also used in another way, not to provide sufficient proof of a principle but to confirm an already established principle by demonstrating the consistency of its results. For example, in astrology, the theory of eccentrics and epicycles is accepted because it can explain the observable movements of celestial bodies; however, this proof isn't entirely sufficient since another theory might also explain them. In the first way, we can prove that God is one, and similar points. In the second way, reason can support the belief in the Trinity; when taken as true, such reasoning reinforces it. However, we shouldn't think that the Trinity of persons is fully proven by such reasoning. This becomes clear when we analyze each point; for instance, God’s infinite goodness is evident in creation since creating something from nothing is an act of infinite power. If God expresses Himself through His infinite goodness, it doesn’t mean that an infinite effect must come from Him; rather, it should receive divine goodness according to its own nature and capacity. Similarly, when it’s stated that the joyful possession of good requires sharing, this applies to someone lacking perfect goodness; thus, they need to partake in another’s goodness in order to have complete happiness. Additionally, the image we hold in our minds isn’t a sufficient proof in the case of God, as the intellect doesn’t align with God and ourselves in a straightforward way. Therefore, Augustine states (Tract. xxvii. in Joan.) that through faith we come to knowledge, not the other way around.

Reply Obj. 3: There are two reasons why the knowledge of the divine persons was necessary for us. It was necessary for the right idea of creation. The fact of saying that God made all things by His Word excludes the error of those who say that God produced things by necessity. When we say that in Him there is a procession of love, we show that God produced creatures not because He needed them, nor because of any other extrinsic reason, but on account of the love of His own goodness. So Moses, when he had said, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," subjoined, "God said, Let there be light," to manifest the divine Word; and then said, "God saw the light that it was good," to show proof of the divine love. The same is also found in the other works of creation. In another way, and chiefly, that we may think rightly concerning the salvation of the human race, accomplished by the Incarnate Son, and by the gift of the Holy Ghost. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: There are two reasons why understanding the divine persons is essential for us. First, it’s necessary for a correct understanding of creation. Saying that God created everything through His Word counters the mistake of those who claim that God made things out of necessity. When we assert that in Him there is a flow of love, we indicate that God created beings not because He needed them or for any other outside reason, but out of the love for His own goodness. So when Moses stated, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," he added, "God said, Let there be light," to reveal the divine Word; and then noted, "God saw the light that it was good," to demonstrate God's love. This is similarly observed in other acts of creation. Furthermore, and more importantly, it helps us to think correctly about the salvation of humanity, achieved through the Incarnate Son and the gift of the Holy Spirit.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 32, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 32, Art. 2]

Whether There Are Notions in God?

Whether There Are Notions in God?

Objection 1: It would seem that in God there are no notions. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. i): "We must not dare to say anything of God but what is taught to us by the Holy Scripture." But Holy Scripture does not say anything concerning notions. Therefore there are none in God.

Objection 1: It seems that there are no concepts in God. Dionysius says (Div. Nom. i): "We shouldn’t say anything about God except what is taught to us by Holy Scripture." However, Holy Scripture doesn't mention anything about concepts. Therefore, there are none in God.

Obj. 2: Further, all that exists in God concerns the unity of the essence or the trinity of the persons. But the notions do not concern the unity of the essence, nor the trinity of the persons; for neither can what belongs to the essence be predicated of the notions: for instance, we do not say that paternity is wise or creates; nor can what belongs to the persons be so predicated; for example, we do not say that paternity begets, nor that filiation is begotten. Therefore there do not exist notions in God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, everything that exists in God is about the unity of the essence or the trinity of the persons. However, the notions don't relate to the unity of the essence or the trinity of the persons; for what pertains to the essence cannot be attributed to the notions. For example, we don’t say that paternity is wise or creates; likewise, what pertains to the persons can't be attributed in that way either; for instance, we don’t say that paternity begets, nor that filiation is begotten. Therefore, notions do not exist in God.

Obj. 3: Further, we do not require to presuppose any abstract notions as principles of knowing things which are devoid of composition: for they are known of themselves. But the divine persons are supremely simple. Therefore we are not to suppose any notions in God.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, we don’t need to assume any abstract ideas as the basis for understanding things that lack complexity: they are known on their own. However, the divine persons are completely simple. Therefore, we should not assume any ideas about God.

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. iii, 5): "We recognize difference of hypostases [i.e. of persons], in the three properties; i.e. in the paternal, the filial, and the processional." Therefore we must admit properties and notions in God.

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. iii, 5): "We recognize a difference in hypostases [i.e. in persons], in the three properties; that is, the paternal, the filial, and the processional." Therefore, we must acknowledge properties and concepts in God.

I answer that, Prepositivus, considering the simplicity of the persons, said that in God there were no properties or notions, and wherever there were mentioned, he propounded the abstract for the concrete. For as we are accustomed to say, "I beseech your kindness"—i.e. you who are kind—so when we speak of paternity in God, we mean God the Father.

I respond that, Prepositivus, taking into account the simplicity of individuals, stated that in God there are no attributes or concepts, and whenever they are referred to, he proposed the abstract for the concrete. Just as we often say, "I ask for your kindness"—meaning you who are kind—when we talk about paternity in God, we are referring to God the Father.

But, as shown above (Q. 3, A. 3, ad 1), the use of concrete and abstract names in God is not in any way repugnant to the divine simplicity; forasmuch as we always name a thing as we understand it. Now, our intellect cannot attain to the absolute simplicity of the divine essence, considered in itself, and therefore, our human intellect apprehends and names divine things, according to its own mode, that is in so far as they are found in sensible objects, whence its knowledge is derived. In these things we use abstract terms to signify simple forms; and to signify subsistent things we use concrete terms. Hence also we signify divine things, as above stated, by abstract names, to express their simplicity; whereas, to express their subsistence and completeness, we use concrete names.

But, as mentioned earlier (Q. 3, A. 3, ad 1), using both concrete and abstract names for God doesn't contradict divine simplicity; we always name something based on our understanding of it. Our minds can't grasp the absolute simplicity of the divine essence as it is in itself, so we perceive and name divine things according to our own perspective, which is influenced by sensible objects from which our knowledge comes. In these cases, we use abstract terms to represent simple forms, and concrete terms to refer to concrete entities. Therefore, as noted before, we use abstract names for divine things to convey their simplicity, while concrete names are used to express their existence and fullness.

But not only must essential names be signified in the abstract and in the concrete, as when we say Deity and God; or wisdom and wise; but the same applies to the personal names, so that we may say paternity and Father.

But it's not just essential names that need to be represented both abstractly and concretely, like when we say Deity and God, or wisdom and wise; the same goes for personal names, so we can say paternity and Father.

Two chief motives for this can be cited. The first arises from the obstinacy of heretics. For since we confess the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost to be one God and three persons, to those who ask: "Whereby are They one God? and whereby are They three persons?" as we answer that They are one in essence or deity; so there must also be some abstract terms whereby we may answer that the persons are distinguished; and these are the properties or notions signified by an abstract term, as paternity and filiation. Therefore the divine essence is signified as "What"; and the person as "Who"; and the property as "Whereby."

Two main reasons for this can be identified. The first comes from the stubbornness of heretics. Since we acknowledge the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit as one God in three persons, when asked, "How are They one God? and how are They three persons?" we respond that They are one in essence or deity; therefore, there also needs to be some abstract terms through which we can explain how the persons are distinct. These terms are represented by the concepts of paternity and filiation. Thus, the divine essence is described as "What"; the person as "Who"; and the property as "How."

The second motive is because one person in God is related to two persons—namely, the person of the Father to the person of the Son and the person of the Holy Ghost. This is not, however, by one relation; otherwise it would follow that the Son also and the Holy Ghost would be related to the Father by one and the same relation. Thus, since relation alone multiplies the Trinity, it would follow that the Son and the Holy Ghost would not be two persons. Nor can it be said with Prepositivus that as God is related in one way to creatures, while creatures are related to Him in divers ways, so the Father is related by one relation to the Son and to the Holy Ghost; whereas these two persons are related to the Father by two relations. For, since the very specific idea of a relation is that it refers to another, it must be said that two relations are not specifically different if but one opposite relation corresponds to them. For the relation of lord and father must differ according to the difference of filiation and servitude. Now, all creatures are related to God as His creatures by one specific relation. But the Son and the Holy Ghost are not related to the Father by one and the same kind of relation. Hence there is no parity.

The second reason is that one person in God is connected to two persons—specifically, the person of the Father to the person of the Son and the person of the Holy Spirit. However, this connection isn't through just one relationship; otherwise, it would mean that the Son and the Holy Spirit would also be connected to the Father by the same relationship. Therefore, since it’s the relationship that differentiates the Trinity, it would imply that the Son and the Holy Spirit are not two distinct persons. It also can't be argued, as Prepositivus does, that just as God is connected in one way to creatures, while creatures are connected to Him in various ways, the Father is connected to the Son and the Holy Spirit by one relationship, while these two persons are connected to the Father by two different relationships. Since the very definition of a relationship implies it refers to another, it's important to note that two relationships aren’t essentially different if there's only one opposing relationship corresponding to them. For instance, the relationship of lord and father must differ based on the distinction between filiation and servitude. All creatures are related to God as His creations through one specific relationship. However, the Son and the Holy Spirit are not related to the Father by the same kind of relationship. Therefore, there is no equality.

Further, in God there is no need to admit any real relation to the creature (Q. 28, A. 1, 3); while there is no reason against our admitting in God, many logical relations. But in the Father there must be a real relation to the Son and to the Holy Ghost. Hence, corresponding to the two relations of the Son and of the Holy Ghost, whereby they are related to the Father, we must understand two relations in the Father, whereby He is related to the Son and to the Holy Ghost. Hence, since there is only one Person of the Father, it is necessary that the relations should be separately signified in the abstract; and these are what we mean by properties and notions.

Further, in God, there is no need to acknowledge any actual relationship to the creature (Q. 28, A. 1, 3); however, there is no reason not to recognize many logical relationships in God. But in the Father, there must be a real relationship to the Son and to the Holy Spirit. Thus, corresponding to the two relationships of the Son and the Holy Spirit, through which they are related to the Father, we must understand two relationships in the Father, through which He is related to the Son and to the Holy Spirit. Therefore, since there is only one Person of the Father, it is necessary that the relationships be expressed separately in the abstract; and these are what we refer to as properties and notions.

Reply Obj. 1: Although the notions are not mentioned in Holy Scripture, yet the persons are mentioned, comprising the idea of notions, as the abstract is contained in the concrete.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though the concepts aren’t specifically mentioned in the Bible, the individuals referred to include the idea of those concepts, as the abstract is included in the concrete.

Reply Obj. 2: In God the notions have their significance not after the manner of realities, but by way of certain ideas whereby the persons are known; although in God these notions or relations are real, as stated above (Q. 28, A. 1). Therefore whatever has order to any essential or personal act, cannot be applied to the notions; forasmuch as this is against their mode of signification. Hence we cannot say that paternity begets, or creates, or is wise, or is intelligent. The essentials, however, which are not ordered to any act, but simply remove created conditions from God, can be predicated of the notions; for we can say that paternity is eternal, or immense, or such like. So also on account of the real identity, substantive terms, whether personal or essential, can be predicated of the notions; for we can say that paternity is God, and that paternity is the Father.

Reply Obj. 2: In God, the concepts have their meaning not in the way that realities do, but through specific ideas that identify the persons. Although these concepts or relationships are real in God, as mentioned above (Q. 28, A. 1), anything related to any essential or personal action cannot be applied to the concepts, since that contradicts how they signify. Therefore, we cannot say that paternity begets, creates, is wise, or is intelligent. However, the essentials that are not related to any action but simply describe God by removing created conditions can be attributed to the concepts; for example, we can say that paternity is eternal, or immense, or something similar. Likewise, due to the real identity, substantive terms, whether personal or essential, can be applied to the concepts; for we can say that paternity is God, and that paternity is the Father.

Reply Obj. 3: Although the persons are simple, still without prejudice to their simplicity, the proper ideas of the persons can be abstractedly signified, as above explained. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Even though the individuals are straightforward, their simplicity doesn’t prevent the proper concepts of the individuals from being abstractly expressed, as explained above.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 32, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 32, Art. 3]

Whether There Are Five Notions?

Are there five concepts?

Objection 1: It would seem that there are not five notions. For the notions proper to the persons are the relations whereby they are distinguished from each other. But the relations in God are only four (Q. 28, A. 4). Therefore the notions are only four in number.

Objection 1: It seems that there are not five concepts. The concepts specific to the persons are the relations that differentiate them from one another. However, there are only four relations in God (Q. 28, A. 4). Therefore, there are only four concepts.

Obj. 2: Further, as there is only one essence in God, He is called one God, and because in Him there are three persons, He is called the Trine God. Therefore, if in God there are five notions, He may be called quinary; which cannot be allowed.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, since there is only one essence in God, He is referred to as one God, and because there are three persons in Him, He is referred to as the Trine God. Therefore, if there are five notions in God, He could be called quinary; which is not acceptable.

Obj. 3: Further, if there are five notions for the three persons in God, there must be in some one person two or more notions, as in the person of the Father there is innascibility and paternity, and common spiration. Either these three notions really differ, or not. If they really differ, it follows that the person of the Father is composed of several things. But if they differ only logically, it follows that one of them can be predicated of another, so that we can say that as the divine goodness is the same as the divine wisdom by reason of the common reality, so common spiration is paternity; which is not to be admitted. Therefore there are not five notions.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if there are five concepts for the three persons in God, then there must be in at least one person two or more concepts. For instance, in the person of the Father, there is innascibility, paternity, and common spiration. These three concepts either genuinely differ or they do not. If they genuinely differ, it would imply that the person of the Father is made up of several elements. However, if they only differ logically, it would mean that one of them can be described in relation to another, allowing us to say that divine goodness is the same as divine wisdom due to their common essence, thus implying that common spiration is paternity, which cannot be accepted. Therefore, there are not five concepts.

Obj. 4: On the contrary, It seems that there are more; because as the Father is from no one, and therefrom is derived the notion of innascibility; so from the Holy Ghost no other person proceeds. And in this respect there ought to be a sixth notion.

Obj. 4: On the contrary, it seems that there are more; because as the Father comes from no one, which leads to the idea of being ungenerated; similarly, from the Holy Spirit, no other person proceeds. In this way, there should be a sixth concept.

Obj. 5: Further, as the Father and the Son are the common origin of the Holy Ghost, so it is common to the Son and the Holy Ghost to proceed from the Father. Therefore, as one notion is common to the Father and the Son, so there ought to be one notion common to the Son and to the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, just as the Father and the Son are the shared source of the Holy Spirit, it is also true that both the Son and the Holy Spirit proceed from the Father. Therefore, since there is one characteristic that belongs to both the Father and the Son, there should be one characteristic that is also shared between the Son and the Holy Spirit.

I answer that, A notion is the proper idea whereby we know a divine Person. Now the divine persons are multiplied by reason of their origin: and origin includes the idea of someone from whom another comes, and of someone that comes from another, and by these two modes a person can be known. Therefore the Person of the Father cannot be known by the fact that He is from another; but by the fact that He is from no one; and thus the notion that belongs to Him is called "innascibility." As the source of another, He can be known in two ways, because as the Son is from Him, the Father is known by the notion of "paternity"; and as the Holy Ghost is from Him, He is known by the notion of "common spiration." The Son can be known as begotten by another, and thus He is known by "filiation"; and also by another person proceeding from Him, the Holy Ghost, and thus He is known in the same way as the Father is known, by "common spiration." The Holy Ghost can be known by the fact that He is from another, or from others; thus He is known by "procession"; but not by the fact that another is from Him, as no divine person proceeds from Him.

I answer that, a notion is the proper idea that helps us understand a divine Person. The divine persons are distinguished by their origin: origin involves the concept of someone from whom another comes, as well as someone who comes from another. Through these two aspects, a person can be known. Therefore, the Person of the Father cannot be known because He is from another; rather, He is known because He is from no one, and thus the notion that applies to Him is called "innascibility." As the source of another, He can be known in two ways: since the Son comes from Him, the Father is recognized by the notion of "paternity"; and since the Holy Ghost comes from Him, He is known by the idea of "common spiration." The Son can be recognized as begotten by another, and thus He is known by "filiation"; He can also be associated with another person proceeding from Him, the Holy Ghost, and thus He is known in the same manner as the Father, through "common spiration." The Holy Ghost can be recognized by the fact that He comes from another or from others; thus, He is known by "procession"; but He is not recognized because another comes from Him, since no divine person proceeds from Him.

Therefore, there are Five notions in God: "innascibility," "paternity," "filiation," "common spiration," and "procession." Of these only four are relations, for "innascibility" is not a relation, except by reduction, as will appear later (Q. 33, A. 4, ad 3). Four only are properties. For "common spiration" is not a property; because it belongs to two persons. Three are personal notions—i.e. constituting persons, "paternity," "filiation," and "procession." "Common spiration" and "innascibility" are called notions of Persons, but not personal notions, as we shall explain further on (Q. 40, A. 1, ad 1).

Therefore, there are five concepts in God: "innascibility," "paternity," "filiation," "common spiration," and "procession." Out of these, only four are relations, since "innascibility" isn't a relation in itself, except in a reduced sense, as will be explained later (Q. 33, A. 4, ad 3). Only four are properties. "Common spiration" isn't a property because it applies to two people. Three are personal concepts—specifically, "paternity," "filiation," and "procession." "Common spiration" and "innascibility" are referred to as concepts of Persons, but not personal concepts, as we will clarify later (Q. 40, A. 1, ad 1).

Reply Obj. 1: Besides the four relations, another notion must be admitted, as above explained.

Reply Obj. 1: In addition to the four relations, we need to consider another concept, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 2: The divine essence is signified as a reality; and likewise the persons are signified as realities; whereas the notions are signified as ideas notifying the persons. Therefore, although God is one by unity of essence, and trine by trinity of persons, nevertheless He is not quinary by the five notions.

Reply Obj. 2: The divine essence is represented as a real existence; and the persons are also represented as real existences; while the notions are represented as ideas that indicate the persons. Therefore, although God is one in unity of essence and three in the trinity of persons, He is not fivefold due to the five notions.

Reply Obj. 3: Since the real plurality in God is founded only on relative opposition, the several properties of one Person, as they are not relatively opposed to each other, do not really differ. Nor again are they predicated of each other, because they are different ideas of the persons; as we do not say that the attribute of power is the attribute of knowledge, although we do say that knowledge is power.

Reply Obj. 3: Since the real diversity in God is based only on relative differences, the various traits of one Person, since they are not relatively opposed to each other, do not actually differ. Likewise, they are not attributed to each other because they represent different concepts of the persons; just as we don’t say that the trait of power is the same as the trait of knowledge, although we do say that knowledge is power.

Reply Obj. 4: Since Person implies dignity, as stated above (Q. 19, A. 3), we cannot derive a notion of the Holy Spirit from the fact that no person is from Him. For this does not belong to His dignity, as it belongs to the authority of the Father that He is from no one.

Reply Obj. 4: Since Person implies dignity, as stated above (Q. 19, A. 3), we can't understand the Holy Spirit in relation to the fact that no person is from Him. This doesn't relate to His dignity, which is tied to the authority of the Father, who is from no one.

Reply Obj. 5: The Son and the Holy Ghost do not agree in one special mode of existence derived from the Father; as the Father and the Son agree in one special mode of producing the Holy Ghost. But the principle on which a notion is based must be something special; thus no parity of reasoning exists. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: The Son and the Holy Spirit do not share a specific way of existing that comes from the Father; however, the Father and the Son share a specific way of creating the Holy Spirit. But the foundation of any idea must be something unique; therefore, there is no equal reasoning present.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 32, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 32, Art. 4]

Whether It Is Lawful to Have Various Contrary Opinions of Notions?

Whether it is legal to have different opposing opinions on ideas?

Objection 1: It would seem that it is not lawful to have various contrary opinions of the notions. For Augustine says (De Trin. i, 3): "No error is more dangerous than any as regards the Trinity": to which mystery the notions assuredly belong. But contrary opinions must be in some way erroneous. Therefore it is not right to have contrary opinions of the notions.

Objection 1: It seems that having different opposing views on the concepts is not allowed. Augustine states (De Trin. i, 3): "No error is more dangerous than those regarding the Trinity": to which these concepts certainly belong. However, opposing views must be somewhat erroneous. Therefore, it is not correct to hold opposing views on the concepts.

Obj. 2: Further, the persons are known by the notions. But no contrary opinion concerning the persons is to be tolerated. Therefore neither can there be about the notions.

Obj. 2: Also, people are recognized by their concepts. But no opposing views about people should be accepted. So, there can’t be any about the concepts either.

On the contrary, The notions are not articles of faith. Therefore different opinions of the notions are permissible.

On the contrary, The ideas are not beliefs. So, differing opinions about the ideas are allowed.

I answer that, Anything is of faith in two ways; directly, where any truth comes to us principally as divinely taught, as the trinity and unity of God, the Incarnation of the Son, and the like; and concerning these truths a false opinion of itself involves heresy, especially if it be held obstinately. A thing is of faith, indirectly, if the denial of it involves as a consequence something against faith; as for instance if anyone said that Samuel was not the son of Elcana, for it follows that the divine Scripture would be false. Concerning such things anyone may have a false opinion without danger of heresy, before the matter has been considered or settled as involving consequences against faith, and particularly if no obstinacy be shown; whereas when it is manifest, and especially if the Church has decided that consequences follow against faith, then the error cannot be free from heresy. For this reason many things are now considered as heretical which were formerly not so considered, as their consequences are now more manifest.

I respond that, Anything can be considered a matter of faith in two ways; directly, when any truth is primarily recognized as divinely revealed, like the Trinity and unity of God, the Incarnation of the Son, and similar teachings; and concerning these truths, holding a false opinion can lead to heresy, especially if done persistently. A matter can be of faith indirectly if denying it leads to something that contradicts faith; for example, if someone claims that Samuel was not the son of Elcana, it implies that the divine Scripture would be inaccurate. Regarding such matters, a person may hold a false opinion without risking heresy until it has been thoroughly examined or determined to involve consequences against faith, particularly if there is no stubbornness involved; however, when it becomes clear, especially if the Church has declared that there are consequential contradictions to faith, that error cannot be considered free of heresy. For this reason, many beliefs are now viewed as heretical that were not seen that way before, as their consequences have become more evident.

So we must decide that anyone may entertain contrary opinions about the notions, if he does not mean to uphold anything at variance with faith. If, however, anyone should entertain a false opinion of the notions, knowing or thinking that consequences against the faith would follow, he would lapse into heresy.

So we must agree that anyone can have different opinions about these ideas, as long as they don’t intend to promote anything that goes against the faith. However, if someone holds a false opinion about these ideas, knowing or believing that it could lead to consequences that contradict the faith, then they would fall into heresy.

By what has been said all the objections may be solved. _______________________

All the objections can be resolved by what has been said.

QUESTION 33

OF THE PERSON OF THE FATHER
(In Four Articles)

OF THE PERSON OF THE FATHER
(In Four Articles)

We now consider the persons singly; and first, the Person of the
Father, concerning Whom there are four points of inquiry:

We will now look at each person individually, starting with the Person of the
Father, regarding whom there are four questions to explore:

(1) Whether the Father is the Principle?

(1) Is the Father the Principle?

(2) Whether the person of the Father is properly signified by this name "Father"?

(2) Is the person of the Father accurately represented by the name "Father"?

(3) Whether "Father" in God is said personally before it is said essentially?

(3) Is "Father" in God referred to personally before it is referred to essentially?

(4) Whether it belongs to the Father alone to be unbegotten? _______________________

(4) Is it only the Father who is unbegotten? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 33, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 33, Art. 1]

Whether It Belongs to the Father to Be the Principle?

Whether It’s the Father’s Role to Be the Principle?

Objection 1: It would seem that the Father cannot be called the principle of the Son, or of the Holy Ghost. For principle and cause are the same, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. iv). But we do not say that the Father is the cause of the Son. Therefore we must not say that He is the principle of the Son.

Objection 1: It seems that we can't call the Father the source of the Son or the Holy Spirit. Since principle and cause are the same, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. iv), and we don't say that the Father is the cause of the Son, we also shouldn't say that He is the source of the Son.

Obj. 2: Further, a principle is so called in relation to the thing principled. So if the Father is the principle of the Son, it follows that the Son is a person principled, and is therefore created; which appears false.

Obj. 2: Additionally, a principle is referred to in connection with the thing it governs. So if the Father is the principle of the Son, it follows that the Son is a person governed by this principle and is therefore created; which seems incorrect.

Obj. 3: Further, the word principle is taken from priority. But in God there is no "before" and "after," as Athanasius says. Therefore in speaking of God we ought not to used the term principle.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the term principle comes from the idea of priority. However, in God, there is no "before" and "after," as Athanasius states. Therefore, when referring to God, we should not use the term principle.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20), "The Father is the Principle of the whole Deity."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20), "The Father is the Source of the entire Deity."

I answer that, The word "principle" signifies only that whence another proceeds: since anything whence something proceeds in any way we call a principle; and conversely. As the Father then is the one whence another proceeds, it follows that the Father is a principle.

I answer that, The word "principle" simply means the source of something else: anything that something comes from in any way is called a principle; and the opposite is also true. Since the Father is the source from which another comes, it follows that the Father is a principle.

Reply Obj. 1: The Greeks use the words "cause" and "principle" indifferently, when speaking of God; whereas the Latin Doctors do not use the word "cause," but only "principle." The reason is because "principle" is a wider term than "cause"; as "cause" is more common than "element." For the first term of a thing, as also the first part, is called the principle, but not the cause. Now the wider a term is, the more suitable it is to use as regards God (Q. 13, A. 11), because the more special terms are, the more they determine the mode adapted to the creature. Hence this term "cause" seems to mean diversity of substance, and dependence of one from another; which is not implied in the word "principle." For in all kinds of causes there is always to be found between the cause and the effect a distance of perfection or of power: whereas we use the term "principle" even in things which have no such difference, but have only a certain order to each other; as when we say that a point is the principle of a line; or also when we say that the first part of a line is the principle of a line.

Reply Obj. 1: The Greeks use the words "cause" and "principle" interchangeably when referring to God; however, the Latin Doctors only use the term "principle." The reason for this is that "principle" is a broader term than "cause," just as "cause" is more common than "element." The first term of a thing, as well as the first part, is referred to as the principle, but not as the cause. The broader a term is, the more suitable it is to describe God (Q. 13, A. 11), because more specific terms tend to define the relationship to creatures. Thus, the term "cause" suggests a difference in substance and a dependency of one thing on another, which is not conveyed by the word "principle." In all types of causes, there is always some degree of distance in perfection or power between the cause and the effect; whereas we use the term "principle" even in cases where there is no such distinction, but rather a simple order between them, like when we say that a point is the principle of a line, or that the first part of a line is the principle of a line.

Reply Obj. 2: It is the custom with the Greeks to say that the Son and the Holy Ghost are principled. This is not, however, the custom with our Doctors; because, although we attribute to the Father something of authority by reason of His being the principle, still we do not attribute any kind of subjection or inferiority to the Son, or to the Holy Ghost, to avoid any occasion of error. In this way, Hilary says (De Trin. ix): "By authority of the Giver, the Father is the greater; nevertheless the Son is not less to Whom oneness of nature is give."

Reply Obj. 2: The Greeks usually say that the Son and the Holy Spirit are subordinate. However, this isn't the belief held by our scholars; while we assign some authority to the Father since He is the principle, we don’t see the Son or the Holy Spirit as being inferior or subordinate, to prevent any misunderstanding. As Hilary states (De Trin. ix): "By the authority of the Giver, the Father is greater; still, the Son is not lesser to Whom the oneness of nature is given."

Reply Obj. 3: Although this word principle, as regards its derivation, seems to be taken from priority, still it does not signify priority, but origin. For what a term signifies, and the reason why it was imposed, are not the same thing, as stated above (Q. 13, A. 8). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Even though the word "principle" is derived from the idea of priority, it actually means origin. What a term means and the reason it was created are not the same, as mentioned earlier (Q. 13, A. 8).

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 33, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 33, Art. 2]

Whether This Name "Father" Is Properly the Name of a Divine Person?

Whether this name "Father" is properly the name of a divine person?

Objection 1: It would seem that this name "Father" is not properly the name of a divine person. For the name "Father" signifies relation. Moreover "person" is an individual substance. Therefore this name "Father" is not properly a name signifying a Person.

Objection 1: It seems that the name "Father" does not accurately refer to a divine person. The name "Father" indicates a relationship. In addition, "person" refers to an individual substance. Therefore, the name "Father" does not correctly denote a Person.

Obj. 2: Further, a begetter is more common than father; for every father begets; but it is not so conversely. But a more common term is more properly applied to God, as stated above (Q. 13, A. 11). Therefore the more proper name of the divine person is begetter and genitor than Father.

Obj. 2: Moreover, "begetter" is broader than "father"; every father begets, but not every begetter is a father. A more general term is more appropriately used for God, as mentioned earlier (Q. 13, A. 11). Therefore, the more accurate title for the divine person is "begetter" and "genitor" rather than "Father."

Obj. 3: Further, a metaphorical term cannot be the proper name of anyone. But the word is by us metaphorically called begotten, or offspring; and consequently, he of whom is the word, is metaphorically called father. Therefore the principle of the Word in God is not properly called Father.

Obj. 3: Additionally, a metaphorical term cannot serve as the proper name of anyone. However, we metaphorically refer to the Word as begotten or offspring; thus, the one from whom the Word comes is metaphorically referred to as Father. Therefore, the principle of the Word in God is not accurately called Father.

Obj. 4: Further, everything which is said properly of God, is said of God first before creatures. But generation appears to apply to creatures before God; because generation seems to be truer when the one who proceeds is distinct from the one whence it proceeds, not only by relation but also by essence. Therefore the name "Father" taken from generation does not seem to be the proper name of any divine person.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, everything that is properly attributed to God is attributed to God first before creatures. However, generation seems to apply to creatures before God; because generation seems to be more valid when the one who originates is distinct from the one from whom it originates, not just in relation but also in essence. Therefore, the name "Father," derived from generation, does not seem to be the appropriate name for any divine person.

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 88:27): "He shall cry out to me: Thou art my Father."

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 88:27): "He will cry out to me: You are my Father."

I answer that, The proper name of any person signifies that whereby the person is distinguished from all other persons. For as body and soul belong to the nature of man, so to the concept of this particular man belong this particular soul and this particular body; and by these is this particular man distinguished from all other men. Now it is paternity which distinguishes the person of the Father from all other persons. Hence this name "Father," whereby paternity is signified, is the proper name of the person of the Father.

I answer that, a person's proper name represents what sets them apart from everyone else. Just as body and soul are essential to the nature of a human, this specific individual's body and soul define them uniquely; it's through these that this particular person is differentiated from all others. In the same way, it is paternity that distinguishes the Father from all other individuals. Therefore, the name "Father," which represents paternity, is the proper name of the Father.

Reply Obj. 1: Among us relation is not a subsisting person. So this name "father" among us does not signify a person, but the relation of a person. In God, however, it is not so, as some wrongly thought; for in God the relation signified by the name "Father" is a subsisting person. Hence, as above explained (Q. 29, A. 4), this name "person" in God signifies a relation subsisting in the divine nature.

Reply Obj. 1: In our context, relation does not refer to a distinct person. Therefore, the term "father" among us indicates a relation of a person, not a person itself. However, in God, it’s different, contrary to what some have mistakenly believed; in God, the relation denoted by the term "Father" is a distinct person. Thus, as explained earlier (Q. 29, A. 4), the term "person" in God represents a relation that exists within the divine nature.

Reply Obj. 2: According to the Philosopher (De Anima ii, text 49), a thing is denominated chiefly by its perfection, and by its end. Now generation signifies something in process of being made, whereas paternity signifies the complement of generation; and therefore the name "Father" is more expressive as regards the divine person than genitor or begettor.

Reply Obj. 2: According to the Philosopher (De Anima ii, text 49), a thing is defined mainly by its completeness and its purpose. Generation refers to something that is in the process of being created, while paternity represents the completion of that generation; therefore, the term "Father" describes the divine person more accurately than genitor or begetter.

Reply Obj. 3: In human nature the word is not a subsistence, and hence is not properly called begotten or son. But the divine Word is something subsistent in the divine nature; and hence He is properly and not metaphorically called Son, and His principle is called Father.

Reply Obj. 3: In human nature, the word is not an independent existence, so it isn't accurately referred to as begotten or a son. However, the divine Word exists independently within the divine nature; therefore, He is accurately and literally called Son, and His source is referred to as Father.

Reply Obj. 4: The terms "generation" and "paternity" like the other terms properly applied to God, are said of God before creatures as regards the thing signified, but not as regards the mode of signification. Hence also the Apostle says, "I bend my knee to the Father of my Lord Jesus Christ, from whom all paternity in heaven and on earth is named" (Eph. 3:14). This is explained thus. It is manifest that generation receives its species from the term which is the form of the thing generated; and the nearer it is to the form of the generator, the truer and more perfect is the generation; as univocal generation is more perfect than non-univocal, for it belongs to the essence of a generator to generate what is like itself in form. Hence the very fact that in the divine generation the form of the Begetter and Begotten is numerically the same, whereas in creatures it is not numerically, but only specifically, the same, shows that generation, and consequently paternity, is applied to God before creatures. Hence the very fact that in God a distinction exists of the Begotten from the Begetter as regards relation only, belongs to the truth of the divine generation and paternity. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The terms "generation" and "paternity," like other terms that relate to God, are applied to God in reference to what they signify, but not in the way they are signified. This is also why the Apostle says, "I bend my knee to the Father of my Lord Jesus Christ, from whom all paternity in heaven and on earth is named" (Eph. 3:14). This can be understood as follows. It's clear that generation takes its type from the term that represents the essence of what is generated; the closer it is to the essence of the generator, the truer and more complete the generation is. For example, univocal generation is more perfect than non-univocal, because it is inherent to a generator to produce something that resembles itself in essence. Thus, the fact that in divine generation, the essence of the Begetter and the Begotten is exactly the same, while in created things it is not exactly the same but only similar in essence, indicates that generation, and therefore paternity, is applied to God prior to creatures. Moreover, the existence of a distinction in God between the Begotten and the Begetter in terms of relation only is part of the reality of divine generation and paternity.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 33, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 33, Art. 3]

Whether This Name "Father" Is Applied to God, Firstly As a Personal
Name?

Whether this name "Father" refers to God, first as a personal
name?

Objection 1: It would seem that this name "Father" is not applied to God, firstly as a personal name. For in the intellect the common precedes the particular. But this name "Father" as a personal name, belongs to the person of the Father; and taken in an essential sense it is common to the whole Trinity; for we say "Our Father" to the whole Trinity. Therefore "Father" comes first as an essential name before its personal sense.

Objection 1: It seems that the name "Father" is not used for God as a personal name. In our understanding, the general concept comes before the specific one. However, the name "Father," when seen as a personal name, refers specifically to the person of the Father; and when considered in its essential meaning, it applies to the whole Trinity, since we refer to "Our Father" in relation to the entire Trinity. Therefore, "Father" is an essential name that precedes its personal interpretation.

Obj. 2: Further, in things of which the concept is the same there is no priority of predication. But paternity and filiation seem to be of the same nature, according as a divine person is Father of the Son, and the whole Trinity is our Father, or the creature's; since, according to Basil (Hom. xv, De Fide), to receive is common to the creature and to the Son. Therefore "Father" in God is not taken as an essential name before it is taken personally.

Obj. 2: Additionally, when it comes to concepts that are the same, there is no priority in how they are stated. However, paternity and filiation appear to be of the same nature, as a divine person is the Father of the Son, and the entire Trinity is our Father, or that of the creature; since, according to Basil (Hom. xv, De Fide), receiving is something shared by both the creature and the Son. Therefore, "Father" in God is not used as an essential term before it is understood personally.

Obj. 3: Further, it is not possible to compare things which have not a common concept. But the Son is compared to the creature by reason of filiation or generation, according to Col. 1:15: "Who is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of every creature." Therefore paternity taken in a personal sense is not prior to, but has the same concept as, paternity taken essentially.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, you can't compare things that don't have a shared concept. The Son is compared to the creature based on his relationship as a child, as stated in Colossians 1:15: "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation." Therefore, paternity in a personal sense isn’t prior to, but has the same concept as, paternity in an essential sense.

On the contrary, The eternal comes before the temporal. But God is the Father of the Son from eternity; while He is the Father of the creature in time. Therefore paternity in God is taken in a personal sense as regards the Son, before it is so taken as regards the creature.

On the contrary, The eternal comes before the temporal. But God is the Father of the Son from eternity, while He is the Father of the creature in time. Therefore, paternity in God is understood in a personal sense concerning the Son, before it is understood in relation to the creature.

I answer that, A name is applied to that wherein is perfectly contained its whole signification, before it is applied to that which only partially contains it; for the latter bears the name by reason of a kind of similitude to that which answers perfectly to the signification of the name; since all imperfect things are taken from perfect things. Hence this name "lion" is applied first to the animal containing the whole nature of a lion, and which is properly so called, before it is applied to a man who shows something of a lion's nature, as courage, or strength, or the like; and of whom it is said by way of similitude.

I answer that, a name is used for something that fully embodies its entire meaning before it's used for something that only partially embodies it. The latter gets the name because it resembles the thing that truly fits the definition of that name, since all imperfect things originate from perfect ones. Thus, the name "lion" is first applied to the animal that fully represents the nature of a lion, which is the correct usage, before it's applied to a man who displays some traits of a lion, like courage or strength, and is referred to in a comparative way.

Now it is manifest from the foregoing (Q. 27, A. 2; Q. 28, A. 4), that the perfect idea of paternity and filiation is to be found in God the Father, and in God the Son, because one is the nature and glory of the Father and the Son. But in the creature, filiation is found in relation to God, not in a perfect manner, since the Creator and the creature have not the same nature; but by way of a certain likeness, which is the more perfect the nearer we approach to the true idea of filiation. For God is called the Father of some creatures, by reason only of a trace, for instance of irrational creatures, according to Job 38:28: "Who is the father of the rain? or who begot the drops of dew?" Of some, namely, the rational creature (He is the Father), by reason of the likeness of His image, according to Deut. 32:6: "Is He not thy Father, who possessed, and made, and created thee?" And of others He is the Father by similitude of grace, and these are also called adoptive sons, as ordained to the heritage of eternal glory by the gift of grace which they have received, according to Rom. 8:16, 17: "The Spirit Himself gives testimony to our spirit that we are the sons of God; and if sons, heirs also." Lastly, He is the Father of others by similitude of glory, forasmuch as they have obtained possession of the heritage of glory, according to Rom. 5:2: "We glory in the hope of the glory of the sons of God." Therefore it is plain that "paternity" is applied to God first, as importing regard of one Person to another Person, before it imports the regard of God to creatures.

Now it's clear from the previous discussion (Q. 27, A. 2; Q. 28, A. 4) that the perfect idea of being a father and child is found in God the Father and God the Son, because they share the same nature and glory. However, in created beings, being a son or daughter is understood in relation to God, but not perfectly, since the Creator and the created do not share the same nature; it's a reflection of a certain likeness, which becomes more complete the closer we get to the true concept of being a child. God is called the Father of some creatures only in a partial sense, as with irrational creatures, as mentioned in Job 38:28: "Who is the father of the rain? or who begot the drops of dew?" For some rational beings, He is the Father because of the similarity to His image, according to Deut. 32:6: "Is He not your Father, who created and formed you?" For others, He is the Father due to the likeness of grace, which are called adoptive children, destined for the inheritance of eternal glory through the gift of grace they have received, as stated in Rom. 8:16, 17: "The Spirit Himself testifies with our spirit that we are God's children; and if we are children, then we are heirs." Lastly, He is the Father of others in terms of glory, as they have gained the inheritance of glory, according to Rom. 5:2: "We boast in the hope of the glory of the children of God." Therefore, it's clear that "paternity" is first attributed to God, reflecting the relationship between one Person and another Person, before it reflects the relationship of God to creatures.

Reply Obj. 1: Common terms taken absolutely, in the order of our intelligence, come before proper terms; because they are included in the understanding of proper terms; but not conversely. For in the concept of the person of the Father, God is understood; but not conversely. But common terms which import relation to the creature come after proper terms which import personal relations; because the person proceeding in God proceeds as the principle of the production of creatures. For as the word conceived in the mind of the artist is first understood to proceed from the artist before the thing designed, which is produced in likeness to the word conceived in the artist's mind; so the Son proceeds from the Father before the creature, to which the name of filiation is applied as it participates in the likeness of the Son, as is clear from the words of Rom. 8:29: "Whom He foreknew and predestined to be made conformable to the image of His Son."

Reply Obj. 1: General terms, when taken literally and based on our understanding, come before specific terms because they are part of our understanding of those specific terms; but not the other way around. In the concept of the Father’s person, God is understood; but not the other way around. However, general terms that refer to the relationship with the creature come after specific terms that refer to personal relationships; because the person that comes from God is the source of all created things. Just like the idea that an artist envisions in their mind is first understood to come from the artist before the actual creation, which is made to resemble the idea in the artist's mind; similarly, the Son comes from the Father before the creature, to which the term of filiation is applied as it shares in the likeness of the Son, as is evident from the words of Rom. 8:29: "Whom He foreknew and predestined to be made conformable to the image of His Son."

Reply Obj. 2: To "receive" is said to be common to the creature and to the Son not in a univocal sense, but according to a certain remote similitude whereby He is called the First Born of creatures. Hence the authority quoted subjoins: "That He may be the First Born among many brethren," after saying that some were conformed to the image of the Son of God. But the Son of God possesses a position of singularity above others, in having by nature what He receives, as Basil also declares (Hom. xv De Fide); hence He is called the only begotten (John 1:18): "The only begotten Who is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared unto us."

Reply Obj. 2: To "receive" is shared by the creature and the Son, but not in the same way; rather, it’s due to a certain distant similarity, which is why He is referred to as the First Born of creatures. Therefore, the quoted authority adds: "That He may be the First Born among many brethren," after stating that some are shaped in the image of the Son of God. However, the Son of God holds a unique position above others, possessing by nature what He receives, as Basil also stated (Hom. xv De Fide); thus, He is called the only begotten (John 1:18): "The only begotten Who is in the bosom of the Father, He has revealed Him to us."

From this appears the Reply to the Third Objection. _______________________

From this comes the Response to the Third Objection. _______________________

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 33, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 33, Art. 4]

Whether It Is Proper to the Father to Be Unbegotten?

Whether It Is Proper for the Father to Be Unbegotten?

Objection 1: It would seem that it is not proper to the Father to be unbegotten. For every property supposes something in that of which it is the property. But "unbegotten" supposes nothing in the Father; it only removes something. Therefore it does not signify a property of the Father.

Objection 1: It seems that it’s not appropriate for the Father to be unbegotten. Every characteristic implies something about what it describes. But "unbegotten" doesn’t imply anything about the Father; it simply takes something away. Therefore, it doesn’t represent a characteristic of the Father.

Obj. 2: Further, Unbegotten is taken either in a privative, or in a negative sense. If in a negative sense, then whatever is not begotten can be called unbegotten. But the Holy Ghost is not begotten; neither is the divine essence. Therefore to be unbegotten belongs also to the essence; thus it is not proper to the Father. But if it be taken in a privative sense, as every privation signifies imperfection in the thing which is the subject of privation, it follows that the Person of the Father is imperfect; which cannot be.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, "Unbegotten" is understood either in a privative or a negative sense. If we take it in a negative sense, then anything that is not begotten can be considered unbegotten. The Holy Ghost is not begotten, nor is the divine essence. Therefore, being unbegotten also applies to the essence, which means it isn’t exclusive to the Father. On the other hand, if it's taken in a privative sense, since every lack implies imperfection in the subject of that lack, it would imply that the Person of the Father is imperfect, which is not possible.

Obj. 3: Further, in God, "unbegotten" does not signify relation, for it is not used relatively. Therefore it signifies substance; therefore unbegotten and begotten differ in substance. But the Son, Who is begotten, does not differ from the Father in substance. Therefore the Father ought not to be called unbegotten.

Obj. 3: Additionally, in God, "unbegotten" does not denote a relationship, since it is not used in a relative sense. Thus, it indicates substance; therefore, unbegotten and begotten are different in substance. However, the Son, who is begotten, does not differ from the Father in substance. Therefore, the Father should not be referred to as unbegotten.

Obj. 4: Further, property means what belongs to one alone. Since, then, there are more than one in God proceeding from another, there is nothing to prevent several not receiving their being from another. Therefore the Father is not alone unbegotten.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, property means what belongs exclusively to one individual. Since there are multiple beings in God arising from another, nothing stops several beings from not deriving their existence from another. Therefore, the Father is not the only unbegotten one.

Obj. 5: Further, as the Father is the principle of the person begotten, so is He of the person proceeding. So if by reason of his opposition to the person begotten, it is proper to the Father to be unbegotten it follows that it is proper to Him also to be unproceeding.

Obj. 5: Additionally, just as the Father is the source of the person He begets, He is also the source of the person who proceeds from Him. Therefore, if it is appropriate for the Father to be unbegotten in relation to the person He begets, it also follows that it is appropriate for Him to be unproceeding.

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. iv): "One is from one—that is, the Begotten is from the Unbegotten—namely, by the property in each one respectively of innascibility and origin."

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. iv): "One comes from one—that is, the Begotten comes from the Unbegotten—specifically, due to the characteristic in each one of being ungenerated and of origin."

I answer that, As in creatures there exist a first and a secondary principle, so also in the divine Persons, in Whom there is no before or after, is formed the principle not from a principle, Who is the Father; and the principle from a principle, Who is the Son.

I answer that, Just as in creatures there is a primary and a secondary principle, in the divine Persons, where there is no before or after, the principle not derived from anything else is the Father; and the principle that comes from another is the Son.

Now in things created a first principle is known in two ways; in one way as the first principle, by reason of its having a relation to what proceeds from itself; in another way, inasmuch as it is a first principle by reason of its not being from another. Thus therefore the Father is known both by paternity and by common spiration, as regards the persons proceeding from Himself. But as the principle, not from a principle He is known by the fact that He is not from another; and this belongs to the property of innascibility, signified by this word "begotten."

Now, in created things, a first principle is recognized in two ways: first, as the first principle because of its relationship to what comes from it; and second, as a first principle since it is not derived from anything else. Therefore, the Father is known both through paternity and through common spiration concerning the persons that come from Him. However, as a principle that is not derived from another, He is recognized by the fact that He is not from anything else; this is related to the characteristic of being ungenerated, which is indicated by the term "begotten."

Reply Obj. 1: Some there are who say that innascibility, signified by the word "unbegotten," as a property of the Father, is not a negative term only, but either that it means both these things together—namely, that the Father is from no one, and that He is the principle of others; or that it imports universal authority, or also His plenitude as the source of all. This, however, does not seem true, because thus innascibility would not be a property distinct from paternity and spiration; but would include them as the proper is included in the common. For source and authority signify in God nothing but the principle of origin. We must therefore say with Augustine (De Trin. v, 7) that "unbegotten" imports the negation of passive generation. For he says that "unbegotten" has the same meaning as "not a son." Nor does it follow that "unbegotten" is not the proper notion of the Father; for primary and simple things are notified by negations; as, for instance, a point is defined as what has no part.

Reply Obj. 1: Some people argue that innascibility, indicated by the term "unbegotten," isn't just a negative term related to the Father, but that it actually conveys two meanings at once—specifically, that the Father comes from no one and that He is the source of others; or that it implies universal authority or His fullness as the origin of everything. However, this doesn't seem accurate because then innascibility wouldn't be a quality distinct from paternity and spiration; it would incorporate them just like a specific quality is included within a broader one. In God, source and authority simply mean the principle of origin. Therefore, we must agree with Augustine (De Trin. v, 7) that "unbegotten" signifies the negation of passive generation. He states that "unbegotten" means the same as "not a son." It doesn't mean that "unbegotten" isn't the specific quality of the Father; primary and simple concepts are often defined through negations, like how a point is defined as something that has no parts.

Reply Obj. 2: "Unbegotten" is taken sometimes in a negative sense only, and in that sense Jerome says that "the Holy Ghost is unbegotten," that is, He is not begotten. Otherwise "unbegotten" may be taken in a kind of privative sense, but not as implying any imperfection. For privation can be taken in many ways; in one way when a thing has not what is naturally belongs to another, even though it is not of its own nature to have it; as, for instance, if a stone be called a dead thing, as wanting life, which naturally belongs to some other things. In another sense, privation is so called when something has not what naturally belongs to some members of its genus; as for instance when a mole is called blind. In a third sense privation means the absence of what something ought to have; in which sense, privation imports an imperfection. In this sense, "unbegotten" is not attributed to the Father as a privation, but it may be so attributed in the second sense, meaning that a certain person of the divine nature is not begotten, while some person of the same nature is begotten. In this sense the term "unbegotten" can be applied also to the Holy Ghost. Hence to consider it as a term proper to the Father alone, it must be further understood that the name "unbegotten" belongs to a divine person as the principle of another person; so that it be understood to imply negation in the genus of principle taken personally in God. Or that there be understood in the term "unbegotten" that He is not in any way derived from another; and not only that He is not from another by way only of generation. In this sense the term "unbegotten" does not belong at all to the Holy Ghost, Who is from another by procession, as a subsisting person; nor does it belong to the divine essence, of which it may be said that it is in the Son or in the Holy Ghost from another—namely, from the Father.

Reply Obj. 2: "Unbegotten" is sometimes understood only in a negative way, and in this sense Jerome states that "the Holy Ghost is unbegotten," meaning He is not begotten. However, "unbegotten" can also be understood in a way that indicates a lack but doesn’t imply any imperfection. Privation can be interpreted in various ways; one way is when something lacks what naturally belongs to another thing, even if it’s not its nature to possess it. For example, a stone can be referred to as a dead thing because it lacks life, which naturally belongs to some other things. Another way to look at privation is when something does not have what normally belongs to certain members of its category; for instance, a mole is called blind. A third meaning of privation signifies the absence of what something should have, which does suggest imperfection. In this context, "unbegotten" is not applied to the Father as a lack, but it can be understood in the second sense, indicating that a specific person of the divine nature is not begotten, while another person of that same nature is. In this sense, the term "unbegotten" can also refer to the Holy Ghost. Therefore, to limit it as a term exclusive to the Father, it must be understood that the name "unbegotten" refers to a divine person as the principle of another person, implying negation within the category of principle taken personally in God. Alternatively, the term "unbegotten" should be understood to mean that He is not derived from another in any way, and not just that He is not from another through generation. In this sense, the term "unbegotten" does not apply at all to the Holy Ghost, Who comes from another by procession, as a distinct person; nor does it refer to the divine essence, which could be said to exist in the Son or in the Holy Ghost as coming from another—specifically, from the Father.

Reply Obj. 3: According to Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii, 9), "unbegotten" in one sense signifies the same as "uncreated"; and thus it applies to the substance, for thereby does the created substance differ from the uncreated. In another sense it signifies what is not begotten, and in this sense it is a relative term; just as negation is reduced to the genus of affirmation, as "not man" is reduced to the genus of substance, and "not white" to the genus of quality. Hence, since "begotten" implies relation in God, "unbegotten" belongs also to relation. Thus it does not follow that the Father unbegotten is substantially distinguished from the Son begotten; but only by relation; that is, as the relation of Son is denied of the Father.

Reply Obj. 3: According to Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii, 9), "unbegotten" in one sense means the same as "uncreated"; and it pertains to the substance, as this is how created substance differs from the uncreated. In another sense, it means what is not begotten, making it a relative term; just as negation falls under the category of affirmation, "not man" is categorized as substance, and "not white" is categorized as quality. Therefore, since "begotten" indicates a relationship in God, "unbegotten" also refers to a relationship. Thus, it does not mean that the unbegotten Father is substantially different from the begotten Son; it only differs by relation; that is, the relationship of Son is not applied to the Father.

Reply Obj. 4: In every genus there must be something first; so in the divine nature there must be some one principle which is not from another, and which we call "unbegotten." To admit two innascibles is to suppose the existence of two Gods, and two divine natures. Hence Hilary says (De Synod.): "As there is one God, so there cannot be two innascibles." And this especially because, did two innascibles exist, one would not be from the other, and they would not be distinguished by relative opposition: therefore they would be distinguished from each other by diversity of nature.

Reply Obj. 4: In every category, there has to be a primary element; similarly, in the divine nature, there must be one principle that is not derived from another, which we refer to as "unbegotten." Accepting two unbegotten beings means assuming the existence of two Gods and two divine natures. Hilary states (De Synod.): "Just as there is one God, there cannot be two unbegotten beings." This is especially true because if there were two unbegotten beings, neither would originate from the other, and they wouldn’t be defined by their relationships to one another; thus, they would be separated by differences in nature.

Reply Obj. 5: The property of the Father, whereby He is not from another, is more clearly signified by the removal of the nativity of the Son, than by the removal of the procession of the Holy Ghost; both because the procession of the Holy Ghost has no special name, as stated above (Q. 27, A. 4, ad 3), and because also in the order of nature it presupposes the generation of the Son. Hence, it being denied of the Father that He is begotten, although He is the principle of generation, it follows, as a consequence, that He does not proceed by the procession of the Holy Ghost, because the Holy Ghost is not the principle of generation, but proceeds from the person begotten. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: The Father's uniqueness, in that He is not derived from anyone else, is more clearly represented by the absence of the Son's birth than by the absence of the Holy Spirit's procession. This is because the procession of the Holy Spirit doesn’t have a specific name, as mentioned earlier (Q. 27, A. 4, ad 3), and also because, in the order of nature, it assumes the Son's generation. Therefore, since it is denied that the Father is begotten, even though He is the source of generation, it follows that He does not proceed in the same way as the Holy Spirit does, because the Holy Spirit is not the source of generation but rather proceeds from the begotten person.

QUESTION 34

OF THE PERSON OF THE SON
(In Three Articles)

OF THE PERSON OF THE SON
(In Three Articles)

We next consider the person of the Son. Three names are attributed to the Son—namely, "Son," "Word," and "Image." The idea of Son is gathered from the idea of Father. Hence it remains for us to consider Word and Image.

We now look at the person of the Son. Three names are attributed to the Son—specifically, "Son," "Word," and "Image." The concept of Son is derived from the concept of Father. Therefore, we need to examine Word and Image.

Concerning Word there are three points of inquiry:

Concerning Word, there are three areas to explore:

(1) Whether Word is an essential term in God, or a personal term?

(1) Is "Word" an essential term in God, or is it a personal term?

(2) Whether it is the proper name of the Son?

(2) Is it the correct name for the Son?

(3) Whether in the name of Word is expressed relation to creatures? _______________________

(3) Is the relationship to creatures expressed in the name of the Word? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 34, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 34, Art. 1]

Whether Word in God Is a Personal Name?

Whether "Word" in God Is a Personal Name?

Objection 1: It would seem that Word in God is not a personal name.
For personal names are applied to God in a proper sense, as Father and
Son. But Word is applied to God metaphorically, as Origen says on
(John 1:1), "In the beginning was the Word." Therefore Word is not a
personal name in God.

Objection 1: It seems that the Word in God is not a personal name.
Personal names are given to God in a proper sense, like Father and
Son. However, the Word is used to refer to God metaphorically, as Origen states in
(John 1:1), "In the beginning was the Word." Therefore, the Word is not a
personal name for God.

Obj. 2: Further, according to Augustine (De Trin. ix, 10), "The Word is knowledge with love;" and according to Anselm (Monol. lx), "To speak is to the Supreme Spirit nothing but to see by thought." But knowledge and thought, and sight, are essential terms in God. Therefore Word is not a personal term in God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, according to Augustine (De Trin. ix, 10), "The Word is knowledge along with love;" and according to Anselm (Monol. lx), "For the Supreme Spirit, to speak is nothing more than to see through thought." However, knowledge, thought, and sight are fundamental concepts in God. Therefore, the Word is not a personal term in God.

Obj. 3: Further, it is essential to word to be spoken. But, according to Anselm (Monol. lix), as the Father is intelligent, the Son is intelligent, and the Holy Ghost is intelligent, so the Father speaks, the Son speaks, and the Holy Ghost speaks; and likewise, each one of them is spoken. Therefore, the name Word is used as an essential term in God, and not in a personal sense.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, it is essential for the Word to be spoken. According to Anselm (Monol. lix), since the Father is intelligent, the Son is intelligent, and the Holy Spirit is intelligent, the Father speaks, the Son speaks, and the Holy Spirit speaks; similarly, each one of them is spoken of. Therefore, the term Word is used as an essential concept in God, rather than in a personal sense.

Obj. 4: Further, no divine person is made. But the Word of God is something made. For it is said, "Fire, hail, snow, ice, the storms which do His Word" (Ps. 148:8). Therefore the Word is not a personal name in God.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, no divine person is created. However, the Word of God is something that is made. It's stated, "Fire, hail, snow, ice, the storms which do His Word" (Ps. 148:8). Therefore, the Word is not a personal name for God.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 11): "As the Son is related to the Father, so also is the Word to Him Whose Word He is." But the Son is a personal name, since it is said relatively. Therefore so also is Word.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 11): "Just like the Son is related to the Father, the Word is related to the One whose Word He is." However, the Son is a personal name because it is said in relation to something else. Therefore, the same applies to the Word.

I answer that, The name of Word in God, if taken in its proper sense, is a personal name, and in no way an essential name.

I answer that, The name of Word in God, when understood correctly, is a personal name and not an essential name at all.

To see how this is true, we must know that our own word taken in its proper sense has a threefold meaning; while in a fourth sense it is taken improperly or figuratively. The clearest and most common sense is when it is said of the word spoken by the voice; and this proceeds from an interior source as regards two things found in the exterior word—that is, the vocal sound itself, and the signification of the sound. For, according to the Philosopher (Peri Herm. i) vocal sound signifies the concept of the intellect. Again the vocal sound proceeds from the signification or the imagination, as stated in De Anima ii, text 90. The vocal sound, which has no signification cannot be called a word: wherefore the exterior vocal sound is called a word from the fact the it signifies the interior concept of the mind. Therefore it follows that, first and chiefly, the interior concept of the mind is called a word; secondarily, the vocal sound itself, signifying the interior concept, is so called; and thirdly, the imagination of the vocal sound is called a word. Damascene mentions these three kinds of words (De Fide Orth. i, 17), saying that "word" is called "the natural movement of the intellect, whereby it is moved, and understands, and thinks, as light and splendor;" which is the first kind. "Again," he says, "the word is what is not pronounced by a vocal word, but is uttered in the heart;" which is the third kind. "Again," also, "the word is the angel"—that is, the messenger "of intelligence;" which is the second kind. Word is also used in a fourth way figuratively for that which is signified or effected by a word; thus we are wont to say, "this is the word I have said," or "which the king has commanded," alluding to some deed signified by the word either by way of assertion or of command.

To understand how this is true, we need to recognize that our own word, when taken in its proper sense, has three meanings; while in a fourth sense, it is used improperly or figuratively. The clearest and most common meaning is when we refer to the word spoken aloud; this comes from an internal source related to two aspects of the spoken word—that is, the vocal sound itself and the meaning of that sound. According to the Philosopher (Peri Herm. i), vocal sound represents the concept of the mind. Furthermore, the vocal sound comes from the meaning or the imagination, as stated in De Anima ii, text 90. A vocal sound that has no meaning cannot be called a word; thus, the external vocal sound is termed a word because it represents the internal concept of the mind. Consequently, it follows that, first and foremost, the internal concept of the mind is referred to as a word; secondly, the vocal sound itself, which signifies the internal concept, is also called a word; and thirdly, the imagination of the vocal sound is called a word. Damascene mentions these three types of words (De Fide Orth. i, 17), stating that "word" is described as "the natural movement of the intellect, which moves, understands, and thinks, like light and splendor;" which is the first type. "Again," he states, "the word is what is not pronounced with a vocal sound, but is expressed in the heart;" which is the third type. "Additionally," he mentions, "the word is the angel"—that is, the messenger "of understanding;" which is the second type. The word is also used in a fourth, figurative sense for what is signified or accomplished by a word; hence we often say, "this is the word I have said," or "which the king has commanded," referring to some action indicated by the word, either as a statement or a command.

Now word is taken strictly in God, as signifying the concept of the intellect. Hence Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 10): "Whoever can understand the word, not only before it is sounded, but also before thought has clothed it with imaginary sound, can already see some likeness of that Word of Whom it is said: In the beginning was the Word." The concept itself of the heart has of its own nature to proceed from something other than itself—namely, from the knowledge of the one conceiving. Hence "Word," according as we use the term strictly of God, signifies something proceeding from another; which belongs to the nature of personal terms in God, inasmuch as the divine persons are distinguished by origin (Q. 27, AA. 3, 4, 5). Hence the term "Word," according as we use the term strictly of God, is to be taken as said not essentially, but personally.

Now, the term "Word" is understood in relation to God, representing the idea of the intellect. Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 10): "Whoever can grasp the Word, not only before it is spoken, but also before thought has given it an imagined sound, can already perceive some resemblance of that Word of Whom it is said: In the beginning was the Word." The concept of the heart must, by its nature, come from something outside itself—specifically, from the understanding of the one conceiving. Thus, the term "Word," when we refer to it specifically in relation to God, indicates something that comes from another; this is inherent to the nature of personal terms in God, as the divine persons are defined by their origin (Q. 27, AA. 3, 4, 5). Therefore, the term "Word," when we use it specifically concerning God, should be understood as referring to the personal aspect rather than the essential.

Reply Obj. 1: The Arians, who sprang from Origen, declared that the Son differed in substance from the Father. Hence, they endeavored to maintain that when the Son of God is called the Word, this is not to be understood in a strict sense; lest the idea of the Word proceeding should compel them to confess that the Son of God is of the same substance as the Father. For the interior word proceeds in such a manner from the one who pronounces it, as to remain within him. But supposing Word to be said metaphorically of God, we must still admit Word in its strict sense. For if a thing be called a word metaphorically, this can only be by reason of some manifestation; either it makes something manifest as a word, or it is manifested by a word. If manifested by a word, there must exist a word whereby it is manifested. If it is called a word because it exteriorly manifests, what it exteriorly manifests cannot be called word except in as far as it signifies the interior concept of the mind, which anyone may also manifest by exterior signs. Therefore, although Word may be sometimes said of God metaphorically, nevertheless we must also admit Word in the proper sense, and which is said personally.

Reply Obj. 1: The Arians, who originated from Origen, claimed that the Son is different in substance from the Father. Therefore, they tried to argue that when the Son of God is called the Word, this shouldn't be taken literally; otherwise, the idea of the Word proceeding might force them to admit that the Son of God is of the same substance as the Father. The inner word comes from the person who speaks it, but it remains within that person. However, if we consider the term Word to be metaphorical when referring to God, we still need to acknowledge the term Word in its literal sense. If something is called a word metaphorically, it can only be due to some kind of manifestation; it either reveals something as a word, or it's revealed through a word. If it’s revealed through a word, there must be a word that makes this revelation possible. If it’s called a word because it manifests something externally, that external manifestation can only be called a word to the extent that it represents the internal concept of the mind, which anyone can also express through external signs. So, while the term Word might sometimes be used metaphorically when talking about God, we still have to recognize the term Word in its proper sense, as a personal reference.

Reply Obj. 2: Nothing belonging to the intellect can be applied to God personally, except word alone; for word alone signifies that which emanates from another. For what the intellect forms in its conception is the word. Now, the intellect itself, according as it is made actual by the intelligible species, is considered absolutely; likewise the act of understanding which is to the actual intellect what existence is to actual being; since the act of understanding does not signify an act going out from the intelligent agent, but an act remaining in the agent. Therefore when we say that word is knowledge, the term knowledge does not mean the act of a knowing intellect, or any one of its habits, but stands for what the intellect conceives by knowing. Hence also Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 1) that the Word is "begotten wisdom;" for it is nothing but the concept of the Wise One; and in the same way It can be called "begotten knowledge." Thus can also be explained how "to speak" is in God "to see by thought," forasmuch as the Word is conceived by the gaze of the divine thought. Still the term "thought" does not properly apply to the Word of God. For Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 16): "Therefore do we speak of the Word of God, and not of the Thought of God, lest we believe that in God there is something unstable, now assuming the form of Word, now putting off that form and remaining latent and as it were formless." For thought consists properly in the search after the truth, and this has no place in God. But when the intellect attains to the form of truth, it does not think, but perfectly contemplates the truth. Hence Anselm (Monol. lx) takes "thought" in an improper sense for "contemplation."

Reply Obj. 2: Nothing related to the intellect can refer to God personally, except for the term "word"; because "word" signifies what comes from another. What the intellect creates in its understanding is the word. Now, the intellect itself, as it is activated by the intelligible concepts, is considered in absolute terms; similarly, the act of understanding relates to the active intellect just as existence relates to actual being. This is because the act of understanding does not indicate an act that departs from the mind, but rather an act that remains within the mind. Therefore, when we say that a word is knowledge, the term "knowledge" does not refer to the act of a knowing intellect or any of its characteristics, but represents what the intellect conceives through knowing. This is also why Augustine states (De Trin. vii, 1) that the Word is "begotten wisdom"; it is merely the concept of the Wise One; and in the same way, it can also be called "begotten knowledge." This also clarifies how "to speak" in God means "to see through thought," since the Word is conceived through the insight of divine thought. However, the term "thought" doesn't really apply to God's Word. Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 16): "That is why we talk about the Word of God, not the Thought of God, so we don't assume that in God there is something unstable, sometimes taking the form of Word, and other times losing that form and becoming hidden and somewhat formless." Thought properly involves the pursuit of truth, which has no place in God. When the intellect reaches the form of truth, it does not think, but fully contemplates the truth. Hence, Anselm (Monol. lx) uses "thought" in a non-literal sense to mean "contemplation."

Reply Obj. 3: As, properly speaking, Word in God is said personally, and not essentially, so likewise is to "speak." Hence, as the Word is not common to the Father, Son and Holy Ghost, so it is not true that the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are one speaker. So Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 1): "He who speaks in that co-eternal Word is understood as not alone in God, but as being with that very Word, without which, forsooth, He would not be speaking." On the other hand, "to be spoken" belongs to each Person, for not only is the word spoken, but also the thing understood or signified by the word. Therefore in this manner to one person alone in God does it belong to be spoken in the same way as a word is spoken; whereas in the way whereby a thing is spoken as being understood in the word, it belongs to each Person to be spoken. For the Father, by understanding Himself, the Son and the Holy Ghost, and all other things comprised in this knowledge, conceives the Word; so that thus the whole Trinity is "spoken" in the Word; and likewise also all creatures: as the intellect of a man by the word he conceives in the act of understanding a stone, speaks a stone. Anselm took the term "speak" improperly for the act of understanding; whereas they really differ from each other; for "to understand" means only the habitude of the intelligent agent to the thing understood, in which habitude no trace of origin is conveyed, but only a certain information of our intellect; forasmuch as our intellect is made actual by the form of the thing understood. In God, however, it means complete identity, because in God the intellect and the thing understood are altogether the same, as was proved above (Q. 14, AA. 4, 5). Whereas to "speak" means chiefly the habitude to the word conceived; for "to speak" is nothing but to utter a word. But by means of the word it imports a habitude to the thing understood which in the word uttered is manifested to the one who understands. Thus, only the Person who utters the Word is "speaker" in God, although each Person understands and is understood, and consequently is spoken by the Word.

Reply Obj. 3: The Word in God is said to be personal, not essential, and the same goes for "to speak." Just as the Word is not shared by the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, it’s not accurate to say that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are one speaker. Augustine states (De Trin. vii, 1): "The one who speaks in that co-eternal Word is understood as not alone in God but as being with that very Word; without it, He would not be speaking." On the other hand, "to be spoken" applies to each Person because not only is the word spoken, but also what is understood or signified by it. Therefore, in this sense, it’s appropriate for one Person alone in God to be spoken as a word is spoken; whereas, in the way that something is understood in the word, it belongs to each Person to be spoken. The Father, by understanding Himself, the Son, the Holy Spirit, and all other things within that knowledge, conceives the Word, so that the entire Trinity is "spoken" in the Word, as well as all creatures: just as a person’s intellect, when he understands a stone, speaks of a stone. Anselm incorrectly used "speak" as a synonym for the act of understanding; however, they really are different. "To understand" refers only to the relationship between the intelligent agent and the thing understood, which carries no trace of origin but only a certain insight from our intellect, due to our intellect being activated by the form of the thing understood. In God, though, it signifies complete identity, as in God the intellect and the thing understood are entirely the same, as shown previously (Q. 14, AA. 4, 5). Meanwhile, "to speak" primarily refers to the relationship to the conceived word; "to speak" is simply to utter a word. Through the word, it implies a relationship to the thing understood which is revealed in the uttered word to the one who understands. Thus, only the Person who utters the Word is the "speaker" in God, although each Person understands, is understood, and therefore is spoken of by the Word.

Reply Obj. 4: The term "word" is there taken figuratively, as the thing signified or effected by word is called word. For thus creatures are said to do the word of God, as executing any effect, whereto they are ordained from the word conceived of the divine wisdom; as anyone is said to do the word of the king when he does the work to which he is appointed by the king's word. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The term "word" is used figuratively here, as it refers to the thing that is indicated or accomplished by the word. In this way, creatures are said to perform the word of God when they carry out actions that are intended by the idea conceived in divine wisdom; just as someone is said to follow the word of the king when they perform the tasks assigned to them by the king's command.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 34, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 34, Art. 2]

Whether "Word" Is the Son's Proper Name?

Whether "Word" Is the Son's Proper Name?

Objection 1: It would seem that "Word" is not the proper name of the Son. For the Son is a subsisting person in God. But word does not signify a subsisting thing, as appears in ourselves. Therefore word cannot be the proper name of the person of the Son.

Objection 1: It seems that "Word" is not the correct name for the Son. The Son is a distinct person within God. However, the term "word" does not indicate a distinct entity, as we can see in ourselves. Therefore, "word" cannot be the proper name for the person of the Son.

Obj. 2: Further, the word proceeds from the speaker by being uttered.
Therefore if the Son is properly the word, He proceeds from the
Father, by way only of utterance; which is the heresy of Valentine;
as appears from Augustine (De Haeres. xi).

Obj. 2: Additionally, the word comes from the speaker when it is spoken.
So if the Son is truly the word, He comes from the
Father, solely through utterance; which is the heresy of Valentine;
as noted by Augustine (De Haeres. xi).

Obj. 3: Further, every proper name of a person signifies some property of that person. Therefore, if the Word is the Son's proper name, it signifies some property of His; and thus there will be several more properties in God than those above mentioned.

Obj. 3: Also, every proper name of a person represents some characteristic of that person. So, if the Word is the Son's proper name, it represents some characteristic of His; and therefore, there will be several more characteristics in God than those mentioned above.

Obj. 4: Further, whoever understands conceives a word in the act of understanding. But the Son understands. Therefore some word belongs to the Son; and consequently to be Word is not proper to the Son.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, anyone who understands forms a word while understanding. But the Son understands. Therefore, some word belongs to the Son; and as a result, being the Word is not unique to the Son.

Obj. 5: Further, it is said of the Son (Heb. 1:3): "Bearing all things by the word of His power;" whence Basil infers (Cont. Eunom. v, 11) that the Holy Ghost is the Son's Word. Therefore to be Word is not proper to the Son.

Obj. 5: Additionally, it is stated about the Son (Heb. 1:3): "Sustaining everything by the word of His power;" from this, Basil concludes (Cont. Eunom. v, 11) that the Holy Spirit is the Son's Word. Therefore, being the Word does not belong exclusively to the Son.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 11): "By Word we understand the Son alone."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 11): "By Word we understand the Son alone."

I answer that, "Word," said of God in its proper sense, is used personally, and is the proper name of the person of the Son. For it signifies an emanation of the intellect: and the person Who proceeds in God, by way of emanation of the intellect, is called the Son; and this procession is called generation, as we have shown above (Q. 27, A. 2). Hence it follows that the Son alone is properly called Word in God.

I answer that, "Word," in the true sense when referring to God, is used personally and is the specific name for the person of the Son. It represents the expression of the intellect, and the person who comes forth from God through this intellectual expression is called the Son; this coming forth is referred to as generation, as we have discussed earlier (Q. 27, A. 2). Therefore, it follows that only the Son is accurately referred to as the Word in God.

Reply Obj. 1: "To be" and "to understand" are not the same in us. Hence that which in us has intellectual being, does not belong to our nature. But in God "to be" and "to understand" are one and the same: hence the Word of God is not an accident in Him, or an effect of His; but belongs to His very nature. And therefore it must needs be something subsistent; for whatever is in the nature of God subsists; and so Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 18) that "the Word of God is substantial and has a hypostatic being; but other words [as our own] are activities if the soul."

Reply Obj. 1: "To be" and "to understand" are not the same for us. Therefore, what has intellectual existence in us isn't a part of our nature. But in God, "to be" and "to understand" are one and the same: thus, the Word of God is not an accident or an effect in Him; it is intrinsic to His very nature. Consequently, it must be something that exists by itself, because everything in God's nature exists in that way; and as Damascene states (De Fide Orth. i, 18), "the Word of God is substantial and has a hypostatic existence; whereas other words [like ours] are activities of the soul."

Reply Obj. 2: The error of Valentine was condemned, not as the Arians pretended, because he asserted that the Son was born by being uttered, as Hilary relates (De Trin. vi); but on account of the different mode of utterance proposed by its author, as appears from Augustine (De Haeres. xi).

Reply Obj. 2: Valentine's mistake was criticized, not for claiming the Son was born through utterance, as the Arians claimed, according to Hilary (De Trin. vi), but due to the different way of utterance suggested by its originator, as stated by Augustine (De Haeres. xi).

Reply Obj. 3: In the term "Word" the same property is comprised as in the name Son. Hence Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 11): "Word and Son express the same." For the Son's nativity, which is His personal property, is signified by different names, which are attributed to the Son to express His perfection in various ways. To show that He is of the same nature as the Father, He is called the Son; to show that He is co-eternal, He is called the Splendor; to show that He is altogether like, He is called the Image; to show that He is begotten immaterially, He is called the Word. All these truths cannot be expressed by only one name.

Reply Obj. 3: The term "Word" carries the same meaning as the name Son. Augustine states (De Trin. vii, 11): "Word and Son express the same." The Son's origin, which is His unique quality, is conveyed through different names used for the Son to represent His perfection in various ways. To indicate that He shares the same nature as the Father, He is called the Son; to show that He is co-eternal, He is referred to as the Splendor; to highlight that He is entirely similar, He is called the Image; and to express that He is immaterially begotten, He is named the Word. All these truths cannot be captured by just one name.

Reply Obj. 4: To be intelligent belongs to the Son, in the same way as it belongs to Him to be God, since to understand is said of God essentially, as stated above (Q. 14, AA. 2, 4). Now the Son is God begotten, and not God begetting; and hence He is intelligent, not as producing a Word, but as the Word proceeding; forasmuch as in God the Word proceeding does not differ really from the divine intellect, but is distinguished from the principle of the Word only by relation.

Reply Obj. 4: Intelligence belongs to the Son just as being God does, because understanding is essentially attributed to God, as mentioned earlier (Q. 14, AA. 2, 4). The Son is God who is begotten, not God who begets; therefore, He possesses intelligence not as someone creating a Word, but as the Word that comes forth. In God, the Word that comes forth does not actually differ from the divine intellect; rather, it is distinguished only by its relation to the source of the Word.

Reply Obj. 5: When it is said of the Son, "Bearing all things by the word of His power"; "word" is taken figuratively for the effect of the Word. Hence a gloss says that "word" is here taken to mean command; inasmuch as by the effect of the power of the Word, things are kept in being, as also by the effect of the power of the Word things are brought into being. Basil speaks widely and figuratively in applying Word to the Holy Ghost; in the sense perhaps that everything that makes a person known may be called his word, and so in that way the Holy Ghost may be called the Son's Word, because He manifests the Son. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: When it says of the Son, "Bearing all things by the word of His power," the term "word" is used figuratively to refer to the result of the Word. A commentary explains that "word" here means command; because through the power of the Word, things are sustained, and also by the effect of the power of the Word, things are created. Basil speaks broadly and metaphorically when referring to the Word in relation to the Holy Spirit; possibly in the sense that everything that reveals a person can be considered their word, and so in that sense, the Holy Spirit can be referred to as the Son's Word, because He reveals the Son.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 34, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 34, Art. 3]

Whether the Name "Word" Imports Relation to Creatures?

Whether the term "Word" refers to a relationship with beings?

Objection 1: It would seem that the name 'Word' does not import relation to creatures. For every name that connotes some effect in creatures, is said of God essentially. But Word is not said essentially, but personally. Therefore Word does not import relation to creatures.

Objection 1: It seems that the name 'Word' doesn’t imply a relationship to creatures. Every name that indicates some effect in creatures is used of God in an essential way. However, 'Word' is not used essentially, but rather personally. Therefore, 'Word' does not imply a relationship to creatures.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever imports relation to creatures is said of God in time; as "Lord" and "Creator." But Word is said of God from eternity. Therefore it does not import relation to the creature.

Obj. 2: Additionally, anything that relates to creatures is said about God in time, like "Lord" and "Creator." However, "Word" is said of God from eternity. Therefore, it doesn't imply a relationship to the creature.

Obj. 3: Further, Word imports relation to the source whence it proceeds. Therefore, if it imports relation to the creature, it follows that the Word proceeds from the creature.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the Word implies a connection to the source from which it comes. Therefore, if it implies a connection to the creature, it means that the Word comes from the creature.

Obj. 4: Further, ideas (in God) are many according to their various relations to creatures. Therefore if Word imports relation to creatures, it follows that in God there is not one Word only, but many.

Obj. 4: Additionally, ideas (in God) are numerous based on their different relationships to creatures. So, if Word implies a relation to creatures, it follows that in God there isn't just one Word, but many.

Obj. 5: Further, if Word imports relation to the creature, this can only be because creatures are known by God. But God does not know beings only; He knows also non-beings. Therefore in the Word are implied relations to non-beings; which appears to be false.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, if the Word signifies a relationship to the creature, it can only be because creatures are known by God. However, God doesn’t just know beings; He also knows non-beings. Therefore, the Word implies relationships to non-beings, which seems to be incorrect.

On the contrary, Augustine says (QQ. lxxxiii, qu. 63), that "the name Word signifies not only relation to the Father, but also relation to those beings which are made through the Word, by His operative power."

On the contrary, Augustine says (QQ. lxxxiii, qu. 63), that "the name Word signifies not only relation to the Father, but also relation to those beings which are made through the Word, by His operative power."

I answer that, Word implies relation to creatures. For God by knowing Himself, knows every creature. Now the word conceived in the mind is representative of everything that is actually understood. Hence there are in ourselves different words for the different things which we understand. But because God by one act understands Himself and all things, His one only Word is expressive not only of the Father, but of all creatures.

I answer that, the Word indicates a connection to beings. By knowing Himself, God knows all creatures. The word we think of in our minds represents everything we truly understand. Therefore, we have different words for the various things we comprehend. However, since God understands Himself and everything else in one single act, His one Word expresses not just the Father, but all of creation.

And as the knowledge of God is only cognitive as regards God, whereas as regards creatures, it is both cognitive and operative, so the Word of God is only expressive of what is in God the Father, but is both expressive and operative of creatures; and therefore it is said (Ps. 32:9): "He spake, and they were made;" because in the Word is implied the operative idea of what God makes.

And just as our understanding of God is purely intellectual when it comes to God Himself, but both intellectual and active when it comes to creatures, the Word of God expresses only what is in God the Father, while it both expresses and acts upon creatures. That's why it's said (Ps. 32:9): "He spoke, and they were created;" because within the Word is contained the active concept of what God brings into existence.

Reply Obj. 1: The nature is also included indirectly in the name of the person; for person is an individual substance of a rational nature. Therefore the name of a divine person, as regards the personal relation, does not imply relation to the creature, but it is implied in what belongs to the nature. Yet there is nothing to prevent its implying relation to creatures, so far as the essence is included in its meaning: for as it properly belongs to the Son to be the Son, so it properly belongs to Him to be God begotten, or the Creator begotten; and in this way the name Word imports relation to creatures.

Reply Obj. 1: Nature is also indirectly included in the name of a person because a person is an individual being with a rational nature. Therefore, the name of a divine person, in terms of personal relationship, doesn’t imply a relationship to creatures, but is inherent in what pertains to the nature. However, there’s nothing preventing it from implying a relationship to creatures, as long as the essence is included in its meaning: just as it is essential for the Son to be the Son, it is equally essential for Him to be God-generated, or the Creator generated; and in this sense, the name Word indicates a relationship to creatures.

Reply Obj. 2: Since the relations result from actions, some names import the relation of God to creatures, which relation follows on the action of God which passes into some exterior effect, as to create and to govern; and the like are applied to God in time. But others import a relation which follows from an action which does not pass into an exterior effect, but abides in the agent—as to know and to will: such are not applied to God in time; and this kind of relation to creatures is implied in the name of the Word. Nor is it true that all names which import the relation of God to creatures are applied to Him in time; but only those names are applied in time which import relation following on the action of God passing into exterior effect.

Reply Obj. 2: Since relationships come from actions, some names reflect the relationship of God to creatures, which arises from God's action that results in some outward effect, like creating and governing; these are used for God in time. However, others reflect a relationship that comes from an action that doesn’t lead to an outward effect but remains within the agent, such as knowing and willing: these aren’t applied to God in time; this type of relationship to creatures is captured in the term "the Word." It’s also not correct to say that all names indicating the relationship of God to creatures are applied to Him in time; only those names are applied in time that signify a relationship resulting from God's action leading to an outward effect.

Reply Obj. 3: Creatures are known to God not by a knowledge derived from the creatures themselves, but by His own essence. Hence it is not necessary that the Word should proceed from creatures, although the Word is expressive of creatures.

Reply Obj. 3: God knows creatures not because of anything they are, but through His own essence. Therefore, it's not necessary for the Word to come from creatures, even though the Word reflects them.

Reply Obj. 4: The name of Idea is imposed chiefly to signify relation to creatures; and therefore it is applied in a plural sense to God; and it is not said personally. But the name of Word is imposed chiefly to signify the speaker, and consequently, relation to creatures, inasmuch as God, by understanding Himself, understands every creature; and so there is only one Word in God, and that is a personal one.

Reply Obj. 4: The term "Idea" is mainly used to indicate a relation to creatures; therefore, it is used in a plural sense when referring to God, and it is not used personally. In contrast, the term "Word" is primarily used to signify the speaker, and thus it relates to creatures since God, by understanding Himself, understands every creature. Therefore, there is only one Word in God, and that is a personal one.

Reply Obj. 5: God's knowledge of non-beings and God's Word about non-beings are the same; because the Word of God contains no less than does the knowledge of God, as Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 14). Nevertheless the Word is expressive and operative of beings, but is expressive and manifestive of non-beings. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: God's understanding of non-beings and God's Word about non-beings are identical; because the Word of God includes everything that God's knowledge does, as Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 14). However, the Word actively expresses and influences beings, while it expresses and reveals non-beings.

QUESTION 35

OF THE IMAGE
(In Two Articles)

OF THE IMAGE
(In Two Parts)

We next inquire concerning the image: about which there are two points of inquiry:

We will now look into the image: there are two main questions to consider:

(1) Whether Image in God is said personally?

(1) Is the Image of God referred to personally?

(2) Whether this name belongs to the Son alone? _______________________

(2) Does this name belong only to the Son? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 35, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 35, Art. 1]

Whether Image in God Is Said Personally?

Whether the image in God is referred to personally?

Objection 1: It would seem that image is not said personally of God.
For Augustine (Fulgentius, De Fide ad Petrum i) says, "The Godhead
of the Holy Trinity and the Image whereunto man is made are one."
Therefore Image is said of God essentially, and not personally.

Objection 1: It seems that "image" isn't used personally when referring to God.
Augustine (Fulgentius, De Fide ad Petrum i) says, "The Godhead
of the Holy Trinity and the image to which man is made are one."
So, "image" is used to describe God essentially, not personally.

Obj. 2: Further, Hilary says (De Synod.): "An image is a like species of that which it represents." But species or form is said of God essentially. Therefore so also is Image.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Hilary states (De Synod.): "An image is a similar kind of what it represents." However, the term species or form is used in relation to God essentially. Therefore, the same applies to Image.

Obj. 3: Further, Image is derived from imitation, which implies "before" and "after." But in the divine persons there is no "before" and "after." Therefore Image cannot be a personal name in God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Image comes from imitation, which suggests "before" and "after." However, in the divine persons, there is no "before" and "after." Therefore, Image cannot be a personal name in God.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 1): "What is more absurd than to say that an image is referred to itself?" Therefore the Image in God is a relation, and is thus a personal name.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 1): "What could be more ridiculous than to say that an image refers to itself?" Therefore, the Image in God is a relationship, and is therefore a personal name.

I answer that, Image includes the idea of similitude. Still, not any kind of similitude suffices for the notion of image, but only similitude of species, or at least of some specific sign. In corporeal things the specific sign consists chiefly in the figure. For we see that the species of different animals are of different figures; but not of different colors. Hence if the color of anything is depicted on a wall, this is not called an image unless the figure is likewise depicted. Further, neither the similitude of species or of figure is enough for an image, which requires also the idea of origin; because, as Augustine says (QQ. lxxxiii, qu. 74): "One egg is not the image of another, because it is not derived from it." Therefore for a true image it is required that one proceeds from another like to it in species, or at least in specific sign. Now whatever imports procession or origin in God, belongs to the persons. Hence the name "Image" is a personal name.

I answer that, an image includes the idea of similarity. However, not just any similarity is sufficient for the concept of an image; it must be a similarity of species, or at least of some specific sign. In physical things, the specific sign mainly consists of the shape. We see that different species of animals have different shapes, but not necessarily different colors. Therefore, if the color of something is shown on a wall, it's not considered an image unless the shape is also shown. Furthermore, neither the similarity of species nor of shape is enough for something to be an image; it also requires the idea of origin. As Augustine states (QQ. lxxxiii, qu. 74): "One egg is not the image of another because it is not derived from it." Thus, for a true image, it is necessary that one comes from another that is similar to it in species or at least in specific sign. Now, whatever implies procession or origin in God pertains to the persons. Thus, the term "Image" is a personal name.

Reply Obj. 1: Image, properly speaking, means whatever proceeds forth in likeness to another. That to the likeness of which anything proceeds, is properly speaking called the exemplar, and is improperly called the image. Nevertheless Augustine (Fulgentius) uses the name of Image in this sense when he says that the divine nature of the Holy Trinity is the Image to whom man was made.

Reply Obj. 1: An image, in the strictest sense, refers to anything that comes forth resembling another. The thing it resembles is properly called the exemplar, while the term image is used somewhat incorrectly. However, Augustine (Fulgentius) uses the term Image in this way when he states that the divine nature of the Holy Trinity is the Image to which humans were created.

Reply Obj. 2: species, as mentioned by Hilary in the definition of image, means the form derived from one thing to another. In this sense image is said to be the species of anything, as that which is assimilated to anything is called its form, inasmuch as it has a like form.

Reply Obj. 2: species, as mentioned by Hilary in the definition of image, refers to the form transferred from one thing to another. In this sense, an image is considered the species of anything, as that which is similar to anything is called its form, since it has a comparable form.

Reply Obj. 3: Imitation in God does not signify posteriority, but only assimilation. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Imitation in God doesn't mean being inferior; it only means being similar.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 35, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 35, Art. 2]

Whether the Name of Image Is Proper to the Son?

Whether the name of the image is appropriate for the Son?

Objection 1: It would seem that the name of Image is not proper to the Son; because, as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 18), "The Holy Ghost is the Image of the Son." Therefore Image does not belong to the Son alone.

Objection 1: It seems that the term "Image" doesn't solely apply to the Son; because, as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 18), "The Holy Ghost is the Image of the Son." Therefore, "Image" does not exclusively belong to the Son.

Obj. 2: Further, similitude in expression belongs to the nature of an image, as Augustine says (QQ. lxxxiii, qu. 74). But this belongs to the Holy Ghost, Who proceeds from another by way of similitude. Therefore the Holy Ghost is an Image; and so to be Image does not belong to the Son alone.

Obj. 2: Additionally, similarity in expression is a key aspect of an image, as Augustine states (QQ. lxxxiii, qu. 74). This characteristic is found in the Holy Spirit, Who comes from another through similarity. Therefore, the Holy Spirit is an Image; thus, being an Image is not limited to the Son alone.

Obj. 3: Further, man is also called the image of God, according to 1 Cor. 11:7, "The man ought not to cover his head, for he is the image and the glory of God." Therefore Image is not proper to the Son.

Obj. 3: Additionally, man is referred to as the image of God, as stated in 1 Cor. 11:7, "A man should not cover his head, since he is the image and glory of God." Therefore, the image does not belong solely to the Son.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 2): "The Son alone is the Image of the Father."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 2): "The Son alone is the Image of the Father."

I answer that, The Greek Doctors commonly say that the Holy Ghost is the Image of both the Father and of the Son; but the Latin Doctors attribute the name Image to the Son alone. For it is not found in the canonical Scripture except as applied to the Son; as in the words, "Who is the Image of the invisible God, the firstborn of creatures" (Col. 1:15) and again: "Who being the brightness of His glory, and the figure of His substance." (Heb. 1:3).

I respond that, The Greek theologians usually state that the Holy Spirit is the Image of both the Father and the Son; however, the Latin theologians assign the term Image exclusively to the Son. This term is not found in the canonical Scripture except when referring to the Son; as seen in the phrases, "Who is the Image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation" (Col. 1:15) and again: "Who being the brightness of His glory, and the exact representation of His being." (Heb. 1:3).

Some explain this by the fact that the Son agrees with the Father, not in nature only, but also in the notion of principle: whereas the Holy Ghost agrees neither with the Son, nor with the Father in any notion. This, however, does not seem to suffice. Because as it is not by reason of the relations that we consider either equality or inequality in God, as Augustine says (De Trin. v, 6), so neither (by reason thereof do we consider) that similitude which is essential to image. Hence others say that the Holy Ghost cannot be called the Image of the Son, because there cannot be an image of an image; nor of the Father, because again the image must be immediately related to that which it is the image; and the Holy Ghost is related to the Father through the Son; nor again is He the Image of the Father and the Son, because then there would be one image of two; which is impossible. Hence it follows that the Holy Ghost is in no way an Image. But this is no proof: for the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost, as we shall explain further on (Q. 36, A. 4). Hence there is nothing to prevent there being one Image of the Father and of the Son, inasmuch as they are one; since even man is one image of the whole Trinity.

Some explain this by saying that the Son is in agreement with the Father not just in essence but also in terms of being a principle: while the Holy Spirit does not align with either the Son or the Father in any such sense. However, this doesn't seem to fully explain the matter. As Augustine points out (De Trin. v, 6), we don't determine equality or inequality in God based on relationships, nor do we consider the likeness that is essential to an image for that reason. Thus, others argue that the Holy Spirit cannot be called the Image of the Son because there can't be an image of an image; nor can He be considered the image of the Father, since an image must directly relate to that which it represents, and the Holy Spirit is connected to the Father through the Son. Additionally, He cannot be the Image of both the Father and the Son because that would imply one image for two, which is impossible. Therefore, it follows that the Holy Spirit is not an Image in any way. However, this doesn't prove anything: the Father and the Son are the singular source of the Holy Spirit, as we will explain further (Q. 36, A. 4). Thus, there is nothing preventing the existence of a single Image encompassing both the Father and the Son, given that they are one; since even a human can be seen as one image of the entire Trinity.

Therefore we must explain the matter otherwise by saying that, as the Holy Ghost, although by His procession He receives the nature of the Father, as the Son also receives it, nevertheless is not said to be "born"; so, although He receives the likeness of the Father, He is not called the Image; because the Son proceeds as word, and it is essential to word to be like species with that whence it proceeds; whereas this does not essentially belong to love, although it may belong to that love which is the Holy Ghost, inasmuch as He is the divine love.

Therefore, we need to explain things differently by saying that, just as the Holy Spirit receives the nature of the Father through His procession, like the Son does, He is nonetheless not referred to as being "born." Although He takes on the likeness of the Father, He is not called the Image; this is because the Son proceeds as the word, and it’s essential for a word to resemble the source from which it comes; whereas this similarity is not inherently part of love, even though it can apply to that love which is the Holy Spirit, since He is divine love.

Reply Obj. 1: Damascene and the other Greek Doctors commonly employ the term image as meaning a perfect similitude.

Reply Obj. 1: Damascene and the other Greek Doctors often use the term image to mean a perfect likeness.

Reply Obj. 2: Although the Holy Ghost is like to the Father and the Son, still it does not follow that He is the Image, as above explained.

Reply Obj. 2: Although the Holy Spirit is similar to the Father and the Son, it does not mean that He is the Image, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 3: The image of a thing may be found in something in two ways. In one way it is found in something of the same specific nature; as the image of the king is found in his son. In another way it is found in something of a different nature, as the king's image on the coin. In the first sense the Son is the Image of the Father; in the second sense man is called the image of God; and therefore in order to express the imperfect character of the divine image in man, man is not simply called the image, but "to the image," whereby is expressed a certain movement of tendency to perfection. But it cannot be said that the Son of God is "to the image," because He is the perfect Image of the Father. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The image of something can be found in two ways. First, it can be found in something of the same kind; for example, the image of a king is seen in his son. Second, it can be found in something different, like the king's image on a coin. In this first sense, the Son is the Image of the Father; in the second sense, man is referred to as the image of God. Therefore, to indicate the imperfect nature of the divine image in man, he is not simply called the image, but "to the image," which suggests a movement towards perfection. However, it cannot be said that the Son of God is "to the image," because He is the perfect Image of the Father.

QUESTION 36

OF THE PERSON OF THE HOLY GHOST
(In Four Articles)

OF THE PERSON OF THE HOLY SPIRIT
(In Four Articles)

We proceed to treat of what belongs to the person of the Holy Ghost,
Who is called not only the Holy Ghost, but also the Love and Gift of
God. Concerning the name "Holy Ghost" there are four points of
inquiry:

We will now discuss what pertains to the person of the Holy Spirit,
Who is referred to not only as the Holy Spirit but also as the Love and Gift of
God. Regarding the name "Holy Spirit," there are four key areas of
inquiry:

(1) Whether this name, "Holy Ghost," is the proper name of one divine Person?

(1) Is the name "Holy Ghost" the real name of one divine Person?

(2) Whether that divine person Who is called the Holy Ghost, proceeds from the Father and the Son?

(2) Does the divine person known as the Holy Spirit come from the Father and the Son?

(3) Whether He proceeds from the Father through the Son?

(3) Does He come from the Father through the Son?

(4) Whether the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost? _______________________

(4) Are the Father and the Son one principle of the Holy Ghost? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 36, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 36, Art. 1]

Whether This Name "Holy Ghost" Is the Proper Name of One Divine Person?

Whether the name "Holy Ghost" is the proper name of one divine person?

Objection 1: It would seem that this name, "Holy Ghost," is not the proper name of one divine person. For no name which is common to the three persons is the proper name of any one person. But this name of 'Holy Ghost' [*It should be borne in mind that the word "ghost" is the old English equivalent for the Latin "spiritus,"] whether in the sense of "breath" or "blast," or in the sense of "spirit," as an immaterial substance. Thus, we read in the former sense (Hampole, Psalter x, 7), "The Gost of Storms" [spiritus procellarum], and in the latter "Trubled gost is sacrifice of God" (Prose Psalter, A.D. 1325), and "Oure wrestlynge is . . . against the spiritual wicked gostes of the ayre" (More, "Comfort against Tribulation"); and in our modern expression of "giving up the ghost." As applied to God, and not specially to the third Holy Person, we have an example from Maunder, "Jhesu Criste was the worde and the goste of Good." (See Oxford Dictionary).) is common to the three persons; for Hilary (De Trin. viii) shows that the "Spirit of God" sometimes means the Father, as in the words of Isa. 61:1: "The Spirit of the Lord is upon me;" and sometimes the Son, as when the Son says: "In the Spirit of God I cast out devils" (Matt. 12:28), showing that He cast out devils by His own natural power; and that sometimes it means the Holy Ghost, as in the words of Joel 2:28: "I will pour out of My Spirit over all flesh." Therefore this name 'Holy Ghost' is not the proper name of a divine person.

Objection 1: It seems that the name "Holy Ghost" is not the proper name of one divine person. No name that is shared by the three persons can specifically refer to just one person. The name "Holy Ghost" [*Keep in mind that "ghost" is the old English equivalent of the Latin "spiritus."] can mean "breath" or "blast," or it can refer to "spirit" as an immaterial substance. In the first sense, we see it in Hampole, Psalter x, 7, as "The Gost of Storms" [spiritus procellarum], and in the latter sense, it appears in "Trubled gost is sacrifice of God" (Prose Psalter, A.D. 1325), and "Oure wrestlynge is . . . against the spiritual wicked gostes of the ayre" (More, "Comfort against Tribulation"); as well as in our modern saying, "giving up the ghost." When used in reference to God, rather than exclusively to the third Holy Person, we have an example from Maunder: "Jhesu Criste was the worde and the goste of Good." (See Oxford Dictionary.) This name is common to all three persons, because Hilary (De Trin. viii) shows that "Spirit of God" can refer to the Father, as in Isa. 61:1: "The Spirit of the Lord is upon me," and sometimes to the Son, as when He says, "In the Spirit of God I cast out devils" (Matt. 12:28), indicating that He used His own natural power to cast out devils; and it can also refer to the Holy Ghost, as in Joel 2:28: "I will pour out of My Spirit over all flesh." Therefore, the name "Holy Ghost" is not the proper name of a divine person.

Obj. 2: Further, the names of the divine persons are relative terms, as Boethius says (De Trin.). But this name "Holy Ghost" is not a relative term. Therefore this name is not the proper name of a divine Person.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the names of the divine persons are relative terms, as Boethius says (De Trin.). However, the name "Holy Ghost" is not a relative term. Therefore, this name is not the proper name of a divine Person.

Obj. 3: Further, because the Son is the name of a divine Person He cannot be called the Son of this or of that. But the spirit is spoken of as of this or that man, as appears in the words, "The Lord said to Moses, I will take of thy spirit and will give to them" (Num. 11:17) and also "The Spirit of Elias rested upon Eliseus" (4 Kings 2:15). Therefore "Holy Ghost" does not seem to be the proper name of a divine Person.

Obj. 3: Additionally, since the Son is the name of a divine Person, He can't be referred to as the Son of this person or that. However, the spirit is mentioned in relation to this or that person, as shown in the words, "The Lord said to Moses, I will take of your spirit and give it to them" (Num. 11:17) and also "The Spirit of Elijah rested on Elisha" (2 Kings 2:15). Therefore, "Holy Ghost" doesn't seem to be the proper name of a divine Person.

On the contrary, It is said (1 John 5:7): "There are three who bear witness in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost." As Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 4): "When we ask, Three what? we say, Three persons." Therefore the Holy Ghost is the name of a divine person.

On the contrary, It is said (1 John 5:7): "There are three who bear witness in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit." As Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 4): "When we ask, Three what? we say, Three persons." Therefore, the Holy Spirit is the name of a divine person.

I answer that, While there are two processions in God, one of these, the procession of love, has no proper name of its own, as stated above (Q. 27, A. 4, ad 3). Hence the relations also which follow from this procession are without a name (Q. 28, A. 4): for which reason the Person proceeding in that manner has not a proper name. But as some names are accommodated by the usual mode of speaking to signify the aforesaid relations, as when we use the names of procession and spiration, which in the strict sense more fittingly signify the notional acts than the relations; so to signify the divine Person, Who proceeds by way of love, this name "Holy Ghost" is by the use of scriptural speech accommodated to Him. The appropriateness of this name may be shown in two ways. Firstly, from the fact that the person who is called "Holy Ghost" has something in common with the other Persons. For, as Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 17; v, 11), "Because the Holy Ghost is common to both, He Himself is called that properly which both are called in common. For the Father also is a spirit, and the Son is a spirit; and the Father is holy, and the Son is holy." Secondly, from the proper signification of the name. For the name spirit in things corporeal seems to signify impulse and motion; for we call the breath and the wind by the term spirit. Now it is a property of love to move and impel the will of the lover towards the object loved. Further, holiness is attributed to whatever is ordered to God. Therefore because the divine person proceeds by way of the love whereby God is loved, that person is most properly named "The Holy Ghost."

I answer that, While there are two processions in God, one of these, the procession of love, doesn't have its own specific name, as mentioned before (Q. 27, A. 4, ad 3). Thus, the relationships that arise from this procession also lack a name (Q. 28, A. 4); for this reason, the Person proceeding in this way doesn’t have a specific name. However, some names are used in everyday language to refer to these relationships, like when we use the terms procession and spiration, which in a strict sense refer more accurately to the notional acts rather than the relationships. To signify the divine Person who proceeds through love, the name "Holy Ghost" is applied to Him based on scriptural language. The appropriateness of this name can be demonstrated in two ways. First, the person known as "Holy Ghost" shares something in common with the other Persons. As Augustine states (De Trin. xv, 17; v, 11), "Since the Holy Ghost is common to both, He is properly called what both are called in common. For the Father is also a spirit, and the Son is a spirit; and the Father is holy, and the Son is holy." Second, regarding the actual meaning of the name. The word spirit in relation to physical things seems to represent impulse and motion; we refer to breath and wind as spirit. Now, love inherently moves and compels the lover's will towards the beloved object. Additionally, holiness is attributed to anything directed towards God. Therefore, since the divine person proceeds through the love with which God is loved, that person is most appropriately named "The Holy Ghost."

Reply Obj. 1: The expression Holy Spirit, if taken as two words, is applicable to the whole Trinity: because by 'spirit' the immateriality of the divine substance is signified; for corporeal spirit is invisible, and has but little matter; hence we apply this term to all immaterial and invisible substances. And by adding the word "holy" we signify the purity of divine goodness. But if Holy Spirit be taken as one word, it is thus that the expression, in the usage of the Church, is accommodated to signify one of the three persons, the one who proceeds by way of love, for the reason above explained.

Reply Obj. 1: The term Holy Spirit, if considered as two words, refers to the entire Trinity: because 'spirit' represents the immateriality of the divine essence; for a physical spirit is invisible and has very little substance. Therefore, we use this term to refer to all immaterial and invisible entities. By adding the word "holy," we indicate the purity of divine goodness. However, if Holy Spirit is viewed as one word, it is understood in the Church's usage to denote one of the three persons, specifically the one who proceeds through love, for the reasons mentioned above.

Reply Obj. 2: Although this name "Holy Ghost" does not indicate a relation, still it takes the place of a relative term, inasmuch as it is accommodated to signify a Person distinct from the others by relation only. Yet this name may be understood as including a relation, if we understand the Holy Spirit as being breathed [spiratus].

Reply Obj. 2: Even though the name "Holy Ghost" doesn’t show a relationship, it serves as a substitute for a term that does, since it represents a Person who is distinct from the others solely by relation. However, this name can also be seen as including a relationship if we interpret the Holy Spirit as being breathed [spiratus].

Reply Obj. 3: In the name Son we understand that relation only which is of something from a principle, in regard to that principle: but in the name "Father" we understand the relation of principle; and likewise in the name of Spirit inasmuch as it implies a moving power. But to no creature does it belong to be a principle as regards a divine person; but rather the reverse. Therefore we can say "our Father," and "our Spirit"; but we cannot say "our Son." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: By the term Son, we mean the relationship that comes from something derived from a principle, in relation to that principle. However, with the term "Father," we refer to the relationship of being the principle itself; and similarly, with "Spirit," it indicates a moving power. No creature can be considered a principle concerning a divine person; instead, it is the opposite. Therefore, we can say "our Father" and "our Spirit," but we cannot say "our Son."

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 36, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 36, Art. 2]

Whether the Holy Ghost Proceeds from the Son?

Whether the Holy Spirit Comes from the Son?

Objection 1: It would seem that the Holy Ghost does not proceed from the Son. For as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. i): "We must not dare to say anything concerning the substantial Divinity except what has been divinely expressed to us by the sacred oracles." But in the Sacred Scripture we are not told that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Son; but only that He proceeds from the Father, as appears from John 15:26: "The Spirit of truth, Who proceeds from the Father." Therefore the Holy Ghost does not proceed from the Son.

Objection 1: It seems that the Holy Spirit does not come from the Son. As Dionysius states (Div. Nom. i): "We should not claim anything about the essential Divinity except what has been revealed to us by the sacred oracles." However, in the Sacred Scripture, we are not told that the Holy Spirit comes from the Son; it only mentions that He comes from the Father, as shown in John 15:26: "The Spirit of truth, Who comes from the Father." Therefore, the Holy Spirit does not come from the Son.

Obj. 2: Further, In the creed of the council of Constantinople (Can. vii) we read: "We believe in the Holy Ghost, the Lord and Life-giver, who proceeds from the Father; with the Father and the Son to be adored and glorified." Therefore it should not be added in our Creed that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Son; and those who added such a thing appear to be worthy of anathema.

Obj. 2: Additionally, in the creed of the council of Constantinople (Can. vii) we read: "We believe in the Holy Spirit, the Lord and Life-giver, who proceeds from the Father; who, along with the Father and the Son, is to be adored and glorified." Therefore, we should not include in our Creed that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Son; those who added such a statement seem to deserve anathema.

Obj. 3: Further, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i): "We say that the Holy Ghost is from the Father, and we name Him the spirit of the Father; but we do not say that the Holy Ghost is from the Son, yet we name Him the Spirit of the Son." Therefore the Holy Ghost does not proceed from the Son.

Obj. 3: Moreover, Damascene states (De Fide Orth. i): "We affirm that the Holy Ghost comes from the Father, and we refer to Him as the spirit of the Father; however, we do not claim that the Holy Ghost comes from the Son, even though we call Him the Spirit of the Son." Thus, the Holy Ghost does not proceed from the Son.

Obj. 4: Further, Nothing proceeds from that wherein it rests. But the
Holy Ghost rests in the Son; for it is said in the legend of St.
Andrew: "Peace be to you and to all who believe in the one God the
Father, and in His only Son our Lord Jesus Christ, and in the one
Holy Ghost proceeding from the Father, and abiding in the Son."
Therefore the Holy Ghost does not proceed from the Son.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, nothing comes from what it remains in. But the
Holy Spirit remains in the Son; as stated in the story of St.
Andrew: "Peace be to you and to all who believe in the one God, the
Father, and in His only Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, and in the one
Holy Spirit who comes from the Father and stays in the Son."
Therefore, the Holy Spirit does not come from the Son.

Obj. 5: Further, the Son proceeds as the Word. But our breath [spiritus] does not seem to proceed in ourselves from our word. Therefore the Holy Ghost does not proceed from the Son.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, the Son comes forth as the Word. However, our breath [spiritus] doesn’t seem to come from our word. Therefore, the Holy Ghost does not come from the Son.

Obj. 6: Further, the Holy Ghost proceeds perfectly from the Father.
Therefore it is superfluous to say that He proceeds from the Son.

Obj. 6: Additionally, the Holy Spirit perfectly comes from the Father.
So, it's unnecessary to say that He comes from the Son.

Obj. 7: Further "the actual and the possible do not differ in things perpetual" (Phys. iii, text 32), and much less so in God. But it is possible for the Holy Ghost to be distinguished from the Son, even if He did not proceed from Him. For Anselm says (De Process. Spir. Sancti, ii): "The Son and the Holy Ghost have their Being from the Father; but each in a different way; one by Birth, the other by Procession, so that they are thus distinct from one another." And further on he says: "For even if for no other reason were the Son and the Holy Ghost distinct, this alone would suffice." Therefore the Holy Spirit is distinct from the Son, without proceeding from Him.

Obj. 7: Furthermore, "the actual and the possible do not differ in things eternal" (Phys. iii, text 32), and even less so in God. It is possible for the Holy Spirit to be distinct from the Son, even if He did not come from Him. Anselm notes (De Process. Spir. Sancti, ii): "The Son and the Holy Spirit have their existence from the Father; but each in a different way; one by Birth, the other by Procession, making them distinct from one another." He further states: "Even if there were no other reason, the fact that the Son and the Holy Spirit are distinct would be enough." Therefore, the Holy Spirit is distinct from the Son, without originating from Him.

On the contrary, Athanasius says: "The Holy Ghost is from the Father and the Son; not made, nor created, nor begotten, but proceeding."

In contrast, Athanasius states: "The Holy Spirit comes from the Father and the Son; it is not made, created, or born, but is proceeding."

I answer that, It must be said that the Holy Ghost is from the Son. For if He were not from Him, He could in no wise be personally distinguished from Him; as appears from what has been said above (Q. 28, A. 3; Q. 30, A. 2). For it cannot be said that the divine Persons are distinguished from each other in any absolute sense; for it would follow that there would not be one essence of the three persons: since everything that is spoken of God in an absolute sense, belongs to the unity of essence. Therefore it must be said that the divine persons are distinguished from each other only by the relations. Now the relations cannot distinguish the persons except forasmuch as they are opposite relations; which appears from the fact that the Father has two relations, by one of which He is related to the Son, and by the other to the Holy Ghost; but these are not opposite relations, and therefore they do not make two persons, but belong only to the one person of the Father. If therefore in the Son and the Holy Ghost there were two relations only, whereby each of them were related to the Father, these relations would not be opposite to each other, as neither would be the two relations whereby the Father is related to them. Hence, as the person of the Father is one, it would follow that the person of the Son and of the Holy Ghost would be one, having two relations opposed to the two relations of the Father. But this is heretical since it destroys the Faith in the Trinity. Therefore the Son and the Holy Ghost must be related to each other by opposite relations. Now there cannot be in God any relations opposed to each other, except relations of origin, as proved above (Q. 28, A. 4). And opposite relations of origin are to be understood as of a "principle," and of what is "from the principle." Therefore we must conclude that it is necessary to say that either the Son is from the Holy Ghost; which no one says; or that the Holy Ghost is from the Son, as we confess.

I answer that, It must be said that the Holy Spirit comes from the Son. If He didn't come from Him, He couldn't be personally distinguished from Him, as has been stated above (Q. 28, A. 3; Q. 30, A. 2). The divine Persons cannot be distinguished from one another in any absolute sense; if they were, it would mean that there isn't one essence among the three persons, since anything that is said about God in an absolute way belongs to the unity of essence. Therefore, it must be said that the divine persons are distinguished only by their relations. These relations can only distinguish the persons if they are opposite; this is evident since the Father has two relations—one of which connects Him to the Son, and the other to the Holy Spirit—but these are not opposite relations, and thus they do not create two persons but only relate to the one person of the Father. If the Son and the Holy Spirit had only two relations where each is related to the Father, those relations wouldn't oppose each other, just as the two relations by which the Father relates to them would not be opposing. Consequently, since the person of the Father is one, the persons of the Son and the Holy Spirit would also be one, having two relations opposing the two relations of the Father. But this is heretical, as it undermines the Faith in the Trinity. Therefore, the Son and the Holy Spirit must be related to each other by opposite relations. In God, there can't be any relations that are opposed to one another except those of origin, as shown above (Q. 28, A. 4). Opposite relations of origin are understood as one being a "principle" and the other being "from the principle." Therefore, we must conclude that we must say either the Son comes from the Holy Spirit; which no one claims; or that the Holy Spirit comes from the Son, as we confess.

Furthermore, the order of the procession of each one agrees with this conclusion. For it was said above (Q. 27, AA. 2, 4; Q. 28, A. 4), that the Son proceeds by the way of the intellect as Word, and the Holy Ghost by way of the will as Love. Now love must proceed from a word. For we do not love anything unless we apprehend it by a mental conception. Hence also in this way it is manifest that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Son.

Furthermore, the order of the procession of each one supports this conclusion. As mentioned earlier (Q. 27, AA. 2, 4; Q. 28, A. 4), the Son comes forth through the intellect as the Word, and the Holy Spirit comes forth through the will as Love. Now, love must arise from a word. We do not love anything unless we understand it conceptually. Therefore, it is also clear that the Holy Spirit comes from the Son.

We derive a knowledge of the same truth from the very order of nature itself. For we nowhere find that several things proceed from one without order except in those which differ only by their matter; as for instance one smith produces many knives distinct from each other materially, with no order to each other; whereas in things in which there is not only a material distinction we always find that some order exists in the multitude produced. Hence also in the order of creatures produced, the beauty of the divine wisdom is displayed. So if from the one Person of the Father, two persons proceed, the Son and the Holy Ghost, there must be some order between them. Nor can any other be assigned except the order of their nature, whereby one is from the other. Therefore it cannot be said that the Son and the Holy Ghost proceed from the Father in such a way as that neither of them proceeds from the other, unless we admit in them a material distinction; which is impossible.

We understand the same truth from the natural order itself. We never see multiple things coming from a single source without some sort of order, except when they differ only in material; for example, one blacksmith makes several distinct knives that vary in material, but there’s no order among them. In contrast, when things differ not just in material but in nature, we always find some order within the multitude produced. This is also true in the order of created beings, which showcases the beauty of divine wisdom. So, if from the one Person of the Father, two persons emerge—namely, the Son and the Holy Spirit—there must be some order between them. The only order that can be assigned is that of their nature, through which one comes from the other. Therefore, it can't be said that the Son and the Holy Spirit come from the Father in such a way that neither of them comes from the other unless we accept a material distinction in them, which is not possible.

Hence also the Greeks themselves recognize that the procession of the Holy Ghost has some order to the Son. For they grant that the Holy Ghost is the Spirit "of the Son"; and that He is from the Father "through the Son." Some of them are said also to concede that "He is from the Son"; or that "He flows from the Son," but not that He proceeds; which seems to come from ignorance or obstinacy. For a just consideration of the truth will convince anyone that the word procession is the one most commonly applied to all that denotes origin of any kind. For we use the term to describe any kind of origin; as when we say that a line proceeds from a point, a ray from the sun, a stream from a source, and likewise in everything else. Hence, granted that the Holy Ghost originates in any way from the Son, we can conclude that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Son.

Therefore, the Greeks themselves recognize that the procession of the Holy Spirit is somewhat connected to the Son. They acknowledge that the Holy Spirit is the Spirit "of the Son" and that He is from the Father "through the Son." Some of them are said to also agree that "He is from the Son" or that "He flows from the Son," but they do not accept that He proceeds, which seems to stem from misunderstanding or stubbornness. A fair examination of the truth will convince anyone that the term procession is the one most often used to indicate any kind of origin. We use the word to describe any kind of origin; for example, when we say that a line proceeds from a point, a ray from the sun, a stream from a source, and similarly in other contexts. Therefore, if we accept that the Holy Spirit originates in any way from the Son, we can conclude that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Son.

Reply Obj. 1: We ought not to say about God anything which is not found in Holy Scripture either explicitly or implicitly. But although we do not find it verbally expressed in Holy Scripture that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Son, still we do find it in the sense of Scripture, especially where the Son says, speaking of the Holy Ghost, "He will glorify Me, because He shall receive of Mine" (John 16:14). It is also a rule of Holy Scripture that whatever is said of the Father, applies to the Son, although there be added an exclusive term; except only as regards what belongs to the opposite relations, whereby the Father and the Son are distinguished from each other. For when the Lord says, "No one knoweth the Son, but the Father," the idea of the Son knowing Himself is not excluded. So therefore when we say that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father, even though it be added that He proceeds from the Father alone, the Son would not thereby be at all excluded; because as regards being the principle of the Holy Ghost, the Father and the Son are not opposed to each other, but only as regards the fact that one is the Father, and the other is the Son.

Reply Obj. 1: We shouldn't say anything about God that isn't found in the Bible, either directly or indirectly. Even though the Bible doesn't explicitly state that the Holy Spirit comes from the Son, we can infer it from Scripture, especially where the Son says about the Holy Spirit, "He will glorify Me, because He will receive from what is Mine" (John 16:14). It's also a rule in Scripture that whatever is said about the Father applies to the Son, even if there’s an exclusive term added, except in cases where the distinct relationships that set the Father and Son apart are concerned. When the Lord says, "No one knows the Son, but the Father," it doesn't mean the Son doesn't know Himself. So, when we say that the Holy Spirit comes from the Father, even if it’s added that He comes from the Father alone, it doesn’t exclude the Son; because in terms of being the source of the Holy Spirit, the Father and Son aren't opposed to each other, but only regarding the fact that one is the Father and the other is the Son.

Reply Obj. 2: In every council of the Church a symbol of faith has been drawn up to meet some prevalent error condemned in the council at that time. Hence subsequent councils are not to be described as making a new symbol of faith; but what was implicitly contained in the first symbol was explained by some addition directed against rising heresies. Hence in the decision of the council of Chalcedon it is declared that those who were congregated together in the council of Constantinople, handed down the doctrine about the Holy Ghost, not implying that there was anything wanting in the doctrine of their predecessors who had gathered together at Nicaea, but explaining what those fathers had understood of the matter. Therefore, because at the time of the ancient councils the error of those who said that the Holy Ghost did not proceed from the Son had not arisen, it was not necessary to make any explicit declaration on that point; whereas, later on, when certain errors rose up, another council [*Council of Rome, under Pope Damasus] assembled in the west, the matter was explicitly defined by the authority of the Roman Pontiff, by whose authority also the ancient councils were summoned and confirmed. Nevertheless the truth was contained implicitly in the belief that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father.

Reply Obj. 2: In every church council, a statement of faith has been created to address some common error that was condemned at that time. Therefore, later councils should not be seen as creating a completely new statement of faith; rather, they explained what was already implied in the original statement by adding clarifications directed against emerging heresies. For instance, the Council of Chalcedon declared that those gathered at the Council of Constantinople preserved the teaching about the Holy Spirit, not suggesting that there was anything lacking in the doctrine of their predecessors who met at Nicaea, but rather clarifying what those early leaders understood on the issue. Consequently, since the error of those claiming that the Holy Spirit does not proceed from the Son had not yet emerged during the earlier councils, it wasn’t necessary to make an explicit statement on that matter; however, later on, when certain errors surfaced, another council [*Council of Rome, under Pope Damasus] convened in the West, where the issue was explicitly defined by the authority of the Roman Pontiff, who also called and confirmed the earlier councils. Still, the truth was implicitly contained in the belief that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father.

Reply Obj. 3: The Nestorians were the first to introduce the error that the Holy Ghost did not proceed from the Son, as appears in a Nestorian creed condemned in the council of Ephesus. This error was embraced by Theodoric the Nestorian, and several others after him, among whom was also Damascene. Hence, in that point his opinion is not to be held. Although, too, it has been asserted by some that while Damascene did not confess that the Holy Ghost was from the Son, neither do those words of his express a denial thereof.

Reply Obj. 3: The Nestorians were the first to introduce the mistake that the Holy Spirit does not come from the Son, as shown in a Nestorian creed that was condemned in the council of Ephesus. This mistake was adopted by Theodoric the Nestorian and several others after him, including Damascene. Therefore, his opinion on that point should not be accepted. However, some have also claimed that while Damascene did not state that the Holy Spirit comes from the Son, his words don't explicitly deny it either.

Reply Obj. 4: When the Holy Ghost is said to rest or abide in the Son, it does not mean that He does not proceed from Him; for the Son also is said to abide in the Father, although He proceeds from the Father. Also the Holy Ghost is said to rest in the Son as the love of the lover abides in the beloved; or in reference to the human nature of Christ, by reason of what is written: "On whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending and remaining upon Him, He it is who baptizes" (John 1:33).

Reply Obj. 4: When it's said that the Holy Spirit rests or resides in the Son, it doesn't mean that He doesn't come from Him; the Son is also said to reside in the Father, even though He comes from the Father. Similarly, the Holy Spirit is said to rest in the Son like the love of the lover dwells in the beloved; or in relation to the human nature of Christ, based on what is written: "On whom you see the Spirit descending and remaining, He is the one who baptizes" (John 1:33).

Reply Obj. 5: The Word in God is not taken after the similitude of the vocal word, whence the breath [spiritus] does not proceed; for it would then be only metaphorical; but after the similitude of the mental word, whence proceeds love.

Reply Obj. 5: The Word in God isn't like the spoken word, from which breath [spiritus] doesn't come; otherwise, it would just be a metaphor. Instead, it's similar to the mental word, from which love comes.

Reply Obj. 6: For the reason that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father perfectly, not only is it not superfluous to say He proceeds from the Son, but rather it is absolutely necessary. Forasmuch as one power belongs to the Father and the Son; and because whatever is from the Father, must be from the Son unless it be opposed to the property of filiation; for the Son is not from Himself, although He is from the Father.

Reply Obj. 6: Because the Holy Spirit comes from the Father perfectly, it's not just unnecessary to say He comes from the Son; it's absolutely essential. This is because the Father and the Son share the same power, and anything that comes from the Father must also come from the Son, unless it contradicts the nature of being a Son. The Son is not self-originating, even though He comes from the Father.

Reply Obj. 7: The Holy Ghost is distinguished from the Son, inasmuch as the origin of one is distinguished from the origin of the other; but the difference itself of origin comes from the fact that the Son is only from the Father, whereas the Holy Ghost is from the Father and the Son; for otherwise the processions would not be distinguished from each other, as explained above, and in Q. 27. _______________________

Reply Obj. 7: The Holy Spirit is different from the Son because their origins are different. The difference in origin comes from the fact that the Son comes only from the Father, while the Holy Spirit comes from both the Father and the Son. If that weren't the case, the processions wouldn't be distinct from each other, as explained earlier and in Q. 27.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 36, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 36, Art. 3]

Whether the Holy Ghost Proceeds from the Father Through the Son?

Whether the Holy Spirit Comes from the Father Through the Son?

Objection 1: It would seem that the Holy Ghost does not proceed from the Father through the Son. For whatever proceeds from one through another, does not proceed immediately. Therefore, if the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father through the Son, He does not proceed immediately; which seems to be unfitting.

Objection 1: It seems that the Holy Spirit does not come from the Father through the Son. For anything that comes from one person through another does not come directly. Therefore, if the Holy Spirit comes from the Father through the Son, He does not come directly, which seems inappropriate.

Obj. 2: Further, if the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father through
the Son, He does not proceed from the Son, except on account of the
Father. But "whatever causes a thing to be such is yet more so."
Therefore He proceeds more from the Father than from the Son.

Obj. 2: Additionally, if the Holy Spirit comes from the Father through
the Son, He does not come from the Son except because of the
Father. But "whatever causes a thing to be such is even more so."
Therefore, He comes more from the Father than from the Son.

Obj. 3: Further, the Son has His being by generation. Therefore if the Holy Ghost is from the Father through the Son, it follows that the Son is first generated and afterwards the Holy Ghost proceeds; and thus the procession of the Holy Ghost is not eternal, which is heretical.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the Son exists by being generated. Therefore, if the Holy Spirit comes from the Father through the Son, it implies that the Son is first generated and then the Holy Spirit proceeds; thus, the procession of the Holy Spirit is not eternal, which is a heresy.

Obj. 4: Further, when anyone acts through another, the same may be said conversely. For as we say that the king acts through the bailiff, so it can be said conversely that the bailiff acts through the king. But we can never say that the Son spirates the Holy Ghost through the Father. Therefore it can never be said that the Father spirates the Holy Ghost through the Son.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, when someone acts through another, the same can be said in reverse. Just as we say that the king acts through the bailiff, it can also be said that the bailiff acts through the king. However, we can never say that the Son produces the Holy Spirit through the Father. Therefore, it can never be said that the Father produces the Holy Spirit through the Son.

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. xii): "Keep me, I pray, in this expression of my faith, that I may ever possess the Father—namely Thyself: that I may adore Thy Son together with Thee: and that I may deserve Thy Holy Spirit, who is through Thy Only Begotten."

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. xii): "Please keep me in this expression of my faith, so that I may always have the Father—meaning You: that I may worship Your Son alongside You: and that I may be worthy of Your Holy Spirit, who comes from Your Only Begotten."

I answer that, Whenever one is said to act through another, this preposition "through" points out, in what is covered by it, some cause or principle of that act. But since action is a mean between the agent and the thing done, sometimes that which is covered by the preposition "through" is the cause of the action, as proceeding from the agent; and in that case it is the cause of why the agent acts, whether it be a final cause or a formal cause, whether it be effective or motive. It is a final cause when we say, for instance, that the artisan works through love of gain. It is a formal cause when we say that he works through his art. It is a motive cause when we say that he works through the command of another. Sometimes, however, that which is covered by this preposition "through" is the cause of the action regarded as terminated in the thing done; as, for instance, when we say, the artisan acts through the mallet, for this does not mean that the mallet is the cause why the artisan acts, but that it is the cause why the thing made proceeds from the artisan, and that it has even this effect from the artisan. This is why it is sometimes said that this preposition "through" sometimes denotes direct authority, as when we say, the king works through the bailiff; and sometimes indirect authority, as when we say, the bailiff works through the king.

I answer that, Whenever someone is described as acting through another, the word "through" indicates a cause or principle behind that action. Since action serves as a link between the agent and the outcome, what "through" refers to can sometimes be the cause of the action, coming from the agent. In that case, it's the reason the agent acts, whether it's a final cause or a formal cause, or whether it serves as an effective or motive cause. It's a final cause when we say, for example, that the artisan works out of a desire for profit. It’s a formal cause when we say he works through his skill. It’s a motive cause when we say he works because someone else ordered it. However, sometimes what "through" refers to is the cause of the action as it relates to the end result; for instance, when we say the artisan acts through the mallet. This doesn’t mean the mallet is why the artisan acts, but rather that it is the reason the finished product comes from the artisan, and that the mallet has this effect on the artisan's work. This is why it's sometimes stated that "through" can indicate direct authority, as in saying the king works through the bailiff, and sometimes indirect authority, as in saying the bailiff works through the king.

Therefore, because the Son receives from the Father that the Holy
Ghost proceeds from Him, it can be said that the Father spirates the
Holy Ghost through the Son, or that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the
Father through the Son, which has the same meaning.

Therefore, since the Son receives from the Father that the Holy
Spirit comes from Him, it can be said that the Father sends the
Holy Spirit through the Son, or that the Holy Spirit comes from the
Father through the Son, which has the same meaning.

Reply Obj. 1: In every action two things are to be considered, the suppositum acting, and the power whereby it acts; as, for instance, fire heats through heat. So if we consider in the Father and the Son the power whereby they spirate the Holy Ghost, there is no mean, for this is one and the same power. But if we consider the persons themselves spirating, then, as the Holy Ghost proceeds both from the Father and from the Son, the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father immediately, as from Him, and mediately, as from the Son; and thus He is said to proceed from the Father through the Son. So also did Abel proceed immediately from Adam, inasmuch as Adam was his father; and mediately, as Eve was his mother, who proceeded from Adam; although, indeed, this example of a material procession is inept to signify the immaterial procession of the divine persons.

Reply Obj. 1: In every action, two things should be considered: the suppositum acting and the power through which it acts; for example, fire heats through heat. If we examine the Father and the Son regarding the power by which they give rise to the Holy Ghost, there is no intermediary, as this is one and the same power. However, if we look at the individuals themselves who are causing this action, then, since the Holy Ghost comes from both the Father and the Son, He proceeds from the Father directly, as from Him, and indirectly, as from the Son; thus, He is said to proceed from the Father through the Son. Similarly, Abel came directly from Adam, since Adam was his father, and indirectly, as Eve was his mother, who came from Adam; although this example of a material process is not suitable to represent the immaterial process of the divine persons.

Reply Obj. 2: If the Son received from the Father a numerically distinct power for the spiration of the Holy Ghost, it would follow that He would be a secondary and instrumental cause; and thus the Holy Ghost would proceed more from the Father than from the Son; whereas, on the contrary, the same spirative power belongs to the Father and to the Son; and therefore the Holy Ghost proceeds equally from both, although sometimes He is said to proceed principally or properly from the Father, because the Son has this power from the Father.

Reply Obj. 2: If the Son received a unique power from the Father to generate the Holy Spirit, it would mean He acts as a secondary and instrumental cause; hence, the Holy Spirit would arise more from the Father than the Son. However, in reality, the same generating power is shared by both the Father and the Son. Therefore, the Holy Spirit comes from both equally, although He is sometimes said to come primarily or properly from the Father, because the Son receives this power from the Father.

Reply Obj. 3: As the begetting of the Son is co-eternal with the begetter (and hence the Father does not exist before begetting the Son), so the procession of the Holy Ghost is co-eternal with His principle. Hence, the Son was not begotten before the Holy Ghost proceeded; but each of the operations is eternal.

Reply Obj. 3: Just as the Father has always been begetting the Son (meaning the Father doesn't exist before begetting the Son), the procession of the Holy Spirit is also eternal alongside its source. Therefore, the Son wasn't generated before the Holy Spirit came forth; rather, both of these actions are eternal.

Reply Obj. 4: When anyone is said to work through anything, the converse proposition is not always true. For we do not say that the mallet works through the carpenter; whereas we can say that the bailiff acts through the king, because it is the bailiff's place to act, since he is master of his own act, but it is not the mallet's place to act, but only to be made to act, and hence it is used only as an instrument. The bailiff is, however, said to act through the king, although this preposition "through" denotes a medium, for the more a suppositum is prior in action, so much the more is its power immediate as regards the effect, inasmuch as the power of the first cause joins the second cause to its effect. Hence also first principles are said to be immediate in the demonstrative sciences. Therefore, so far as the bailiff is a medium according to the order of the subject's acting, the king is said to work through the bailiff; but according to the order of powers, the bailiff is said to act through the king, forasmuch as the power of the king gives the bailiff's action its effect. Now there is no order of power between Father and Son, but only order of 'supposita'; and hence we say that the Father spirates through the Son; and not conversely. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: When someone is said to work through something, the opposite isn't always true. We wouldn’t say that the mallet works through the carpenter; however, we can say that the bailiff acts through the king, because it’s the bailiff’s role to act, as he controls his own actions, while the mallet doesn’t have the role to act—it only gets used as a tool. The bailiff is noted to act through the king, even though "through" indicates a medium, because the more a being is primary in action, the more its influence is direct concerning the outcome, since the power of the first cause connects the second cause to its effect. Thus, foundational principles are considered immediate in demonstrative sciences. Therefore, inasmuch as the bailiff serves as a medium according to how the subject acts, the king is said to work through the bailiff; but according to the order of power, the bailiff acts through the king, because the king’s authority gives effect to the bailiff's actions. There is no power hierarchy between Father and Son, only a hierarchy of beings; thus, we say that the Father breathes through the Son, not the other way around.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 36, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 36, Art. 4]

Whether the Father and the Son Are One Principle of the Holy Ghost?

Whether the Father and the Son Are One Principle of the Holy Spirit?

Objection 1: It would seem that the Father and the Son are not one principle of the Holy Ghost. For the Holy Ghost does not proceed from the Father and the Son as they are one; not as they are one in nature, for the Holy Ghost would in that way proceed from Himself, as He is one in nature with Them; nor again inasmuch as they are united in any one property, for it is clear that one property cannot belong to two subjects. Therefore the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father and the Son as distinct from one another. Therefore the Father and the Son are not one principle of the Holy Ghost.

Objection 1: It seems that the Father and the Son are not a single source of the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit doesn't come from the Father and the Son as if they are one; not in terms of their nature, since that would imply the Holy Spirit comes from Himself, as He shares their nature; nor in terms of any shared property, because it’s clear that one property can't belong to two separate subjects. Therefore, the Holy Spirit comes from the Father and the Son as distinct entities. Thus, the Father and the Son are not one source of the Holy Spirit.

Obj. 2: Further, in this proposition "the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost," we do not designate personal unity, because in that case the Father and the Son would be one person; nor again do we designate the unity of property, because if one property were the reason of the Father and the Son being one principle of the Holy Ghost, similarly, on account of His two properties, the Father would be two principles of the Son and of the Holy Ghost, which cannot be admitted. Therefore the Father and the Son are not one principle of the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 2: Additionally, in this statement "the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost," we are not referring to personal unity, because in that case, the Father and the Son would be one person; nor are we referring to unity of property, since if one property were the reason for the Father and the Son being one principle of the Holy Ghost, then, due to His two properties, the Father would also be two principles of the Son and of the Holy Ghost, which cannot be accepted. Therefore, the Father and the Son are not one principle of the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 3: Further, the Son is not one with the Father more than is the Holy Ghost. But the Holy Ghost and the Father are not one principle as regards any other divine person. Therefore neither are the Father and the Son.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the Son is not more one with the Father than the Holy Spirit is. But the Holy Spirit and the Father are not one principle concerning any other divine person. Therefore, neither are the Father and the Son.

Obj. 4: Further, if the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost, this one is either the Father or it is not the Father. But we cannot assert either of these positions because if the one is the Father, it follows that the Son is the Father; and if the one is not the Father, it follows that the Father is not the Father. Therefore we cannot say that the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, if the Father and the Son are a single source of the Holy Spirit, this source is either the Father or it isn't the Father. However, we can't affirm either of these claims because if the source is the Father, it implies that the Son is the Father; and if the source isn't the Father, it implies that the Father isn't the Father. Therefore, we cannot state that the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Spirit.

Obj. 5: Further, if the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost, it seems necessary to say, conversely, that the one principle of the Holy Ghost is the Father and the Son. But this seems to be false; for this word "principle" stands either for the person of the Father, or for the person of the Son; and in either sense it is false. Therefore this proposition also is false, that the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, if the Father and the Son are a single source of the Holy Spirit, it seems necessary to say, conversely, that this single source of the Holy Spirit is the Father and the Son. However, this appears to be incorrect; because the term "source" refers either to the person of the Father or to the person of the Son, and in either case, it is incorrect. Therefore, this statement is also false, that the Father and the Son are one source of the Holy Spirit.

Obj. 6: Further, unity in substance makes identity. So if the Father and the Son are the one principle of the Holy Ghost, it follows that they are the same principle; which is denied by many. Therefore we cannot grant that the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 6: Moreover, unity in essence creates identity. So if the Father and the Son are the same source of the Holy Spirit, it follows that they are the same source; which many deny. Therefore, we cannot agree that the Father and the Son are a single source of the Holy Spirit.

Obj. 7: Further, the Father, Son and Holy Ghost are called one Creator, because they are the one principle of the creature. But the Father and the Son are not one, but two Spirators, as many assert; and this agrees also with what Hilary says (De Trin. ii) that "the Holy Ghost is to be confessed as proceeding from Father and Son as authors." Therefore the Father and the Son are not one principle of the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 7: Additionally, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are referred to as one Creator because they are the single source of all creation. However, the Father and the Son are not one but two distinct sources, as many claim; this also aligns with what Hilary states (De Trin. ii) that "the Holy Spirit should be acknowledged as coming from both the Father and the Son as its sources." Therefore, the Father and the Son are not the single source of the Holy Spirit.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. v, 14) that the Father and the Son are not two principles, but one principle of the Holy Ghost.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. v, 14) that the Father and the Son are not two separate principles, but one principle of the Holy Spirit.

I answer that, The Father and the Son are in everything one, wherever there is no distinction between them of opposite relation. Hence since there is no relative opposition between them as the principle of the Holy Ghost it follows that the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost.

I answer that, The Father and the Son are completely united in everything, wherever there’s no distinction between them in terms of opposing relations. Therefore, since there is no relative opposition between them as the source of the Holy Spirit, it follows that the Father and the Son are one source of the Holy Spirit.

Some, however, assert that this proposition is incorrect: "The Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost," because, they declare, since the word "principle" in the singular number does not signify "person," but "property," it must be taken as an adjective; and forasmuch as an adjective cannot be modified by another adjective, it cannot properly be said that the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost unless one be taken as an adverb, so that the meaning should be: They are one principle—that is, in one and the same way. But then it might be equally right to say that the Father is two principles of the Son and of the Holy Ghost—namely, in two ways. Therefore, we must say that, although this word "principle" signifies a property, it does so after the manner of a substantive, as do the words "father" and "son" even in things created. Hence it takes its number from the form it signifies, like other substantives. Therefore, as the Father and the Son are one God, by reason of the unity of the form that is signified by this word "God"; so they are one principle of the Holy Ghost by reason of the unity of the property that is signified in this word "principle."

Some people, however, argue that this statement is wrong: "The Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost," because they claim that the word "principle" in the singular does not mean "person," but "property," so it should be understood as an adjective. And since an adjective cannot be modified by another adjective, it cannot be correctly stated that the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost unless one is considered as an adverb, which would imply: They are one principle—in other words, in the same way. But then it could also be just as valid to say that the Father is two principles of the Son and the Holy Ghost—in two different ways. Therefore, we must conclude that, although the word "principle" denotes a property, it does so in the manner of a noun, like the words "father" and "son" even in created things. Thus, it takes its number from the form it signifies, just like other nouns. Therefore, since the Father and the Son are one God, due to the unity of the form signified by the word "God," they are also one principle of the Holy Ghost because of the unity of the property signified by the word "principle."

Reply Obj. 1: If we consider the spirative power, the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father and the Son as they are one in the spirative power, which in a certain way signifies the nature with the property, as we shall see later (ad 7). Nor is there any reason against one property being in two supposita that possess one common nature. But if we consider the supposita of the spiration, then we may say that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father and the Son, as distinct; for He proceeds from them as the unitive love of both.

Reply Obj. 1: If we look at the spirative power, the Holy Spirit comes from the Father and the Son because they are one in this spirative power, which in a way represents the nature along with its property, as we will explain later (ad 7). There's no issue with one property existing in two supposita that share one common nature. However, if we focus on the supposita of the spiration, we can say that the Holy Spirit comes from the Father and the Son as distinct entities; He originates from them as the unifying love of both.

Reply Obj. 2: In the proposition "the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost," one property is designated which is the form signified by the term. It does not thence follow that by reason of the several properties the Father can be called several principles, for this would imply in Him a plurality of subjects.

Reply Obj. 2: In the statement "the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost," one characteristic is indicated that is represented by the term. It does not follow that because of the different properties, the Father can be referred to as multiple principles, since this would suggest a multiplicity of subjects in Him.

Reply Obj. 3: It is not by reason of relative properties that we speak of similitude or dissimilitude in God, but by reason of the essence. Hence, as the Father is not more like to Himself than He is to the Son; so likewise neither is the Son more like to the Father than is the Holy Ghost.

Reply Obj. 3: We don't talk about similarity or difference in God based on relative properties, but based on essence. Therefore, just as the Father is not more like Himself than He is like the Son, the Son is not more like the Father than the Holy Spirit is.

Reply Obj. 4: These two propositions, "The Father and the Son are one principle which is the Father," or, "one principle which is not the Father," are not mutually contradictory; and hence it is not necessary to assert one or other of them. For when we say the Father and the Son are one principle, this word "principle" has not determinate supposition but rather it stands indeterminately for two persons together. Hence there is a fallacy of "figure of speech" as the argument concludes from the indeterminate to the determinate.

Reply Obj. 4: These two statements, "The Father and the Son are one principle that is the Father," or, "one principle that is not the Father," are not directly contradictory; therefore, it isn’t necessary to insist on one or the other. When we say the Father and the Son are one principle, the term "principle" isn’t clearly defined but instead refers generally to both persons together. Thus, there’s a misunderstanding of "figure of speech" because the argument moves from the general to the specific.

Reply Obj. 5: This proposition is also true:—The one principle of the Holy Ghost is the Father and the Son; because the word "principle" does not stand for one person only, but indistinctly for the two persons as above explained.

Reply Obj. 5: This statement is also true:—The one principle of the Holy Spirit is the Father and the Son; because the term "principle" does not refer to just one person, but rather to both persons as explained above.

Reply Obj. 6: There is no reason against saying that the Father and the Son are the same principle, because the word "principle" stands confusedly and indistinctly for the two Persons together.

Reply Obj. 6: There’s no reason not to say that the Father and the Son are the same principle, because the term "principle" vaguely and unclear refers to the two Persons together.

Reply Obj. 7: Some say that although the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost, there are two spirators, by reason of the distinction of supposita, as also there are two spirating, because acts refer to subjects. Yet this does not hold good as to the name "Creator"; because the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father and the Son as from two distinct persons, as above explained; whereas the creature proceeds from the three persons not as distinct persons, but as united in essence. It seems, however, better to say that because spirating is an adjective, and spirator a substantive, we can say that the Father and the Son are two spirating, by reason of the plurality of the supposita but not two spirators by reason of the one spiration. For adjectival words derive their number from the supposita but substantives from themselves, according to the form signified. As to what Hilary says, that "the Holy Ghost is from the Father and the Son as His authors," this is to be explained in the sense that the substantive here stands for the adjective. _______________________

Reply Obj. 7: Some argue that even though the Father and the Son are one source of the Holy Ghost, there are two sources due to the distinction of supposita, as there are also two actions of breathing forth, because actions relate to their subjects. However, this doesn't apply when it comes to the name "Creator"; the Holy Ghost comes from the Father and the Son as two distinct persons, as explained earlier; while the creature comes from the three persons not as distinct individuals, but as united in essence. It seems better to say that because "spirating" is an adjective and "spirator" is a noun, we can say the Father and the Son are two spirating because of the plurality of supposita, but not two spirators because of the one act of breathing forth. Adjectives take their number from the supposita, while nouns derive theirs from their own form. Regarding what Hilary states, that "the Holy Ghost is from the Father and the Son as His authors," this should be understood in the way that the noun here represents the adjective.

QUESTION 37

OF THE NAME OF THE HOLY GHOST—LOVE
(In Two Articles)

OF THE NAME OF THE HOLY GHOST—LOVE
(In Two Articles)

We now inquire concerning the name "Love," on which arise two points of inquiry:

We now ask about the name "Love," which leads us to two questions:

(1) Whether it is the proper name of the Holy Ghost?

(1) Is that the proper name for the Holy Ghost?

(2) Whether the Father and the Son love each other by the Holy Ghost? _______________________

(2) Do the Father and the Son love each other through the Holy Spirit? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 37, Art. 2]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 37, Art. 2]

Whether "Love" Is the Proper Name of the Holy Ghost?

Whether "Love" is the Right Name for the Holy Spirit?

Objection 1: It would seem that "Love" is not the proper name of the Holy Ghost. For Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 17): "As the Father, Son and Holy Ghost are called Wisdom, and are not three Wisdoms, but one; I know not why the Father, Son and Holy Ghost should not be called Charity, and all together one Charity." But no name which is predicated in the singular of each person and of all together, is a proper name of a person. Therefore this name, "Love," is not the proper name of the Holy Ghost.

Objection 1: It seems that "Love" is not the correct name for the Holy Ghost. Augustine states (De Trin. xv, 17): "Just as the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are called Wisdom, and are not three Wisdoms, but one; I don't see why the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost shouldn't also be called Charity, and all together one Charity." However, no name that is singularly assigned to each person and collectively to all is an appropriate name for a person. Therefore, the name "Love" is not the proper name for the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 2: Further, the Holy Ghost is a subsisting person, but love is not used to signify a subsisting person, but rather an action passing from the lover to the beloved. Therefore Love is not the proper name of the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 2: Also, the Holy Spirit is a distinct person, but love doesn’t refer to a distinct person; instead, it represents an action that flows from the lover to the beloved. So, Love is not the correct name for the Holy Spirit.

Obj. 3: Further, Love is the bond between lovers, for as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv): "Love is a unitive force." But a bond is a medium between what it joins together, not something proceeding from them. Therefore, since the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father and the Son, as was shown above (Q. 36, A. 2), it seems that He is not the Love or bond of the Father and the Son.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, Love is the connection between lovers, for as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv): "Love is a unifying force." But a bond is an intermediary between what it brings together, not something that comes from them. Therefore, since the Holy Spirit comes from the Father and the Son, as was shown above (Q. 36, A. 2), it seems that He is not the Love or bond of the Father and the Son.

Obj. 4: Further, Love belongs to every lover. But the Holy Ghost is a lover: therefore He has love. So if the Holy Ghost is Love, He must be love of love, and spirit from spirit; which is not admissible.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, love is inherent in every lover. But the Holy Spirit is a lover; therefore, He embodies love. So if the Holy Spirit is Love, He must also be the love of love and a spirit from spirit, which isn’t acceptable.

On the contrary, Gregory says (Hom. xxx, in Pentecost.): "The Holy Ghost Himself is Love."

On the contrary, Gregory says (Hom. xxx, in Pentecost.): "The Holy Spirit Himself is Love."

I answer that, The name Love in God can be taken essentially and personally. If taken personally it is the proper name of the Holy Ghost; as Word is the proper name of the Son.

I answer that, The name Love in God can be understood in both an essential and personal way. When understood personally, it refers specifically to the Holy Spirit, just as Word refers specifically to the Son.

To see this we must know that since as shown above (Q. 27, AA. 2, 3, 4, 5), there are two processions in God, one by way of the intellect, which is the procession of the Word, and another by way of the will, which is the procession of Love; forasmuch as the former is the more known to us, we have been able to apply more suitable names to express our various considerations as regards that procession, but not as regards the procession of the will. Hence, we are obliged to employ circumlocution as regards the person Who proceeds, and the relations following from this procession which are called "procession" and "spiration," as stated above (Q. 27, A. 4, ad 3), and yet express the origin rather than the relation in the strict sense of the term. Nevertheless we must consider them in respect of each procession simply. For as when a thing is understood by anyone, there results in the one who understands a conception of the object understood, which conception we call word; so when anyone loves an object, a certain impression results, so to speak, of the thing loved in the affection of the lover; by reason of which the object loved is said to be in the lover; as also the thing understood is in the one who understands; so that when anyone understands and loves himself he is in himself, not only by real identity, but also as the object understood is in the one who understands, and the thing loved is in the lover. As regards the intellect, however, words have been found to describe the mutual relation of the one who understands the object understood, as appears in the word "to understand"; and other words are used to express the procession of the intellectual conception—namely, "to speak," and "word." Hence in God, "to understand" is applied only to the essence; because it does not import relation to the Word that proceeds; whereas "Word" is said personally, because it signifies what proceeds; and the term "to speak" is a notional term as importing the relation of the principle of the Word to the Word Himself. On the other hand, on the part of the will, with the exception of the words "dilection" and "love," which express the relation of the lover to the object loved, there are no other terms in use, which express the relation of the impression or affection of the object loved, produced in the lover by fact that he loves—to the principle of that impression, or "vice versa." And therefore, on account of the poverty of our vocabulary, we express these relations by the words "love" and "dilection": just as if we were to call the Word "intelligence conceived," or "wisdom begotten."

To understand this, we need to recognize that, as previously mentioned (Q. 27, AA. 2, 3, 4, 5), there are two processions in God: one through the intellect, which is the procession of the Word, and another through the will, which is the procession of Love. Since the first is more familiar to us, we have been able to find more appropriate terms to describe our various thoughts about that procession, but not for the procession of the will. Therefore, we have to use more roundabout language when discussing the person who proceeds and the relations that come from this procession, which we call "procession" and "spiration," as stated above (Q. 27, A. 4, ad 3), and yet we express the origin more than the relation in the strict sense. Still, we need to consider them in light of each procession straightforwardly. Just as when someone understands something, that understanding brings about a mental concept of the object understood, which we call a word; when someone loves something, a kind of impression, so to speak, of the beloved thing appears in the affection of the lover, meaning that the object of love is said to be present in the lover, just as the thing understood is in the one who understands. Thus, when anyone understands and loves themselves, they are within themselves, not just in a real sense of identity but also as the understood object is in the understanding person and the loved object is within the lover. However, regarding the intellect, we have found words that describe the mutual relationship between the one understanding and the object understood, evident in the phrase "to understand"; and other terms that express the procession of this mental concept—namely, "to speak" and "word." Therefore, in God, "to understand" refers solely to His essence because it doesn't imply a relation to the Word that proceeds; while "Word" is used personally because it signifies what proceeds, and "to speak" is a notional term that conveys the relationship of the principle of the Word to the Word itself. On the other hand, regarding the will, except for the words "dilection" and "love," which show the relationship of the lover to the beloved object, there are no other terms that express the relation of the impression or affection of the beloved object created in the lover by the act of loving—vice versa. Thus, due to the limitations of our vocabulary, we use the words "love" and "dilection." It would be like calling the Word "conceived intelligence" or "begotten wisdom."

It follows that so far as love means only the relation of the lover to the object loved, "love" and "to love" are said of the essence, as "understanding" and "to understand"; but, on the other hand, so far as these words are used to express the relation to its principle, of what proceeds by way of love, and "vice versa," so that by "love" is understood the "love proceeding," and by "to love" is understood "the spiration of the love proceeding," in that sense "love" is the name of the person and "to love" is a notional term, as "to speak" and "to beget."

It follows that as far as love refers only to the relationship between the lover and the beloved, "love" and "to love" can be seen as essential terms, much like "understanding" and "to understand." However, when these words express their connection to their source—what comes about through love, and vice versa—then "love" refers to the act of loving, and "to love" refers to the act of bringing love into action. In that sense, "love" is the name of the person, while "to love" is a conceptual term, similar to "to speak" and "to create."

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine is there speaking of charity as it means the divine essence, as was said above (here and Q. 24, A. 2, ad 4).

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine is referring to charity in the sense of the divine essence, as mentioned earlier (here and Q. 24, A. 2, ad 4).

Reply Obj. 2: Although to understand, and to will, and to love signify actions passing on to their objects, nevertheless they are actions that remain in the agents, as stated above (Q. 14, A. 4), yet in such a way that in the agent itself they import a certain relation to their object. Hence, love also in ourselves is something that abides in the lover, and the word of the heart is something abiding in the speaker; yet with a relation to the thing expressed by word, or loved. But in God, in whom there is nothing accidental, there is more than this; because both Word and Love are subsistent. Therefore, when we say that the Holy Ghost is the Love of the Father for the Son, or for something else; we do not mean anything that passes into another, but only the relation of love to the beloved; as also in the Word is imported the relation of the Word to the thing expressed by the Word.

Reply Obj. 2: While understanding, willing, and loving involve actions directed towards their objects, they are still actions that reside within the agents, as previously mentioned (Q. 14, A. 4). However, in the agent, they carry a certain relationship to their object. Thus, love within ourselves is something that stays with the lover, and the expression from the heart is something that remains with the speaker; yet there is a connection to what is expressed or loved. But in God, where nothing is accidental, there is even more; because both the Word and Love exist in themselves. Therefore, when we say that the Holy Ghost is the Love of the Father for the Son, or for something else, we do not mean anything that transfers to another, but rather the relationship of love to the beloved; just as the Word carries the relationship to what is expressed by the Word.

Reply Obj. 3: The Holy Ghost is said to be the bond of the Father and Son, inasmuch as He is Love; because, since the Father loves Himself and the Son with one Love, and conversely, there is expressed in the Holy Ghost, as Love, the relation of the Father to the Son, and conversely, as that of the lover to the beloved. But from the fact that the Father and the Son mutually love one another, it necessarily follows that this mutual Love, the Holy Ghost, proceeds from both. As regards origin, therefore, the Holy Ghost is not the medium, but the third person in the Trinity; whereas as regards the aforesaid relation He is the bond between the two persons, as proceeding from both.

Reply Obj. 3: The Holy Spirit is described as the bond between the Father and the Son because He represents Love. The Father loves Himself and the Son with one Love, and likewise, this relationship of love is shown in the Holy Spirit, as Love, reflecting the connection between the Father and the Son, similar to that of a lover and the beloved. Since the Father and the Son love each other, it follows that this mutual Love, the Holy Spirit, comes from both of them. Therefore, in terms of origin, the Holy Spirit is not a mediator, but rather the third person in the Trinity; however, regarding this specific relationship, He is the bond connecting the two persons, arising from both.

Reply Obj. 4: As it does not belong to the Son, though He understands, to produce a word, for it belongs to Him to understand as the word proceeding; so in like manner, although the Holy Ghost loves, taking Love as an essential term, still it does not belong to Him to spirate love, which is to take love as a notional term; because He loves essentially as love proceeding; but not as the one whence love proceeds. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: While the Son has the ability to understand, it’s not His role to create a word, since it’s His role to understand as the word that comes from Him; similarly, although the Holy Ghost fundamentally loves, when we refer to Love as a key concept, it’s not His role to breathe out love, which refers to love in a more abstract sense. He loves essentially as love that comes forth, but not as the source from which love comes.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 37, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 37, Art. 2]

Whether the Father and the Son Love Each Other by the Holy Ghost?

Whether the Father and the Son love each other through the Holy Spirit?

Objection 1: It would seem that the Father and the Son do not love each other by the Holy Ghost. For Augustine (De Trin. vii, 1) proves that the Father is not wise by the Wisdom begotten. But as the Son is Wisdom begotten, so the Holy Ghost is the Love proceeding, as explained above (Q. 27, A. 3). Therefore the Father and the Son do not love Themselves by the Love proceeding, which is the Holy Ghost.

Objection 1: It seems that the Father and the Son do not love each other through the Holy Spirit. Augustine (De Trin. vii, 1) argues that the Father is not wise through the Wisdom that is begotten. Just as the Son is the begotten Wisdom, the Holy Spirit is the Love that proceeds, as explained above (Q. 27, A. 3). Therefore, the Father and the Son do not love each other through the Love that proceeds, which is the Holy Spirit.

Obj. 2: Further, in the proposition, "The Father and the Son love each other by the Holy Ghost," this word "love" is to be taken either essentially or notionally. But it cannot be true if taken essentially, because in the same way we might say that "the Father understands by the Son"; nor, again, if it is taken notionally, for then, in like manner, it might be said that "the Father and the Son spirate by the Holy Ghost," or that "the Father generates by the Son." Therefore in no way is this proposition true: "The Father and the Son love each other by the Holy Ghost."

Obj. 2: Additionally, in the statement "The Father and the Son love each other through the Holy Spirit," the word "love" can be understood either in an essential way or notionally. However, it can't be true if taken essentially, because then we could similarly say that "the Father understands through the Son"; nor can it be true if taken notionally, since that would allow us to say that "the Father and the Son breathe out through the Holy Spirit," or that "the Father creates through the Son." Therefore, this proposition "The Father and the Son love each other through the Holy Spirit" is not true in any sense.

Obj. 3: Further, by the same love the Father loves the Son, and Himself, and us. But the Father does not love Himself by the Holy Ghost; for no notional act is reflected back on the principle of the act; since it cannot be said that the "Father begets Himself," or that "He spirates Himself." Therefore, neither can it be said that "He loves Himself by the Holy Ghost," if "to love" is taken in a notional sense. Again, the love wherewith He loves us is not the Holy Ghost; because it imports a relation to creatures, and this belongs to the essence. Therefore this also is false: "The Father loves the Son by the Holy Ghost."

Obj. 3: Additionally, the Father loves the Son, Himself, and us with the same love. However, the Father doesn't love Himself through the Holy Spirit; because no conceptual act is reflected back onto the source of that act. It can't be said that the "Father begets Himself" or that "He spirates Himself." Therefore, it also cannot be said that "He loves Himself through the Holy Spirit," if "to love" is understood in a conceptual way. Furthermore, the love with which He loves us isn’t the Holy Spirit; as it involves a relationship to creatures, and that relates to His essence. Thus, it is also incorrect to say: "The Father loves the Son through the Holy Spirit."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 5): "The Holy Ghost is He whereby the Begotten is loved by the one begetting and loves His Begetter."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 5): "The Holy Spirit is the one through whom the Begotten is loved by the one who begets and loves His Creator."

I answer that, A difficulty about this question is objected to the effect that when we say, "the Father loves the Son by the Holy Ghost," since the ablative is construed as denoting a cause, it seems to mean that the Holy Ghost is the principle of love to the Father and the Son; which cannot be admitted.

I respond that, A challenge to this question is raised based on the idea that when we say, "the Father loves the Son through the Holy Spirit," since the ablative is understood to indicate a cause, it seems to suggest that the Holy Spirit is the source of love between the Father and the Son; which cannot be accepted.

In view of this difficulty some have held that it is false, that "the Father and the Son love each other by the Holy Ghost"; and they add that it was retracted by Augustine when he retracted its equivalent to the effect that "the Father is wise by the Wisdom begotten." Others say that the proposition is inaccurate and ought to be expounded, as that "the Father loves the Son by the Holy Ghost"—that is, "by His essential Love," which is appropriated to the Holy Ghost. Others further say that this ablative should be construed as importing a sign, so that it means, "the Holy Ghost is the sign that the Father loves the Son"; inasmuch as the Holy Ghost proceeds from them both, as Love. Others, again, say that this ablative must be construed as importing the relation of formal cause, because the Holy Ghost is the love whereby the Father and the Son formally love each other. Others, again, say that it should be construed as importing the relation of a formal effect; and these approach nearer to the truth.

Due to this difficulty, some people argue that it's not true that "the Father and the Son love each other through the Holy Ghost." They also point out that Augustine retracted a similar statement when he said that "the Father is wise through the Wisdom He begets." Others claim that the statement is inaccurate and should be explained as "the Father loves the Son through the Holy Ghost"—meaning "through His essential Love," which is attributed to the Holy Ghost. Some argue that this phrasing should be understood as indicating a sign, meaning that "the Holy Ghost is the sign that the Father loves the Son," since the Holy Ghost comes from both of them as Love. Still others say this phrasing should be understood as indicating the relationship of formal cause, because the Holy Ghost is the love through which the Father and the Son formally love each other. Finally, there are those who believe it should be understood as indicating the relationship of a formal effect, and these views come closer to the truth.

To make the matter clear, we must consider that since a thing is commonly denominated from its forms, as "white" from whiteness, and "man" from humanity; everything whence anything is denominated, in this particular respect stands to that thing in the relation of form. So when I say, "this man is clothed with a garment," the ablative is to be construed as having relation to the formal cause, although the garment is not the form. Now it may happen that a thing may be denominated from that which proceeds from it, not only as an agent is from its action, but also as from the term itself of the action—that is, the effect, when the effect itself is included in the idea of the action. For we say that fire warms by heating, although heating is not the heat which is the form of the fire, but is an action proceeding from the fire; and we say that a tree flowers with the flower, although the flower is not the tree's form, but is the effect proceeding from the form. In this way, therefore, we must say that since in God "to love" is taken in two ways, essentially and notionally, when it is taken essentially, it means that the Father and the Son love each other not by the Holy Ghost, but by their essence. Hence Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 7): "Who dares to say that the Father loves neither Himself, nor the Son, nor the Holy Ghost, except by the Holy Ghost?" The opinions first quoted are to be taken in this sense. But when the term Love is taken in a notional sense it means nothing else than "to spirate love"; just as to speak is to produce a word, and to flower is to produce flowers. As therefore we say that a tree flowers by its flower, so do we say that the Father, by the Word or the Son, speaks Himself, and His creatures; and that the Father and the Son love each other and us, by the Holy Ghost, or by Love proceeding.

To clarify, we need to recognize that things are often named based on their forms, like "white" comes from whiteness, and "man" comes from humanity. Everything that something is named after, in this specific way, relates to that thing in terms of form. So, when I say, "this man is dressed in a garment," the phrase is meant to reference the formal cause, even though the garment is not the form itself. It can also happen that something is named based on what comes from it, not just like how an agent is defined by its action, but also from the result of that action—that is, the effect, when the effect is part of the action’s meaning. For instance, we say that fire warms through heating, even though heating isn’t the heat that is the form of the fire, but rather an action that comes from it; similarly, we say that a tree blooms with flowers, even though the flower isn’t the tree's form, but the result that comes from the form. Therefore, we must say that since in God "to love" has two meanings, essentially and notionally, when it’s considered essentially, it indicates that the Father and the Son love each other not through the Holy Spirit, but through their essence. Thus, Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 7): "Who dares to say that the Father loves neither Himself, nor the Son, nor the Holy Spirit, except by the Holy Spirit?" The initial opinions should be understood in this context. However, when we take the term Love in a notional sense, it simply means "to bring forth love"; just like speaking means to produce a word, and flowering means to produce flowers. Therefore, we say that a tree flowers through its flower, just as we say that the Father, through the Word or the Son, expresses Himself and His creations; and that the Father and the Son love each other and us through the Holy Spirit, or through the love that flows from them.

Reply Obj. 1: To be wise or intelligent is taken only essentially in God; therefore we cannot say that "the Father is wise or intelligent by the Son." But to love is taken not only essentially, but also in a notional sense; and in this way, we can say that the Father and the Son love each other by the Holy Ghost, as was above explained.

Reply Obj. 1: Being wise or intelligent is fundamentally attributed only to God; therefore, we can't say that "the Father is wise or intelligent through the Son." However, love is understood not just in a fundamental way, but also in a notional sense; and in this sense, we can say that the Father and the Son love each other through the Holy Spirit, as explained earlier.

Reply Obj. 2: When the idea of an action includes a determined effect, the principle of the action may be denominated both from the action, and from the effect; so we can say, for instance, that a tree flowers by its flowering and by its flower. When, however, the idea of an action does not include a determined effect, then in that case, the principle of the action cannot be denominated from the effect, but only from the action. For we do not say that the tree produces the flower by the flower, but by the production of the flower. So when we say, "spirates" or "begets," this imports only a notional act. Hence we cannot say that the Father spirates by the Holy Ghost, or begets by the Son. But we can say that the Father speaks by the Word, as by the Person proceeding, "and speaks by the speaking," as by a notional act; forasmuch as "to speak" imports a determinate person proceeding; since "to speak" means to produce a word. Likewise to love, taken in a notional sense, means to produce love; and so it can be said that the Father loves the Son by the Holy Ghost, as by the person proceeding, and by Love itself as a notional act.

Reply Obj. 2: When the concept of an action includes a specific effect, the principle of the action can be recognized both by the action itself and by its effect; for example, we can say that a tree flowers through its flowering and through its flower. However, when the concept of an action does not include a specific effect, the principle of the action can only be identified by the action itself, not by the effect. We don't say that the tree produces the flower through the flower, but through the process of producing the flower. So when we use terms like "spirates" or "begets," it only refers to an abstract act. Therefore, we cannot say that the Father spirates through the Holy Ghost or begets through the Son. But we can say that the Father speaks through the Word, as the Person who is proceeding, and "speaks by the speaking," as an abstract act; because "to speak" entails a specific person proceeding since "to speak" means to create a word. Similarly, to love, when taken in an abstract sense, means to create love; and so it can be stated that the Father loves the Son through the Holy Ghost, as the person proceeding, and through Love itself as an abstract act.

Reply Obj. 3: The Father loves not only the Son, but also Himself and us, by the Holy Ghost; because, as above explained, to love, taken in a notional sense, not only imports the production of a divine person, but also the person produced, by way of love, which has relation to the object loved. Hence, as the Father speaks Himself and every creature by His begotten Word, inasmuch as the Word "begotten" adequately represents the Father and every creature; so He loves Himself and every creature by the Holy Ghost, inasmuch as the Holy Ghost proceeds as the love of the primal goodness whereby the Father loves Himself and every creature. Thus it is evident that relation to the creature is implied both in the Word and in the proceeding Love, as it were in a secondary way, inasmuch as the divine truth and goodness are a principle of understanding and loving all creatures. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The Father loves not only the Son but also Himself and us, through the Holy Spirit; because, as previously explained, to love, in a conceptual sense, not only involves the creation of a divine person but also the person created through love, which relates to the object loved. Therefore, just as the Father expresses Himself and every creature through His begotten Word, where the term "begotten" accurately reflects the Father and every creature; He also loves Himself and every creature through the Holy Spirit, since the Holy Spirit originates as the love of the ultimate goodness by which the Father loves Himself and every creature. Thus, it is clear that there is a relation to the creature in both the Word and the proceeding Love, in a secondary manner, as the divine truth and goodness serve as the foundation for understanding and loving all creatures.

QUESTION 38

OF THE NAME OF THE HOLY GHOST, AS GIFT
(In Two Articles)

OF THE NAME OF THE HOLY GHOST, AS GIFT
(In Two Articles)

There now follows the consideration of the Gift; concerning which there are two points of inquiry:

There now follows the discussion of the Gift; regarding which there are two points of inquiry:

(1) Whether "Gift" can be a personal name?

(1) Can "Gift" be a personal name?

(2) Whether it is the proper name of the Holy Ghost? _______________________

(2) Is this the correct name for the Holy Spirit? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 38, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 38, Art. 1]

Whether "Gift" Is a Personal Name?

Whether "Gift" is a personal name?

Objection 1: It would seem that "Gift" is not a personal name. For every personal name imports a distinction in God. But the name of "Gift" does not import a distinction in God; for Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 19): that "the Holy Ghost is so given as God's Gift, that He also gives Himself as God." Therefore "Gift" is not a personal name.

Objection 1: It seems that "Gift" is not a personal name. Every personal name signifies a distinction in God. However, the name "Gift" does not signify a distinction in God; as Augustine states (De Trin. xv, 19): "the Holy Spirit is given as God's Gift, in such a way that He also gives Himself as God." Therefore, "Gift" is not a personal name.

Obj. 2: Further, no personal name belongs to the divine essence. But the divine essence is the Gift which the Father gives to the Son, as Hilary says (De Trin. ix). Therefore "Gift" is not a personal name.

Obj. 2: Additionally, no personal name pertains to the divine essence. However, the divine essence is the Gift that the Father gives to the Son, as Hilary states (De Trin. ix). Therefore, "Gift" is not a personal name.

Obj. 3: Further, according to Damascene (De Fide Orth. iv, 19) there is no subjection nor service in the divine persons. But gift implies a subjection both as regards him to whom it is given, and as regards him by whom it is given. Therefore "Gift" is not a personal name.

Obj. 3: Additionally, according to Damascene (De Fide Orth. iv, 19), there is no subordination or service among the divine persons. However, a gift suggests a level of subordination both for the recipient and the giver. Therefore, "Gift" is not a personal name.

Obj. 4: Further, "Gift" imports relation to the creature, and it thus seems to be said of God in time. But personal names are said of God from eternity; as "Father," and "Son." Therefore "Gift" is not a personal name.

Obj. 4: Additionally, "Gift" refers to a relationship with the creature, which suggests it applies to God in time. However, personal names are attributed to God eternally, like "Father" and "Son." Therefore, "Gift" cannot be considered a personal name.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 19): "As the body of flesh is nothing but flesh; so the gift of the Holy Ghost is nothing but the Holy Ghost." But the Holy Ghost is a personal name; so also therefore is "Gift."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 19): "Just as the body of flesh is nothing but flesh, the gift of the Holy Ghost is nothing but the Holy Ghost." But the Holy Ghost is a personal name; so is "Gift."

I answer that, The word "gift" imports an aptitude for being given. And what is given has an aptitude or relation both to the giver and to that to which it is given. For it would not be given by anyone, unless it was his to give; and it is given to someone to be his. Now a divine person is said to belong to another, either by origin, as the Son belongs to the Father; or as possessed by another. But we are said to possess what we can freely use or enjoy as we please: and in this way a divine person cannot be possessed, except by a rational creature united to God. Other creatures can be moved by a divine person, not, however, in such a way as to be able to enjoy the divine person, and to use the effect thereof. The rational creature does sometimes attain thereto; as when it is made partaker of the divine Word and of the Love proceeding, so as freely to know God truly and to love God rightly. Hence the rational creature alone can possess the divine person. Nevertheless in order that it may possess Him in this manner, its own power avails nothing: hence this must be given it from above; for that is said to be given to us which we have from another source. Thus a divine person can "be given," and can be a "gift."

I respond that, The term "gift" implies the ability to be given. What is given has a connection to both the giver and the recipient. No one would give something unless it belongs to them; and it is given to someone so that it becomes theirs. A divine person is said to belong to another either through origin, like the Son belongs to the Father, or as something possessed by another. We possess what we can use or enjoy freely: in this sense, a divine person cannot be possessed except by a rational being united with God. Other beings can be influenced by a divine person, but not in a way that allows them to enjoy or utilize the divine person and its effects. Sometimes a rational being can achieve this, such as when it participates in the divine Word and the Love that flows from it, allowing it to know God truly and love God properly. Therefore, only a rational being can possess the divine person. However, for it to possess Him in this way, its own ability is not sufficient; this must be granted from above, since what we receive is said to come from another source. Thus, a divine person can "be given" and can be a "gift."

Reply Obj. 1: The name "Gift" imports a personal distinction, in so far as gift imports something belonging to another through its origin. Nevertheless, the Holy Ghost gives Himself, inasmuch as He is His own, and can use or rather enjoy Himself; as also a free man belongs to himself. And as Augustine says (In Joan. Tract. xxix): "What is more yours than yourself?" Or we might say, and more fittingly, that a gift must belong in a way to the giver. But the phrase, "this is this one's," can be understood in several senses. In one way it means identity, as Augustine says (In Joan. Tract. xxix); and in that sense "gift" is the same as "the giver," but not the same as the one to whom it is given. The Holy Ghost gives Himself in that sense. In another sense, a thing is another's as a possession, or as a slave; and in that sense gift is essentially distinct from the giver; and the gift of God so taken is a created thing. In a third sense "this is this one's" through its origin only; and in this sense the Son is the Father's; and the Holy Ghost belongs to both. Therefore, so far as gift in this way signifies the possession of the giver, it is personally distinguished from the giver, and is a personal name.

Reply Obj. 1: The name "Gift" implies a personal distinction because a gift comes from someone else based on its origin. However, the Holy Spirit gives Himself, as He belongs to Himself and can use or enjoy Himself, just like a free person belongs to themselves. As Augustine says (In Joan. Tract. xxix): "What is more yours than yourself?" Or we could say, more appropriately, that a gift must in some way belong to the giver. The statement, "this is this one's," can be understood in several ways. In one sense, it means identity, as Augustine points out (In Joan. Tract. xxix), and in that sense, "gift" is the same as "the giver," but not the same as the person receiving it. The Holy Spirit gives Himself in that sense. In another sense, something belongs to someone as a possession or as a servant; in this sense, a gift is essentially distinct from the giver, and the gift of God in this way is a created thing. In a third sense, "this is this one's" refers to its origin only; in this way, the Son belongs to the Father, and the Holy Spirit belongs to both. Therefore, as far as a gift signifies the possession of the giver in this way, it is personally distinguished from the giver, and is a personal name.

Reply Obj. 2: The divine essence is the Father's gift in the first sense, as being the Father's by way of identity.

Reply Obj. 2: The divine essence is the Father's gift in the first sense, as it belongs to the Father by way of identity.

Reply Obj. 3: Gift as a personal name in God does not imply subjection, but only origin, as regards the giver; but as regards the one to whom it is given, it implies a free use, or enjoyment, as above explained.

Reply Obj. 3: The term "Gift" as a name for God doesn't suggest subjection; it only refers to origin concerning the giver. However, for the recipient, it implies that they can freely use or enjoy it, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 4: Gift is not so called from being actually given, but from its aptitude to be given. Hence the divine person is called Gift from eternity, although He is given in time. Nor does it follow that it is an essential name because it imports relation to the creature; but that it includes something essential in its meaning; as the essence is included in the idea of person, as stated above (Q. 34, A. 3). _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: A gift is not called that because it is actually given, but because it has the potential to be given. Therefore, the divine person is referred to as Gift from eternity, even though He is given in time. It doesn’t mean that it is an essential name just because it relates to the creature; rather, it includes something essential in its meaning, just as essence is part of the concept of person, as mentioned above (Q. 34, A. 3).

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 38, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 38, Art. 2]

Whether "Gift" Is the Proper Name of the Holy Ghost?

Whether "Gift" Is the Right Name for the Holy Spirit?

Objection 1: It would seem that Gift is not the proper name of the Holy Ghost. For the name Gift comes from being given. But, as Isaiah says (9:16): "A Son is given to us." Therefore to be Gift belongs to the Son, as well as to the Holy Ghost.

Objection 1: It seems that "Gift" is not the correct name for the Holy Ghost. The name "Gift" comes from the idea of being given. However, as Isaiah says (9:16): "A Son is given to us." Therefore, being called "Gift" applies to the Son, as well as to the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 2: Further, every proper name of a person signifies a property.
But this word Gift does not signify a property of the Holy Ghost.
Therefore Gift is not a proper name of the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, every proper name of a person represents a property.
However, the term Gift does not represent a property of the Holy Spirit.
Therefore, Gift is not a proper name of the Holy Spirit.

Obj. 3: Further, the Holy Ghost can be called the spirit of a man, whereas He cannot be called the gift of any man, but "God's Gift" only. Therefore Gift is not the proper name of the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the Holy Spirit can be referred to as the spirit of a person, while He cannot be described as the gift of any individual, but only as "God's Gift." Thus, Gift is not the correct name for the Holy Spirit.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20): "As 'to be born' is, for the Son, to be from the Father, so, for the Holy Ghost, 'to be the Gift of God' is to proceed from Father and Son." But the Holy Ghost receives His proper name from the fact that He proceeds from Father and Son. Therefore Gift is the proper name of the Holy Ghost.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20): "For the Son, 'to be born' means coming from the Father, and for the Holy Spirit, 'to be the Gift of God' means to come from both the Father and the Son." The Holy Spirit gets His specific name from the fact that He comes from the Father and the Son. So, Gift is the specific name of the Holy Spirit.

I answer that, Gift, taken personally in God, is the proper name of the Holy Ghost.

I say that, Gift, which is understood personally in God, is the correct name for the Holy Spirit.

In proof of this we must know that a gift is properly an unreturnable giving, as Aristotle says (Topic. iv, 4)—i.e. a thing which is not given with the intention of a return—and it thus contains the idea of a gratuitous donation. Now, the reason of donation being gratuitous is love; since therefore do we give something to anyone gratuitously forasmuch as we wish him well. So what we first give him is the love whereby we wish him well. Hence it is manifest that love has the nature of a first gift, through which all free gifts are given. So since the Holy Ghost proceeds as love, as stated above (Q. 27, A. 4; Q. 37, A. 1), He proceeds as the first gift. Hence Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 24): "By the gift, which is the Holy Ghost, many particular gifts are portioned out to the members of Christ."

To prove this, we need to understand that a gift is essentially a giving that is not meant to be returned, as Aristotle says (Topic. iv, 4) — it’s something given without the expectation of getting something back — and it embodies the concept of a selfless donation. The reason for a generous donation is love; we give something to someone out of goodwill toward them. The first thing we are giving is the love through which we wish them well. Therefore, it is clear that love acts as the primary gift, from which all other freely given gifts arise. Since the Holy Spirit proceeds from love, as mentioned earlier (Q. 27, A. 4; Q. 37, A. 1), He is the original gift. This is why Augustine states (De Trin. xv, 24): "Through the gift, which is the Holy Spirit, many unique gifts are distributed to the members of Christ."

Reply Obj. 1: As the Son is properly called the Image because He proceeds by way of a word, whose nature it is to be the similitude of its principle, although the Holy Ghost also is like to the Father; so also, because the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father as love, He is properly called Gift, although the Son, too, is given. For that the Son is given is from the Father's love, according to the words, "God so loved the world, as to give His only begotten Son" (John 3:16).

Reply Obj. 1: The Son is rightly called the Image because He comes forth as a word, which naturally reflects its source. While the Holy Spirit is also related to the Father, the Holy Spirit is specifically referred to as the Gift because He emerges from the Father as love. The Son is also given, but His giving is a result of the Father’s love, as stated in the verse, "God so loved the world, as to give His only begotten Son" (John 3:16).

Reply Obj. 2: The name Gift involves the idea of belonging to the Giver through its origin; and thus it imports the property of the origin of the Holy Ghost—that is, His procession.

Reply Obj. 2: The name Gift suggests the idea of belonging to the Giver because of its origin; therefore, it reflects the nature of the origin of the Holy Spirit—that is, His procession.

Reply Obj. 3: Before a gift is given, it belongs only to the giver; but when it is given, it is his to whom it is given. Therefore, because "Gift" does not import the actual giving, it cannot be called a gift of man, but the Gift of God giving. When, however, it has been given, then it is the spirit of man, or a gift bestowed on man. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Before a gift is given, it only belongs to the giver; but once it is given, it belongs to the person who received it. Therefore, because "Gift" doesn't refer to the act of giving itself, it can't be called a gift from man, but rather a gift that comes from God. However, once it has been given, it becomes the spirit of man, or a gift given to man.

QUESTION 39

OF THE PERSONS IN RELATION TO THE ESSENCE
(In Eight Articles)

OF THE PERSONS IN RELATION TO THE ESSENCE
(In Eight Articles)

Those things considered which belong to the divine persons absolutely, we next treat of what concerns the person in reference to the essence, to the properties, and to the notional acts; and of the comparison of these with each other.

Considering those aspects that pertain to the divine persons absolutely, we will next discuss what relates to the person in terms of essence, properties, and notional acts; and how these compare to one another.

As regards the first of these, there are eight points of inquiry:

Regarding the first of these, there are eight points to explore:

(1) Whether the essence in God is the same as the person?

(1) Is the essence of God the same as His person?

(2) Whether we should say that the three persons are of one essence?

(2) Should we say that the three persons are of one essence?

(3) Whether essential names should be predicated of the persons in the plural, or in the singular?

(3) Should essential names be assigned to people in the plural or in the singular?

(4) Whether notional adjectives, or verbs, or participles, can be predicated of the essential names taken in a concrete sense?

(4) Can notional adjectives, verbs, or participles be linked to essential names when used in a concrete sense?

(5) Whether the same can be predicated of essential names taken in the abstract?

(5) Can the same be said for essential names considered in the abstract?

(6) Whether the names of the persons can be predicated of concrete essential names?

(6) Can the names of people be applied to specific essential names?

(7) Whether essential attributes can be appropriated to the persons?

(7) Can essential qualities be attributed to individuals?

(8) Which attributes should be appropriated to each person? _______________________

(8) Which traits should be assigned to each person? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 1]

Whether in God the Essence Is the Same As the Person?

Whether in God the Essence is the Same as the Person?

Objection 1: It would seem that in God the essence is not the same as person. For whenever essence is the same as person or suppositum, there can be only one suppositum of one nature, as is clear in the case of all separate substances. For in those things which are really one and the same, one cannot be multiplied apart from the other. But in God there is one essence and three persons, as is clear from what is above expounded (Q. 28, A. 3; Q. 30, A. 2). Therefore essence is not the same as person.

Objection 1: It seems that in God, essence is not the same as person. Whenever essence is the same as person or suppositum, there can only be one suppositum of one nature, as is evident in the case of all separate substances. In things that are truly one and the same, one cannot be multiplied separately from the other. However, in God, there is one essence and three persons, as has been explained above (Q. 28, A. 3; Q. 30, A. 2). Therefore, essence is not the same as person.

Obj. 2: Further, simultaneous affirmation and negation of the same things in the same respect cannot be true. But affirmation and negation are true of essence and of person. For person is distinct, whereas essence is not. Therefore person and essence are not the same.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, it can't be true that we can affirm and deny the same thing at the same time and in the same way. However, affirmation and denial apply to both essence and person. This is because a person is distinct, while essence is not. Therefore, person and essence are not the same.

Obj. 3: Further, nothing can be subject to itself. But person is subject to essence; whence it is called suppositum or "hypostasis." Therefore person is not the same as essence.

Obj. 3: Additionally, nothing can be its own subject. But a person is subject to essence; from this, it is referred to as suppositum or "hypostasis." Therefore, a person is not the same as essence.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 7): "When we say the person of the Father we mean nothing else but the substance of the Father."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 7): "When we refer to the person of the Father, we mean nothing other than the essence of the Father."

I answer that, The truth of this question is quite clear if we consider the divine simplicity. For it was shown above (Q. 3, A. 3) that the divine simplicity requires that in God essence is the same as suppositum, which in intellectual substances is nothing else than person. But a difficulty seems to arise from the fact that while the divine persons are multiplied, the essence nevertheless retains its unity. And because, as Boethius says (De Trin. i), "relation multiplies the Trinity of persons," some have thought that in God essence and person differ, forasmuch as they held the relations to be "adjacent"; considering only in the relations the idea of "reference to another," and not the relations as realities. But as it was shown above (Q. 28, A. 2) in creatures relations are accidental, whereas in God they are the divine essence itself. Thence it follows that in God essence is not really distinct from person; and yet that the persons are really distinguished from each other. For person, as above stated (Q. 29, A. 4), signifies relation as subsisting in the divine nature. But relation as referred to the essence does not differ therefrom really, but only in our way of thinking; while as referred to an opposite relation, it has a real distinction by virtue of that opposition. Thus there are one essence and three persons.

I respond that, The truth of this question is quite clear if we consider the divine simplicity. For it was shown earlier (Q. 3, A. 3) that divine simplicity requires that in God, essence is the same as suppositum, which in intellectual beings is nothing other than person. However, a difficulty seems to arise from the fact that while the divine persons are distinct, the essence still maintains its unity. And because, as Boethius states (De Trin. i), "relation multiplies the Trinity of persons," some have thought that in God, essence and person differ, since they regarded the relations as "adjacent"; focusing only on the idea of "reference to another" within the relations, rather than viewing the relations as realities. But as previously shown (Q. 28, A. 2), in creatures, relations are accidental, whereas in God, they are the divine essence itself. Therefore, it follows that in God, essence is not really distinct from person; yet the persons are truly distinguished from one another. For person, as previously stated (Q. 29, A. 4), signifies relation as existing within the divine nature. However, when considering relation as it pertains to essence, there is no real difference, only a difference in our understanding; while in relation to an opposite relation, there is a real distinction because of that opposition. Thus, there is one essence and three persons.

Reply Obj. 1: There cannot be a distinction of suppositum in creatures by means of relations, but only by essential principles; because in creatures relations are not subsistent. But in God relations are subsistent, and so by reason of the opposition between them they distinguish the supposita; and yet the essence is not distinguished, because the relations themselves are not distinguished from each other so far as they are identified with the essence.

Reply Obj. 1: There can't be a distinction of suppositum in creatures based on relations, but only on essential principles; because in creatures, relations don't exist on their own. However, in God, relations do exist on their own, and because of the differences between them, they distinguish the supposita; yet the essence isn't distinguished, since the relations themselves aren't distinguished from each other as far as they are linked to the essence.

Reply Obj. 2: As essence and person in God differ in our way of thinking, it follows that something can be denied of the one and affirmed of the other; and therefore, when we suppose the one, we need not suppose the other.

Reply Obj. 2: Since essence and person in God are different in our understanding, it makes sense that something can be said about one and not the other; therefore, when we consider one, we don't have to consider the other.

Reply Obj. 3: Divine things are named by us after the way of created things, as above explained (Q. 13, AA. 1, 3). And since created natures are individualized by matter which is the subject of the specific nature, it follows that individuals are called "subjects," supposita, or "hypostases." So the divine persons are named supposita or "hypostases," but not as if there really existed any real "supposition" or "subjection." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: We name divine things based on how we understand created things, as explained above (Q. 13, AA. 1, 3). Since created beings are made unique by their matter, which is what defines their specific nature, it makes sense that we refer to individuals as "subjects," supposita, or "hypostases." Therefore, we refer to the divine persons as supposita or "hypostases," but not as if there genuinely is a real "supposition" or "subjection."

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 2]

Whether It Must Be Said That the Three Persons Are of One Essence?

Whether it should be said that the three persons share one essence?

Objection 1: It would seem not right to say that the three persons are of one essence. For Hilary says (De Synod.) that the Father, Son and Holy Ghost "are indeed three by substance, but one in harmony." But the substance of God is His essence. Therefore the three persons are not of one essence.

Objection 1: It seems incorrect to claim that the three persons are of one essence. Hilary states (De Synod.) that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit "are indeed three in substance, but one in harmony." However, the substance of God is His essence. Therefore, the three persons are not of one essence.

Obj. 2: Further, nothing is to be affirmed of God except what can be
confirmed by the authority of Holy Writ, as appears from Dionysius
(Div. Nom. i). Now Holy Writ never says that the Father, Son and Holy
Ghost are of one essence. Therefore this should not be asserted.

Obj. 2: Additionally, we should only affirm things about God that can be
backed by the authority of Scripture, as shown by Dionysius
(Div. Nom. i). Scripture never states that the Father, Son, and Holy
Ghost are of one essence. Therefore, this should not be claimed.

Obj. 3: Further, the divine nature is the same as the divine essence.
It suffices therefore to say that the three persons are of one nature.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the divine nature is identical to the divine essence.
So, it’s enough to state that the three persons share one nature.

Obj. 4: Further, it is not usual to say that the person is of the essence; but rather that the essence is of the person. Therefore it does not seem fitting to say that the three persons are of one essence.

Obj. 4: Moreover, it's not common to say that the person is the essence; instead, we say that the essence belongs to the person. So, it doesn't seem appropriate to say that the three persons are of one essence.

Obj. 5: Further, Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 6) that we do not say that the three persons are "from one essence [ex una essentia]," lest we should seem to indicate a distinction between the essence and the persons in God. But prepositions which imply transition, denote the oblique case. Therefore it is equally wrong to say that the three persons are "of one essence [unius essentiae]."

Obj. 5: Furthermore, Augustine states (De Trin. vii, 6) that we do not say the three persons are "from one essence," so we don't imply a separation between the essence and the persons in God. Prepositions that suggest transition refer to the oblique case. Thus, it is also incorrect to say that the three persons are "of one essence."

Obj. 6: Further, nothing should be said of God which can be occasion of error. Now, to say that the three persons are of one essence or substance, furnishes occasion of error. For, as Hilary says (De Synod.): "One substance predicated of the Father and the Son signifies either one subsistent, with two denominations; or one substance divided into two imperfect substances; or a third prior substance taken and assumed by the other two." Therefore it must not be said that the three persons are of one substance.

Obj. 6: Furthermore, nothing should be said about God that could lead to misunderstanding. Now, saying that the three persons are of one essence or substance can lead to confusion. As Hilary states (De Synod.): "One substance attributed to the Father and the Son means either one being with two titles; or one substance split into two incomplete substances; or a third, previous substance taken and assumed by the other two." Therefore, we should not say that the three persons are of one substance.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Contra Maxim. iii) that the word homoousion, which the Council of Nicaea adopted against the Arians, means that the three persons are of one essence.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Contra Maxim. iii) that the word homoousion, which the Council of Nicaea adopted against the Arians, means that the three persons are of one essence.

I answer that, As above explained (Q. 13, AA. 1, 2), divine things are named by our intellect, not as they really are in themselves, for in that way it knows them not; but in a way that belongs to things created. And as in the objects of the senses, whence the intellect derives its knowledge, the nature of the species is made individual by the matter, and thus the nature is as the form, and the individual is the suppositum of the form; so also in God the essence is taken as the form of the three persons, according to our mode of signification. Now in creatures we say that every form belongs to that whereof it is the form; as the health and beauty of a man belongs to the man. But we do not say of that which has a form, that it belongs to the form, unless some adjective qualifies the form; as when we say: "That woman is of a handsome figure," or: "This man is of perfect virtue." In like manner, as in God the persons are multiplied, and the essence is not multiplied, we speak of one essence of the three persons, and three persons of the one essence, provided that these genitives be understood as designating the form.

I answer that, As explained earlier (Q. 13, AA. 1, 2), we understand divine things through our intellect, not as they truly are in themselves, because we cannot grasp them in that way, but rather in a manner that relates to created things. Just as in the objects of our senses, which provide knowledge to the intellect, the nature of a species becomes individual through matter, the essence is akin to the form, and the individual represents the suppositum of the form; likewise, in God, the essence is considered the form of the three persons, according to how we express it. In creatures, we say that every form belongs to what it characterizes; for example, a man's health and beauty belong to him. However, we don't say that something belongs to the form itself unless it is qualified by an adjective, such as when we say: "That woman has a beautiful figure," or: "This man possesses perfect virtue." Similarly, since in God the persons are distinct but the essence remains one, we refer to one essence of the three persons and three persons of the one essence, provided that we understand these terms as indicating the form.

Reply Obj. 1: Substance is here taken for the "hypostasis," and not for the essence.

Reply Obj. 1: Here, substance refers to "hypostasis," not essence.

Reply Obj. 2: Although we may not find it declared in Holy Writ in so many words that the three persons are of one essence, nevertheless we find it so stated as regards the meaning; for instance, "I and the Father are one (John 10:30)," and "I am in the Father, and the Father in Me (John 10:38)"; and there are many other texts of the same import.

Reply Obj. 2: While we may not see it explicitly stated in Scripture that the three persons are of one essence, we do find that meaning conveyed through various passages; for example, "I and the Father are one (John 10:30)" and "I am in the Father, and the Father is in Me (John 10:38)"; and there are many other verses that express the same idea.

Reply Obj. 3: Because "nature" designates the principle of action while "essence" comes from being [essendo], things may be said to be of one nature which agree in some action, as all things which give heat; but only those things can be said to be of "one essence" which have one being. So the divine unity is better described by saying that the three persons are "of one essence," than by saying they are "of one nature."

Reply Obj. 3: Because "nature" refers to the principle of action while "essence" comes from being, we can say that things share one nature if they agree in some action, like all things that generate heat. However, only those things that share one being can be said to have "one essence." Therefore, the divine unity is better described by stating that the three persons are "of one essence," rather than saying they are "of one nature."

Reply Obj. 4: Form, in the absolute sense, is wont to be designated as belonging to that of which it is the form, as we say "the virtue of Peter." On the other hand, the thing having form is not wont to be designated as belonging to the form except when we wish to qualify or designate the form. In which case two genitives are required, one signifying the form, and the other signifying the determination of the form, as, for instance, when we say, "Peter is of great virtue [magnae virtutis]," or else one genitive must have the force of two, as, for instance, "he is a man of blood"—that is, he is a man who sheds much blood [multi sanguinis]. So, because the divine essence signifies a form as regards the person, it may properly be said that the essence is of the person; but we cannot say the converse, unless we add some term to designate the essence; as, for instance, the Father is a person of the "divine essence"; or, the three persons are "of one essence."

Reply Obj. 4: Form, in its most general sense, is often described as belonging to what it characterizes, like saying "the virtue of Peter." However, the entity that possesses the form is not usually referred to as belonging to the form unless we want to specify or describe that form. In that case, two genitive forms are needed—one indicating the form itself and the other indicating the specific nature of that form. For example, we might say, "Peter is of great virtue," or one genitive can serve as two, like in saying, "he is a man of blood," meaning he is someone who sheds a lot of blood. Thus, since the divine essence represents a form concerning the person, it's appropriate to say that the essence belongs to the person. However, we can’t say the opposite unless we add a term to identify the essence. For instance, we would say that the Father is a person of the "divine essence," or that the three persons are "of one essence."

Reply Obj. 5: The preposition "from" or "out of" does not designate the habitude of a formal cause, but rather the habitude of an efficient or material cause; which causes are in all cases distinguished from those things of which they are the causes. For nothing can be its own matter, nor its own active principle. Yet a thing may be its own form, as appears in all immaterial things. So, when we say, "three persons of one essence," taking essence as having the habitude of form, we do not mean that essence is different from person, which we should mean if we said, "three persons from the same essence."

Reply Obj. 5: The preposition "from" or "out of" doesn’t indicate the relationship of a formal cause, but rather the relationship of an efficient or material cause; these causes are always distinct from the things they cause. Because nothing can be its own matter or its own active principle. However, a thing can be its own form, as seen in all immaterial things. So, when we say, "three persons of one essence," using essence in the context of form, we don’t mean that essence is different from person, which would be implied if we said, "three persons from the same essence."

Reply Obj. 6: As Hilary says (De Synod.): "It would be prejudicial to holy things, if we had to do away with them, just because some do not think them holy. So if some misunderstand homoousion, what is that to me, if I understand it rightly? . . . The oneness of nature does not result from division, or from union or from community of possession, but from one nature being proper to both Father and Son." _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: As Hilary says (De Synod.): "It would be harmful to sacred things if we had to abandon them just because some people don’t think they are sacred. So what if some misunderstand homoousion? That doesn’t affect me if I understand it correctly. . . The unity of nature doesn’t come from division, union, or shared ownership, but from one nature belonging to both the Father and the Son."

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 3]

Whether Essential Names Should Be Predicated in the Singular of the
Three Persons?

Whether Essential Names Should Be Based in the Singular Form for the
Three Persons?

Objection 1: It would seem that essential names, as the name "God," should not be predicated in the singular of the three persons, but in the plural. For as "man" signifies "one that has humanity," so God signifies "one that has Godhead." But the three persons are three who have Godhead. Therefore the three persons are "three Gods."

Objection 1: It seems that essential names, like "God," shouldn't be used in the singular for the three persons, but in the plural. Just as "man" means "one who has humanity," "God" means "one who has Godhood." But the three persons are three who possess Godhood. Therefore, the three persons are "three Gods."

Obj. 2: Further, Gen. 1:1, where it is said, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," the Hebrew original has "Elohim," which may be rendered "Gods" or "Judges": and this word is used on account of the plurality of persons. Therefore the three persons are "several Gods," and not "one" God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, in Gen. 1:1, where it states, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," the original Hebrew uses the term "Elohim," which can be translated as "Gods" or "Judges." This term is employed due to the plurality of persons. Therefore, the three persons are "multiple Gods," not "one" God.

Obj. 3: Further, this word "thing" when it is said absolutely, seems to belong to substance. But it is predicated of the three persons in the plural. For Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. i, 5): "The things that are the objects of our future glory are the Father, Son and Holy Ghost." Therefore other essential names can be predicated in the plural of the three persons.

Obj. 3: Moreover, the term "thing," when used on its own, seems to refer to substance. However, it is used in the plural to describe the three persons. Augustine states (De Doctr. Christ. i, 5): "The things that represent our future glory are the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost." Thus, other essential names can also be used in the plural to refer to the three persons.

Obj. 4: Further, as this word "God" signifies "a being who has Deity," so also this word "person" signifies a being subsisting in an intellectual nature. But we say there are three persons. So for the same reason we can say there are "three Gods."

Obj. 4: Furthermore, since the term "God" refers to "a being who has Deity," the term "person" indicates a being with an intellectual nature. We assert that there are three persons. Therefore, for the same reason, we can also say there are "three Gods."

On the contrary, It is said (Deut. 6:4): "Hear, O Israel, the Lord thy God is one God."

On the contrary, It is said (Deut. 6:4): "Listen, Israel, the Lord your God is one God."

I answer that, Some essential names signify the essence after the manner of substantives; while others signify it after the manner of adjectives. Those which signify it as substantives are predicated of the three persons in the singular only, and not in the plural. Those which signify the essence as adjectives are predicated of the three persons in the plural. The reason of this is that substantives signify something by way of substance, while adjectives signify something by way of accident, which adheres to a subject. Now just as substance has existence of itself, so also it has of itself unity or multitude; wherefore the singularity or plurality of a substantive name depends upon the form signified by the name. But as accidents have their existence in a subject, so they have unity or plurality from their subject; and therefore the singularity and plurality of adjectives depends upon their supposita. In creatures, one form does not exist in several supposita except by unity of order, as the form of an ordered multitude. So if the names signifying such a form are substantives, they are predicated of many in the singular, but otherwise if they adjectives. For we say that many men are a college, or an army, or a people; but we say that many men are collegians. Now in God the divine essence is signified by way of a form, as above explained (A. 2), which, indeed, is simple and supremely one, as shown above (Q. 3, A. 7; Q. 11, A. 4). So, names which signify the divine essence in a substantive manner are predicated of the three persons in the singular, and not in the plural. This, then, is the reason why we say that Socrates, Plato and Cicero are "three men"; whereas we do not say the Father, Son and Holy Ghost are "three Gods," but "one God"; forasmuch as in the three supposita of human nature there are three humanities, whereas in the three divine Persons there is but one divine essence. On the other hand, the names which signify essence in an adjectival manner are predicated of the three persons plurally, by reason of the plurality of supposita. For we say there are three "existent" or three "wise" beings, or three "eternal," "uncreated," and "immense" beings, if these terms are understood in an adjectival sense. But if taken in a substantive sense, we say "one uncreated, immense, eternal being," as Athanasius declares.

I answer that, Some essential names refer to the essence in a way similar to nouns, while others refer to it like adjectives. Those that refer to it as nouns apply to the three persons in the singular only, not in the plural. Those that signify the essence as adjectives apply to the three persons in the plural. The reason is that nouns indicate something by means of substance, while adjectives indicate something by means of an accident that attaches to a subject. Just like substance exists on its own, it also has unity or plurality by itself; therefore, the singularity or plurality of a noun depends on the form represented by the name. On the other hand, accidents exist within a subject, so they derive their unity or plurality from their subject; thus, the singularity and plurality of adjectives depend on their supposita. In creatures, one form does not exist in multiple supposita except through an ordered unity, like the form of a structured multitude. Consequently, if the names representing such a form are nouns, they are used in the singular for many, but the opposite is true if they are adjectives. For example, we say that many people form a college, an army, or a people; however, we say that many people are collegians. In God, the divine essence is indicated as a form, as explained above (A. 2), which is indeed simple and supremely one, as demonstrated above (Q. 3, A. 7; Q. 11, A. 4). Thus, names that refer to the divine essence in a noun-like manner are used for the three persons in the singular, not in the plural. This is why we say that Socrates, Plato, and Cicero are "three men," while we do not say the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are "three Gods," but "one God"; because in the three supposita of human nature there are three humanities, whereas in the three divine Persons there is only one divine essence. Conversely, the names that refer to essence in an adjectival manner are used for the three persons plurally, due to the plurality of supposita. We say there are three "existent" or three "wise" beings, or three "eternal," "uncreated," and "immense" beings when these terms are understood in an adjectival sense. But when taken in a noun sense, we say "one uncreated, immense, eternal being," as Athanasius states.

Reply Obj. 1: Though the name "God" signifies a being having Godhead, nevertheless the mode of signification is different. For the name "God" is used substantively; whereas "having Godhead" is used adjectively. Consequently, although there are "three having Godhead," it does not follow that there are three Gods.

Reply Obj. 1: While the name "God" indicates a being with divinity, the way it signifies is different. The name "God" is used as a noun, while "having Godhead" is used as an adjective. Therefore, even though there are "three having Godhead," it doesn't mean there are three Gods.

Reply Obj. 2: Various languages have diverse modes of expression. So as by reason of the plurality of supposita the Greeks said "three hypostases," so also in Hebrew "Elohim" is in the plural. We, however, do not apply the plural either to "God" or to "substance," lest plurality be referred to the substance.

Reply Obj. 2: Different languages have various ways of expressing themselves. Just as the Greeks referred to "three hypostases" because of the variety of supposita, in Hebrew "Elohim" is also in the plural. However, we do not use the plural for "God" or "substance," to avoid implying that there is plurality in the substance.

Reply Obj. 3: This word "thing" is one of the transcendentals. Whence, so far as it is referred to relation, it is predicated of God in the plural; whereas, so far as it is referred to the substance, it is predicated in the singular. So Augustine says, in the passage quoted, that "the same Trinity is a thing supreme."

Reply Obj. 3: The term "thing" is one of the transcendentals. Thus, when it relates to relation, it is used in the plural form when referring to God; however, when it relates to substance, it is used in the singular form. As Augustine states in the quoted passage, "the same Trinity is a supreme thing."

Reply Obj. 4: The form signified by the word "person" is not essence or nature, but personality. So, as there are three personalities—that is, three personal properties in the Father, Son and Holy Ghost—it is predicated of the three, not in the singular, but in the plural. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The term "person" refers to personality, not essence or nature. Since there are three personalities—specifically, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit—it applies to the three in the plural, not the singular.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 4]

Whether the Concrete Essential Names Can Stand for the Person?

Whether Concrete Essential Names Can Represent the Person?

Objection 1: It would seem that the concrete, essential names cannot stand for the person, so that we can truly say "God begot God." For, as the logicians say, "a singular term signifies what it stands for." But this name "God" seems to be a singular term, for it cannot be predicated in the plural, as above explained (A. 3). Therefore, since it signifies the essence, it stands for essence, and not for person.

Objection 1: It seems that the specific, essential names cannot refer to the person, so we can't accurately say "God begot God." Because, as logicians point out, "a singular term indicates what it refers to." However, the name "God" appears to be a singular term, since it can't be used in plural form, as explained above (A. 3). Therefore, since it indicates the essence, it represents essence, not person.

Obj. 2: Further, a term in the subject is not modified by a term in the predicate, as to its signification; but only as to the sense signified in the predicate. But when I say, "God creates," this name "God" stands for the essence. So when we say "God begot," this term "God" cannot by reason of the notional predicate, stand for person.

Obj. 2: Additionally, a term in the subject isn't changed in meaning by a term in the predicate; it's only altered in the sense indicated by the predicate. However, when I say, "God creates," the name "God" represents the essence. So when we say "God begot," this term "God" cannot, due to the conceptual predicate, represent a person.

Obj. 3: Further, if this be true, "God begot," because the Father generates; for the same reason this is true, "God does not beget," because the Son does not beget. Therefore there is God who begets, and there is God who does not beget; and thus it follows that there are two Gods.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if this is true, "God begets," because the Father generates; for the same reason it is also true that "God does not beget," because the Son does not beget. Therefore, there is a God who begets, and there is a God who does not beget; and consequently, it follows that there are two Gods.

Obj. 4: Further, if "God begot God," He begot either God, that is Himself, or another God. But He did not beget God, that is Himself; for, as Augustine says (De Trin. i, 1), "nothing begets itself." Neither did He beget another God; as there is only one God. Therefore it is false to say, "God begot God."

Obj. 4: Furthermore, if "God begot God," then He must have begotten either God, meaning Himself, or another God. But He did not beget God, meaning Himself; because, as Augustine states (De Trin. i, 1), "nothing can create itself." Nor did He create another God, since there is only one God. Therefore, it is incorrect to say, "God begot God."

Obj. 5: Further, if "God begot God," He begot either God who is the Father, or God who is not the Father. If God who is the Father, then God the Father was begotten. If God who is not the Father, then there is a God who is not God the Father: which is false. Therefore it cannot be said that "God begot God."

Obj. 5: Furthermore, if "God begets God," then He either begets God who is the Father, or God who is not the Father. If He begets God who is the Father, then God the Father was begotten. If He begets God who is not the Father, then there is a God who is not God the Father, which is not true. Therefore, it cannot be said that "God begets God."

On the contrary, In the Creed it is said, "God of God."

On the contrary, In the Creed, it says, "God of God."

I answer that, Some have said that this name "God" and the like, properly according to their nature, stand for the essence, but by reason of some notional adjunct are made to stand for the Person. This opinion apparently arose from considering the divine simplicity, which requires that in God, He "who possesses" and "what is possessed" be the same. So He who possesses Godhead, which is signified by the name God, is the same as Godhead. But when we consider the proper way of expressing ourselves, the mode of signification must be considered no less than the thing signified. Hence as this word "God" signifies the divine essence as in Him Who possesses it, just as the name "man" signifies humanity in a subject, others more truly have said that this word "God," from its mode of signification, can, in its proper sense, stand for person, as does the word "man." So this word "God" sometimes stands for the essence, as when we say "God creates"; because this predicate is attributed to the subject by reason of the form signified—that is, Godhead. But sometimes it stands for the person, either for only one, as when we say, "God begets," or for two, as when we say, "God spirates"; or for three, as when it is said: "To the King of ages, immortal, invisible, the only God," etc. (1 Tim. 1:17).

I respond that, Some have claimed that the name "God" and similar terms, according to their nature, represent the essence, but due to some conceptual addition, they come to represent the Person. This idea seems to have come from reflecting on divine simplicity, which requires that in God, He "who possesses" and "what is possessed" be identical. So, He who embodies Godhead, indicated by the name God, is the same as Godhead. However, when we think about how to express ourselves correctly, we must consider the way of signification just as much as the thing being signified. Therefore, since the word "God" signifies divine essence in He Who possesses it, similar to how the name "man" signifies humanity in a subject, others have more accurately stated that the word "God," due to its mode of signification, can correctly refer to a person, just like the word "man." Thus, the word "God" sometimes refers to the essence, as in "God creates"; because this predicate is ascribed to the subject because of the form indicated—that is, Godhead. But sometimes it refers to the person, either for just one, as when we say, "God begets," or for two, as in "God spirates"; or for three, as it says: "To the King of ages, immortal, invisible, the only God," etc. (1 Tim. 1:17).

Reply Obj. 1: Although this name "God" agrees with singular terms as regards the form signified not being multiplied; nevertheless it agrees also with general terms so far as the form signified is to be found in several supposita. So it need not always stand for the essence it signifies.

Reply Obj. 1: While the name "God" aligns with singular terms because the form it represents is not multiplied, it also matches with general terms in that the form can be present in multiple supposita. Therefore, it doesn't always have to represent the essence it indicates.

Reply Obj. 2: This holds good against those who say that the word
"God" does not naturally stand for person.

Reply Obj. 2: This applies to those who claim that the word
"God" doesn’t inherently refer to a person.

Reply Obj. 3: The word "God" stands for the person in a different way from that in which this word "man" does; for since the form signified by this word "man"—that is, humanity—is really divided among its different subjects, it stands of itself for the person, even if there is no adjunct determining it to the person—that is, to a distinct subject. The unity or community of the human nature, however, is not a reality, but is only in the consideration of the mind. Hence this term "man" does not stand for the common nature, unless this is required by some adjunct, as when we say, "man is a species"; whereas the form signified by the name "God"—that is, the divine essence—is really one and common. So of itself it stands for the common nature, but by some adjunct it may be restricted so as to stand for the person. So, when we say, "God generates," by reason of the notional act this name "God" stands for the person of the Father. But when we say, "God does not generate," there is no adjunct to determine this name to the person of the Son, and hence the phrase means that generation is repugnant to the divine nature. If, however, something be added belonging to the person of the Son, this proposition, for instance, "God begotten does not beget," is true. Consequently, it does not follow that there exists a "God generator," and a "God not generator"; unless there be an adjunct pertaining to the persons; as, for instance, if we were to say, "the Father is God the generator" and the "Son is God the non-generator" and so it does not follow that there are many Gods; for the Father and the Son are one God, as was said above (A. 3).

Reply Obj. 3: The term "God" refers to a person in a way that is different from how "man" does; since the form indicated by "man"—that is, humanity—is genuinely divided among its various subjects, it can refer to the person on its own, even if there’s nothing additional specifying it to a particular individual. However, the unity or community of human nature is not a reality; it exists only in the mind's consideration. Thus, the term "man" does not refer to the common nature unless something specifies it, such as when we say, "man is a species"; whereas the form signified by the name "God"—that is, the divine essence—is genuinely one and common. So, on its own, it represents the common nature, but with some addition, it can be specified to refer to a person. Therefore, when we say, "God generates," because of the notional act, this name "God" refers to the person of the Father. But when we say, "God does not generate," there isn’t anything added that specifies this name to the person of the Son, so this phrase indicates that generation contradicts the divine nature. If, however, something specific to the person of the Son is added, such as in the statement, "God begotten does not beget," this is true. Consequently, it does not imply that there exists a "God generator" and a "God non-generator," unless there’s something related to the persons; for instance, if we say, "the Father is God the generator" and "the Son is God the non-generator," it still does not imply that there are many Gods; for the Father and the Son are one God, as stated above (A. 3).

Reply Obj. 4: This is false, "the Father begot God, that is Himself," because the word "Himself," as a reciprocal term, refers to the same suppositum. Nor is this contrary to what Augustine says (Ep. lxvi ad Maxim.) that "God the Father begot another self [alterum se]," forasmuch as the word "se" is either in the ablative case, and then it means "He begot another from Himself," or it indicates a single relation, and thus points to identity of nature. This is, however, either a figurative or an emphatic way of speaking, so that it would really mean, "He begot another most like to Himself." Likewise also it is false to say, "He begot another God," because although the Son is another than the Father, as above explained (Q. 31, A. 2), nevertheless it cannot be said that He is "another God"; forasmuch as this adjective "another" would be understood to apply to the substantive God; and thus the meaning would be that there is a distinction of Godhead. Yet this proposition "He begot another God" is tolerated by some, provided that "another" be taken as a substantive, and the word "God" be construed in apposition with it. This, however, is an inexact way of speaking, and to be avoided, for fear of giving occasion to error.

Reply Obj. 4: This is false, "the Father begot God, that is Himself," because the word "Himself," as a reciprocal term, refers to the same suppositum. This does not contradict what Augustine says (Ep. lxvi ad Maxim.) that "God the Father begot another self [alterum se]," because the word "se" is either in the ablative case, meaning "He begot another from Himself," or it indicates a single relation, pointing to identity of nature. However, this is either a figurative or an emphatic way of speaking, so it really means, "He begot another most like to Himself." It is also incorrect to say, "He begot another God," because although the Son is distinct from the Father, as explained above (Q. 31, A. 2), it cannot be said that He is "another God"; as the adjective "another" would imply a distinction in Godhead. However, some tolerate this proposition "He begot another God," provided that "another" is seen as a substantive, and the word "God" is interpreted in apposition with it. Yet, this is an imprecise way of speaking that should be avoided to prevent misunderstanding.

Reply Obj. 5: To say, "God begot God Who is God the Father," is wrong, because since the word "Father" is construed in apposition to "God," the word "God" is restricted to the person of the Father; so that it would mean, "He begot God, Who is Himself the Father"; and then the Father would be spoken of as begotten, which is false. Wherefore the negative of the proposition is true, "He begot God Who is not God the Father." If however, we understand these words not to be in apposition, and require something to be added, then, on the contrary, the affirmative proposition is true, and the negative is false; so that the meaning would be, "He begot God Who is God Who is the Father." Such a rendering however appears to be forced, so that it is better to say simply that the affirmative proposition is false, and the negative is true. Yet Prepositivus said that both the negative and affirmative are false, because this relative "Who" in the affirmative proposition can be referred to the suppositum; whereas in the negative it denotes both the thing signified and the suppositum. Whence, in the affirmative the sense is that "to be God the Father" is befitting to the person of the Son; and in the negative sense is that "to be God the Father," is to be removed from the Son's divinity as well as from His personality. This, however, appears to be irrational; since, according to the Philosopher (Peri Herm. ii), what is open to affirmation, is open also to negation. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: Saying, "God begot God Who is God the Father," is incorrect, because if we interpret the word "Father" as referring to "God," it limits "God" to the person of the Father; which would imply, "He begot God, Who is Himself the Father"; and that would mean the Father is considered as begotten, which is false. Therefore, the negative of the statement is true: "He begot God Who is not God the Father." However, if we understand these words to not be in apposition and require something to be added, then the affirmative statement is true, and the negative is false; meaning it would be, "He begot God Who is God Who is the Father." This interpretation, however, seems forced, so it’s better to say that the affirmative statement is false, and the negative is true. Yet Prepositivus argued that both the negative and affirmative statements are false, because the relative "Who" in the affirmative can refer to the suppositum; while in the negative, it refers to both the thing indicated and the suppositum. Thus, in the affirmative, it suggests that "to be God the Father" is aligned with the person of the Son; whereas in the negative, "to be God the Father" indicates a separation from the Son’s divinity as well as from His personality. This, however, seems illogical; since, according to the Philosopher (Peri Herm. ii), what can be affirmed can also be negated.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 5]

Whether Abstract Essential Names Can Stand for the Person?

Whether Abstract Essential Names Can Stand for the Person?

Objection 1: It would seem that abstract essential names can stand for the person, so that this proposition is true, "Essence begets essence." For Augustine says (De Trin. vii, i, 2): "The Father and the Son are one Wisdom, because they are one essence; and taken singly Wisdom is from Wisdom, as essence from essence."

Objection 1: It seems that abstract essential names can represent the person, so this statement is true: "Essence begets essence." Augustine says (De Trin. vii, i, 2): "The Father and the Son are one Wisdom because they are one essence; and individually, Wisdom comes from Wisdom, just like essence comes from essence."

Obj. 2: Further, generation or corruption in ourselves implies generation or corruption of what is within us. But the Son is generated. Therefore since the divine essence is in the Son, it seems that the divine essence is generated.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, generation or corruption in us implies generation or corruption of what is within us. But the Son is generated. Therefore, since the divine essence is in the Son, it seems that the divine essence is generated.

Obj. 3: Further, God and the divine essence are the same, as is clear from what is above explained (Q. 3, A. 3). But, as was shown, it is true to say that "God begets God." Therefore this is also true: "Essence begets essence."

Obj. 3: Furthermore, God and the divine essence are identical, as explained earlier (Q. 3, A. 3). As demonstrated, it is accurate to say that "God begets God." Therefore, it is also true to say: "Essence begets essence."

Obj. 4: Further, a predicate can stand for that of which it is predicated. But the Father is the divine essence; therefore essence can stand for the person of the Father. Thus the essence begets.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, a predicate can represent what it describes. But the Father is the divine essence; therefore, essence can represent the person of the Father. Thus, essence creates.

Obj. 5: Further, the essence is "a thing begetting," because the essence is the Father who is begetting. Therefore if the essence is not begetting, the essence will be "a thing begetting," and "not begetting": which cannot be.

Obj. 5: Additionally, the essence is "a thing that begets," because the essence is the Father who is begetting. Therefore, if the essence is not begetting, then the essence would be "a thing that begets" and "not begetting," which is impossible.

Obj. 6: Further, Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20): "The Father is the principle of the whole Godhead." But He is principle only by begetting or spirating. Therefore the Father begets or spirates the Godhead.

Obj. 6: Furthermore, Augustine states (De Trin. iv, 20): "The Father is the source of the entire Godhead." But He is a source only by begetting or spirating. Therefore, the Father begets or spirates the Godhead.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. i, 1): "Nothing begets itself." But if the essence begets the essence, it begets itself only, since nothing exists in God as distinguished from the divine essence. Therefore the essence does not beget essence.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. i, 1): "Nothing creates itself." But if the essence creates essence, it would only create itself since nothing exists in God that is separate from the divine essence. Therefore, the essence does not create essence.

I answer that, Concerning this, the abbot Joachim erred in asserting that as we can say "God begot God," so we can say "Essence begot essence": considering that, by reason of the divine simplicity God is nothing else but the divine essence. In this he was wrong, because if we wish to express ourselves correctly, we must take into account not only the thing which is signified, but also the mode of its signification as above stated (A. 4). Now although "God" is really the same as "Godhead," nevertheless the mode of signification is not in each case the same. For since this word "God" signifies the divine essence in Him that possesses it, from its mode of signification it can of its own nature stand for person. Thus the things which properly belong to the persons, can be predicated of this word, "God," as, for instance, we can say "God is begotten" or is "Begetter," as above explained (A. 4). The word "essence," however, in its mode of signification, cannot stand for Person, because it signifies the essence as an abstract form. Consequently, what properly belongs to the persons whereby they are distinguished from each other, cannot be attributed to the essence. For that would imply distinction in the divine essence, in the same way as there exists distinction in the supposita.

I answer that, Regarding this, Abbot Joachim was mistaken in claiming that just as we can say "God begot God," we can also say "Essence begot essence." This is because, due to divine simplicity, God is nothing more than the divine essence. He was incorrect because if we want to express ourselves accurately, we need to consider not only what is being signified but also how it is being signified, as noted above (A. 4). While "God" and "Godhead" refer to the same thing, the way they signify is not the same in each instance. The term "God" signifies the divine essence in the one who possesses it, and based on this mode of signification, it can refer to a person. Therefore, the attributes that properly belong to the persons can be associated with the term "God," as we can say, for example, "God is begotten" or "God is the Begetter," as previously explained (A. 4). The term "essence," however, in how it signifies, cannot refer to a person because it represents essence as an abstract concept. Therefore, the attributes that properly distinguish the persons from one another cannot be attributed to essence. Doing so would imply a distinction in the divine essence, similar to the distinction present in supposita.

Reply Obj. 1: To express unity of essence and of person, the holy Doctors have sometimes expressed themselves with greater emphasis than the strict propriety of terms allows. Whence instead of enlarging upon such expressions we should rather explain them: thus, for instance, abstract names should be explained by concrete names, or even by personal names; as when we find "essence from essence"; or "wisdom from wisdom"; we should take the sense to be, the Son who is essence and wisdom, is from the Father who is essence and wisdom. Nevertheless, as regards these abstract names a certain order should be observed, forasmuch as what belongs to action is more nearly allied to the persons because actions belong to supposita. So "nature from nature," and "wisdom from wisdom" are less inexact than "essence from essence."

Reply Obj. 1: To express the unity of essence and person, the holy Doctors have sometimes communicated with more emphasis than the precise use of terms allows. Therefore, instead of expanding on these expressions, we should clarify them: for example, abstract terms should be explained with concrete terms or even personal names; as in when we say "essence from essence" or "wisdom from wisdom," we should understand it to mean that the Son, who is essence and wisdom, comes from the Father, who is essence and wisdom. However, when it comes to these abstract terms, a certain order should be maintained because actions are more closely related to the persons since actions belong to supposita. Thus, "nature from nature" and "wisdom from wisdom" are less inaccurate than "essence from essence."

Reply Obj. 2: In creatures the one generated has not the same nature numerically as the generator, but another nature, numerically distinct, which commences to exist in it anew by generation, and ceases to exist by corruption, and so it is generated and corrupted accidentally; whereas God begotten has the same nature numerically as the begetter. So the divine nature in the Son is not begotten either directly or accidentally.

Reply Obj. 2: In creatures, the one that is generated does not have the same numerical nature as the one that generates it, but rather a different nature that comes into existence anew through generation and ceases to exist through corruption, resulting in accidental generation and corruption; whereas the Son of God has the same numerical nature as the Father. Therefore, the divine nature in the Son is not begotten either directly or accidentally.

Reply Obj. 3: Although God and the divine essence are really the same, nevertheless, on account of their different mode of signification, we must speak in a different way about each of them.

Reply Obj. 3: Even though God and the divine essence are truly the same, we still need to talk about each of them differently because they have distinct meanings.

Reply Obj. 4: The divine essence is predicated of the Father by mode of identity by reason of the divine simplicity; yet it does not follow that it can stand for the Father, its mode of signification being different. This objection would hold good as regards things which are predicated of another as the universal of a particular.

Reply Obj. 4: The divine essence is attributed to the Father as a matter of identity due to the divine simplicity; however, this does not mean it can represent the Father, as its way of signifying is different. This objection would apply to things that are attributed to another as the universal of a specific case.

Reply Obj. 5: The difference between substantive and adjectival names consist in this, that the former carry their subject with them, whereas the latter do not, but add the thing signified to the substantive. Whence logicians are wont to say that the substantive is considered in the light of suppositum, whereas the adjective indicates something added to the suppositum. Therefore substantive personal terms can be predicated of the essence, because they are really the same; nor does it follow that a personal property makes a distinct essence; but it belongs to the suppositum implied in the substantive. But notional and personal adjectives cannot be predicated of the essence unless we add some substantive. We cannot say that the "essence is begetting"; yet we can say that the "essence is a thing begetting," or that it is "God begetting," if "thing" and God stand for person, but not if they stand for essence. Consequently there exists no contradiction in saying that "essence is a thing begetting," and "a thing not begetting"; because in the first case "thing" stands for person, and in the second it stands for the essence.

Reply Obj. 5: The difference between substantive and adjectival names lies in the fact that substantive names inherently contain their subject, while adjectival names do not; instead, they add an attribute to the substantive. Logicians often say that the substantive is viewed as a suppositum, whereas the adjective signifies something additional to the suppositum. Therefore, substantive personal terms can describe the essence because they are fundamentally the same; it does not mean that a personal property creates a separate essence, but rather that it is part of the suppositum implied in the substantive. However, notional and personal adjectives cannot be applied to the essence unless we add a substantive. We cannot say "the essence is begetting"; however, we can say "the essence is a thing begetting," or "it is God begetting," if "thing" and God refer to a person, but not if they refer to the essence. Thus, there is no contradiction in saying that "essence is a thing begetting" and "a thing not begetting," because in the first case "thing" refers to a person, while in the second it refers to the essence.

Reply Obj. 6: So far as Godhead is one in several supposita, it agrees in a certain degree with the form of a collective term. So when we say, "the Father is the principle of the whole Godhead," the term Godhead can be taken for all the persons together, inasmuch as it is the principle in all the divine persons. Nor does it follow that He is His own principle; as one of the people may be called the ruler of the people without being ruler of himself. We may also say that He is the principle of the whole Godhead; not as generating or spirating it, but as communicating it by generation and spiration. _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: In terms of the unity of the divine nature among several entities, it somewhat resembles a collective term. So when we say, "the Father is the source of the entire Godhead," the term Godhead refers to all the persons together, since it is the source for all the divine persons. It doesn't mean that He is His own source; just as one person can be called the leader of a group without leading themselves. We can also say that He is the source of the entire Godhead; not by creating or emanating it, but by sharing it through creation and emanation.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 6]

Whether the Persons Can Be Predicated of the Essential Terms?

Whether the people can be applied to the essential terms?

Objection 1: It would seem that the persons cannot be predicated of the concrete essential names; so that we can say for instance, "God is three persons"; or "God is the Trinity." For it is false to say, "man is every man," because it cannot be verified as regards any particular subject. For neither Socrates, nor Plato, nor anyone else is every man. In the same way this proposition, "God is the Trinity," cannot be verified of any one of the supposita of the divine nature. For the Father is not the Trinity; nor is the Son; nor is the Holy Ghost. So to say, "God is the Trinity," is false.

Objection 1: It seems that we can't apply the term "persons" to specific essential names; for example, we can't say, "God is three persons" or "God is the Trinity." It's incorrect to say, "man is every man," because that can't be proven for any specific individual. Neither Socrates, nor Plato, nor anyone else qualifies as every man. Similarly, the statement "God is the Trinity" cannot be true for any of the aspects of the divine nature. The Father is not the Trinity; the Son is not the Trinity; the Holy Ghost is not the Trinity. Therefore, saying "God is the Trinity" is false.

Obj. 2: Further, the lower is not predicated of the higher except by accidental predication; as when I say, "animal is man"; for it is accidental to animal to be man. But this name "God" as regards the three persons is as a general term to inferior terms, as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. iii, 4). Therefore it seems that the names of the persons cannot be predicated of this name "God," except in an accidental sense.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the lower cannot be said to belong to the higher unless it's through accidental predication; for example, when I say, "animal is man"; because it is incidental for animal to be man. However, this name "God" in relation to the three persons acts as a general term to specific terms, as Damascene mentions (De Fide Orth. iii, 4). Therefore, it appears that the names of the persons cannot be applied to this name "God," except in an accidental way.

On the contrary, Augustine says, in his sermon on Faith [*Serm. ii, in coena Domini], "We believe that one God is one divinely named Trinity."

On the contrary, Augustine says, in his sermon on Faith [*Serm. ii, in coena Domini], "We believe that one God is one divinely named Trinity."

I answer that, As above explained (A. 5), although adjectival terms, whether personal or notional, cannot be predicated of the essence, nevertheless substantive terms can be so predicated, owing to the real identity of essence and person. The divine essence is not only really the same as one person, but it is really the same as the three persons. Whence, one person, and two, and three, can be predicated of the essence as if we were to say, "The essence is the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Ghost." And because this word "God" can of itself stand for the essence, as above explained (A. 4, ad 3), hence, as it is true to say, "The essence is the three persons"; so likewise it is true to say, "God is the three persons."

I respond that, as explained earlier (A. 5), while adjectival terms, whether they refer to people or concepts, can't be applied to the essence, substantive terms can be, due to the real identity of essence and person. The divine essence is not only truly the same as one person, but it is also truly the same as all three persons. Therefore, we can say that one person, two persons, and three persons can be applied to the essence, as if to say, "The essence is the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit." And since the term "God" can directly refer to the essence, as explained above (A. 4, ad 3), it is just as accurate to say, "The essence is the three persons"; likewise, it is accurate to say, "God is the three persons."

Reply Obj. 1: As above explained this term "man" can of itself stand for person, whereas an adjunct is required for it to stand for the universal human nature. So it is false to say, "Man is every man"; because it cannot be verified of any particular human subject. On the contrary, this word "God" can of itself be taken for the divine essence. So, although to say of any of the supposita of the divine nature, "God is the Trinity," is untrue, nevertheless it is true of the divine essence. This was denied by Porretanus because he did not take note of this distinction.

Reply Obj. 1: As explained above, the term "man" can refer to a person on its own, but it needs an additional term to refer to universal human nature. Therefore, it’s incorrect to say, "Man is every man," because it can't be applied to any specific individual. In contrast, the word "God" can inherently refer to the divine essence. So, even though saying of any specific beings of the divine nature, "God is the Trinity," is incorrect, it is accurate when referring to the divine essence. Porretanus denied this because he didn't recognize this distinction.

Reply Obj. 2: When we say, "God," or "the divine essence is the Father," the predication is one of identity, and not of the lower in regard to a higher species: because in God there is no universal and singular. Hence, as this proposition, "The Father is God" is of itself true, so this proposition "God is the Father" is true of itself, and by no means accidentally. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: When we say, "God," or "the divine essence is the Father," we are stating an identity, not ranking one as lower compared to a higher category. This is because in God, there is no distinction between universal and singular. Therefore, just as the statement "The Father is God" is true in itself, so too is the statement "God is the Father," and it is not true merely by coincidence.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 7]

Whether the Essential Names Should Be Appropriated to the Persons?

Whether the essential names should be assigned to the individuals?

Objection 1: It would seem that the essential names should not be appropriated to the persons. For whatever might verge on error in faith should be avoided in the treatment of divine things; for, as Jerome says, "careless words involve risk of heresy" [*In substance Ep. lvii.]. But to appropriate to any one person the names which are common to the three persons, may verge on error in faith; for it may be supposed either that such belong only to the person to whom they are appropriated or that they belong to Him in a fuller degree than to the others. Therefore the essential attributes should not be appropriated to the persons.

Objection 1: It seems that essential names shouldn't be assigned to the individuals. Anything that could lead to mistaken beliefs should be avoided when discussing divine matters; as Jerome said, "careless words can lead to heresy" [*In substance Ep. lvii.]. However, assigning names that are shared by all three persons to just one may create potential errors in faith; it might suggest that these names belong exclusively to that one person or that they belong to Him more completely than to the others. Therefore, essential attributes shouldn't be assigned to the individuals.

Obj. 2: Further, the essential attributes expressed in the abstract signify by mode of form. But one person is not as a form to another; since a form is not distinguished in subject from that of which it is the form. Therefore the essential attributes, especially when expressed in the abstract, are not to be appropriated to the persons.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the fundamental qualities presented in the abstract represent a particular form. However, one person is not merely a form in relation to another; since a form cannot be identified separately from what it forms. Thus, the essential attributes, particularly when articulated in the abstract, should not be assigned to the individuals.

Obj. 3: Further, property is prior to the appropriated, for property is included in the idea of the appropriated. But the essential attributes, in our way of understanding, are prior to the persons; as what is common is prior to what is proper. Therefore the essential attributes are not to be appropriated to the persons.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, property comes before appropriation, because property is part of the idea of appropriation. But in our understanding, the essential attributes come before the individuals; what is common is prior to what is specific. Thus, the essential attributes shouldn't be assigned to individuals.

On the contrary, the Apostle says: "Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God" (1 Cor. 1:24).

On the contrary, the Apostle says: "Christ is the power of God and the wisdom of God" (1 Cor. 1:24).

I answer that, For the manifestation of our faith it is fitting that the essential attributes should be appropriated to the persons. For although the trinity of persons cannot be proved by demonstration, as was above expounded (Q. 32, A. 1), nevertheless it is fitting that it be declared by things which are more known to us. Now the essential attributes of God are more clear to us from the standpoint of reason than the personal properties; because we can derive certain knowledge of the essential attributes from creatures which are sources of knowledge to us, such as we cannot obtain regarding the personal properties, as was above explained (Q. 32, A. 1). As, therefore, we make use of the likeness of the trace or image found in creatures for the manifestation of the divine persons, so also in the same manner do we make use of the essential attributes. And such a manifestation of the divine persons by the use of the essential attributes is called "appropriation."

I reply that, to express our faith, it makes sense to assign the essential attributes to the persons. Although we can't demonstrate the Trinity of persons as explained earlier (Q. 32, A. 1), it's appropriate to declare it through things we understand better. The essential attributes of God are clearer to us from a rational perspective than the personal properties because we can gain certain knowledge of the essential attributes from creatures, which provide us with understanding, something we can't achieve regarding the personal properties, as earlier discussed (Q. 32, A. 1). Therefore, just as we use the likeness of a trace or image found in creatures to express the divine persons, we also use the essential attributes in the same way. This way of representing the divine persons through the essential attributes is referred to as "appropriation."

The divine person can be manifested in a twofold manner by the essential attributes; in one way by similitude, and thus the things which belong to the intellect are appropriated to the Son, Who proceeds by way of intellect, as Word. In another way by dissimilitude; as power is appropriated to the Father, as Augustine says, because fathers by reason of old age are sometimes feeble; lest anything of the kind be imagined of God.

The divine being can show itself in two ways through its essential qualities: first, by similarity, where things associated with intellect are linked to the Son, who comes forth as the Word. Second, by dissimilarity, as power is associated with the Father, as Augustine mentions, to avoid the idea that God could be weak like an elderly father.

Reply Obj. 1: The essential attributes are not appropriated to the persons as if they exclusively belonged to them; but in order to make the persons manifest by way of similitude, or dissimilitude, as above explained. So, no error in faith can arise, but rather manifestation of the truth.

Reply Obj. 1: The essential attributes aren't claimed by the individuals as if they solely belonged to them; instead, they are used to reveal the individuals through similarities or differences, as explained above. Therefore, no error in faith can occur, but rather a revealing of the truth.

Reply Obj. 2: If the essential attributes were appropriated to the persons as exclusively belonging to each of them, then it would follow that one person would be as a form as regards another; which Augustine altogether repudiates (De Trin. vi, 2), showing that the Father is wise, not by Wisdom begotten by Him, as though only the Son were Wisdom; so that the Father and the Son together only can be called wise, but not the Father without the Son. But the Son is called the Wisdom of the Father, because He is Wisdom from the Father Who is Wisdom. For each of them is of Himself Wisdom; and both together are one Wisdom. Whence the Father is not wise by the wisdom begotten by Him, but by the wisdom which is His own essence.

Reply Obj. 2: If the essential qualities were assigned to each person as if they solely belonged to them, then it would mean one person serves as a form in relation to another; which Augustine completely rejects (De Trin. vi, 2), explaining that the Father is wise, not because of a Wisdom that He created, as if only the Son were Wisdom; so both the Father and the Son together can be called wise, but not the Father without the Son. However, the Son is referred to as the Wisdom of the Father because He is Wisdom from the Father who is Wisdom. Each of them possesses Wisdom in their own right; and together they are one Wisdom. Thus, the Father is not wise by the wisdom that He generated, but by the wisdom that is His own essence.

Reply Obj. 3: Although the essential attribute is in its proper concept prior to person, according to our way of understanding; nevertheless, so far as it is appropriated, there is nothing to prevent the personal property from being prior to that which is appropriated. Thus color is posterior to body considered as body, but is naturally prior to "white body," considered as white. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: While the essential characteristic exists within its proper concept before the person, according to how we understand it, nothing stops the personal property from coming before what is appropriated. So, color comes after the body when viewed as a body, but it naturally comes before "white body" when seen as white.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 39, Art. 8]

Whether the Essential Attributes Are Appropriated to the Persons in a Fitting Manner by the Holy Doctors?

Whether the Essential Attributes Are Appropriated to the Persons in a Fitting Manner by the Holy Doctors?

Objection 1: It would seem that the essential attributes are appropriated to the persons unfittingly by the holy doctors. For Hilary says (De Trin. ii): "Eternity is in the Father, the species in the Image; and use is in the Gift." In which words he designates three names proper to the persons: the name of the "Father," the name "Image" proper to the Son (Q. 35, A. 2), and the name "Bounty" or "Gift," which is proper to the Holy Ghost (Q. 38, A. 2). He also designates three appropriated terms. For he appropriates "eternity" to the Father, species to the Son, and "use" to the Holy Ghost. This he does apparently without reason. For "eternity" imports duration of existence; species, the principle of existence; and 'use' belongs to the operation. But essence and operation are not found to be appropriated to any person. Therefore the above terms are not fittingly appropriated to the persons.

Objection 1: It seems that the essential attributes are assigned to the persons inappropriately by the holy doctors. Hilary states (De Trin. ii): "Eternity is in the Father, the species in the Image; and use is in the Gift." In these words, he identifies three names specific to the persons: the name "Father," the name "Image" specific to the Son (Q. 35, A. 2), and the name "Bounty" or "Gift," which is specific to the Holy Spirit (Q. 38, A. 2). He also identifies three associated terms. He attributes "eternity" to the Father, species to the Son, and "use" to the Holy Spirit. He appears to do this without justification. "Eternity" implies a duration of existence; species refers to the principle of existence; and "use" pertains to action. However, essence and action are not shown to be assigned to any person. Therefore, the terms mentioned above are not properly assigned to the persons.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. i, 5): "Unity is in the Father, equality in the Son, and in the Holy Ghost is the concord of equality and unity." This does not, however, seem fitting; because one person does not receive formal denomination from what is appropriated to another. For the Father is not wise by the wisdom begotten, as above explained (Q. 37, A. 2, ad 1). But, as he subjoins, "All these three are one by the Father; all are equal by the Son, and all united by the Holy Ghost." The above, therefore, are not fittingly appropriated to the Persons.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (De Doctr. Christ. i, 5): "Unity is found in the Father, equality in the Son, and in the Holy Spirit is the harmony of equality and unity." However, this doesn't seem appropriate; because one person shouldn't gain their identity from what belongs to another. The Father isn't wise due to the wisdom he begets, as previously explained (Q. 37, A. 2, ad 1). Yet, as he adds, "All three are one through the Father; all are equal through the Son, and all are united through the Holy Spirit." Therefore, the attributes mentioned aren't appropriately assigned to the Persons.

Obj. 3: Further, according to Augustine, to the Father is attributed "power," to the Son "wisdom," to the Holy Ghost "goodness." Nor does this seem fitting; for "strength" is part of power, whereas strength is found to be appropriated to the Son, according to the text, "Christ the strength [*Douay: power] of God" (1 Cor. 1:24). So it is likewise appropriated to the Holy Ghost, according to the words, "strength [*Douay: virtue] came out from Him and healed all" (Luke 6:19). Therefore power should not be appropriated to the Father.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Augustine attributes "power" to the Father, "wisdom" to the Son, and "goodness" to the Holy Spirit. However, this seems inappropriate; "strength" is a part of power, yet strength is designated to the Son, as indicated in the passage, "Christ the strength of God" (1 Cor. 1:24). Similarly, it is also attributed to the Holy Spirit, as seen in the verse, "strength came out from Him and healed everyone" (Luke 6:19). Therefore, power should not be assigned solely to the Father.

Obj. 4: Likewise Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 10): "What the Apostle says, "From Him, and by Him, and in Him," is not to be taken in a confused sense." And (Contra Maxim. ii) "'from Him' refers to the Father, 'by Him' to the Son, 'in Him' to the Holy Ghost." This, however, seems to be incorrectly said; for the words "in Him" seem to imply the relation of final cause, which is first among the causes. Therefore this relation of cause should be appropriated to the Father, Who is "the principle from no principle."

Obj. 4: Similarly, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 10): "What the Apostle means when he says, 'From Him, and by Him, and in Him,' shouldn't be taken in a confusing way." And (Contra Maxim. ii) "'from Him' points to the Father, 'by Him' to the Son, 'in Him' to the Holy Spirit." However, this seems to be incorrect; because the phrase "in Him" suggests a final cause relationship, which is the primary among causes. So this causal relationship should be attributed to the Father, Who is "the principle from no principle."

Obj. 5: Likewise, Truth is appropriated to the Son, according to John 14:6, "I am the Way, the Truth, and the Life"; and likewise "the book of life," according to Ps. 39:9, "In the beginning of the book it is written of Me," where a gloss observes, "that is, with the Father Who is My head," also this word "Who is"; because on the text of Isaias, "Behold I go to the Gentiles" (65:1), a gloss adds, "The Son speaks Who said to Moses, I am Who am." These appear to belong to the Son, and are not appropriated. For "truth," according to Augustine (De Vera Relig. 36), "is the supreme similitude of the principle without any dissimilitude." So it seems that it properly belongs to the Son, Who has a principle. Also the "book of life" seems proper to the Son, as signifying "a thing from another"; for every book is written by someone. This also, "Who is," appears to be proper to the Son; because if when it was said to Moses, "I am Who am," the Trinity spoke, then Moses could have said, "He Who is Father, Son, and Holy Ghost, and the Holy Ghost sent me to you," so also he could have said further, "He Who is the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Ghost sent me to you," pointing out a certain person. This, however, is false; because no person is Father, Son and Holy Ghost. Therefore it cannot be common to the Trinity, but is proper to the Son.

Obj. 5: Similarly, Truth is attributed to the Son, according to John 14:6, "I am the Way, the Truth, and the Life"; and also "the book of life," as stated in Ps. 39:9, "In the beginning of the book it is written of Me," where a note adds, "that is, with the Father who is My head." This phrase "who is" is significant; in reference to the text of Isaiah, "Behold I go to the Gentiles" (65:1), an interpretation remarks, "The Son speaks who told Moses, I am Who am." These concepts seem to pertain to the Son and are not shared. According to Augustine (De Vera Relig. 36), "truth" is "the ultimate likeness of the principle without any difference." Thus, it appears to rightfully belong to the Son, who has a principle. Additionally, the "book of life" seems to be specific to the Son, indicating "something from another"; since every book is written by someone. The phrase "who is" also seems specific to the Son; because if when it was said to Moses, "I am Who am," the Trinity was speaking, then Moses could have said, "He who is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, and the Holy Spirit sent me to you," and he could have said further, "He who is the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit sent me to you," identifying a particular person. However, this is not accurate; because no person is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Therefore, it cannot be common to the Trinity, but is specific to the Son.

I answer that, Our intellect, which is led to the knowledge of God from creatures, must consider God according to the mode derived from creatures. In considering any creature four points present themselves to us in due order. Firstly, the thing itself taken absolutely is considered as a being. Secondly, it is considered as one. Thirdly, its intrinsic power of operation and causality is considered. The fourth point of consideration embraces its relation to its effects. Hence this fourfold consideration comes to our mind in reference to God.

I respond that, our understanding, which develops knowledge of God through the observation of creatures, must view God based on what we learn from those creatures. When we think about any creature, we can break it down into four key aspects in order. First, we consider the creature itself as a being. Second, we see it as one. Third, we think about its inherent ability to operate and cause things to happen. The fourth aspect looks at how it relates to its effects. Therefore, this four-part analysis also applies when we consider God.

According to the first point of consideration, whereby we consider God absolutely in His being, the appropriation mentioned by Hilary applies, according to which "eternity" is appropriated to the Father, species to the Son, "use" to the Holy Ghost. For "eternity" as meaning a "being" without a principle, has a likeness to the property of the Father, Who is "a principle without a principle." Species or beauty has a likeness to the property of the Son. For beauty includes three conditions, "integrity" or "perfection," since those things which are impaired are by the very fact ugly; due "proportion" or "harmony"; and lastly, "brightness" or "clarity," whence things are called beautiful which have a bright color.

According to the first point of consideration, where we look at God in His essence, the appropriation mentioned by Hilary applies, stating that "eternity" is associated with the Father, "species" with the Son, and "use" with the Holy Spirit. "Eternity," understood as a "being" without a principle, aligns with the Father’s property, who is "a principle without a principle." "Species" or beauty relates to the Son’s property. Beauty encompasses three conditions: "integrity" or "perfection," since things that are flawed are inherently ugly; "proportion" or "harmony"; and finally, "brightness" or "clarity," which is why things with bright colors are considered beautiful.

The first of these has a likeness to the property of the Son, inasmuch as He as Son has in Himself truly and perfectly the nature of the Father. To insinuate this, Augustine says in his explanation (De Trin. vi, 10): "Where—that is, in the Son—there is supreme and primal life," etc.

The first of these resembles the nature of the Son, since He, as the Son, truly and perfectly embodies the nature of the Father. To illustrate this, Augustine mentions in his explanation (De Trin. vi, 10): "Where—that is, in the Son—there is supreme and primal life," etc.

The second agrees with the Son's property, inasmuch as He is the express Image of the Father. Hence we see that an image is said to be beautiful, if it perfectly represents even an ugly thing. This is indicated by Augustine when he says (De Trin. vi, 10), "Where there exists wondrous proportion and primal equality," etc.

The second aligns with the Son's nature because He is the perfect representation of the Father. Therefore, we can say that an image is considered beautiful if it accurately depicts even something unattractive. Augustine points this out when he says (De Trin. vi, 10), "Where there exists wondrous proportion and primal equality," etc.

The third agrees with the property of the Son, as the Word, which is the light and splendor of the intellect, as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. iii, 3). Augustine alludes to the same when he says (De Trin. vi, 10): "As the perfect Word, not wanting in anything, and, so to speak, the art of the omnipotent God," etc.

The third agrees with the nature of the Son, seen as the Word, which is the light and brilliance of the mind, as Damascene mentions (De Fide Orth. iii, 3). Augustine references this when he states (De Trin. vi, 10): "As the complete Word, lacking nothing, and, in a sense, the expression of the all-powerful God," etc.

"Use" has a likeness to the property of the Holy Ghost; provided the "use" be taken in a wide sense, as including also the sense of "to enjoy"; according as "to use" is to employ something at the beck of the will, and "to enjoy" means to use joyfully, as Augustine says (De Trin. x, 11). So "use," whereby the Father and the Son enjoy each other, agrees with the property of the Holy Ghost, as Love. This is what Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 10): "That love, that delectation, that felicity or beatitude, is called use by him" (Hilary). But the "use" by which we enjoy God, is likened to the property of the Holy Ghost as the Gift; and Augustine points to this when he says (De Trin. vi, 10): "In the Trinity, the Holy Ghost, the sweetness of the Begettor and the Begotten, pours out upon us mere creatures His immense bounty and wealth." Thus it is clear how "eternity," species, and "use" are attributed or appropriated to the persons, but not essence or operation; because, being common, there is nothing in their concept to liken them to the properties of the Persons.

"Use" is similar to the characteristic of the Holy Spirit, provided that the term "use" is understood broadly to also mean "to enjoy." To "use" something means to employ it according to one's will, while "to enjoy" means to use it with joy, as Augustine mentions (De Trin. x, 11). Thus, "use," through which the Father and the Son cherish one another, aligns with the Holy Spirit's role as Love. Augustine states (De Trin. vi, 10): "That love, that delight, that happiness or bliss, is called use by him" (Hilary). However, the "use" by which we enjoy God is compared to the Holy Spirit's role as the Gift; Augustine highlights this when he says (De Trin. vi, 10): "In the Trinity, the Holy Spirit, the sweetness of the Father and the Son, bestows upon us mere creatures His immense bounty and wealth." Thus, it is evident how "eternity," species, and "use" are attributed to the persons, but not their essence or actions, since being common, they lack a distinct concept that aligns them with the characteristics of the Persons.

The second consideration of God regards Him as "one." In that view Augustine (De Doctr. Christ. i, 5) appropriates "unity" to the Father, "equality" to the Son, "concord" or "union" to the Holy Ghost. It is manifest that these three imply unity, but in different ways. For "unity" is said absolutely, as it does not presuppose anything else; and for this reason it is appropriated to the Father, to Whom any other person is not presupposed since He is the "principle without principle." "Equality" implies unity as regards another; for that is equal which has the same quantity as another. So equality is appropriated to the Son, Who is the "principle from a principle." "Union" implies the unity of two; and is therefore appropriated to the Holy Ghost, inasmuch as He proceeds from two. And from this we can understand what Augustine means when he says (De Doctr. Christ. i, 5) that "The Three are one, by reason of the Father; They are equal by reason of the Son; and are united by reason of the Holy Ghost." For it is clear that we trace a thing back to that in which we find it first: just as in this lower world we attribute life to the vegetative soul, because therein we find the first trace of life. Now "unity" is perceived at once in the person of the Father, even if by an impossible hypothesis, the other persons were removed. So the other persons derive their unity from the Father. But if the other persons be removed, we do not find equality in the Father, but we find it as soon as we suppose the Son. So, all are equal by reason of the Son, not as if the Son were the principle of equality in the Father, but that, without the Son equal to the Father, the Father could not be called equal; because His equality is considered firstly in regard to the Son: for that the Holy Ghost is equal to the Father, is also from the Son. Likewise, if the Holy Ghost, Who is the union of the two, be excluded, we cannot understand the oneness of the union between the Father and the Son. So all are connected by reason of the Holy Ghost; because given the Holy Ghost, we find whence the Father and the Son are said to be united.

The second aspect of God considers Him as "one." In this perspective, Augustine (De Doctr. Christ. i, 5) assigns "unity" to the Father, "equality" to the Son, and "concord" or "union" to the Holy Spirit. It is clear that these three imply unity, but in different ways. "Unity" is used in an absolute sense, as it does not depend on anything else; for this reason, it is assigned to the Father, to whom no other person is assumed since He is the "principle without principle." "Equality" suggests unity in relation to another; something is equal if it has the same quantity as another. Thus, equality is assigned to the Son, who is the "principle from a principle." "Union" indicates the unity of two, and is therefore assigned to the Holy Spirit, since He comes from both. From this, we can understand what Augustine means when he states (De Doctr. Christ. i, 5) that "The Three are one because of the Father; They are equal because of the Son; and They are united because of the Holy Spirit." It is clear that we trace something back to what we find first: just as in this physical world we attribute life to the vegetative soul because it is where we first observe life. "Unity" is immediately perceived in the person of the Father, even if, hypothetically, the other persons were absent. Hence, the other persons derive their unity from the Father. However, if the other persons are absent, we do not perceive equality in the Father until we consider the Son. Thus, all are equal because of the Son, not as if the Son were the source of equality in the Father, but because, without the Son being equal to the Father, the Father could not be called equal; His equality is first seen in relation to the Son, and the Holy Spirit's equality with the Father also comes from the Son. Similarly, if the Holy Spirit, who represents the union of the two, is excluded, we cannot understand the oneness of the union between the Father and the Son. Therefore, all are connected because of the Holy Spirit; because with the Holy Spirit, we find the basis on which the Father and the Son are said to be united.

According to the third consideration, which brings before us the adequate power of God in the sphere of causality, there is said to be a third kind of appropriation, of "power," "wisdom," and "goodness." This kind of appropriation is made both by reason of similitude as regards what exists in the divine persons, and by reason of dissimilitude if we consider what is in creatures. For "power" has the nature of a principle, and so it has a likeness to the heavenly Father, Who is the principle of the whole Godhead. But in an earthly father it is wanting sometimes by reason of old age. "Wisdom" has likeness to the heavenly Son, as the Word, for a word is nothing but the concept of wisdom. In an earthly son this is sometimes absent by reason of lack of years. "Goodness," as the nature and object of love, has likeness to the Holy Ghost; but seems repugnant to the earthly spirit, which often implies a certain violent impulse, according to Isa. 25:4: "The spirit of the strong is as a blast beating on the wall." "Strength" is appropriated to the Son and to the Holy Ghost, not as denoting the power itself of a thing, but as sometimes used to express that which proceeds from power; for instance, we say that the strong work done by an agent is its strength.

According to the third consideration, which highlights God’s sufficient power in the realm of causality, there is a third type of appropriation related to "power," "wisdom," and "goodness." This appropriation is made because of similarities in what exists in the divine persons and because of differences when we look at creatures. "Power" resembles the heavenly Father, who is the source of the entire Godhead, but may be lacking in an earthly father due to old age. "Wisdom" resembles the heavenly Son, as the Word, since a word is essentially a reflection of wisdom. However, this can be absent in an earthly son due to a lack of experience. "Goodness," which embodies the nature and aim of love, aligns with the Holy Spirit; however, it seems at odds with the earthly spirit, which can often suggest a certain violent impulse, as mentioned in Isa. 25:4: "The spirit of the strong is like a blast beating on the wall." "Strength" is attributed to the Son and the Holy Spirit, not as indicating the inherent power of something, but as sometimes used to describe what comes from power; for example, we say that the strong work performed by an agent is its strength.

According to the fourth consideration, i.e. God's relation to His effects, there arise[s] appropriation of the expression "from Whom, by Whom, and in Whom." For this preposition "from" [ex] sometimes implies a certain relation of the material cause; which has no place in God; and sometimes it expresses the relation of the efficient cause, which can be applied to God by reason of His active power; hence it is appropriated to the Father in the same way as power. The preposition "by" [per] sometimes designates an intermediate cause; thus we may say that a smith works "by" a hammer. Hence the word "by" is not always appropriated to the Son, but belongs to the Son properly and strictly, according to the text, "All things were made by Him" (John 1:3); not that the Son is an instrument, but as "the principle from a principle." Sometimes it designates the habitude of a form "by" which an agent works; thus we say that an artificer works by his art. Hence, as wisdom and art are appropriated to the Son, so also is the expression "by Whom." The preposition "in" strictly denotes the habitude of one containing. Now, God contains things in two ways: in one way by their similitudes; thus things are said to be in God, as existing in His knowledge. In this sense the expression "in Him" should be appropriated to the Son. In another sense things are contained in God forasmuch as He in His goodness preserves and governs them, by guiding them to a fitting end; and in this sense the expression "in Him" is appropriated to the Holy Ghost, as likewise is "goodness." Nor need the habitude of the final cause (though the first of causes) be appropriated to the Father, Who is "the principle without a principle": because the divine persons, of Whom the Father is the principle, do not proceed from Him as towards an end, since each of Them is the last end; but They proceed by a natural procession, which seems more to belong to the nature of a natural power.

According to the fourth consideration, which is God's relationship to His effects, we see the appropriation of the expression "from Whom, by Whom, and in Whom." The preposition "from" sometimes suggests a relationship of the material cause, which doesn't apply to God; other times, it indicates the relationship of the efficient cause, which relates to God due to His active power; thus, it is associated with the Father similarly as power. The preposition "by" sometimes refers to an intermediate cause; for example, a smith works "by" a hammer. Therefore, "by" isn't only associated with the Son but is properly and strictly related to the Son, as indicated in the text, "All things were made by Him" (John 1:3); this does not mean the Son is an instrument, but rather "the principle from a principle." It can also signify the manner of a form "by" which an agent operates; for example, we say an artist works by his art. As wisdom and art are associated with the Son, so too is the expression "by Whom." The preposition "in" signifies the relationship of one containing. God contains things in two ways: in one way, by their similarities; thus, things are said to be in God, as existing in His knowledge. In this sense, the expression "in Him" should be attributed to the Son. In another way, things are contained in God because He, in His goodness, preserves and governs them, guiding them to an appropriate end; and in this sense, the expression "in Him" is associated with the Holy Ghost, just as "goodness" is. The relationship of the final cause, although it is the first of causes, does not need to be attributed to the Father, who is "the principle without a principle"; because the divine persons, of whom the Father is the principle, do not proceed from Him toward an end, since each of Them is the ultimate end; rather, They proceed through a natural procession, which seems more aligned with the nature of natural power.

Regarding the other points of inquiry, we can say that since "truth" belongs to the intellect, as stated above (Q. 16, A. 1), it is appropriated to the Son, without, however, being a property of His. For truth can be considered as existing in the thought or in the thing itself. Hence, as intellect and thing in their essential meaning, are referred to the essence, and not to the persons, so the same is to be said of truth. The definition quoted from Augustine belongs to truth as appropriated to the Son. The "book of life" directly means knowledge but indirectly it means life. For, as above explained (Q. 24, A. 1), it is God's knowledge regarding those who are to possess eternal life. Consequently, it is appropriated to the Son; although life is appropriated to the Holy Ghost, as implying a certain kind of interior movement, agreeing in that sense with the property of the Holy Ghost as Love. To be written by another is not of the essence of a book considered as such; but this belongs to it only as a work produced. So this does not imply origin; nor is it personal, but an appropriation to a person. The expression "Who is" is appropriated to the person of the Son, not by reason of itself, but by reason of an adjunct, inasmuch as, in God's word to Moses, was prefigured the delivery of the human race accomplished by the Son. Yet, forasmuch as the word "Who" is taken in a relative sense, it may sometimes relate to the person of the Son; and in that sense it would be taken personally; as, for instance, were we to say, "The Son is the begotten 'Who is,'" inasmuch as "God begotten is personal." But taken indefinitely, it is an essential term. And although the pronoun "this" [iste] seems grammatically to point to a particular person, nevertheless everything that we can point to can be grammatically treated as a person, although in its own nature it is not a person; as we may say, "this stone," and "this ass." So, speaking in a grammatical sense, so far as the word "God" signifies and stands for the divine essence, the latter may be designated by the pronoun "this," according to Ex. 15:2: "This is my God, and I will glorify Him." _______________________

Regarding the other points of inquiry, we can say that since "truth" belongs to the intellect, as previously mentioned (Q. 16, A. 1), it is associated with the Son, but it is not a characteristic of His. Truth can be thought of as existing either in thought or in the thing itself. Therefore, just as intellect and thing refer to essence and not to persons, the same applies to truth. The definition quoted from Augustine pertains to truth as associated with the Son. The "book of life" directly refers to knowledge, but indirectly it signifies life. As explained earlier (Q. 24, A. 1), it is God's knowledge of those who are to receive eternal life. Consequently, it is assigned to the Son; while life is attributed to the Holy Spirit, indicating a type of inner movement, which corresponds with the Holy Spirit's nature as Love. Being written by another is not essential to a book as such; rather, it belongs to it only as a produced work. This does not imply origin; nor is it personal, but rather an assignment to a person. The phrase "Who is" is designated for the person of the Son, not because of itself, but due to an additional context, as in God's word to Moses, which foreshadowed the redemption of humanity accomplished by the Son. However, since the word "Who" is used relatively, it may sometimes refer to the person of the Son, and in that case, it would be understood personally; for example, if we were to say, "The Son is the begotten 'Who is,'" since "God begotten" is personal. But taken in a general sense, it is an essential term. Although the pronoun "this" [iste] seems to specifically point to a person, everything we can reference can be treated grammatically as a person, even if it is not one by nature; for instance, we can say, "this stone," and "this donkey." Therefore, speaking grammatically, as far as the word "God" signifies and represents the divine essence, it may be referred to by the pronoun "this," according to Ex. 15:2: "This is my God, and I will glorify Him."

QUESTION 40

OF THE PERSONS AS COMPARED TO THE RELATIONS OR PROPERTIES
(In Four Articles)

OF THE PERSONS AS COMPARED TO THE RELATIONS OR PROPERTIES
(In Four Articles)

We now consider the persons in connection with the relations, or properties; and there are four points of inquiry:

We now look at the individuals in relation to the relationships or qualities, and there are four areas to explore:

(1) Whether relation is the same as person?

(1) Is a relation the same as a person?

(2) Whether the relations distinguish and constitute the persons?

(2) Do the relationships define and shape the individuals?

(3) Whether mental abstraction of the relations from the persons leaves the hypostases distinct?

(3) Does the mental separation of the relationships from the individuals keep the hypostases distinct?

(4) Whether the relations, according to our mode of understanding, presuppose the acts of the persons, or contrariwise? _______________________

(4) Do the relationships, based on how we understand them, assume the actions of the individuals, or the other way around? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 40, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 40, Art. 1]

Whether Relation Is the Same As Person?

Whether relation is the same as person?

Objection 1: It would seem that in God relation is not the same as person. For when things are identical, if one is multiplied the others are multiplied. But in one person there are several relations; as in the person of the Father there is paternity and common spiration. Again, one relation exists in two person, as common spiration in the Father and in the Son. Therefore relation is not the same as person.

Objection 1: It seems that in God, relation is not the same as person. When things are identical, if one is multiplied, the others are also multiplied. However, in one person, there are several relations; for example, in the person of the Father, there is paternity and common spiration. Furthermore, one relation exists in two persons, such as common spiration in the Father and the Son. Therefore, relation is not the same as person.

Obj. 2: Further, according to the Philosopher (Phys. iv, text. 24), nothing is contained by itself. But relation is in the person; nor can it be said that this occurs because they are identical, for otherwise relation would be also in the essence. Therefore relation, or property, is not the same as person in God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, as the Philosopher states (Phys. iv, text. 24), nothing exists solely by itself. However, relation exists within the person; it can't be claimed that this happens because they are identical, since that would imply that relation is also part of the essence. Thus, relation or property is not the same as the person in God.

Obj. 3: Further, when several things are identical, what is predicated of one is predicated of the others. But all that is predicated of a Person is not predicated of His property. For we say that the Father begets; but not that the paternity is begetting. Therefore property is not the same as person in God.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, when several things are identical, whatever is said about one is also said about the others. However, not everything that can be said about a Person can be said about His attribute. For we say that the Father begets; but we do not say that being a Father is the act of begetting. Therefore, in God, an attribute is not the same as a person.

On the contrary, in God "what is" and "whereby it is" are the same, according to Boethius (De Hebdom.). But the Father is Father by paternity. In the same way, the other properties are the same as the persons.

On the contrary, in God "what is" and "how it is" are the same, according to Boethius (De Hebdom.). But the Father is Father by paternity. In the same way, the other properties are the same as the persons.

I answer that, Different opinions have been held on this point. Some have said that the properties are not the persons, nor in the persons; and these have thought thus owing to the mode of signification of the relations, which do not indeed signify existence "in" something, but rather existence "towards" something. Whence, they styled the relations "assistant," as above explained (Q. 28, A. 2). But since relation, considered as really existing in God, is the divine essence Itself, and the essence is the same as person, as appears from what was said above (Q. 39, A. 1), relation must necessarily be the same as person.

I respond that, Different viewpoints have been expressed on this issue. Some have argued that the properties are neither the persons nor found within the persons; they believe this because of how the relations are understood, which do not actually indicate existence "in" something, but rather existence "toward" something. Therefore, they referred to the relations as "assistant," as previously explained (Q. 28, A. 2). However, since relation, when considered as truly existing in God, is the divine essence itself, and the essence is identical to person, as discussed earlier (Q. 39, A. 1), relation must necessarily be the same as person.

Others, therefore, considering this identity, said that the properties were indeed the persons; but not "in" the persons; for, they said, there are no properties in God except in our way of speaking, as stated above (Q. 32, A. 2). We must, however, say that there are properties in God; as we have shown (Q. 32, A. 2). These are designated by abstract terms, being forms, as it were, of the persons. So, since the nature of a form requires it to be "in" that of which it is the form, we must say that the properties are in the persons, and yet that they are the persons; as we say that the essence is in God, and yet is God.

Others, therefore, considering this identity, said that the properties were indeed the persons; but not "in" the persons; for they argued that there are no properties in God except in our way of speaking, as stated above (Q. 32, A. 2). We must, however, assert that there are properties in God; as we have shown (Q. 32, A. 2). These are identified by abstract terms, being forms, so to speak, of the persons. Thus, since the nature of a form requires it to be "in" that of which it is the form, we must say that the properties are in the persons, and yet that they are the persons; just as we say that the essence is in God, and yet is God.

Reply Obj. 1: Person and property are really the same, but differ in concept. Consequently, it does not follow that if one is multiplied, the other must also be multiplied. We must, however, consider that in God, by reason of the divine simplicity, a twofold real identity exists as regards what in creatures are distinct. For, since the divine simplicity excludes the composition of matter and form, it follows that in God the abstract is the same as the concrete, as "Godhead" and "God." And as the divine simplicity excludes the composition of subject and accident, it follows that whatever is attributed to God, is His essence Itself; and so, wisdom and power are the same in God, because they are both in the divine essence. According to this twofold identity, property in God is the same as person. For personal properties are the same as the persons because the abstract and the concrete are the same in God; since they are the subsisting persons themselves, as paternity is the Father Himself, and filiation is the Son, and procession is the Holy Ghost. But the non-personal properties are the same as the persons according to the other reason of identity, whereby whatever is attributed to God is His own essence. Thus, common spiration is the same as the person of the Father, and the person of the Son; not that it is one self-subsisting person; but that as there is one essence in the two persons, so also there is one property in the two persons, as above explained (Q. 30, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 1: Person and property are essentially the same, but differ in how we think about them. Therefore, it doesn’t mean that if one increases, the other must also increase. We need to recognize that in God, due to divine simplicity, a dual real identity exists regarding what is distinct in creatures. Because divine simplicity rules out the combination of matter and form, in God, the abstract is the same as the concrete, represented by "Godhead" and "God." Since divine simplicity also rules out the combination of subject and accident, it follows that whatever we attribute to God is part of His essence. Thus, wisdom and power are the same in God because they both exist within the divine essence. According to this dual identity, property in God is equivalent to person. Personal properties are identical to the persons because the abstract and the concrete are the same in God; they are the subsisting persons themselves, with paternity being the Father Himself, filiation being the Son, and procession being the Holy Spirit. Non-personal properties relate to the persons based on a different reason for identity, where whatever is attributed to God is His own essence. Hence, common spiration is the same as the person of the Father and the person of the Son; it is not that it is one self-subsisting person, but that just as there is one essence in the two persons, there is also one property in the two persons, as explained above (Q. 30, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 2: The properties are said to be in the essence, only by mode of identity; but in the persons they exist by mode of identity, not merely in reality, but also in the mode of signification; as the form exists in its subject. Thus the properties determine and distinguish the persons, but not the essence.

Reply Obj. 2: The properties are considered to be part of the essence only in terms of identity; however, in the persons, they exist as identity, not just in reality, but also in the way they signify, similar to how the form exists within its subject. Therefore, the properties define and distinguish the persons, but not the essence.

Reply Obj. 3: Notional participles and verbs signify the notional acts: and acts belong to a suppositum. Now, properties are not designated as supposita, but as forms of supposita. And so their mode of signification is against notional participles and verbs being predicated of the properties. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Notional participles and verbs represent the notional acts, and acts belong to a suppositum. However, properties are not referred to as supposita, but as forms of supposita. Therefore, their way of signifying makes it inappropriate for notional participles and verbs to be applied to the properties.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 40, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 40, Art. 2]

Whether the Persons Are Distinguished by the Relations?

Whether the people are distinguished by their relationships?

Objection 1: It would seem that the persons are not distinguished by the relations. For simple things are distinct by themselves. But the persons are supremely simple. Therefore they are distinguished by themselves, and not by the relation.

Objection 1: It seems that the persons are not distinguished by their relations. Simple things are distinct on their own. But the persons are completely simple. Therefore, they are distinguished by themselves and not by their relations.

Obj. 2: Further, a form is distinguished only in relation to its genus. For white is distinguished from black only by quality. But "hypostasis" signifies an individual in the genus of substance. Therefore the hypostases cannot be distinguished by relations.

Obj. 2: Moreover, a form is only identified in relation to its category. For example, white is differentiated from black solely by quality. However, "hypostasis" refers to an individual within the category of substance. Therefore, the hypostases cannot be differentiated by their relationships.

Obj. 3: Further, what is absolute comes before what is relative. But the distinction of the divine persons is the primary distinction. Therefore the divine persons are not distinguished by the relations.

Obj. 3: Also, what is absolute comes before what is relative. However, the distinction of the divine persons is the main distinction. Therefore, the divine persons are not differentiated by their relationships.

Obj. 4: Further, whatever presupposes distinction cannot be the first principle of distinction. But relation presupposes distinction, which comes into its definition; for a relation is essentially what is towards another. Therefore the first distinctive principle in God cannot be relation.

Obj. 4: Also, anything that requires distinction can't be the first principle of distinction. But relation requires distinction, which is part of its definition; a relation is essentially something that is towards another. Therefore, the first distinctive principle in God can't be relation.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Trin.): "Relation alone multiplies the Trinity of the divine persons."

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Trin.): "Relation alone increases the Trinity of the divine persons."

I answer that, In whatever multitude of things is to be found something common to all, it is necessary to seek out the principle of distinction. So, as the three persons agree in the unity of essence, we must seek to know the principle of distinction whereby they are several. Now, there are two principles of difference between the divine persons, and these are "origin" and "relation." Although these do not really differ, yet they differ in the mode of signification; for "origin" is signified by way of act, as "generation"; and "relation" by way of the form, as "paternity."

I answer that, In whatever group of things there is something common to all, it's essential to find the principle of distinction. Just as the three persons share the unity of essence, we must try to understand the principle of distinction that makes them distinct. There are two principles of difference between the divine persons: "origin" and "relation." Although these don't truly differ, they differ in how they are understood; "origin" is indicated through action, like "generation," while "relation" is indicated through form, like "paternity."

Some, then, considering that relation follows upon act, have said that the divine hypostases are distinguished by origin, so that we may say that the Father is distinguished from the Son, inasmuch as the former begets and the latter is begotten. Further, that the relations, or the properties, make known the distinctions of the hypostases or persons as resulting therefrom; as also in creatures the properties manifest the distinctions of individuals, which distinctions are caused by the material principles.

Some people, then, believing that relationship comes from action, have said that the divine beings are distinguished by their origin, so we can say that the Father is different from the Son since the Father begets while the Son is begotten. Furthermore, the relationships, or characteristics, reveal the distinctions among the beings or persons that arise from this; similarly, in creatures, the characteristics show the differences among individuals, which differences are caused by their material principles.

This opinion, however, cannot stand—for two reasons. Firstly, because, in order that two things be understood as distinct, their distinction must be understood as resulting from something intrinsic to both; thus in things created it results from their matter or their form. Now origin of a thing does not designate anything intrinsic, but means the way from something, or to something; as generation signifies the way to a thing generated, and as proceeding from the generator. Hence it is not possible that what is generated and the generator should be distinguished by generation alone; but in the generator and in the thing generated we must presuppose whatever makes them to be distinguished from each other. In a divine person there is nothing to presuppose but essence, and relation or property. Whence, since the persons agree in essence, it only remains to be said that the persons are distinguished from each other by the relations. Secondly: because the distinction of the divine persons is not to be so understood as if what is common to them all is divided, because the common essence remains undivided; but the distinguishing principles themselves must constitute the things which are distinct. Now the relations or the properties distinguish or constitute the hypostases or persons, inasmuch as they are themselves the subsisting persons; as paternity is the Father, and filiation is the Son, because in God the abstract and the concrete do not differ. But it is against the nature of origin that it should constitute hypostasis or person. For origin taken in an active sense signifies proceeding from a subsisting person, so that it presupposes the latter; while in a passive sense origin, as "nativity," signifies the way to a subsisting person, and as not yet constituting the person.

This opinion, however, cannot hold—for two reasons. First, for two things to be understood as distinct, their distinction must stem from something intrinsic to both; in created things, this results from their matter or their form. The origin of a thing does not indicate anything intrinsic, but refers to the manner of coming from something or leading to something; generation signifies the way to a generated thing, and proceeds from the generator. Therefore, it’s not possible for the generated thing and the generator to be distinguished solely by generation; instead, we must assume whatever allows them to be distinguished from each other in both the generator and the generated thing. In a divine person, there is nothing to assume except essence, and relation or property. Hence, since the persons share the same essence, it only remains to say that the persons are distinguished from each other by their relations. Second, the distinction of the divine persons should not be understood as if what is common to them all is divided since the common essence remains undivided; rather, the distinguishing principles themselves must make the things distinct. The relations or properties distinguish or form the hypostases or persons, as they themselves are the subsisting persons; for instance, paternity is the Father, and filiation is the Son, because in God, the abstract and the concrete do not differ. However, it's against the nature of origin to constitute hypostasis or person. Origin, taken actively, signifies coming from a subsisting person, which presupposes the latter; while passively, origin, as "nativity," signifies the way to a subsisting person and indicates something that does not yet constitute the person.

It is therefore better to say that the persons or hypostases are distinguished rather by relations than by origin. For, although in both ways they are distinguished, nevertheless in our mode of understanding they are distinguished chiefly and firstly by relations; whence this name "Father" signifies not only a property, but also the hypostasis; whereas this term "Begetter" or "Begetting" signifies property only; forasmuch as this name "Father" signifies the relation which is distinctive and constitutive of the hypostasis; and this term "Begetter" or "Begotten" signifies the origin which is not distinctive and constitutive of the hypostasis.

It’s better to say that the people or aspects are distinguished more by their relationships than by their origins. While they can be distinguished in both ways, in our understanding, they are primarily and fundamentally recognized by their relationships. Thus, the term "Father" means not just a characteristic, but also the aspect itself; meanwhile, the terms "Begetter" or "Begetting" refer only to characteristics. The name "Father" indicates the relationship that is unique and essential to the aspect, whereas "Begetter" or "Begotten" refers to the origin, which is not unique or essential to the aspect.

Reply Obj. 1: The persons are the subsisting relations themselves. Hence it is not against the simplicity of the divine persons for them to be distinguished by the relations.

Reply Obj. 1: The persons are the existing relations themselves. Therefore, it does not contradict the simplicity of the divine persons for them to be distinguished by their relations.

Reply Obj. 2: The divine persons are not distinguished as regards being, in which they subsist, nor in anything absolute, but only as regards something relative. Hence relation suffices for their distinction.

Reply Obj. 2: The divine persons aren’t distinguished by their existence, in which they exist, or in any absolute way, but only in terms of something relative. Therefore, their distinction is based solely on their relationships.

Reply Obj. 3: The more prior a distinction is, the nearer it approaches to unity; and so it must be the least possible distinction. So the distinction of the persons must be by that which distinguishes the least possible; and this is by relation.

Reply Obj. 3: The more fundamental a distinction is, the closer it comes to unity; therefore, it must be the least possible distinction. So, the distinction of the persons must be based on what differentiates the least, which is by relation.

Reply Obj. 4: Relation presupposes the distinction of the subjects, when it is an accident; but when the relation is subsistent, it does not presuppose, but brings about distinction. For when it is said that relation is by nature to be towards another, the word "another" signifies the correlative which is not prior, but simultaneous in the order of nature. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Relation assumes that the subjects are distinct when it's an accident; however, when the relation is a substance, it doesn't assume but actually creates distinction. When we say that relation naturally pertains to another, the term "another" refers to the correlative that is not prior but exists at the same time in the order of nature.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 40, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 40, Art. 3]

Whether the Hypostases Remain If the Relations Are Mentally Abstracted from the Persons?

Whether the Hypostases Stay If the Relationships Are Mentally Abstracted from the People?

Objection 1: It would seem that the hypostases remain if the properties or relations are mentally abstracted from the persons. For that to which something is added, may be understood when the addition is taken away; as man is something added to animal which can be understood if rational be taken away. But person is something added to hypostasis; for person is "a hypostasis distinguished by a property of dignity." Therefore, if a personal property be taken away from a person, the hypostasis remains.

Objection 1: It seems that the hypostases still exist if we mentally separate the properties or relationships from the persons. We can understand what something is even when we remove the additions; for example, a man is something added to an animal, which can be understood if we remove the rational aspect. But a person is something added to a hypostasis; a person is "a hypostasis distinguished by a property of dignity." Therefore, if we remove a personal property from a person, the hypostasis still exists.

Obj. 2: Further, that the Father is Father, and that He is someone, are not due to the same reason. For as He is the Father by paternity, supposing He is some one by paternity, it would follow that the Son, in Whom there is not paternity, would not be "someone." So when paternity is mentally abstracted from the Father, He still remains "someone"—that is, a hypostasis. Therefore, if property be removed from person, the hypostasis remains.

Obj. 2: Moreover, the fact that the Father is a Father and that He is a "someone" are not for the same reason. Since He is a Father because of paternity, if we assume that He is a "someone" because of paternity, then it would mean that the Son, who doesn’t have paternity, wouldn’t be considered a "someone." So, when we mentally separate paternity from the Father, He still exists as a "someone"—meaning, a hypostasis. Therefore, if the property is taken away from a person, the hypostasis still exists.

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine says (De Trin. v, 6): "Unbegotten is not the same as Father; for if the Father had not begotten the Son, nothing would prevent Him being called unbegotten." But if He had not begotten the Son, there would be no paternity in Him. Therefore, if paternity be removed, there still remains the hypostasis of the Father as unbegotten.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, Augustine says (De Trin. v, 6): "Unbegotten is not the same as Father; because if the Father had not begotten the Son, there would be nothing stopping Him from being called unbegotten." But if He hadn’t begotten the Son, there would be no fatherhood in Him. Therefore, if fatherhood is removed, the essence of the Father as unbegotten still exists.

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. iv): "The Son has nothing else than birth." But He is Son by "birth." Therefore, if filiation be removed, the Son's hypostasis no more remains; and the same holds as regards the other persons.

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. iv): "The Son has nothing else but birth." But He is the Son by "birth." Therefore, if filiation is taken away, the Son's hypostasis no longer exists; and the same goes for the other persons.

I answer that, Abstraction by the intellect is twofold—when the universal is abstracted from the particular, as animal abstracted from man; and when the form is abstracted from the matter, as the form of a circle is abstracted by the intellect from any sensible matter. The difference between these two abstractions consists in the fact that in the abstraction of the universal from the particular, that from which the abstraction is made does not remain; for when the difference of rationality is removed from man, the man no longer remains in the intellect, but animal alone remains. But in the abstraction of the form from the matter, both the form and the matter remain in the intellect; as, for instance, if we abstract the form of a circle from brass, there remains in our intellect separately the understanding both of a circle, and of brass. Now, although there is no universal nor particular in God, nor form and matter, in reality; nevertheless, as regards the mode of signification there is a certain likeness of these things in God; and thus Damascene says (De Fide Orth. iii, 6) that "substance is common and hypostasis is particular." So, if we speak of the abstraction of the universal from the particular, the common universal essence remains in the intellect if the properties are removed; but not the hypostasis of the Father, which is, as it were, a particular.

I respond that, abstraction by the intellect comes in two forms—when the universal is drawn from the particular, like when we think of 'animal' apart from 'man'; and when the form is separated from the matter, like when the shape of a circle is recognized by the intellect from any physical material. The difference between these two types of abstraction lies in the fact that in the first case, when we abstract the universal from the particular, what we abstract from doesn't stay as it is; for when we remove the characteristic of rationality from a man, the concept of 'man' no longer exists in the intellect, leaving only the concept of 'animal.' However, in the second case, when we abstract the form from the matter, both the form and the matter persist in the intellect; for example, if we take the form of a circle away from brass, we still keep in our intellect both the understanding of a circle and that of brass. Now, even though God doesn't have a universal or particular nature, nor form and matter in reality, there is still some likeness of these concepts in God concerning how we signify them; as Damascene states (De Fide Orth. iii, 6) that "substance is common and hypostasis is particular." So, in discussing the abstraction of the universal from the particular, the common universal essence remains in the intellect if we strip away the properties; but the hypostasis of the Father, which is more like a particular, does not.

But as regards the abstraction of the form from the matter, if the non-personal properties are removed, then the idea of the hypostases and persons remains; as, for instance, if the fact of the Father's being unbegotten or spirating be mentally abstracted from the Father, the Father's hypostasis or person remains.

But when it comes to separating the form from the matter, if you take away the non-personal traits, the concepts of the hypostases and persons still exist. For example, if we mentally separate the fact that the Father is unbegotten or spirating from the Father, the Father's hypostasis or person still remains.

If, however, the personal property be mentally abstracted, the idea of the hypostasis no longer remains. For the personal properties are not to be understood as added to the divine hypostases, as a form is added to a pre-existing subject: but they carry with them their own supposita, inasmuch as they are themselves subsisting persons; thus paternity is the Father Himself. For hypostasis signifies something distinct in God, since hypostasis means an individual substance. So, as relation distinguishes and constitutes the hypostases, as above explained (A. 2), it follows that if the personal relations are mentally abstracted, the hypostases no longer remain. Some, however, think, as above noted, that the divine hypostases are not distinguished by the relations, but only by origin; so that the Father is a hypostasis as not from another, and the Son is a hypostasis as from another by generation. And that the consequent relations which are to be regarded as properties of dignity, constitute the notion of a person, and are thus called "personal properties." Hence, if these relations are mentally abstracted, the hypostasis, but not the persons, remain.

If, however, the personal properties are mentally separated, the concept of the hypostasis no longer exists. The personal properties shouldn't be seen as something added to the divine hypostases, like a form added to an existing subject; instead, they bring their own supposita, since they are themselves existing persons; therefore, paternity is the Father Himself. Hypostasis indicates something distinct in God, as it refers to an individual substance. So, since relation distinguishes and forms the hypostases, as explained above (A. 2), it follows that if the personal relations are mentally separated, the hypostases no longer exist. However, some believe, as noted above, that the divine hypostases are distinguished not by relations but solely by origin; thus, the Father is a hypostasis because He is not from another, and the Son is a hypostasis because He is from another by generation. The resulting relations, which are considered properties of dignity, define the notion of a person and are therefore called "personal properties." Thus, if these relations are mentally separated, the hypostasis remains, but the persons do not.

But this is impossible, for two reasons: first, because the relations distinguish and constitute the hypostases, as shown above (A. 2); secondly, because every hypostasis of a rational nature is a person, as appears from the definition of Boethius (De Duab. Nat.) that, "person is the individual substance of a rational nature." Hence, to have hypostasis and not person, it would be necessary to abstract the rationality from the nature, but not the property from the person.

But this is impossible for two reasons: first, because the relationships define and make up the hypostases, as shown above (A. 2); second, because every hypostasis of a rational nature is a person, according to Boethius's definition (De Duab. Nat.) that "a person is the individual substance of a rational nature." Therefore, to have a hypostasis and not a person, you would need to separate rationality from the nature, but not the property from the person.

Reply Obj. 1: Person does not add to hypostasis a distinguishing property absolutely, but a distinguishing property of dignity, all of which must be taken as the difference. Now, this distinguishing property is one of dignity precisely because it is understood as subsisting in a rational nature. Hence, if the distinguishing property be removed from the person, the hypostasis no longer remains; whereas it would remain were the rationality of the nature removed; for both person and hypostasis are individual substances. Consequently, in God the distinguishing relation belongs essentially to both.

Reply Obj. 1: A person doesn't add a completely unique characteristic to their essence, but rather a distinctive characteristic of dignity, which is what defines the difference. This distinctive characteristic is considered one of dignity because it is seen as existing within a rational nature. Therefore, if this characteristic is taken away from the person, the essence no longer persists; however, it would still exist if the rational aspect of the nature were removed, since both person and essence are individual substances. Thus, in God, this distinguishing relationship is fundamental to both.

Reply Obj. 2: By paternity the Father is not only Father, but is a person, and is "someone," or a hypostasis. It does not follow, however, that the Son is not "someone" or a hypostasis; just as it does not follow that He is not a person.

Reply Obj. 2: Through paternity, the Father is not just a Father, but a person, and is "someone," or a hypostasis. However, it doesn't mean that the Son is not "someone" or a hypostasis; just as it doesn't mean that He isn't a person.

Reply Obj. 3: Augustine does not mean to say that the hypostasis of the Father would remain as unbegotten, if His paternity were removed, as if innascibility constituted and distinguished the hypostasis of the Father; for this would be impossible, since "being unbegotten" says nothing positive and is only a negation, as he himself says. But he speaks in a general sense, forasmuch as not every unbegotten being is the Father. So, if paternity be removed, the hypostasis of the Father does not remain in God, as distinguished from the other persons, but only as distinguished from creatures; as the Jews understand it. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Augustine isn’t saying that the Father’s hypostasis would still be considered unbegotten if we took away His role as Father, as if being unbegotten were what defines and sets the Father apart; that wouldn’t make sense, since "being unbegotten" doesn’t describe anything positive and is just a negation, as he notes. Instead, he’s speaking generally, because not every unbegotten being is the Father. So, if we remove the Fatherhood, the Father’s hypostasis doesn’t remain in God as something separate from the other persons, but only as something distinct from creatures; that’s how the Jews understand it. _______________________

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 40, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 40, Art. 4]

Whether the properties presuppose the notional acts?

Whether the properties assume the conceptual actions?

Objection 1: It would seem that the notional acts are understood before the properties. For the Master of the Sentences says (Sent. i, D, xxvii) that "the Father always is, because He is ever begetting the Son." So it seems that generation precedes paternity in the order of intelligence.

Objection 1: It seems that the concept of acts is understood before the properties. For the Master of the Sentences states (Sent. i, D, xxvii) that "the Father always exists, because He is continually begetting the Son." So it appears that generation comes before paternity in the order of understanding.

Obj. 2: Further, in the order of intelligence every relation presupposes that on which it is founded; as equality presupposes quantity. But paternity is a relation founded on the action of generation. Therefore paternity presupposes generation.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, in the order of intelligence, every relationship depends on what it is based on; for example, equality depends on quantity. However, paternity is a relationship based on the act of generation. Therefore, paternity relies on generation.

Obj. 3: Further, active generation is to paternity as nativity is to filiation. But filiation presupposes nativity; for the Son is so called because He is born. Therefore paternity also presupposes generation.

Obj. 3: Also, active generation relates to paternity the same way that nativity relates to filiation. But filiation requires nativity; the Son is called that because He is born. Therefore, paternity also requires generation.

On the contrary, Generation is the operation of the person of the Father. But paternity constitutes the person of the Father. Therefore in the order of intelligence, paternity is prior to generation.

On the contrary, Generation is the action of the person of the Father. But paternity defines the person of the Father. Therefore, in the realm of understanding, paternity comes before generation.

I answer that, According to the opinion that the properties do not distinguish and constitute the hypostases in God, but only manifest them as already distinct and constituted, we must absolutely say that the relations in our mode of understanding follow upon the notional acts, so that we can say, without qualifying the phrase, that "because He begets, He is the Father." A distinction, however, is needed if we suppose that the relations distinguish and constitute the divine hypostases. For origin has in God an active and passive signification—active, as generation is attributed to the Father, and spiration, taken for the notional act, is attributed to the Father and the Son; passive, as nativity is attributed to the Son, and procession to the Holy Ghost. For, in the order of intelligence, origin, in the passive sense, simply precedes the personal properties of the person proceeding; because origin, as passively understood, signifies the way to a person constituted by the property. Likewise, origin signified actively is prior in the order of intelligence to the non-personal relation of the person originating; as the notional act of spiration precedes, in the order of intelligence, the unnamed relative property common to the Father and the Son. The personal property of the Father can be considered in a twofold sense: firstly, as a relation; and thus again in the order of intelligence it presupposes the notional act, for relation, as such, is founded upon an act: secondly, according as it constitutes the person; and thus the notional act presupposes the relation, as an action presupposes a person acting.

I answer that, According to the view that the properties do not distinguish or constitute the hypostases in God, but only reveal them as already distinct and constituted, we must definitely state that the relations in our way of understanding follow from the notional acts. Therefore, we can say, without any qualifications, that "because He begets, He is the Father." However, a distinction is necessary if we assume that the relations distinguish and constitute the divine hypostases. The concept of origin has both active and passive meanings in God—active, as generation is attributed to the Father, and spiration, understood as the notional act, is attributed to both the Father and the Son; passive, as nativity is attributed to the Son, and procession to the Holy Spirit. In terms of understanding, origin, in the passive sense, simply comes before the personal properties of the person who proceeds; because origin, as passively understood, signifies the way to a person constituted by the property. Similarly, origin in the active sense is prior in the order of understanding to the non-personal relation of the person who originates; as the notional act of spiration precedes, in the order of understanding, the unnamed relative property common to the Father and the Son. The personal property of the Father can be seen in two ways: first, as a relation; and thus again in the order of understanding it presupposes the notional act, since relation, as such, is based on an act: second, as it constitutes the person; and thus the notional act presupposes the relation, as an action presupposes a person who acts.

Reply Obj. 1: When the Master says that "because He begets, He is Father," the term "Father" is taken as meaning relation only, but not as signifying the subsisting person; for then it would be necessary to say conversely that because He is Father He begets.

Reply Obj. 1: When the Master says that "because He begets, He is Father," the term "Father" is understood to mean a relationship only, not to indicate a distinct person; otherwise, it would be necessary to say the opposite: that because He is Father, He begets.

Reply Obj. 2: This objection avails of paternity as a relation, but not as constituting a person.

Reply Obj. 2: This objection relies on paternity as a relationship, but not as defining a person.

Reply Obj. 3: Nativity is the way to the person of the Son; and so, in the order of intelligence, it precedes filiation, even as constituting the person of the Son. But active generation signifies a proceeding from the person of the Father; wherefore it presupposes the personal property of the Father. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Nativity is the path to the person of the Son; therefore, in terms of understanding, it comes before filiation, as it defines the person of the Son. However, active generation refers to a coming forth from the person of the Father; thus, it assumes the personal attribute of the Father.

QUESTION 41

OF THE PERSONS IN REFERENCE TO THE NOTIONAL ACTS
(In Six Articles)

OF THE PEOPLE RELATED TO THE NOTIONAL ACTS
(In Six Articles)

We now consider the persons in reference to the notional acts, concerning which six points of inquiry arise:

We now look at the individuals in relation to the hypothetical actions, which raise six points of inquiry:

(1) Whether the notional acts are to be attributed to the persons?

(1) Should the imagined actions be attributed to the people?

(2) Whether these acts are necessary, or voluntary?

(2) Are these actions necessary or voluntary?

(3) Whether as regards these acts, a person proceeds from nothing or from something?

(3) When it comes to these actions, does a person come from nothing or from something?

(4) Whether in God there exists a power as regards the notional acts?

(4) Does God have power over hypothetical actions?

(5) What this power means?

What does this power mean?

(6) Whether several persons can be the term of one notional act? _______________________

(6) Can multiple people be the subject of a single notional act? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 41, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 41, Art. 1]

Whether the Notional Acts Are to Be Attributed to the Persons?

Whether the Notional Acts Should Be Attributed to the People?

Objection 1: It would seem that the notional acts are not to be attributed to the persons. For Boethius says (De Trin.): "Whatever is predicated of God, of whatever genus it be, becomes the divine substance, except what pertains to the relation." But action is one of the ten genera. Therefore any action attributed to God belongs to His essence, and not to a notion.

Objection 1: It appears that the abstract actions shouldn't be credited to individuals. Boethius states (De Trin.): "Anything that is said of God, regardless of its type, becomes part of the divine substance, except for what relates to the relationship." Since action is one of the ten categories, any action attributed to God is part of His essence, not just a concept.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Trin. v, 4,5) that, "everything which is said of God, is said of Him as regards either His substance, or relation." But whatever belongs to the substance is signified by the essential attributes; and whatever belongs to the relations, by the names of the persons, or by the names of the properties. Therefore, in addition to these, notional acts are not to be attributed to the persons.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (De Trin. v, 4,5) that, "everything that is said about God is said in relation to either His substance or His relations." Whatever pertains to the substance is indicated by the essential attributes, and whatever pertains to the relations is represented by the names of the persons or the names of the properties. Therefore, besides these, notional acts should not be assigned to the persons.

Obj. 3: Further, the nature of action is of itself to cause passion. But we do not place passions in God. Therefore neither are notional acts to be placed in God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the nature of action inherently causes passion. But we do not attribute passions to God. Therefore, neither should we attribute notional acts to God.

On the contrary, Augustine (Fulgentius, De Fide ad Petrum ii) says: "It is a property of the Father to beget the Son." Therefore notional acts are to be placed in God.

On the contrary, Augustine (Fulgentius, De Fide ad Petrum ii) says: "It's a characteristic of the Father to beget the Son." Therefore, we should attribute notional acts to God.

I answer that, In the divine persons distinction is founded on origin. But origin can be properly designated only by certain acts. Wherefore, to signify the order of origin in the divine persons, we must attribute notional acts to the persons.

I answer that, In the divine persons, distinction is based on origin. But origin can only be accurately described through specific actions. Therefore, to express the order of origin in the divine persons, we need to attribute notional actions to the persons.

Reply Obj. 1: Every origin is designated by an act. In God there is a twofold order of origin: one, inasmuch as the creature proceeds from Him, and this is common to the three persons; and so those actions which are attributed to God to designate the proceeding of creatures from Him, belong to His essence. Another order of origin in God regards the procession of person from person; wherefore the acts which designate the order of this origin are called notional; because the notions of the persons are the mutual relations of the persons, as is clear from what was above explained (Q. 32, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 1: Every origin is given a designation through an act. In God, there are two types of origin: one, as the creature comes from Him, which is shared by all three persons; thus, the actions attributed to God that signify the coming of creatures from Him belong to His essence. The other type of origin in God relates to the procession of person from person; therefore, the acts that indicate this order of origin are called notional, because the notions of the persons reflect their mutual relationships, as clarified in the earlier explanation (Q. 32, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 2: The notional acts differ from the relations of the persons only in their mode of signification; and in reality are altogether the same. Whence the Master says that "generation and nativity in other words are paternity and filiation" (Sent. i, D, xxvi). To see this, we must consider that the origin of one thing from another is firstly inferred from movement: for that anything be changed from its disposition by movement evidently arises from some cause. Hence action, in its primary sense, means origin of movement; for, as movement derived from another into a mobile object, is called "passion," so the origin of movement itself as beginning from another and terminating in what is moved, is called "action." Hence, if we take away movement, action implies nothing more than order of origin, in so far as action proceeds from some cause or principle to what is from that principle. Consequently, since in God no movement exists, the personal action of the one producing a person is only the habitude of the principle to the person who is from the principle; which habitudes are the relations, or the notions. Nevertheless we cannot speak of divine and intelligible things except after the manner of sensible things, whence we derive our knowledge, and wherein actions and passions, so far as these imply movement, differ from the relations which result from action and passion, and therefore it was necessary to signify the habitudes of the persons separately after the manner of act, and separately after the manner of relations. Thus it is evident that they are really the same, differing only in their mode of signification.

Reply Obj. 2: The conceptual acts differ from the relationships of the people only in how they are expressed; in reality, they are essentially the same. Hence, the Master states that "generation and nativity are, in other words, paternity and filiation" (Sent. i, D, xxvi). To understand this, we must consider that the origin of one thing from another is primarily inferred from movement: anything changing from its state due to movement clearly comes from some cause. Thus, action, in its basic sense, means the source of movement; just as movement that comes from something else into a movable object is called "passion," the source of movement itself, as it starts from one thing and leads to what is moved, is called "action." Therefore, if we remove movement, action suggests nothing more than the order of origin, as action proceeds from some cause or principle to what arises from that principle. Consequently, since in God there is no movement, the personal action of one who brings forth a person is merely the relationship of the principle to the person coming from that principle; these relationships are the notions or relations. However, we cannot discuss divine and intelligible matters except in terms of material things, from which we derive our knowledge, and where actions and passions, as they imply movement, differ from the relations that result from action and passion. Therefore, it was necessary to express the relationships of the persons in two ways: once in terms of action, and once in terms of relations. Thus, it is clear that they are truly the same, differing only in their mode of expression.

Reply Obj. 3: Action, so far as it means origin of movement, naturally involves passion; but action in that sense is not attributed to God. Whence, passions are attributed to Him only from a grammatical standpoint, and in accordance with our manner of speaking, as we attribute "to beget" with the Father, and to the Son "to be begotten." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Action, in terms of being the source of movement, naturally involves passion; however, this type of action is not ascribed to God. Therefore, passions are only attributed to Him from a grammatical perspective and according to how we express ourselves, just as we say "to beget" concerning the Father, and "to be begotten" in relation to the Son.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 41, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 41, Art. 2]

Whether the Notional Acts Are Voluntary?

Whether the Notional Acts Are Voluntary?

Objection 1: It would seem that the notional acts are voluntary. For Hilary says (De Synod.): "Not by natural necessity was the Father led to beget the Son."

Objection 1: It seems like the notional acts are voluntary. Hilary says (De Synod.): "The Father was not compelled by natural necessity to beget the Son."

Obj. 2: Further, the Apostle says, "He transferred us to the kingdom of the Son of His love" (Col. 1:13). But love belongs to the will. Therefore the Son was begotten of the Father by will.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Apostle says, "He transferred us to the kingdom of the Son of His love" (Col. 1:13). But love is a function of the will. Therefore, the Son was begotten of the Father by will.

Obj. 3: Further, nothing is more voluntary than love. But the Holy Ghost proceeds as Love from the Father and the Son. Therefore He proceeds voluntarily.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, nothing is more voluntary than love. But the Holy Spirit comes forth as Love from the Father and the Son. Therefore, He comes forth willingly.

Obj. 4: Further, the Son proceeds by mode of the intellect, as the Word. But every word proceeds by the will from a speaker. Therefore the Son proceeds from the Father by will, and not by nature.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the Son comes forth through intellect, like the Word. However, every word is produced by the will of the speaker. Therefore, the Son comes from the Father by will, not by nature.

Obj. 5: Further, what is not voluntary is necessary. Therefore if the
Father begot the Son, not by the will, it seems to follow that He
begot Him by necessity; and this is against what Augustine says (Ad
Orosium qu. vii).

Obj. 5: Furthermore, what isn't voluntary is necessary. So, if the
Father generated the Son, not by choice, it seems to imply that He
generated Him out of necessity; and this contradicts what Augustine states (Ad
Orosium qu. vii).

On the contrary, Augustine says, in the same book, that, "the Father begot the Son neither by will, nor by necessity."

On the contrary, Augustine says, in the same book, that, "the Father generated the Son neither by choice, nor by necessity."

I answer that, When anything is said to be, or to be made by the will, this can be understood in two senses. In one sense, the ablative designates only concomitance, as I can say that I am a man by my will—that is, I will to be a man; and in this way it can be said that the Father begot the Son by will; as also He is God by will, because He wills to be God, and wills to beget the Son. In the other sense, the ablative imports the habitude of a principle as it is said that the workman works by his will, as the will is the principle of his work; and thus in that sense it must be said the God the Father begot the Son, not by His will; but that He produced the creature by His will. Whence in the book De Synod., it is said: "If anyone say that the Son was made by the Will of God, as a creature is said to be made, let him be anathema." The reason of this is that will and nature differ in their manner of causation, in such a way that nature is determined to one, while the will is not determined to one; and this because the effect is assimilated to the form of the agent, whereby the latter acts. Now it is manifest that of one thing there is only one natural form whereby it exists; and hence such as it is itself, such also is its work. But the form whereby the will acts is not only one, but many, according to the number of ideas understood. Hence the quality of the will's action does not depend on the quality of the agent, but on the agent's will and understanding. So the will is the principle of those things which may be this way or that way; whereas of those things which can be only in one way, the principle is nature. What, however, can exist in different ways is far from the divine nature, whereas it belongs to the nature of a created being; because God is of Himself necessary being, whereas a creature is made from nothing. Thus, the Arians, wishing to prove the Son to be a creature, said that the Father begot the Son by will, taking will in the sense of principle. But we, on the contrary, must assert that the Father begot the Son, not by will, but by nature. Wherefore Hilary says (De Synod.): "The will of God gave to all creatures their substance: but perfect birth gave the Son a nature derived from a substance impassible and unborn. All things created are such as God willed them to be; but the Son, born of God, subsists in the perfect likeness of God."

I respond that, when we say something exists or is created by will, this can be interpreted in two ways. In one sense, the ablative indicates simply a simultaneous occurrence, like saying I am a man by my will—that is, I choose to be a man; similarly, it can be said that the Father begets the Son by will; He is also God by will, as He chooses to be God and chooses to beget the Son. In another sense, the ablative suggests the relationship of a principle, as it is said that a worker works by his will because the will is the principle of his work; therefore, in this sense, we must say that God the Father begets the Son, not by His will, but that He creates the creature by His will. In the book De Synod., it states: "If anyone says that the Son was made by the Will of God, as a creature is made, let him be anathema." The reason for this is that will and nature differ in how they cause things; nature is determined to produce one result, while the will is not restricted to one outcome; this is because the effect mirrors the form of the agent, which is how the latter acts. It is clear that there is only one natural form for a thing to exist; thus, what a thing is, so too is its effect. However, the form by which the will acts is not singular but multiple, depending on the number of ideas understood. Therefore, the quality of the will's action does not depend on the quality of the agent but on the agent's will and understanding. The will serves as the principle for those things that can be this way or that way, while nature is the principle for things that can only exist in one way. What can exist in different ways is far from divine nature and belongs to the nature of a created being; God is, by His nature, necessary being, while a creature is made from nothing. Thus, the Arians, wanting to argue that the Son is a creature, claimed that the Father begets the Son by will, interpreting will in the sense of principle. However, we must maintain that the Father begets the Son, not by will, but by nature. Therefore, Hilary states (De Synod.): "The will of God gave all creatures their essence: but perfect birth gave the Son a nature derived from an impassible and uncreated substance. All created things are as God willed them to be; but the Son, born of God, exists in the perfect likeness of God."

Reply Obj. 1: This saying is directed against those who did not admit even the concomitance of the Father's will in the generation of the Son, for they said that the Father begot the Son in such a manner by nature that the will to beget was wanting; just as we ourselves suffer many things against our will from natural necessity—as, for instance, death, old age, and like ills. This appears from what precedes and from what follows as regards the words quoted, for thus we read: "Not against His will, nor as it were, forced, nor as if He were led by natural necessity did the Father beget the Son."

Reply Obj. 1: This saying is aimed at those who denied even the involvement of the Father's will in the Son's generation. They claimed that the Father naturally begot the Son without any desire to do so, similar to how we often endure things against our will due to natural necessity—like death, old age, and other misfortunes. This is evident from the context of the quoted words, where it states: "The Father did not beget the Son against His will, nor as if He were compelled, nor because He was driven by natural necessity."

Reply Obj. 2: The Apostle calls Christ the Son of the love of God, inasmuch as He is superabundantly loved by God; not, however, as if love were the principle of the Son's generation.

Reply Obj. 2: The Apostle refers to Christ as the Son of God's love because He is greatly loved by God; however, this does not imply that love is the basis for the Son's existence.

Reply Obj. 3: The will, as a natural faculty, wills something naturally, as man's will naturally tends to happiness; and likewise God naturally wills and loves Himself; whereas in regard to things other than Himself, the will of God is in a way, undetermined in itself, as above explained (Q. 19, A. 3). Now, the Holy Ghost proceeds as Love, inasmuch as God loves Himself, and hence He proceeds naturally, although He proceeds by mode of will.

Reply Obj. 3: The will, as a natural ability, naturally desires something, just as a person's will naturally seeks happiness; similarly, God naturally wills and loves Himself. However, when it comes to things outside of Himself, God's will is somewhat open-ended, as explained earlier (Q. 19, A. 3). Now, the Holy Spirit comes forth as Love because God loves Himself, and so He comes forth naturally, even though He comes forth through the exercise of will.

Reply Obj. 4: Even as regards the intellectual conceptions of the mind, a return is made to those first principles which are naturally understood. But God naturally understands Himself, and thus the conception of the divine Word is natural.

Reply Obj. 4: Even when it comes to the intellectual ideas in the mind, we go back to those basic principles that are inherently understood. But God naturally understands Himself, so the idea of the divine Word is also natural.

Reply Obj. 5: A thing is said to be necessary "of itself," and "by reason of another." Taken in the latter sense, it has a twofold meaning: firstly, as an efficient and compelling cause, and thus necessary means what is violent; secondly, it means a final cause, when a thing is said to be necessary as the means to an end, so far as without it the end could not be attained, or, at least, so well attained. In neither of these ways is the divine generation necessary; because God is not the means to an end, nor is He subject to compulsion. But a thing is said to be necessary "of itself" which cannot but be: in this sense it is necessary for God to be; and in the same sense it is necessary that the Father beget the Son. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: Something is considered necessary "in itself" and "because of something else." In the latter case, it has two meanings: first, as an efficient and compelling cause, which means that necessity implies something forceful; second, it refers to a final cause, where something is deemed necessary as a means to an end, to the extent that without it, the goal cannot be reached, or at least not as effectively. In neither of these ways is divine generation necessary; God is not a means to an end, nor is He subject to force. However, a thing is said to be necessary "in itself" if it cannot help but exist: in this sense, it is necessary for God to exist; and likewise, it is necessary for the Father to beget the Son.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 41, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 41, Art. 3]

Whether the Notional Acts Proceed from Something?

Whether the Notional Acts Come from Something?

Objection 1: It would seem that the notional acts do not proceed from anything. For if the Father begets the Son from something, this will be either from Himself or from something else. If from something else, since that whence a thing is generated exists in what is generated, it follows that something different from the Father exists in the Son, and this contradicts what is laid down by Hilary (De Trin. vii) that, "In them nothing diverse or different exists." If the Father begets the Son from Himself, since again that whence a thing is generated, if it be something permanent, receives as predicate the thing generated therefrom just as we say, "The man is white," since the man remains, when not from white he is made white—it follows that either the Father does not remain after the Son is begotten, or that the Father is the Son, which is false. Therefore the Father does not beget the Son from something, but from nothing.

Objection 1: It seems that the notional acts don't come from anything. If the Father begets the Son from something, it must be either from Himself or from something else. If it's from something else, since what a thing is generated from exists in what is generated, it means that something different from the Father exists in the Son, which contradicts what Hilary states (De Trin. vii) that, "In them nothing diverse or different exists." If the Father begets the Son from Himself, then since what a thing is generated from, if it's something permanent, gets described by the thing generated from it just like we say, "The man is white," since the man remains, not being made white from something other than white—it follows that either the Father does not remain after the Son is begotten, or that the Father is the Son, which is incorrect. Therefore, the Father does not beget the Son from something but from nothing.

Obj. 2: Further, that whence anything is generated is the principle regarding what is generated. So if the Father generate the Son from His own essence or nature, it follows that the essence or nature of the Father is the principle of the Son. But it is not a material principle, because in God nothing material exists; and therefore it is, as it were, an active principle, as the begetter is the principle of the one begotten. Thus it follows that the essence generates, which was disproved above (Q. 39, A. 5).

Obj. 2: Additionally, the source of anything's creation is the principle behind what is created. So if the Father generates the Son from His own essence or nature, it means that the essence or nature of the Father is the principle of the Son. However, this is not a material principle because nothing material exists in God; therefore, it is like an active principle, as the one who begets is the principle of the one who is begotten. Thus, it follows that the essence generates, which was proven wrong earlier (Q. 39, A. 5).

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine says (De Trin. vii, 6) that the three persons are not from the same essence; because the essence is not another thing from person. But the person of the Son is not another thing from the Father's essence. Therefore the Son is not from the Father's essence.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, Augustine states (De Trin. vii, 6) that the three persons do not share the same essence; because essence is not a separate entity from person. However, the person of the Son is not distinct from the Father's essence. Therefore, the Son does not derive from the Father's essence.

Obj. 4: Further, every creature is from nothing. But in Scripture the Son is called a creature; for it is said (Ecclus. 24:5), in the person of the Wisdom begotten,"I came out of the mouth of the Most High, the first-born before all creatures": and further on (Ecclus. 24:14) it is said as uttered by the same Wisdom, "From the beginning, and before the world was I created." Therefore the Son was not begotten from something, but from nothing. Likewise we can object concerning the Holy Ghost, by reason of what is said (Zech. 12:1): "Thus saith the Lord Who stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundations of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him"; and (Amos 4:13) according to another version [*The Septuagint]: "I Who form the earth, and create the spirit."

Obj. 4: Furthermore, every creature is made from nothing. In Scripture, the Son is referred to as a creature; it is stated (Ecclus. 24:5), in the voice of the Wisdom that was begotten, "I came out of the mouth of the Most High, the first-born before all creatures": and later on (Ecclus. 24:14) it is said, also spoken by the same Wisdom, "From the beginning, and before the world was I created." Therefore, the Son was not begotten from something, but from nothing. We can similarly raise an objection regarding the Holy Spirit, based on what is said (Zech. 12:1): "Thus says the Lord Who stretches out the heavens, lays the foundations of the earth, and forms the spirit of man within him"; and (Amos 4:13) according to another version [*The Septuagint]: "I Who form the earth, and create the spirit."

On the contrary, Augustine (Fulgentius, De Fide ad Petrum i, 1) says: "God the Father, of His nature, without beginning, begot the Son equal to Himself."

On the contrary, Augustine (Fulgentius, De Fide ad Petrum i, 1) says: "God the Father, by nature, without beginning, begets the Son equal to Himself."

I answer that, The Son was not begotten from nothing, but from the Father's substance. For it was explained above (Q. 27, A. 2; Q. 33, AA. 2 ,3) that paternity, filiation and nativity really and truly exist in God. Now, this is the difference between true "generation," whereby one proceeds from another as a son, and "making," that the maker makes something out of external matter, as a carpenter makes a bench out of wood, whereas a man begets a son from himself. Now, as a created workman makes a thing out of matter, so God makes things out of nothing, as will be shown later on (Q. 45, A. 1), not as if this nothing were a part of the substance of the thing made, but because the whole substance of a thing is produced by Him without anything else whatever presupposed. So, were the Son to proceed from the Father as out of nothing, then the Son would be to the Father what the thing made is to the maker, whereto, as is evident, the name of filiation would not apply except by a kind of similitude. Thus, if the Son of God proceeds from the Father out of nothing, He could not be properly and truly called the Son, whereas the contrary is stated (1 John 5:20): "That we may be in His true Son Jesus Christ." Therefore the true Son of God is not from nothing; nor is He made, but begotten.

I answer that, The Son wasn’t created from nothing, but from the Father's essence. As explained earlier (Q. 27, A. 2; Q. 33, AA. 2, 3), paternity, filiation, and nativity truly exist in God. The difference between true "generation,” where one comes from another as a son, and "making" is that in making, the maker creates something from external materials, like a carpenter makes a bench from wood, while a man begets a son from himself. Just as a created worker makes something from matter, God creates things from nothing, as will be demonstrated later (Q. 45, A. 1), not as if this nothing were a part of the substance of the created thing, but because the whole substance of a thing is produced by Him without anything else being required. Therefore, if the Son were to come from the Father as if out of nothing, then the Son would relate to the Father like a created thing relates to its maker, which, as is clear, wouldn't truly fit the meaning of filiation. Thus, if the Son of God were to come from the Father out of nothing, He could not be properly and truly called the Son, yet the opposite is stated (1 John 5:20): "That we may be in His true Son Jesus Christ." Therefore, the true Son of God is not from nothing; He is not made, but begotten.

That certain creatures made by God out of nothing are called sons of God is to be taken in a metaphorical sense, according to a certain likeness of assimilation to Him Who is the true Son. Whence, as He is the only true and natural Son of God, He is called the "only begotten," according to John 1:18, "The only begotten Son, Who is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared Him"; and so as others are entitled sons of adoption by their similitude to Him, He is called the "first begotten," according to Rom. 8:29: "Whom He foreknew He also predestinated to be made conformable to the image of His Son, that He might be the first born of many brethren." Therefore the Son of God is begotten of the substance of the Father, but not in the same way as man is born of man; for a part of the human substance in generation passes into the substance of the one begotten, whereas the divine nature cannot be parted; whence it necessarily follows that the Father in begetting the Son does not transmit any part of His nature, but communicates His whole nature to Him, the distinction only of origin remaining as explained above (Q. 40, A. 2).

Certain beings created by God from nothing are referred to as sons of God in a metaphorical way, reflecting their resemblance to the true Son. Therefore, since He is the only true and natural Son of God, He is called the "only begotten," as stated in John 1:18, "The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, has declared Him." Similarly, other beings are called sons of adoption because of their resemblance to Him, and He is referred to as the "first begotten," according to Romans 8:29: "Whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the firstborn among many brethren." Thus, the Son of God is begotten from the substance of the Father, but not in the same way that humans are born from humans; part of human substance in generation is passed on to the one being born, whereas divine nature cannot be divided. Therefore, it logically follows that the Father, in begetting the Son, does not give away any part of His nature but shares His entire nature with Him, with the only distinction being the origin, as explained above (Q. 40, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 1: When we say that the Son was born of the Father, the preposition "of" designates a consubstantial generating principle, but not a material principle. For that which is produced from matter, is made by a change of form in that whence it is produced. But the divine essence is unchangeable, and is not susceptive of another form.

Reply Obj. 1: When we say that the Son was born of the Father, the preposition "of" indicates a shared substance, not a physical origin. Anything that comes from matter is created through a change in form from what it comes from. However, the divine essence never changes and cannot take on a different form.

Reply Obj. 2: When we say the Son is begotten of the essence of the Father, as the Master of the Sentences explains (Sent. i, D, v), this denotes the habitude of a kind of active principle, and as he expounds, "the Son is begotten of the essence of the Father"—that is, of the Father Who is essence; and so Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 13): "When I say of the Father Who is essence, it is the same as if I said more explicitly, of the essence of the Father."

Reply Obj. 2: When we say the Son is begotten from the essence of the Father, as the Master of the Sentences explains (Sent. i, D, v), this indicates a sort of active principle. As he explains, "the Son is begotten from the essence of the Father"—meaning, from the Father who is essence; and Augustine also says (De Trin. xv, 13): "When I mention the Father who is essence, it's the same as if I said more clearly, from the essence of the Father."

This, however, is not enough to explain the real meaning of the words. For we can say that the creature is from God Who is essence; but not that it is from the essence of God. So we may explain them otherwise, by observing that the preposition "of" [de] always denotes consubstantiality. We do not say that a house is "of" [de] the builder, since he is not the consubstantial cause. We can say, however, that something is "of" another, if this is its consubstantial principle, no matter in what way it is so, whether it be an active principle, as the son is said to be "of" the father, or a material principle, as a knife is "of" iron; or a formal principle, but in those things only in which the forms are subsisting, and not accidental to another, for we can say that an angel is "of" an intellectual nature. In this way, then, we say that the Son is begotten 'of' the essence of the Father, inasmuch as the essence of the Father, communicated by generation, subsists in the Son.

This, however, doesn’t fully explain the true meaning of the words. We can say that the creature comes from God, who is essence; but we can’t say it comes from the essence of God. Instead, we can interpret it differently by noting that the preposition “of” always indicates consubstantiality. We don’t say a house is “of” the builder, since he isn’t the consubstantial cause. However, we can say something is “of” another if it is based on its consubstantial principle, regardless of how that is the case—whether it’s an active principle, as a son is said to be “of” the father, or a material principle, as a knife is “of” iron; or a formal principle, but only in those things where the forms exist independently and aren’t accidental to another, since we can say an angel is “of” an intellectual nature. In this way, we say that the Son is begotten “of” the essence of the Father, in that the essence of the Father, communicated through generation, exists in the Son.

Reply Obj. 3: When we say that the Son is begotten of the essence of the Father, a term is added which saves the distinction. But when we say that the three persons are 'of' the divine essence, there is nothing expressed to warrant the distinction signified by the preposition, so there is no parity of argument.

Reply Obj. 3: When we say that the Son is begotten from the essence of the Father, a term is added that maintains the distinction. But when we say that the three persons are 'of' the divine essence, there is nothing stated to justify the distinction indicated by the preposition, so there is no equal argument.

Reply Obj. 4: When we say "Wisdom was created," this may be understood not of Wisdom which is the Son of God, but of created wisdom given by God to creatures: for it is said, "He created her [namely, Wisdom] in the Holy Ghost, and He poured her out over all His works" (Ecclus. 1:9, 10). Nor is it inconsistent for Scripture in one text to speak of the Wisdom begotten and wisdom created, for wisdom created is a kind of participation of the uncreated Wisdom. The saying may also be referred to the created nature assumed by the Son, so that the sense be, "From the beginning and before the world was I made"—that is, I was foreseen as united to the creature. Or the mention of wisdom as both created and begotten insinuates into our minds the mode of the divine generation; for in generation what is generated receives the nature of the generator and this pertains to perfection; whereas in creation the Creator is not changed, but the creature does not receive the Creator's nature. Thus the Son is called both created and begotten, in order that from the idea of creation the immutability of the Father may be understood, and from generation the unity of nature in the Father and the Son. In this way Hilary expounds the sense of this text of Scripture (De Synod.). The other passages quoted do not refer to the Holy Ghost, but to the created spirit, sometimes called wind, sometimes air, sometimes the breath of man, sometimes also the soul, or any other invisible substance. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: When we say "Wisdom was created," we might not be talking about the Wisdom that is the Son of God, but rather about the created wisdom that God gives to his creatures. It's said, "He created her [that is, Wisdom] in the Holy Ghost, and He poured her out over all His works" (Ecclus. 1:9, 10). It's not contradictory for Scripture to refer to both begotten Wisdom and created wisdom; created wisdom is a way of participating in the uncreated Wisdom. This statement can also refer to the created nature taken on by the Son, suggesting the meaning, "From the beginning and before the world was, I was made"—indicating that I was anticipated as connected to the creature. Additionally, the reference to wisdom as both created and begotten hints at the nature of divine generation; in generation, what is generated takes on the nature of the generator, which relates to perfection; whereas in creation, the Creator remains unchanged, while the creature does not adopt the Creator's nature. Thus, the Son is referred to as both created and begotten, showing that from the idea of creation we can grasp the immutability of the Father, and from generation, the unity of nature in the Father and the Son. Hilary explains this interpretation of the Scripture (De Synod.). The other passages cited do not refer to the Holy Ghost, but to the created spirit, which is sometimes called wind, sometimes air, sometimes the breath of man, and sometimes the soul, or any other invisible substance.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 41, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 41, Art. 4]

Whether in God There Is a Power in Respect of the Notional Acts?

Whether there is a power in God regarding the conceptual acts?

Objection 1: It would seem that in God there is no power in respect of the notional acts. For every kind of power is either active or passive; neither of which can be here applied, there being in God nothing which we call passive power, as above explained (Q. 25, A. 1); nor can active power belong to one person as regards another, since the divine persons were not made, as stated above (A. 3). Therefore in God there is no power in respect of the notional acts.

Objection 1: It seems that God has no power when it comes to notional acts. Every type of power is either active or passive; neither of these can apply here, since there is nothing in God that we would call passive power, as explained earlier (Q. 25, A. 1). Active power cannot belong to one person in relation to another, since the divine persons were not created, as stated above (A. 3). Therefore, in God, there is no power regarding notional acts.

Obj. 2: Further, the object of power is what is possible. But the divine persons are not regarded as possible, but necessary. Therefore, as regards the notional acts, whereby the divine persons proceed, there cannot be power in God.

Obj. 2: Also, the purpose of power is what can happen. However, the divine beings are seen as necessary, not just possible. Therefore, when it comes to the conceptual actions through which the divine beings act, there can't be power in God.

Obj. 3: Further, the Son proceeds as the word, which is the concept of the intellect; and the Holy Ghost proceeds as love, which belongs to the will. But in God power exists as regards effects, and not as regards intellect and will, as stated above (Q. 25, A. 1). Therefore, in God power does not exist in reference to the notional acts.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the Son comes forth as the word, which is the idea of the intellect; and the Holy Spirit arises as love, which is related to the will. However, in God, power exists regarding effects, not in relation to intellect and will, as mentioned earlier (Q. 25, A. 1). Therefore, in God, power does not pertain to the notional acts.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Contra Maxim. iii, 1): "If God the Father could not beget a co-equal Son, where is the omnipotence of God the Father?" Power therefore exists in God regarding the notional acts.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Contra Maxim. iii, 1): "If God the Father couldn't beget a co-equal Son, where is the omnipotence of God the Father?" Power, therefore, exists in God concerning the notional acts.

I answer that, As the notional acts exist in God, so must there be also a power in God regarding these acts; since power only means the principle of act. So, as we understand the Father to be principle of generation; and the Father and the Son to be the principle of spiration, we must attribute the power of generating to the Father, and the power of spiration to the Father and the Son; for the power of generation means that whereby the generator generates. Now every generator generates by something. Therefore in every generator we must suppose the power of generating, and in the spirator the power of spirating.

I answer that, Just as the conceptual actions exist in God, there must also be a power in God concerning these actions; because power simply refers to the principle of action. Therefore, as we understand the Father to be the source of generation, and both the Father and the Son to be the source of spiration, we need to attribute the power of generating to the Father and the power of spiration to both the Father and the Son; because the power of generation is what enables the generator to generate. Now, every generator acts based on something. Thus, in every generator, we must assume the power of generating, and in the one who inspires, the power of inspiring.

Reply Obj. 1: As a person, according to notional acts, does not proceed as if made; so the power in God as regards the notional acts has no reference to a person as if made, but only as regards the person as proceeding.

Reply Obj. 1: A person, in terms of notional acts, doesn’t act as if they are created; therefore, God's power concerning notional acts doesn’t relate to a person as if they were created, but only in terms of the person as acting.

Reply Obj. 2: Possible, as opposed to what is necessary, is a consequence of a passive power, which does not exist in God. Hence, in God there is no such thing as possibility in this sense, but only in the sense of possible as contained in what is necessary; and in this latter sense it can be said that as it is possible for God to be, so also is it possible that the Son should be generated.

Reply Obj. 2: Possible, as opposed to what is necessary, comes from a passive ability, which God does not have. Therefore, in God, there is no possibility in this sense, but only in the sense of possibility that exists within what is necessary; and in this latter sense, we can say that just as it is possible for God to exist, it is also possible for the Son to be generated.

Reply Obj. 3: Power signifies a principle: and a principle implies distinction from that of which it is the principle. Now we must observe a double distinction in things said of God: one is a real distinction, the other is a distinction of reason only. By a real distinction, God by His essence is distinct from those things of which He is the principle by creation: just as one person is distinct from the other of which He is principle by a notional act. But in God the distinction of action and agent is one of reason only, otherwise action would be an accident in God. And therefore with regard to those actions in respect of which certain things proceed which are distinct from God, either personally or essentially, we may ascribe power to God in its proper sense of principle. And as we ascribe to God the power of creating, so we may ascribe the power of begetting and of spirating. But "to understand" and "to will" are not such actions as to designate the procession of something distinct from God, either essentially or personally. Wherefore, with regard to these actions we cannot ascribe power to God in its proper sense, but only after our way of understanding and speaking: inasmuch as we designate by different terms the intellect and the act of understanding in God, whereas in God the act of understanding is His very essence which has no principle. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Power represents a principle; a principle indicates a distinction from what it governs. We need to recognize two types of distinctions when talking about God: one is a real distinction, and the other is a distinction of reason only. A real distinction means that God, by His essence, is separate from those things He creates, just like one person is different from another in terms of a notional relationship. However, in God, the distinction between action and agent is only a distinction of reason; otherwise, action would be an accident in God. Therefore, concerning those actions from which certain things, distinct from God, arise either personally or essentially, we can appropriately attribute power to God as a principle. Just as we attribute to God the power to create, we can also attribute the power to beget and to breathe forth. But "to understand" and "to will" are not actions that imply the emergence of something distinct from God, either essentially or personally. Hence, regarding these actions, we cannot attribute power to God in its proper sense, but only in a way that aligns with our understanding and language; since we use different terms to describe the intellect and the act of understanding in God, while in God, the act of understanding is His very essence, which has no principle.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 41, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 41, Art. 5]

Whether the Power of Begetting Signifies a Relation, and Not the
Essence?

Whether the Power of Begetting Indicates a Relationship, and Not the
Essence?

Objection 1: It would seem that the power of begetting, or of spirating, signifies the relation and not the essence. For power signifies a principle, as appears from its definition: for active power is the principle of action, as we find in Metaph. v, text 17. But in God principle in regard to Person is said notionally. Therefore, in God, power does not signify essence but relation.

Objection 1: It seems that the power of generating or breathing out signifies the relation and not the essence. Power represents a principle, as indicated by its definition: active power is the principle of action, which we see in Metaph. v, text 17. However, in God, principle concerning Person is referred to notionally. Therefore, in God, power does not signify essence but relation.

Obj. 2: Further, in God, the power to act [posse] and 'to act' are not distinct. But in God, begetting signifies relation. Therefore, the same applies to the power of begetting.

Obj. 2: Additionally, in God, the ability to act and 'to act' are not separate. However, in God, begetting indicates a relationship. Therefore, the same is true for the ability to beget.

Obj. 3: Further, terms signifying the essence in God, are common to the three persons. But the power of begetting is not common to the three persons, but proper to the Father. Therefore it does not signify the essence.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, terms that signify the essence in God are shared by the three persons. However, the ability to beget is unique to the Father and not common among the three persons. Therefore, it does not indicate the essence.

On the contrary, As God has the power to beget the Son, so also He wills to beget Him. But the will to beget signifies the essence. Therefore, also, the power to beget.

On the contrary, Just as God has the ability to beget the Son, He also chooses to beget Him. However, the intention to beget indicates the essence. Therefore, it also indicates the power to beget.

I answer that, Some have said that the power to beget signifies relation in God. But this is not possible. For in every agent, that is properly called power, by which the agent acts. Now, everything that produces something by its action, produces something like itself, as to the form by which it acts; just as man begotten is like his begetter in his human nature, in virtue of which the father has the power to beget a man. In every begetter, therefore, that is the power of begetting in which the begotten is like the begetter.

I respond that, Some people have claimed that the ability to generate implies a relationship in God. However, this is not the case. In any agent, the term "power" refers to the force through which the agent acts. Now, everything that creates something through its action produces something similar to itself in terms of the form by which it acts; just as a begotten man is similar to his father in his human nature, which is the basis for the father's ability to create a man. Therefore, in every creator, the power to create is defined by the way in which the created being resembles the creator.

Now the Son of God is like the Father, who begets Him, in the divine nature. Wherefore the divine nature in the Father is in Him the power of begetting. And so Hilary says (De Trin. v): "The birth of God cannot but contain that nature from which it proceeded; for He cannot subsist other than God, Who subsists from no other source than God."

Now the Son of God is like the Father, who begets Him, in the divine nature. Therefore, the divine nature in the Father is in Him the power of begetting. And so Hilary says (De Trin. v): "The birth of God must include that nature from which it came; for He cannot exist as anything other than God, Who exists from no other source than God."

We must therefore conclude that the power of begetting signifies principally the divine essence as the Master says (Sent. i, D, vii), and not the relation only. Nor does it signify the essence as identified with the relation, so as to signify both equally. For although paternity is signified as the form of the Father, nevertheless it is a personal property, being in respect to the person of the Father, what the individual form is to the individual creature. Now the individual form in things created constitutes the person begetting, but is not that by which the begetter begets, otherwise Socrates would beget Socrates. So neither can paternity be understood as that by which the Father begets, but as constituting the person of the Father, otherwise the Father would beget the Father. But that by which the Father begets is the divine nature, in which the Son is like to Him. And in this sense Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 18) that generation is the "work of nature," not of nature generating, but of nature, as being that by which the generator generates. And therefore the power of begetting signifies the divine nature directly, but the relation indirectly.

We must therefore conclude that the ability to create signifies primarily the divine essence, as the Master says (Sent. i, D, vii), and not just the relationship. It does not mean the essence as linked with the relationship in such a way that both are equally significant. Although paternity is represented as the essence of the Father, it is still a personal characteristic, related to the person of the Father in the same way that the individual form is to the individual creature. In created things, the individual form defines the person that creates, but it is not what the creator uses to create; otherwise, Socrates would create another Socrates. Similarly, paternity cannot be understood as what the Father uses to create, but rather as what defines the person of the Father; otherwise, the Father would create the Father. What the Father uses to create is the divine nature, in which the Son is like Him. In this sense, Damascene states (De Fide Orth. i, 18) that generation is the "work of nature," not nature itself generating, but nature as that which allows the generator to generate. Therefore, the ability to create signifies the divine nature directly, but the relation indirectly.

Reply Obj. 1: Power does not signify the relation itself of a principle, for thus it would be in the genus of relation; but it signifies that which is a principle; not, indeed, in the sense in which we call the agent a principle, but in the sense of being that by which the agent acts. Now the agent is distinct from that which it makes, and the generator from that which it generates: but that by which the generator generates is common to generated and generator, and so much more perfectly, as the generation is more perfect. Since, therefore, the divine generation is most perfect, that by which the Begetter begets, is common to Begotten and Begetter by a community of identity, and not only of species, as in things created. Therefore, from the fact that we say that the divine essence "is the principle by which the Begetter begets," it does not follow that the divine essence is distinct (from the Begotten): which would follow if we were to say that the divine essence begets.

Reply Obj. 1: Power doesn’t just refer to the relationship itself of a principle; otherwise, it would belong to the category of relation. Rather, it represents something that is a principle—not in the way we call the agent a principle, but in the sense of what allows the agent to act. The agent is separate from what it creates, and the generator is separate from what it generates. However, what the generator uses to create is shared by both the generated and the generator, and this is even more so when the act of generation is more complete. Since divine generation is the most complete, what the Begetter uses to beget is shared between the Begotten and the Begetter through a shared identity, not just a shared species, like in created things. Therefore, when we say that the divine essence "is the principle by which the Begetter begets," it doesn’t mean that the divine essence is distinct from the Begotten; that would only be the case if we were to say that the divine essence begets.

Reply Obj. 2: As in God, the power of begetting is the same as the act of begetting, so the divine essence is the same in reality as the act of begetting or paternity; although there is a distinction of reason.

Reply Obj. 2: Just like in God, the ability to beget is the same as the act of begetting, so the divine essence is truly the same as the act of begetting or fatherhood; although there is a distinction in reasoning.

Reply Obj. 3: When I speak of the "power of begetting," power is signified directly, generation indirectly: just as if I were to say, the "essence of the Father." Wherefore in respect of the essence, which is signified, the power of begetting is common to the three persons: but in respect of the notion that is connoted, it is proper to the person of the Father. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: When I talk about the "power of begetting," I'm referring to power directly and generation indirectly, just like if I were to say, the "essence of the Father." Therefore, concerning the essence being referred to, the power of begetting is shared by all three persons; however, regarding the idea that is implied, it belongs specifically to the person of the Father.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 41, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 41, Art. 6]

Whether Several Persons Can Be the Term of One Notional Act?

Whether several people can be the subject of one notional act?

Objection 1: It would seem that a notional act can be directed to several Persons, so that there may be several Persons begotten or spirated in God. For whoever has the power of begetting can beget. But the Son has the power of begetting. Therefore He can beget. But He cannot beget Himself: therefore He can beget another son. Therefore there can be several Sons in God.

Objection 1: It seems that a conceptual act can be directed towards multiple Persons, so there could be several Persons generated or breathed forth in God. For anyone who has the ability to beget can beget. But the Son has the ability to beget. Therefore, He can beget. However, He cannot beget Himself; therefore, He can beget another son. Thus, there can be multiple Sons in God.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (Contra Maxim. iii, 12): "The Son did not beget a Creator: not that He could not, but that it behoved Him not."

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (Contra Maxim. iii, 12): "The Son did not create a Creator: not because He couldn't, but because it was not appropriate for Him to do so."

Obj. 3: Further, God the Father has greater power to beget than has a created father. But a man can beget several sons. Therefore God can also: the more so that the power of the Father is not diminished after begetting the Son.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, God the Father has greater power to create than a human father does. However, a man can father multiple sons. So, God can also do this, especially since the Father's power is not reduced after begetting the Son.

On the contrary, In God "that which is possible," and "that which is" do not differ. If, therefore, in God it were possible for there to be several Sons, there would be several Sons. And thus there would be more than three Persons in God; which is heretical.

On the contrary, In God, "what's possible" and "what is" are the same. So, if it were possible for there to be several Sons in God, there would be several Sons. This would mean there are more than three Persons in God, which is heretical.

I answer that, As Athanasius says, in God there is only "one Father, one Son, one Holy Ghost." For this four reasons may be given.

I answer that, As Athanasius says, in God there is only "one Father, one Son, one Holy Spirit." For this, four reasons may be given.

The first reason is in regard to the relations by which alone are the Persons distinct. For since the divine Persons are the relations themselves as subsistent, there would not be several Fathers, or several Sons in God, unless there were more than one paternity, or more than one filiation. And this, indeed, would not be possible except owing to a material distinction: since forms of one species are not multiplied except in respect of matter, which is not in God. Wherefore there can be but one subsistent filiation in God: just as there could be but one subsistent whiteness.

The first reason has to do with the relationships that make the Persons distinct. Since the divine Persons exist as the relations themselves, there wouldn’t be multiple Fathers or multiple Sons in God unless there were more than one form of paternity or more than one form of filiation. This would only be possible if there were a physical distinction, because forms of the same kind only exist in relation to matter, which isn’t the case with God. Therefore, there can only be one existing form of filiation in God, just like there can only be one existing form of whiteness.

The second reason is taken from the manner of the processions. For God understands and wills all things by one simple act. Wherefore there can be but one person proceeding after the manner of word, which person is the Son; and but one person proceeding after the manner of love, which person is the Holy Ghost.

The second reason comes from the way the processions work. God understands and wills everything with one simple act. Therefore, there can only be one person who proceeds as the Word, who is the Son; and only one person who proceeds as Love, who is the Holy Spirit.

The third reason is taken from the manner in which the persons proceed. For the persons proceed naturally, as we have said (A. 2), and nature is determined to one.

The third reason comes from how people act. As we mentioned before (A. 2), people act naturally, and nature is geared toward a single outcome.

The fourth reason is taken from the perfection of the divine persons. For this reason is the Son perfect, that the entire divine filiation is contained in Him, and that there is but one Son. The argument is similar in regard to the other persons.

The fourth reason comes from the perfection of the divine persons. This is why the Son is perfect; the whole divine parentage is contained in Him, and there is only one Son. The reasoning is similar for the other persons.

Reply Obj. 1: We can grant, without distinction, that the Son has the same power as the Father; but we cannot grant that the Son has the power "generandi" [of begetting] thus taking "generandi" as the gerund of the active verb, so that the sense would be that the Son has the "power to beget." Just as, although Father and Son have the same being, it does not follow that the Son is the Father, by reason of the notional term added. But if the word "generandi" [of being begotten] is taken as the gerundive of the passive verb, the power "generandi" is in the Son—that is, the power of being begotten. The same is to be said if it be taken as the gerundive of an impersonal verb, so that the sense be "the power of generation"—that is, a power by which it is generated by some person.

Reply Obj. 1: We can agree that the Son has the same power as the Father; however, we cannot agree that the Son has the power "generandi" [of begetting], understanding "generandi" as the gerund of the active verb, suggesting that the Son has the "power to beget." Just as, even though the Father and the Son share the same essence, it does not mean that the Son is the Father, due to the added notional term. But if we interpret "generandi" [of being begotten] as the gerundive of the passive verb, then the power "generandi" is in the Son—that is, the power of being begotten. The same applies if it is understood as the gerundive of an impersonal verb, meaning "the power of generation"—that is, a power that is acted upon by someone.

Reply Obj. 2: Augustine does not mean to say by those words that the Son could beget a Son: but that if He did not, it was not because He could not, as we shall see later on (Q. 42, A. 6, ad 3).

Reply Obj. 2: Augustine doesn't mean to imply that the Son could have a Son; rather, if He didn't, it wasn't for a lack of ability, as we will discuss later (Q. 42, A. 6, ad 3).

Reply Obj. 3: Divine perfection and the total absence of matter in God require that there cannot be several Sons in God, as we have explained. Wherefore that there are not several Sons is not due to any lack of begetting power in the Father.\ _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: God's perfection and the complete absence of matter in Him mean that there can't be multiple Sons in God, as we've explained. Therefore, the fact that there aren't several Sons doesn't result from any lack of begetting power in the Father.

QUESTION 42

OF EQUALITY AND LIKENESS AMONG THE DIVINE PERSONS
(In Six Articles)

OF EQUALITY AND LIKENESS AMONG THE DIVINE PERSONS
(In Six Articles)

We now have to consider the persons as compared to one another: firstly, with regard to equality and likeness; secondly, with regard to mission. Concerning the first there are six points of inquiry.

We now need to look at the individuals in relation to one another: firstly, in terms of equality and similarity; secondly, in terms of purpose. For the first point, there are six areas to explore.

(1) Whether there is equality among the divine persons?

(1) Is there equality among the divine persons?

(2) Whether the person who proceeds is equal to the one from Whom He proceeds in eternity?

(2) Is the person who comes from the other equal to the one from whom they come in eternity?

(3) Whether there is any order among the divine persons?

(3) Is there any order among the divine persons?

(4) Whether the divine persons are equal in greatness?

(4) Are the divine persons equal in greatness?

(5) Whether the one divine person is in another?

(5) Is one divine person in another?

(6) Whether they are equal in power? _______________________

(6) Are they equal in power? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 42, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 42, Art. 1]

Whether There Is Equality in God?

Whether There Is Equality in God?

Objection 1: It would seem that equality is not becoming to the divine persons. For equality is in relation to things which are one in quantity as the Philosopher says (Metaph. v, text 20). But in the divine persons there is no quantity, neither continuous intrinsic quantity, which we call size, nor continuous extrinsic quantity, which we call place and time. Nor can there be equality by reason of discrete quantity, because two persons are more than one. Therefore equality is not becoming to the divine persons.

Objection 1: It seems that equality is not appropriate for the divine persons. Equality refers to things that are the same in quantity, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. v, text 20). However, there is no quantity in the divine persons, neither continuous intrinsic quantity, which we call size, nor continuous extrinsic quantity, which we refer to as place and time. Moreover, there cannot be equality based on discrete quantity because two persons are more than one. Therefore, equality is not fitting for the divine persons.

Obj. 2: Further, the divine persons are of one essence, as we have said (Q. 39, A. 2). Now essence is signified by way of form. But agreement in form makes things to be alike, not to be equal. Therefore, we may speak of likeness in the divine persons, but not of equality.

Obj. 2: Also, the divine persons share the same essence, as we mentioned (Q. 39, A. 2). Now, essence is represented in terms of form. However, similarity in form makes things similar, not equal. Therefore, we can discuss likeness among the divine persons, but not equality.

Obj. 3: Further, things wherein there is to be found equality, are equal to one another, for equality is reciprocal. But the divine persons cannot be said to be equal to one another. For as Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 10): "If an image answers perfectly to that whereof it is the image, it may be said to be equal to it; but that which it represents cannot be said to be equal to the image." But the Son is the image of the Father; and so the Father is not equal to the Son. Therefore equality is not to be found among the divine persons.

Obj. 3: Additionally, things that are equal to each other share equality, since equality is reciprocal. However, the divine persons cannot be considered equal to one another. As Augustine states (De Trin. vi, 10): "If an image corresponds perfectly to what it represents, it can be said to be equal to it; but what it represents cannot be considered equal to the image." The Son is the image of the Father; therefore, the Father is not equal to the Son. Thus, equality is not present among the divine persons.

Obj. 4: Further, equality is a relation. But no relation is common to the three persons; for the persons are distinct by reason of the relations. Therefore equality is not becoming to the divine persons.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, equality is a relationship. However, no relationship is shared among the three persons; because the persons are distinct due to their relationships. Therefore, equality is not fitting for the divine persons.

On the contrary, Athanasius says that "the three persons are co-eternal and co-equal to one another."

On the contrary, Athanasius says that "the three persons are co-eternal and co-equal with each other."

I answer that, We must needs admit equality among the divine persons. For, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. x, text 15, 16, 17), equality signifies the negation of greater or less. Now we cannot admit anything greater or less in the divine persons; for as Boethius says (De Trin. i): "They must needs admit a difference [namely, of Godhead] who speak of either increase or decrease, as the Arians do, who sunder the Trinity by distinguishing degrees as of numbers, thus involving a plurality." Now the reason of this is that unequal things cannot have the same quantity. But quantity, in God, is nothing else than His essence. Wherefore it follows, that if there were any inequality in the divine persons, they would not have the same essence; and thus the three persons would not be one God; which is impossible. We must therefore admit equality among the divine persons.

I answer that, We must acknowledge equality among the divine persons. According to the Philosopher (Metaph. x, text 15, 16, 17), equality means the absence of greater or lesser. We cannot accept any greater or lesser in the divine persons; as Boethius states (De Trin. i): "Those who talk about increase or decrease must acknowledge a difference [specifically, of Godhead], as the Arians do, who divide the Trinity by distinguishing degrees like numbers, thus leading to a plurality." The reason for this is that unequal things cannot have the same quantity. In God, quantity is nothing other than His essence. Therefore, if there were any inequality among the divine persons, they would not share the same essence; and thus the three persons would not be one God, which is impossible. We must therefore accept equality among the divine persons.

Reply Obj. 1: Quantity is twofold. There is quantity of "bulk" or dimensive quantity, which is to be found only in corporeal things, and has, therefore, no place in God. There is also quantity of "virtue," which is measured according to the perfection of some nature or form: to this sort of quantity we allude when we speak of something as being more, or less, hot; forasmuch as it is more or less, perfect in heat. Now this virtual quantity is measured firstly by its source—that is, by the perfection of that form or nature: such is the greatness of spiritual things, just as we speak of great heat on account of its intensity and perfection. And so Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 18) that "in things which are great, but not in bulk, to be greater is to be better," for the more perfect a thing is the better it is. Secondly, virtual quantity is measured by the effects of the form. Now the first effect of form is being, for everything has being by reason of its form. The second effect is operation, for every agent acts through its form. Consequently virtual quantity is measured both in regard to being and in regard to action: in regard to being, forasmuch as things of a more perfect nature are of longer duration; and in regard to action, forasmuch as things of a more perfect nature are more powerful to act. And so as Augustine (Fulgentius, De Fide ad Petrum i) says: "We understand equality to be in the Father, Son and Holy Ghost, inasmuch as no one of them either precedes in eternity, or excels in greatness, or surpasses in power."

Reply Obj. 1: Quantity has two main aspects. There is the quantity of "bulk" or dimensional quantity, which only applies to physical things and doesn't exist in God. Then, there is the quantity of "virtue," which is measured by the perfection of a certain nature or form. We refer to this type of quantity when we say something is more or less hot, as it is more or less perfect in heat. This virtual quantity is first measured by its source—that is, by the perfection of that form or nature: this relates to the greatness of spiritual things, just as we talk about great heat due to its intensity and perfection. Augustine states (De Trin. vi, 18) that "in things that are great but not bulk, to be greater is to be better," because the more perfect something is, the better it is. Secondly, virtual quantity is measured by the effects of the form. The first effect of a form is existence, as everything exists because of its form. The second effect is action, since every agent acts through its form. Therefore, virtual quantity is measured both in terms of existence and action: in terms of existence, more perfect things tend to last longer; and in terms of action, more perfect things are more effective in their actions. Thus, as Augustine (Fulgentius, De Fide ad Petrum i) says: "We understand equality to be in the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost, in that none of them either precedes in eternity, excels in greatness, or surpasses in power."

Reply Obj. 2: Where we have equality in respect of virtual quantity, equality includes likeness and something besides, because it excludes excess. For whatever things have a common form may be said to be alike, even if they do not participate in that form equally, just as the air may be said to be like fire in heat; but they cannot be said to be equal if one participates in the form more perfectly than another. And because not only is the same nature in both Father and Son, but also is it in both in perfect equality, therefore we say not only that the Son is like to the Father, in order to exclude the error of Eunomius, but also that He is equal to the Father to exclude the error of Arius.

Reply Obj. 2: When there is equality in terms of virtual quantity, equality implies similarity and something additional because it rules out excess. Any things that share a common form can be considered alike, even if they don’t possess that form equally, just as we can say that air is similar to fire in heat; however, they cannot be called equal if one embodies the form more perfectly than the other. Since both the Father and the Son share the same nature, and they both do so with perfect equality, we assert not only that the Son is like the Father, which counters Eunomius's error, but also that He is equal to the Father, which counters Arius's error.

Reply Obj. 3: Equality and likeness in God may be designated in two ways—namely, by nouns and by verbs. When designated by nouns, equality in the divine persons is mutual, and so is likeness; for the Son is equal and like to the Father, and conversely. This is because the divine essence is not more the Father's than the Son's. Wherefore, just as the Son has the greatness of the Father, and is therefore equal to the Father, so the Father has the greatness of the Son, and is therefore equal to the Son. But in reference to creatures, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ix): "Equality and likeness are not mutual." For effects are said to be like their causes, inasmuch as they have the form of their causes; but not conversely, for the form is principally in the cause, and secondarily in the effect.

Reply Obj. 3: Equality and similarity in God can be described in two ways—by nouns and by verbs. When described by nouns, the equality among the divine persons is mutual, and so is the likeness; the Son is equal to and like the Father, and vice versa. This is because the divine essence belongs equally to both the Father and the Son. Just as the Son possesses the greatness of the Father and is therefore equal to Him, so the Father possesses the greatness of the Son and is therefore equal to Him. However, regarding creatures, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. ix): "Equality and likeness are not mutual." Effects are said to be like their causes because they share the form of their causes, but not the other way around, as the form primarily exists in the cause and only secondarily in the effect.

But verbs signify equality with movement. And although movement is not in God, there is something that receives. Since, therefore, the Son receives from the Father, this, namely, that He is equal to the Father, and not conversely, for this reason we say that the Son is equalled to the Father, but not conversely.

But verbs represent equality through movement. And even though movement isn't present in God, there is something that accepts. Since the Son receives from the Father, this means that He is equal to the Father, and not the other way around. For this reason, we say that the Son is equal to the Father, but not vice versa.

Reply Obj. 4: In the divine persons there is nothing for us to consider but the essence which they have in common and the relations in which they are distinct. Now equality implies both—namely, distinction of persons, for nothing can be said to be equal to itself; and unity of essence, since for this reason are the persons equal to one another, that they are of the same greatness and essence. Now it is clear that the relation of a thing to itself is not a real relation. Nor, again, is one relation referred to another by a further relation: for when we say that paternity is opposed to filiation, opposition is not a relation mediating between paternity and filiation. For in both these cases relation would be multiplied indefinitely. Therefore equality and likeness in the divine persons is not a real relation distinct from the personal relations: but in its concept it includes both the relations which distinguish the persons, and the unity of essence. For this reason the Master says (Sent. i, D, xxxi) that in these "it is only the terms that are relative." _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: In the divine persons, we only need to consider the essence they share and the differences in their relationships. Equality involves both—specifically, the distinction of persons, since nothing can be equal to itself, and the unity of essence, because the persons are equal to each other due to having the same magnitude and essence. It's clear that a thing's relationship to itself is not a real relationship. Additionally, one relationship cannot be referred to another by a further relationship; for example, saying that paternity is opposed to filiation doesn't create a relationship that mediates between them. In both cases, the relationships would multiply endlessly. Therefore, equality and similarity among the divine persons is not a real relationship distinct from the personal relationships, but rather, its concept encompasses both the relationships that differentiate the persons and the unity of essence. For this reason, the Master states (Sent. i, D, xxxi) that in these "it is only the terms that are relative."

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 42, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 42, Art. 2]

Whether the Person Proceeding Is Co-eternal with His Principle, As the Son with the Father?

Whether the Person acting is co-eternal with His principle, like the Son with the Father?

Objection 1: It would seem that the person proceeding is not co-eternal with His principle, as the Son with the Father. For Arius gives twelve modes of generation. The first mode is like the issue of a line from a point; wherein is wanting equality of simplicity. The second is like the emission of rays from the sun; wherein is absent equality of nature. The third is like the mark or impression made by a seal; wherein is wanting consubstantiality and executive power. The fourth is the infusion of a good will from God; wherein also consubstantiality is wanting. The fifth is the emanation of an accident from its subject; but the accident has no subsistence. The sixth is the abstraction of a species from matter, as sense receives the species from the sensible object; wherein is wanting equality of spiritual simplicity. The seventh is the exciting of the will by knowledge, which excitation is merely temporal. The eighth is transformation, as an image is made of brass; which transformation is material. The ninth is motion from a mover; and here again we have effect and cause. The tenth is the taking of species from genera; but this mode has no place in God, for the Father is not predicated of the Son as the genus of a species. The eleventh is the realization of an idea [ideatio], as an external coffer arises from the one in the mind. The twelfth is birth, as a man is begotten of his father; which implies priority and posteriority of time. Thus it is clear that equality of nature or of time is absent in every mode whereby one thing is from another. So if the Son is from the Father, we must say that He is less than the Father, or later than the Father, or both.

Objection 1: It seems that the person in question is not co-eternal with His source, like the Son is with the Father. Arius lists twelve ways of generation. The first way is like a line coming from a point; here, there is a lack of equal simplicity. The second is like rays shining from the sun; in this case, there is no equal nature. The third is like the impression made by a seal; here, there is a lack of consubstantiality and executive power. The fourth is the infusion of goodwill from God; again, consubstantiality is lacking. The fifth is the emergence of an accident from its subject; however, the accident does not have independent existence. The sixth is the abstraction of a species from matter, as perception receives the species from the object being perceived; here, there is a lack of equal spiritual simplicity. The seventh is the stimulation of the will by knowledge, which stimulation is purely temporal. The eighth is transformation, like how a statue is made of brass; this transformation is material. The ninth is movement caused by a mover; again, we have effect and cause here. The tenth is deriving species from genera; but this way does not apply to God, since the Father is not described as the genus of the Son. The eleventh is the realization of an idea, as an external box arises from the concept in the mind. The twelfth is birth, as a man is born of his father; this implies a sequence of time. Thus, it is clear that equality of nature or time is absent in every way one thing comes from another. So, if the Son comes from the Father, we must conclude that He is lesser than the Father, or later than the Father, or both.

Obj. 2: Further, everything that comes from another has a principle. But nothing eternal has a principle. Therefore the Son is not eternal; nor is the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 2: Also, everything that comes from something else has a principle. But nothing eternal has a principle. Therefore, the Son is not eternal; and neither is the Holy Spirit.

Obj. 3: Further, everything which is corrupted ceases to be. Hence everything generated begins to be; for the end of generation is existence. But the Son is generated by the Father. Therefore He begins to exist, and is not co-eternal with the Father.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, everything that is corrupted comes to an end. Therefore, everything that is created comes into being; the end of creation is existence. But the Son is created by the Father. So, He begins to exist and is not co-eternal with the Father.

Obj. 4: Further, if the Son be begotten by the Father, either He is always being begotten, or there is some moment in which He is begotten. If He is always being begotten, since, during the process of generation, a thing must be imperfect, as appears in successive things, which are always in process of becoming, as time and motion, it follows that the Son must be always imperfect, which cannot be admitted. Thus there is a moment to be assigned for the begetting of the Son, and before that moment the Son did not exist.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, if the Son is begotten by the Father, either He is always being begotten, or there is a specific moment when He is begotten. If He is always being begotten, then during the process of generation, a thing must be imperfect, as is evident in successive things that are always becoming, like time and motion. This means that the Son must always be imperfect, which cannot be accepted. Therefore, there must be a specific moment assigned for the begetting of the Son, and before that moment, the Son did not exist.

On the contrary, Athanasius declares that "all the three persons are co-eternal with each other."

On the contrary, Athanasius declares that "all three persons are co-eternal with each other."

I answer that, We must say that the Son is co-eternal with the Father. In proof of which we must consider that for a thing which proceeds from a principle to be posterior to its principle may be due to two reasons: one on the part of the agent, and the other on the part of the action. On the part of the agent this happens differently as regards free agents and natural agents. In free agents, on account of the choice of time; for as a free agent can choose the form it gives to the effect, as stated above (Q. 41, A. 2), so it can choose the time in which to produce its effect. In natural agents, however, the same happens from the agent not having its perfection of natural power from the very first, but obtaining it after a certain time; as, for instance, a man is not able to generate from the very first. Considered on the part of action, anything derived from a principle cannot exist simultaneously with its principle when the action is successive. So, given that an agent, as soon as it exists, begins to act thus, the effect would not exist in the same instant, but in the instant of the action's termination. Now it is manifest, according to what has been said (Q. 41, A. 2), that the Father does not beget the Son by will, but by nature; and also that the Father's nature was perfect from eternity; and again that the action whereby the Father produces the Son is not successive, because thus the Son would be successively generated, and this generation would be material, and accompanied with movement; which is quite impossible. Therefore we conclude that the Son existed whensoever the Father existed and thus the Son is co-eternal with the Father, and likewise the Holy Ghost is co-eternal with both.

I answer that, We must state that the Son is co-eternal with the Father. To support this, we must consider that if something comes from a source, it can be later than its source for two reasons: one related to the agent, and the other to the action. In the case of free agents, this happens differently compared to natural agents. Free agents can choose when to act; just as a free agent can choose the form of their effect, they can also choose the timing of that effect. However, in natural agents, this occurs because the agent does not have its full natural power from the beginning but gains it over time; for example, a person is not able to generate immediately. When looking at the action, anything coming from a source cannot coexist with its source when the action is sequential. Thus, since an agent, as soon as it exists, begins to act, the effect would not exist at the same moment but at the end of the action. It is clear, based on what has been stated, that the Father does not beget the Son by will, but by nature; and that the Father's nature has been perfect from eternity; and also that the action through which the Father produces the Son is not sequential, because then the Son would be generated one after the other, and this generation would be physical and involve movement; which is impossible. Therefore, we conclude that the Son existed whenever the Father existed, making the Son co-eternal with the Father, and likewise, the Holy Spirit is co-eternal with both.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says (De Verbis Domini, Serm. 38), no mode of the procession of any creature perfectly represents the divine generation. Hence we need to gather a likeness of it from many of these modes, so that what is wanting in one may be somewhat supplied from another; and thus it is declared in the council of Ephesus: "Let Splendor tell thee that the co-eternal Son existed always with the Father; let the Word announce the impassibility of His birth; let the name Son insinuate His consubstantiality." Yet, above them all the procession of the word from the intellect represents it more exactly; the intellectual word not being posterior to its source except in an intellect passing from potentiality to act; and this cannot be said of God.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says (De Verbis Domini, Serm. 38), no way that any creature comes into being perfectly reflects divine generation. Therefore, we need to gather similarities from various modes, so what is lacking in one can be somewhat fulfilled by another. As stated in the council of Ephesus: "Let Splendor tell you that the co-eternal Son has always existed with the Father; let the Word proclaim the unchanging nature of His birth; let the name Son suggest His shared essence." However, above all these, the procession of the word from the intellect represents it more accurately; the intellectual word is not dependent on its source except in an intellect transitioning from potentiality to actuality; and this cannot be said of God.

Reply Obj. 2: Eternity excludes the principle of duration, but not the principle of origin.

Reply Obj. 2: Eternity rules out the idea of duration, but it doesn't rule out the idea of origin.

Reply Obj. 3: Every corruption is a change; and so all that corrupts begins not to exist and ceases to be. The divine generation, however, is not changed, as stated above (Q. 27, A. 2). Hence the Son is ever being begotten, and the Father is always begetting.

Reply Obj. 3: Every corruption is a change; and so all that corrupts begins not to exist and ceases to be. The divine generation, however, is not changed, as stated above (Q. 27, A. 2). Hence the Son is always being begotten, and the Father is always begetting.

Reply Obj. 4: In time there is something indivisible—namely, the instant; and there is something else which endures—namely, time. But in eternity the indivisible "now" stands ever still, as we have said above (Q. 10, A. 2, ad 1; A. 4, ad 2). But the generation of the Son is not in the "now" of time, or in time, but in eternity. And so to express the presentiality and permanence of eternity, we can say that "He is ever being born," as Origen said (Hom. in Joan. i). But as Gregory [*Moral. xxix, 21] and Augustine [*Super Ps. 2:7] said, it is better to say "ever born," so that "ever" may denote the permanence of eternity, and "born" the perfection of the only Begotten. Thus, therefore, neither is the Son imperfect, nor "was there a time when He was not," as Arius said. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: In time, there’s something that can’t be divided—specifically, the instant; and there’s something that lasts—specifically, time. However, in eternity, the indivisible "now" remains constant, as we've mentioned before (Q. 10, A. 2, ad 1; A. 4, ad 2). The generation of the Son doesn’t happen in the "now" of time or in time itself, but in eternity. Therefore, to convey the constant presence and permanence of eternity, we can say that "He is always being born," as Origen noted (Hom. in Joan. i). But as Gregory [*Moral. xxix, 21] and Augustine [*Super Ps. 2:7] pointed out, it’s better to say "ever born," so that "ever" indicates the permanence of eternity and "born" signifies the perfection of the only Begotten. Thus, neither is the Son imperfect, nor was there a time when He was not, as Arius claimed.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 42, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 42, Art. 3]

Whether in the Divine Persons There Exists an Order of Nature?

Whether in the Divine Persons There Exists an Order of Nature?

Objection 1: It would seem that among the divine persons there does not exist an order of nature. For whatever exists in God is the essence, or a person, or a notion. But the order of nature does not signify the essence, nor any of the persons, or notions. Therefore there is no order of nature in God.

Objection 1: It seems that there is no order of nature among the divine persons. Everything that exists in God is either the essence, a person, or a notion. However, the order of nature doesn't refer to the essence, any of the persons, or notions. Therefore, there is no order of nature in God.

Obj. 2: Further, wherever order of nature exists, there one comes before another, at least, according to nature and intellect. But in the divine persons there exists neither priority nor posteriority, as declared by Athanasius. Therefore, in the divine persons there is no order of nature.

Obj. 2: Additionally, wherever there's a natural order, one comes before another, at least in terms of nature and intellect. However, in the divine persons, there is no priority or posteriority, as stated by Athanasius. Therefore, in the divine persons, there is no natural order.

Obj. 3: Further, wherever order exists, distinction also exists. But there is no distinction in the divine nature. Therefore it is not subject to order; and order of nature does not exist in it.

Obj. 3: Also, wherever there is order, there is distinction. But there is no distinction in the divine nature. Therefore, it is not subject to order; and the order of nature does not exist within it.

Obj. 4: Further, the divine nature is the divine essence. But there is no order of essence in God. Therefore neither is there of nature.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the divine nature is the divine essence. However, there is no hierarchy of essence in God. Therefore, there isn't one of nature either.

On the contrary, Where plurality exists without order, confusion exists. But in the divine persons there is no confusion, as Athanasius says. Therefore in God order exists.

On the contrary, where there is plurality without order, there is confusion. But in the divine persons, there is no confusion, as Athanasius states. Therefore, order exists in God.

I answer that, Order always has reference to some principle. Wherefore since there are many kinds of principle—namely, according to site, as a point; according to intellect, as the principle of demonstration; and according to each individual cause—so are there many kinds of order. Now principle, according to origin, without priority, exists in God as we have stated (Q. 33, A. 1): so there must likewise be order according to origin, without priority; and this is called 'the order of nature': in the words of Augustine (Contra Maxim. iv): "Not whereby one is prior to another, but whereby one is from another."

I reply that, Order is always connected to some principle. Since there are various types of principles—like location, as in a point; intellect, as in the principle of demonstration; and each individual cause—there are also many forms of order. Now, the principle, based on origin and without priority, exists in God as we have stated (Q. 33, A. 1): therefore, there must also be an order based on origin, without priority; this is referred to as 'the order of nature': as Augustine put it (Contra Maxim. iv): "Not in a way that one is prior to another, but in a way that one comes from another."

Reply Obj. 1: The order of nature signifies the notion of origin in general, not a special kind of origin.

Reply Obj. 1: The order of nature refers to the concept of origin in general, not a specific type of origin.

Reply Obj. 2: In things created, even when what is derived from a principle is co-equal in duration with its principle, the principle still comes first in the order of nature and reason, if formally considered as principle. If, however, we consider the relations of cause and effect, or of the principle and the thing proceeding therefrom, it is clear that the things so related are simultaneous in the order of nature and reason, inasmuch as the one enters the definition of the other. But in God the relations themselves are the persons subsisting in one nature. So, neither on the part of the nature, nor on the part the relations, can one person be prior to another, not even in the order of nature and reason.

Reply Obj. 2: In created things, even when something that comes from a principle has the same duration as its principle, the principle still takes precedence in terms of nature and reason, when considered as a principle. However, if we look at the relationships of cause and effect, or of the principle and what comes from it, it's clear that these related things exist simultaneously in the order of nature and reason, since one defines the other. But in God, the relationships themselves are the persons that exist in one nature. Therefore, neither in terms of nature nor in terms of the relationships can one person be considered before another, not even in the order of nature and reason.

Reply Obj. 3: The order of nature means not the ordering of nature itself, but the existence of order in the divine Persons according to natural origin.

Reply Obj. 3: The order of nature refers not to the arrangement of nature itself, but to the existence of order among the divine Persons based on their natural origin.

Reply Obj. 4: Nature in a certain way implies the idea of a principle, but essence does not; and so the order of origin is more correctly called the order of nature than the order of essence. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Nature in a certain way suggests the idea of a principle, but essence does not; therefore, the order of origin is more accurately referred to as the order of nature rather than the order of essence.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 4, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 4, Art. 4]

Whether the Son Is Equal to the Father in Greatness?

Whether the Son is Equal to the Father in Greatness?

Objection 1: It would seem that the Son is not equal to the Father in greatness. For He Himself said (John 14:28): "The Father is greater than I"; and the Apostle says (1 Cor. 15:28): "The Son Himself shall be subject to Him that put all things under Him."

Objection 1: It seems that the Son is not equal to the Father in greatness. For He Himself said (John 14:28): "The Father is greater than I"; and the Apostle says (1 Cor. 15:28): "The Son Himself will be subject to the One who put all things under Him."

Obj. 2: Further, paternity is part of the Father's dignity. But paternity does not belong to the Son. Therefore the Son does not possess all the Father's dignity; and so He is not equal in greatness to the Father.

Obj. 2: Also, paternity is part of the Father's dignity. But paternity doesn't belong to the Son. Therefore, the Son doesn't have all the Father's dignity; and so He is not equal in greatness to the Father.

Obj. 3: Further, wherever there exist a whole and a part, many parts are more than one only, or than fewer parts; as three men are more than two, or than one. But in God a universal whole exists, and a part; for under relation or notion, several notions are included. Therefore, since in the Father there are three notions, while in the Son there are only two, the Son is evidently not equal to the Father.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, whenever there is a whole and a part, there are usually multiple parts rather than just one or fewer parts; for instance, three men are more than two or one. In God, there exists a universal whole and a part; because within the concept or notion, several ideas are included. Therefore, since the Father contains three ideas while the Son contains only two, it is clear that the Son is not equal to the Father.

On the contrary, It is said (Phil. 2:6): "He thought it not robbery to be equal with God."

On the contrary, It is said (Phil. 2:6): "He didn't think it was wrong to be equal with God."

I answer that, The Son is necessarily equal to the Father in greatness. For the greatness of God is nothing but the perfection of His nature. Now it belongs to the very nature of paternity and filiation that the Son by generation should attain to the possession of the perfection of the nature which is in the Father, in the same way as it is in the Father Himself. But since in men generation is a certain kind of transmutation of one proceeding from potentiality to act, it follows that a man is not equal at first to the father who begets him, but attains to equality by due growth, unless owing to a defect in the principle of generation it should happen otherwise. From what precedes (Q. 27, A. 2; Q. 33, AA. 2 ,3), it is evident that in God there exist real true paternity and filiation. Nor can we say that the power of generation in the Father was defective, nor that the Son of God arrived at perfection in a successive manner and by change. Therefore we must say that the Son was eternally equal to the Father in greatness. Hence, Hilary says (De Synod. Can. 27): "Remove bodily weakness, remove the beginning of conception, remove pain and all human shortcomings, then every son, by reason of his natural nativity, is the father's equal, because he has a like nature."

I respond that, The Son is necessarily equal to the Father in greatness. The greatness of God is simply the perfection of His nature. It is inherent to the nature of being a parent and a child that the Son, through generation, achieves the fullness of the perfection found in the Father, just as it is in the Father Himself. However, since in humans, generation involves a transformation from potential to actual existence, a person initially is not equal to the father who begets him but reaches equality through proper growth, unless a defect in the process of generation causes otherwise. From the previous discussions (Q. 27, A. 2; Q. 33, AA. 2, 3), it is clear that in God, true paternity and filiation genuinely exist. We cannot say that the Father’s generative power was flawed, nor can we claim that the Son of God attained perfection gradually or through change. Thus, we must affirm that the Son has always been equal to the Father in greatness. Therefore, Hilary states (De Synod. Can. 27): "Remove physical weakness, remove the beginning of conception, remove pain and all human limits, then every son, by virtue of his natural birth, is equal to his father, because he shares the same nature."

Reply Obj. 1: These words are to be understood of Christ's human nature, wherein He is less than the Father, and subject to Him; but in His divine nature He is equal to the Father. This is expressed by Athanasius, "Equal to the Father in His Godhead; less than the Father in humanity": and by Hilary (De Trin. ix): "By the fact of giving, the Father is greater; but He is not less to Whom the same being is given"; and (De Synod.): "The Son subjects Himself by His inborn piety"—that is, by His recognition of paternal authority; whereas "creatures are subject by their created weakness."

Reply Obj. 1: These words refer to Christ's human nature, in which He is less than the Father and subject to Him; but in His divine nature, He is equal to the Father. Athanasius expresses this by saying, "Equal to the Father in His Godhead; less than the Father in humanity." Hilary states (De Trin. ix): "By the act of giving, the Father is greater; but He is not less to Whom the same being is given"; and in (De Synod.): "The Son subjects Himself by His inherent reverence"—meaning through His acknowledgment of paternal authority; whereas "creatures are subject due to their created weakness."

Reply Obj. 2: Equality is measured by greatness. In God greatness signifies the perfection of nature, as above explained (A. 1, ad 1), and belongs to the essence. Thus equality and likeness in God have reference to the essence; nor can there be inequality or dissimilitude arising from the distinction of the relations. Wherefore Augustine says (Contra Maxim. iii, 13), "The question of origin is, Who is from whom? but the question of equality is, Of what kind, or how great, is he?" Therefore, paternity is the Father's dignity, as also the Father's essence: since dignity is something absolute, and pertains to the essence. As, therefore, the same essence, which in the Father is paternity, in the Son is filiation, so the same dignity which, in the Father is paternity, in the Son is filiation. It is thus true to say that the Son possesses whatever dignity the Father has; but we cannot argue—"the Father has paternity, therefore the Son has paternity," for there is a transition from substance to relation. For the Father and the Son have the same essence and dignity, which exist in the Father by the relation of giver, and in the Son by relation of receiver.

Reply Obj. 2: Equality is measured by greatness. In God, greatness means the perfection of nature, as explained earlier (A. 1, ad 1), and it’s part of His essence. So, equality and similarity in God relate to His essence; there can’t be inequality or dissimilarity because of the distinctions in relationships. Thus, Augustine says (Contra Maxim. iii, 13), "The question of origin is, Who is from whom? but the question of equality is, Of what kind, or how great, is he?" Therefore, paternity is the Father's dignity, as well as the Father's essence: dignity is something absolute and relates to the essence. Just as the same essence, which is paternity in the Father, is filiation in the Son, the same dignity that is paternity in the Father is filiation in the Son. It’s accurate to say that the Son has whatever dignity the Father has; however, we can’t argue—"the Father has paternity, therefore the Son has paternity," because there’s a shift from substance to relationship. The Father and the Son share the same essence and dignity, which exist in the Father through the relationship of giver and in the Son through the relationship of receiver.

Reply Obj. 3: In God relation is not a universal whole, although it is predicated of each of the relations; because all the relations are one in essence and being, which is irreconcilable with the idea of universal, the parts of which are distinguished in being. Person likewise is not a universal term in God as we have seen above (Q. 30, A. 4). Wherefore all the relations together are not greater than only one; nor are all the persons something greater than only one; because the whole perfection of the divine nature exists in each person. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: In God, relation is not a universal whole, even though it applies to each of the relations; because all the relations are one in essence and being, which cannot be reconciled with the idea of universal, where the parts are distinguished in being. Person, as we have seen above (Q. 30, A. 4), is also not a universal term in God. Therefore, all the relations together are not greater than just one; nor are all the persons something greater than just one; because the entire perfection of the divine nature exists in each person.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 42, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 42, Art. 5]

Whether the Son Is in the Father, and Conversely?

Whether the Son is in the Father, and vice versa?

Objection 1: It would seem that the Son and the Father are not in each other. For the Philosopher (Phys. iv, text. 23) gives eight modes of one thing existing in another, according to none of which is the Son in the Father, or conversely; as is patent to anyone who examines each mode. Therefore the Son and the Father are not in each other.

Objection 1: It appears that the Son and the Father do not coexist within each other. The Philosopher (Phys. iv, text. 23) lists eight ways that one thing can exist within another, and none of these apply to the Son being in the Father, or vice versa; this is obvious to anyone who considers each way. Therefore, the Son and the Father are not within each other.

Obj. 2: Further, nothing that has come out from another is within. But the Son from eternity came out from the Father, according to Mic. 5:2: "His going forth is from the beginning, from the days of eternity." Therefore the Son is not in the Father.

Obj. 2: Additionally, nothing that originates from something else is within it. But the Son has existed eternally, coming from the Father, as stated in Mic. 5:2: "His going forth is from the beginning, from the days of eternity." Therefore, the Son is not in the Father.

Obj. 3: Further, one of two opposites cannot be in the other. But the Son and the Father are relatively opposed. Therefore one cannot be in the other.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, one of two opposing things cannot exist within the other. However, the Son and the Father are relatively opposed. Therefore, one cannot exist within the other.

On the contrary, It is said (John 14:10): "I am in the Father, and the Father is in Me."

On the contrary, It is said (John 14:10): "I am in the Father, and the Father is in Me."

I answer that, There are three points of consideration as regards the Father and the Son; the essence, the relation and the origin; and according to each the Son and the Father are in each other. The Father is in the Son by His essence, forasmuch as the Father is His own essence and communicates His essence to the Son not by any change on His part. Hence it follows that as the Father's essence is in the Son, the Father Himself is in the Son; likewise, since the Son is His own essence, it follows that He Himself is in the Father in Whom is His essence. This is expressed by Hilary (De Trin. v), "The unchangeable God, so to speak, follows His own nature in begetting an unchangeable subsisting God. So we understand the nature of God to subsist in Him, for He is God in God." It is also manifest that as regards the relations, each of two relative opposites is in the concept of the other. Regarding origin also, it is clear that the procession of the intelligible word is not outside the intellect, inasmuch as it remains in the utterer of the word. What also is uttered by the word is therein contained. And the same applies to the Holy Ghost.

I respond that, There are three key points to consider regarding the Father and the Son: their essence, their relationship, and their origin. In each of these aspects, the Son and the Father exist within one another. The Father exists in the Son through His essence, since the Father is His own essence and shares that essence with the Son without any change on His part. Thus, since the Father's essence is in the Son, the Father Himself is in the Son; similarly, since the Son is His own essence, He is also in the Father, in whom His essence resides. Hilary expresses this well (De Trin. v), stating, "The unchangeable God, in a sense, follows His own nature in begetting an unchangeable, existing God. So we understand that the nature of God exists within Him, for He is God in God." It is also evident that concerning their relationships, each of the two relational opposites exists in the concept of the other. With regard to origin, it is clear that the procession of the intelligible word happens within the intellect, as it remains in the one who speaks the word. Everything that is expressed by the word is contained within it. The same applies to the Holy Spirit.

Reply Obj. 1: What is contained in creatures does not sufficiently represent what exists in God; so according to none of the modes enumerated by the Philosopher, are the Son and the Father in each other. The mode the most nearly approaching to the reality is to be found in that whereby something exists in its originating principle, except that the unity of essence between the principle and that which proceeds therefrom is wanting in things created.

Reply Obj. 1: What exists in creatures doesn’t fully represent what exists in God; therefore, according to none of the ways listed by the Philosopher, do the Son and the Father exist in one another. The closest representation of reality is found in something that exists in its source, except that the unity of essence between the source and what comes from it is missing in created things.

Reply Obj. 2: The Son's going forth from the Father is by mode of the interior procession whereby the word emerges from the heart and remains therein. Hence this going forth in God is only by the distinction of the relations, not by any kind of essential separation.

Reply Obj. 2: The Son's coming from the Father happens through an inner process where the Word comes out from the heart and stays there. Therefore, this coming from God is only by the distinction of relationships, not by any kind of essential separation.

Reply Obj. 3: The Father and the Son are relatively opposed, but not essentially; while, as above explained, one relative opposite is in the other. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The Father and the Son are relatively opposed, but not essentially; while, as explained above, one relative opposite is in the other.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 42, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 42, Art. 6]

Whether the Son Is Equal to the Father in Power?

Whether the Son is Equal to the Father in Power?

Objection 1: It would seem that the Son is not equal to the Father in power. For it is said (John 5:19): "The Son cannot do anything of Himself but what He seeth the Father doing." But the Father can act of Himself. Therefore the Father's power is greater than the Son's.

Objection 1: It seems that the Son is not equal to the Father in power. For it says (John 5:19): "The Son can do nothing by Himself except what He sees the Father doing." But the Father can act on His own. Therefore, the Father's power is greater than the Son's.

Obj. 2: Further, greater is the power of him who commands and teaches than of him who obeys and hears. But the Father commands the Son according to John 14:31: "As the Father gave Me commandment so do I." The Father also teaches the Son: "The Father loveth the Son, and showeth Him all things that Himself doth" (John 5:20). Also, the Son hears: "As I hear, so I judge" (John 5:30). Therefore the Father has greater power than the Son.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the one who commands and teaches has more power than the one who obeys and listens. The Father commands the Son, as stated in John 14:31: "As the Father gave Me commandment, so do I." The Father also teaches the Son: "The Father loves the Son and shows Him everything He does" (John 5:20). Additionally, the Son listens: "As I hear, so I judge" (John 5:30). Therefore, the Father has greater power than the Son.

Obj. 3: Further, it belongs to the Father's omnipotence to be able to beget a Son equal to Himself. For Augustine says (Contra Maxim. iii, 7), "Were He unable to beget one equal to Himself, where would be the omnipotence of God the Father?" But the Son cannot beget a Son, as proved above (Q. 41, A. 6). Therefore the Son cannot do all that belongs to the Father's omnipotence; and hence He is not equal to Him power.

Obj. 3: Moreover, it is part of the Father’s omnipotence that He can beget a Son who is equal to Himself. Augustine states (Contra Maxim. iii, 7), "If He were unable to beget one equal to Himself, where would be the omnipotence of God the Father?" However, the Son cannot beget a Son, as shown earlier (Q. 41, A. 6). Therefore, the Son cannot perform all that is within the Father’s omnipotence; thus, He is not equal to Him in power.

On the contrary, It is said (John 5:19): "Whatsoever things the Father doth, these the Son also doth in like manner."

On the contrary, It is said (John 5:19): "Whatever the Father does, the Son does too in the same way."

I answer that, The Son is necessarily equal to the Father in power. Power of action is a consequence of perfection in nature. In creatures, for instance, we see that the more perfect the nature, the greater power is there for action. Now it was shown above (A. 4) that the very notion of the divine paternity and filiation requires that the Son should be the Father's equal in greatness—that is, in perfection of nature. Hence it follows that the Son is equal to the Father in power; and the same applies to the Holy Ghost in relation to both.

I respond that, The Son is inherently equal to the Father in power. The ability to act stems from the perfection of one's nature. In creatures, for example, we observe that the more perfect the nature, the greater the ability to act. Now it has been established above (A. 4) that the very concept of divine parenthood and offspring necessitates that the Son must be equal to the Father in greatness—that is, in the perfection of nature. Therefore, it follows that the Son is equal to the Father in power; and the same holds true for the Holy Spirit in relation to both.

Reply Obj. 1: The words, "the Son cannot of Himself do anything," do not withdraw from the Son any power possessed by the Father, since it is immediately added, "Whatsoever things the Father doth, the Son doth in like manner"; but their meaning is to show that the Son derives His power from the Father, of Whom He receives His nature. Hence, Hilary says (De Trin. ix), "The unity of the divine nature implies that the Son so acts of Himself [per se], that He does not act by Himself [a se]."

Reply Obj. 1: The statement "the Son cannot do anything by Himself" doesn't take away any power from the Son that the Father has, since it adds right after, "Whatever the Father does, the Son also does in the same way"; its purpose is to show that the Son receives His power from the Father, from whom He gets His nature. Thus, Hilary states (De Trin. ix), "The unity of divine nature means that the Son acts from Himself [per se], but not by Himself [a se]."

Reply Obj. 2: The Father's "showing" and the Son's "hearing" are to be taken in the sense that the Father communicates knowledge to the Son, as He communicates His essence. The command of the Father can be explained in the same sense, as giving Him from eternity knowledge and will to act, by begetting Him. Or, better still, this may be referred to Christ in His human nature.

Reply Obj. 2: The Father's "showing" and the Son's "hearing" mean that the Father shares knowledge with the Son, just as He shares His essence. The Father's command can be understood in the same way, as giving the Son eternal knowledge and the will to act through begetting Him. Alternatively, this could be understood in relation to Christ in His human nature.

Reply Obj. 3: As the same essence is paternity in the Father, and filiation in the Son: so by the same power the Father begets, and the Son is begotten. Hence it is clear that the Son can do whatever the Father can do; yet it does not follow that the Son can beget; for to argue thus would imply transition from substance to relation, for generation signifies a divine relation. So the Son has the same omnipotence as the Father, but with another relation; the Father possessing power as "giving" signified when we say that He is able to beget; while the Son possesses the power of "receiving," signified by saying that He can be begotten. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Just as paternity is the same essence in the Father and filiation in the Son, the Father begets and the Son is begotten by the same power. This makes it clear that the Son can do everything the Father can do, but it doesn't mean the Son can beget. To argue that would mean switching from substance to relation, as generation indicates a divine relation. So, the Son has the same omnipotence as the Father, but in a different way; the Father has power as "giver," which is indicated when we say He can beget, while the Son has the power of "receiver," shown by saying He can be begotten.

QUESTION 43

THE MISSION OF THE DIVINE PERSONS
(In Eight Articles)

THE MISSION OF THE DIVINE PERSONS
(In Eight Articles)

We next consider the mission of the divine persons, concerning which there are eight points of inquiry:

We will now look at the mission of the divine beings, which raises eight questions:

(1) Whether it is suitable for a divine person to be sent?

(1) Is it appropriate for a divine person to be sent?

(2) Whether mission is eternal, or only temporal?

(2) Is the mission eternal, or just temporary?

(3) In what sense a divine person is invisibly sent?

(3) How is a divine person sent without being seen?

(4) Whether it is fitting that each person be sent?

(4) Is it appropriate for each person to be sent?

(5) Whether both the Son and the Holy Ghost are invisibly sent?

(5) Are both the Son and the Holy Spirit sent invisibly?

(6) To whom the invisible mission is directed?

(6) Who is the invisible mission aimed at?

(7) Of the visible mission.

Of the visible mission.

(8) Whether any person sends Himself visibly or invisibly? _______________________

(8) Does anyone send themselves visibly or invisibly? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 1]

Whether a Divine Person Can Be Properly Sent?

Whether a Divine Person Can Be Properly Sent?

Objection 1: It would seem that a divine person cannot be properly sent. For one who is sent is less than the sender. But one divine person is not less than another. Therefore one person is not sent by another.

Objection 1: It seems that a divine person cannot be properly sent. For someone who is sent is less than the sender. But one divine person is not less than another. Therefore, one person is not sent by another.

Obj. 2: Further, what is sent is separated from the sender; hence Jerome says, commenting on Ezech. 16:53: "What is joined and tied in one body cannot be sent." But in the divine persons there is nothing that is separable, as Hilary says (De Trin. vii). Therefore one person is not sent by another.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, what is sent is distinct from the sender; hence Jerome notes, commenting on Ezech. 16:53: "What is joined and tied in one body cannot be sent." However, in the divine persons, there is nothing that can be separated, as Hilary states (De Trin. vii). Therefore, one person is not sent by another.

Obj. 3: Further, whoever is sent, departs from one place and comes anew into another. But this does not apply to a divine person, Who is everywhere. Therefore it is not suitable for a divine person to be sent.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, anyone who is sent leaves one place and arrives in another. But this doesn't apply to a divine being, who is present everywhere. So, it doesn’t make sense for a divine being to be sent.

On the contrary, It is said (John 8:16): "I am not alone, but I and the Father that sent Me."

On the contrary, It is said (John 8:16): "I'm not alone; it's me and the Father who sent me."

I answer that, the notion of mission includes two things: the habitude of the one sent to the sender; and that of the one sent to the end whereto he is sent. Anyone being sent implies a certain kind of procession of the one sent from the sender: either according to command, as the master sends the servant; or according to counsel, as an adviser may be said to send the king to battle; or according to origin, as a tree sends forth its flowers. The habitude to the term to which he is sent is also shown, so that in some way he begins to be present there: either because in no way was he present before in the place whereto he is sent, or because he begins to be there in some way in which he was not there hitherto. Thus the mission of a divine person is a fitting thing, as meaning in one way the procession of origin from the sender, and as meaning a new way of existing in another; thus the Son is said to be sent by the Father into the world, inasmuch as He began to exist visibly in the world by taking our nature; whereas "He was" previously "in the world" (John 1:1).

I answer that, the concept of mission involves two aspects: the relationship of the one being sent to the sender, and the relationship of the one being sent to the destination they are going to. Being sent implies a type of movement from the sender: either by command, like when a master sends a servant; or by advice, as a counselor might advise a king to go to war; or by origin, like how a tree produces its blossoms. The relationship to the destination is also important, as the person being sent begins to be present there: either because they weren't present at all before in the place they are being sent to, or because they start to be there in a way they weren't before. Therefore, the mission of a divine person is appropriate, as it reflects both the process of originating from the sender and a new way of existing elsewhere; thus, the Son is said to be sent by the Father into the world, as He began to exist visibly in the world by taking on our humanity; whereas "He was" previously "in the world" (John 1:1).

Reply Obj. 1: Mission implies inferiority in the one sent, when it means procession from the sender as principle, by command or counsel; forasmuch as the one commanding is the greater, and the counsellor is the wiser. In God, however, it means only procession of origin, which is according to equality, as explained above (Q. 42, AA. 4, 6).

Reply Obj. 1: A mission suggests that the person being sent is lesser, as it denotes a process coming from the sender as the main source, through command or advice; since the one giving the command is superior, and the one advising is more knowledgeable. However, in the case of God, it only denotes an originating process, which is based on equality, as explained above (Q. 42, AA. 4, 6).

Reply Obj. 2: What is so sent as to begin to exist where previously it did not exist, is locally moved by being sent; hence it is necessarily separated locally from the sender. This, however, has no place in the mission of a divine person; for the divine person sent neither begins to exist where he did not previously exist, nor ceases to exist where He was. Hence such a mission takes place without a separation, having only distinction of origin.

Reply Obj. 2: What is sent to start existing where it didn’t exist before is moved locally by being sent; therefore, it is necessarily separated locally from the sender. However, this does not apply to the mission of a divine person; because the divine person sent neither starts to exist where he didn’t previously exist, nor does he stop existing where He was. Thus, such a mission occurs without a separation, having only a distinction of origin.

Reply Obj. 3: This objection rests on the idea of mission according to local motion, which is not in God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: This objection is based on the idea of a mission tied to local movement, which does not exist in God.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 2]

Whether Mission Is Eternal, or Only Temporal?

Whether the mission is eternal or just temporary?

Objection 1: It would seem that mission can be eternal. For Gregory says (Hom. xxvi, in Ev.), "The Son is sent as He is begotten." But the Son's generation is eternal. Therefore mission is eternal.

Objection 1: It seems that mission can be eternal. For Gregory says (Hom. xxvi, in Ev.), "The Son is sent as He is begotten." But the Son's generation is eternal. Therefore, mission is eternal.

Obj. 2: Further, a thing is changed if it becomes something temporally. But a divine person is not changed. Therefore the mission of a divine person is not temporal, but eternal.

Obj. 2: Additionally, something is considered changed if it becomes different in time. But a divine person does not change. Therefore, the mission of a divine person is not temporary, but eternal.

Obj. 3: Further, mission implies procession. But the procession of the divine persons is eternal. Therefore mission is also eternal.

Obj. 3: Additionally, mission implies progression. However, the progression of the divine persons is eternal. Therefore, mission is also eternal.

On the contrary, It is said (Gal. 4:4): "When the fullness of the time was come, God sent His Son."

On the contrary, It is said (Gal. 4:4): "When the right time came, God sent His Son."

I answer that, A certain difference is to be observed in all the words that express the origin of the divine persons. For some express only relation to the principle, as "procession" and "going forth." Others express the term of procession together with the relation to the principle. Of these some express the eternal term, as "generation" and "spiration"; for generation is the procession of the divine person into the divine nature, and passive spiration is the procession of the subsisting love. Others express the temporal term with the relation to the principle, as "mission" and "giving." For a thing is sent that it may be in something else, and is given that it may be possessed; but that a divine person be possessed by any creature, or exist in it in a new mode, is temporal.

I respond that, There is a clear difference in all the terms that describe the origins of the divine persons. Some terms only indicate a relationship to the principle, like "procession" and "going forth." Others indicate both the end of the procession and the relationship to the principle. Among these, some indicate the eternal end, such as "generation" and "spiration"; generation refers to the procession of the divine person into the divine nature, while passive spiration is the procession of existing love. Others indicate the temporal end in relation to the principle, like "mission" and "giving." A thing is sent so that it can exist within something else, and it is given so that it can be possessed; however, for a divine person to be possessed by any creature or to exist within it in a new way is temporal.

Hence "mission" and "giving" have only a temporal significance in God; but "generation" and "spiration" are exclusively eternal; whereas "procession" and "giving," in God, have both an eternal and a temporal signification: for the Son may proceed eternally as God; but temporally, by becoming man, according to His visible mission, or likewise by dwelling in man according to His invisible mission.

Hence, "mission" and "giving" are only temporary concepts in God; but "generation" and "spiration" are purely eternal. On the other hand, "procession" and "giving" in God have both an eternal and a temporary meaning: the Son can proceed eternally as God, but temporally, by becoming man, according to His visible mission, or also by dwelling in man according to His invisible mission.

Reply Obj. 1: Gregory speaks of the temporal generation of the Son, not from the Father, but from His mother; or it may be taken to mean that He could be sent because eternally begotten.

Reply Obj. 1: Gregory talks about the Son's temporary generation, not from the Father, but from His mother; or it could mean that He could be sent because He is eternally begotten.

Reply Obj. 2: That a divine person may newly exist in anyone, or be possessed by anyone in time, does not come from change of the divine person, but from change in the creature; as God Himself is called Lord temporally by change of the creature.

Reply Obj. 2: The fact that a divine person may newly exist in someone or be present in someone over time doesn't come from any change in the divine person but from a change in the creature; just as God Himself is called Lord in a temporal sense due to the changes in the creature.

Reply Obj. 3: Mission signifies not only procession from the principle, but also determines the temporal term of the procession. Hence mission is only temporal. Or we may say that it includes the eternal procession, with the addition of a temporal effect. For the relation of a divine person to His principle must be eternal. Hence the procession may be called a twin procession, eternal and temporal, not that there is a double relation to the principle, but a double term, temporal and eternal. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Mission signifies not just coming from the principle, but also establishes the time frame of that coming. Therefore, mission is solely temporal. Alternatively, we could say that it encompasses the eternal procession, along with a temporal effect. The relationship of a divine person to His principle must be eternal. Thus, the procession can be referred to as a twin procession, both eternal and temporal, not because there is a double relation to the principle, but because there are two terms—temporal and eternal.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 3]

Whether the Invisible Mission of the Divine Person Is Only According to the Gift of Sanctifying Grace?

Whether the Hidden Mission of the Divine Person Is Only According to the Gift of Sanctifying Grace?

Objection 1: It would seem that the invisible mission of the divine person is not only according to the gift of sanctifying grace. For the sending of a divine person means that He is given. Hence if the divine person is sent only according to the gift of sanctifying grace, the divine person Himself will not be given, but only His gifts; and this is the error of those who say that the Holy Ghost is not given, but that His gifts are given.

Objection 1: It seems that the invisible mission of the divine person is not solely connected to the gift of sanctifying grace. The sending of a divine person implies that He is being given. Therefore, if the divine person is sent only in terms of the gift of sanctifying grace, then the divine person Himself is not given, but only His gifts. This is the mistake of those who claim that the Holy Spirit is not given, but only His gifts.

Obj. 2: Further, this preposition, "according to," denotes the habitude of some cause. But the divine person is the cause why the gift of sanctifying grace is possessed, and not conversely, according to Rom. 5:5, "the charity of God is poured forth in our hearts by the Holy Ghost, Who is given to us." Therefore it is improperly said that the divine person is sent according to the gift of sanctifying grace.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the phrase "according to" indicates the relationship of a cause. The divine person is the reason we have the gift of sanctifying grace, not the other way around, as stated in Rom. 5:5, "the love of God is poured into our hearts through the Holy Spirit, who has been given to us." Therefore, it's incorrect to say that the divine person is sent in accordance with the gift of sanctifying grace.

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20) that "the Son, when temporally perceived by the mind, is sent." But the Son is known not only by sanctifying grace, but also by gratuitous grace, as by faith and knowledge. Therefore the divine person is not sent only according to the gift of sanctifying grace.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20) that "the Son, when temporarily perceived by the mind, is sent." However, the Son is recognized not only through sanctifying grace but also through free grace, such as faith and knowledge. Therefore, the divine person is not sent only according to the gift of sanctifying grace.

Obj. 4: Further, Rabanus says that the Holy Ghost was given to the apostles for the working of miracles. This, however, is not a gift of sanctifying grace, but a gratuitous grace. Therefore the divine person is not given only according to the gift of sanctifying grace.

Obj. 4: Additionally, Rabanus states that the Holy Spirit was given to the apostles to perform miracles. However, this is not a gift of sanctifying grace but rather a free gift of grace. Thus, the divine person is not given solely through the gift of sanctifying grace.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4) that "the Holy Ghost proceeds temporally for the creature's sanctification." But mission is a temporal procession. Since then the creature's sanctification is by sanctifying grace, it follows that the mission of the divine person is only by sanctifying grace.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4) that "the Holy Spirit comes into action temporarily for the sanctification of creatures." But mission is a temporary process. Since the sanctification of creatures is through sanctifying grace, it follows that the mission of the divine person is only through sanctifying grace.

I answer that, The divine person is fittingly sent in the sense that He exists newly in any one; and He is given as possessed by anyone; and neither of these is otherwise than by sanctifying grace.

I respond that, The divine person is appropriately sent in the sense that He exists newly in anyone; and He is given as someone who possesses Him; and neither of these happens except through sanctifying grace.

For God is in all things by His essence, power and presence, according to His one common mode, as the cause existing in the effects which participate in His goodness. Above and beyond this common mode, however, there is one special mode belonging to the rational nature wherein God is said to be present as the object known is in the knower, and the beloved in the lover. And since the rational creature by its operation of knowledge and love attains to God Himself, according to this special mode God is said not only to exist in the rational creature but also to dwell therein as in His own temple. So no other effect can be put down as the reason why the divine person is in the rational creature in a new mode, except sanctifying grace. Hence, the divine person is sent, and proceeds temporally only according to sanctifying grace.

For God is present in everything through His essence, power, and presence, in a uniform way, as the cause that exists within the effects that share in His goodness. However, beyond this general manner, there is a unique way concerning rational beings, where God is seen as being present like the object known is within the knower, and like the beloved is within the lover. Since rational beings, through their ability to know and love, reach God Himself, in this unique way, God is said not only to exist within rational beings but also to dwell within them as in His own temple. Therefore, no other reason can explain why the divine person is in a rational creature in a new way, except for sanctifying grace. Thus, the divine person is sent and proceeds in time only through sanctifying grace.

Again, we are said to possess only what we can freely use or enjoy: and to have the power of enjoying the divine person can only be according to sanctifying grace. And yet the Holy Ghost is possessed by man, and dwells within him, in the very gift itself of sanctifying grace. Hence the Holy Ghost Himself is given and sent.

Again, it’s said that we only truly have what we can freely use or enjoy: the ability to enjoy the divine presence can only come through sanctifying grace. Yet, the Holy Spirit is within us and dwells in us through the gift of sanctifying grace. Therefore, the Holy Spirit is both given and sent.

Reply Obj. 1: By the gift of sanctifying grace the rational creature is perfected so that it can freely use not only the created gift itself, but enjoy also the divine person Himself; and so the invisible mission takes place according to the gift of sanctifying grace; and yet the divine person Himself is given.

Reply Obj. 1: Through the gift of sanctifying grace, a rational being is perfected so that it can freely use not only the created gift itself but also enjoy the divine person. Therefore, the invisible mission occurs in line with the gift of sanctifying grace, and yet the divine person is given.

Reply Obj. 2: Sanctifying grace disposes the soul to possess the divine person; and this is signified when it is said that the Holy Ghost is given according to the gift of grace. Nevertheless the gift itself of grace is from the Holy Ghost; which is meant by the words, "the charity of God is poured forth in our hearts by the Holy Ghost."

Reply Obj. 2: Sanctifying grace prepares the soul to have a relationship with the divine; this is indicated by the statement that the Holy Spirit is given through the gift of grace. However, the gift of grace itself comes from the Holy Spirit, as expressed in the words, "the love of God is poured into our hearts by the Holy Spirit."

Reply Obj. 3: Although the Son can be known by us according to other effects, yet neither does He dwell in us, nor is He possessed by us according to those effects.

Reply Obj. 3: While we can recognize the Son through other effects, He neither resides in us nor is owned by us through those effects.

Reply Obj. 4: The working of miracles manifests sanctifying grace as also does the gift of prophecy and any other gratuitous graces. Hence gratuitous grace is called the "manifestation of the Spirit" (1 Cor. 12:7). So the Holy Ghost is said to be given to the apostles for the working of miracles, because sanctifying grace was given to them with the outward sign. Were the sign only of sanctifying grace given to them without the grace itself, it would not be simply said that the Holy Ghost was given, except with some qualifying term; just as we read of certain ones receiving the gift of the spirit of prophecy, or of miracles, as having from the Holy Ghost the power of prophesying or of working miracles. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The ability to work miracles shows God's grace, just like the gift of prophecy and other special graces. That's why it's called the "manifestation of the Spirit" (1 Cor. 12:7). The Holy Spirit was given to the apostles for performing miracles because they received God's grace along with a visible sign. If they had received only the sign of grace without the grace itself, it wouldn’t be accurate to say that the Holy Spirit was given; we would need to use a different expression. This is similar to how we see some people receiving the gift of the spirit of prophecy or the ability to perform miracles, indicating that they got the power to prophesy or perform miracles from the Holy Spirit.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 4]

Whether the Father Can Be Fittingly Sent?

Whether the Father Can Be Appropriately Sent?

Objection 1: It would seem that it is fitting also that the Father should be sent. For being sent means that the divine person is given. But the Father gives Himself since He can only be possessed by His giving Himself. Therefore it can be said that the Father sends Himself.

Objection 1: It seems appropriate that the Father should also be sent. Being sent implies that the divine person is given. But the Father gives Himself since He can only be possessed by giving Himself. So, it can be said that the Father sends Himself.

Obj. 2: Further, the divine person is sent according to the indwelling of grace. But by grace the whole Trinity dwells in us according to John 14:23: "We will come to him and make Our abode with him." Therefore each one of the divine persons is sent.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the divine person is sent based on the presence of grace. Through grace, the entire Trinity lives within us, as stated in John 14:23: "We will come to him and make Our home with him." Therefore, each of the divine persons is sent.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever belongs to one person, belongs to them all, except the notions and persons. But mission does not signify any person; nor even a notion, since there are only five notions, as stated above (Q. 32, A. 3). Therefore every divine person can be sent.

Obj. 3: Also, whatever belongs to one person belongs to all, except for concepts and individuals. But a mission doesn’t refer to any individual; nor does it refer to a concept, since there are only five concepts, as mentioned earlier (Q. 32, A. 3). So, every divine person can be sent.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. ii, 3), "The Father alone is never described as being sent."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. ii, 3), "The Father alone is never described as being sent."

I answer that, The very idea of mission means procession from another, and in God it means procession according to origin, as above expounded. Hence, as the Father is not from another, in no way is it fitting for Him to be sent; but this can only belong to the Son and to the Holy Ghost, to Whom it belongs to be from another.

I answer that, The concept of mission implies coming from another, and in relation to God, it refers to coming forth based on origin, as explained above. Therefore, since the Father is not from someone else, it is not appropriate for Him to be sent; this can only apply to the Son and the Holy Spirit, who are from another.

Reply Obj. 1: In the sense of "giving" as a free bestowal of something, the Father gives Himself, as freely bestowing Himself to be enjoyed by the creature. But as implying the authority of the giver as regards what is given, "to be given" only applies in God to the Person Who is from another; and the same as regards "being sent."

Reply Obj. 1: In the sense of "giving" as freely providing something, the Father offers Himself, allowing the creature to enjoy Him. However, when it comes to the authority of the giver regarding what is given, "to be given" only applies in God to the Person who comes from another; the same applies to "being sent."

Reply Obj. 2: Although the effect of grace is also from the Father, Who dwells in us by grace, just as the Son and the Holy Ghost, still He is not described as being sent, for He is not from another. Thus Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20) that "The Father, when known by anyone in time, is not said to be sent; for there is no one whence He is, or from whom He proceeds."

Reply Obj. 2: While the influence of grace also comes from the Father, who lives in us through grace, just like the Son and the Holy Spirit, He is not referred to as being sent because He doesn’t come from someone else. As Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20), "The Father, when recognized by anyone over time, is not said to be sent; because there is no one from whom He is or from whom He originates."

Reply Obj. 3: Mission, meaning procession from the sender, includes the signification of a notion, not of a special notion, but in general; thus "to be from another" is common to two of the notions. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Mission, which means coming from the sender, includes the meaning of a concept, not a specific concept, but in general; therefore, "to be from another" is shared by two of the concepts.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 5]

Whether It Is Fitting for the Son to Be Sent Invisibly?

Whether It's Appropriate for the Son to Be Sent Discreetly?

Objection 1: It would seem that it is not fitting for the Son to be sent invisibly. For invisible mission of the divine person is according to the gift of grace. But all gifts of grace belong to the Holy Ghost, according to 1 Cor. 12:11: "One and the same Spirit worketh all things." Therefore only the Holy Ghost is sent invisibly.

Objection 1: It seems inappropriate for the Son to be sent invisibly. The invisible mission of a divine person is associated with the gift of grace. However, all gifts of grace belong to the Holy Spirit, as stated in 1 Cor. 12:11: "One and the same Spirit works all things." Therefore, only the Holy Spirit is sent invisibly.

Obj. 2: Further, the mission of the divine person is according to sanctifying grace. But the gifts belonging to the perfection of the intellect are not gifts of sanctifying grace, since they can be held without the gift of charity, according to 1 Cor. 13:2: "If I should have prophecy, and should know all mysteries, and all knowledge, and if I should have all faith so that I could move mountains, and have not charity, I am nothing." Therefore, since the Son proceeds as the word of the intellect, it seems unfitting for Him to be sent invisibly.

Obj. 2: Moreover, the mission of the divine person is based on sanctifying grace. However, the gifts that complete the intellect are not gifts of sanctifying grace, because they can exist without the gift of charity, as stated in 1 Cor. 13:2: "If I have prophecy and understand all mysteries and all knowledge, and if I have all faith so that I can move mountains, but do not have charity, I am nothing." Therefore, since the Son comes forth as the expression of the intellect, it seems inappropriate for Him to be sent invisibly.

Obj. 3: Further, the mission of the divine person is a procession, as expounded above (AA. 1, 4). But the procession of the Son and of the Holy Ghost differ from each other. Therefore they are distinct missions if both are sent; and then one of them would be superfluous, since one would suffice for the creature's sanctification.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the mission of the divine person is a process, as explained above (AA. 1, 4). However, the process of the Son and the Holy Spirit are different from each other. Therefore, they are distinct missions if both are sent; and in that case, one of them would be unnecessary, since one would be enough for the creature's sanctification.

On the contrary, It is said of divine Wisdom (Wis. 9:10): "Send her from heaven to Thy Saints, and from the seat of Thy greatness."

On the contrary, it is said of divine Wisdom (Wis. 9:10): "Send her from heaven to Your Saints, and from the place of Your greatness."

I answer that, The whole Trinity dwells in the mind by sanctifying grace, according to John 14:23: "We will come to him, and will make Our abode with him." But that a divine person be sent to anyone by invisible grace signifies both that this person dwells in a new way within him and that He has His origin from another. Hence, since both to the Son and to the Holy Ghost it belongs to dwell in the soul by grace, and to be from another, it therefore belongs to both of them to be invisibly sent. As to the Father, though He dwells in us by grace, still it does not belong to Him to be from another, and consequently He is not sent.

I answer that, The entire Trinity resides in the mind through sanctifying grace, as stated in John 14:23: "We will come to him, and will make Our home with him." However, when a divine person is sent to someone through invisible grace, it signifies that this person resides in a new way within them and that He originates from another. Therefore, since both the Son and the Holy Spirit have the role of dwelling in the soul through grace and being from another, it follows that both of them can be invisibly sent. Concerning the Father, although He lives in us through grace, He does not originate from another, and thus He is not sent.

Reply Obj. 1: Although all the gifts, considered as such, are attributed to the Holy Ghost, forasmuch as He is by His nature the first Gift, since He is Love, as stated above (Q. 38, A. 1), some gifts nevertheless, by reason of their own particular nature, are appropriated in a certain way to the Son, those, namely, which belong to the intellect, and in respect of which we speak of the mission of the Son. Hence Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20) that "The Son is sent to anyone invisibly, whenever He is known and perceived by anyone."

Reply Obj. 1: Although all the gifts are attributed to the Holy Spirit since He is fundamentally the first Gift as He is Love, as mentioned earlier (Q. 38, A. 1), some gifts are specifically associated with the Son due to their unique nature, particularly those related to the intellect, which is why we talk about the Son's mission. Augustine states (De Trin. iv, 20) that "The Son is sent to anyone invisibly whenever He is known and recognized by someone."

Reply Obj. 2: The soul is made like to God by grace. Hence for a divine person to be sent to anyone by grace, there must needs be a likening of the soul to the divine person Who is sent, by some gift of grace. Because the Holy Ghost is Love, the soul is assimilated to the Holy Ghost by the gift of charity: hence the mission of the Holy Ghost is according to the mode of charity. Whereas the Son is the Word, not any sort of word, but one Who breathes forth Love. Hence Augustine says (De Trin. ix 10): "The Word we speak of is knowledge with love." Thus the Son is sent not in accordance with every and any kind of intellectual perfection, but according to the intellectual illumination, which breaks forth into the affection of love, as is said (John 6:45): "Everyone that hath heard from the Father and hath learned, cometh to Me," and (Ps. 38:4): "In my meditation a fire shall flame forth." Thus Augustine plainly says (De Trin. iv, 20): "The Son is sent, whenever He is known and perceived by anyone." Now perception implies a certain experimental knowledge; and this is properly called wisdom [sapientia], as it were a sweet knowledge [sapida scientia], according to Ecclus. 6:23: "The wisdom of doctrine is according to her name."

Reply Obj. 2: The soul is made like God through grace. Therefore, for a divine person to be sent to someone by grace, there must be a resemblance of the soul to the divine person who is sent, through some gift of grace. Since the Holy Spirit represents Love, the soul is aligned with the Holy Spirit through the gift of charity; thus, the sending of the Holy Spirit follows the way of charity. On the other hand, the Son is the Word, not just any word, but one that expresses Love. Therefore, Augustine says (De Trin. ix 10): "The Word we speak of is knowledge combined with love." Thus, the Son is sent not according to every form of intellectual perfection, but in line with intellectual enlightenment, which unfolds into love, as stated (John 6:45): "Everyone who has heard from the Father and learned comes to Me," and (Ps. 38:4): "In my meditation a fire shall flame forth." Augustine clearly states (De Trin. iv, 20): "The Son is sent whenever He is known and recognized by anyone." Now, recognition implies a certain experiential knowledge, and this is rightly called wisdom [sapientia], like a sweet knowledge [sapida scientia], according to Ecclus. 6:23: "The wisdom of teaching is true to her name."

Reply Obj. 3: Since mission implies the origin of the person Who is sent, and His indwelling by grace, as above explained (A. 1), if we speak of mission according to origin, in this sense the Son's mission is distinguished from the mission of the Holy Ghost, as generation is distinguished from procession. If we consider mission as regards the effect of grace, in this sense the two missions are united in the root which is grace, but are distinguished in the effects of grace, which consist in the illumination of the intellect and the kindling of the affection. Thus it is manifest that one mission cannot be without the other, because neither takes place without sanctifying grace, nor is one person separated from the other. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Since mission refers to the origin of the person who is sent and His presence through grace, as explained above (A. 1), when we talk about mission in terms of origin, the Son's mission is different from the Holy Spirit's mission, just as generation is different from procession. If we look at mission in terms of the effect of grace, then the two missions are connected at their source, which is grace, but are different in the effects of grace, which include the enlightenment of the intellect and the stirring of the heart. Therefore, it is clear that one mission cannot exist without the other, because neither occurs without sanctifying grace, nor are the two persons independent from one another.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 6]

Whether the Invisible Mission Is to All Who Participate Grace?

Whether the Invisible Mission Is to All Who Participate Grace?

Objection 1: It would seem that the invisible mission is not to all who participate grace. For the Fathers of the Old Testament had their share of grace. Yet to them was made no invisible mission; for it is said (John 7:39): "The Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified." Therefore the invisible mission is not to all partakers in grace.

Objection 1: It seems that not everyone who receives grace has an invisible mission. The Fathers of the Old Testament received grace, but they were not given an invisible mission; as it is stated (John 7:39): "The Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified." Therefore, the invisible mission is not for everyone who shares in grace.

Obj. 2: Further, progress in virtue is only by grace. But the invisible mission is not according to progress in virtue; because progress in virtue is continuous, since charity ever increases or decreases; and thus the mission would be continuous. Therefore the invisible mission is not to all who share in grace.

Obj. 2: Also, progress in virtue only comes through grace. However, the invisible mission isn’t based on the progress in virtue; because progress in virtue is continuous, as charity constantly grows or diminishes; and so the mission would be continuous. Therefore, the invisible mission isn’t for everyone who shares in grace.

Obj. 3: Further, Christ and the blessed have fullness of grace.
But mission is not to them, for mission implies distance, whereas
Christ, as man, and all the blessed are perfectly united to God.
Therefore the invisible mission is not to all sharers in grace.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Christ and the blessed have complete grace.
However, mission does not apply to them, because mission suggests separation, whereas
Christ, as a human, and all the blessed are fully united with God.
Therefore, the invisible mission is not directed toward all those who share in grace.

Obj. 4: Further, the Sacraments of the New Law contain grace, and it is not said that the invisible mission is sent to them. Therefore the invisible mission is not to all that have grace.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the Sacraments of the New Law contain grace, and it doesn't say that the invisible mission is sent to them. Therefore, the invisible mission is not for everyone who has grace.

On the contrary, According to Augustine (De Trin. iii, 4; xv, 27), the invisible mission is for the creature's sanctification. Now every creature that has grace is sanctified. Therefore the invisible mission is to every such creature.

On the contrary, According to Augustine (De Trin. iii, 4; xv, 27), the invisible mission is for the creature's sanctification. Now every creature that has grace is sanctified. Therefore the invisible mission is to every such creature.

I answer that, As above stated (AA. 3, 4 ,5), mission in its very meaning implies that he who is sent either begins to exist where he was not before, as occurs to creatures; or begins to exist where he was before, but in a new way, in which sense mission is ascribed to the divine persons. Thus, mission as regards the one to whom it is sent implies two things, the indwelling of grace, and a certain renewal by grace. Thus the invisible mission is sent to all in whom are to be found these two conditions.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (AA. 3, 4, 5), mission in its essence means that someone who is sent either starts to exist where they didn't exist before, like with creatures; or starts to exist where they were before, but in a new way, which is how mission is attributed to the divine persons. Therefore, mission concerning the one who is sent entails two things: the presence of grace and a certain renewal through grace. Hence, the invisible mission is given to everyone who meets these two conditions.

Reply Obj. 1: The invisible mission was directed to the Old Testament Fathers, as appears from what Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20), that the invisible mission of the Son "is in man and with men. This was done in former times with the Fathers and the Prophets." Thus the words, "the Spirit was not yet given," are to be applied to that giving accompanied with a visible sign which took place on the day of Pentecost.

Reply Obj. 1: The invisible mission was aimed at the Old Testament Fathers, as Augustine states (De Trin. iv, 20), that the invisible mission of the Son "is in man and with men. This occurred in earlier times with the Fathers and the Prophets." Therefore, the phrase, "the Spirit was not yet given," refers to that giving, which came with a visible sign on the day of Pentecost.

Reply Obj. 2: The invisible mission takes place also as regards progress in virtue or increase of grace. Hence Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20), that "the Son is sent to each one when He is known and perceived by anyone, so far as He can be known and perceived according to the capacity of the soul, whether journeying towards God, or united perfectly to Him." Such invisible mission, however, chiefly occurs as regards anyone's proficiency in the performance of a new act, or in the acquisition of a new state of grace; as, for example, the proficiency in reference to the gift of miracles or of prophecy, or in the fervor of charity leading a man to expose himself to the danger of martyrdom, or to renounce his possessions, or to undertake any arduous work.

Reply Obj. 2: The unseen mission also involves progress in virtue or an increase in grace. Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20) that "the Son is sent to each person when He is known and recognized by anyone, according to how much He can be known and perceived based on the soul's capacity, whether it's on a journey towards God or completely united with Him." This unseen mission primarily relates to someone's growth in performing a new action or gaining a new state of grace; for example, in regard to developing the ability for miracles or prophecy, or in the zeal of charity that encourages someone to face the risk of martyrdom, give up their belongings, or take on challenging tasks.

Reply Obj. 3: The invisible mission is directed to the blessed at the very beginning of their beatitude. The invisible mission is made to them subsequently, not by "intensity" of grace, but by the further revelation of mysteries; which goes on till the day of judgment. Such an increase is by the "extension" of grace, because it extends to a greater number of objects. To Christ the invisible mission was sent at the first moment of His conception; but not afterwards, since from the beginning of His conception He was filled with all wisdom and grace.

Reply Obj. 3: The unseen mission is aimed at the blessed right at the start of their happiness. The unseen mission is given to them later, not by "intensity" of grace, but through the ongoing revelation of mysteries; this continues until the day of judgment. This growth happens through the "expansion" of grace, as it reaches more and more things. For Christ, the unseen mission was given at the very moment of His conception; but not afterward, since from the beginning of His conception, He was filled with all wisdom and grace.

Reply Obj. 4: Grace resides instrumentally in the sacraments of the New Law, as the form of a thing designed resides in the instruments of the art designing, according to a process flowing from the agent to the passive object. But mission is only spoken of as directed to its term. Hence the mission of the divine person is not sent to the sacraments, but to those who receive grace through the sacraments. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Grace exists in the sacraments of the New Law, similar to how the essence of a thing exists in the tools used by the artist, following a process from the creator to the recipient. However, mission is only referred to in relation to its end goal. Therefore, the mission of the divine person is not sent to the sacraments themselves, but to those who receive grace through the sacraments.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 7]

Whether It Is Fitting for the Holy Ghost to Be Sent Visibly?

Whether It's Appropriate for the Holy Spirit to Be Sent Visibly?

Objection 1: It would seem that the Holy Ghost is not fittingly sent in a visible manner. For the Son as visibly sent to the world is said to be less than the Father. But the Holy Ghost is never said to be less than the Father. Therefore the Holy Ghost is not fittingly sent in a visible manner.

Objection 1: It seems that the Holy Spirit is not appropriately sent visibly. The Son, who is visibly sent into the world, is described as being less than the Father. However, the Holy Spirit is never described as being less than the Father. Therefore, the Holy Spirit is not appropriately sent in a visible manner.

Obj. 2: Further, the visible mission takes place by way of union to a visible creature, as the Son's mission according to the flesh. But the Holy Ghost did not assume any visible creature; and hence it cannot be said that He exists otherwise in some creatures than in others, unless perhaps as in a sign, as He is also present in the sacraments, and in all the figures of the law. Thus the Holy Ghost is either not sent visibly at all, or His visible mission takes place in all these things.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the visible mission occurs through a connection to a visible being, similar to how the Son's mission is understood in a physical sense. However, the Holy Spirit did not take on any visible being; therefore, it can't be said that He is present in some beings differently than in others, except maybe as a representation, just like He is present in the sacraments and in all the symbols of the law. So, the Holy Spirit is either not sent visibly at all, or His visible mission is present in all these things.

Obj. 3: Further, every visible creature is an effect showing forth the whole Trinity. Therefore the Holy Ghost is not sent by reason of those visible creatures more than any other person.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, every visible being is an outcome that reveals the entire Trinity. Therefore, the Holy Spirit is not sent because of those visible beings any more than any other person.

Obj. 4: Further, the Son was visibly sent by reason of the noblest kind of creature—namely, the human nature. Therefore if the Holy Ghost is sent visibly, He ought to be sent by reason of rational creatures.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the Son was clearly sent because of the highest type of creature—specifically, human nature. Therefore, if the Holy Spirit is sent visibly, He should be sent because of rational beings.

Obj. 5: Further, whatever is done visibly by God is dispensed by the ministry of the angels; as Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4,5,9). So visible appearances, if there have been any, came by means of the angels. Thus the angels are sent, and not the Holy Ghost.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, everything that is visibly done by God is carried out through the ministry of angels; as Augustine states (De Trin. iii, 4,5,9). Therefore, any visible appearances, if they have occurred, were made through the angels. Thus, the angels are the ones who are sent, not the Holy Spirit.

Obj. 6: Further, the Holy Ghost being sent in a visible manner is only for the purpose of manifesting the invisible mission; as invisible things are made known by the visible. So those to whom the invisible mission was not sent, ought not to receive the visible mission; and to all who received the invisible mission, whether in the New or in the Old Testament, the visible mission ought likewise to be sent; and this is clearly false. Therefore the Holy Ghost is not sent visibly.

Obj. 6: Additionally, the Holy Spirit being sent in a visible way is solely to reveal the invisible mission; since invisible things are understood through the visible. Therefore, those who were not given the invisible mission should not receive the visible mission. Moreover, all who received the invisible mission, whether in the New or Old Testament, should also receive the visible mission; and this is clearly untrue. Thus, the Holy Spirit is not sent visibly.

On the contrary, It is said (Matt. 3:16) that, when our Lord was baptized, the Holy Ghost descended upon Him in the shape of a dove.

On the contrary, It is said (Matt. 3:16) that when our Lord was baptized, the Holy Spirit descended upon Him in the form of a dove.

I answer that, God provides for all things according to the nature of each thing. Now the nature of man requires that he be led to the invisible by visible things, as explained above (Q. 12, A. 12). Wherefore the invisible things of God must be made manifest to man by the things that are visible. As God, therefore, in a certain way has demonstrated Himself and His eternal processions to men by visible creatures, according to certain signs; so was it fitting that the invisible missions also of the divine persons should be made manifest by some visible creatures.

I respond that God takes care of everything according to the essence of each thing. Now, the nature of humanity requires that people are guided to the invisible through visible things, as explained earlier (Q. 12, A. 12). Therefore, the invisible aspects of God must be revealed to humanity through visible things. Just as God has shown Himself and His eternal processions to humans through visible creatures, using certain signs; it was appropriate for the invisible missions of the divine persons to also be revealed through some visible creatures.

This mode of manifestation applies in different ways to the Son and to the Holy Ghost. For it belongs to the Holy Ghost, Who proceeds as Love, to be the gift of sanctification; to the Son as the principle of the Holy Ghost, it belongs to the author of this sanctification. Thus the Son has been sent visibly as the author of sanctification; the Holy Ghost as the sign of sanctification.

This way of showing itself works differently for the Son and the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit, who comes forth as Love, is the gift of holiness; for the Son, as the source of the Holy Spirit, He is the one who brings about this holiness. Therefore, the Son has been sent visibly as the one who creates holiness, while the Holy Spirit acts as the sign of holiness.

Reply Obj. 1: The Son assumed the visible creature, wherein He appeared, into the unity of His person, so that whatever can be said of that creature can be said of the Son of God; and so, by reason of the nature assumed, the Son is called less than the Father. But the Holy Ghost did not assume the visible creature, in which He appeared, into the unity of His person; so that what is said of it cannot be predicated of Him. Hence He cannot be called less than the Father by reason of any visible creature.

Reply Obj. 1: The Son took on the visible being in which He appeared and made it part of His unity, so anything that can be said about that being can also be said about the Son of God. Because of the nature He took on, the Son is referred to as less than the Father. However, the Holy Spirit did not take on the visible being in which He appeared as part of His unity, so what is said about that being cannot be attributed to Him. Therefore, He cannot be called less than the Father based on any visible being.

Reply Obj. 2: The visible mission of the Holy Ghost does not apply to the imaginary vision which is that of prophecy; because as Augustine says (De Trin. ii, 6): "The prophetic vision is not displayed to corporeal eyes by corporeal shapes, but is shown in the spirit by the spiritual images of bodies. But whoever saw the dove and the fire, saw them by their eyes. Nor, again, has the Holy Ghost the same relation to these images that the Son has to the rock, because it is said, 'The rock was Christ' (1 Cor. 10:4). For that rock was already created, and after the manner of an action was named Christ, Whom it typified; whereas the dove and the fire suddenly appeared to signify only what was happening. They seem, however, to be like to the flame of the burning bush seen by Moses and to the column which the people followed in the desert, and to the lightning and thunder issuing forth when the law was given on the mountain. For the purpose of the bodily appearances of those things was that they might signify, and then pass away." Thus the visible mission is neither displayed by prophetic vision, which belongs to the imagination, and not to the body, nor by the sacramental signs of the Old and New Testament, wherein certain pre-existing things are employed to signify something. But the Holy Ghost is said to be sent visibly, inasmuch as He showed Himself in certain creatures as in signs especially made for that purpose.

Reply Obj. 2: The visible mission of the Holy Spirit doesn't relate to the imaginary vision found in prophecy; because as Augustine says (De Trin. ii, 6): "The prophetic vision isn't revealed to physical eyes through physical forms, but is perceived in the spirit through spiritual images of bodies. But anyone who saw the dove and the fire actually saw them with their eyes. Moreover, the Holy Spirit doesn't relate to these images in the same way the Son relates to the rock, because it's stated, 'The rock was Christ' (1 Cor. 10:4). That rock was already created, and it was named Christ in a metaphorical manner, as it represented Him; while the dove and the fire appeared suddenly to signify only what was occurring. However, they seem similar to the flame of the burning bush that Moses saw and to the pillar that the people followed in the desert, as well as the lightning and thunder that accompanied the giving of the law on the mountain. The purpose of those physical manifestations was to signify something and then to fade away." Therefore, the visible mission is neither represented by prophetic vision, which pertains to the imagination rather than the body, nor by the sacramental signs of the Old and New Testament, which use certain pre-existing things to signify something. However, the Holy Spirit is said to be visibly sent, as He manifested Himself in specific creatures that served as signs made for that purpose.

Reply Obj. 3: Although the whole Trinity makes those creatures, still they are made in order to show forth in some special way this or that person. For as the Father, Son and Holy Ghost are signified by diverse names, so also can They each one be signified by different things; although neither separation nor diversity exists amongst Them.

Reply Obj. 3: Even though the entire Trinity creates those beings, they are made to uniquely reflect each person in some way. Just as the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are represented by different names, each of Them can also be represented by various things, even though there is no separation or diversity among Them.

Reply Obj. 4: It was necessary for the Son to be declared as the author of sanctification, as explained above. Thus the visible mission of the Son was necessarily made according to the rational nature to which it belongs to act, and which is capable of sanctification; whereas any other creature could be the sign of sanctification. Nor was such a visible creature, formed for such a purpose, necessarily assumed by the Holy Ghost into the unity of His person, since it was not assumed or used for the purpose of action, but only for the purpose of a sign; and so likewise it was not required to last beyond what its use required.

Reply Obj. 4: It was necessary for the Son to be recognized as the source of sanctification, as mentioned earlier. Therefore, the visible mission of the Son had to align with the rational nature that has the ability to act and can achieve sanctification; while any other creature could serve as a sign of sanctification. Additionally, a visible creature designed for this purpose was not necessarily taken up by the Holy Spirit into the unity of His person, since it was not taken or used to perform actions, but solely to serve as a sign; and therefore, it did not need to exist any longer than its intended use required.

Reply Obj. 5: Those visible creatures were formed by the ministry of the angels, not to signify the person of an angel, but to signify the Person of the Holy Ghost. Thus, as the Holy Ghost resided in those visible creatures as the one signified in the sign, on that account the Holy Ghost is said to be sent visibly, and not as an angel.

Reply Obj. 5: Those visible beings were created by the angels, not to represent an angel's person, but to represent the Person of the Holy Spirit. Therefore, since the Holy Spirit was present in those visible beings as the one signified by the sign, the Holy Spirit is said to be sent visibly, and not as an angel.

Reply Obj. 6: It is not necessary that the invisible mission should always be made manifest by some visible external sign; but, as is said (1 Cor. 12:7)—"the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man unto profit"—that is, of the Church. This utility consists in the confirmation and propagation of the faith by such visible signs. This has been done chiefly by Christ and by the apostles, according to Heb. 2:3, "which having begun to be declared by the Lord, was confirmed unto us by them that heard."

Reply Obj. 6: It's not always necessary for an invisible mission to be shown through some visible external sign; however, as stated in 1 Corinthians 12:7—"the manifestation of the Spirit is given to everyone for the common good"—meaning, for the Church. This usefulness lies in strengthening and spreading the faith through these visible signs. This was mainly accomplished by Christ and the apostles, as mentioned in Hebrews 2:3, "which was first announced by the Lord and then confirmed to us by those who heard Him."

Thus in a special sense, a mission of the Holy Ghost was directed to Christ, to the apostles, and to some of the early saints on whom the Church was in a way founded; in such a manner, however, that the visible mission made to Christ should show forth the invisible mission made to Him, not at that particular time, but at the first moment of His conception. The visible mission was directed to Christ at the time of His baptism by the figure of a dove, a fruitful animal, to show forth in Christ the authority of the giver of grace by spiritual regeneration; hence the Father's voice spoke, "This is My beloved Son" (Matt. 3:17), that others might be regenerated to the likeness of the only Begotten. The Transfiguration showed it forth in the appearance of a bright cloud, to show the exuberance of doctrine; and hence it was said, "Hear ye Him" (Matt. 17:5). To the apostles the mission was directed in the form of breathing to show forth the power of their ministry in the dispensation of the sacraments; and hence it was said, "Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven" (John 20:23): and again under the sign of fiery tongues to show forth the office of teaching; whence it is said that, "they began to speak with divers tongues" (Acts 2:4). The visible mission of the Holy Ghost was fittingly not sent to the fathers of the Old Testament, because the visible mission of the Son was to be accomplished before that of the Holy Ghost; since the Holy Ghost manifests the Son, as the Son manifests the Father. Visible apparitions of the divine persons were, however, given to the Fathers of the Old Testament which, indeed, cannot be called visible missions; because, according to Augustine (De Trin. ii, 17), they were not sent to designate the indwelling of the divine person by grace, but for the manifestation of something else. _______________________

Thus, in a unique way, the mission of the Holy Spirit was aimed at Christ, the apostles, and some of the early saints on whom the Church was somewhat founded; but in such a way that the visible mission given to Christ would reflect the invisible mission given to Him, not just at that time, but from the very moment of His conception. The visible mission was directed at Christ during His baptism, represented by a dove, a symbol of life, to demonstrate the authority of the giver of grace through spiritual rebirth; hence the Father's voice proclaimed, "This is My beloved Son" (Matt. 3:17), so that others could be renewed in the image of the Only Begotten. The Transfiguration revealed this through the appearance of a bright cloud, showcasing the abundance of doctrine; and thus it was said, "Hear ye Him" (Matt. 17:5). The mission to the apostles was given in the form of a breath, signifying the power of their ministry in administering the sacraments; and so it was stated, "Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven" (John 20:23): and again under the sign of fiery tongues to highlight the teaching role; hence it is said that "they began to speak with divers tongues" (Acts 2:4). The visible mission of the Holy Spirit was appropriately not sent to the fathers of the Old Testament because the visible mission of the Son needed to be fulfilled before that of the Holy Spirit; since the Holy Spirit reveals the Son, just as the Son reveals the Father. However, visible appearances of the divine persons were given to the fathers of the Old Testament, which cannot truly be termed visible missions; because, according to Augustine (De Trin. ii, 17), they were not sent to signify the indwelling of the divine person by grace, but for the purpose of revealing something else.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 43, Art. 8]

Whether a Divine Person Is Sent Only by the Person Whence He Proceeds
Eternally?

Whether a Divine Person Is Sent Only by the Person Whence He Proceeds
Eternally?

Objection 1: It would seem that a divine person is sent only by the one whence He proceeds eternally. For as Augustine says (De Trin. iv), "The Father is sent by no one because He is from no one." Therefore if a divine person is sent by another, He must be from that other.

Objection 1: It seems that a divine person is sent only by the one from whom He eternally comes. As Augustine says (De Trin. iv), "The Father is sent by no one because He is from no one." Therefore, if a divine person is sent by another, He must come from that other.

Obj. 2: Further, the sender has authority over the one sent. But there can be no authority as regards a divine person except from origin. Therefore the divine person sent must proceed from the one sending.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the sender has authority over the one being sent. However, there can't be any authority concerning a divine person except based on origin. Therefore, the divine person being sent must come from the one who is sending.

Obj. 3: Further, if a divine person can be sent by one whence He does not proceed, then the Holy Ghost may be given by a man, although He proceeds not from him; which is contrary to what Augustine says (De Trin. xv). Therefore the divine person is sent only by the one whence He proceeds.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if a divine person can be sent by someone from whom He does not come, then the Holy Spirit could be given by a man, even though He does not come from him; this contradicts what Augustine says (De Trin. xv). Therefore, a divine person is only sent by the one from whom He comes.

On the contrary, The Son is sent by the Holy Ghost, according to Isa. 48:16, "Now the Lord God hath sent Me and His Spirit." But the Son is not from the Holy Ghost. Therefore a divine person is sent by one from Whom He does not proceed.

On the contrary, The Son is sent by the Holy Spirit, according to Isa. 48:16, "Now the Lord God has sent Me and His Spirit." But the Son does not come from the Holy Spirit. Therefore, a divine person is sent by one from Whom He does not originate.

I answer that, There are different opinions on this point. Some say that the divine person is sent only by the one whence He proceeds eternally; and so, when it is said that the Son of God is sent by the Holy Ghost, this is to be explained as regards His human nature, by reason of which He was sent to preach by the Holy Ghost. Augustine, however, says (De Trin. ii, 5) that the Son is sent by Himself, and by the Holy Ghost; and the Holy Ghost is sent by Himself, and by the Son; so that to be sent in God does not apply to each person, but only to the person proceeding from another, whereas to send belongs to each person.

I answer that, There are different opinions on this issue. Some believe that the divine person is sent only by the one from whom He eternally comes; so when it’s said that the Son of God is sent by the Holy Spirit, this should be understood in terms of His human nature, through which He was sent to preach by the Holy Spirit. Augustine, however, states (De Trin. ii, 5) that the Son is sent by Himself and by the Holy Spirit; and the Holy Spirit is sent by Himself and by the Son; thus, being sent in God doesn’t apply to each person, but only to the person who comes from another, while sending belongs to each person.

There is some truth in both of these opinions; because when a person is described as being sent, the person Himself existing from another is designated, with the visible or invisible effect, applicable to the mission of the divine person. Thus if the sender be designated as the principle of the person sent, in this sense not each person sends, but that person only Who is the principle of that person who is sent; and thus the Son is sent only by the Father; and the Holy Ghost by the Father and the Son. If, however, the person sending is understood as the principle of the effect implied in the mission, in that sense the whole Trinity sends the person sent. This reason does not prove that a man can send the Holy Ghost, forasmuch as man cannot cause the effect of grace.

There's some truth to both opinions here. When we say someone is sent, we're talking about that person existing from another one, with visible or invisible effects related to the mission of the divine person. So, if we think of the sender as the source of the person being sent, then not every person sends; only the one who is the source of the person being sent does. In this way, the Son is sent only by the Father, and the Holy Spirit is sent by both the Father and the Son. However, if we see the sender as the source of the effect implied in the mission, then in that sense, the whole Trinity sends the person being sent. This reasoning doesn’t prove that a human can send the Holy Spirit since a human cannot create the effect of grace.

The answers to the objections appear from the above. _______________________

The answers to the objections can be found above.

TREATISE ON THE CREATION (QQ. 44-49) _______________________

TREATISE ON THE CREATION (QQ. 44-49) _______________________

QUESTION 44

THE PROCESSION OF CREATURES FROM GOD, AND OF THE FIRST CAUSE OF ALL
THINGS
(In Four Articles)

THE PROCESSION OF CREATURES FROM GOD, AND OF THE FIRST CAUSE OF ALL
THINGS
(In Four Articles)

After treating of the procession of the divine persons, we must consider the procession of creatures from God. This consideration will be threefold:

After discussing the procession of the divine persons, we need to think about the procession of creatures from God. This consideration will have three parts:

(1) of the production of creatures;

(1) of the creation of beings;

(2) of the distinction between them;

(2) of the distinction between them;

(3) of their preservation and government.

(3) of their preservation and government.

Concerning the first point there are three things to be considered:

Concerning the first point, there are three things to consider:

(1) the first cause of beings;

(1) the initial cause of existence;

(2) the mode of procession of creatures from the first cause;

(2) the way creatures come from the original source;

(3) the principle of the duration of things.

(3) the principle of how long things last.

Under the first head there are four points of inquiry:

Under the first topic, there are four points to look into:

(1) Whether God is the efficient cause of all beings?

(1) Is God the driving force behind all beings?

(2) Whether primary matter is created by God, or is an independent coordinate principle with Him?

(2) Is primary matter created by God, or is it an independent principle alongside Him?

(3) Whether God is the exemplar cause of beings or whether there are other exemplar causes?

(3) Is God the perfect model for all beings, or are there other perfect models?

(4) Whether He is the final cause of things? _______________________

(4) Is He the ultimate purpose behind everything? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 44, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 44, Art. 1]

Whether It Is Necessary That Every Being Be Created by God?

Whether It's Necessary for Every Being to Be Created by God?

Objection 1: It would seem that it is not necessary that every being be created by God. For there is nothing to prevent a thing from being without that which does not belong to its essence, as a man can be found without whiteness. But the relation of the thing caused to its cause does not appear to be essential to beings, for some beings can be understood without it; therefore they can exist without it; and therefore it is possible that some beings should not be created by God.

Objection 1: It seems that not every being needs to be created by God. There's nothing stopping something from existing without what isn't part of its essence, just like a man can exist without being white. The relationship between something caused and its cause doesn't seem essential to beings, since some beings can be understood without it; therefore, they can exist without it; and so it's possible that some beings were not created by God.

Obj. 2: Further, a thing requires an efficient cause in order to exist. Therefore whatever cannot but exist does not require an efficient cause. But no necessary thing can not exist, because whatever necessarily exists cannot but exist. Therefore as there are many necessary things in existence, it appears that not all beings are from God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, for something to exist, it needs an efficient cause. So, anything that must exist doesn’t need an efficient cause. However, no necessary thing can fail to exist, since whatever exists necessarily must exist. Therefore, since many necessary things exist, it seems that not all beings come from God.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever things have a cause, can be demonstrated by that cause. But in mathematics demonstration is not made by the efficient cause, as appears from the Philosopher (Metaph. iii, text 3); therefore not all beings are from God as from their efficient cause.

Obj. 3: Moreover, anything that has a cause can be proven by that cause. However, in mathematics, proof is not established through the efficient cause, as shown by the Philosopher (Metaph. iii, text 3); therefore, not all beings come from God as their efficient cause.

On the contrary, It is said (Rom. 11:36): "Of Him, and by Him, and in Him are all things."

On the contrary, It is said (Rom. 11:36): "All things are from Him, through Him, and for Him."

I answer that, It must be said that every being in any way existing is from God. For whatever is found in anything by participation, must be caused in it by that to which it belongs essentially, as iron becomes ignited by fire. Now it has been shown above (Q. 3, A. 4) when treating of the divine simplicity that God is the essentially self-subsisting Being; and also it was shown (Q. 11, AA. 3, 4) that subsisting being must be one; as, if whiteness were self-subsisting, it would be one, since whiteness is multiplied by its recipients. Therefore all beings apart from God are not their own being, but are beings by participation. Therefore it must be that all things which are diversified by the diverse participation of being, so as to be more or less perfect, are caused by one First Being, Who possesses being most perfectly.

I answer that, It should be noted that everything that exists in any way comes from God. Whatever exists in something by participation is caused by what it essentially belongs to, just as iron gets heated by fire. It has been previously established (Q. 3, A. 4) in discussing divine simplicity that God is the essential self-sufficient Being; and it was also demonstrated (Q. 11, AA. 3, 4) that a self-sufficient being must be one; because, if whiteness were self-sufficient, it would be one, since whiteness can be found in multiple recipients. Therefore, all beings apart from God do not have their own existence but have being through participation. Thus, it follows that all things that differ due to the diverse participation of being, which makes them more or less perfect, are caused by one First Being, Who possesses being in the most perfect way.

Hence Plato said (Parmen. xxvi) that unity must come before multitude; and Aristotle said (Metaph. ii, text 4) that whatever is greatest in being and greatest in truth, is the cause of every being and of every truth; just as whatever is the greatest in heat is the cause of all heat.

Hence Plato said (Parmen. xxvi) that unity must come before multitude; and Aristotle said (Metaph. ii, text 4) that whatever is greatest in existence and greatest in truth is the cause of every existence and every truth; just as whatever is the greatest in heat is the cause of all heat.

Reply Obj. 1: Though the relation to its cause is not part of the definition of a thing caused, still it follows, as a consequence, on what belongs to its essence; because from the fact that a thing has being by participation, it follows that it is caused. Hence such a being cannot be without being caused, just as man cannot be without having the faculty of laughing. But, since to be caused does not enter into the essence of being as such, therefore is it possible for us to find a being uncaused.

Reply Obj. 1: Although the connection to its cause isn’t part of what defines a caused thing, it naturally follows from what is essential to its nature; because if something exists by participation, it implies that it is caused. Therefore, such an entity cannot exist without being caused, just as a person cannot exist without the ability to laugh. However, since being caused isn’t essential to existence itself, it's possible for us to encounter an uncaused being.

Reply Obj. 2: This objection has led some to say that what is necessary has no cause (Phys. viii, text 46). But this is manifestly false in the demonstrative sciences, where necessary principles are the causes of necessary conclusions. And therefore Aristotle says (Metaph. v, text 6), that there are some necessary things which have a cause of their necessity. But the reason why an efficient cause is required is not merely because the effect is not necessary, but because the effect might not be if the cause were not. For this conditional proposition is true, whether the antecedent and consequent be possible or impossible.

Reply Obj. 2: This objection has led some to argue that what is necessary has no cause (Phys. viii, text 46). But this is clearly false in the demonstrative sciences, where necessary principles are the causes of necessary conclusions. Thus, Aristotle states (Metaph. v, text 6) that there are some necessary things which have a cause for their necessity. The reason an efficient cause is needed is not just because the effect is not necessary, but because the effect might not exist if the cause weren't present. This conditional statement holds true, regardless of whether the antecedent and consequent are possible or impossible.

Reply Obj. 3: The science of mathematics treats its object as though it were something abstracted mentally, whereas it is not abstract in reality. Now, it is becoming that everything should have an efficient cause in proportion to its being. And so, although the object of mathematics has an efficient cause, still, its relation to that cause is not the reason why it is brought under the consideration of the mathematician, who therefore does not demonstrate that object from its efficient cause. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The study of mathematics focuses on its subject as if it were purely a mental abstraction, even though it isn't abstract in reality. It's becoming clear that everything needs an efficient cause related to its existence. So, while the subject of mathematics does have an efficient cause, this connection to that cause is not why it is studied by mathematicians, who therefore do not explain that subject through its efficient cause.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 44, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 44, Art. 2]

Whether Primary Matter Is Created by God?

Whether Primary Matter Is Created by God?

Objection 1: It would seem that primary matter is not created by God.
For whatever is made is composed of a subject and of something else
(Phys. i, text 62). But primary matter has no subject. Therefore
primary matter cannot have been made by God.

Objection 1: It seems that primary matter was not created by God.
Everything that is made consists of a subject and something else
(Phys. i, text 62). But primary matter has no subject. Therefore,
primary matter cannot have been created by God.

Obj. 2: Further, action and passion are opposite members of a division. But as the first active principle is God, so the first passive principle is matter. Therefore God and primary matter are two principles divided against each other, neither of which is from the other.

Obj. 2: Additionally, action and passion are opposing elements. Just as God is the first active principle, matter is the first passive principle. Therefore, God and primary matter are two opposing principles, neither of which comes from the other.

Obj. 3: Further, every agent produces its like, and thus, since every agent acts in proportion to its actuality, it follows that everything made is in some degree actual. But primary matter is only in potentiality, formally considered in itself. Therefore it is against the nature of primary matter to be a thing made.

Obj. 3: Also, every cause produces something similar, and since each cause acts according to its actual state, it follows that everything created has some degree of reality. However, primary matter only exists in potentiality when considered on its own. Therefore, it is not in the nature of primary matter to be something that has been created.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Confess. xii, 7), Two "things hast Thou made, O Lord; one nigh unto Thyself"—viz. angels—"the other nigh unto nothing"—viz. primary matter.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Confess. xii, 7), Two "things You have made, O Lord; one close to You"—meaning angels—"the other close to nothing"—meaning primary matter.

I answer that, The ancient philosophers gradually, and as it were step by step, advanced to the knowledge of truth. At first being of grosser mind, they failed to realize that any beings existed except sensible bodies. And those among them who admitted movement, did not consider it except as regards certain accidents, for instance, in relation to rarefaction and condensation, by union and separation. And supposing as they did that corporeal substance itself was uncreated, they assigned certain causes for these accidental changes, as for instance, affinity, discord, intellect, or something of that kind. An advance was made when they understood that there was a distinction between the substantial form and matter, which latter they imagined to be uncreated, and when they perceived transmutation to take place in bodies in regard to essential forms. Such transmutations they attributed to certain universal causes, such as the oblique circle [*The zodiac, according to Aristotle (De Gener. ii)], or ideas, according to Plato. But we must take into consideration that matter is contracted by its form to a determinate species, as a substance, belonging to a certain species, is contracted by a supervening accident to a determinate mode of being; for instance, man by whiteness. Each of these opinions, therefore, considered "being" under some particular aspect, either as "this" or as "such"; and so they assigned particular efficient causes to things. Then others there were who arose to the consideration of "being," as being, and who assigned a cause to things, not as "these," or as "such," but as "beings."

I answer that, The ancient philosophers gradually and step by step came to understand the truth. At first, with a more limited mindset, they couldn’t recognize that anything existed beyond physical bodies. Those among them who accepted the idea of movement didn’t consider it except in relation to certain accidents, like rarefaction and condensation, or union and separation. Believing that physical substance itself was uncreated, they attributed certain causes to these accidental changes, such as affinity, discord, intellect, or similar concepts. They made progress when they recognized the distinction between substantial form and matter, which they thought to be uncreated, and when they realized that transmutation occurred in bodies regarding essential forms. They attributed these transformations to certain universal causes, like the oblique circle [*The zodiac, according to Aristotle (De Gener. ii)], or ideas, according to Plato. However, we need to consider that matter is shaped by its form into a specific species, just as a substance belonging to a certain species is shaped by a recurring accident into a specific mode of being; for example, a man becomes identified by whiteness. Each of these viewpoints thus understood "being" from a particular angle, either as "this" or as "such"; therefore, they assigned specific efficient causes to things. Then there were others who moved on to consider "being" as such, and who attributed a cause to things, not as "these" or as "such," but simply as "beings."

Therefore whatever is the cause of things considered as beings, must be the cause of things, not only according as they are "such" by accidental forms, nor according as they are "these" by substantial forms, but also according to all that belongs to their being at all in any way. And thus it is necessary to say that also primary matter is created by the universal cause of things.

Therefore, whatever causes things that are considered to be, must be the cause of things not only based on their accidental characteristics or their essential forms, but also based on everything that contributes to their existence in any way. Thus, it is necessary to say that primary matter is also created by the universal cause of things.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher (Phys. i, text 62), is speaking of "becoming" in particular—that is, from form to form, either accidental or substantial. But here we are speaking of things according to their emanation from the universal principle of being; from which emanation matter itself is not excluded, although it is excluded from the former mode of being made.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher (Phys. i, text 62) is discussing "becoming" specifically—that is, changing from one form to another, whether it's accidental or substantial. But here we're talking about things in relation to their origin from the universal principle of existence; from which origin matter itself is not excluded, even though it's excluded from the earlier way of being created.

Reply Obj. 2: Passion is an effect of action. Hence it is reasonable that the first passive principle should be the effect of the first active principle, since every imperfect thing is caused by one perfect. For the first principle must be most perfect, as Aristotle says (Metaph. xii, text 40).

Reply Obj. 2: Passion is a result of action. Therefore, it makes sense that the first passive principle should result from the first active principle, since everything imperfect is caused by something perfect. The first principle must be the most perfect, as Aristotle states (Metaph. xii, text 40).

Reply Obj. 3: The reason adduced does not show that matter is not created, but that it is not created without form; for though everything created is actual, still it is not pure act. Hence it is necessary that even what is potential in it should be created, if all that belongs to its being is created. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The argument presented doesn't prove that matter isn't created; it just shows that matter isn't created without form. Although everything created is actual, it's not pure action. Therefore, it's essential that even the potential aspects of it are created if everything that contributes to its existence is created.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 44, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 44, Art. 3]

Whether the Exemplar Cause Is Anything Besides God?

Whether the Exemplar Cause Is Anything Other Than God?

Objection 1: It would seem that the exemplar cause is something besides God. For the effect is like its exemplar cause. But creatures are far from being like God. Therefore God is not their exemplar cause.

Objection 1: It seems that the exemplar cause is something other than God. For the effect resembles its exemplar cause. However, creatures are very different from God. Therefore, God is not their exemplar cause.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is by participation is reduced to something self-existing, as a thing ignited is reduced to fire, as stated above (A. 1). But whatever exists in sensible things exists only by participation of some species. This appears from the fact that in all sensible species is found not only what belongs to the species, but also individuating principles added to the principles of the species. Therefore it is necessary to admit self-existing species, as for instance, a per se man, and a per se horse, and the like, which are called the exemplars. Therefore exemplar causes exist besides God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, anything that exists by participation is connected to something that exists on its own, just like something that's ignited is connected to fire, as stated above (A. 1). Everything that exists in the physical world only exists through the participation of certain types. This is evident because all physical types contain not only what defines the type but also individual characteristics that are added to the type's defining traits. Therefore, we must acknowledge the existence of self-existing types, such as a per se man and a per se horse, and similar examples, which are referred to as the exemplars. Hence, exemplar causes exist alongside God.

Obj. 3: Further, sciences and definitions are concerned with species themselves, but not as these are in particular things, because there is no science or definition of particular things. Therefore there are some beings, which are beings or species not existing in singular things, and these are called exemplars. Therefore the same conclusion follows as above.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, sciences and definitions focus on species themselves, rather than on specific things, because there is no science or definition for specific things. Consequently, there are certain entities that are beings or species not existing in individual things, and these are referred to as exemplars. Thus, the same conclusion applies as stated before.

Obj. 4: Further, this likewise appears from Dionysius, who says (Div. Nom. v) that self-subsisting being is before self-subsisting life, and before self-subsisting wisdom.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, this is also evident from Dionysius, who states (Div. Nom. v) that self-sustaining existence comes before self-sustaining life and before self-sustaining wisdom.

On the contrary, The exemplar is the same as the idea. But ideas, according to Augustine (QQ. 83, qu. 46), are "the master forms, which are contained in the divine intelligence." Therefore the exemplars of things are not outside God.

On the contrary, the exemplar is the same as the idea. But ideas, according to Augustine (QQ. 83, qu. 46), are "the master forms, which are contained in the divine intelligence." Therefore, the exemplars of things are not separate from God.

I answer that, God is the first exemplar cause of all things. In proof whereof we must consider that if for the production of anything an exemplar is necessary, it is in order that the effect may receive a determinate form. For an artificer produces a determinate form in matter by reason of the exemplar before him, whether it is the exemplar beheld externally, or the exemplar interiorily conceived in the mind. Now it is manifest that things made by nature receive determinate forms. This determination of forms must be reduced to the divine wisdom as its first principle, for divine wisdom devised the order of the universe, which order consists in the variety of things. And therefore we must say that in the divine wisdom are the types of all things, which types we have called ideas—i.e. exemplar forms existing in the divine mind (Q. 15, A. 1). And these ideas, though multiplied by their relations to things, in reality are not apart from the divine essence, according as the likeness to that essence can be shared diversely by different things. In this manner therefore God Himself is the first exemplar of all things. Moreover, in things created one may be called the exemplar of another by the reason of its likeness thereto, either in species, or by the analogy of some kind of imitation.

I answer that, God is the first model cause of all things. To prove this, we need to consider that if an example is necessary for creating anything, it’s so the result can take on a specific form. An artist creates a specific form in material based on the model they have, whether that model is seen externally or is imagined internally in their mind. It’s clear that things created by nature take on specific forms. This shaping of forms must be traced back to divine wisdom as its fundamental principle, because divine wisdom created the order of the universe, which consists of a variety of entities. Thus, we must say that in divine wisdom are the types of all things, which we refer to as ideas—meaning model forms that exist in the divine mind (Q. 15, A. 1). These ideas, though varied in their relation to things, are not separate from the divine essence, as the resemblance to that essence can be expressed differently by various things. In this way, God Himself is the first model of all things. Furthermore, among created things, one can be considered a model for another due to its similarity, either in species or through some form of imitation.

Reply Obj. 1: Although creatures do not attain to a natural likeness to God according to similitude of species, as a man begotten is like to the man begetting, still they do attain to likeness to Him, forasmuch as they represent the divine idea, as a material house is like to the house in the architect's mind.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though creatures don't naturally resemble God in the same way that a child resembles a parent, they still reflect Him because they embody the divine idea, similar to how a physical house resembles the one in the architect's imagination.

Reply Obj. 2: It is of a man's nature to be in matter, and so a man without matter is impossible. Therefore although this particular man is a man by participation of the species, he cannot be reduced to anything self-existing in the same species, but to a superior species, such as separate substances. The same applies to other sensible things.

Reply Obj. 2: It's human nature to exist in matter, so a man without matter is impossible. Therefore, while this particular man is a man because he shares in the species, he can't be reduced to anything self-existing within the same species but rather to a higher species, like separate substances. The same goes for other tangible things.

Reply Obj. 3: Although every science and definition is concerned only with beings, still it is not necessary that a thing should have the same mode in reality as the thought of it has in our understanding. For we abstract universal ideas by force of the active intellect from the particular conditions; but it is not necessary that the universals should exist outside the particulars in order to be their exemplars.

Reply Obj. 3: Even though every science and definition only deals with beings, it's not necessary for something to exist in the same way in reality as we think about it in our understanding. We form universal ideas through the active intellect by pulling them from specific conditions, but it's not required for these universals to exist outside of the particulars to serve as their models.

Reply Obj. 4: As Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv), by "self-existing life and self-existing wisdom" he sometimes denotes God Himself, sometimes the powers given to things themselves; but not any self-subsisting things, as the ancients asserted. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: As Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv), by "self-existing life and self-existing wisdom" he sometimes refers to God Himself, and sometimes to the powers given to things; but not to any self-sustaining things, as the ancients claimed.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 44, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 44, Art. 4]

Whether God Is the Final Cause of All Things?

Whether God is the Ultimate Cause of Everything?

Objection 1: It would seem that God is not the final cause of all things. For to act for an end seems to imply need of the end. But God needs nothing. Therefore it does not become Him to act for an end.

Objection 1: It seems that God is not the ultimate cause of everything. Acting for a purpose suggests a need for that purpose. However, God doesn't need anything. Therefore, it doesn't seem appropriate for Him to act with a purpose.

Obj. 2: Further, the end of generation, and the form of the thing generated, and the agent cannot be identical (Phys. ii, text 70), because the end of generation is the form of the thing generated. But God is the first agent producing all things. Therefore He is not the final cause of all things.

Obj. 2: Also, the purpose of creation, the nature of what is created, and the creator cannot be the same (Phys. ii, text 70), because the purpose of creation is the nature of what is created. But God is the original creator of everything. Therefore, He is not the ultimate purpose of all things.

Obj. 3: Further, all things desire their end. But all things do not desire God, for all do not even know Him. Therefore God is not the end of all things.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, everything seeks its own purpose. However, not everything seeks God, because not all even recognize Him. Therefore, God is not the ultimate purpose of everything.

Obj. 4: Further, the final cause is the first of causes. If, therefore, God is the efficient cause and the final cause, it follows that before and after exist in Him; which is impossible.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the final cause is the primary cause. If God is both the efficient cause and the final cause, then it implies that before and after exist within Him; which is impossible.

On the contrary, It is said (Prov. 16:4): "The Lord has made all things for Himself."

On the contrary, it is said (Prov. 16:4): "The Lord has made everything for Himself."

I answer that, Every agent acts for an end: otherwise one thing would not follow more than another from the action of the agent, unless it were by chance. Now the end of the agent and of the patient considered as such is the same, but in a different way respectively. For the impression which the agent intends to produce, and which the patient intends to receive, are one and the same. Some things, however, are both agent and patient at the same time: these are imperfect agents, and to these it belongs to intend, even while acting, the acquisition of something. But it does not belong to the First Agent, Who is agent only, to act for the acquisition of some end; He intends only to communicate His perfection, which is His goodness; while every creature intends to acquire its own perfection, which is the likeness of the divine perfection and goodness. Therefore the divine goodness is the end of all things.

I answer that, Every agent acts with a purpose: otherwise, one outcome wouldn’t follow more than another from the actions of the agent, unless it was by chance. The purpose of the agent and the purpose of the recipient, considered as such, is the same but viewed differently. The impression that the agent aims to create and the one that the recipient aims to receive are the same. However, some things can be both agents and recipients at the same time: these are imperfect agents, and they strive to acquire something even while acting. But the First Agent, Who acts solely as an agent, does not act to acquire any end; He only aims to share His perfection, which is His goodness, while every creature aims to achieve its own perfection, which reflects divine perfection and goodness. Therefore, divine goodness is the ultimate goal of all things.

Reply Obj. 1: To act from need belongs only to an imperfect agent, which by its nature is both agent and patient. But this does not belong to God, and therefore He alone is the most perfectly liberal giver, because He does not act for His own profit, but only for His own goodness.

Reply Obj. 1: Acting out of necessity is something only an imperfect agent does, as it is both an agent and a receiver of its actions. However, this doesn’t apply to God, who is therefore the most perfectly generous giver, since He doesn’t act for His own benefit, but solely out of His goodness.

Reply Obj. 2: The form of the thing generated is not the end of generation, except inasmuch as it is the likeness of the form of the generator, which intends to communicate its own likeness; otherwise the form of the thing generated would be more noble than the generator, since the end is more noble than the means to the end.

Reply Obj. 2: The form of the thing being produced is not the ultimate goal of production, except to the extent that it reflects the form of the creator, who aims to share its own likeness; otherwise, the form of the created thing would be more admirable than that of the creator, since the goal is more admirable than the means used to achieve it.

Reply Obj. 3: All things desire God as their end, when they desire some good thing, whether this desire be intellectual or sensible, or natural, i.e. without knowledge; because nothing is good and desirable except forasmuch as it participates in the likeness to God.

Reply Obj. 3: Everything desires God as its ultimate goal when it seeks some good thing, whether that desire is intellectual, sensory, or natural, meaning without knowledge; because nothing is good and desirable unless it reflects some aspect of God's nature.

Reply Obj. 4: Since God is the efficient, the exemplar and the final cause of all things, and since primary matter is from Him, it follows that the first principle of all things is one in reality. But this does not prevent us from mentally considering many things in Him, some of which come into our mind before others. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Since God is the source, the model, and the ultimate purpose of everything, and since primary matter comes from Him, it follows that the fundamental principle of all things is one in essence. However, this doesn't stop us from thinking about many things in Him, some of which occur to us before others.

QUESTION 45

THE MODE OF EMANATION OF THINGS FROM THE FIRST PRINCIPLE
(In Eight Articles)

THE WAY THINGS EMERGE FROM THE FIRST PRINCIPLE
(In Eight Articles)

The next question concerns the mode of the emanation of things from the First Principle, and this is called creation, and includes eight points of inquiry:

The next question is about how things come from the First Principle, which is called creation, and it includes eight points of inquiry:

(1) What is creation?

What is creation?

(2) Whether God can create anything?

Can God create anything?

(3) Whether creation is anything in the very nature of things?

(3) Is creation something that exists in the very nature of things?

(4) To what things it belongs to be created?

(4) What things does it belong to be created?

(5) Whether it belongs to God alone to create?

(5) Does only God have the right to create?

(6) Whether creation is common to the whole Trinity, or proper to any one Person?

(6) Is creation something that belongs to the entire Trinity, or does it belong specifically to one Person?

(7) Whether any trace of the Trinity is to be found in created things?

(7) Is there any evidence of the Trinity in created things?

(8) Whether the work of creation is mingled with the works of nature and of the will? _______________________

(8) Is the act of creation mixed with natural processes and human intention? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 1]

Whether to Create Is to Make Something from Nothing?

Whether creating means making something from nothing?

Objection 1: It would seem that to create is not to make anything from nothing. For Augustine says (Contra Adv. Leg. et Proph. i): "To make concerns what did not exist at all; but to create is to make something by bringing forth something from what was already."

Objection 1: It seems that creating doesn’t mean making something out of nothing. Augustine says (Contra Adv. Leg. et Proph. i): "To make involves what didn’t exist at all; however, to create means making something by bringing something forth from what was already there."

Obj. 2: Further, the nobility of action and of motion is considered from their terms. Action is therefore nobler from good to good, and from being to being, than from nothing to something. But creation appears to be the most noble action, and first among all actions. Therefore it is not from nothing to something, but rather from being to being.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the nobility of action and motion is evaluated based on their definitions. Action is therefore considered nobler when it moves from good to good, and from being to being, rather than from nothing to something. However, creation seems to be the most noble action and the foremost among all actions. Therefore, it does not come from nothing to something, but rather from being to being.

Obj. 3: Further, the preposition "from" [ex] imports relation of some cause, and especially of the material cause; as when we say that a statue is made from brass. But "nothing" cannot be the matter of being, nor in any way its cause. Therefore to create is not to make something from nothing.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the preposition "from" indicates a relationship of some cause, particularly the material cause; as when we say that a statue is made from brass. But "nothing" cannot be the substance of existence, nor can it in any way be its cause. Therefore, to create is not to make something from nothing.

On the contrary, On the text of Gen. 1, "In the beginning God created," etc., the gloss has, "To create is to make something from nothing."

On the contrary, On the text of Gen. 1, "In the beginning God created," etc., the gloss has, "To create is to make something from nothing."

I answer that, As said above (Q. 44, A. 2), we must consider not only the emanation of a particular being from a particular agent, but also the emanation of all being from the universal cause, which is God; and this emanation we designate by the name of creation. Now what proceeds by particular emanation, is not presupposed to that emanation; as when a man is generated, he was not before, but man is made from "not-man," and white from "not-white." Hence if the emanation of the whole universal being from the first principle be considered, it is impossible that any being should be presupposed before this emanation. For nothing is the same as no being. Therefore as the generation of a man is from the "not-being" which is "not-man," so creation, which is the emanation of all being, is from the "not-being" which is "nothing."

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (Q. 44, A. 2), we need to consider not only how a specific being comes from a specific agent but also how all beings come from the universal cause, which is God; this process is what we refer to as creation. Now, what comes from a specific emanation is not assumed to exist before that emanation; for example, when a man is born, he did not exist before, but a man is derived from "not-man," and white is derived from "not-white." Therefore, if we look at the emanation of all universal beings from the first principle, it is impossible for any being to be assumed before this emanation. For nothing is the same as no being. Thus, just as a man is generated from the "not-being" which is "not-man," creation, which represents the emanation of all being, comes from the "not-being" which is "nothing."

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine uses the word creation in an equivocal sense, according as to be created signifies improvement in things; as when we say that a bishop is created. We do not, however, speak of creation in that way here, but as it is described above.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine uses the word creation in a double sense, as being created means an improvement in things; like when we say that a bishop is appointed. However, we do not use creation in that way here, but as described above.

Reply Obj. 2: Changes receive species and dignity, not from the term wherefrom, but from the term whereto. Therefore a change is more perfect and excellent when the term whereto of the change is more noble and excellent, although the term wherefrom, corresponding to the term whereto, may be more imperfect: thus generation is simply nobler and more excellent than alteration, because the substantial form is nobler than the accidental form; and yet the privation of the substantial form, which is the term wherefrom in generation, is more imperfect than the contrary, which is the term wherefrom in alteration. Similarly creation is more perfect and excellent than generation and alteration, because the term whereto is the whole substance of the thing; whereas what is understood as the term wherefrom is simply not-being.

Reply Obj. 2: Changes gain their species and value not from the term wherefrom, but from the term whereto. Therefore, a change is considered more perfect and outstanding when the term whereto is of higher quality, even if the corresponding term wherefrom may be less perfect. For instance, generation is inherently nobler and better than alteration because the substantial form is superior to the accidental form; however, the lack of the substantial form, which is the term wherefrom in generation, is more imperfect than its opposite, which is the term wherefrom in alteration. Likewise, creation is more perfect and superior to both generation and alteration because the term whereto represents the entire substance of the thing, whereas the term wherefrom signifies simply non-existence.

Reply Obj. 3: When anything is said to be made from nothing, this preposition "from" [ex] does not signify the material cause, but only order; as when we say, "from morning comes midday"—i.e. after morning is midday. But we must understand that this preposition "from" [ex] can comprise the negation implied when I say the word "nothing," or can be included in it. If taken in the first sense, then we affirm the order by stating the relation between what is now and its previous non-existence. But if the negation includes the preposition, then the order is denied, and the sense is, "It is made from nothing—i.e. it is not made from anything"—as if we were to say, "He speaks of nothing," because he does not speak of anything. And this is verified in both ways, when it is said, that anything is made from nothing. But in the first way this preposition "from" [ex] implies order, as has been said in this reply. In the second sense, it imports the material cause, which is denied. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: When something is said to be made from nothing, the preposition "from" [ex] doesn’t refer to the material cause, but rather to order; like when we say, "from morning comes midday"—meaning after morning, there is midday. However, we must understand that this preposition "from" [ex] can include the negation implied when I say the word "nothing," or can be part of it. If we take it in the first way, we affirm the order by indicating the relationship between what exists now and its previous non-existence. But if the negation includes the preposition, then order is denied, and it means, "It is made from nothing—i.e., it isn’t made from anything"—similar to saying, "He speaks of nothing," because he doesn’t speak of anything. This is true in both cases when it’s said that anything is made from nothing. In the first case, the preposition "from" [ex] suggests order, as mentioned in this reply. In the second case, it indicates the material cause, which is denied.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 2]

Whether God Can Create Anything?

Can God create anything?

Objection 1: It would seem that God cannot create anything, because, according to the Philosopher (Phys. i, text 34), the ancient philosophers considered it as a commonly received axiom that "nothing is made from nothing." But the power of God does not extend to the contraries of first principles; as, for instance, that God could make the whole to be less than its part, or that affirmation and negation are both true at the same time. Therefore God cannot make anything from nothing, or create.

Objection 1: It seems that God cannot create anything because, according to the Philosopher (Phys. i, text 34), ancient philosophers accepted the widely held belief that "nothing comes from nothing." However, God's power doesn’t extend to the opposites of fundamental principles; for example, God can’t make the whole less than its part, nor can both affirmation and negation be true at the same time. Therefore, God cannot create anything from nothing.

Obj. 2: Further, if to create is to make something from nothing, to be created is to be made. But to be made is to be changed. Therefore creation is change. But every change occurs in some subject, as appears by the definition of movement: for movement is the act of what is in potentiality. Therefore it is impossible for anything to be made out of nothing by God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, if creating means making something from nothing, then being created means being made. But to be made means to undergo change. Therefore, creation is change. However, every change happens in something, as indicated by the definition of movement: movement is the act of what is potentially there. Therefore, it is impossible for anything to be made from nothing by God.

Obj. 3: Further, what has been made must have at some time been becoming. But it cannot be said that what is created, at the same time, is becoming and has been made, because in permanent things what is becoming, is not, and what has been made, already is: and so it would follow that something would be, and not be, at the same time. Therefore when anything is made, its becoming precedes its having been made. But this is impossible, unless there is a subject in which the becoming is sustained. Therefore it is impossible that anything should be made from nothing.

Obj. 3: Additionally, anything that has been created must have gone through a process of becoming at some point. However, we can't say that what is created is both becoming and has already been made at the same time, because in permanent things, what is becoming is not, and what has been made already exists: this would mean that something could both exist and not exist at the same time. So, when something is created, its process of becoming comes before its having been created. But this can't happen unless there is something that sustains the process of becoming. Therefore, it is impossible for anything to be created from nothing.

Obj. 4: Further, infinite distance cannot be crossed. But infinite distance exists between being and nothing. Therefore it does not happen that something is made from nothing.

Obj. 4: Moreover, infinite distance cannot be crossed. But there is infinite distance between being and nothing. Therefore, something cannot come from nothing.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 1:1): "In the beginning God created heaven and earth."

On the contrary, it is said (Gen. 1:1): "In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth."

I answer that, Not only is it [not] impossible that anything should be created by God, but it is necessary to say that all things were created by God, as appears from what has been said (Q. 44, A. 1). For when anyone makes one thing from another, this latter thing from which he makes is presupposed to his action, and is not produced by his action; thus the craftsman works from natural things, as wood or brass, which are caused not by the action of art, but by the action of nature. So also nature itself causes natural things as regards their form, but presupposes matter. If therefore God did only act from something presupposed, it would follow that the thing presupposed would not be caused by Him. Now it has been shown above (Q. 44, AA. 1, 2), that nothing can be, unless it is from God, Who is the universal cause of all being. Hence it is necessary to say that God brings things into being from nothing.

I answer that, Not only is it not impossible for anything to be created by God, but we must say that everything was created by God, as has been explained (Q. 44, A. 1). When someone makes one thing from another, the latter thing that is used as a basis is assumed in their action and is not created by that action; similarly, a craftsman works with natural materials, like wood or brass, which are not produced by art, but by nature. Nature itself also causes natural things in terms of their form but assumes the existence of matter. Therefore, if God only acted based on something assumed, it would imply that the assumed thing was not caused by Him. It has been demonstrated above (Q. 44, AA. 1, 2) that nothing can exist unless it comes from God, Who is the universal cause of all being. Thus, it is essential to say that God creates things from nothing.

Reply Obj. 1: Ancient philosophers, as is said above (Q. 44, A. 2), considered only the emanation of particular effects from particular causes, which necessarily presuppose something in their action; whence came their common opinion that "nothing is made from nothing." But this has no place in the first emanation from the universal principle of things.

Reply Obj. 1: As mentioned earlier (Q. 44, A. 2), ancient philosophers thought only about how specific effects come from specific causes, which always assume something in their process; this is why they commonly believed that "nothing comes from nothing." However, this idea doesn't apply to the initial emanation from the universal principle of things.

Reply Obj. 2: Creation is not change, except according to a mode of understanding. For change means that the same something should be different now from what it was previously. Sometimes, indeed, the same actual thing is different now from what it was before, as in motion according to quantity, quality and place; but sometimes it is the same being only in potentiality, as in substantial change, the subject of which is matter. But in creation, by which the whole substance of a thing is produced, the same thing can be taken as different now and before only according to our way of understanding, so that a thing is understood as first not existing at all, and afterwards as existing. But as action and passion coincide as to the substance of motion, and differ only according to diverse relations (Phys. iii, text 20, 21), it must follow that when motion is withdrawn, only diverse relations remain in the Creator and in the creature. But because the mode of signification follows the mode of understanding as was said above (Q. 13, A. 1), creation is signified by mode of change; and on this account it is said that to create is to make something from nothing. And yet "to make" and "to be made" are more suitable expressions here than "to change" and "to be changed," because "to make" and "to be made" import a relation of cause to the effect, and of effect to the cause, and imply change only as a consequence.

Reply Obj. 2: Creation is not change, except in how we understand it. Change means that something that exists now is different from what it was before. Sometimes, the same actual thing is indeed different now from how it was earlier, like in changes of size, quality, or location; but at other times, it’s the same being only in potentiality, like in substantial change, where the subject is matter. However, in creation, where the entire substance of a thing is produced, the same thing can only be viewed as different now than before based on our understanding, so that we see it initially as not existing at all, and then later as existing. But since action and passion coincide regarding the substance of motion and differ only based on various relationships (Phys. iii, text 20, 21), it follows that when motion is removed, only different relationships remain between the Creator and the creature. Because the way we signify something aligns with how we understand it, as mentioned above (Q. 13, A. 1), creation is signified as a form of change; that’s why it’s said that to create is to make something from nothing. Still, "to make" and "to be made" are more fitting terms here than "to change" and "to be changed," because "to make" and "to be made" indicate a relationship of cause to effect and effect to cause, implying change only as a result.

Reply Obj. 3: In things which are made without movement, to become and to be already made are simultaneous, whether such making is the term of movement, as illumination (for a thing is being illuminated and is illuminated at the same time) or whether it is not the term of movement, as the word is being made in the mind and is made at the same time. In these things what is being made, is; but when we speak of its being made, we mean that it is from another, and was not previously. Hence since creation is without movement, a thing is being created and is already created at the same time.

Reply Obj. 3: In things that are created without movement, becoming and being already created happen at the same time, whether that creation is the end of a process, like illumination (since something is being illuminated and is illuminated at the same time), or whether it’s not the end of a process, like a word being formed in the mind that is formed at the same time. In these cases, what is being created exists; but when we refer to its creation, we mean that it comes from something else and didn't exist before. Therefore, since creation doesn't involve movement, something is being created and is already created at the same time.

Reply Obj. 4: This objection proceeds from a false imagination, as if there were an infinite medium between nothing and being; which is plainly false. This false imagination comes from creation being taken to signify a change existing between two forms. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: This objection is based on a misunderstanding, as if there were an endless gap between nothing and existence; which is clearly not true. This misconception arises from interpreting creation as a change between two states.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 3]

Whether Creation Is Anything in the Creature?

Whether Creation Is Anything in the Creature?

Objection 1: It would seem that creation is not anything in the creature. For as creation taken in a passive sense is attributed to the creature, so creation taken in an active sense is attributed to the Creator. But creation taken actively is not anything in the Creator, because otherwise it would follow that in God there would be something temporal. Therefore creation taken passively is not anything in the creature.

Objection 1: It seems that creation isn't anything in the creature. Just as creation, in a passive sense, is attributed to the creature, creation, in an active sense, is attributed to the Creator. However, creation in an active sense isn't anything in the Creator, because that would mean there is something temporal in God. Therefore, creation in a passive sense isn't anything in the creature.

Obj. 2: Further, there is no medium between the Creator and the creature. But creation is signified as the medium between them both: since it is not the Creator, as it is not eternal; nor is it the creature, because in that case it would be necessary for the same reason to suppose another creation to create it, and so on to infinity. Therefore creation is not anything in the creature.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, there is no middle ground between the Creator and the creature. However, creation is described as the link between the two: it is not the Creator, since it is not eternal; nor is it the creature, because that would imply that another creation would be needed to create it, leading to an infinite regress. Therefore, creation is not something that exists within the creature.

Obj. 3: Further, if creation is anything besides the created substance, it must be an accident belonging to it. But every accident is in a subject. Therefore a thing created would be the subject of creation, and so the same thing would be the subject and also the term of creation. This is impossible, because the subject is before the accident, and preserves the accident; while the term is after the action and passion whose term it is, and as soon as it exists, action and passion cease. Therefore creation itself is not any thing.

Obj. 3: Also, if creation is anything other than the created substance, it must be an accident that belongs to it. But every accident exists within a subject. Therefore, a created thing would be both the subject of creation and the result of creation. This is impossible because the subject comes before the accident and maintains the accident; meanwhile, the result comes after the action and the experience to which it relates, and as soon as it exists, the action and experience stop. Therefore, creation itself is not anything.

On the contrary, It is greater for a thing to be made according to its entire substance, than to be made according to its substantial or accidental form. But generation taken simply, or relatively, whereby anything is made according to the substantial or the accidental form, is something in the thing generated. Therefore much more is creation, whereby a thing is made according to its whole substance, something in the thing created.

On the contrary, it's more significant for something to be made based on its entire essence rather than just its essential or accidental qualities. But when we look at generation in a straightforward or relative way, where something is created according to its essential or accidental qualities, that is part of the thing that is generated. So, even more so, creation, where something is made according to its full essence, is also part of the thing that is created.

I answer that, Creation places something in the thing created according to relation only; because what is created, is not made by movement, or by change. For what is made by movement or by change is made from something pre-existing. And this happens, indeed, in the particular productions of some beings, but cannot happen in the production of all being by the universal cause of all beings, which is God. Hence God by creation produces things without movement. Now when movement is removed from action and passion, only relation remains, as was said above (A. 2, ad 2). Hence creation in the creature is only a certain relation to the Creator as to the principle of its being; even as in passion, which implies movement, is implied a relation to the principle of motion.

I respond that, Creation instills something in the created being solely in relation; because what is created isn’t made through movement or change. What is made through movement or change comes from something that already exists. This does occur in the specific creations of some beings, but it cannot occur in the creation of all being by the universal cause of all beings, which is God. Therefore, God creates things without movement. When movement is taken away from action and passion, only relation remains, as mentioned before (A. 2, ad 2). Hence, creation in the creature is merely a specific relation to the Creator as the source of its being; just as in passion, which implies movement, a relation to the source of motion is involved.

Reply Obj. 1: Creation signified actively means the divine action, which is God's essence, with a relation to the creature. But in God relation to the creature is not a real relation, but only a relation of reason; whereas the relation of the creature to God is a real relation, as was said above (Q. 13, A. 7) in treating of the divine names.

Reply Obj. 1: Creation actively refers to the divine action, which is part of God's essence, in relation to the creature. However, in God, the relation to the creature is not a real relationship, but only a relationship of reason; whereas the creature’s relation to God is a real relationship, as mentioned earlier (Q. 13, A. 7) when discussing the divine names.

Reply Obj. 2: Because creation is signified as a change, as was said above (A. 2, ad 2), and change is a kind of medium between the mover and the moved, therefore also creation is signified as a medium between the Creator and the creature. Nevertheless passive creation is in the creature, and is a creature. Nor is there need of a further creation in its creation; because relations, or their entire nature being referred to something, are not referred by any other relations, but by themselves; as was also shown above (Q. 42, A. 1, ad 4), in treating of the equality of the Persons.

Reply Obj. 2: Since creation is represented as a change, as mentioned earlier (A. 2, ad 2), and change acts as a kind of link between the mover and what is moved, creation is also represented as a link between the Creator and the creature. However, passive creation exists within the creature and is indeed a creature. There is no need for an additional creation within its creation; because relationships, or the entire essence of something being referred to another, are not referenced by any other relationships but by themselves; as was also discussed earlier (Q. 42, A. 1, ad 4), when addressing the equality of the Persons.

Reply Obj. 3: The creature is the term of creation as signifying a change, but is the subject of creation, taken as a real relation, and is prior to it in being, as the subject is to the accident. Nevertheless creation has a certain aspect of priority on the part of the object to which it is directed, which is the beginning of the creature. Nor is it necessary that as long as the creature is it should be created; because creation imports a relation of the creature to the Creator, with a certain newness or beginning. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The creature represents the act of creation as indicating a change, but it is also the subject of creation, understood as a real relationship, and it exists prior to the act of creation, just like the subject comes before the accident. However, creation has a certain priority regarding the object it targets, which is the start of the creature. It’s also not required that the creature must be created at all times; creation implies a relationship between the creature and the Creator, bringing a sense of novelty or a beginning.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 4]

Whether to Be Created Belongs to Composite and Subsisting Things?

Whether to Be Created Belongs to Composite and Existing Things?

Objection 1: It would seem that to be created does not belong to composite and subsisting things. For in the book, De Causis (prop. iv) it is said, "The first of creatures is being." But the being of a thing created is not subsisting. Therefore creation properly speaking does not belong to subsisting and composite things.

Objection 1: It seems that being created does not apply to composite and existing things. In the book, De Causis (prop. iv), it states, "The first of creatures is being." However, the being of a created thing is not existing. Therefore, creation, in the strict sense, does not apply to existing and composite things.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is created is from nothing. But composite things are not from nothing, but are the result of their own component parts. Therefore composite things are not created.

Obj. 2: Additionally, everything that is created comes from nothing. However, composite things don’t come from nothing; they are made up of their own parts. Thus, composite things are not created.

Obj. 3: Further, what is presupposed in the second emanation is properly produced by the first: as natural generation produces the natural thing, which is presupposed in the operation of art. But the thing supposed in natural generation is matter. Therefore matter, and not the composite, is, properly speaking, that which is created.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, what is assumed in the second emanation is correctly produced by the first: just as natural generation creates the natural thing, which is assumed in the work of art. However, the assumption in natural generation is matter. Therefore, matter, and not the composite, is, strictly speaking, what is created.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 1:1): "In the beginning God created heaven and earth." But heaven and earth are subsisting composite things. Therefore creation belongs to them.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 1:1): "In the beginning God created heaven and earth." But heaven and earth are existing composite things. Therefore, creation belongs to them.

I answer that, To be created is, in a manner, to be made, as was shown above (Q. 44, A. 2, ad 2, 3). Now, to be made is directed to the being of a thing. Hence to be made and to be created properly belong to whatever being belongs; which, indeed, belongs properly to subsisting things, whether they are simple things, as in the case of separate substances, or composite, as in the case of material substances. For being belongs to that which has being—that is, to what subsists in its own being. But forms and accidents and the like are called beings, not as if they themselves were, but because something is by them; as whiteness is called a being, inasmuch as its subject is white by it. Hence, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. vii, text 2) accident is more properly said to be "of a being" than "a being." Therefore, as accidents and forms and the like non-subsisting things are to be said to co-exist rather than to exist, so they ought to be called rather "concreated" than "created" things; whereas, properly speaking, created things are subsisting beings.

I answer that, being created is, in a sense, being made, as was shown earlier (Q. 44, A. 2, ad 2, 3). Now, being made relates to the existence of something. So, being made and being created properly apply to whatever exists; this indeed belongs properly to entities that exist on their own, whether they are simple entities, like separate substances, or composite, like material substances. Existence belongs to that which has existence—that is, to what exists in its own right. However, forms, accidents, and similar entities are called beings, not because they exist on their own, but because something exists through them; for example, whiteness is called a being because its subject is white because of it. Therefore, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. vii, text 2), an accident is more accurately said to be "of a being" rather than "a being." Thus, since accidents, forms, and similar non-subsisting entities should be considered to co-exist rather than truly exist, they ought to be referred to as "concreated" rather than "created" things; while, strictly speaking, created things are entities that exist on their own.

Reply Obj. 1: In the proposition "the first of created things is being," the word "being" does not refer to the subject of creation, but to the proper concept of the object of creation. For a created thing is called created because it is a being, not because it is "this" being, since creation is the emanation of all being from the Universal Being, as was said above (A. 1). We use a similar way of speaking when we say that "the first visible thing is color," although, strictly speaking, the thing colored is what is seen.

Reply Obj. 1: In the statement "the first of created things is being," the term "being" doesn't refer to the subject of creation but to the proper idea of the object of creation. A created thing is called created because it is a being, not because it is "this" particular being, since creation is the emergence of all beings from the Universal Being, as mentioned earlier (A. 1). We use a similar phrasing when we say that "the first visible thing is color," even though, strictly speaking, the colored object is what we actually see.

Reply Obj. 2: Creation does not mean the building up of a composite thing from pre-existing principles; but it means that the "composite" is created so that it is brought into being at the same time with all its principles.

Reply Obj. 2: Creation doesn't mean constructing a complex object from existing elements; it means that the "composite" is created in such a way that it comes into existence along with all its fundamental components.

Reply Obj. 3: This reason does not prove that matter alone is created, but that matter does not exist except by creation; for creation is the production of the whole being, and not only matter. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: This reason doesn’t prove that matter alone is created, but that matter only exists because it’s created; because creation is the process of producing the entire being, not just matter.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 5]

Whether It Belongs to God Alone to Create?

Whether It Belongs to God Alone to Create?

Objection 1: It would seem that it does not belong to God alone to create, because, according to the Philosopher (De Anima ii, text 34), what is perfect can make its own likeness. But immaterial creatures are more perfect than material creatures, which nevertheless can make their own likeness, for fire generates fire, and man begets man. Therefore an immaterial substance can make a substance like to itself. But immaterial substance can be made only by creation, since it has no matter from which to be made. Therefore a creature can create.

Objection 1: It might seem that creating isn’t something that only belongs to God, because, as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, text 34), what is perfect can produce its own likeness. However, immaterial beings are more perfect than material beings, which can still produce their own likeness, as fire generates fire, and humans beget humans. So, an immaterial being could create a being similar to itself. But an immaterial being can only come into existence through creation, since it has no matter to form from. Therefore, a creature can create.

Obj. 2: Further, the greater the resistance is on the part of the thing made, so much the greater power is required in the maker. But a "contrary" resists more than "nothing." Therefore it requires more power to make (something) from its contrary, which nevertheless a creature can do, than to make a thing from nothing. Much more therefore can a creature do this.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the more resistance there is from the created thing, the more power the creator needs. A "contrary" resists more than "nothing." So, it takes more power to create something from its contrary, which a creature can still do, than to create something from nothing. Thus, a creature can do this to an even greater extent.

Obj. 3: Further, the power of the maker is considered according to the measure of what is made. But created being is finite, as we proved above when treating of the infinity of God (Q. 7, AA. 2, 3, 4). Therefore only a finite power is needed to produce a creature by creation. But to have a finite power is not contrary to the nature of a creature. Therefore it is not impossible for a creature to create.

Obj. 3: Additionally, a creator's power is assessed based on what is created. However, created beings are finite, as we established earlier when discussing God's infinity (Q. 7, AA. 2, 3, 4). Therefore, only a finite power is required to produce a creature through creation. Having finite power does not contradict what it means to be a creature. So, it is not impossible for a creature to create.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8) that neither good nor bad angels can create anything. Much less therefore can any other creatures.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8) that neither good nor bad angels can create anything. Much less can any other creatures.

I answer that, It sufficiently appears at the first glance, according to what precedes (A. 1), that to create can be the action of God alone. For the more universal effects must be reduced to the more universal and prior causes. Now among all effects the most universal is being itself: and hence it must be the proper effect of the first and most universal cause, and that is God. Hence also it is said (De Causis prop., iii) that "neither intelligence nor the soul gives us being, except inasmuch as it works by divine operation." Now to produce being absolutely, not as this or that being, belongs to creation. Hence it is manifest that creation is the proper act of God alone.

I respond that, It's clear at first glance, based on what has been discussed (A. 1), that only God can create. The most universal effects must be traced back to the most universal and primary causes. Now, among all effects, the most universal is existence itself; therefore, it must be the proper effect of the first and most universal cause, which is God. Additionally, it is stated (De Causis prop., iii) that "neither intelligence nor the soul gives us existence, except in the way it acts through divine operation." To bring about existence in its absolute form, not as this or that particular existence, is what we mean by creation. Thus, it's clear that creation is exclusively the act of God.

It happens, however, that something participates the proper action of another, not by its own power, but instrumentally, inasmuch as it acts by the power of another; as air can heat and ignite by the power of fire. And so some have supposed that although creation is the proper act of the universal cause, still some inferior cause acting by the power of the first cause, can create. And thus Avicenna asserted that the first separate substance created by God created another after itself, and the substance of the world and its soul; and that the substance of the world creates the matter of inferior bodies. And in the same manner the Master says (Sent. iv, D, 5) that God can communicate to a creature the power of creating, so that the latter can create ministerially, not by its own power.

It happens, however, that something can take part in the proper action of another, not by its own power, but as an instrument, acting through the power of another; for example, air can heat and ignite through the power of fire. Thus, some have suggested that although creation is the proper action of the universal cause, some lesser cause, acting through the power of the first cause, can also create. Therefore, Avicenna claimed that the first separate substance created by God created another substance after itself, along with the substance of the world and its soul; and that the substance of the world creates the matter of lower bodies. Similarly, the Master says (Sent. iv, D, 5) that God can give a creature the ability to create, allowing it to create in a ministerial way, not by its own power.

But such a thing cannot be, because the secondary instrumental cause does not participate the action of the superior cause, except inasmuch as by something proper to itself it acts dispositively to the effect of the principal agent. If therefore it effects nothing, according to what is proper to itself, it is used to no purpose; nor would there be any need of certain instruments for certain actions. Thus we see that a saw, in cutting wood, which it does by the property of its own form, produces the form of a bench, which is the proper effect of the principal agent. Now the proper effect of God creating is what is presupposed to all other effects, and that is absolute being. Hence nothing else can act dispositively and instrumentally to this effect, since creation is not from anything presupposed, which can be disposed by the action of the instrumental agent. So therefore it is impossible for any creature to create, either by its own power or instrumentally—that is, ministerially.

But that can't happen because a secondary instrumental cause doesn't participate in the action of a primary cause unless it acts in a way that is specific to itself to help bring about the effect of the main agent. If it doesn't achieve anything according to its own nature, it serves no purpose; there would be no need for specific tools for specific tasks. For example, a saw cuts wood by the property of its design and helps create a bench, which is the intended result of the main agent. The primary effect of God's creation is what underlies all other effects, and that is absolute existence. Therefore, nothing else can act in a supportive or instrumental way to achieve this effect, since creation doesn't come from anything that can be influenced by the actions of an instrumental agent. Thus, it's impossible for any creature to create, either through its own power or in a supportive role.

And above all it is absurd to suppose that a body can create, for no body acts except by touching or moving; and thus it requires in its action some pre-existing thing, which can be touched or moved, which is contrary to the very idea of creation.

And above all, it's ridiculous to think that a body can create anything, because nothing acts without touching or moving; therefore, its action needs something that already exists, which can be touched or moved, contradicting the very concept of creation.

Reply Obj. 1: A perfect thing participating any nature, makes a likeness to itself, not by absolutely producing that nature, but by applying it to something else. For an individual man cannot be the cause of human nature absolutely, because he would then be the cause of himself; but he is the cause of human nature being in the man begotten; and thus he presupposes in his action a determinate matter whereby he is an individual man. But as an individual man participates human nature, so every created being participates, so to speak, the nature of being; for God alone is His own being, as we have said above (Q. 7, AA. 1, 2). Therefore no created being can produce a being absolutely, except forasmuch as it causes "being" in "this": and so it is necessary to presuppose that whereby a thing is this thing, before the action whereby it makes its own likeness. But in an immaterial substance it is not possible to presuppose anything whereby it is this thing; because it is what it is by its form, whereby it has being, since it is a subsisting form. Therefore an immaterial substance cannot produce another immaterial substance like to itself as regards its being, but only as regards some added perfection; as we may say that a superior angel illuminates an inferior, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. iv, x). In this way even in heaven there is paternity, as the Apostle says (Eph. 3:15): "From whom all paternity in heaven and on earth is named." From which evidently appears that no created being can cause anything, unless something is presupposed; which is against the very idea of creation.

Reply Obj. 1: A perfect being, by participating in any nature, creates a likeness of itself—not by directly producing that nature, but by applying it to something else. An individual human cannot be the absolute cause of human nature, because that would mean he is the cause of himself; instead, he causes human nature to exist in the person he begets, and thus he assumes a specific matter that identifies him as an individual. Just as an individual human participates in human nature, every created being participates, in a sense, in the nature of being; for only God is His own being, as mentioned earlier (Q. 7, AA. 1, 2). Therefore, no created being can create a being absolutely, except insofar as it causes "being" in "this" particular thing. It is necessary to assume what makes something this specific thing before the action that creates its likeness. However, in an immaterial substance, it is impossible to assume anything that defines it as this thing; because it is what it is by its form, which gives it being, as it is a subsisting form. Thus, an immaterial substance cannot produce another immaterial substance that is identical to it in terms of being, but only in terms of some added perfection; as we might say that a higher angel enlightens a lower one, as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. iv, x). In this sense, even in heaven there is paternity, as the Apostle says (Eph. 3:15): "From whom all paternity in heaven and on earth is named." This clearly shows that no created being can cause anything without something already being assumed, which goes against the very concept of creation.

Reply Obj. 2: A thing is made from its contrary indirectly (Phys. i, text 43), but directly from the subject which is in potentiality. And so the contrary resists the agent, inasmuch as it impedes the potentiality from the act which the agent intends to induce, as fire intends to reduce the matter of water to an act like to itself, but is impeded by the form and contrary dispositions, whereby the potentiality (of the water) is restrained from being reduced to act; and the more the potentiality is restrained, the more power is required in the agent to reduce the matter to act. Hence a much greater power is required in the agent when no potentiality pre-exists. Thus therefore it appears that it is an act of much greater power to make a thing from nothing, than from its contrary.

Reply Obj. 2: A thing is created from its opposite indirectly (Phys. i, text 43), but directly from the subject that has potential. Therefore, the opposite resists the agent by blocking the potential from achieving the act the agent wants to create. For example, fire wants to change water into something like itself, but it's hindered by the water's form and opposing qualities, which prevent its potential from being fully realized. The more the potential is blocked, the more power the agent needs to bring the matter into action. Consequently, much more power is needed from the agent when there’s no potential present at all. Thus, it seems that it takes a much greater power to create something from nothing than from its opposite.

Reply Obj. 3: The power of the maker is reckoned not only from the substance of the thing made, but also from the mode of its being made; for a greater heat heats not only more, but quicker. Therefore although to create a finite effect does not show an infinite power, yet to create it from nothing does show an infinite power: which appears from what has been said (ad 2). For if a greater power is required in the agent in proportion to the distance of the potentiality from the act, it follows that the power of that which produces something from no presupposed potentiality is infinite, because there is no proportion between "no potentiality" and the potentiality presupposed by the power of a natural agent, as there is no proportion between "not being" and "being." And because no creature has simply an infinite power, any more than it has an infinite being, as was proved above (Q. 7, A. 2), it follows that no creature can create. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The power of the creator is determined not just by the substance of what is created but also by how it is created; after all, a greater heat not only heats more but does so faster. Therefore, while creating a finite effect doesn't demonstrate infinite power, creating something from nothing does show infinite power: this is evident from what has been discussed (ad 2). If a greater power is needed in the agent based on the distance from potentiality to actuality, it follows that the power required to produce something from no prior potentiality is infinite, since there’s no comparison between "no potentiality" and the potentiality assumed by the power of a natural agent, just as there’s no comparison between "not being" and "being." And since no creature has infinite power any more than it possesses infinite being, as established earlier (Q. 7, A. 2), it follows that no creature can create.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 6]

Whether to Create Is Proper to Any Person?

Whether it's appropriate for anyone to create?

Objection 1: It would seem that to create is proper to some Person. For what comes first is the cause of what is after; and what is perfect is the cause of what is imperfect. But the procession of the divine Person is prior to the procession of the creature: and is more perfect, because the divine Person proceeds in perfect similitude of its principle; whereas the creature proceeds in imperfect similitude. Therefore the processions of the divine Persons are the cause of the processions of things, and so to create belongs to a Person.

Objection 1: It seems that creating is something that belongs to a Person. What comes first is the cause of what follows, and what is perfect is the cause of what is imperfect. The procession of the divine Person comes before the procession of the creature and is more perfect because the divine Person proceeds in complete likeness to its principle, while the creature proceeds in imperfect likeness. Therefore, the processions of the divine Persons are the source of the processions of things, so creating must belong to a Person.

Obj. 2: Further, the divine Persons are distinguished from each other only by their processions and relations. Therefore whatever difference is attributed to the divine Persons belongs to them according to the processions and relations of the Persons. But the causation of creatures is diversely attributed to the divine Persons; for in the Creed, to the Father is attributed that "He is the Creator of all things visible and invisible"; to the Son is attributed that by Him "all things were made"; and to the Holy Ghost is attributed that He is "Lord and Life-giver." Therefore the causation of creatures belongs to the Persons according to processions and relations.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the divine Persons are distinguished from one another only by their processions and relationships. Therefore, any differences attributed to the divine Persons are based on their processions and relationships. However, the creation of beings is attributed to the divine Persons in different ways; in the Creed, it states that the Father is "the Creator of all things visible and invisible"; to the Son it is said that "all things were made" through Him; and to the Holy Spirit it is affirmed that He is "Lord and Life-giver." Thus, the creation of beings is associated with the Persons according to their processions and relationships.

Obj. 3: Further, if it be said that the causation of the creature flows from some essential attribute appropriated to some one Person, this does not appear to be sufficient; because every divine effect is caused by every essential attribute—viz. by power, goodness and wisdom—and thus does not belong to one more than to another. Therefore any determinate mode of causation ought not to be attributed to one Person more than to another, unless they are distinguished in creating according to relations and processions.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if it’s claimed that the creation of the creature comes from a specific attribute assigned to a particular Person, this doesn’t seem adequate; because every divine effect arises from every essential attribute—namely, power, goodness, and wisdom—and thus isn’t exclusive to one over another. Therefore, any specific way of causing something shouldn’t be attributed to one Person more than another unless they are differentiated in their creation based on relations and processions.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ii) that all things caused are the common work of the whole Godhead.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ii) that everything created is the collective work of the entire Godhead.

I answer that, To create is, properly speaking, to cause or produce the being of things. And as every agent produces its like, the principle of action can be considered from the effect of the action; for it must be fire that generates fire. And therefore to create belongs to God according to His being, that is, His essence, which is common to the three Persons. Hence to create is not proper to any one Person, but is common to the whole Trinity.

I answer that, to create is, in a proper sense, to cause or bring about the existence of things. Since every agent produces what is like itself, we can understand the principle of action through its effects; it must be fire that produces fire. Therefore, creation belongs to God based on His being, which is His essence, shared among the three Persons. Thus, creation is not exclusive to any one Person but is common to the entire Trinity.

Nevertheless the divine Persons, according to the nature of their procession, have a causality respecting the creation of things. For as was said above (Q. 14, A. 8; Q. 19, A. 4), when treating of the knowledge and will of God, God is the cause of things by His intellect and will, just as the craftsman is cause of the things made by his craft. Now the craftsman works through the word conceived in his mind, and through the love of his will regarding some object. Hence also God the Father made the creature through His Word, which is His Son; and through His Love, which is the Holy Ghost. And so the processions of the Persons are the type of the productions of creatures inasmuch as they include the essential attributes, knowledge and will.

Nevertheless, the divine Persons, based on how they came into being, have a role in the creation of things. As mentioned earlier (Q. 14, A. 8; Q. 19, A. 4), when discussing God's knowledge and will, God is the source of things through His understanding and intention, just as a craftsman is the source of the things he creates. The craftsman works through the idea he has in his mind and the desire he has for a specific object. Likewise, God the Father created the creature through His Word, which is His Son, and through His Love, which is the Holy Spirit. Thus, the relationships of the Persons reflect how creatures are produced, as they encompass the essential attributes of knowledge and will.

Reply Obj. 1: The processions of the divine Persons are the cause of creation, as above explained.

Reply Obj. 1: The processions of the divine Persons are the reason for creation, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 2: As the divine nature, although common to the three Persons, still belongs to them in a kind of order, inasmuch as the Son receives the divine nature from the Father, and the Holy Ghost from both: so also likewise the power of creation, whilst common to the three Persons, belongs to them in a kind of order. For the Son receives it from the Father, and the Holy Ghost from both. Hence to be the Creator is attributed to the Father as to Him Who does not receive the power of creation from another. And of the Son it is said (John 1:3), "Through Him all things were made," inasmuch as He has the same power, but from another; for this preposition "through" usually denotes a mediate cause, or "a principle from a principle." But to the Holy Ghost, Who has the same power from both, is attributed that by His sway He governs, and quickens what is created by the Father through the Son. Again, the reason for this particular appropriation may be taken from the common notion of the appropriation of the essential attributes. For, as above stated (Q. 39, A. 8, ad 3), to the Father is appropriated power which is chiefly shown in creation, and therefore it is attributed to Him to be the Creator. To the Son is appropriated wisdom, through which the intellectual agent acts; and therefore it is said: "Through Whom all things were made." And to the Holy Ghost is appropriated goodness, to which belong both government, which brings things to their proper end, and the giving of life—for life consists in a certain interior movement; and the first mover is the end, and goodness.

Reply Obj. 2: While the divine nature is common to the three Persons, it still belongs to them in a specific order. The Son receives the divine nature from the Father, and the Holy Spirit receives it from both. Similarly, the power of creation, although shared by the three Persons, belongs to them in an orderly way. The Son gets this power from the Father, and the Holy Spirit gets it from both. Therefore, being the Creator is attributed to the Father as He does not receive the power of creation from anyone else. It is said of the Son in John 1:3, "Through Him all things were made," since He has the same power but receives it from another; the term "through" typically indicates a mediate cause, or "a principle from a principle." The Holy Spirit, who has this power from both the Father and the Son, is said to govern and give life to what is created by the Father through the Son. Additionally, the rationale behind this specific designation can be understood from the general notion of the appropriation of essential attributes. As previously mentioned (Q. 39, A. 8, ad 3), the Father is associated with power, particularly evident in creation, which is why He is called the Creator. The Son is linked to wisdom, by which the intellectual agent operates; hence it is stated: "Through Whom all things were made." The Holy Spirit is associated with goodness, encompassing both governance, which guides things to their proper end, and the granting of life—since life involves a certain internal movement; and the first mover is the ultimate goal and goodness.

Reply Obj. 3: Although every effect of God proceeds from each attribute, each effect is reduced to that attribute with which it is naturally connected; thus the order of things is reduced to "wisdom," and the justification of the sinner to "mercy" and "goodness" poured out super-abundantly. But creation, which is the production of the very substance of a thing, is reduced to "power." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: While every action of God comes from each of His attributes, each action is linked to the attribute it corresponds with the most; therefore, the order of things relates to "wisdom," and the forgiveness of sinners connects to "mercy" and "goodness" given in abundance. However, creation, which involves bringing the essence of something into existence, is tied to "power."

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 7]

Whether in Creatures Is Necessarily Found a Trace of the Trinity?

Whether in Creatures Is Necessarily Found a Trace of the Trinity?

Objection 1: It would seem that in creatures there is not necessarily found a trace of the Trinity. For anything can be traced through its traces. But the trinity of persons cannot be traced from the creatures, as was above stated (Q. 32, A. 1). Therefore there is no trace of the Trinity in creatures.

Objection 1: It seems that creatures don't necessarily show a sign of the Trinity. Anything can be identified through its signs. However, the Trinity of persons cannot be identified from creatures, as stated earlier (Q. 32, A. 1). Therefore, there is no sign of the Trinity in creatures.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is in creatures is created. Therefore if the trace of the Trinity is found in creatures according to some of their properties, and if everything created has a trace of the Trinity, it follows that we can find a trace of the Trinity in each of these (properties): and so on to infinitude.

Obj. 2: Additionally, everything that exists in created beings is created. So, if we see a reflection of the Trinity in creatures based on certain properties, and if everything created carries this reflection of the Trinity, it follows that we can find a reflection of the Trinity in each of these properties: and this goes on endlessly.

Obj. 3: Further, the effect represents only its own cause. But the causality of creatures belongs to the common nature, and not to the relations whereby the Persons are distinguished and numbered. Therefore in the creature is to be found a trace not of the Trinity but of the unity of essence.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the effect only reflects its own cause. However, the causality of created beings pertains to a shared nature, rather than the relationships that distinguish and identify the Persons. Thus, in created beings, we find a trace not of the Trinity but of the unity of essence.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 10), that "the trace of the Trinity appears in creatures."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 10), that "the mark of the Trinity is evident in living beings."

I answer that, Every effect in some degree represents its cause, but diversely. For some effects represent only the causality of the cause, but not its form; as smoke represents fire. Such a representation is called a "trace": for a trace shows that someone has passed by but not who it is. Other effects represent the cause as regards the similitude of its form, as fire generated represents fire generating; and a statue of Mercury represents Mercury; and this is called the representation of "image." Now the processions of the divine Persons are referred to the acts of intellect and will, as was said above (Q. 27). For the Son proceeds as the word of the intellect; and the Holy Ghost proceeds as love of the will. Therefore in rational creatures, possessing intellect and will, there is found the representation of the Trinity by way of image, inasmuch as there is found in them the word conceived, and the love proceeding.

I respond that, every effect in some way reflects its cause, but in different ways. Some effects only reflect the causality of the cause without showing its form, like how smoke indicates fire. This kind of reflection is called a "trace," because a trace shows that someone has been there, but not who they are. Other effects reflect the cause in terms of a similarity to its form, as generated fire represents generating fire; and a statue of Mercury represents Mercury; this is referred to as the representation of "image." Now, the processions of the divine Persons relate to the acts of intellect and will, as mentioned above (Q. 27). The Son proceeds as the word of the intellect; and the Holy Ghost proceeds as the love of the will. Therefore, in rational beings, which have intellect and will, the representation of the Trinity is found through the image, since in them there exists the conceived word and the proceeding love.

But in all creatures there is found the trace of the Trinity, inasmuch as in every creature are found some things which are necessarily reduced to the divine Persons as to their cause. For every creature subsists in its own being, and has a form, whereby it is determined to a species, and has relation to something else. Therefore as it is a created substance, it represents the cause and principle; and so in that manner it shows the Person of the Father, Who is the "principle from no principle." According as it has a form and species, it represents the Word as the form of the thing made by art is from the conception of the craftsman. According as it has relation of order, it represents the Holy Ghost, inasmuch as He is love, because the order of the effect to something else is from the will of the Creator. And therefore Augustine says (De Trin. vi 10) that the trace of the Trinity is found in every creature, according "as it is one individual," and according "as it is formed by a species," and according as it "has a certain relation of order." And to these also are reduced those three, "number," "weight," and "measure," mentioned in the Book of Wisdom (9:21). For "measure" refers to the substance of the thing limited by its principles, "number" refers to the species, "weight" refers to the order. And to these three are reduced the other three mentioned by Augustine (De Nat. Boni iii), "mode," species, and "order," and also those he mentions (QQ. 83, qu. 18): "that which exists; whereby it is distinguished; whereby it agrees." For a thing exists by its substance, is distinct by its form, and agrees by its order. Other similar expressions may be easily reduced to the above.

But in all creatures, there's a hint of the Trinity, since everything created contains elements that link back to the divine Persons as their source. Each creature exists with its own being and has a form that categorizes it, establishing its relationship to something else. As a created entity, it symbolizes the cause and principle; thus, it represents the Father, who is the "principle from no principle." In terms of its form and species, it reflects the Word, just as the form of an artwork comes from the artist's idea. When it comes to its relational order, it represents the Holy Spirit, because He is love, and the relationship of an effect to something else comes from the Creator's will. Therefore, Augustine states (De Trin. vi 10) that the hint of the Trinity is evident in every creature, in how it is "one individual," how it is shaped by a species, and how it "has a certain relation of order." The concepts of "number," "weight," and "measure," mentioned in the Book of Wisdom (9:21), also connect to these ideas. "Measure" pertains to the substance of the thing defined by its principles, "number" refers to the species, and "weight" relates to order. These three can also be linked to the other three Augustine discusses (De Nat. Boni iii): "mode," species, and "order," as well as those he mentions (QQ. 83, qu. 18): "that which exists; how it is distinguished; how it connects." A thing exists through its substance, is defined by its form, and connects through its order. Other similar expressions can easily be related back to these concepts.

Reply Obj. 1: The representation of the trace is to be referred to the appropriations: in which manner we are able to arrive at a knowledge of the trinity of the divine persons from creatures, as we have said (Q. 32, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 1: The depiction of the trace relates to the appropriations; in this way, we can gain an understanding of the Trinity of the divine persons from created things, as we mentioned (Q. 32, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 2: A creature properly speaking is a thing self-subsisting; and in such are the three above-mentioned things to be found. Nor is it necessary that these three things should be found in all that exists in the creature; but only to a subsisting being is the trace ascribed in regard to those three things.

Reply Obj. 2: A creature, in the proper sense, is a self-sustaining entity; and the three things mentioned above can be found in such entities. It is not required that all existing things within a creature possess these three elements; rather, the trace of these three things is attributed only to a self-sustaining being.

Reply Obj. 3: The processions of the persons are also in some way the cause and type of creation; as appears from the above (A. 6). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The processions of the persons are also somewhat the reason and example of creation, as shown above (A. 6).

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 45, Art. 8]

Whether Creation Is Mingled with Works of Nature and Art?

Whether Creation Is Mixed with Works of Nature and Art?

Objection 1: It would seem that creation is mingled in works of nature and art. For in every operation of nature and art some form is produced. But it is not produced from anything, since matter has no part in it. Therefore it is produced from nothing; and thus in every operation of nature and art there is creation.

Objection 1: It seems that creation exists in both nature and art. In every process of nature and art, some form is produced. However, it is not produced from anything, since matter doesn’t play a role in it. Therefore, it comes from nothing; and so, in every process of nature and art, there is creation.

Obj. 2: Further, the effect is not more powerful than its cause. But in natural things the only agent is the accidental form, which is an active or a passive form. Therefore the substantial form is not produced by the operation of nature; and therefore it must be produced by creation.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the effect isn't stronger than its cause. In natural things, the only agent is the accidental form, which can be either active or passive. So, the substantial form isn't generated by natural processes; it must be created.

Obj. 3: Further, in nature like begets like. But some things are found generated in nature by a thing unlike to them; as is evident in animals generated through putrefaction. Therefore the form of these is not from nature, but by creation; and the same reason applies to other things.

Obj. 3: Also, in nature, similar things produce similar things. However, some things are found to arise in nature from something dissimilar, as seen in animals that come from decay. Therefore, their form doesn’t come from nature but from creation, and the same reasoning applies to other things.

Obj. 4: Further, what is not created, is not a creature. If therefore in nature's productions there were not creation, it would follow that nature's productions are not creatures; which is heretical.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, whatever is not created is not a creature. Therefore, if there is no creation in nature's productions, it would mean that nature's productions are not creatures, which is heretical.

On the contrary, Augustine (Super Gen. v, 6,14,15) distinguishes the work of propagation, which is a work of nature, from the work of creation.

On the contrary, Augustine (Super Gen. v, 6,14,15) makes a distinction between the process of propagation, which is a natural process, and the act of creation.

I answer that, The doubt on this subject arises from the forms which, some said, do not come into existence by the action of nature, but previously exist in matter; for they asserted that forms are latent. This arose from ignorance concerning matter, and from not knowing how to distinguish between potentiality and act. For because forms pre-exist in matter, "in potentiality," they asserted that they pre-exist "simply." Others, however, said that the forms were given or caused by a separate agent by way of creation; and accordingly, that to each operation of nature is joined creation. But this opinion arose from ignorance concerning form. For they failed to consider that the form of the natural body is not subsisting, but is that by which a thing is. And therefore, since to be made and to be created belong properly to a subsisting thing alone, as shown above (A. 4), it does not belong to forms to be made or to be created, but to be "concreated." What, indeed, is properly made by the natural agent is the "composite," which is made from matter.

I answer that, The confusion on this topic comes from the belief that some forms don’t arise from nature's actions but instead already exist within matter; they claimed that forms are hidden within it. This misunderstanding stems from a lack of knowledge about matter and the inability to differentiate between potentiality and actuality. Because forms exist in matter "in potentiality," they mistakenly thought that they exist "simply." On the other hand, some believed that forms are given or brought about by an external agent through creation; thus, they claimed that every natural process involves creation. However, this view resulted from a misunderstanding of forms. They overlooked the fact that the form of a natural body isn't something that exists independently, but is what makes something what it is. Therefore, since being made and being created pertain solely to something that exists, as previously mentioned (A. 4), forms are neither made nor created, but rather "concreated." What is truly produced by the natural agent is the "composite," which comes from matter.

Hence in the works of nature creation does not enter, but is presupposed to the work of nature.

Hence, in the works of nature, creation is not included, but is assumed as the basis for the work of nature.

Reply Obj. 1: Forms begin to be actual when the composite things are made, not as though they were made "directly," but only "indirectly."

Reply Obj. 1: Forms start to become real when composite things are created, not as if they were made "directly," but rather "indirectly."

Reply Obj. 2: The active qualities in nature act by virtue of substantial forms: and therefore the natural agent not only produces its like according to quality, but according to species.

Reply Obj. 2: The active qualities in nature operate because of substantial forms; therefore, the natural agent not only creates something similar based on its qualities but also based on its species.

Reply Obj. 3: For the generation of imperfect animals, a universal agent suffices, and this is to be found in the celestial power to which they are assimilated, not in species, but according to a kind of analogy. Nor is it necessary to say that their forms are created by a separate agent. However, for the generation of perfect animals the universal agent does not suffice, but a proper agent is required, in the shape of a univocal generator.

Reply Obj. 3: For the creation of imperfect animals, a universal agent is enough, and this can be found in the celestial power to which they are related, not in species, but in a sort of analogy. It isn't necessary to claim that their forms are created by a separate agent. However, for the creation of perfect animals, the universal agent isn't sufficient; a specific agent is needed, which is a univocal generator.

Reply Obj. 4: The operation of nature takes place only on the presupposition of created principles; and thus the products of nature are called creatures. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The workings of nature rely on established principles; therefore, the outcomes of nature are referred to as creatures.

QUESTION 46

OF THE BEGINNING OF THE DURATION OF CREATURES
(In Three Articles)

OF THE BEGINNING OF THE DURATION OF CREATURES
(In Three Articles)

Next must be considered the beginning of the duration of creatures, about which there are three points for treatment:

Next, we need to consider the start of the existence of creatures, which involves three key points for discussion:

(1) Whether creatures always existed?

Did creatures always exist?

(2) Whether that they began to exist is an article of Faith?

(2) Is the belief that they began to exist a matter of Faith?

(3) How God is said to have created heaven and earth in the beginning? _______________________

(3) How is it said that God created heaven and earth in the beginning? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 46, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 46, Art. 1]

Whether the Universe of Creatures Always Existed?

Whether the Universe of Creatures Has Always Existed?

Objection 1: It would seem that the universe of creatures, called the world, had no beginning, but existed from eternity. For everything which begins to exist, is a possible being before it exists: otherwise it would be impossible for it to exist. If therefore the world began to exist, it was a possible being before it began to exist. But possible being is matter, which is in potentiality to existence, which results from a form, and to non-existence, which results from privation of form. If therefore the world began to exist, matter must have existed before the world. But matter cannot exist without form: while the matter of the world with its form is the world. Therefore the world existed before it began to exist: which is impossible.

Objection 1: It seems that the universe of creatures, known as the world, has no beginning and has existed for eternity. Everything that begins to exist is a possible being before it exists; otherwise, it wouldn't be able to exist. So, if the world began to exist, it was a possible being before it began. But a possible being is matter, which is potentially able to exist, resulting from a form, and potentially able to not exist, which results from the absence of form. Therefore, if the world began to exist, matter must have existed before the world. However, matter cannot exist without a form: the matter of the world along with its form is the world. Thus, the world existed before it began to exist, which is impossible.

Obj. 2: Further, nothing which has power to be always, sometimes is and sometimes is not; because so far as the power of a thing extends so long it exists. But every incorruptible thing has power to be always; for its power does not extend to any determinate time. Therefore no incorruptible thing sometimes is, and sometimes is not: but everything which has a beginning at some time is, and at some time is not; therefore no incorruptible thing begins to exist. But there are many incorruptible things in the world, as the celestial bodies and all intellectual substances. Therefore the world did not begin to exist.

Obj. 2: Moreover, nothing that has the ability to always exist ever sometimes doesn’t exist; because as long as something has the ability to be, it exists. But everything that is incorruptible has the ability to always exist; its existence is not limited to a specific time. Thus, no incorruptible thing sometimes exists and sometimes doesn’t; however, everything that has a beginning at some point exists and at some point does not; therefore, nothing incorruptible ever begins to exist. Yet there are many incorruptible things in the world, like the celestial bodies and all intellectual substances. Therefore, the world did not begin to exist.

Obj. 3: Further, what is unbegotten has no beginning. But the
Philosopher (Phys. i, text 82) proves that matter is unbegotten, and
also (De Coelo et Mundo i, text 20) that the heaven is unbegotten.
Therefore the universe did not begin to exist.

Obj. 3: Additionally, what is unbegotten has no beginning. But the
Philosopher (Phys. i, text 82) demonstrates that matter is unbegotten, and
also (De Coelo et Mundo i, text 20) that heaven is unbegotten.
Therefore, the universe did not begin to exist.

Obj. 4: Further, a vacuum is where there is not a body, but there might be. But if the world began to exist, there was first no body where the body of the world now is; and yet it could be there, otherwise it would not be there now. Therefore before the world there was a vacuum; which is impossible.

Obj. 4: Also, a vacuum is a space where there isn’t anything, but there could be something. If the world began to exist, originally there was no matter in the space where the world now exists; and yet it could be there, or else it wouldn't be here now. Therefore, before the world, there was a vacuum; which is impossible.

Obj. 5: Further, nothing begins anew to be moved except through either the mover or the thing moved being otherwise than it was before. But what is otherwise now than it was before, is moved. Therefore before every new movement there was a previous movement. Therefore movement always was; and therefore also the thing moved always was, because movement is only in a movable thing.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, nothing can start moving again unless either the mover or the thing being moved has changed from what it was before. But whatever has changed is in motion. Therefore, before every new movement, there was a prior movement. This means that movement has always existed; and consequently, the thing that moves has always existed as well since movement only occurs in something that can be moved.

Obj. 6: Further, every mover is either natural or voluntary. But neither begins to move except by some pre-existing movement. For nature always moves in the same manner: hence unless some change precede either in the nature of the mover, or in the movable thing, there cannot arise from the natural mover a movement which was not there before. And the will, without itself being changed, puts off doing what it proposes to do; but this can be only by some imagined change, at least on the part of time. Thus he who wills to make a house tomorrow, and not today, awaits something which will be tomorrow, but is not today; and at least awaits for today to pass, and for tomorrow to come; and this cannot be without change, because time is the measure of movement. Therefore it remains that before every new movement, there was a previous movement; and so the same conclusion follows as before.

Obj. 6: Furthermore, every mover is either natural or voluntary. However, neither starts to move without some pre-existing movement. Nature always moves in the same way; therefore, unless there is some change beforehand, either in the nature of the mover or in the thing being moved, a natural mover cannot generate a movement that wasn’t there before. The will, without changing itself, delays taking action on what it intends to do; but this can only happen through some imagined change, at least regarding time. So, the person who wants to build a house tomorrow instead of today is waiting for something that will be present tomorrow but isn’t today; and they are at least waiting for today to end and for tomorrow to arrive, which cannot happen without change since time is the measure of movement. Therefore, it follows that before every new movement, there was a previous movement; and thus, the same conclusion applies as before.

Obj. 7: Further, whatever is always in its beginning, and always in its end, cannot cease and cannot begin; because what begins is not in its end, and what ceases is not in its beginning. But time always is in its beginning and end, because there is no time except "now" which is the end of the past and the beginning of the future. Therefore time cannot begin or end, and consequently neither can movement, the measure of what is time.

Obj. 7: Furthermore, anything that is always at its beginning and always at its end cannot stop and cannot start; because what begins is not at its end, and what stops is not at its beginning. But time is always at its beginning and end, since there’s no time except “now,” which is the end of the past and the start of the future. Therefore, time cannot begin or end, and as a result, neither can movement, which is the measure of what time is.

Obj. 8: Further, God is before the world either in the order of nature only, or also by duration. If in the order of nature only, therefore, since God is eternal, the world also is eternal. But if God is prior by duration; since what is prior and posterior in duration constitutes time, it follows that time existed before the world, which is impossible.

Obj. 8: Additionally, God exists before the world either in terms of nature alone or also in terms of duration. If it's just in terms of nature, then since God is eternal, the world must also be eternal. But if God is prior in duration; since what comes first and what comes second in duration makes up time, it follows that time existed before the world, which is impossible.

Obj. 9: Further, if there is a sufficient cause, there is an effect; for a cause to which there is no effect is an imperfect cause, requiring something else to make the effect follow. But God is the sufficient cause of the world; being the final cause, by reason of His goodness, the exemplar cause by reason of His wisdom, and the efficient cause, by reason of His power as appears from the above (Q. 44, AA. 2, 3, 4). Since therefore God is eternal, the world is also eternal.

Obj. 9: Furthermore, if there is a sufficient cause, there must be an effect; a cause without an effect is an imperfect cause that needs something else to create the effect. God is the sufficient cause of the world; He is the final cause due to His goodness, the exemplar cause because of His wisdom, and the efficient cause because of His power, as shown above (Q. 44, AA. 2, 3, 4). Therefore, since God is eternal, the world is also eternal.

Obj. 10: Further, eternal action postulates an eternal effect. But the action of God is His substance, which is eternal. Therefore the world is eternal.

Obj. 10: Furthermore, eternal action requires an eternal effect. However, God's action is His essence, which is eternal. Therefore, the world is eternal.

On the contrary, It is said (John 17:5), "Glorify Me, O Father, with Thyself with the glory which I had before the world was"; and (Prov. 8:22), "The Lord possessed Me in the beginning of His ways, before He made anything from the beginning."

On the contrary, It is said (John 17:5), "Glorify Me, O Father, with the glory I had with You before the world existed"; and (Prov. 8:22), "The Lord created Me at the beginning of His work, before He made anything from the start."

I answer that, Nothing except God can be eternal. And this statement is far from impossible to uphold: for it has been shown above (Q. 19, A. 4) that the will of God is the cause of things. Therefore things are necessary, according as it is necessary for God to will them, since the necessity of the effect depends on the necessity of the cause (Metaph. v, text 6). Now it was shown above (Q. 19, A. 3), that, absolutely speaking, it is not necessary that God should will anything except Himself. It is not therefore necessary for God to will that the world should always exist; but the world exists forasmuch as God wills it to exist, since the being of the world depends on the will of God, as on its cause. It is not therefore necessary for the world to be always; and hence it cannot be proved by demonstration.

I respond that, Nothing but God can be eternal. This statement is not difficult to support: it has been established earlier (Q. 19, A. 4) that God's will is the cause of things. Therefore, things exist necessarily, according to how it is necessary for God to will them, since the necessity of the effect relies on the necessity of the cause (Metaph. v, text 6). Moreover, it was previously shown (Q. 19, A. 3) that, in an absolute sense, it is not necessary for God to will anything except Himself. Therefore, it is not necessary for God to will that the world should always exist; instead, the world exists because God wills it to exist, as its existence depends on God’s will, which is its cause. Consequently, it is not necessary for the world to always be; thus, it cannot be proven by demonstration.

Nor are Aristotle's reasons (Phys. viii) simply, but relatively, demonstrative—viz. in order to contradict the reasons of some of the ancients who asserted that the world began to exist in some quite impossible manner. This appears in three ways. Firstly, because, both in Phys. viii and in De Coelo i, text 101, he premises some opinions, as those of Anaxagoras, Empedocles and Plato, and brings forward reasons to refute them. Secondly, because wherever he speaks of this subject, he quotes the testimony of the ancients, which is not the way of a demonstrator, but of one persuading of what is probable. Thirdly, because he expressly says (Topic. i, 9), that there are dialectical problems, about which we have nothing to say from reason, as, "whether the world is eternal."

Aristotle's arguments (Phys. viii) aren’t just straightforward but relatively demonstrative—specifically, to counter the claims of some ancient thinkers who insisted that the world came into being in some completely implausible way. This is evident in three aspects. First, in both Phys. viii and De Coelo i, text 101, he lays out some viewpoints, like those of Anaxagoras, Empedocles, and Plato, and presents reasons to disprove them. Second, whenever he discusses this topic, he references the opinions of ancient thinkers, which shows he’s not acting as a demonstrator but as someone trying to persuade others of what seems likely. Third, he clearly states (Topic. i, 9) that there are dialectical questions for which we can’t provide answers based on reason, such as "whether the world is eternal."

Reply Obj. 1: Before the world existed it was possible for the world to be, not, indeed, according to a passive power which is matter, but according to the active power of God; and also, according as a thing is called absolutely possible, not in relation to any power, but from the sole habitude of the terms which are not repugnant to each other; in which sense possible is opposed to impossible, as appears from the Philosopher (Metaph. v, text 17).

Reply Obj. 1: Before the world existed, it was possible for the world to exist, not because of a passive ability of matter, but due to the active power of God; and also, as something is considered absolutely possible, not in relation to any ability, but from the simple relationship of terms that are not contradictory; in this way, the possible is opposed to the impossible, as stated by the Philosopher (Metaph. v, text 17).

Reply Obj. 2: Whatever has power always to be, from the fact of having that power, cannot sometimes be and sometimes not be; but before it received that power, it did not exist.

Reply Obj. 2: Anything that has the power to exist always must exist; it can't exist sometimes and not at other times. However, before it gained that power, it did not exist.

Hence this reason which is given by Aristotle (De Coelo i, text 120) does not prove simply that incorruptible things never began to exist; but that they did not begin by the natural mode whereby things generated and corruptible begin.

Hence, the reason given by Aristotle (De Coelo i, text 120) does not simply prove that incorruptible things never came into existence; rather, it shows that they did not begin in the natural way that things that are generated and corruptible do.

Reply Obj. 3: Aristotle (Phys. i, text 82) proves that matter is unbegotten from the fact that it has not a subject from which to derive its existence; and (De Coelo et Mundo i, text 20) he proves that heaven is ungenerated, forasmuch as it has no contrary from which to be generated. Hence it appears that no conclusion follows either way, except that matter and heaven did not begin by generation, as some said, especially about heaven. But we say that matter and heaven were produced into being by creation, as appears above (Q. 44, A. 1, ad 2).

Reply Obj. 3: Aristotle (Phys. i, text 82) shows that matter is uncreated because it doesn’t have a source from which to derive its existence; and (De Coelo et Mundo i, text 20) he demonstrates that heaven is ungenerated since it has no opposite from which to be created. Therefore, it seems that no conclusion can be drawn either way, except that matter and heaven did not originate through generation, as some have claimed, especially regarding heaven. However, we argue that matter and heaven were brought into existence through creation, as stated above (Q. 44, A. 1, ad 2).

Reply Obj. 4: The notion of a vacuum is not only "in which is nothing," but also implies a space capable of holding a body and in which there is not a body, as appears from Aristotle (Phys. iv, text 60). Whereas we hold that there was no place or space before the world was.

Reply Obj. 4: The idea of a vacuum isn’t just “an empty space,” but also suggests a space that can contain an object even though there isn't one present, as seen in Aristotle (Phys. iv, text 60). However, we believe that there was no place or space before the world existed.

Reply Obj. 5: The first mover was always in the same state: but the first movable thing was not always so, because it began to be whereas hitherto it was not. This, however, was not through change, but by creation, which is not change, as said above (Q. 45, A. 2, ad 2). Hence it is evident that this reason, which Aristotle gives (Phys. viii), is valid against those who admitted the existence of eternal movable things, but not eternal movement, as appears from the opinions of Anaxagoras and Empedocles. But we hold that from the moment that movable things began to exist movement also existed.

Reply Obj. 5: The first mover has always been in the same state, but the first movable thing has not always been so because it came into existence when it previously did not exist. This was not due to change, but to creation, which is different from change, as mentioned earlier (Q. 45, A. 2, ad 2). Therefore, it's clear that Aristotle's reasoning (Phys. viii) is relevant against those who accepted the existence of eternal movable things but not eternal movement, as seen in the ideas of Anaxagoras and Empedocles. However, we maintain that once movable things came into existence, movement also began.

Reply Obj. 6: The first agent is a voluntary agent. And although He had the eternal will to produce some effect, yet He did not produce an eternal effect. Nor is it necessary for some change to be presupposed, not even on account of imaginary time. For we must take into consideration the difference between a particular agent, that presupposes something and produces something else, and the universal agent, who produces the whole. The particular agent produces the form, and presupposes the matter; and hence it is necessary that it introduce the form in due proportion into a suitable matter. Hence it is correct to say that it introduces the form into such matter, and not into another, on account of the different kinds of matter. But it is not correct to say so of God Who produces form and matter together: whereas it is correct to say of Him that He produces matter fitting to the form and to the end. Now, a particular agent presupposes time just as it presupposes matter. Hence it is correctly described as acting in time "after" and not in time "before," according to an imaginary succession of time after time. But the universal agent who produces the thing and time also, is not correctly described as acting now, and not before, according to an imaginary succession of time succeeding time, as if time were presupposed to His action; but He must be considered as giving time to His effect as much as and when He willed, and according to what was fitting to demonstrate His power. For the world leads more evidently to the knowledge of the divine creating power, if it was not always, than if it had always been; since everything which was not always manifestly has a cause; whereas this is not so manifest of what always was.

Reply Obj. 6: The first agent is a voluntary agent. Even though He had the eternal will to create an effect, He did not create an eternal effect. It's not necessary to assume a change, even considering imaginary time. We need to understand the difference between a specific agent, which assumes something and produces something else, and the universal agent, who creates everything. The specific agent produces the form and assumes the matter; therefore, it's necessary for it to introduce the form in the right proportion into a suitable matter. So, it's accurate to say that it introduces the form into that specific matter, and not into another, because of the different kinds of matter. But it's not accurate to say that about God, Who produces both form and matter together; instead, it's correct to say that He creates matter appropriate to the form and purpose. A specific agent assumes time just like it assumes matter. So, it’s rightly described as acting in time "after" and not in time "before," based on an imaginary sequence of time after time. However, the universal agent, who produces both the thing and time, should not be described as acting now and not before in a way that assumes time is prior to His action; rather, He should be seen as giving time to His effect whenever He willed and in a way that demonstrates His power. The world clearly points to the knowledge of divine creating power more if it wasn’t always there than if it had always existed, since everything that wasn't always evidently has a cause, while that is not as clear for what has always been.

Reply Obj. 7: As is stated (Phys. iv, text 99), "before" and "after" belong to time, according as they are in movement. Hence beginning and end in time must be taken in the same way as in movement. Now, granted the eternity of movement, it is necessary that any given moment in movement be a beginning and an end of movement; which need not be if movement be a beginning. The same applies to the "now" of time. Thus it appears that the idea of the instant "now," as being always the beginning and end of time, presupposes the eternity of time and movement. Hence Aristotle brings forward this reason (Phys. viii, text 10) against those who asserted the eternity of time, but denied the eternity of movement.

Reply Obj. 7: As stated (Phys. iv, text 99), "before" and "after" relate to time, depending on movement. Therefore, the beginning and end in time should be understood the same way as in movement. Now, if we accept the eternity of movement, it's essential for any specific moment in movement to also be a beginning and an end of that movement; this doesn't have to be the case if movement is a beginning. The same goes for the "now" of time. Thus, the concept of the instant "now," which is always the start and finish of time, assumes the eternity of both time and movement. For this reason, Aristotle presents his argument (Phys. viii, text 10) against those who claimed time is eternal but denied the eternity of movement.

Reply Obj. 8: God is prior to the world by priority of duration. But the word "prior" signifies priority not of time, but of eternity. Or we may say that it signifies the eternity of imaginary time, and not of time really existing; thus, when we say that above heaven there is nothing, the word "above" signifies only an imaginary place, according as it is possible to imagine other dimensions beyond those of the heavenly body.

Reply Obj. 8: God exists before the world in terms of duration. However, the term "before" refers to a priority of eternity, not just time. Alternatively, we can say it represents the eternity of conceptual time, rather than actual time; hence, when we say there is nothing above heaven, the term "above" only indicates an imagined location, as it is possible to envision other dimensions beyond those of the heavenly body.

Reply Obj. 9: As the effect follows from the cause that acts by nature, according to the mode of its form, so likewise it follows from the voluntary agent, according to the form preconceived and determined by the agent, as appears from what was said above (Q. 19, A. 4; Q. 41, A. 2). Therefore, although God was from eternity the sufficient cause of the world, we should not say that the world was produced by Him, except as preordained by His will—that is, that it should have being after not being, in order more manifestly to declare its author.

Reply Obj. 9: Just as the effect comes from the cause that acts naturally, based on its inherent form, it also comes from a voluntary agent, according to the plan and determination established by that agent, as previously discussed (Q. 19, A. 4; Q. 41, A. 2). Therefore, even though God has always been the sufficient cause of the world, we shouldn't say that the world was created by Him, except as intended by His will—that is, that it should exist after not existing, in order to more clearly reveal its creator.

Reply Obj. 10: Given the action, the effect follows according to the requirement of the form, which is the principle of action. But in agents acting by will, what is conceived and preordained is to be taken as the form, which is the principle of action. Therefore from the eternal action of God an eternal effect did not follow; but such an effect as God willed, an effect, to wit, which has being after not being. _______________________

Reply Obj. 10: In actions, the effect follows based on what is required by the form, which is the principle of action. However, in beings that act by choice, what is envisioned and determined is considered the form, which is the principle of action. So, from God's eternal action, an eternal effect does not result; instead, it produces an effect that God intended, specifically one that comes into existence after not existing.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 46, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 46, Art. 2]

Whether It Is an Article of Faith That the World Began?

Whether It's a Belief That the World Started?

Objection 1: It would seem that it is not an article of faith but a demonstrable conclusion that the world began. For everything that is made has a beginning of its duration. But it can be proved demonstratively that God is the effective cause of the world; indeed this is asserted by the more approved philosophers. Therefore it can be demonstratively proved that the world began.

Objection 1: It seems that it’s not a matter of faith but a verifiable conclusion that the world had a beginning. Everything that is created has a starting point. It can be clearly demonstrated that God is the ultimate cause of the world; in fact, this is supported by respected philosophers. Therefore, it can be clearly proven that the world had a beginning.

Obj. 2: Further, if it is necessary to say that the world was made by God, it must therefore have been made from nothing or from something. But it was not made from something; otherwise the matter of the world would have preceded the world; against which are the arguments of Aristotle (De Coelo i), who held that heaven was ungenerated. Therefore it must be said that the world was made from nothing; and thus it has being after not being. Therefore it must have begun.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, if we say that the world was created by God, it must have been created from nothing or from something. But it wasn’t created from something; otherwise, the matter of the world would have existed before the world itself, which goes against the arguments of Aristotle (De Coelo i), who believed that heaven was uncreated. So, it must be said that the world was made from nothing; thus, it exists after not existing. Therefore, it must have had a beginning.

Obj. 3: Further, everything which works by intellect works from some principle, as appears in all kinds of craftsmen. But God acts by intellect: therefore His work has a principle. The world, therefore, which is His effect, did not always exist.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, everything that operates through intellect does so based on some principle, as is evident in all types of craftsmen. But God acts through intellect; therefore, His work has a principle. The world, which is His creation, did not always exist.

Obj. 4: Further, it appears manifestly that certain arts have developed, and certain countries have begun to be inhabited at some fixed time. But this would not be the case if the world had been always. Therefore it is manifest that the world did not always exist.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, it is clearly evident that certain skills have evolved, and some regions have started to be populated at specific times. If the world had always existed, this wouldn't be true. So, it is clear that the world did not always exist.

Obj. 5: Further, it is certain that nothing can be equal to God. But if the world had always been, it would be equal to God in duration. Therefore it is certain that the world did not always exist.

Obj. 5: Additionally, it's clear that nothing can be equal to God. However, if the world had always existed, it would be equal to God in terms of duration. Therefore, it is certain that the world did not always exist.

Obj. 6: Further, if the world always was, the consequence is that infinite days preceded this present day. But it is impossible to pass through an infinite medium. Therefore we should never have arrived at this present day; which is manifestly false.

Obj. 6: Furthermore, if the world has always existed, that means there have been endless days before today. But it's impossible to get through an infinite amount of time. Therefore, we would never have reached this present day, which is clearly not true.

Obj. 7: Further, if the world was eternal, generation also was eternal. Therefore one man was begotten of another in an infinite series. But the father is the efficient cause of the son (Phys. ii, text 5). Therefore in efficient causes there could be an infinite series, which is disproved (Metaph. ii, text 5).

Obj. 7: Additionally, if the world were eternal, then generation would also be eternal. This means one man would be born from another in an infinite sequence. However, the father is the efficient cause of the son (Phys. ii, text 5). Thus, there could be an infinite series in efficient causes, which is proven to be incorrect (Metaph. ii, text 5).

Obj. 8: Further, if the world and generation always were, there have been an infinite number of men. But man's soul is immortal: therefore an infinite number of human souls would actually now exist, which is impossible. Therefore it can be known with certainty that the world began, and not only is it known by faith.

Obj. 8: Furthermore, if the world and the generation always existed, there would have been an infinite number of people. But since the human soul is immortal, there would now be an infinite number of human souls, which is impossible. Therefore, we can know with certainty that the world had a beginning, and this knowledge is not just based on faith.

On the contrary, The articles of faith cannot be proved demonstratively, because faith is of things "that appear not" (Heb. 11:1). But that God is the Creator of the world: hence that the world began, is an article of faith; for we say, "I believe in one God," etc. And again, Gregory says (Hom. i in Ezech.), that Moses prophesied of the past, saying, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth": in which words the newness of the world is stated. Therefore the newness of the world is known only by revelation; and therefore it cannot be proved demonstratively.

On the contrary, the articles of faith can't be proven through demonstration because faith involves things "that are not seen" (Heb. 11:1). However, the belief that God is the Creator of the world, and that the world had a beginning, is an article of faith; when we say, "I believe in one God," etc. Additionally, Gregory mentions (Hom. i in Ezech.) that Moses spoke of past events, stating, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," which indicates the newness of the world. Therefore, the newness of the world is known only through revelation, and that's why it can't be proven demonstratively.

I answer that, By faith alone do we hold, and by no demonstration can it be proved, that the world did not always exist, as was said above of the mystery of the Trinity (Q. 32, A. 1). The reason of this is that the newness of the world cannot be demonstrated on the part of the world itself. For the principle of demonstration is the essence of a thing. Now everything according to its species is abstracted from "here" and "now"; whence it is said that universals are everywhere and always. Hence it cannot be demonstrated that man, or heaven, or a stone were not always. Likewise neither can it be demonstrated on the part of the efficient cause, which acts by will. For the will of God cannot be investigated by reason, except as regards those things which God must will of necessity; and what He wills about creatures is not among these, as was said above (Q. 19, A. 3). But the divine will can be manifested by revelation, on which faith rests. Hence that the world began to exist is an object of faith, but not of demonstration or science. And it is useful to consider this, lest anyone, presuming to demonstrate what is of faith, should bring forward reasons that are not cogent, so as to give occasion to unbelievers to laugh, thinking that on such grounds we believe things that are of faith.

I reply that, we believe that the world was not always here solely through faith, and it cannot be proven by any demonstration, just like the mystery of the Trinity mentioned earlier (Q. 32, A. 1). This is because we cannot demonstrate the newness of the world based on the world itself. The basis of a demonstration is the essence of a thing. Everything, according to its nature, is abstracted from "here" and "now"; hence, it is said that universals exist everywhere and at all times. Therefore, we cannot prove that a person, heaven, or a stone has not always existed. Similarly, we cannot prove it from the perspective of the efficient cause, which acts by will. The will of God cannot be understood through human reason, except in relation to those things that God must will necessarily; what He wills regarding creatures does not fall under that necessity, as stated above (Q. 19, A. 3). However, the divine will can be revealed, which is the basis of our faith. Therefore, the idea that the world had a beginning is a matter of faith, not of proof or science. It is important to keep this in mind so that no one, thinking they can prove what belongs to faith, presents weak arguments that might lead skeptics to ridicule us, believing that our faith is based on such flimsy reasoning.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 4), the opinion of philosophers who asserted the eternity of the world was twofold. For some said that the substance of the world was not from God, which is an intolerable error; and therefore it is refuted by proofs that are cogent. Some, however, said that the world was eternal, although made by God. For they hold that the world has a beginning, not of time, but of creation, so that in a certain hardly intelligible way it was always made. "And they try to explain their meaning thus (De Civ. Dei x, 31): for as, if the foot were always in the dust from eternity, there would always be a footprint which without doubt was caused by him who trod on it, so also the world always was, because its Maker always existed." To understand this we must consider that the efficient cause, which acts by motion, of necessity precedes its effect in time; because the effect is only in the end of the action, and every agent must be the principle of action. But if the action is instantaneous and not successive, it is not necessary for the maker to be prior to the thing made in duration as appears in the case of illumination. Hence they say that it does not follow necessarily if God is the active cause of the world, that He should be prior to the world in duration; because creation, by which He produced the world, is not a successive change, as was said above (Q. 45, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xi, 4), the views of philosophers who claimed the world is eternal were twofold. Some argued that the substance of the world did not come from God, which is a severe error, and thus it is disproved by strong evidence. Others claimed that the world is eternal, although created by God. They believe that the world has a beginning, not in time, but in creation, meaning that in a way that's hard to grasp, it has always been made. "They attempt to clarify their point like this (De Civ. Dei x, 31): just as if a foot were always in the dust from eternity, there would always be a footprint caused by whoever stepped on it, so too the world always existed because its Maker has always existed." To understand this, we must recognize that the efficient cause, which acts through motion, must logically precede its effect in time; because the effect only exists at the end of the action, and every agent must be the source of action. However, if the action is instantaneous and not successive, it's not necessary for the maker to exist before the thing made in duration, as seen in the case of illumination. Therefore, they argue that it doesn't necessarily follow that if God is the active cause of the world, He must exist before the world in duration; because creation, through which He produced the world, is not a successive change, as previously mentioned (Q. 45, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 2: Those who would say that the world was eternal, would say that the world was made by God from nothing, not that it was made after nothing, according to what we understand by the word creation, but that it was not made from anything; and so also some of them do not reject the word creation, as appears from Avicenna (Metaph. ix, text 4).

Reply Obj. 2: Those who argue that the world is eternal would say that the world was created by God from nothing, not that it was made after nothing, based on our understanding of the term creation, but that it wasn't made from anything; and thus, some of them do not reject the term creation, as shown by Avicenna (Metaph. ix, text 4).

Reply Obj. 3: This is the argument of Anaxagoras (as quoted in Phys. viii, text 15). But it does not lead to a necessary conclusion, except as to that intellect which deliberates in order to find out what should be done, which is like movement. Such is the human intellect, but not the divine intellect (Q. 14, AA. 7, 12).

Reply Obj. 3: This is the argument of Anaxagoras (as quoted in Phys. viii, text 15). However, it doesn't reach a necessary conclusion, except regarding the intellect that thinks through what should be done, which is similar to movement. This describes the human intellect, but not the divine intellect (Q. 14, AA. 7, 12).

Reply Obj. 4: Those who hold the eternity of the world hold that some region was changed an infinite number of times, from being uninhabitable to being inhabitable and "vice versa," and likewise they hold that the arts, by reason of various corruptions and accidents, were subject to an infinite variety of advance and decay. Hence Aristotle says (Meteor. i), that it is absurd from such particular changes to hold the opinion of the newness of the whole world.

Reply Obj. 4: Those who believe that the world is eternal argue that certain areas have changed countless times, going from uninhabitable to habitable and back again. They also believe that various arts, due to different corruptions and accidents, have experienced endless cycles of progress and decline. Therefore, Aristotle states (Meteor. i) that it's unreasonable to assume the entire world is new based on these specific changes.

Reply Obj. 5: Even supposing that the world always was, it would not be equal to God in eternity, as Boethius says (De Consol. v, 6); because the divine Being is all being simultaneously without succession; but with the world it is otherwise.

Reply Obj. 5: Even if we assume that the world has always existed, it wouldn't be equal to God in eternity, as Boethius states (De Consol. v, 6); because the divine Being is all existence at once without any sequence; but that's not the case with the world.

Reply Obj. 6: Passage is always understood as being from term to term. Whatever bygone day we choose, from it to the present day there is a finite number of days which can be passed through. The objection is founded on the idea that, given two extremes, there is an infinite number of mean terms.

Reply Obj. 6: Passage is always understood as moving from one point to another. No matter which past day we select, there is a finite number of days between it and today. The objection is based on the idea that, when considering two extremes, there are an infinite number of intermediate points.

Reply Obj. 7: In efficient causes it is impossible to proceed to infinity per se—thus, there cannot be an infinite number of causes that are per se required for a certain effect; for instance, that a stone be moved by a stick, the stick by the hand, and so on to infinity. But it is not impossible to proceed to infinity accidentally as regards efficient causes; for instance, if all the causes thus infinitely multiplied should have the order of only one cause, their multiplication being accidental, as an artificer acts by means of many hammers accidentally, because one after the other may be broken. It is accidental, therefore, that one particular hammer acts after the action of another; and likewise it is accidental to this particular man as generator to be generated by another man; for he generates as a man, and not as the son of another man. For all men generating hold one grade in efficient causes—viz. the grade of a particular generator. Hence it is not impossible for a man to be generated by man to infinity; but such a thing would be impossible if the generation of this man depended upon this man, and on an elementary body, and on the sun, and so on to infinity.

Reply Obj. 7: In efficient causes, you can't go to infinity per se—so there can't be an infinite number of causes that are per se necessary for a certain effect. For example, a stone is moved by a stick, the stick by a hand, and so on infinitely. However, it is possible to go to infinity accidentally regarding efficient causes. For instance, if all the causes, which are infinitely multiplied, follow the order of just one cause, their multiplication being accidental, like when a craftsman uses many hammers accidentally because one might break after another. It’s accidental, then, that one specific hammer acts after another; similarly, it’s accidental for this particular man, as a generator, to be generated by another man, since he generates as a man and not as someone else's son. All men generating hold one level in efficient causes—specifically, the level of a particular generator. So, it is not impossible for a man to be generated by man to infinity; but that would be impossible if this man's generation depended on this particular man, an elementary body, the sun, and so on to infinity.

Reply Obj. 8: Those who hold the eternity of the world evade this reason in many ways. For some do not think it impossible for there to be an actual infinity of souls, as appears from the Metaphysics of Algazel, who says that such a thing is an accidental infinity. But this was disproved above (Q. 7, A. 4). Some say that the soul is corrupted with the body. And some say that of all souls only one will remain. But others, as Augustine says [*Serm. xiv, De Temp. 4, 5; De Haeres., haeres. 46; De Civ. Dei xii. 13], asserted on this account a circuit of souls—viz. that souls separated from their bodies return again thither after a course of time; a fuller consideration of which matters will be given later (Q. 75, A. 2; Q. 118, A. 6). But be it noted that this argument considers only a particular case. Hence one might say that the world was eternal, or at least some creature, as an angel, but not man. But we are considering the question in general, as to whether any creature can exist from eternity. _______________________

Reply Obj. 8: Those who believe in the eternity of the world avoid this reasoning in various ways. Some think it’s not impossible for there to be an actual infinity of souls, as stated in the Metaphysics of Algazel, who claims that such a thing is an accidental infinity. However, this was disproved above (Q. 7, A. 4). Some argue that the soul is destroyed along with the body. Others claim that only one soul will endure. But there are those, as Augustine says [*Serm. xiv, De Temp. 4, 5; De Haeres., haeres. 46; De Civ. Dei xii. 13], who assert the idea of a cycle of souls—meaning that souls separated from their bodies return after a period of time; a more detailed discussion of this will be provided later (Q. 75, A. 2; Q. 118, A. 6). However, it's important to note that this argument only considers a specific case. Therefore, one could argue that the world was eternal, or at least that some creature, like an angel, is eternal, but not man. Yet, we are examining the question in general regarding whether any creature can exist from eternity.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 46, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 46, Art. 3]

Whether the Creation of Things Was in the Beginning of Time?

Whether the creation of things occurred at the beginning of time?

Objection 1: It would seem that the creation of things was not in the beginning of time. For whatever is not in time, is not of any part of time. But the creation of things was not in time; for by the creation the substance of things was brought into being; and time does not measure the substance of things, and especially of incorporeal things. Therefore creation was not in the beginning of time.

Objection 1: It seems that the creation of things didn't happen at the beginning of time. Whatever isn't part of time doesn't belong to any specific moment in time. But the creation of things wasn't in time; creation brought the substance of things into existence, and time doesn't measure the substance of things, especially incorporeal things. Therefore, creation wasn't at the beginning of time.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher proves (Phys. vi, text 40) that everything which is made, was being made; and so to be made implies a "before" and "after." But in the beginning of time, since it is indivisible, there is no "before" and "after." Therefore, since to be created is a kind of "being made," it appears that things were not created in the beginning of time.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Philosopher shows (Phys. vi, text 40) that everything that is made, was in the process of being made; so to be made suggests a "before" and "after." However, at the very beginning of time, since it is indivisible, there is no "before" and "after." Therefore, because being created is a form of "being made," it seems that things were not created at the start of time.

Obj. 3: Further, even time itself is created. But time cannot be created in the beginning of time, since time is divisible, and the beginning of time is indivisible. Therefore, the creation of things was not in the beginning of time.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, even time itself is created. However, time cannot be created at the very start of time, since time is something that can be divided, while the beginning of time is not divisible. Therefore, the creation of things did not occur at the beginning of time.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 1:1): "In the beginning God created heaven and earth."

On the contrary, it's written (Gen. 1:1): "In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth."

I answer that, The words of Genesis, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," are expounded in a threefold sense in order to exclude three errors. For some said that the world always was, and that time had no beginning; and to exclude this the words "In the beginning" are expounded—viz. "of time." And some said that there are two principles of creation, one of good things and the other of evil things, against which "In the beginning" is expounded—"in the Son." For as the efficient principle is appropriated to the Father by reason of power, so the exemplar principle is appropriated to the Son by reason of wisdom, in order that, as it is said (Ps. 103:24), "Thou hast made all things in wisdom," it may be understood that God made all things in the beginning—that is, in the Son; according to the word of the Apostle (Col. 1:16), "In Him"—viz. the Son—"were created all things." But others said that corporeal things were created by God through the medium of spiritual creation; and to exclude this it is expounded thus: "In the beginning"—i.e. before all things—"God created heaven and earth." For four things are stated to be created together—viz. the empyrean heaven, corporeal matter, by which is meant the earth, time, and the angelic nature.

I answer that, the words from Genesis, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," are interpreted in three ways to address three specific mistakes. Some claimed that the world has always existed and that time had no start; to counter this, "In the beginning" is interpreted as "of time." Others argued that there are two creation principles: one for good things and another for evil things. To refute this, "In the beginning" is interpreted as "in the Son." Just as the efficient principle is attributed to the Father for His power, the exemplar principle is attributed to the Son for His wisdom. This means, as stated in (Ps. 103:24), "You have made all things in wisdom," it should be understood that God created everything from the beginning—in the Son; in accordance with the Apostle's words (Col. 1:16), "In Him"—meaning the Son—"all things were created." However, others contended that physical things were created by God through the means of spiritual creation; to address this, it is interpreted as: "In the beginning"—that is, before everything—"God created heaven and earth." Four things are said to be created simultaneously—specifically, the empyrean heaven, physical matter (which means earth), time, and the angelic nature.

Reply Obj. 1: Things are said to be created in the beginning of time, not as if the beginning of time were a measure of creation, but because together with time heaven and earth were created.

Reply Obj. 1: Things are said to be created at the beginning of time, not because that beginning serves as a measure for creation, but because heaven and earth were created alongside time.

Reply Obj. 2: This saying of the Philosopher is understood "of being made" by means of movement, or as the term of movement. Because, since in every movement there is "before" and "after," before any one point in a given movement—that is, whilst anything is in the process of being moved and made, there is a "before" and also an "after," because what is in the beginning of movement or in its term is not in "being moved." But creation is neither movement nor the term of movement, as was said above (Q. 45, AA. 2, 3). Hence a thing is created in such a way that it was not being created before.

Reply Obj. 2: This statement from the Philosopher is understood as "being made" through movement, or as the endpoint of movement. Since every movement has a "before" and "after," before any particular point in a given movement—that is, while something is in the process of being moved and made—there is a "before" and also an "after," because what is at the beginning or the end of movement is not "being moved." However, creation is neither movement nor the endpoint of movement, as stated above (Q. 45, AA. 2, 3). Therefore, a thing is created in such a way that it was not being created before.

Reply Obj. 3: Nothing is made except as it exists. But nothing exists of time except "now." Hence time cannot be made except according to some "now"; not because in the first "now" is time, but because from it time begins. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Nothing is created unless it exists. But nothing exists in time except for "now." Therefore, time can only be created based on some "now"; not because time is in the first "now," but because time starts from it.

QUESTION 47

OF THE DISTINCTION OF THINGS IN GENERAL
(In Three Articles)

OF THE DISTINCTION OF THINGS IN GENERAL
(In Three Articles)

After considering the production of creatures, we come to the consideration of the distinction of things. This consideration will be threefold—first, of the distinction of things in general; secondly, of the distinction of good and evil; thirdly, of the distinction of the spiritual and corporeal creature.

After thinking about the creation of beings, we move on to examine the differences between things. This examination will be threefold—first, the distinction of things in general; second, the distinction between good and evil; and third, the distinction between spiritual and physical beings.

Under the first head, there are three points of inquiry:

Under the first topic, there are three questions to explore:

(1) The multitude or distinction of things.

(1) The variety or difference of things.

(2) Their inequality.

Their inequality.

(3) The unity of the world. _______________________

(3) The unity of the world. _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 47, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 47, Art. 1]

Whether the Multitude and Distinction of Things Come from God?

Whether the variety and distinction of things come from God?

Objection 1: It would seem that the multitude and distinction of things does not come from God. For one naturally always makes one. But God is supremely one, as appears from what precedes (Q. 11, A. 4). Therefore He produces but one effect.

Objection 1: It seems that the variety and differences among things do not come from God. For one naturally always creates one. But God is supremely one, as shown in what was said earlier (Q. 11, A. 4). Therefore, He generates only one effect.

Obj. 2: Further, the representation is assimilated to its exemplar. But God is the exemplar cause of His effect, as was said above (Q. 44, A. 3). Therefore, as God is one, His effect is one only, and not diverse.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the representation is similar to its example. However, God is the example cause of His effect, as mentioned earlier (Q. 44, A. 3). Therefore, since God is one, His effect is also one, and not diverse.

Obj. 3: Further, the means are proportional to the end. But the end of the creation is one—viz. the divine goodness, as was shown above (Q. 44, A. 4). Therefore the effect of God is but one.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the means are proportional to the goal. However, the purpose of creation is singular—namely, divine goodness, as previously stated (Q. 44, A. 4). Therefore, God's effect is only one.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 1:4, 7) that God "divided the light from the darkness," and "divided waters from waters." Therefore the distinction and multitude of things is from God.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 1:4, 7) that God "separated the light from the darkness," and "separated waters from waters." Therefore, the distinction and variety of things come from God.

I answer that, The distinction of things has been ascribed to many causes. For some attributed the distinction to matter, either by itself or with the agent. Democritus, for instance, and all the ancient natural philosophers, who admitted no cause but matter, attributed it to matter alone; and in their opinion the distinction of things comes from chance according to the movement of matter. Anaxagoras, however, attributed the distinction and multitude of things to matter and to the agent together; and he said that the intellect distinguishes things by extracting what is mixed up in matter.

I respond that, The differentiation of things has been linked to many reasons. Some people attributed this differentiation solely to matter, either on its own or in conjunction with the agent. Take Democritus and all the ancient natural philosophers, for example, who believed that nothing existed beyond matter; they credited it entirely to matter alone. In their view, the differentiation of things arises from random occurrences based on the movement of matter. On the other hand, Anaxagoras believed that the differentiation and variety of things resulted from both matter and the agent working together; he stated that the intellect distinguishes things by separating what is mixed within matter.

But this cannot stand, for two reasons. First, because, as was shown above (Q. 44, A. 2), even matter itself was created by God. Hence we must reduce whatever distinction comes from matter to a higher cause. Secondly, because matter is for the sake of the form, and not the form for the matter, and the distinction of things comes from their proper forms. Therefore the distinction of things is not on account of the matter; but rather, on the contrary, created matter is formless, in order that it may be accommodated to different forms.

But this can't be the case for two reasons. First, as shown earlier (Q. 44, A. 2), even matter itself was created by God. Therefore, we need to trace any distinctions that arise from matter back to a higher cause. Second, matter exists for the sake of form, not the other way around, and the distinction between things comes from their proper forms. So, the distinction of things isn't based on matter; instead, created matter is formless so it can take on different forms.

Others have attributed the distinction of things to secondary agents, as did Avicenna, who said that God by understanding Himself, produced the first intelligence; in which, forasmuch as it was not its own being, there is necessarily composition of potentiality and act, as will appear later (Q. 50, A. 3). And so the first intelligence, inasmuch as it understood the first cause, produced the second intelligence; and in so far as it understood itself as in potentiality it produced the heavenly body, which causes movement, and inasmuch as it understood itself as having actuality it produced the soul of the heavens.

Others have assigned the distinction of things to secondary agents, like Avicenna, who stated that God, by understanding Himself, created the first intelligence; in this case, since it was not its own being, there is necessarily a composition of potentiality and actuality, as will be explained later (Q. 50, A. 3). Therefore, the first intelligence, as it understood the first cause, produced the second intelligence; and in understanding itself as potential, it produced the heavenly body, which causes movement, and in understanding itself as actual, it produced the soul of the heavens.

But this opinion cannot stand, for two reasons. First, because it was shown above (Q. 45, A. 5) that to create belongs to God alone, and hence what can be caused only by creation is produced by God alone—viz. all those things which are not subject to generation and corruption. Secondly, because, according to this opinion, the universality of things would not proceed from the intention of the first agent, but from the concurrence of many active causes; and such an effect we can describe only as being produced by chance. Therefore, the perfection of the universe, which consists of the diversity of things, would thus be a thing of chance, which is impossible.

But this view cannot hold up for two reasons. First, as stated earlier (Q. 45, A. 5), creating is something that only God can do, so anything that can only be brought into existence through creation is made by God alone—specifically, all things that are not subject to generation and decay. Second, if this view were correct, the diversity of things would arise not from the intent of the primary cause, but from the interaction of many active causes; we could only describe such an outcome as happening by chance. Therefore, the perfection of the universe, which is defined by the variety of things, would then be a matter of chance, which is impossible.

Hence we must say that the distinction and multitude of things come from the intention of the first agent, who is God. For He brought things into being in order that His goodness might be communicated to creatures, and be represented by them; and because His goodness could not be adequately represented by one creature alone, He produced many and diverse creatures, that what was wanting to one in the representation of the divine goodness might be supplied by another. For goodness, which in God is simple and uniform, in creatures is manifold and divided and hence the whole universe together participates the divine goodness more perfectly, and represents it better than any single creature whatever.

So we must say that the variety and multitude of things come from the intention of the first cause, who is God. He created everything so that His goodness could be shared with His creations and reflected through them; since no single creature could fully represent His goodness, He made many different creatures, so that what one lacked in representing divine goodness could be made up for by another. Goodness, which is simple and unchanging in God, is diverse and varied in creatures, and therefore the entire universe together reflects divine goodness more perfectly and represents it better than any individual creature could.

And because the divine wisdom is the cause of the distinction of things, therefore Moses said that things are made distinct by the word of God, which is the concept of His wisdom; and this is what we read in Gen. 1:3, 4: "God said: Be light made . . . And He divided the light from the darkness."

And since divine wisdom is what makes things different, Moses said that things are set apart by the word of God, which reflects His wisdom; and this is what we read in Gen. 1:3, 4: "God said: Let there be light . . . And He separated the light from the darkness."

Reply Obj. 1: The natural agent acts by the form which makes it what it is, and which is only one in one thing; and therefore its effect is one only. But the voluntary agent, such as God is, as was shown above (Q. 19, A. 4), acts by an intellectual form. Since, therefore, it is not against God's unity and simplicity to understand many things, as was shown above (Q. 15, A. 2), it follows that, although He is one, He can make many things.

Reply Obj. 1: A natural agent operates through the specific form that defines it, and that form is singular for each entity; therefore, its effect is also singular. However, a voluntary agent, like God, acts through an intellectual form. Since it’s not contradictory to God's unity and simplicity to understand multiple concepts, as noted earlier (Q. 15, A. 2), it follows that although He is one, He can create many things.

Reply Obj. 2: This reason would apply to the representation which reflects the exemplar perfectly, and which is multiplied by reason of matter only; hence the uncreated image, which is perfect, is only one. But no creature represents the first exemplar perfectly, which is the divine essence; and, therefore, it can be represented by many things. Still, according as ideas are called exemplars, the plurality of ideas corresponds in the divine mind to the plurality of things.

Reply Obj. 2: This reason would apply to the representation that perfectly reflects the ideal, which is multiplied only because of matter; therefore, the uncreated image, which is perfect, is just one. However, no creature represents the first ideal perfectly, which is the divine essence; so, it can be represented by many things. Still, as ideas are referred to as ideals, the multiple ideas correspond in the divine mind to the multiple things.

Reply Obj. 3: In speculative things the medium of demonstration, which demonstrates the conclusion perfectly, is one only; whereas probable means of proof are many. Likewise when operation is concerned, if the means be equal, so to speak, to the end, one only is sufficient. But the creature is not such a means to its end, which is God; and hence the multiplication of creatures is necessary. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: When it comes to speculative matters, there is only one perfect way to demonstrate the conclusion, while there are many possible ways to prove something with probability. Similarly, in practical matters, if the means are directly equal to the end, one method is enough. However, the creature is not a direct means to its ultimate end, which is God; therefore, the existence of multiple creatures is necessary.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 47, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 47, Art. 2]

Whether the Inequality of Things Is from God?

Whether the Inequality of Things Comes from God?

Objection 1: It would seem that the inequality of things is not from God. For it belongs to the best to produce the best. But among things that are best, one is not greater than another. Therefore, it belongs to God, Who is the Best, to make all things equal.

Objection 1: It seems that the inequality of things doesn't come from God. The best being produces what is best. But among the best things, one isn't greater than another. Therefore, it should be God, who is the Best, who makes all things equal.

Obj. 2: Further, equality is the effect of unity (Metaph. v, text 20). But God is one. Therefore, He has made all things equal.

Obj. 2: Also, equality is a result of unity (Metaph. v, text 20). But God is one. Therefore, He has made everything equal.

Obj. 3: Further, it is the part of justice to give unequal to unequal things. But God is just in all His works. Since, therefore, no inequality of things is presupposed to the operation whereby He gives being to things, it seems that He has made all things equal.

Obj. 3: Also, it's part of justice to give unequal amounts to unequal things. But God is fair in everything He does. Since there’s no inequality among things when He creates them, it seems like He has made everything equal.

On the contrary, It is said (Ecclus. 33:7): "Why does one day excel another, and one light another, and one year another year, one sun another sun? [Vulg.: 'when all come of the sun']. By the knowledge of the Lord they were distinguished."

On the contrary, It is said (Ecclus. 33:7): "Why does one day stand out from another, one light from another, and one year from another year, one sun from another sun? [Vulg.: 'when all come of the sun']. By the knowledge of the Lord, they were distinguished."

I answer that, When Origen wished to refute those who said that the distinction of things arose from the contrary principles of good and evil, he said that in the beginning all things were created equal by God. For he asserted that God first created only the rational creatures and all equal; and that inequality arose in them from free-will, some being turned to God more and some less, and others turned more and others less away from God. And so those rational creatures which were turned to God by free-will, were promoted to the order of angels according to the diversity of merits. And those who were turned away from God were bound down to bodies according to the diversity of their sin; and he said this was the cause of the creation and diversity of bodies. But according to this opinion, it would follow that the universality of bodily creatures would not be the effect of the goodness of God as communicated to creatures, but it would be for the sake of the punishment of sin, which is contrary to what is said: "God saw all the things that He had made, and they were very good" (Gen. 1:31). And, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei ii, 3): "What can be more foolish than to say that the divine Architect provided this one sun for the one world, not to be an ornament to its beauty, nor for the benefit of corporeal things, but that it happened through the sin of one soul; so that, if a hundred souls had sinned, there would be a hundred suns in the world?"

I answer that, When Origen wanted to counter those who claimed that the distinction of things came from the opposing forces of good and evil, he stated that in the beginning, God created everything equal. He argued that God initially created only rational beings, all on equal footing; any inequality among them arose from free will, with some drawn closer to God and others more distant. Thus, those rational beings who chose to turn to God through their own free will were elevated to the rank of angels based on their various merits. Conversely, those who turned away from God became bound to physical bodies according to the different degrees of their sins; he argued that this was the reason for the creation and diversity of bodies. However, following this viewpoint, it would imply that the existence of all physical creatures would not be a result of God's goodness extended to creation, but rather for the punishment of sin, which contradicts the statement: "God saw all the things that He had made, and they were very good" (Gen. 1:31). Moreover, as Augustine points out (De Civ. Dei ii, 3): "What could be more foolish than to say that the divine Architect created just one sun for the one world, not as an enhancement of its beauty or for the benefit of physical things, but because of the sin of one soul; implying that if a hundred souls had sinned, there would be a hundred suns in the world?"

Therefore it must be said that as the wisdom of God is the cause of the distinction of things, so the same wisdom is the cause of their inequality. This may be explained as follows. A twofold distinction is found in things; one is a formal distinction as regards things differing specifically; the other is a material distinction as regards things differing numerically only. And as the matter is on account of the form, material distinction exists for the sake of the formal distinction. Hence we see that in incorruptible things there is only one individual of each species, forasmuch as the species is sufficiently preserved in the one; whereas in things generated and corruptible there are many individuals of one species for the preservation of the species. Whence it appears that formal distinction is of greater consequence than material. Now, formal distinction always requires inequality, because as the Philosopher says (Metaph. viii, 10), the forms of things are like numbers in which species vary by addition or subtraction of unity. Hence in natural things species seem to be arranged in degrees; as the mixed things are more perfect than the elements, and plants than minerals, and animals than plants, and men than other animals; and in each of these one species is more perfect than others. Therefore, as the divine wisdom is the cause of the distinction of things for the sake of the perfection of the universe, so it is the cause of inequality. For the universe would not be perfect if only one grade of goodness were found in things.

Therefore, it must be said that just as God's wisdom is the reason for the distinction of things, this same wisdom is the reason for their inequality. This can be explained as follows. There are two types of distinction found in things: one is a formal distinction related to things that are specifically different, and the other is a material distinction related to things that differ only in number. Since material distinction exists because of form, it is there for the purpose of formal distinction. Thus, we see that in incorruptible things, there is only one individual of each species, since the species is sufficiently preserved in that one. In contrast, in generated and corruptible things, there are many individuals of one species to preserve the species. This shows that formal distinction is more significant than material distinction. Formal distinction always involves inequality because, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. viii, 10), the forms of things are like numbers where different species arise from adding or subtracting one. Therefore, in nature, species seem to be arranged in levels, such as mixed things being more perfect than elements, plants being more perfect than minerals, animals being more perfect than plants, and humans being more perfect than other animals; within each of these, one species is more perfect than others. Thus, just as divine wisdom leads to the distinction of things for the sake of the universe's perfection, it also leads to inequality. The universe would not be perfect if there was only one level of goodness among things.

Reply Obj. 1: It is part of the best agent to produce an effect which is best in its entirety; but this does not mean that He makes every part of the whole the best absolutely, but in proportion to the whole; in the case of an animal, for instance, its goodness would be taken away if every part of it had the dignity of an eye. Thus, therefore, God also made the universe to be best as a whole, according to the mode of a creature; whereas He did not make each single creature best, but one better than another. And therefore we find it said of each creature, "God saw the light that it was good" (Gen. 1:4); and in like manner of each one of the rest. But of all together it is said, "God saw all the things that He had made, and they were very good" (Gen. 1:31).

Reply Obj. 1: It's a characteristic of the best agent to create an effect that is best as a whole; however, this doesn’t mean that He makes every part of the whole the best in an absolute sense, but rather in relation to the whole. For example, if every part of an animal had the excellence of an eye, that would diminish its overall goodness. Similarly, God created the universe to be the best as a whole, according to the nature of creatures; He didn't make each individual creature the best, but some are better than others. That's why we see it stated about each creature, "God saw the light that it was good" (Gen. 1:4); and the same is said about each of the others. But of everything together, it is said, "God saw all the things that He had made, and they were very good" (Gen. 1:31).

Reply Obj. 2: The first effect of unity is equality; and then comes multiplicity; and therefore from the Father, to Whom, according to Augustine (De Doctr. Christ. i, 5), is appropriated unity, the Son proceeds to Whom is appropriated equality, and then from Him the creature proceeds, to which belongs inequality; but nevertheless even creatures share in a certain equality—namely, of proportion.

Reply Obj. 2: The first outcome of unity is equality; next comes variety; and so, from the Father, to whom Augustine (De Doctr. Christ. i, 5) attributes unity, the Son comes forth, to whom equality is attributed, and then from Him the creature originates, which is associated with inequality; however, even creatures experience a certain form of equality—specifically, in proportion.

Reply Obj. 3: This is the argument that persuaded Origen: but it holds only as regards the distribution of rewards, the inequality of which is due to unequal merits. But in the constitution of things there is no inequality of parts through any preceding inequality, either of merits or of the disposition of the matter; but inequality comes from the perfection of the whole. This appears also in works done by art; for the roof of a house differs from the foundation, not because it is made of other material; but in order that the house may be made perfect of different parts, the artificer seeks different material; indeed, he would make such material if he could. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: This is the argument that convinced Origen: but it only applies to the distribution of rewards, which is unequal due to differing merits. However, in the structure of things, there isn't any inequality of parts from prior inequalities, whether in merits or the arrangement of the matter; instead, inequality arises from the overall perfection. This is also evident in creations of art; the roof of a house is different from the foundation, not because it's made of different materials, but so that the house can be complete with various parts, the creator seeks different materials; in fact, he would create such materials if he could.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 47, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 47, Art. 3]

Whether There Is Only One World?

Whether There Is Only One World?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is not only one world, but many. Because, as Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 46), it is unfitting to say that God has created things without a reason. But for the same reason He created one, He could create many, since His power is not limited to the creation of one world; but rather it is infinite, as was shown above (Q. 25, A. 2). Therefore God has produced many worlds.

Objection 1: It seems that there is not just one world, but many. As Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 46), it's unreasonable to claim that God created things without a purpose. Using the same reasoning, since He created one world, He could also create many, as His power isn't limited to making just one world; it's actually infinite, as shown earlier (Q. 25, A. 2). Therefore, God has created many worlds.

Obj. 2: Further, nature does what is best and much more does God. But it is better for there to be many worlds than one, because many good things are better than a few. Therefore many worlds have been made by God.

Obj. 2: Moreover, nature does what is best, and God does even more. But it's better for there to be many worlds than just one, because having many good things is better than having just a few. Therefore, God has created many worlds.

Obj. 3: Further, everything which has a form in matter can be multiplied in number, the species remaining the same, because multiplication in number comes from matter. But the world has a form in matter. Thus as when I say "man" I mean the form, and when I say "this man," I mean the form in matter; so when we say "world," the form is signified, and when we say "this world," the form in the matter is signified. Therefore there is nothing to prevent the existence of many worlds.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, anything that has a physical form can be multiplied in number while keeping the same type, since the increase in number comes from its physical matter. The world has a physical form. So, when I say "man," I refer to the form, and when I say "this man," I mean the form in physical matter; similarly, when we say "world," we signify the form, and when we say "this world," we refer to the form in physical matter. Therefore, there’s nothing stopping many worlds from existing.

On the contrary, It is said (John 1:10): "The world was made by Him," where the world is named as one, as if only one existed.

On the contrary, It is said (John 1:10): "The world was made by Him," where the world is referred to as one, as if only one exists.

I answer that, The very order of things created by God shows the unity of the world. For this world is called one by the unity of order, whereby some things are ordered to others. But whatever things come from God, have relation of order to each other, and to God Himself, as shown above (Q. 11, A. 3; Q. 21, A. 1). Hence it must be that all things should belong to one world. Therefore those only can assert that many worlds exist who do not acknowledge any ordaining wisdom, but rather believe in chance, as Democritus, who said that this world, besides an infinite number of other worlds, was made from a casual concourse of atoms.

I respond that the very structure of creation by God demonstrates the unity of the world. This world is considered one due to the unity of order, where some things relate to others. Everything that comes from God is interconnected in an ordered way with each other and with God Himself, as previously mentioned (Q. 11, A. 3; Q. 21, A. 1). Therefore, it follows that all things must belong to a single world. Only those who reject any wise order and instead believe in randomness, like Democritus, who claimed that this world, along with countless other worlds, was formed from a random combination of atoms, can argue that multiple worlds exist.

Reply Obj. 1: This reason proves that the world is one because all things must be arranged in one order, and to one end. Therefore from the unity of order in things Aristotle infers (Metaph. xii, text 52) the unity of God governing all; and Plato (Tim.), from the unity of the exemplar, proves the unity of the world, as the thing designed.

Reply Obj. 1: This reason shows that the world is one because everything must be organized in a single way, and for a single purpose. Therefore, based on the unity of order in things, Aristotle concludes (Metaph. xii, text 52) the existence of one God who governs all; and Plato (Tim.) argues for the unity of the world from the singularity of the model, as the intended creation.

Reply Obj. 2: No agent intends material plurality as the end forasmuch as material multitude has no certain limit, but of itself tends to infinity, and the infinite is opposed to the notion of end. Now when it is said that many worlds are better than one, this has reference to material order. But the best in this sense is not the intention of the divine agent; forasmuch as for the same reason it might be said that if He had made two worlds, it would be better if He had made three; and so on to infinite.

Reply Obj. 2: No one aims for a material multitude as their ultimate goal because material variety has no definite limit; it naturally tends towards infinity, and infinity contradicts the idea of an end. When it is said that having many worlds is better than having one, this refers to the material order. However, the best in this context is not what the divine agent intends; for the same reason, it could be claimed that if He had created two worlds, it would be better if He had created three, and so on infinitely.

Reply Obj. 3: The world is composed of the whole of its matter. For it is not possible for there to be another earth than this one, since every earth would naturally be carried to this central one, wherever it was. The same applies to the other bodies which are part of the world. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The world is made up of all its matter. It's impossible for there to be another Earth besides this one, because any other Earth would naturally be drawn to this central one, no matter where it was. The same goes for the other bodies that are part of the world.

QUESTION 48

THE DISTINCTION OF THINGS IN PARTICULAR
(In Six Articles)

THE DISTINCTION OF THINGS IN PARTICULAR
(In Six Articles)

We must now consider the distinction of things in particular; and firstly the distinction of good and evil; and then the distinction of the spiritual and corporeal creatures.

We must now look at the specific differences between things; first, the difference between good and evil, and then the difference between spiritual and physical beings.

Concerning the first, we inquire into evil and its cause.

Concerning the first, we look into evil and what causes it.

Concerning evil, six points are to be considered:

Concerning evil, six points should be taken into account:

(1) Whether evil is a nature?

(1) Is evil something that is inherent?

(2) Whether evil is found in things?

(2) Is evil present in things?

(3) Whether good is the subject of evil?

(3) Is good the subject of evil?

(4) Whether evil totally corrupts good?

(4) Does evil completely corrupt good?

(5) The division of evil into pain and fault.

(5) The separation of evil into suffering and wrongdoing.

(6) Whether pain, or fault, has more the nature of evil? _______________________

(6) Is pain or wrongdoing more inherently evil? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 48, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 48, Art. 1]

Whether Evil Is a Nature?

Is Evil a Nature?

Objection 1: It would seem that evil is a nature. For every genus is a nature. But evil is a genus; for the Philosopher says (Praedic. x) that "good and evil are not in a genus, but are genera of other things." Therefore evil is a nature.

Objection 1: It seems that evil is a nature. Every genus is a nature. But evil is a genus; the Philosopher states (Praedic. x) that "good and evil are not in a genus, but are genera of other things." Therefore, evil is a nature.

Obj. 2: Further, every difference which constitutes a species is a nature. But evil is a difference constituting a species of morality; for a bad habit differs in species from a good habit, as liberality from illiberality. Therefore evil signifies a nature.

Obj. 2: Additionally, every difference that defines a species is a nature. However, evil is a difference that defines a morality species; because a bad habit differs in kind from a good habit, just as generosity differs from stinginess. Therefore, evil represents a nature.

Obj. 3: Further, each extreme of two contraries is a nature. But evil and good are not opposed as privation and habit, but as contraries, as the Philosopher shows (Praedic. x) by the fact that between good and evil there is a medium, and from evil there can be a return to good. Therefore evil signifies a nature.

Obj. 3: Moreover, each extreme of two opposites is a nature. However, evil and good are not opposed in the way that lack and possession are, but as opposites, as the Philosopher points out (Praedic. x) by showing that there is a middle ground between good and evil, and that it's possible to move from evil back to good. Therefore, evil represents a nature.

Obj. 4: Further, what is not, acts not. But evil acts, for it corrupts good. Therefore evil is a being and a nature.

Obj. 4: Also, what does not exist cannot act. But evil does act, because it corrupts good. Therefore, evil is a being and a nature.

Obj. 5: Further, nothing belongs to the perfection of the universe except what is a being and a nature. But evil belongs to the perfection of the universe of things; for Augustine says (Enchir. 10, 11) that the "admirable beauty of the universe is made up of all things. In which even what is called evil, well ordered and in its place, is the eminent commendation of what is good." Therefore evil is a nature.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, nothing contributes to the completeness of the universe except what has existence and essence. However, evil is part of the completeness of the universe. Augustine states (Enchir. 10, 11) that the "remarkable beauty of the universe consists of all things. Even what we refer to as evil, when properly ordered and in its rightful place, highlights the excellence of what is good." Therefore, evil is an essence.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv), "Evil is neither a being nor a good."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv), "Evil is not a being or a good."

I answer that, One opposite is known through the other, as darkness is known through light. Hence also what evil is must be known from the nature of good. Now, we have said above that good is everything appetible; and thus, since every nature desires its own being and its own perfection, it must be said also that the being and the perfection of any nature is good. Hence it cannot be that evil signifies being, or any form or nature. Therefore it must be that by the name of evil is signified the absence of good. And this is what is meant by saying that "evil is neither a being nor a good." For since being, as such, is good, the absence of one implies the absence of the other.

I answer that, One opposite is understood through the other, just like we recognize darkness by the presence of light. So, to understand what evil is, we must look at the nature of good. We’ve previously stated that good is everything desirable; therefore, since every nature seeks its own existence and perfection, it follows that the existence and perfection of any nature is good. Thus, it cannot be that evil represents being or any form or nature. Therefore, evil must signify the absence of good. This is what is meant by saying that "evil is neither a being nor good." Because being, in its essence, is good, the absence of one means the absence of the other.

Reply Obj. 1: Aristotle speaks there according to the opinion of Pythagoreans, who thought that evil was a kind of nature; and therefore they asserted the existence of the genus of good and evil. For Aristotle, especially in his logical works, brings forward examples that in his time were probable in the opinion of some philosophers. Or, it may be said that, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. iv, text 6), "the first kind of contrariety is habit and privation," as being verified in all contraries; since one contrary is always imperfect in relation to another, as black in relation to white, and bitter in relation to sweet. And in this way good and evil are said to be genera not simply, but in regard to contraries; because, as every form has the nature of good, so every privation, as such, has the nature of evil.

Reply Obj. 1: Aristotle refers to the beliefs of the Pythagoreans, who thought that evil was a type of nature; thus, they claimed that both good and evil exist as categories. In his logical works, Aristotle presents examples that were considered likely by some philosophers in his time. Additionally, as the Philosopher states (Metaph. iv, text 6), "the first kind of contrariety is habit and privation," which is true for all opposites; one opposite is always deficient compared to the other, like black versus white, and bitter versus sweet. In this sense, good and evil are considered categories not merely on their own, but in relation to their opposites; because, just as every form embodies the essence of good, every absence, in itself, embodies the essence of evil.

Reply Obj. 2: Good and evil are not constitutive differences except in morals, which receive their species from the end, which is the object of the will, the source of all morality. And because good has the nature of an end, therefore good and evil are specific differences in moral things; good in itself, but evil as the absence of the due end. Yet neither does the absence of the due end by itself constitute a moral species, except as it is joined to the undue end; just as we do not find the privation of the substantial form in natural things, unless it is joined to another form. Thus, therefore, the evil which is a constitutive difference in morals is a certain good joined to the privation of another good; as the end proposed by the intemperate man is not the privation of the good of reason, but the delight of sense without the order of reason. Hence evil is not a constitutive difference as such, but by reason of the good that is annexed.

Reply Obj. 2: Good and evil aren’t fundamental differences except in morality, which gets its nature from the end, which is what the will aims for and the source of all morality. Since good has the nature of an end, good and evil become specific differences in moral matters; good in itself, but evil as the lack of the proper end. However, simply lacking the proper end does not create a moral category on its own, unless it is linked to the improper end; similar to how we don’t find the absence of the essential form in natural things unless it’s associated with another form. Therefore, the evil that is a key difference in morality is a kind of good connected to the lack of another good; for example, the end sought by the intemperate person is not the lack of reason’s good, but rather the pleasure of the senses without the guidance of reason. Thus, evil is not a fundamental difference by itself, but because of the good that is attached.

Reply Obj. 3: This appears from the above. For the Philosopher speaks there of good and evil in morality. Because in that respect, between good and evil there is a medium, as good is considered as something rightly ordered, and evil as a thing not only out of right order, but also as injurious to another. Hence the Philosopher says (Ethic. iv, i) that a "prodigal man is foolish, but not evil." And from this evil in morality, there may be a return to good, but not from any sort of evil, for from blindness there is no return to sight, although blindness is an evil.

Reply Obj. 3: This is evident from the above. The Philosopher discusses good and evil in terms of morality. In this context, there is a middle ground between good and evil; good is seen as something rightly ordered, while evil is not only disordered but also harmful to others. Therefore, the Philosopher states (Ethic. iv, i) that a "prodigal person is foolish, but not evil." From this moral evil, one can return to good, but not from any type of evil, because from blindness, there is no return to sight, even though blindness is considered an evil.

Reply Obj. 4: A thing is said to act in a threefold sense. In one way, formally, as when we say that whiteness makes white; and in that sense evil considered even as a privation is said to corrupt good, forasmuch as it is itself a corruption or privation of good. In another sense a thing is said to act effectively, as when a painter makes a wall white. Thirdly, it is said in the sense of the final cause, as the end is said to effect by moving the efficient cause. But in these two ways evil does not effect anything of itself, that is, as a privation, but by virtue of the good annexed to it. For every action comes from some form; and everything which is desired as an end, is a perfection. And therefore, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv): "Evil does not act, nor is it desired, except by virtue of some good joined to it: while of itself it is nothing definite, and beside the scope of our will and intention."

Reply Obj. 4: A thing is said to act in three ways. First, formally, as when we say that whiteness makes something white; in this sense, evil, even as a lack of something, is said to corrupt good because it is a corruption or lack of good. Second, a thing acts effectively, like when a painter paints a wall white. Third, it acts in terms of the final cause, where the end influences the effective cause. However, in these two ways, evil does not produce anything on its own, that is, as a lack, but through the good associated with it. Every action stems from some form; everything desired as an end is a perfection. Thus, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv): "Evil does not act, nor is it desired, except by virtue of some good linked to it: on its own, it is not specific and is beyond our will and intention."

Reply Obj. 5: As was said above, the parts of the universe are ordered to each other, according as one acts on the other, and according as one is the end and exemplar of the other. But, as was said above, this can only happen to evil as joined to some good. Hence evil neither belongs to the perfection of the universe, nor does it come under the order of the same, except accidentally, that is, by reason of some good joined to it. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: As mentioned earlier, the parts of the universe are connected in a way that one influences the other, with one serving as the purpose and model for the other. However, this only happens with evil when it is linked to some good. Therefore, evil does not contribute to the perfection of the universe, nor is it part of the order of the universe, except in an accidental way, meaning, due to some good associated with it.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 48, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 48, Art. 2]

Whether Evil Is Found in Things?

Whether Evil Is Found in Things?

Objection 1: It would seem that evil is not found in things. For whatever is found in things, is either something, or a privation of something, that is a "not-being." But Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "evil is distant from existence, and even more distant from non-existence." Therefore evil is not at all found in things.

Objection 1: It seems that evil doesn’t exist in things. Whatever is found in things is either something, or a lack of something, which is a "not-being." But Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv) that "evil is far from existence, and even further from non-existence." Therefore, evil is not present in things at all.

Obj. 2: Further, "being" and "thing" are convertible. If therefore evil is a being in things, it follows that evil is a thing, which is contrary to what has been said (A. 1).

Obj. 2: Furthermore, "being" and "thing" are interchangeable. Therefore, if evil exists as a being in things, it follows that evil is a thing, which goes against what has been stated (A. 1).

Obj. 3: Further, "the white unmixed with black is the most white," as the Philosopher says (Topic. iii, 4). Therefore also the good unmixed with evil is the greater good. But God makes always what is best, much more than nature does. Therefore in things made by God there is no evil.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, "the pure white that isn't mixed with black is the purest white," as the Philosopher states (Topic. iii, 4). Similarly, the good that isn't mixed with evil is the greater good. But God always creates what is best, much more so than nature does. Therefore, in things created by God, there is no evil.

On the contrary, On the above assumptions, all prohibitions and penalties would cease, for they exist only for evils.

On the contrary, Based on the assumptions above, all prohibitions and penalties would come to an end, since they exist solely to address wrongdoings.

I answer that, As was said above (Q. 47, AA. 1, 2), the perfection of the universe requires that there should be inequality in things, so that every grade of goodness may be realized. Now, one grade of goodness is that of the good which cannot fail. Another grade of goodness is that of the good which can fail in goodness, and this grade is to be found in existence itself; for some things there are which cannot lose their existence as incorruptible things, while some there are which can lose it, as things corruptible.

I respond that, as mentioned earlier (Q. 47, AA. 1, 2), the completeness of the universe requires that there be inequality among things, allowing for every level of goodness to be realized. One level of goodness is that which is unchanging. Another level of goodness is that which can change and potentially fail, and this level is found in existence itself; for some things exist in a way that they cannot lose their existence, like incorruptible things, while others can lose it, like corruptible things.

As, therefore, the perfection of the universe requires that there should be not only beings incorruptible, but also corruptible beings; so the perfection of the universe requires that there should be some which can fail in goodness, and thence it follows that sometimes they do fail. Now it is in this that evil consists, namely, in the fact that a thing fails in goodness. Hence it is clear that evil is found in things, as corruption also is found; for corruption is itself an evil.

As a result, the perfection of the universe demands the existence of not only unchanging beings but also beings that can change; therefore, the universe's perfection requires that some beings can fall short of goodness, and that leads to the fact that they sometimes do. This failure in goodness is what we define as evil. Thus, it is evident that evil exists in things, just as corruption does; after all, corruption itself is an evil.

Reply Obj. 1: Evil is distant both from simple being and from simple "not-being," because it is neither a habit nor a pure negation, but a privation.

Reply Obj. 1: Evil is separate from simple existence and from simple "non-existence," because it is neither a quality nor a complete absence, but rather a lack.

Reply Obj. 2: As the Philosopher says (Metaph. v, text 14), being is twofold. In one way it is considered as signifying the entity of a thing, as divisible by the ten "predicaments"; and in that sense it is convertible with thing, and thus no privation is a being, and neither therefore is evil a being. In another sense being conveys the truth of a proposition which unites together subject and attribute by a copula, notified by this word "is"; and in this sense being is what answers to the question, "Does it exist?" and thus we speak of blindness as being in the eye; or of any other privation. In this way even evil can be called a being. Through ignorance of this distinction some, considering that things may be evil, or that evil is said to be in things, believed that evil was a positive thing in itself.

Reply Obj. 2: As the Philosopher states (Metaph. v, text 14), being has two meanings. On one hand, it refers to the essence of a thing, as defined by the ten "predicaments"; in this context, it is interchangeable with "thing," meaning that no lack can be considered a being, and therefore, evil cannot be a being either. On the other hand, being also refers to the truth of a statement that connects a subject and an attribute with a copula, indicated by the word "is"; in this case, being answers the question, "Does it exist?" and we can talk about blindness as being present in the eye, or about any other lack. In this sense, even evil can be called a being. Due to a misunderstanding of this distinction, some people, thinking that things can be evil or that evil exists in things, believed that evil itself was something positive.

Reply Obj. 3: God and nature and any other agent make what is best in the whole, but not what is best in every single part, except in order to the whole, as was said above (Q. 47, A. 2). And the whole itself, which is the universe of creatures, is all the better and more perfect if some things in it can fail in goodness, and do sometimes fail, God not preventing this. This happens, firstly, because "it belongs to Providence not to destroy, but to save nature," as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv); but it belongs to nature that what may fail should sometimes fail; secondly, because, as Augustine says (Enchir. 11), "God is so powerful that He can even make good out of evil." Hence many good things would be taken away if God permitted no evil to exist; for fire would not be generated if air was not corrupted, nor would the life of a lion be preserved unless the ass were killed. Neither would avenging justice nor the patience of a sufferer be praised if there were no injustice. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: God, nature, and any other agents create what is best for the whole, but not necessarily what is best for each individual part, unless it serves the whole, as mentioned earlier (Q. 47, A. 2). The whole itself, which is the universe of creatures, is enhanced and made more perfect even if some things within it can lack goodness, and they do sometimes fall short, with God allowing this. This occurs, first, because "it is the role of Providence not to destroy but to preserve nature," as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv); and it's inherent in nature that what can fail may sometimes do so. Second, as Augustine notes (Enchir. 11), "God is so powerful that He can bring good out of evil." Thus, many good things would be lost if God allowed no evil to exist; for instance, fire wouldn't be produced if air wasn't corrupted, nor would a lion's life be sustained unless a donkey was killed. Likewise, there wouldn't be praise for avenging justice or the patience of a sufferer if there were no injustice.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 48, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 48, Art. 3]

Whether Evil Is in Good As in Its Subject?

Whether Evil Is in Good As in Its Subject?

Objection 1: It would seem that evil is not in good as its subject.
For good is something that exists. But Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv,
4) that "evil does not exist, nor is it in that which exists."
Therefore, evil is not in good as its subject.

Objection 1: It seems that evil is not in good as its subject.
Good is something that exists. But Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv,
4) that "evil does not exist, nor is it in that which exists."
Therefore, evil is not in good as its subject.

Obj. 2: Further, evil is not a being; whereas good is a being. But "non-being" does not require being as its subject. Therefore, neither does evil require good as its subject.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, evil is not a being; whereas good is a being. But "non-being" does not need being as its subject. Therefore, neither does evil need good as its subject.

Obj. 3: Further, one contrary is not the subject of another. But good and evil are contraries. Therefore, evil is not in good as in its subject.

Obj. 3: Additionally, one opposite cannot be the subject of another. But good and evil are opposites. Therefore, evil is not included in good as its subject.

Obj. 4: Further, the subject of whiteness is called white. Therefore also the subject of evil is evil. If, therefore, evil is in good as in its subject, it follows that good is evil, against what is said (Isa. 5:20): "Woe to you who call evil good, and good evil!"

Obj. 4: Additionally, when we refer to the subject of whiteness, we call it white. Similarly, the subject of evil is called evil. If evil exists within good as its subject, it logically follows that good becomes evil, which contradicts what is stated (Isa. 5:20): "Woe to you who call evil good, and good evil!"

On the contrary, Augustine says (Enchiridion 14) that "evil exists only in good."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Enchiridion 14) that "evil exists only in good."

I answer that, As was said above (A. 1), evil imports the absence of good. But not every absence of good is evil. For absence of good can be taken in a privative and in a negative sense. Absence of good, taken negatively, is not evil; otherwise, it would follow that what does not exist is evil, and also that everything would be evil, through not having the good belonging to something else; for instance, a man would be evil who had not the swiftness of the roe, or the strength of a lion. But the absence of good, taken in a privative sense, is an evil; as, for instance, the privation of sight is called blindness.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (A. 1), evil signifies the lack of good. However, not every lack of good is considered evil. The absence of good can be viewed in two ways: as a privation or in a negative sense. When considered negatively, the absence of good is not evil; otherwise, it would mean that non-existence is evil, and everything would be evil simply for lacking the good associated with something else. For example, a man would be considered evil for not possessing the speed of a deer or the strength of a lion. But when the absence of good is viewed as a privation, it is indeed evil; for instance, the lack of sight is referred to as blindness.

Now, the subject of privation and of form is one and the same—viz. being in potentiality, whether it be being in absolute potentiality, as primary matter, which is the subject of the substantial form, and of privation of the opposite form; or whether it be being in relative potentiality, and absolute actuality, as in the case of a transparent body, which is the subject both of darkness and light. It is, however, manifest that the form which makes a thing actual is a perfection and a good; and thus every actual being is a good; and likewise every potential being, as such, is a good, as having a relation to good. For as it has being in potentiality, so has it goodness in potentiality. Therefore, the subject of evil is good.

Now, the topic of lack and form is fundamentally the same—namely, being in potential. This can refer to absolute potentiality, like primary matter, which is the subject of the substantial form and the lack of the opposite form; or it can refer to relative potentiality and absolute actuality, as seen in a transparent body that can exhibit both darkness and light. However, it’s clear that the form that makes something actual represents a perfection and a good; thus, every actual being is considered good. Similarly, every potential being, in itself, is good because it is related to goodness. Just as it has being in potentiality, it also possesses goodness in potentiality. Therefore, the subject of evil is good.

Reply Obj. 1: Dionysius means that evil is not in existing things as a part, or as a natural property of any existing thing.

Reply Obj. 1: Dionysius means that evil is not a component or a natural characteristic of anything that exists.

Reply Obj. 2: "Not-being," understood negatively, does not require a subject; but privation is negation in a subject, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. iv, text 4), and such "not-being" is an evil.

Reply Obj. 2: "Not-being," understood negatively, doesn’t need a subject; but privation is negation within a subject, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. iv, text 4), and such "not-being" is a form of evil.

Reply Obj. 3: Evil is not in the good opposed to it as in its subject, but in some other good, for the subject of blindness is not "sight," but "animal." Yet, it appears, as Augustine says (Enchiridion 13), that the rule of dialectics here fails, where it is laid down that contraries cannot exist together. But this is to be taken as referring to good and evil in general, but not in reference to any particular good and evil. For white and black, sweet and bitter, and the like contraries, are only considered as contraries in a special sense, because they exist in some determinate genus; whereas good enters into every genus. Hence one good can coexist with the privation of another good.

Reply Obj. 3: Evil doesn’t exist in the good that opposes it; it exists in another kind of good. For instance, the subject of blindness is not "sight," but "animal." However, as Augustine points out (Enchiridion 13), the usual rule of dialectics fails here, since it states that opposites can't coexist. This rule should be understood as applying to good and evil in a general sense, not to any specific good or evil. For example, white and black, sweet and bitter, and similar opposites are only opposites in a specific sense because they belong to a particular category; whereas good can be found in every category. Therefore, one good can exist alongside the absence of another good.

Reply Obj. 4: The prophet invokes woe to those who say that good as such is evil. But this does not follow from what is said above, as is clear from the explanation given. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The prophet calls down misfortune on those who claim that good is evil. But this does not follow from what was stated earlier, as is clear from the explanation provided.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 48, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 48, Art. 4]

Whether Evil Corrupts the Whole Good?

Whether Evil Corrupts the Whole Good?

Objection 1: It would seem that evil corrupts the whole good. For one contrary is wholly corrupted by another. But good and evil are contraries. Therefore evil corrupts the whole good.

Objection 1: It seems that evil completely corrupts good. One opposite is entirely destroyed by another. But good and evil are opposites. Therefore, evil corrupts all of good.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (Enchiridion 12) that "evil hurts inasmuch as it takes away good." But good is all of a piece and uniform. Therefore it is wholly taken away by evil.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (Enchiridion 12) that "evil harms to the extent that it removes good." But good is consistent and uniform. Therefore, it is completely taken away by evil.

Obj. 3: Further, evil, as long as it lasts, hurts, and takes away good. But that from which something is always being removed, is at some time consumed, unless it is infinite, which cannot be said of any created good. Therefore evil wholly consumes good.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, as long as evil exists, it causes pain and diminishes good. But anything that is constantly losing something will eventually be depleted, unless it is infinite, which cannot be said of any created good. Therefore, evil completely consumes good.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Enchiridion 12) that "evil cannot wholly consume good."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Enchiridion 12) that "evil cannot completely overpower good."

I answer that, Evil cannot wholly consume good. To prove this we must consider that good is threefold. One kind of good is wholly destroyed by evil, and this is the good opposed to evil, as light is wholly destroyed by darkness, and sight by blindness. Another kind of good is neither wholly destroyed nor diminished by evil, and that is the good which is the subject of evil; for by darkness the substance of the air is not injured. And there is also a kind of good which is diminished by evil, but is not wholly taken away; and this good is the aptitude of a subject to some actuality.

I respond that, Evil cannot completely wipe out good. To demonstrate this, we need to look at the three types of good. One type of good is completely eliminated by evil, similar to how light is completely extinguished by darkness, and sight is lost to blindness. Another type of good is neither fully destroyed nor lessened by evil, which refers to the good that exists despite the presence of evil; for example, the substance of the air remains unaffected by darkness. Lastly, there is a kind of good that is reduced by evil, but not entirely removed; this good refers to the ability of something to achieve certain potential.

The diminution, however, of this kind of good is not to be considered by way of subtraction, as diminution in quantity, but rather by way of remission, as diminution in qualities and forms. The remission likewise of this habitude is to be taken as contrary to its intensity. For this kind of aptitude receives its intensity by the dispositions whereby the matter is prepared for actuality; which the more they are multiplied in the subject the more is it fitted to receive its perfection and form; and, on the contrary, it receives its remission by contrary dispositions which, the more they are multiplied in the matter, and the more they are intensified, the more is the potentiality remitted as regards the actuality.

The reduction of this type of good shouldn't be viewed as a simple subtraction in quantity, but rather as a decrease in qualities and forms. Similarly, the reduction of this habit should be seen as the opposite of its intensity. This kind of readiness gains its intensity through the conditions that prepare the matter for its actualization; as these conditions increase in the subject, it becomes more capable of achieving its perfection and form. Conversely, it experiences a reduction through opposing conditions, which, the more they increase in the matter and intensify, the more they diminish the potentiality in relation to the actualization.

Therefore, if contrary dispositions cannot be multiplied and intensified to infinity, but only to a certain limit, neither is the aforesaid aptitude diminished or remitted infinitely, as appears in the active and passive qualities of the elements; for coldness and humidity, whereby the aptitude of matter to the form of fire is diminished or remitted, cannot be infinitely multiplied. But if the contrary dispositions can be infinitely multiplied, the aforesaid aptitude is also infinitely diminished or remitted; yet, nevertheless, it is not wholly taken away, because its root always remains, which is the substance of the subject. Thus, if opaque bodies were interposed to infinity between the sun and the air, the aptitude of the air to light would be infinitely diminished, but still it would never be wholly removed while the air remained, which in its very nature is transparent. Likewise, addition in sin can be made to infinitude, whereby the aptitude of the soul to grace is more and more lessened; and these sins, indeed, are like obstacles interposed between us and God, according to Isa. 59:2: "Our sins have divided between us and God." Yet the aforesaid aptitude of the soul is not wholly taken away, for it belongs to its very nature.

Therefore, if conflicting conditions can't be increased or intensified forever, but only up to a certain point, neither is the mentioned ability reduced or eliminated infinitely, as seen in the active and passive qualities of the elements. Coldness and dampness, which reduce or eliminate matter’s ability to take on the form of fire, can't be infinitely increased. But if opposing conditions could be infinitely increased, then that ability would also be infinitely reduced or eliminated; however, it wouldn't be completely taken away because its foundation always remains, which is the substance of the subject. So, if opaque objects were placed infinitely between the sun and the air, the air’s ability to receive light would be infinitely reduced, but it would never be completely removed as long as the air exists, which is inherently transparent. Similarly, sins can accumulate to infinity, which further diminishes the soul’s capacity for grace; these sins are indeed like barriers between us and God, as stated in Isa. 59:2: "Our sins have separated us from God." Yet, the soul’s ability is not completely eliminated because it is part of its very nature.

Reply Obj. 1: The good which is opposed to evil is wholly taken away; but other goods are not wholly removed, as said above.

Reply Obj. 1: The good that opposes evil is completely eliminated; however, other goods are not entirely taken away, as mentioned earlier.

Reply Obj. 2: The aforesaid aptitude is a medium between subject and act. Hence, where it touches act, it is diminished by evil; but where it touches the subject, it remains as it was. Therefore, although good is like to itself, yet, on account of its relation to different things, it is not wholly, but only partially taken away.

Reply Obj. 2: The mentioned ability is a connection between the subject and the action. So, where it relates to the action, it is weakened by evil; but where it relates to the subject, it stays the same. Therefore, although good is consistent with itself, because of its relationship to different things, it is not completely, but only partially, removed.

Reply Obj. 3: Some, imagining that the diminution of this kind of good is like the diminution of quantity, said that just as the continuous is infinitely divisible, if the division be made in an ever same proportion (for instance, half of half, or a third of a third), so is it in the present case. But this explanation does not avail here. For when in a division we keep the same proportion, we continue to subtract less and less; for half of half is less than half of the whole. But a second sin does not necessarily diminish the above mentioned aptitude less than a preceding sin, but perchance either equally or more.

Reply Obj. 3: Some people believe that reducing this type of good is similar to reducing quantity, claiming that just as something continuous can be divided infinitely (for example, half of half or a third of a third), the same applies here. However, this reasoning doesn’t hold up. When we divide while maintaining the same proportion, we are continuously subtracting smaller amounts; for instance, half of half is less than half of the whole. But a second sin doesn’t necessarily reduce the previously mentioned quality less than the first sin did; it might even do so equally or more.

Therefore it must be said that, although this aptitude is a finite thing, still it may be so diminished infinitely, not per se, but accidentally; according as the contrary dispositions are also increased infinitely, as explained above. _______________________

Therefore, it must be said that although this ability is limited, it can still be diminished infinitely, not per se, but accidentally; as the opposing traits are also increased infinitely, as explained above.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 48, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 48, Art. 5]

Whether Evil Is Adequately Divided into Pain* and Fault?

Whether Evil Is Adequately Divided into Pain* and Fault?

[*Pain here means "penalty": such was its original signification, being derived from "poena." In this sense we say "Pain of death, Pain of loss, Pain of sense."—Ed.]

[*Pain here means "penalty": that was its original meaning, coming from "poena." In this sense, we say "Pain of death, Pain of loss, Pain of sense."—Ed.]

Objection 1: It would seem that evil is not adequately divided into pain and fault. For every defect is a kind of evil. But in all creatures there is the defect of not being able to preserve their own existence, which nevertheless is neither a pain nor a fault. Therefore evil is inadequately divided into pain and fault.

Objection 1: It seems that evil isn't properly categorized into pain and fault. Every defect is a type of evil. However, all creatures experience the defect of being unable to sustain their own existence, which isn't really a pain or a fault. So, evil is not properly divided into pain and fault.

Obj. 2: Further, in irrational creatures there is neither fault nor pain; but, nevertheless, they have corruption and defect, which are evils. Therefore not every evil is a pain or a fault.

Obj. 2: Additionally, irrational beings experience neither fault nor pain; however, they do have corruption and defects, which are forms of evil. Therefore, not every evil is a form of pain or fault.

Obj. 3: Further, temptation is an evil, but it is not a fault; for "temptation which involves no consent, is not a sin, but an occasion for the exercise of virtue," as is said in a gloss on 2 Cor. 12; not is it a pain; because temptation precedes the fault, and the pain follows afterwards. Therefore, evil is not sufficiently divided into pain and fault.

Obj. 3: Moreover, temptation is negative, but it isn’t a mistake; because “temptation that does not involve consent is not a sin, but rather an opportunity to demonstrate virtue,” as noted in a commentary on 2 Cor. 12; nor is it a source of suffering; since temptation comes before the mistake, and the suffering follows after. Therefore, evil isn't clearly separated into suffering and mistake.

Obj. 4: On the contrary, It would seem that this division is superfluous: for, as Augustine says (Enchiridion 12), a thing is evil "because it hurts." But whatever hurts is penal. Therefore every evil comes under pain.

Obj. 4: On the contrary, it seems that this division is unnecessary: as Augustine says (Enchiridion 12), something is evil "because it causes harm." But anything that causes harm is a punishment. Therefore, every evil falls under pain.

I answer that, Evil, as was said above (A. 3), is the privation of good, which chiefly and of itself consists in perfection and act. Act, however, is twofold; first, and second. The first act is the form and integrity of a thing; the second act is its operation. Therefore evil also is twofold. In one way it occurs by the subtraction of the form, or of any part required for the integrity of the thing, as blindness is an evil, as also it is an evil to be wanting in any member of the body. In another way evil exists by the withdrawal of the due operation, either because it does not exist, or because it has not its due mode and order. But because good in itself is the object of the will, evil, which is the privation of good, is found in a special way in rational creatures which have a will. Therefore the evil which comes from the withdrawal of the form and integrity of the thing, has the nature of a pain; and especially so on the supposition that all things are subject to divine providence and justice, as was shown above (Q. 22, A. 2); for it is of the very nature of a pain to be against the will. But the evil which consists in the subtraction of the due operation in voluntary things has the nature of a fault; for this is imputed to anyone as a fault to fail as regards perfect action, of which he is master by the will. Therefore every evil in voluntary things is to be looked upon as a pain or a fault.

I answer that, Evil, as mentioned earlier (A. 3), is the absence of good, which primarily and essentially consists of perfection and action. Action, however, comes in two forms: first and second. The first action relates to the form and completeness of a thing; the second action pertains to its functioning. Therefore, evil is also twofold. In one sense, it arises from the removal of the form, or any necessary part for the completeness of the thing, like blindness is an evil, as is the loss of any body part. In another sense, evil exists when the proper functioning is missing, either because it doesn’t happen, or because it doesn’t occur as it should. Since good in itself is what the will seeks, evil, representing the absence of good, is particularly evident in rational beings with a will. Thus, the evil that comes from the loss of form and completeness is associated with pain; especially considering that all things are subject to divine providence and justice, as previously shown (Q. 22, A. 2); because pain inherently opposes the will. On the other hand, the evil tied to the lack of proper functioning in voluntary actions is viewed as a fault; this is considered a fault when someone fails to achieve perfect action, which is within their control through their will. Therefore, every evil in voluntary actions should be seen as either pain or fault.

Reply Obj. 1: Because evil is the privation of good, and not a mere negation, as was said above (A. 3), therefore not every defect of good is an evil, but the defect of the good which is naturally due. For the want of sight is not an evil in a stone, but it is an evil in an animal; since it is against the nature of a stone to see. So, likewise, it is against the nature of a creature to be preserved in existence by itself, because existence and conservation come from one and the same source. Hence this kind of defect is not an evil as regards a creature.

Reply Obj. 1: Since evil is the absence of good, and not just a simple lack, as mentioned above (A. 3), not every deficiency of good is considered evil, but rather the deficiency of good that is naturally expected. The lack of sight is not an evil for a stone, but it is an evil for an animal, because a stone isn’t meant to see. Similarly, it goes against the nature of a creature to sustain itself independently, since both existence and preservation come from the same source. Therefore, this type of deficiency is not an evil in the case of a creature.

Reply Obj. 2: Pain and fault do not divide evil absolutely considered, but evil that is found in voluntary things.

Reply Obj. 2: Pain and wrongdoing do not completely separate evil when considered as a whole, but they do relate to the evil found in voluntary actions.

Reply Obj. 3: Temptation, as importing provocation to evil, is always an evil of fault in the tempter; but in the one tempted it is not, properly speaking, a fault; unless through the temptation some change is wrought in the one who is tempted; for thus is the action of the agent in the patient. And if the tempted is changed to evil by the tempter he falls into fault.

Reply Obj. 3: Temptation, which means provoking someone to do wrong, is always a fault of the tempter; however, for the person being tempted, it isn’t really a fault unless the temptation causes a change in them. This reflects the influence of the tempter on the person. If the tempted person does change for the worse because of the tempter, then they become at fault.

Reply Obj. 4: In answer to the opposite argument, it must be said that the very nature of pain includes the idea of injury to the agent in himself, whereas the idea of fault includes the idea of injury to the agent in his operation; and thus both are contained in evil, as including the idea of injury. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: In response to the opposing argument, it should be stated that pain inherently involves the concept of harm to the person experiencing it, while the idea of fault involves harm related to the actions of the person; therefore, both concepts are encompassed within the notion of evil, as they both imply injury.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 48, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 48, Art. 6]

Whether Pain Has the Nature of Evil More Than Fault Has?

Whether pain is more inherently evil than fault?

Objection 1: It would seem that pain has more of evil than fault. For fault is to pain what merit is to reward. But reward has more good than merit, as its end. Therefore pain has more evil in it than fault has.

Objection 1: It seems that pain involves more evil than fault. Fault is to pain what merit is to reward. But reward has more good in it than merit because it is the desired outcome. Therefore, pain contains more evil than fault does.

Obj. 2: Further, that is the greater evil which is opposed to the greater good. But pain, as was said above (A. 5), is opposed to the good of the agent, while fault is opposed to the good of the action. Therefore, since the agent is better than the action, it seems that pain is worse than fault.

Obj. 2: Moreover, the greater evil is the one that is against the greater good. However, pain, as mentioned earlier (A. 5), is against the well-being of the person acting, while fault is against the quality of the action. Therefore, since the person is more important than the action, it seems that pain is worse than fault.

Obj. 3: Further, the privation of the end is a pain consisting in forfeiting the vision of God; whereas the evil of fault is privation of the order to the end. Therefore pain is a greater evil than fault.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the lack of achieving the end results in a pain stemming from the loss of the vision of God; whereas the evil of fault is the absence of the proper order towards the end. Therefore, pain is a greater evil than fault.

On the contrary, A wise workman chooses a less evil in order to prevent a greater, as the surgeon cuts off a limb to save the whole body. But divine wisdom inflicts pain to prevent fault. Therefore fault is a greater evil than pain.

On the contrary, A wise worker chooses a lesser evil to avoid a greater one, just like a surgeon amputates a limb to save the rest of the body. However, divine wisdom causes pain to prevent wrongdoing. So, wrongdoing is a greater evil than pain.

I answer that, Fault has the nature of evil more than pain has; not only more than pain of sense, consisting in the privation of corporeal goods, which kind of pain appeals to most men; but also more than any kind of pain, thus taking pain in its most general meaning, so as to include privation of grace or glory.

I respond that, Fault is more inherently evil than pain is; not only more than physical pain, which arises from the loss of bodily goods and is what most people relate to; but also more than any type of pain, considering pain in its broadest sense, which also includes the loss of grace or glory.

There is a twofold reason for this. The first is that one becomes evil by the evil of fault, but not by the evil of pain, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv): "To be punished is not an evil; but it is an evil to be made worthy of punishment." And this because, since good absolutely considered consists in act, and not in potentiality, and the ultimate act is operation, or the use of something possessed, it follows that the absolute good of man consists in good operation, or the good use of something possessed. Now we use all things by the act of the will. Hence from a good will, which makes a man use well what he has, man is called good, and from a bad will he is called bad. For a man who has a bad will can use ill even the good he has, as when a grammarian of his own will speaks incorrectly. Therefore, because the fault itself consists in the disordered act of the will, and the pain consists in the privation of something used by the will, fault has more of evil in it than pain has.

There are two reasons for this. The first is that someone becomes evil through wrongdoing, but not through suffering, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv): "Being punished isn’t an evil; rather, it’s an evil to be deserving of punishment." This is because, when considered in absolute terms, good is about action, not just potential. The ultimate action is functioning or making use of what one possesses, so a person's absolute good lies in doing good or using their possessions well. We utilize everything through the act of our will. Thus, someone with a good will is considered good because they use what they have properly, while someone with a bad will is seen as bad. A person with a bad will can misuse even the good they possess, much like a grammarian who chooses to speak incorrectly. Therefore, since wrongdoing involves the disordered act of the will and suffering results from the lack of something used by the will, wrongdoing contains more evil than suffering does.

The second reason can be taken from the fact that God is the author of the evil of pain, but not of the evil of fault. And this is because the evil of pain takes away the creature's good, which may be either something created, as sight, destroyed by blindness, or something uncreated, as by being deprived of the vision of God, the creature forfeits its uncreated good. But the evil of fault is properly opposed to uncreated good; for it is opposed to the fulfilment of the divine will, and to divine love, whereby the divine good is loved for itself, and not only as shared by the creature. Therefore it is plain that fault has more evil in it than pain has.

The second reason comes from the idea that God is the source of the suffering caused by pain but not the wrongdoing of fault. This is because the evil of pain takes away something good from the creature, which could be either something created, like sight being lost due to blindness, or something uncreated, like being deprived of the vision of God, thereby losing its ultimate goodness. In contrast, the evil of fault directly opposes this ultimate goodness; it goes against the fulfillment of God's will, and against divine love, which values the divine good for itself, not just as it is experienced by the creature. Thus, it’s clear that fault carries more evil than pain does.

Reply Obj. 1: Although fault results in pain, as merit in reward, yet fault is not intended on account of the pain, as merit is for the reward; but rather, on the contrary, pain is brought about so that the fault may be avoided, and thus fault is worse than pain.

Reply Obj. 1: Although wrongdoing leads to suffering, just as good actions lead to rewards, the wrongdoing isn’t done for the sake of the suffering, as good actions are done for the reward; instead, suffering occurs to discourage wrongdoing, making wrongdoing worse than suffering.

Reply Obj. 2: The order of action which is destroyed by fault is the more perfect good of the agent, since it is the second perfection, than the good taken away by pain, which is the first perfection.

Reply Obj. 2: The order of action that is disrupted by a fault is the greater good of the agent, since it represents a higher form of perfection, compared to the good that is lost due to pain, which is a lower form of perfection.

Reply Obj. 3: Pain and fault are not to be compared as end and order to the end; because one may be deprived of both of these in some way, both by fault and by pain; by pain, accordingly as a man is removed from the end and from the order to the end; by fault, inasmuch as this privation belongs to the action which is not ordered to its due end. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Pain and fault shouldn’t be compared as the goal and the path to the goal; because one can experience a loss of both in certain ways, through either fault or pain. Pain occurs as a person is taken away from the goal and the pathway to the goal; fault happens when this loss is related to an action that isn’t directed towards its proper goal.

QUESTION 49

THE CAUSE OF EVIL
(In Three Articles)

THE CAUSE OF EVIL
(In Three Articles)

We next inquire into the cause of evil. Concerning this there are three points of inquiry:

We will now look into the reasons behind evil. There are three main questions to consider:

(1) Whether good can be the cause of evil?

(1) Can good be the cause of evil?

(2) Whether the supreme good, God, is the cause of evil?

(2) Is the ultimate good, God, the reason for evil?

(3) Whether there be any supreme evil, which is the first cause of all evils? _______________________

(3) Is there a supreme evil that is the root cause of all evils? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 49, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 49, Art. 1]

Whether Good Can Be the Cause of Evil?

Whether good can be the cause of evil?

Objection 1: It would seem that good cannot be the cause of evil. For it is said (Matt. 7:18): "A good tree cannot bring forth evil fruit."

Objection 1: It seems that good cannot cause evil. For it's stated (Matt. 7:18): "A good tree cannot produce bad fruit."

Obj. 2: Further, one contrary cannot be the cause of another. But evil is the contrary to good. Therefore good cannot be the cause of evil.

Obj. 2: Additionally, one opposite cannot cause another. But evil is the opposite of good. Therefore, good cannot cause evil.

Obj. 3: Further, a deficient effect can proceed only from a deficient cause. But evil is a deficient effect. Therefore its cause, if it has one, is deficient. But everything deficient is an evil. Therefore the cause of evil can only be evil.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, a subpar outcome can only come from a subpar cause. But evil is a subpar outcome. So, if it has a cause, that cause must be subpar. However, everything subpar is evil. Therefore, the cause of evil can only be evil.

Obj. 4: Further, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that evil has no cause. Therefore good is not the cause of evil.

Obj. 4: Additionally, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv) that evil has no cause. Therefore, good is not the cause of evil.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Contra Julian. i, 9): "There is no possible source of evil except good."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Contra Julian. i, 9): "The only source of evil can come from good."

I answer that, It must be said that every evil in some way has a cause. For evil is the absence of the good, which is natural and due to a thing. But that anything fail from its natural and due disposition can come only from some cause drawing it out of its proper disposition. For a heavy thing is not moved upwards except by some impelling force; nor does an agent fail in its action except from some impediment. But only good can be a cause; because nothing can be a cause except inasmuch as it is a being, and every being, as such, is good.

I respond that, it's important to note that every evil has a cause in some way. Evil is simply the absence of good, which is natural and inherent to a thing. However, when something deviates from its natural and necessary state, it can only be due to some external cause that pulls it away from its proper state. For instance, a heavy object doesn't move upwards without an upward force acting on it; similarly, an agent doesn't fail to act unless there is some obstruction. But only good can be a cause; because nothing can be a cause unless it exists in some form, and every being, by its nature, is good.

And if we consider the special kinds of causes, we see that the agent, the form, and the end, import some kind of perfection which belongs to the notion of good. Even matter, as a potentiality to good, has the nature of good. Now that good is the cause of evil by way of the material cause was shown above (Q. 48, A. 3). For it was shown that good is the subject of evil. But evil has no formal cause, rather is it a privation of form; likewise, neither has it a final cause, but rather is it a privation of order to the proper end; since not only the end has the nature of good, but also the useful, which is ordered to the end. Evil, however, has a cause by way of an agent, not directly, but accidentally.

And if we look at the different types of causes, we can see that the agent, the form, and the end all involve some kind of perfection associated with the idea of good. Even matter, as a potentiality for good, has the essence of good. It was previously shown (Q. 48, A. 3) that good is the cause of evil in terms of the material cause. It was demonstrated that good underlies evil. However, evil lacks a formal cause; instead, it is a lack of form. Similarly, it doesn't have a final cause; rather, it is a lack of proper order to the right end, since not only the end embodies the nature of good, but also what is useful, which aligns with the end. Nevertheless, evil does have a cause through an agent, though not directly, but rather incidentally.

In proof of this, we must know that evil is caused in the action otherwise than in the effect. In the action evil is caused by reason of the defect of some principle of action, either of the principal or the instrumental agent; thus the defect in the movement of an animal may happen by reason of the weakness of the motive power, as in the case of children, or by reason only of the ineptitude of the instrument, as in the lame. On the other hand, evil is caused in a thing, but not in the proper effect of the agent, sometimes by the power of the agent, sometimes by reason of a defect, either of the agent or of the matter. It is caused by reason of the power or perfection of the agent when there necessarily follows on the form intended by the agent the privation of another form; as, for instance, when on the form of fire there follows the privation of the form of air or of water. Therefore, as the more perfect the fire is in strength, so much the more perfectly does it impress its own form, so also the more perfectly does it corrupt the contrary. Hence that evil and corruption befall air and water comes from the perfection of the fire: but this is accidental; because fire does not aim at the privation of the form of water, but at the bringing in of its own form, though by doing this it also accidentally causes the other. But if there is a defect in the proper effect of the fire—as, for instance, that it fails to heat—this comes either by defect of the action, which implies the defect of some principle, as was said above, or by the indisposition of the matter, which does not receive the action of the fire, the agent. But this very fact that it is a deficient being is accidental to good to which of itself it belongs to act. Hence it is true that evil in no way has any but an accidental cause; and thus is good the cause of evil.

To prove this, we need to understand that evil is caused by the action rather than the effect. In action, evil arises from a flaw in some principle of action, either of the main agent or the supporting agent. For example, the movement of an animal can be impaired due to the weakness of its motive power, as seen in young children, or simply because the instrument is inadequate, like in the case of someone who is lame. Conversely, evil can occur in something without affecting the intended outcome of the agent, sometimes due to the agent’s power and other times because of a defect, either in the agent or the material. It happens because of the power or perfection of the agent when the form intended by the agent leads to the lack of another form; for instance, when the presence of fire results in the absence of air or water. Therefore, as fire becomes stronger and more perfect, it impresses its own form more effectively and also more perfectly destroys the opposite. The evil and corruption that happen to air and water are due to the perfection of fire; however, this is accidental since fire does not seek to remove the form of water but rather to introduce its own form, even though in doing so it inadvertently causes the other. If there is a flaw in the intended effect of the fire—such as its failure to heat—it happens either because of a flaw in the action, indicating a defect in some principle, as mentioned earlier, or due to the unsuitability of the material, which cannot receive the action of the fire, the agent. Thus, the fact that it is a deficient being is incidental to the good, which naturally has the ability to act. Therefore, it is accurate to say that evil has no cause except as an accident; thus, good is the cause of evil.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says (Contra Julian. i): "The Lord calls an evil will the evil tree, and a good will a good tree." Now, a good will does not produce a morally bad act, since it is from the good will itself that a moral act is judged to be good. Nevertheless the movement itself of an evil will is caused by the rational creature, which is good; and thus good is the cause of evil.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says (Contra Julian. i): "The Lord calls an evil will the evil tree, and a good will a good tree." A good will does not lead to a morally bad act, because a moral act is deemed good based on the good will itself. However, the movement of an evil will is instigated by the rational creature, which is good; therefore, good is the source of evil.

Reply Obj. 2: Good does not cause that evil which is contrary to itself, but some other evil: thus the goodness of the fire causes evil to the water, and man, good as to his nature, causes an act morally evil. And, as explained above (Q. 19, A. 9), this is by accident. Moreover, it does happen sometimes that one contrary causes another by accident: for instance, the exterior surrounding cold heats (the body) through the concentration of the inward heat.

Reply Obj. 2: Good does not create evil that contradicts it, but rather some other form of evil: for instance, the goodness of fire causes harm to water, and a person, good by nature, can commit a morally wrong act. As explained earlier (Q. 19, A. 9), this happens by accident. Additionally, it can occur that one opposite can cause another by chance: for example, surrounding cold can heat up (the body) by concentrating the internal heat.

Reply Obj. 3: Evil has a deficient cause in voluntary things otherwise than in natural things. For the natural agent produces the same kind of effect as it is itself, unless it is impeded by some exterior thing; and this amounts to some defect belonging to it. Hence evil never follows in the effect, unless some other evil pre-exists in the agent or in the matter, as was said above. But in voluntary things the defect of the action comes from the will actually deficient, inasmuch as it does not actually subject itself to its proper rule. This defect, however, is not a fault, but fault follows upon it from the fact that the will acts with this defect.

Reply Obj. 3: Evil has a lack of cause in voluntary actions compared to natural actions. A natural agent produces effects that are consistent with its nature unless something external disrupts it, which indicates a flaw. Therefore, evil only results in an effect if some form of evil already exists in the agent or in the matter, as mentioned earlier. In the case of voluntary actions, the flaw arises from the will being deficient because it doesn't adhere to its proper rule. However, this flaw itself isn't a mistake; rather, a mistake arises because the will acts with this deficiency.

Reply Obj. 4: Evil has no direct cause, but only an accidental cause, as was said above. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Evil doesn't have a direct cause; it only has an accidental cause, as mentioned earlier.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 49, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 49, Art. 2]

Whether the Supreme Good, God, Is the Cause of Evil?

Whether the Supreme Good, God, is the cause of evil?

Objection 1: It would seem that the supreme good, God, is the cause of evil. For it is said (Isa. 45:5,7): "I am the Lord, and there is no other God, forming the light, and creating darkness, making peace, and creating evil." And Amos 3:6, "Shall there be evil in a city, which the Lord hath not done?"

Objection 1: It seems that the supreme good, God, is the cause of evil. For it is stated (Isa. 45:5,7): "I am the Lord, and there is no other God, forming light, and creating darkness, making peace, and creating evil." And Amos 3:6, "Is there evil in a city that the Lord hasn't caused?"

Obj. 2: Further, the effect of the secondary cause is reduced to the
first cause. But good is the cause of evil, as was said above (A. 1).
Therefore, since God is the cause of every good, as was shown above
(Q. 2, A. 3; Q. 6, AA. 1, 4), it follows that also every evil is from
God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the impact of the secondary cause is traced back to the
primary cause. However, good is the source of evil, as mentioned earlier (A. 1).
Therefore, since God is the source of all good, as previously established
(Q. 2, A. 3; Q. 6, AA. 1, 4), it follows that every evil also comes from
God.

Obj. 3: Further, as is said by the Philosopher (Phys. ii, text 30), the cause of both safety and danger of the ship is the same. But God is the cause of the safety of all things. Therefore He is the cause of all perdition and of all evil.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, as stated by the Philosopher (Phys. ii, text 30), the cause of both the safety and danger of the ship is the same. But God is the cause of the safety of everything. Therefore, He is also the cause of all destruction and all evil.

On the contrary, Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 21), that, "God is not the author of evil because He is not the cause of tending to not-being."

On the contrary, Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 21), that, "God is not the author of evil because He does not cause anything to fall into nothingness."

I answer that, As appears from what was said (A. 1), the evil which consists in the defect of action is always caused by the defect of the agent. But in God there is no defect, but the highest perfection, as was shown above (Q. 4, A. 1). Hence, the evil which consists in defect of action, or which is caused by defect of the agent, is not reduced to God as to its cause.

I respond that, As shown earlier (A. 1), the evil that comes from a lack of action is always caused by the shortcomings of the agent. However, in God, there is no deficiency, only the highest perfection, as demonstrated above (Q. 4, A. 1). Therefore, the evil that results from a lack of action, or is caused by the agent's shortcomings, does not trace back to God as its cause.

But the evil which consists in the corruption of some things is reduced to God as the cause. And this appears as regards both natural things and voluntary things. For it was said (A. 1) that some agent inasmuch as it produces by its power a form to which follows corruption and defect, causes by its power that corruption and defect. But it is manifest that the form which God chiefly intends in things created is the good of the order of the universe. Now, the order of the universe requires, as was said above (Q. 22, A. 2, ad 2; Q. 48, A. 2), that there should be some things that can, and do sometimes, fail. And thus God, by causing in things the good of the order of the universe, consequently and as it were by accident, causes the corruptions of things, according to 1 Kings 2:6: "The Lord killeth and maketh alive." But when we read that "God hath not made death" (Wis. 1:13), the sense is that God does not will death for its own sake. Nevertheless the order of justice belongs to the order of the universe; and this requires that penalty should be dealt out to sinners. And so God is the author of the evil which is penalty, but not of the evil which is fault, by reason of what is said above.

But the evil that comes from the corruption of certain things is ultimately traced back to God as the cause. This applies to both natural and voluntary actions. It was stated earlier that an agent, by its power, produces a form that leads to corruption and defect, thus causing that corruption and defect. It is clear that the form God primarily aims for in created things is the good of the order of the universe. Now, as mentioned before, the order of the universe requires that some things can, and do, sometimes fail. So, by bringing about the good of the universe's order, God unintentionally causes the corruption of things, as reflected in 1 Kings 2:6: "The Lord kills and brings to life." However, when we read that "God has not made death" (Wis. 1:13), it means that God does not desire death for its own sake. Nevertheless, the order of justice is part of the universe's order, and this necessitates that punishment be given to sinners. Thus, God is the author of the evil that is punishment, but not of the evil that is wrongdoing, as previously stated.

Reply Obj. 1: These passages refer to the evil of penalty, and not to the evil of fault.

Reply Obj. 1: These passages talk about the harm of punishment, not the harm of wrongdoing.

Reply Obj. 2: The effect of the deficient secondary cause is reduced to the first non-deficient cause as regards what it has of being and perfection, but not as regards what it has of defect; just as whatever there is of motion in the act of limping is caused by the motive power, whereas what there is of obliqueness in it does not come from the motive power, but from the curvature of the leg. And, likewise, whatever there is of being and action in a bad action, is reduced to God as the cause; whereas whatever defect is in it is not caused by God, but by the deficient secondary cause.

Reply Obj. 2: The impact of the flawed secondary cause is linked to the primary non-flawed cause in terms of its existence and perfection, but not in terms of its defects. For example, the movement involved in limping comes from the motive power, while the awkwardness of the limp doesn't come from the motive power but from the shape of the leg. Similarly, anything that exists or acts in a bad action can be attributed to God as the cause; however, any faults in it are not caused by God, but by the flawed secondary cause.

Reply Obj. 3: The sinking of a ship is attributed to the sailor as the cause, from the fact that he does not fulfil what the safety of the ship requires; but God does not fail in doing what is necessary for the safety of all. Hence there is no parity. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The sinking of a ship is blamed on the sailor because he doesn't meet the safety requirements for the ship; however, God always does what is needed for everyone's safety. Therefore, there’s no comparison.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 49, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 49, Art. 3]

Whether There Be One Supreme Evil Which Is the Cause of Every Evil?

Whether There Be One Supreme Evil Which Is the Cause of Every Evil?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is one supreme evil which is the cause of every evil. For contrary effects have contrary causes. But contrariety is found in things, according to Ecclus. 33:15: "Good is set against evil, and life against death; so also is the sinner against a just man." Therefore there are many contrary principles, one of good, the other of evil.

Objection 1: It appears that there is one ultimate evil that causes every evil. Since opposite effects have opposite causes, and we find this contrast in things, as stated in Ecclus. 33:15: "Good is set against evil, and life against death; just as the sinner is set against a just man." Therefore, there are many opposing principles, one representing good and the other representing evil.

Obj. 2: Further, if one contrary is in nature, so is the other. But the supreme good is in nature, and is the cause of every good, as was shown above (Q. 2, A. 3; Q. 6, AA. 2, 4). Therefore, also, there is a supreme evil opposed to it as the cause of every evil.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, if one opposite exists in nature, so does the other. The highest good exists in nature and is the source of every good, as was explained earlier (Q. 2, A. 3; Q. 6, AA. 2, 4). Therefore, there must also be a supreme evil that opposes it and serves as the source of every evil.

Obj. 3: Further, as we find good and better things, so we find evil and worse. But good and better are so considered in relation to what is best. Therefore evil and worse are so considered in relation to some supreme evil.

Obj. 3: Just as we recognize good and better things, we also recognize evil and worse ones. However, good and better are viewed in relation to what is best. Therefore, evil and worse are viewed in relation to some ultimate evil.

Obj. 4: Further, everything participated is reduced to what is essential. But things which are evil among us are evil not essentially, but by participation. Therefore we must seek for some supreme essential evil, which is the cause of every evil.

Obj. 4: Additionally, everything that participates is brought down to what is essential. However, the things that are considered evil among us are not evil in essence, but by participation. Therefore, we need to search for a supreme essential evil, which is the source of all evil.

Obj. 5: Further, whatever is accidental is reduced to that which is per se. But good is the accidental cause of evil. Therefore, we must suppose some supreme evil which is the per se cause of evils. Nor can it be said that evil has no per se cause, but only an accidental cause; for it would then follow that evil would not exist in the many, but only in the few.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, anything that is accidental can be tied back to what is per se. However, good is the accidental cause of evil. Therefore, we must assume there is some ultimate evil that is the per se cause of evils. It's also incorrect to claim that evil has no per se cause, only an accidental cause; because that would imply that evil exists only in a few, not widely among many.

Obj. 6: Further, the evil of the effect is reduced to the evil of the cause; because the deficient effect comes from the deficient cause, as was said above (AA. 1, 2). But we cannot proceed to infinity in this matter. Therefore, we must suppose one first evil as the cause of every evil.

Obj. 6: Moreover, the bad outcome is linked to the bad cause; because the insufficient outcome comes from the insufficient cause, as mentioned earlier (AA. 1, 2). However, we cannot go on forever in this way. Thus, we must assume one original evil as the source of all evil.

On the contrary, The supreme good is the cause of every being, as was shown above (Q. 2, A. 3; Q. 6, A. 4). Therefore there cannot be any principle opposed to it as the cause of evils.

On the contrary, The ultimate good is the source of all existence, as demonstrated earlier (Q. 2, A. 3; Q. 6, A. 4). Therefore, there can't be any principle that contradicts it as the source of evil.

I answer that, It appears from what precedes that there is no one first principle of evil, as there is one first principle of good.

I answer that, It seems from what has been said earlier that there isn't a single primary source of evil, unlike there is for good.

First, indeed, because the first principle of good is essentially good, as was shown above (Q. 6, AA. 3, 4). But nothing can be essentially bad. For it was shown above that every being, as such, is good (Q. 5, A. 3); and that evil can exist only in good as in its subject (Q. 48, A. 3).

First, because the primary principle of good is inherently good, as previously established (Q. 6, AA. 3, 4). However, nothing can be fundamentally bad. It was demonstrated earlier that every being, by its nature, is good (Q. 5, A. 3); and that evil can only exist in relation to good as its subject (Q. 48, A. 3).

Secondly, because the first principle of good is the highest and perfect good which pre-contains in itself all goodness, as shown above (Q. 6, A. 2). But there cannot be a supreme evil; because, as was shown above (Q. 48, A. 4), although evil always lessens good, yet it never wholly consumes it; and thus, while good ever remains, nothing can be wholly and perfectly bad. Therefore, the Philosopher says (Ethic. iv, 5) that "if the wholly evil could be, it would destroy itself"; because all good being destroyed (which it need be for something to be wholly evil), evil itself would be taken away, since its subject is good.

Secondly, the first principle of good is the highest and perfect good, which inherently includes all goodness, as previously mentioned (Q. 6, A. 2). However, there can't be a supreme evil; because, as noted earlier (Q. 48, A. 4), while evil always diminishes good, it never completely eliminates it. Therefore, as long as good exists, nothing can be entirely and perfectly bad. That's why the Philosopher states (Ethic. iv, 5) that "if something could be completely evil, it would end up destroying itself"; because if all good were eradicated (which is necessary for something to be entirely evil), then evil itself would also cease to exist, since it depends on good for its existence.

Thirdly, because the very nature of evil is against the idea of a first principle; both because every evil is caused by good, as was shown above (A. 1), and because evil can be only an accidental cause, and thus it cannot be the first cause, for the accidental cause is subsequent to the direct cause.

Thirdly, the nature of evil contradicts the idea of a first principle; this is because every evil stems from good, as mentioned earlier (A. 1), and also because evil can only be an unintended cause, meaning it cannot be the first cause since an unintended cause comes after the main cause.

Those, however, who upheld two first principles, one good and the other evil, fell into this error from the same cause, whence also arose other strange notions of the ancients; namely, because they failed to consider the universal cause of all being, and considered only the particular causes of particular effects. For on that account, if they found a thing hurtful to something by the power of its own nature, they thought that the very nature of that thing was evil; as, for instance, if one should say that the nature of fire was evil because it burnt the house of a poor man. The judgment, however, of the goodness of anything does not depend upon its order to any particular thing, but rather upon what it is in itself, and on its order to the whole universe, wherein every part has its own perfectly ordered place, as was said above (Q. 47, A. 2, ad 1).

Those who supported two fundamental principles, one good and the other evil, fell into this mistake for the same reason, which also led to other strange ideas in ancient times. They failed to consider the universal cause of all existence and only looked at the specific causes of individual effects. Because of this, if they found that something was harmful in its own nature, they assumed that the nature of that thing was evil. For example, they might say that fire is evil because it burned down a poor man's house. However, the judgment about the goodness of anything doesn't depend on its relationship to a specific thing but rather on what it is in itself and its connection to the whole universe, where every part has its perfectly ordered place, as mentioned above (Q. 47, A. 2, ad 1).

Likewise, because they found two contrary particular causes of two contrary particular effects, they did not know how to reduce these contrary particular causes to the universal common cause; and therefore they extended the contrariety of causes even to the first principles. But since all contraries agree in something common, it is necessary to search for one common cause for them above their own contrary proper causes; as above the contrary qualities of the elements exists the power of a heavenly body; and above all things that exist, no matter how, there exists one first principle of being, as was shown above (Q. 2, A. 3).

Similarly, because they identified two opposing specific causes for two opposing specific effects, they struggled to connect these opposing specific causes to a universal common cause. As a result, they extended the contradiction of causes up to the first principles. However, since all opposites share something in common, it's necessary to find one common cause that transcends their own opposing specific causes; just as the power of a heavenly body exists above the opposing qualities of the elements, there is one first principle of being that exists above all things, regardless of how they are, as was shown above (Q. 2, A. 3).

Reply Obj. 1: Contraries agree in one genus, and they also agree in the nature of being; and therefore, although they have contrary particular causes, nevertheless we must come at last to one first common cause.

Reply Obj. 1: Opposites belong to the same category, and they also share the same essence of existence; therefore, even though they have different specific causes, we ultimately must arrive at one fundamental common cause.

Reply Obj. 2: Privation and habit belong naturally to the same subject. Now the subject of privation is a being in potentiality, as was said above (Q. 48, A. 3). Hence, since evil is privation of good, as appears from what was said above (Q. 48, AA. 1, 2, 3), it is opposed to that good which has some potentiality, but not to the supreme good, who is pure act.

Reply Obj. 2: Lack and habit are naturally connected to the same subject. The subject of lack is a being that has potential, as mentioned earlier (Q. 48, A. 3). Since evil is the absence of good, as discussed above (Q. 48, AA. 1, 2, 3), it is opposed to that good which has some potential, but not to the highest good, which is pure existence.

Reply Obj. 3: Increase in intensity is in proportion to the nature of a thing. And as the form is a perfection, so privation removes a perfection. Hence every form, perfection, and good is intensified by approach to the perfect term; but privation and evil by receding from that term. Hence a thing is not said to be evil and worse, by reason of access to the supreme evil, in the same way as it is said to be good and better, by reason of access to the supreme good.

Reply Obj. 3: The increase in intensity relates to the nature of a thing. Just as form represents a perfection, privation takes away a perfection. Therefore, every form, perfection, and good becomes stronger as it gets closer to the perfect state; conversely, privation and evil increase as it moves away from that state. Thus, something is not considered evil or worse simply because it approaches the ultimate evil, just as it is considered good or better when it approaches the ultimate good.

Reply Obj. 4: No being is called evil by participation, but by privation of participation. Hence it is not necessary to reduce it to any essential evil.

Reply Obj. 4: No being is called evil because it participates, but because it lacks participation. Therefore, it’s not necessary to categorize it as an essential evil.

Reply Obj. 5: Evil can only have an accidental cause, as was shown above (A. 1). Hence reduction to any 'per se' cause of evil is impossible. And to say that evil is in the greater number is simply false. For things which are generated and corrupted, in which alone can there be natural evil, are the smaller part of the whole universe. And again, in every species the defect of nature is in the smaller number. In man alone does evil appear as in the greater number; because the good of man as regards the senses is not the good of man as man—that is, in regard to reason; and more men seek good in regard to the senses than good according to reason.

Reply Obj. 5: Evil can only have an accidental cause, as was explained earlier (A. 1). Therefore, it’s impossible to trace evil back to any 'per se' cause. Also, the claim that evil is more common is simply untrue. The things that are created and destroyed, where natural evil can occur, make up only a small part of the entire universe. Additionally, in every category, the deficiency of nature is found in a smaller number. Evil appears to be more prevalent in humans; this is because what is good for humans concerning their senses is not the same as what is good for humans as rational beings; more people tend to pursue what feels good in terms of their senses rather than what is good according to reason.

Reply Obj. 6: In the causes of evil we do not proceed to infinity, but reduce all evils to some good cause, whence evil follows accidentally. _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: When it comes to the causes of evil, we don’t go on forever, but instead trace all evils back to some good cause, from which evil arises accidentally.

TREATISE ON THE ANGELS (QQ. 50-64) _______________________

TREATISE ON THE ANGELS (QQ. 50-64) _______________________

QUESTION 50

OF THE SUBSTANCE OF THE ANGELS ABSOLUTELY CONSIDERED
(In Five Articles)

OF THE SUBSTANCE OF THE ANGELS ABSOLUTELY CONSIDERED
(In Five Articles)

Now we consider the distinction of corporeal and spiritual creatures: firstly, the purely spiritual creature which in Holy Scripture is called angel; secondly, the creature wholly corporeal; thirdly, the composite creature, corporeal and spiritual, which is man.

Now we look at the difference between physical and spiritual beings: first, the purely spiritual being referred to in the Holy Scripture as an angel; second, the completely physical being; third, the combined being, which is both physical and spiritual, known as man.

Concerning the angels, we consider first what belongs to their substance; secondly, what belongs to their intellect; thirdly, what belongs to their will; fourthly, what belongs to their creation.

Regarding the angels, we will first look at what pertains to their substance; second, what relates to their intellect; third, what involves their will; and fourth, what has to do with their creation.

Their substance we consider absolutely and in relation to corporeal things.

We think about their substance both absolutely and in relation to physical things.

Concerning their substance absolutely considered, there are five points of inquiry:

Concerning their substance considered in absolute terms, there are five areas to investigate:

(1) Whether there is any entirely spiritual creature, altogether incorporeal?

(1) Is there any completely spiritual being that is totally incorporeal?

(2) Supposing that an angel is such, we ask whether it is composed of matter and form?

(2) If we assume that an angel is like that, we ask whether it is made up of matter and form?

(3) We ask concerning their number.

(3) We're asking about how many there are.

(4) Of their difference from each other.

(4) Of how they are different from each other.

(5) Of their immortality or incorruptibility. _______________________

(5) About their immortality or incorruptibility. _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 50, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 50, Art. 1]

Whether an Angel Is Altogether Incorporeal?

Whether an angel is completely incorporeal?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel is not entirely incorporeal. For what is incorporeal only as regards ourselves, and not in relation to God, is not absolutely incorporeal. But Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii) that "an angel is said to be incorporeal and immaterial as regards us; but compared to God it is corporeal and material. Therefore he is not simply incorporeal."

Objection 1: It seems that an angel is not completely incorporeal. What is incorporeal only in relation to us, but not in relation to God, is not truly incorporeal. However, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii) that "an angel is considered incorporeal and immaterial in relation to us; but when compared to God, it is corporeal and material. Therefore, it is not simply incorporeal."

Obj. 2: Further, nothing is moved except a body, as the Philosopher says (Phys. vi, text 32). But Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii) that "an angel is an ever movable intellectual substance." Therefore an angel is a corporeal substance.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, nothing is moved except a physical body, as the Philosopher states (Phys. vi, text 32). However, Damascene claims (De Fide Orth. ii) that "an angel is an always movable intellectual substance." Therefore, an angel is a physical substance.

Obj. 3: Further, Ambrose says (De Spir. Sanct. i, 7): "Every creature is limited within its own nature." But to be limited belongs to bodies. Therefore, every creature is corporeal. Now angels are God's creatures, as appears from Ps. 148:2: "Praise ye" the Lord, "all His angels"; and, farther on (verse 4), "For He spoke, and they were made; He commanded, and they were created." Therefore angels are corporeal.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, Ambrose states (De Spir. Sanct. i, 7): "Every creature is confined to its own nature." However, limitation is characteristic of physical bodies. Therefore, every creature is physical. Now, angels are creations of God, as indicated in Ps. 148:2: "Praise the Lord, all His angels"; and further on (verse 4), "For He spoke, and they were made; He commanded, and they were created." Thus, angels are physical.

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 103:4): "Who makes His angels spirits."

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 103:4): "Who makes His angels spirits."

I answer that, There must be some incorporeal creatures. For what is principally intended by God in creatures is good, and this consists in assimilation to God Himself. And the perfect assimilation of an effect to a cause is accomplished when the effect imitates the cause according to that whereby the cause produces the effect; as heat makes heat. Now, God produces the creature by His intellect and will (Q. 14, A. 8; Q. 19, A. 4). Hence the perfection of the universe requires that there should be intellectual creatures. Now intelligence cannot be the action of a body, nor of any corporeal faculty; for every body is limited to "here" and "now." Hence the perfection of the universe requires the existence of an incorporeal creature.

I answer that, There must be some non-physical beings. What God primarily intends in creating beings is goodness, which comes from being similar to God Himself. The complete similarity of an effect to its cause happens when the effect reflects the cause through the way the cause brings about the effect; like how heat generates heat. God creates beings through His intellect and will (Q. 14, A. 8; Q. 19, A. 4). Therefore, for the universe to be perfect, there must be intelligent beings. Intelligence cannot be the product of a body or any physical ability; because every body is limited to "here" and "now." Thus, for the universe to be perfect, there must be non-physical beings.

The ancients, however, not properly realizing the force of intelligence, and failing to make a proper distinction between sense and intellect, thought that nothing existed in the world but what could be apprehended by sense and imagination. And because bodies alone fall under imagination, they supposed that no being existed except bodies, as the Philosopher observes (Phys. iv, text 52,57). Thence came the error of the Sadducees, who said there was no spirit (Acts 23:8).

The ancients, however, did not fully understand the power of intelligence and failed to properly differentiate between sense and intellect. They believed that the only things that existed in the world were those that could be perceived through the senses and imagination. Since only physical bodies could be imagined, they assumed that nothing existed except for physical bodies, as noted by the Philosopher (Phys. iv, text 52,57). This led to the mistake of the Sadducees, who claimed that there was no spirit (Acts 23:8).

But the very fact that intellect is above sense is a reasonable proof that there are some incorporeal things comprehensible by the intellect alone.

But the simple fact that intellect is greater than sense is a good indication that there are some immaterial things that can only be understood by the intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: Incorporeal substances rank between God and corporeal creatures. Now the medium compared to one extreme appears to be the other extreme, as what is tepid compared to heat seems to be cold; and thus it is said that angels, compared to God, are material and corporeal, not, however, as if anything corporeal existed in them.

Reply Obj. 1: Non-physical substances are positioned between God and physical beings. A medium in relation to one extreme seems to resemble the other extreme, just as something lukewarm appears cold when compared to heat; therefore, it is stated that angels, in comparison to God, are considered material and physical, although this does not mean that anything physical actually exists within them.

Reply Obj. 2: Movement is there taken in the sense in which it is applied to intelligence and will. Therefore an angel is called an ever mobile substance, because he is ever actually intelligent, and not as if he were sometimes actually and sometimes potentially, as we are. Hence it is clear that the objection rests on an equivocation.

Reply Obj. 2: Movement is understood here in the context of intelligence and will. Therefore, an angel is described as an always-moving substance because he is always actually intelligent, unlike us, who can be sometimes actually and sometimes potentially intelligent. This clarifies that the objection is based on a misunderstanding.

Reply Obj. 3: To be circumscribed by local limits belongs to bodies only; whereas to be circumscribed by essential limits belongs to all creatures, both corporeal and spiritual. Hence Ambrose says (De Spir. Sanct. i, 7) that "although some things are not contained in corporeal place, still they are none the less circumscribed by their substance." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Being confined by local boundaries applies only to physical bodies; however, being defined by essential boundaries applies to all beings, both physical and spiritual. Therefore, Ambrose states (De Spir. Sanct. i, 7) that "even though some things are not confined to a physical location, they are still limited by their essence."

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 50, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 50, Art. 2]

Whether an Angel Is Composed of Matter and Form?

Whether an angel is made of matter and form?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel is composed of matter and form. For everything which is contained under any genus is composed of the genus, and of the difference which added to the genus makes the species. But the genus comes from the matter, and the difference from the form (Metaph. xiii, text 6). Therefore everything which is in a genus is composed of matter and form. But an angel is in the genus of substance. Therefore he is composed of matter and form.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel is made up of matter and form. Everything that falls under any category is made up of the category itself and the difference that, when added to the category, defines the species. The category comes from the matter, and the difference comes from the form (Metaph. xiii, text 6). Therefore, everything in a category is made up of matter and form. But an angel belongs to the category of substance. So, he is made up of matter and form.

Obj. 2: Further, wherever the properties of matter exist, there is matter. Now the properties of matter are to receive and to substand; whence Boethius says (De Trin.) that "a simple form cannot be a subject": and the above properties are found in the angel. Therefore an angel is composed of matter and form.

Obj. 2: Additionally, wherever the qualities of matter exist, there is matter. The qualities of matter include receiving and sustaining; hence Boethius states (De Trin.) that "a simple form cannot be a subject": and these qualities are present in the angel. Therefore, an angel is made up of matter and form.

Obj. 3: Further, form is act. So what is form only is pure act. But an angel is not pure act, for this belongs to God alone. Therefore an angel is not form only, but has a form in matter.

Obj. 3: Also, form is action. So what is form alone is pure action. But an angel is not pure action, as that belongs to God alone. Therefore, an angel is not just form, but has a form involving matter.

Obj. 4: Further, form is properly limited and perfected by matter. So the form which is not in matter is an infinite form. But the form of an angel is not infinite, for every creature is finite. Therefore the form of an angel is in matter.

Obj. 4: Additionally, form is appropriately restricted and completed by matter. Thus, a form that doesn't exist in matter is an infinite form. However, the form of an angel is not infinite, since every creature is finite. Therefore, the form of an angel exists in matter.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv): "The first creatures are understood to be as immaterial as they are incorporeal."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv): "The first beings are understood to be as non-physical as they are without a body."

I answer that, Some assert that the angels are composed of matter and form; which opinion Avicebron endeavored to establish in his book of the Fount of Life. For he supposes that whatever things are distinguished by the intellect are really distinct. Now as regards incorporeal substance, the intellect apprehends that which distinguishes it from corporeal substance, and that which it has in common with it. Hence he concludes that what distinguishes incorporeal from corporeal substance is a kind of form to it, and whatever is subject to this distinguishing form, as it were something common, is its matter. Therefore, he asserts the universal matter of spiritual and corporeal things is the same; so that it must be understood that the form of incorporeal substance is impressed in the matter of spiritual things, in the same way as the form of quantity is impressed in the matter of corporeal things.

I respond that, Some people believe that angels are made up of matter and form; this idea was argued by Avicebron in his book, The Fount of Life. He thinks that anything that is recognized by the intellect is truly distinct. When it comes to incorporeal substances, the intellect understands what sets it apart from corporeal substances as well as what they have in common. Therefore, he concludes that what differentiates incorporeal from corporeal substances is a particular kind of form, and anything that is subject to this distinguishing form is essentially its matter. As a result, he claims that the universal matter of both spiritual and corporeal things is the same; this means that the form of incorporeal substances is imprinted in the matter of spiritual things, just like the form of quantity is imprinted in the matter of corporeal things.

But one glance is enough to show that there cannot be one matter of spiritual and of corporeal things. For it is not possible that a spiritual and a corporeal form should be received into the same part of matter, otherwise one and the same thing would be corporeal and spiritual. Hence it would follow that one part of matter receives the corporeal form, and another receives the spiritual form. Matter, however, is not divisible into parts except as regarded under quantity; and without quantity substance is indivisible, as Aristotle says (Phys. i, text 15). Therefore it would follow that the matter of spiritual things is subject to quantity; which cannot be. Therefore it is impossible that corporeal and spiritual things should have the same matter.

But just one look is enough to show that there can't be a single matter for both spiritual and physical things. It's not possible for a spiritual and a physical form to exist in the same part of matter; otherwise, the same thing would be both physical and spiritual. This means that one part of matter takes on the physical form, while another part takes on the spiritual form. However, matter can't be divided into parts except when considered in terms of quantity, and without quantity, substance is indivisible, as Aristotle states (Phys. i, text 15). Therefore, it would imply that the matter of spiritual things is subject to quantity, which isn't the case. Thus, it is impossible for physical and spiritual things to share the same matter.

It is, further, impossible for an intellectual substance to have any kind of matter. For the operation belonging to anything is according to the mode of its substance. Now to understand is an altogether immaterial operation, as appears from its object, whence any act receives its species and nature. For a thing is understood according to its degree of immateriality; because forms that exist in matter are individual forms which the intellect cannot apprehend as such. Hence it must be that every individual substance is altogether immaterial.

It is also impossible for an intellectual substance to have any kind of matter. The functioning of anything depends on the nature of its substance. Understanding is completely immaterial, as shown by its object, from which any action derives its type and nature. A thing is understood based on how immaterial it is; because forms that exist in matter are individual forms that the intellect cannot grasp as such. Therefore, it must be that every individual substance is entirely immaterial.

But things distinguished by the intellect are not necessarily distinguished in reality; because the intellect does not apprehend things according to their mode, but according to its own mode. Hence material things which are below our intellect exist in our intellect in a simpler mode than they exist in themselves. Angelic substances, on the other hand, are above our intellect; and hence our intellect cannot attain to apprehend them, as they are in themselves, but by its own mode, according as it apprehends composite things; and in this way also it apprehends God (Q. 3).

But things understood by the mind aren't always the same as things as they really are; because the mind doesn't grasp things as they are, but through its own perspective. So, physical things that are below our intellect exist in our mind in a simpler way than they do in reality. On the other hand, angelic beings are beyond our understanding; thus our intellect can't grasp them as they truly are, but only through its own lens, similar to how it understands complex things; and in this way, it also understands God (Q. 3).

Reply Obj. 1: It is difference which constitutes the species. Now everything is constituted in a species according as it is determined to some special grade of being because "the species of things are like numbers," which differ by addition and subtraction of unity, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. viii, text 10). But in material things there is one thing which determines to a special grade, and that is the form; and another thing which is determined, and this is the matter; and hence from the latter the genus is derived, and from the former the "difference." Whereas in immaterial things there is no separate determinator and thing determined; each thing by its own self holds a determinate grade in being; and therefore in them genus and "difference" are not derived from different things, but from one and the same. Nevertheless, this differs in our mode of conception; for, inasmuch as our intellect considers it as indeterminate, it derives the idea of their genus; and inasmuch as it considers it determinately, it derives the idea of their "difference."

Reply Obj. 1: It's difference that defines the species. Everything is defined in a species based on how it's assigned to a specific level of existence, because “the species of things are like numbers,” which differ by adding or subtracting one, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. viii, text 10). In material things, there's one thing that defines a specific level, which is the form; and another thing that is defined, which is the matter. From the latter, the genus is formed, and from the former, the "difference." However, in immaterial things, there isn't a separate defining element and defined thing; each thing inherently holds a specific level of existence. Therefore, in them, genus and "difference" come from one and the same source. Nonetheless, this varies in how we understand it; as our intellect views it as indefinite, it derives the concept of their genus; and as it considers it definitively, it derives the concept of their "difference."

Reply Obj. 2: This reason is given in the book on the Fount of Life, and it would be cogent, supposing that the receptive mode of the intellect and of matter were the same. But this is clearly false. For matter receives the form, that thereby it may be constituted in some species, either of air, or of fire, or of something else. But the intellect does not receive the form in the same way; otherwise the opinion of Empedocles (De Anima i, 5, text 26) would be true, to the effect that we know earth by earth, and fire by fire. But the intelligible form is in the intellect according to the very nature of a form; for as such is it so known by the intellect. Hence such a way of receiving is not that of matter, but of an immaterial substance.

Reply Obj. 2: This reason is found in the book on the Fount of Life, and it would make sense if the way the intellect and matter receive information were the same. But that’s clearly not true. Matter takes on a form so it can be classified as a specific type, whether that’s air, fire, or something else. However, the intellect doesn’t take on form in the same way; if it did, then Empedocles’ view (De Anima i, 5, text 26) that we understand earth through earth and fire through fire would be correct. But the intelligible form exists in the intellect based on the true nature of a form; it’s known by the intellect in that way. So, this kind of reception is not characteristic of matter, but of an immaterial substance.

Reply Obj. 3: Although there is no composition of matter and form in an angel, yet there is act and potentiality. And this can be made evident if we consider the nature of material things which contain a twofold composition. The first is that of form and matter, whereby the nature is constituted. Such a composite nature is not its own existence but existence is its act. Hence the nature itself is related to its own existence as potentiality to act. Therefore if there be no matter, and supposing that the form itself subsists without matter, there nevertheless still remains the relation of the form to its very existence, as of potentiality to act. And such a kind of composition is understood to be in the angels; and this is what some say, that an angel is composed of, "whereby he is," and "what is," or "existence," and "what is," as Boethius says. For "what is," is the form itself subsisting; and the existence itself is whereby the substance is; as the running is whereby the runner runs. But in God "existence" and "what is" are not different as was explained above (Q. 3, A. 4). Hence God alone is pure act.

Reply Obj. 3: Even though angels don't have a mix of matter and form, they still have act and potentiality. This becomes clear when we think about how physical things have a twofold composition. The first type is that of form and matter, which defines their nature. Such a composite nature doesn’t have its own existence; instead, existence is its act. Therefore, the nature itself relates to its existence as potentiality relates to act. So, even if there’s no matter, and we assume that the form exists independently of matter, there still exists a relationship between the form and its existence, similar to potentiality relating to act. This type of composition is understood to exist in angels; some say an angel is composed of "that which exists" and "what it is," or "existence" and "essence," as Boethius puts it. The "what it is" refers to the form itself existing, while existence is what makes the substance actual, like how running is what a runner does. However, in God, "existence" and "what is" are not different, as explained earlier (Q. 3, A. 4). Therefore, God alone is pure act.

Reply Obj. 4: Every creature is simply finite, inasmuch as its existence is not absolutely subsisting, but is limited to some nature to which it belongs. But there is nothing against a creature being considered relatively infinite. Material creatures are infinite on the part of matter, but finite in their form, which is limited by the matter which receives it. But immaterial created substances are finite in their being; whereas they are infinite in the sense that their forms are not received in anything else; as if we were to say, for example, that whiteness existing separate is infinite as regards the nature of whiteness, forasmuch as it is not contracted to any one subject; while its "being" is finite as determined to some one special nature.

Reply Obj. 4: Every creature is simply finite because its existence isn't completely independent; it is limited to the specific nature it belongs to. However, there’s nothing wrong with considering a creature as relatively infinite. Material creatures are infinite in terms of matter but finite in their form, which is restricted by the matter that holds it. On the other hand, immaterial created substances are finite in their existence, but can be seen as infinite because their forms aren’t contained within anything else. For instance, we could say that whiteness existing on its own is infinite regarding the nature of whiteness, since it is not confined to any one subject; but its "being" is finite because it is specific to one particular nature.

Whence it is said (De Causis, prop. 16) that "intelligence is finite from above," as receiving its being from above itself, and is "infinite from below," as not received in any matter. _______________________

Whence it is said (De Causis, prop. 16) that "intelligence is finite from above," as receiving its being from above itself, and is "infinite from below," as not received in any matter.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 50, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 50, Art. 3]

Whether the Angels Exist in Any Great Number?

Whether Angels Exist in Any Significant Number?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels are not in great numbers. For number is a species of quantity, and follows the division of a continuous body. But this cannot be in the angels, since they are incorporeal, as was shown above (A. 1). Therefore the angels cannot exist in any great number.

Objection 1: It seems that there aren’t many angels. Numbers are a type of quantity and depend on the division of a continuous substance. But this doesn't apply to angels since they are non-physical, as shown earlier (A. 1). Therefore, there can't be a large number of angels.

Obj. 2: Further, the more a thing approaches to unity, so much the less is it multiplied, as is evident in numbers. But among other created natures the angelic nature approaches nearest to God. Therefore since God is supremely one, it seems that there is the least possible number in the angelic nature.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the closer something is to unity, the less it is multiplied, as is clear in numbers. Among all created beings, angelic beings come closest to God. Since God is the ultimate unity, it appears that there is the smallest possible number in the angelic nature.

Obj. 3: Further, the proper effect of the separate substances seems to be the movements of the heavenly bodies. But the movements of the heavenly bodies fall within some small determined number, which we can apprehend. Therefore the angels are not in greater number than the movements of the heavenly bodies.

Obj. 3: Moreover, the specific role of the separate substances appears to be the movements of the heavenly bodies. However, the movements of the heavenly bodies are limited to a small, defined number that we can understand. Therefore, the number of angels is not greater than the number of movements of the heavenly bodies.

Obj. 4: Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "all intelligible and intellectual substances subsist because of the rays of the divine goodness." But a ray is only multiplied according to the different things that receive it. Now it cannot be said that their matter is receptive of an intelligible ray, since intellectual substances are immaterial, as was shown above (A. 2). Therefore it seems that the multiplication of intellectual substances can only be according to the requirements of the first bodies—that is, of the heavenly ones, so that in some way the shedding form of the aforesaid rays may be terminated in them; and hence the same conclusion is to be drawn as before.

Obj. 4: Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv) that "all intelligible and intellectual substances exist because of the rays of divine goodness." However, a ray is only multiplied according to the different entities that receive it. It cannot be said that their matter can accept an intelligible ray, since intellectual substances are immaterial, as previously shown (A. 2). Therefore, it seems that the multiplication of intellectual substances can only occur based on the needs of the first bodies—that is, the heavenly ones—so that in some way the dispersing form of the aforementioned rays may be directed towards them; and thus, the same conclusion can be drawn as before.

On the contrary, It is said (Dan. 7:10): "Thousands of thousands ministered to Him, and ten thousands times a hundred thousand stood before Him."

On the contrary, It is said (Dan. 7:10): "Thousands of thousands served Him, and ten thousand times a hundred thousand stood before Him."

I answer that, There have been various opinions with regard to the number of the separate substances. Plato contended that the separate substances are the species of sensible things; as if we were to maintain that human nature is a separate substance of itself: and according to this view it would have to be maintained that the number of the separate substances is the number of the species of sensible things. Aristotle, however, rejects this view (Metaph. i, text 31) because matter is of the very nature of the species of sensible things. Consequently the separate substances cannot be the exemplar species of these sensible things; but have their own fixed natures, which are higher than the natures of sensible things. Nevertheless Aristotle held (Metaph. xi, text 43) that those more perfect natures bear relation to these sensible things, as that of mover and end; and therefore he strove to find out the number of the separate substances according to the number of the first movements.

I answer that, There have been different opinions about the number of separate substances. Plato argued that separate substances are the types of tangible things, similar to saying that human nature is a separate substance by itself. According to this perspective, the number of separate substances would equal the number of types of tangible things. Aristotle, however, disagrees with this view (Metaph. i, text 31) because matter is inherently part of the nature of tangible things. Therefore, separate substances cannot be the exemplary types of these tangible things; they have their own distinct natures that are superior to the natures of tangible things. Nonetheless, Aristotle believed (Metaph. xi, text 43) that these more perfect natures relate to tangible things in the way that a mover relates to an end; thus, he sought to determine the number of separate substances based on the number of primary movements.

But since this appears to militate against the teachings of Sacred Scripture, Rabbi Moses the Jew, wishing to bring both into harmony, held that the angels, in so far as they are styled immaterial substances, are multiplied according to the number of heavenly movements or bodies, as Aristotle held (Metaph. xi, text 43); while he contended that in the Scriptures even men bearing a divine message are styled angels; and again, even the powers of natural things, which manifest God's almighty power. It is, however, quite foreign to the custom of the Scriptures for the powers of irrational things to be designated as angels.

But since this seems to go against the teachings of Sacred Scripture, Rabbi Moses the Jew, wanting to reconcile both viewpoints, suggested that angels, as they are considered immaterial beings, are multiplied according to the number of heavenly movements or bodies, as Aristotle stated (Metaph. xi, text 43); meanwhile, he argued that in the Scriptures, even humans who deliver a divine message are referred to as angels; and furthermore, even the forces of nature, which demonstrate God's all-powerful nature. However, it is quite unusual in the Scriptures for the forces of non-rational things to be called angels.

Hence it must be said that the angels, even inasmuch as they are immaterial substances, exist in exceeding great number, far beyond all material multitude. This is what Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. xiv): "There are many blessed armies of the heavenly intelligences, surpassing the weak and limited reckoning of our material numbers." The reason whereof is this, because, since it is the perfection of the universe that God chiefly intends in the creation of things, the more perfect some things are, in so much greater an excess are they created by God. Now, as in bodies such excess is observed in regard to their magnitude, so in things incorporeal is it observed in regard to their multitude. We see, in fact, that incorruptible bodies, exceed corruptible bodies almost incomparably in magnitude; for the entire sphere of things active and passive is something very small in comparison with the heavenly bodies. Hence it is reasonable to conclude that the immaterial substances as it were incomparably exceed material substances as to multitude.

So it must be said that angels, even though they are immaterial beings, exist in an incredibly large number, far exceeding any material count. As Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. xiv): "There are many blessed armies of heavenly beings, surpassing our limited understanding of material numbers." The reason for this is that since God's main intention in creating things is to achieve the perfection of the universe, the more perfect something is, the greater its creation by God. Just as we observe this kind of excess in physical bodies regarding their size, we see it in immaterial beings concerning their numbers. In fact, incorruptible bodies are significantly larger than corruptible bodies; the entire sphere of active and passive things is tiny compared to heavenly bodies. Therefore, it makes sense to conclude that immaterial substances far exceed material substances in number.

Reply Obj. 1: In the angels number is not that of discrete quantity, brought about by division of what is continuous, but that which is caused by distinction of forms; according as multitude is reckoned among the transcendentals, as was said above (Q. 30, A. 3; Q. 11).

Reply Obj. 1: In angels, number isn’t a discrete quantity created by dividing something continuous, but rather it comes from the distinction of forms; just as multiplicity is considered among the transcendentals, as mentioned earlier (Q. 30, A. 3; Q. 11).

Reply Obj. 2: From the angelic nature being the nighest unto God, it must needs have least of multitude in its composition, but not so as to be found in few subjects.

Reply Obj. 2: Since the angelic nature is the closest to God, it must have the least number of parts in its composition, but that doesn’t mean it exists in only a few instances.

Reply Obj. 3: This is Aristotle's argument (Metaph. xii, text 44), and it would conclude necessarily if the separate substances were made for corporeal substances. For thus the immaterial substances would exist to no purpose, unless some movement from them were to appear in corporeal things. But it is not true that the immaterial substances exist on account of the corporeal, because the end is nobler than the means to the end. Hence Aristotle says (Metaph. xii, text 44) that this is not a necessary argument, but a probable one. He was forced to make use of this argument, since only through sensible things can we come to know intelligible ones.

Reply Obj. 3: This is Aristotle's argument (Metaph. xii, text 44), and it would necessarily follow if separate substances were created for physical substances. Because of this, immaterial substances would serve no purpose unless some influence from them was evident in physical things. However, it's not accurate to say that immaterial substances exist because of the physical, since the goal is more important than the means to achieve it. Thus, Aristotle states (Metaph. xii, text 44) that this is not a necessary argument, but a probable one. He needed to use this argument because we can only understand non-physical concepts through physical ones.

Reply Obj. 4: This argument comes from the opinion of such as hold that matter is the cause of the distinction of things; but this was refuted above (Q. 47, A. 1). Accordingly, the multiplication of the angels is not to be taken according to matter, nor according to bodies, but according to the divine wisdom devising the various orders of immaterial substances. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: This argument is based on the view of those who believe that matter is what distinguishes different things; however, this was already addressed earlier (Q. 47, A. 1). Therefore, the number of angels should not be understood in terms of matter or physical bodies, but rather according to divine wisdom creating the different orders of spiritual beings.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 50, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 50, Art. 4]

Whether the Angels Differ in Species?

Are Angels Different Species?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels do not differ in species. For since the "difference" is nobler than the 'genus,' all things which agree in what is noblest in them, agree likewise in their ultimate constitutive difference; and so they are the same according to species. But all angels agree in what is noblest in them—that is to say, in intellectuality. Therefore all the angels are of one species.

Objection 1: It seems that angels do not differ in species. Since "difference" is more important than "genus," all things that share the highest quality also share the same essential difference, meaning they belong to the same species. All angels share the same highest quality, which is intellectuality. Therefore, all angels are of one species.

Obj. 2: Further, more and less do not change a species. But the angels seem to differ only from one another according to more and less—namely, as one is simpler than another, and of keener intellect. Therefore the angels do not differ specifically.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, "more" and "less" do not alter a species. However, angels appear to vary only in terms of "more" and "less"—that is, one is simpler than another and has a sharper intellect. Therefore, the angels do not differ in species.

Obj. 3: Further, soul and angel are contra-distinguished mutually from each other. But all souls are of the one species. So therefore are the angels.

Obj. 3: Additionally, souls and angels are distinctly different from each other. However, all souls belong to the same species. The same applies to angels.

Obj. 4: Further, the more perfect a thing is in nature, the more ought it to be multiplied. But this would not be so if there were but one individual under one species. Therefore there are many angels of one species.

Obj. 4: Moreover, the more perfect something is in nature, the more it should be multiplied. But this wouldn’t be the case if there were only one individual of a species. Therefore, there are many angels of one species.

On the contrary, In things of one species there is no such thing as "first" and "second" [prius et posterius], as the Philosopher says (Metaph. iii, text 2). But in the angels even of the one order there are first, middle, and last, as Dionysius says (Hier. Ang. x). Therefore the angels are not of the same species.

On the contrary, in things of the same type, there isn’t a concept of "first" and "second," as the Philosopher states (Metaph. iii, text 2). However, among angels even within the same order, there are first, middle, and last, as Dionysius mentions (Hier. Ang. x). Therefore, the angels are not of the same type.

I answer that, Some have said that all spiritual substances, even souls, are of the one species. Others, again, that all the angels are of the one species, but not souls; while others allege that all the angels of one hierarchy, or even of one order, are of the one species.

I answer that, Some people have said that all spiritual beings, including souls, belong to the same category. Others claim that all angels are in the same category, but not souls; while some argue that all angels within a single hierarchy, or even within one order, belong to the same category.

But this is impossible. For such things as agree in species but differ in number, agree in form, but are distinguished materially. If, therefore, the angels be not composed of matter and form, as was said above (A. 2), it follows that it is impossible for two angels to be of one species; just as it would be impossible for there to be several whitenesses apart, or several humanities, since whitenesses are not several, except in so far as they are in several substances. And if the angels had matter, not even then could there be several angels of one species. For it would be necessary for matter to be the principle of distinction of one from the other, not, indeed, according to the division of quantity, since they are incorporeal, but according to the diversity of their powers; and such diversity of matter causes diversity not merely of species, but of genus.

But this is impossible. Things that are the same in kind but different in number share a similar form but are materially distinct. Therefore, if angels are not made of matter and form, as stated above (A. 2), it follows that it is impossible for two angels to belong to the same species; just like it would be impossible to have multiple whitenesses existing separately, or several instances of humanity, since whiteness exists separate only when it is in different substances. Even if angels had matter, there still couldn't be multiple angels of the same species. This is because matter would have to be the distinguishing factor between them, not based on physical size, since they are incorporeal, but rather based on the differences in their powers; and such differences in matter lead to distinctions not only in species but also in genus.

Reply Obj. 1: "Difference" is nobler than genus, as the determined is more noble than the undetermined, and the proper than the common, but not as one nature is nobler than another; otherwise it would be necessary that all irrational animals be of the same species; or that there should be in them some form which is higher than the sensible soul. Therefore irrational animals differ in species according to the various determined degrees of sensitive nature; and in like manner all the angels differ in species according to the diverse degrees of intellectual nature.

Reply Obj. 1: "Difference" is more noble than genus, just as the specific is more noble than the general, and the unique is more noble than the common, but not in a way that suggests one nature is inherently better than another; otherwise, all irrational animals would belong to the same species, or there would have to be some form in them that is superior to the sensitive soul. Therefore, irrational animals differ in species based on the various specific degrees of sensitive nature; similarly, all the angels differ in species according to the different degrees of intellectual nature.

Reply Obj. 2: More and less change the species, not according as they are caused by the intensity or remissness of one form, but according as they are caused by forms of diverse degrees; for instance, if we say that fire is more perfect than air: and in this way the angels are diversified according to more or less.

Reply Obj. 2: More and less change the species, not based on the intensity or weakness of one form, but according to the forms of different degrees; for example, if we say that fire is more perfect than air: and in this way, the angels are varied according to greater or lesser perfection.

Reply Obj. 3: The good of the species preponderates over the good of the individual. Hence it is much better for the species to be multiplied in the angels than for individuals to be multiplied in the one species.

Reply Obj. 3: The well-being of the species is more important than that of the individual. Therefore, it's far better for the species to increase among the angels than for individual beings to increase within a single species.

Reply Obj. 4: Numerical multiplication, since it can be drawn out infinitely, is not intended by the agent, but only specific multiplication, as was said above (Q. 47, A. 3). Hence the perfection of the angelic nature calls for the multiplying of species, but not for the multiplying of individuals in one species. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Because numerical multiplication can go on forever, it isn't what the agent intends, but rather a specific multiplication, as mentioned earlier (Q. 47, A. 3). Therefore, the perfection of the angelic nature requires the multiplication of species, but not the multiplication of individuals within one species.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 50, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 50, Art. 5]

Whether the Angels Are Incorruptible?

Are Angels Incorruptible?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels are not incorruptible; for Damascene, speaking of the angel, says (De Fide Orth. ii, 3) that he is "an intellectual substance, partaking of immortality by favor, and not by nature."

Objection 1: It seems that angels are not incorruptible; for Damascene, when discussing angels, states (De Fide Orth. ii, 3) that they are "intellectual substances, having immortality by grace, not by nature."

Obj. 2: Further, Plato says in the Timaeus: "O gods of gods, whose maker and father am I: You are indeed my works, dissoluble by nature, yet indissoluble because I so will it." But gods such as these can only be understood to be the angels. Therefore the angels are corruptible by their nature

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Plato says in the Timaeus: "O gods of gods, whose maker and father I am: You are indeed my creations, destructible by nature, yet unbreakable because I choose it." But gods like these can only be understood as angels. Therefore, angels are corruptible by their nature.

Obj. 3: Further, according to Gregory (Moral. xvi), "all things would tend towards nothing, unless the hand of the Almighty preserved them." But what can be brought to nothing is corruptible. Therefore, since the angels were made by God, it would appear that they are corruptible of their own nature.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, as Gregory (Moral. xvi) states, "everything would move towards nothingness if the hand of the Almighty didn’t keep them safe." But anything that can be reduced to nothing is corruptible. Therefore, since angels were created by God, it seems they are corruptible by their very nature.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that the intellectual substances "have unfailing life, being free from all corruption, death, matter, and generation."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that the intellectual substances "have everlasting life, being free from all corruption, death, matter, and creation."

I answer that, It must necessarily be maintained that the angels are incorruptible of their own nature. The reason for this is, that nothing is corrupted except by its form being separated from the matter. Hence, since an angel is a subsisting form, as is clear from what was said above (A. 2), it is impossible for its substance to be corruptible. For what belongs to anything considered in itself can never be separated from it; but what belongs to a thing, considered in relation to something else, can be separated, when that something else is taken away, in view of which it belonged to it. Roundness can never be taken from the circle, because it belongs to it of itself; but a bronze circle can lose roundness, if the bronze be deprived of its circular shape. Now to be belongs to a form considered in itself; for everything is an actual being according to its form: whereas matter is an actual being by the form. Consequently a subject composed of matter and form ceases to be actually when the form is separated from the matter. But if the form subsists in its own being, as happens in the angels, as was said above (A. 2), it cannot lose its being. Therefore, the angel's immateriality is the cause why it is incorruptible by its own nature.

I answer that, it must be established that angels are inherently incorruptible. The reason for this is that nothing becomes corrupted unless its form is separated from its matter. Since an angel is a distinct form, as mentioned above (A. 2), its substance cannot be corruptible. What belongs to something when considered on its own can never be separated from it; however, what pertains to a thing in relation to something else can be separated when that other thing is removed. Roundness can never be taken from a circle because it inherently belongs to it; but a bronze circle can lose its roundness if the bronze is no longer in a circular shape. Being exists as part of a form when considered in itself, because everything has actual existence according to its form, while matter has actual existence through the form. Therefore, a subject made up of matter and form ceases to exist when the form is separated from the matter. But if the form exists on its own, as happens with angels, as stated above (A. 2), it cannot lose its existence. Hence, the immaterial nature of angels is why they are incorruptible by their very nature.

A token of this incorruptibility can be gathered from its intellectual operation; for since everything acts according as it is actual, the operation of a thing indicates its mode of being. Now the species and nature of the operation is understood from the object. But an intelligible object, being above time, is everlasting. Hence every intellectual substance is incorruptible of its own nature.

A sign of this incorruptibility can be seen in its intellect; since everything operates according to its essence, the way something acts reflects its state of being. The type and nature of this action are understood from the object itself. However, an intelligible object, being beyond time, is eternal. Therefore, every intellectual substance is inherently incorruptible.

Reply Obj. 1: Damascene is dealing with perfect immortality, which includes complete immutability; since "every change is a kind of death," as Augustine says (Contra Maxim. iii). The angels obtain perfect immutability only by favor, as will appear later (Q. 62).

Reply Obj. 1: Damascene is talking about perfect immortality, which involves total unchangeability; since "every change is a type of death," as Augustine states (Contra Maxim. iii). The angels achieve perfect unchangeability only through grace, as will be explained later (Q. 62).

Reply Obj. 2: By the expression 'gods' Plato understands the heavenly bodies, which he supposed to be made up of elements, and therefore dissoluble of their own nature; yet they are for ever preserved in existence by the Divine will.

Reply Obj. 2: When Plato uses the term 'gods', he is referring to the heavenly bodies, which he believed were made up of elements and therefore capable of breaking down by their nature; however, they are constantly kept in existence by the Divine will.

Reply Obj. 3: As was observed above (Q. 44, A. 1) there is a kind of necessary thing which has a cause of its necessity. Hence it is not repugnant to a necessary or incorruptible being to depend for its existence on another as its cause. Therefore, when it is said that all things, even the angels, would lapse into nothing, unless preserved by God, it is not to be gathered therefrom that there is any principle of corruption in the angels; but that the nature of the angels is dependent upon God as its cause. For a thing is said to be corruptible not merely because God can reduce it to non-existence, by withdrawing His act of preservation; but also because it has some principle of corruption within itself, or some contrariety, or at least the potentiality of matter. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: As mentioned earlier (Q. 44, A. 1), there is a kind of necessary thing that has a reason for its necessity. Thus, it’s not contradictory for a necessary or unchanging being to rely on another as its cause for existence. Therefore, when we say that all things, including angels, would fade into nothing without God's preservation, it doesn't imply that there’s any principle of corruption within the angels. Instead, it means that the nature of the angels depends on God as their cause. A thing is considered corruptible not only because God can bring it to nonexistence by withdrawing His act of preservation, but also because it possesses some principle of corruption within itself, some opposition, or at least the potential for matter.

QUESTION 51

OF THE ANGELS IN COMPARISON WITH BODIES
(In Three Articles)

OF THE ANGELS IN COMPARISON WITH BODIES
(In Three Articles)

We next inquire about the angels in comparison with corporeal things; and in the first place about their comparison with bodies; secondly, of the angels in comparison with corporeal places; and, thirdly, of their comparison with local movement.

We will now look into angels in relation to physical things; first, we'll discuss their comparison with bodies; second, the relationship of angels to physical locations; and third, how they relate to local movement.

Under the first heading there are three points of inquiry:

Under the first heading, there are three key questions to consider:

(1) Whether angels have bodies naturally united to them?

(1) Do angels have bodies that are naturally connected to them?

(2) Whether they assume bodies?

Do they assume bodies?

(3) Whether they exercise functions of life in the bodies assumed? _______________________

(3) Do they perform life functions in the bodies they take on? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 51, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 51, Art. 1]

Whether the Angels Have Bodies Naturally United to Them?

Whether Angels Have Bodies Naturally United to Them?

Objection 1: It would seem that angels have bodies naturally united to them. For Origen says (Peri Archon i): "It is God's attribute alone—that is, it belongs to the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost, as a property of nature, that He is understood to exist without any material substance and without any companionship of corporeal addition." Bernard likewise says (Hom. vi. super Cant.): "Let us assign incorporeity to God alone even as we do immortality, whose nature alone, neither for its own sake nor on account of anything else, needs the help of any corporeal organ. But it is clear that every created spirit needs corporeal substance." Augustine also says (Gen. ad lit. iii): "The demons are called animals of the atmosphere because their nature is akin to that of aerial bodies." But the nature of demons and angels is the same. Therefore angels have bodies naturally united to them.

Objection 1: It seems that angels have bodies that are naturally connected to them. Origen states (Peri Archon i): "It is an attribute unique to God—that is, it applies to the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, as a property of nature, that He is understood to exist without any material substance and without any association with physical addition." Bernard also mentions (Hom. vi. super Cant.): "Let us assign incorporeality to God alone, just as we do with immortality, whose nature alone, for its own sake or because of anything else, doesn’t require the assistance of any physical organ. But it is clear that every created spirit requires physical substance." Augustine also notes (Gen. ad lit. iii): "The demons are called beings of the atmosphere because their nature is similar to that of aerial bodies." Since the nature of demons and angels is the same, it follows that angels have bodies naturally connected to them.

Obj. 2: Further, Gregory (Hom. x in Ev.) calls an angel a rational animal. But every animal is composed of body and soul. Therefore angels have bodies naturally united to them.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Gregory (Hom. x in Ev.) refers to an angel as a rational being. But every being has both a body and a soul. Therefore, angels must have bodies naturally connected to them.

Obj. 3: Further, life is more perfect in the angels than in souls. But the soul not only lives, but gives life to the body. Therefore the angels animate bodies which are naturally united to them.

Obj. 3: Additionally, life is more complete in angels than in souls. But the soul not only exists but also brings life to the body. Therefore, angels animate bodies that are naturally connected to them.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "the angels are understood to be incorporeal."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "angels are considered to be incorporeal."

I answer that, The angels have not bodies naturally united to them. For whatever belongs to any nature as an accident is not found universally in that nature; thus, for instance, to have wings, because it is not of the essence of an animal, does not belong to every animal. Now since to understand is not the act of a body, nor of any corporeal energy, as will be shown later (Q. 75, A. 2), it follows that to have a body united to it is not of the nature of an intellectual substance, as such; but it is accidental to some intellectual substance on account of something else. Even so it belongs to the human soul to be united to a body, because it is imperfect and exists potentially in the genus of intellectual substances, not having the fulness of knowledge in its own nature, but acquiring it from sensible things through the bodily senses, as will be explained later on (Q. 84, A. 6; Q. 89, A. 1). Now whenever we find something imperfect in any genus we must presuppose something perfect in that genus. Therefore in the intellectual nature there are some perfectly intellectual substances, which do not need to acquire knowledge from sensible things. Consequently not all intellectual substances are united to bodies; but some are quite separated from bodies, and these we call angels.

I respond that, angels do not have bodies that are naturally connected to them. Anything that is an accident of a nature is not found in every instance of that nature; for example, having wings does not belong to every animal because it is not essential to what an animal is. Since understanding is not an action of a body or any physical force, as will be shown later (Q. 75, A. 2), it follows that having a body connected to it is not part of the nature of an intellectual substance. Rather, it is incidental to some intellectual substances for other reasons. In contrast, it is part of the human soul's nature to be united with a body because it is imperfect and exists potentially within the category of intellectual substances, lacking complete knowledge in its own nature and gaining it from sensory experiences through the bodily senses, as will be explained later (Q. 84, A. 6; Q. 89, A. 1). Whenever we encounter something imperfect within any category, we must assume that something perfect exists within that category. Therefore, within the intellectual nature, there are perfectly intellectual substances that do not need to gain knowledge from sensory things. As a result, not all intellectual substances are connected to bodies; some are completely separate from bodies, and these are what we call angels.

Reply Obj. 1: As was said above (Q. 50, A. 1) it was the opinion of some that every being is a body; and consequently some seem to have thought that there were no incorporeal substances existing except as united to bodies; so much so that some even held that God was the soul of the world, as Augustine tells us (De Civ. Dei vii). As this is contrary to Catholic Faith, which asserts that God is exalted above all things, according to Ps. 8:2: "Thy magnificence is exalted beyond the heavens"; Origen, while refusing to say such a thing of God, followed the above opinion of others regarding the other substances; being deceived here as he was also in many other points, by following the opinions of the ancient philosophers. Bernard's expression can be explained, that the created spirit needs some bodily instrument, which is not naturally united to it, but assumed for some purpose, as will be explained (A. 2). Augustine speaks, not as asserting the fact, but merely using the opinion of the Platonists, who maintained that there are some aerial animals, which they termed demons.

Reply Obj. 1: As mentioned earlier (Q. 50, A. 1), some believed that every being is a body, leading some to think that there are no non-physical substances existing apart from bodies. So much so that some even claimed that God was the soul of the world, as Augustine points out (De Civ. Dei vii). This view contradicts the Catholic Faith, which teaches that God is above all things, as stated in Ps. 8:2: "Your magnificence is exalted beyond the heavens." Origen, while rejecting this idea about God, accepted the views of others regarding other substances, mistakenly following the opinions of ancient philosophers in many cases. Bernard's statement can be understood to mean that a created spirit requires a physical instrument that is not naturally united to it but is taken on for a specific purpose, as will be explained (A. 2). Augustine speaks not as if asserting a fact but simply referencing the opinion of the Platonists, who argued that there are some aerial beings they called demons.

Reply Obj. 2: Gregory calls the angel a rational animal metaphorically, on account of the likeness to the rational nature.

Reply Obj. 2: Gregory refers to the angel as a rational animal metaphorically, due to its similarity to rational nature.

Reply Obj. 3: To give life effectively is a perfection simply speaking; hence it belongs to God, as is said (1 Kings 2:6): "The Lord killeth, and maketh alive." But to give life formally belongs to a substance which is part of some nature, and which has not within itself the full nature of the species. Hence an intellectual substance which is not united to a body is more perfect than one which is united to a body. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: To give life effectively is a perfect act in itself; therefore, it belongs to God, as mentioned in (1 Kings 2:6): "The Lord kills and brings to life." However, to give life in a formal sense belongs to a being that is part of a certain nature and doesn't contain the full essence of the species within itself. Thus, an intellectual being that is not connected to a body is more perfect than one that is united with a body.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 51, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 51, Art. 2]

Whether Angels Assume Bodies?

Do angels take on bodies?

Objection 1: It would seem that angels do not assume bodies. For there is nothing superfluous in the work of an angel, as there is nothing of the kind in the work of nature. But it would be superfluous for the angels to assume bodies, because an angel has no need for a body, since his own power exceeds all bodily power. Therefore an angel does not assume a body.

Objection 1: It seems that angels do not take on bodies. There's nothing unnecessary in what an angel does, just like there's nothing unnecessary in nature's work. But it would be unnecessary for angels to take on bodies, because an angel doesn’t need a body, since its own power surpasses all physical power. Therefore, an angel does not take on a body.

Obj. 2: Further, every assumption is terminated in some union; because to assume implies a taking to oneself [ad se sumere]. But a body is not united to an angel as to a form, as stated (A. 1); while in so far as it is united to the angel as to a mover, it is not said to be assumed, otherwise it would follow that all bodies moved by the angels are assumed by them. Therefore the angels do not assume bodies.

Obj. 2: Also, every assumption ends in some kind of union; because to assume means to take to oneself. However, a body isn’t united to an angel as a form, as stated (A. 1); rather, as it is united to the angel as a mover, it isn’t considered assumed; otherwise, that would mean all bodies moved by angels are assumed by them. Therefore, angels do not assume bodies.

Obj. 3: Further, angels do not assume bodies from the earth or water, or they could not suddenly disappear; nor again from fire, otherwise they would burn whatever things they touched; nor again from air, because air is without shape or color. Therefore the angels do not assume bodies.

Obj. 3: Moreover, angels do not take on bodies from the earth or water, or they wouldn't be able to suddenly disappear; nor do they take on bodies from fire, or else they would ignite whatever they touched; nor do they take on bodies from air, because air has no shape or color. Therefore, angels do not take on bodies.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xvi) that angels appeared to Abraham under assumed bodies.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xvi) that angels appeared to Abraham in disguised forms.

I answer that, Some have maintained that the angels never assume bodies, but that all that we read in Scripture of apparitions of angels happened in prophetic vision—that is, according to imagination. But this is contrary to the intent of Scripture; for whatever is beheld in imaginary vision is only in the beholder's imagination, and consequently is not seen by everybody. Yet Divine Scripture from time to time introduces angels so apparent as to be seen commonly by all; just as the angels who appeared to Abraham were seen by him and by his whole family, by Lot, and by the citizens of Sodom; in like manner the angel who appeared to Tobias was seen by all present. From all this it is clearly shown that such apparitions were beheld by bodily vision, whereby the object seen exists outside the person beholding it, and can accordingly be seen by all. Now by such a vision only a body can be beheld. Consequently, since the angels are not bodies, nor have they bodies naturally united with them, as is clear from what has been said (A. 1; Q. 50, A. 1), it follows that they sometimes assume bodies.

I answer that, Some people believe that angels never take on physical forms, claiming that all the descriptions of angelic appearances in Scripture are just visions seen through imagination. However, this goes against the purpose of Scripture. Anything seen in an imagined vision exists only in the mind of the person experiencing it and isn't seen by everyone. Yet, Divine Scripture often introduces angels in such a way that they are visibly seen by many; for example, the angels who appeared to Abraham were seen by him, his entire family, Lot, and the people of Sodom. Similarly, the angel who appeared to Tobias was visible to everyone present. This clearly shows that these appearances were witnessed through physical sight, meaning the object seen existed outside of the person observing it and could therefore be seen by all. Such vision can only be of a physical body. Therefore, since angels are not physical bodies and do not naturally have bodies connected to them, as is clear from previous explanations (A. 1; Q. 50, A. 1), it can be concluded that they sometimes take on physical forms.

Reply Obj. 1: Angels need an assumed body, not for themselves, but on our account; that by conversing familiarly with men they may give evidence of that intellectual companionship which men expect to have with them in the life to come. Moreover that angels assumed bodies under the Old Law was a figurative indication that the Word of God would take a human body; because all the apparitions in the Old Testament were ordained to that one whereby the Son of God appeared in the flesh.

Reply Obj. 1: Angels need to take on a body, not for their own sake, but for ours; so that by interacting with humans, they can show the kind of intellectual bond that people hope to have with them in the afterlife. Additionally, the fact that angels took on bodies in the Old Testament symbolically indicated that the Word of God would take on a human body; because all the appearances in the Old Testament were meant to prepare for the one where the Son of God appeared in the flesh.

Reply Obj. 2: The body assumed is united to the angel not as its form, nor merely as its mover, but as its mover represented by the assumed movable body. For as in the Sacred Scripture the properties of intelligible things are set forth by the likenesses of things sensible, in the same way by Divine power sensible bodies are so fashioned by angels as fittingly to represent the intelligible properties of an angel. And this is what we mean by an angel assuming a body.

Reply Obj. 2: The body that is taken on is connected to the angel not as its essence, nor just as its mover, but as its mover represented through the body that has been taken on. Just as in the Holy Scriptures the characteristics of abstract concepts are illustrated through tangible things, in the same way, by divine power, angels shape physical bodies to appropriately reflect the abstract qualities of an angel. And this is what we mean when we say an angel takes on a body.

Reply Obj. 3: Although air as long as it is in a state of rarefaction has neither shape nor color, yet when condensed it can both be shaped and colored as appears in the clouds. Even so the angels assume bodies of air, condensing it by the Divine power in so far as is needful for forming the assumed body. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Even though air lacks shape and color when it's in a rarefied state, it can be shaped and colored when it's condensed, as seen in clouds. Similarly, angels take on bodies made of air, condensing it by Divine power as needed to form the body they assume.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 51, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 51, Art. 3]

Whether the Angels Exercise Functions of Life in the Bodies Assumed?

Whether the Angels Perform Life Functions in the Bodies They Take On?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels exercise functions of life in assumed bodies. For pretence is unbecoming in angels of truth. But it would be pretence if the body assumed by them, which seems to live and to exercise vital functions, did not possess these functions. Therefore the angels exercise functions of life in the assumed body.

Objection 1: It seems that angels perform life functions in the bodies they take on. Pretending is inappropriate for angels of truth. But it would be pretending if the body they take on, which appears to live and perform vital functions, did not actually have those functions. Therefore, angels perform life functions in the bodies they take on.

Obj. 2: Further, in the works of the angels there is nothing without a purpose. But eyes, nostrils, and the other instruments of the senses, would be fashioned without a purpose in the body assumed by the angel, if he perceived nothing by their means. Consequently, the angel perceives by the assumed body; and this is the most special function of life.

Obj. 2: Also, in the actions of angels, everything has a purpose. However, if the angel can’t perceive anything through their eyes, nostrils, and other sensory organs, then these body parts would be made without a reason. Therefore, the angel does perceive through the body they take on, and this is the most unique aspect of being alive.

Obj. 3: Further, to move hither and thither is one of the functions of life, as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii). But the angels are manifestly seen to move in their assumed bodies. For it was said (Gen. 18:16) that "Abraham walked with" the angels, who had appeared to him, "bringing them on the way"; and when Tobias said to the angel (Tob. 5:7, 8): "Knowest thou the way that leadeth to the city of Medes?" he answered: "I know it; and I have often walked through all the ways thereof." Therefore the angels often exercise functions of life in assumed bodies.

Obj. 3: Additionally, moving here and there is a basic function of life, as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii). But angels are clearly seen to move in the bodies they take on. It was stated (Gen. 18:16) that "Abraham walked with" the angels who appeared to him, "guiding them along the way"; and when Tobias asked the angel (Tob. 5:7, 8): "Do you know the way to the city of the Medes?" he replied: "I know it; I have often walked through all its paths." So, angels frequently perform functions of life in the bodies they assume.

Obj. 4: Further, speech is the function of a living subject, for it is produced by the voice, while the voice itself is a sound conveyed from the mouth. But it is evident from many passages of Sacred Scripture that angels spoke in assumed bodies. Therefore in their assumed bodies they exercise functions of life.

Obj. 4: Also, speech is a function of a living being, as it is produced by the voice, which is a sound made from the mouth. However, it's clear from many parts of the Bible that angels spoke while taking on physical forms. So, in their physical forms, they carry out functions of life.

Obj. 5: Further, eating is a purely animal function. Hence the Lord after His Resurrection ate with His disciples in proof of having resumed life (Luke 24). Now when angels appeared in their assumed bodies they ate, and Abraham offered them food, after having previously adored them as God (Gen. 18). Therefore the angels exercise functions of life in assumed bodies.

Obj. 5: Also, eating is a basic animal function. So, after His Resurrection, the Lord ate with His disciples to show that He had truly come back to life (Luke 24). When angels appeared in their taken-on bodies, they also ate, and Abraham offered them food after he had worshipped them as God (Gen. 18). Therefore, angels perform functions of life in these taken-on bodies.

Obj. 6: Further, to beget offspring is a vital act. But this has befallen the angels in their assumed bodies; for it is related: "After the sons of God went in to the daughters of men, and they brought forth children, these are the mighty men of old, men of renown" (Gen. 6:4). Consequently the angels exercised vital functions in their assumed bodies.

Obj. 6: Additionally, having children is an essential act. But this has happened to the angels in their assumed bodies; as it is said: "After the sons of God married the daughters of men, they had children, who were the mighty men of old, men of renown" (Gen. 6:4). Therefore, the angels carried out essential functions in their assumed bodies.

On the contrary, The bodies assumed by angels have no life, as was stated in the previous article (ad 3). Therefore they cannot exercise functions of life through assumed bodies.

On the contrary, The bodies taken on by angels have no life, as mentioned in the previous article (ad 3). Therefore, they cannot perform functions of life through these assumed bodies.

I answer that, Some functions of living subjects have something in common with other operations; just as speech, which is the function of a living creature, agrees with other sounds of inanimate things, in so far as it is sound; and walking agrees with other movements, in so far as it is movement. Consequently vital functions can be performed in assumed bodies by the angels, as to that which is common in such operations; but not as to that which is special to living subjects; because, according to the Philosopher (De Somn. et Vig. i), "that which has the faculty has the action." Hence nothing can have a function of life except what has life, which is the potential principle of such action.

I answer that, Some functions of living beings are similar to other actions; just like speech, which is a function of a living creature, is similar to the sounds made by inanimate objects, in that it is sound; and walking is similar to other movements, in that it is movement. Therefore, vital functions can be carried out in imagined bodies by angels, concerning what is common in such actions; but not in relation to what is specific to living beings; because, as the Philosopher states (De Somn. et Vig. i), "that which has the faculty has the action." Thus, nothing can have a life function except for what has life, which is the potential principle of such action.

Reply Obj. 1: As it is in no wise contrary to truth for intelligible things to be set forth in Scripture under sensible figures, since it is not said for the purpose of maintaining that intelligible things are sensible, but in order that properties of intelligible things may be understood according to similitude through sensible figures; so it is not contrary to the truth of the holy angels that through their assumed bodies they appear to be living men, although they are really not. For the bodies are assumed merely for this purpose, that the spiritual properties and works of the angels may be manifested by the properties of man and of his works. This could not so fittingly be done if they were to assume true men; because the properties of such men would lead us to men, and not to angels.

Reply Obj. 1: It is not at all against the truth for understandable things to be presented in Scripture using physical images. This is not to suggest that understandable things are physical, but rather to help us grasp the qualities of these things through relatable images. Similarly, it doesn’t contradict the truth about holy angels that they appear as living men through bodies they take on, even though they aren’t truly human. The bodies are taken on solely to show the spiritual nature and actions of angels in terms that relate to human qualities and actions. This wouldn’t be as effective if they took on actual human beings, because the characteristics of those humans would direct us toward humanity, not angelhood.

Reply Obj. 2: Sensation is entirely a vital function. Consequently it can in no way be said that the angels perceive through the organs of their assumed bodies. Yet such bodies are not fashioned in vain; for they are not fashioned for the purpose of sensation through them, but to this end, that by such bodily organs the spiritual powers of the angels may be made manifest; just as by the eye the power of the angel's knowledge is pointed out, and other powers by the other members, as Dionysius teaches (Coel. Hier.).

Reply Obj. 2: Sensation is purely a vital function. Therefore, it can't be argued that angels perceive through the organs of their assumed bodies. However, these bodies are not created without purpose; rather, they are intended not for sensation but to make the angels' spiritual powers visible. For example, the eye represents the angel's knowledge, and the other organs highlight different powers, as Dionysius explains (Coel. Hier.).

Reply Obj. 3: Movement coming from a united mover is a proper function of life; but the bodies assumed by the angels are not thus moved, since the angels are not their forms. Yet the angels are moved accidentally, when such bodies are moved, since they are in them as movers are in the moved; and they are here in such a way as not to be elsewhere, which cannot be said of God. Accordingly, although God is not moved when the things are moved in which He exists, since He is everywhere; yet the angels are moved accidentally according to the movement of the bodies assumed. But they are not moved according to the movement of the heavenly bodies, even though they be in them as the movers in the thing moved, because the heavenly bodies do not change place in their entirety; nor for the spirit which moves the world is there any fixed locality according to any restricted part of the world's substance, which now is in the east, and now in the west, but according to a fixed quarter; because "the moving energy is always in the east," as stated in Phys. viii, text 84.

Reply Obj. 3: Movement that comes from a unified mover is a true aspect of life; however, the bodies taken on by angels are not moved in this way since the angels are not their forms. Nevertheless, angels are affected by movement when those bodies are moved, as they exist within them like movers do in what is being moved; and they are in such a way that they can’t be elsewhere, which is not true for God. Therefore, while God is not moved when the things in which He exists are moved, since He is everywhere; angels are moved incidentally according to the movement of the bodies they take on. However, they are not moved based on the movement of heavenly bodies, even though they exist in them like movers in the moved, because heavenly bodies do not entirely change position; nor does the spirit that moves the world have any fixed location according to any specific part of the world's substance, which might be in the east one moment and in the west the next, but rather according to a defined direction; because "the moving energy is always in the east," as stated in Phys. viii, text 84.

Reply Obj. 4: Properly speaking, the angels do not talk through their assumed bodies; yet there is a semblance of speech, in so far as they fashion sounds in the air like to human voices.

Reply Obj. 4: Technically, angels don’t speak through the bodies they take on; however, they do create sounds in the air that resemble human voices.

Reply Obj. 5: Properly speaking, the angels cannot be said to eat, because eating involves the taking of food convertible into the substance of the eater.

Reply Obj. 5: Technically, angels can't be said to eat, because eating means taking in food that can be transformed into the eater's substance.

Although after the Resurrection food was not converted into the substance of Christ's body, but resolved into pre-existing matter; nevertheless Christ had a body of such a true nature that food could be changed into it; hence it was a true eating. But the food taken by angels was neither changed into the assumed body, nor was the body of such a nature that food could be changed into it; consequently, it was not a true eating, but figurative of spiritual eating. This is what the angel said to Tobias: "When I was with you, I seemed indeed to eat and to drink; but I use an invisible meat and drink" (Tob. 12:19).

Although after the Resurrection food didn’t become part of Christ's body but instead returned to its original matter; nonetheless, Christ had a body of such true nature that food could be transformed into it; thus, it was a genuine eating. However, the food that angels consumed wasn’t transformed into the assumed body, nor was that body made in such a way that food could be changed into it; therefore, it wasn’t a real eating, but rather a symbol of spiritual eating. This is what the angel said to Tobias: "When I was with you, I seemed indeed to eat and to drink; but I use an invisible food and drink" (Tob. 12:19).

Abraham offered them food, deeming them to be men, in whom, nevertheless, he worshipped God, as God is wont to be in the prophets, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xvi).

Abraham offered them food, considering them to be men, in whom, however, he worshipped God, as God is known to be in the prophets, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xvi).

Reply Obj. 6: As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xv): "Many persons affirm that they have had the experience, or have heard from such as have experienced it, that the Satyrs and Fauns, whom the common folk call incubi, have often presented themselves before women, and have sought and procured intercourse with them. Hence it is folly to deny it. But God's holy angels could not fall in such fashion before the deluge. Hence by the sons of God are to be understood the sons of Seth, who were good; while by the daughters of men the Scripture designates those who sprang from the race of Cain. Nor is it to be wondered at that giants should be born of them; for they were not all giants, albeit there were many more before than after the deluge." Still if some are occasionally begotten from demons, it is not from the seed of such demons, nor from their assumed bodies, but from the seed of men taken for the purpose; as when the demon assumes first the form of a woman, and afterwards of a man; just as they take the seed of other things for other generating purposes, as Augustine says (De Trin. iii), so that the person born is not the child of a demon, but of a man. _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xv): "Many people claim they have experienced, or have heard from those who have, that the Satyrs and Fauns, which the common folk call incubi, have often appeared before women and sought to have relations with them. So, it’s foolish to deny this. But God's holy angels could not fall in that way before the flood. Therefore, the sons of God refer to the sons of Seth, who were good; while the daughters of men are those who came from the line of Cain. It’s not surprising that giants were born from them; they weren't all giants, but there were many more before the flood than after it." Still, if some are occasionally born from demons, it is not from the seed of those demons or from their assumed bodies, but from the seed of men intended for that purpose; as when a demon first takes on the form of a woman and then of a man; just as they take the seed of other beings for other generating purposes, as Augustine states (De Trin. iii), so that the person born is not the child of a demon, but of a man.

QUESTION 52

OF THE ANGELS IN RELATION TO PLACE
(In Three Articles)

OF THE ANGELS IN RELATION TO PLACE
(In Three Articles)

We now inquire into the place of the angels. Touching this there are three subjects of inquiry:

We now look into the role of the angels. Regarding this, there are three topics to explore:

(1) Is the angel in a place?

(1) Is the angel in a location?

(2) Can he be in several places at once?

(2) Can he be in multiple places at the same time?

(3) Can several angels be in the same place? _______________________

(3) Can multiple angels be in the same location? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 52, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 52, Art. 1]

Whether an Angel Is in a Place?

Whether an angel is present in a place?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel is not in a place. For Boethius says (De Hebdom.): "The common opinion of the learned is that things incorporeal are not in a place." And again, Aristotle observes (Phys. iv, text 48,57) that "it is not everything existing which is in a place, but only a movable body." But an angel is not a body, as was shown above (Q. 50). Therefore an angel is not in a place.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel isn't in a specific location. Boethius states (De Hebdom.): "Most scholars agree that incorporeal things are not in a place." Additionally, Aristotle points out (Phys. iv, text 48,57) that "not everything that exists is in a place, but only movable bodies." Since an angel is not a body, as was explained earlier (Q. 50), it follows that an angel is not in a place.

Obj. 2: Further, place is a "quantity having position." But everything which is in a place has some position. Now to have a position cannot befit an angel, since his substance is devoid of quantity, the proper difference of which is to have a position. Therefore an angel is not in a place.

Obj. 2: Additionally, a place is a "quantity having position." But everything that occupies a place has some position. Now, to have a position cannot apply to an angel, since his essence lacks quantity, which is fundamentally defined by having a position. Therefore, an angel is not in a place.

Obj. 3: Further, to be in a place is to be measured and to be contained by such place, as is evident from the Philosopher (Phys. iv, text 14,119). But an angel can neither be measured nor contained by a place, because the container is more formal than the contained; as air with regard to water (Phys. iv, text 35,49). Therefore an angel is not in a place.

Obj. 3: Additionally, being in a place means being measured and contained by that place, as the Philosopher points out (Phys. iv, text 14,119). However, an angel cannot be measured or contained by a place, because the container is more substantial than what it contains; like air in relation to water (Phys. iv, text 35,49). Therefore, an angel is not in a place.

On the contrary, It is said in the Collect [*Prayer at Compline, Dominican Breviary]: "Let Thy holy angels who dwell herein, keep us in peace."

On the contrary, it is stated in the Collect [*Prayer at Compline, Dominican Breviary]: "Let Your holy angels who live here keep us in peace."

I answer that, It is befitting an angel to be in a place; yet an angel and a body are said to be in a place in quite a different sense. A body is said to be in a place in such a way that it is applied to such place according to the contact of dimensive quantity; but there is no such quantity in the angels, for theirs is a virtual one. Consequently an angel is said to be in a corporeal place by application of the angelic power in any manner whatever to any place.

I respond that, It's appropriate for an angel to be in a place; however, an angel and a body occupy a place in very different ways. A body is said to be in a place based on its physical presence and dimensions; but angels don't have physical dimensions, as their presence is virtual. Therefore, an angel is said to be in a physical location by applying its angelic power to that place in any way.

Accordingly there is no need for saying that an angel can be deemed commensurate with a place, or that he occupies a space in the continuous; for this is proper to a located body which is endowed with dimensive quantity. In similar fashion it is not necessary on this account for the angel to be contained by a place; because an incorporeal substance virtually contains the thing with which it comes into contact, and is not contained by it: for the soul is in the body as containing it, not as contained by it. In the same way an angel is said to be in a place which is corporeal, not as the thing contained, but as somehow containing it.

There’s really no need to say that an angel can be considered as fitting into a specific place or that it takes up space in a physical sense; that’s something only a physical body with measurable size can do. Similarly, it’s not necessary to say that an angel is confined to a location; because an incorporeal substance essentially contains what it comes into contact with, but isn’t contained by it. Just like the soul is in the body as a containing entity, not as something that’s contained. In the same way, an angel is described as being in a physical place, not as something contained, but as somehow containing it.

And hereby we have the answers to the objections. _______________________

And here we have the answers to the objections.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 52, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 52, Art. 2]

Whether an Angel Can Be in Several Places at Once?

Whether an angel can be in multiple places at the same time?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel can be in several places at once. For an angel is not less endowed with power than the soul. But the soul is in several places at once, for it is entirely in every part of the body, as Augustine says (De Trin. vi). Therefore an angel can be in several places at once.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel can be in multiple places at the same time. An angel has just as much power as the soul. But the soul is in several places at once, since it is completely present in every part of the body, as Augustine states (De Trin. vi). Therefore, an angel can also be in several places at once.

Obj. 2: Further, an angel is in the body which he assumes; and, since the body which he assumes is continuous, it would appear that he is in every part thereof. But according to the various parts there are various places. Therefore the angel is at one time in various places.

Obj. 2: Additionally, an angel exists in the body that he takes on; and since the body he assumes is continuous, it seems that he is in every part of it. However, according to the different parts, there are different locations. Therefore, the angel is in multiple places at once.

Obj. 3: Further, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii) that "where the angel operates, there he is." But occasionally he operates in several places at one time, as is evident from the angel destroying Sodom (Gen. 19:25). Therefore an angel can be in several places at the one time.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, Damascene states (De Fide Orth. ii) that "where the angel acts, there he is." However, sometimes he acts in multiple places at once, as shown by the angel who destroyed Sodom (Gen. 19:25). Therefore, an angel can be in several places at the same time.

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii) that "while the angels are in heaven, they are not on earth."

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii) that "while the angels are in heaven, they are not on earth."

I answer that, An angel's power and nature are finite, whereas the Divine power and essence, which is the universal cause of all things, is infinite: consequently God through His power touches all things, and is not merely present in some places, but is everywhere. Now since the angel's power is finite, it does not extend to all things, but to one determined thing. For whatever is compared with one power must be compared therewith as one determined thing. Consequently since all being is compared as one thing to God's universal power, so is one particular being compared as one with the angelic power. Hence, since the angel is in a place by the application of his power to the place, it follows that he is not everywhere, nor in several places, but in only one place.

I respond that, an angel's power and nature are limited, while God's power and essence, which is the ultimate cause of everything, are limitless: therefore, God affects all things through His power and is not just present in certain locations, but is everywhere. Since an angel's power is limited, it doesn't cover everything, but only one specific thing. Anything compared to one power must be considered as one specific thing. Therefore, since all existence is viewed as one thing in relation to God's universal power, a specific being is viewed as one in relation to angelic power. Thus, because an angel exists in a place by applying his power to that place, it follows that he is not everywhere or in multiple places, but only in one location.

Some, however, have been deceived in this matter. For some who were unable to go beyond the reach of their imaginations supposed the indivisibility of the angel to be like that of a point; consequently they thought that an angel could be only in a place which is a point. But they were manifestly deceived, because a point is something indivisible, yet having its situation; whereas the angel is indivisible, and beyond the genus of quantity and situation. Consequently there is no occasion for determining in his regard one indivisible place as to situation: any place which is either divisible or indivisible, great or small suffices, according as to his own free-will he applies his power to a great or to a small body. So the entire body to which he is applied by his power, corresponds as one place to him.

Some people, however, have been misled on this issue. Some, who couldn't see beyond their imagination, thought that the angel's indivisibility was like that of a point; therefore, they believed that an angel could only exist in a location that is a point. But they were clearly mistaken because a point is indivisible and has a specific location, while an angel is indivisible and exists beyond the categories of size and location. As a result, there’s no need to identify one specific place for an angel: any location, whether divisible or indivisible, large or small, is sufficient, depending on how he chooses to exert his power over a larger or smaller body. Thus, the entire body to which he applies his power is considered as one place for him.

Neither, if any angel moves the heavens, is it necessary for him to be everywhere. First of all, because his power is applied only to what is first moved by him. Now there is one part of the heavens in which there is movement first of all, namely, the part to the east: hence the Philosopher (Phys. vii, text 84) attributes the power of the heavenly mover to the part which is in the east. Secondly, because philosophers do not hold that one separate substance moves all the spheres immediately. Hence it need not be everywhere.

Neither, if any angel moves the heavens, does he need to be everywhere. First of all, because his power is only applied to what is initially moved by him. There is one section of the heavens where the movement starts, specifically, the eastern part: that's why the Philosopher (Phys. vii, text 84) assigns the power of the heavenly mover to the eastern part. Secondly, philosophers do not believe that one separate substance moves all the spheres directly. Therefore, he doesn’t have to be everywhere.

So, then, it is evident that to be in a place appertains quite differently to a body, to an angel, and to God. For a body is in a place in a circumscribed fashion, since it is measured by the place. An angel, however, is not there in a circumscribed fashion, since he is not measured by the place, but definitively, because he is in a place in such a manner that he is not in another. But God is neither circumscriptively nor definitively there, because He is everywhere.

So, it's clear that being in a place means something different for a body, an angel, and God. A body occupies a place in a defined way, as it is confined by that space. An angel, on the other hand, isn’t in a place in a confined way, since it isn’t limited by the space, but rather in a specific way that keeps it from being in another place. However, God isn’t limited or defined in any location, because He is everywhere.

From this we can easily gather an answer to the objections: because the entire subject to which the angelic power is immediately applied, is reputed as one place, even though it be continuous. _______________________

From this, we can easily find answers to the objections: because the whole subject to which the angelic power is directly applied is considered as one location, even though it is continuous.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 52, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 52, Art. 3]

Whether Several Angels Can Be at the Same Time in the Same Place?

Whether several angels can be in the same place at the same time?

Objection 1: It would seem that several angels can be at the same time in the same place. For several bodies cannot be at the same time in the same place, because they fill the place. But the angels do not fill a place, because only a body fills a place, so that it be not empty, as appears from the Philosopher (Phys. iv, text 52,58). Therefore several angels can be in the one place.

Objection 1: It seems that multiple angels can be in the same place at the same time. Several physical objects can't occupy the same space simultaneously because they take up space. However, angels don't take up space since only physical bodies do, which means that a space isn't empty only when filled by a body, as stated by the Philosopher (Phys. iv, text 52,58). Therefore, multiple angels can be in one place.

Obj. 2: Further, there is a greater difference between an angel and a body than there is between two angels. But an angel and a body are at the one time in the one place: because there is no place which is not filled with a sensible body, as we find proved in Phys. iv, text. 58. Much more, then, can two angels be in the same place.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the difference between an angel and a body is greater than the difference between two angels. However, an angel and a body can both be present in the same place at the same time, since there is no place that isn't occupied by a physical body, as we see demonstrated in Phys. iv, text. 58. Therefore, it makes even more sense that two angels can be in the same place.

Obj. 3: Further, the soul is in every part of the body, according to Augustine (De Trin. vi). But demons, although they do not obsess souls, do obsess bodies occasionally; and thus the soul and the demon are at the one time in the same place; and consequently for the same reason all other spiritual substances.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the soul exists in every part of the body, as Augustine states (De Trin. vi). However, while demons do not obsess souls, they do sometimes obsess bodies; thus, the soul and the demon can both be present in the same place at the same time. For the same reason, this also applies to all other spiritual substances.

On the contrary, There are not two souls in the same body. Therefore for a like reason there are not two angels in the same place.

On the contrary, There are not two souls in the same body. Therefore, for a similar reason, there are not two angels in the same place.

I answer that, There are not two angels in the same place. The reason of this is because it is impossible for two complete causes to be the causes immediately of one and the same thing. This is evident in every class of causes: for there is one proximate form of one thing, and there is one proximate mover, although there may be several remote movers. Nor can it be objected that several individuals may row a boat, since no one of them is a perfect mover, because no one man's strength is sufficient for moving the boat; while all together are as one mover, in so far as their united strengths all combine in producing the one movement. Hence, since the angel is said to be in one place by the fact that his power touches the place immediately by way of a perfect container, as was said (A. 1), there can be but one angel in one place.

I respond that, there cannot be two angels in the same location. The reason for this is that it’s impossible for two complete causes to directly cause the same thing. This is clear across all types of causes: there is one immediate form of one thing, and there is one immediate mover, even though there may be multiple distant movers. It cannot be argued that several individuals can row a boat, since none of them individually is a perfect mover; no one person's strength is strong enough to move the boat alone; however, together they function as one mover, in the sense that their combined strengths create a single movement. Therefore, since an angel is said to be in one place by the fact that its power directly affects that place as a perfect container, as previously mentioned (A. 1), there can only be one angel in one location.

Reply Obj. 1: Several angels are not hindered from being in the same place because of their filling the place; but for another reason, as has been said.

Reply Obj. 1: Several angels can occupy the same space without being limited by it; instead, there is another reason, as mentioned earlier.

Reply Obj. 2: An angel and a body are not in a place in the same way; hence the conclusion does not follow.

Reply Obj. 2: An angel and a body occupy space differently; therefore, the conclusion doesn't hold.

Reply Obj. 3: Not even a demon and a soul are compared to a body according to the same relation of causality; since the soul is its form, while the demon is not. Hence the inference does not follow. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: A demon and a soul aren't comparable to a body in the same way regarding causality; the soul is its form, but the demon is not. Therefore, the conclusion doesn't follow.

QUESTION 53

OF THE LOCAL MOVEMENT OF THE ANGELS
(In Three Articles)

OF THE LOCAL MOVEMENT OF THE ANGELS
(In Three Articles)

We must next consider the local movement of the angels; under which heading there are three points of inquiry:

We should now look at how angels move locally, which involves three key questions:

(1) Whether an angel can be moved locally.

(1) Can an angel be physically moved?

(2) Whether in passing from place to place he passes through intervening space?

(2) Does he move through the space between places as he goes from one to another?

(3) Whether the angel's movement is in time or instantaneous? _______________________

(3) Is the angel's movement happening over time or all at once? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 53, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 53, Art. 1]

Whether an Angel Can Be Moved Locally?

Whether an angel can be moved locally?

Objection 1: It seems that an angel cannot be moved locally. For, as the Philosopher proves (Phys. vi, text 32, 86) "nothing which is devoid of parts is moved"; because, while it is in the term wherefrom, it is not moved; nor while it is in the term whereto, for it is then already moved; consequently it remains that everything which is moved, while it is being moved, is partly in the term wherefrom and partly in the term whereto. But an angel is without parts. Therefore an angel cannot be moved locally.

Objection 1: It appears that an angel cannot be moved in space. The Philosopher argues (Phys. vi, text 32, 86) that "nothing which is without parts can be moved"; because, while it is in the state of wherefrom, it is not in motion; nor while it is in the state of whereto, since it is already in motion then; therefore, it follows that everything that is moving, while in motion, exists partly in the state of wherefrom and partly in the state of whereto. However, an angel is without parts. Thus, an angel cannot be moved in space.

Obj. 2: Further, movement is "the act of an imperfect being," as the Philosopher says (Phys. iii, text 14). But a beatified angel is not imperfect. Consequently a beatified angel is not moved locally.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, movement is "the act of an imperfect being," as the Philosopher states (Phys. iii, text 14). But a beatified angel is not imperfect. Therefore, a beatified angel is not moved locally.

Obj. 3: Further, movement is simply because of want. But the holy angels have no want. Therefore the holy angels are not moved locally.

Obj. 3: Additionally, movement occurs solely due to desire. However, the holy angels lack desire. Therefore, the holy angels do not move in a physical sense.

On the contrary, It is the same thing for a beatified angel to be moved as for a beatified soul to be moved. But it must necessarily be said that a blessed soul is moved locally, because it is an article of faith that Christ's soul descended into Hell. Therefore a beatified angel is moved locally.

On the contrary, it's the same for a beatified angel to be moved as it is for a beatified soul to be moved. However, it must be stated that a blessed soul is moved locally, because it's a matter of faith that Christ's soul descended into Hell. Therefore, a beatified angel is moved locally.

I answer that, A beatified angel can be moved locally. As, however, to be in a place belongs equivocally to a body and to an angel, so likewise does local movement. For a body is in a place in so far as it is contained under the place, and is commensurate with the place. Hence it is necessary for local movement of a body to be commensurate with the place, and according to its exigency. Hence it is that the continuity of movement is according to the continuity of magnitude; and according to priority and posteriority of local movement, as the Philosopher says (Phys. iv, text 99). But an angel is not in a place as commensurate and contained, but rather as containing it. Hence it is not necessary for the local movement of an angel to be commensurate with the place, nor for it to be according to the exigency of the place, so as to have continuity therefrom; but it is a non-continuous movement. For since the angel is in a place only by virtual contact, as was said above (Q. 52, A. 1), it follows necessarily that the movement of an angel in a place is nothing else than the various contacts of various places successively, and not at once; because an angel cannot be in several places at one time, as was said above (Q. 52, A. 2). Nor is it necessary for these contacts to be continuous. Nevertheless a certain kind of continuity can be found in such contacts. Because, as was said above (Q. 52, A. 1), there is nothing to hinder us from assigning a divisible place to an angel according to virtual contact; just as a divisible place is assigned to a body by contact of magnitude. Hence as a body successively, and not all at once, quits the place in which it was before, and thence arises continuity in its local movement; so likewise an angel can successively quit the divisible place in which he was before, and so his movement will be continuous. And he can all at once quit the whole place, and in the same instant apply himself to the whole of another place, and thus his movement will not be continuous.

I respond that, A blessed angel can move from one location to another. However, just as being in a place applies differently to a physical body and to an angel, so does local movement. A body occupies a space in the sense that it is contained within that space and is comparable to it. Therefore, for a body to move locally, it has to be suitable for the space it occupies and according to its requirements. This is why the continuity of movement depends on the continuity of size and the order of local movement, as the Philosopher states (Phys. iv, text 99). An angel, on the other hand, does not occupy a space as being contained and comparable, but rather as containing it. Therefore, an angel's local movement doesn't need to align with the space or its requirements to maintain continuity; instead, it involves non-continuous movement. Since an angel occupies a place only through virtual contact, as mentioned earlier (Q. 52, A. 1), it follows that an angel's movement within a place consists of successive contacts with various locations, not all at once; because an angel cannot be in multiple places simultaneously, as noted previously (Q. 52, A. 2). These contacts do not need to be continuous. Still, a certain type of continuity can be observed in these contacts. Because, as mentioned earlier (Q. 52, A. 1), there is nothing preventing us from designating a divisible space for an angel based on virtual contact, just as a divisible space can be assigned to a body through contact with size. Thus, just as a body leaves a location successively, creating continuity in its local movement, an angel can also leave a divisible space he previously occupied, making his movement continuous. Furthermore, he can simultaneously leave one entire place and instantly move to another whole place, resulting in his movement not being continuous.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument fails of its purpose for a twofold reason. First of all, because Aristotle's demonstration deals with what is indivisible according to quantity, to which responds a place necessarily indivisible. And this cannot be said of an angel.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument misses the mark for two reasons. First, because Aristotle's demonstration pertains to what is indivisible in terms of quantity, which corresponds to a place that is necessarily indivisible. This cannot be said of an angel.

Secondly, because Aristotle's demonstration deals with movement which is continuous. For if the movement were not continuous, it might be said that a thing is moved where it is in the term wherefrom, and while it is in the term whereto: because the very succession of "wheres," regarding the same thing, would be called movement: hence, in whichever of those "wheres" the thing might be, it could be said to be moved. But the continuity of movement prevents this; because nothing which is continuous is in its term, as is clear, because the line is not in the point. Therefore it is necessary for the thing moved to be not totally in either of the terms while it is being moved; but partly in the one, and partly in the other. Therefore, according as the angel's movement is not continuous, Aristotle's demonstration does not hold good. But according as the angel's movement is held to be continuous, it can be so granted, that, while an angel is in movement, he is partly in the term wherefrom, and partly in the term whereto (yet so that such partiality be not referred to the angel's substance, but to the place); because at the outset of his continuous movement the angel is in the whole divisible place from which he begins to be moved; but while he is actually in movement, he is in part of the first place which he quits, and in part of the second place which he occupies. This very fact that he can occupy the parts of two places appertains to the angel from this, that he can occupy a divisible place by applying his power; as a body does by application of magnitude. Hence it follows regarding a body which is movable according to place, that it is divisible according to magnitude; but regarding an angel, that his power can be applied to something which is divisible.

Secondly, Aristotle's demonstration focuses on movement that is continuous. If the movement weren't continuous, one might argue that something is moved from where it is (the term wherefrom) while it is moving to where it is going (the term whereto): the sequence of "wheres" relating to the same thing would be considered movement. Therefore, wherever that thing is, it could be described as being in motion. However, the continuity of movement makes this impossible; because nothing continuous exists entirely within its endpoints—it's clear that a line isn’t found within a point. Thus, for something to be in motion, it must not be entirely at either endpoint during the movement; it must be partly in one and partly in the other. Consequently, if the angel's movement is not continuous, Aristotle's demonstration does not apply. Conversely, if the angel's movement is considered continuous, it can be accepted that while an angel is moving, he is partly at the term wherefrom and partly at the term whereto (with this partiality referring not to the angel's essence but to the space occupied); at the start of his continuous movement, the angel exists in the entirety of the divisible space from which he starts moving, and while in motion, he occupies part of the initial space he is leaving and part of the new space he is entering. The very ability to occupy parts of two spaces pertains to the angel because he can fill a divisible space by exerting his power, just as a physical body does by occupying space. Hence, it follows that a body which can move through space must be divisible in terms of size; whereas an angel can apply his power to something that is divisible.

Reply Obj. 2: The movement of that which is in potentiality is the act of an imperfect agent. But the movement which is by application of energy is the act of one in act: because energy implies actuality.

Reply Obj. 2: The movement of something that is potential is the action of an imperfect agent. However, movement that results from applying energy is the action of one who is actual: because energy indicates actuality.

Reply Obj. 3: The movement of that which is in potentiality is the act of an imperfect but the movement of what is in act is not for any need of its own, but for another's need. In this way, because of our need, the angel is moved locally, according to Heb. 1:14: "They are all [*Vulg.: 'Are they not all . . . ?'] ministering spirits, sent to minister for them who receive the inheritance of salvation." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The movement of something that has potential is an action of something imperfect, while the movement of something that is actual does not arise from its own needs but from the needs of others. In this way, due to our needs, the angel moves locally, as stated in Heb. 1:14: "Are they not all ministering spirits, sent to serve those who will inherit salvation?"

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 53, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 53, Art. 2]

Whether an Angel Passes Through Intermediate Space?

Whether an Angel Passes Through Intermediate Space?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel does not pass through intermediate space. For everything that passes through a middle space first travels along a place of its own dimensions, before passing through a greater. But the place responding to an angel, who is indivisible, is confined to a point. Therefore if the angel passes through middle space, he must reckon infinite points in his movement: which is not possible.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel doesn’t move through intermediate space. Everything that moves through a middle space first travels along a place of its own size before moving through a larger one. But the space corresponding to an angel, who is indivisible, is limited to a point. Therefore, if the angel moves through middle space, he would have to account for infinite points in his movement, which isn’t possible.

Obj. 2: Further, an angel is of simpler substance than the soul. But our soul by taking thought can pass from one extreme to another without going through the middle: for I can think of France and afterwards of Syria, without ever thinking of Italy, which stands between them. Therefore much more can an angel pass from one extreme to another without going through the middle.

Obj. 2: Additionally, an angel has a simpler nature than the soul. However, our soul can jump from one extreme to another in thought without going through the middle: I can think about France and then about Syria, without ever considering Italy, which is in between. So, it stands to reason that an angel can move from one extreme to another even more easily without passing through the middle.

On the contrary, If the angel be moved from one place to another, then, when he is in the term "whither," he is no longer in motion, but is changed. But a process of changing precedes every actual change: consequently he was being moved while existing in some place. But he was not moved so long as he was in the term "whence." Therefore, he was moved while he was in mid-space: and so it was necessary for him to pass through intervening space.

On the contrary, if the angel is relocated from one place to another, then, when he reaches his destination, he is no longer in motion but has transformed. However, a process of change occurs before every actual transformation; therefore, he was being moved while existing in a certain place. But he was not in motion as long as he was in the starting point. Thus, he was moving while he was in between: and it was necessary for him to travel through the space in between.

I answer that, As was observed above in the preceding article, the local motion of an angel can be continuous, and non-continuous. If it be continuous, the angel cannot pass from one extreme to another without passing through the mid-space; because, as is said by the Philosopher (Phys. v, text 22; vi, text 77), "The middle is that into which a thing which is continually moved comes, before arriving at the last into which it is moved"; because the order of first and last in continuous movement, is according to the order of the first and last in magnitude, as he says (Phys. iv, text 99).

I answer that, As mentioned in the previous article, an angel's local movement can be either continuous or discontinuous. If it is continuous, the angel cannot move from one extreme to another without passing through the middle space; because, as the Philosopher states (Phys. v, text 22; vi, text 77), "The middle is the point that a continuously moving object reaches before arriving at its final destination"; as the order of first and last in continuous movement corresponds to the order of first and last in size, as he explains (Phys. iv, text 99).

But if an angel's movement be not continuous, it is possible for him to pass from one extreme to another without going through the middle: which is evident thus. Between the two extreme limits there are infinite intermediate places; whether the places be taken as divisible or as indivisible. This is clearly evident with regard to places which are indivisible; because between every two points that are infinite intermediate points, since no two points follow one another without a middle, as is proved in Phys. vi, text. 1. And the same must of necessity be said of divisible places: and this is shown from the continuous movement of a body. For a body is not moved from place to place except in time. But in the whole time which measures the movement of a body, there are not two "nows" in which the body moved is not in one place and in another; for if it were in one and the same place in two "nows," it would follow that it would be at rest there; since to be at rest is nothing else than to be in the same place now and previously. Therefore since there are infinite "nows" between the first and the last "now" of the time which measures the movement, there must be infinite places between the first from which the movement begins, and the last where the movement ceases. This again is made evident from sensible experience. Let there be a body of a palm's length, and let there be a plane measuring two palms, along which it travels; it is evident that the first place from which the movement starts is that of the one palm; and the place wherein the movement ends is that of the other palm. Now it is clear that when it begins to move, it gradually quits the first palm and enters the second. According, then, as the magnitude of the palm is divided, even so are the intermediate places multiplied; because every distinct point in the magnitude of the first palm is the beginning of a place, and a distinct point in the magnitude of the other palm is the limit of the same. Accordingly, since magnitude is infinitely divisible and the points in every magnitude are likewise infinite in potentiality, it follows that between every two places there are infinite intermediate places.

But if an angel's movement isn't continuous, he can jump from one extreme to another without passing through the middle. This is clear because, between the two extreme limits, there are infinite intermediate places, whether those places are divisible or indivisible. This is especially obvious concerning indivisible places, since between any two points, there are infinite intermediate points; no two points can be adjacent without something in between, as demonstrated in Physics vi, text. 1. The same must also be true for divisible places, which can be observed through the continuous movement of a body. A body only moves from one place to another over time. In all the time that measures a body's movement, there aren't two "nows" where the body isn't in one place and then another; because if it were in the same place during two "nows," it would mean it was at rest, since being at rest just means being in the same place now and before. Therefore, since there are infinite "nows" between the first and last "now" measuring the movement, there must also be infinite places between the start of the movement and where it ends. This can be understood through sensory experience. Imagine a body that’s a palm's length and a plane measuring two palms on which it moves. It’s clear that the first place where the movement starts is at one palm, and the place where the movement ends is at the other palm. When it begins to move, it gradually leaves the first palm and enters the second. Similarly, as the size of the palm gets divided, the intermediate places increase; because every distinct point within the first palm marks the start of a place, while a distinct point in the second palm marks the end. Since size can be infinitely divided and the points in any size are also infinite in potential, it follows that between every two places, there are infinite intermediate places.

Now a movable body only exhausts the infinity of the intermediate places by the continuity of its movement; because, as the intermediate places are infinite in potentiality, so likewise must there be reckoned some infinitudes in movement which is continuous. Consequently, if the movement be not continuous, then all the parts of the movement will be actually numbered. If, therefore, any movable body be moved, but not by continuous movement, it follows, either that it does not pass through all the intermediate places, or else that it actually numbers infinite places: which is not possible. Accordingly, then, as the angel's movement is not continuous, he does not pass through all intermediate places.

Now, a moving object only goes through an infinite number of intermediate positions because of the ongoing nature of its motion; since the intermediate positions are potentially infinite, there must also be considered some infinities in movement that is continuous. Therefore, if the movement isn't continuous, then all parts of the movement would be counted. So, if a moving object is moved but not in a continuous way, it means either that it doesn't go through all the intermediate positions or that it actually counts infinite positions, which isn't possible. Thus, since an angel's movement isn't continuous, it doesn't go through all intermediate places.

Now, the actual passing from one extreme to the other, without going through the mid-space, is quite in keeping with an angel's nature; but not with that of a body, because a body is measured by and contained under a place; hence it is bound to follow the laws of place in its movement. But an angel's substance is not subject to place as contained thereby, but is above it as containing it: hence it is under his control to apply himself to a place just as he wills, either through or without the intervening place.

Now, the actual transition from one extreme to another without going through the middle space aligns with an angel's nature; however, that’s not true for a body, as a body is measured by and confined to a certain place; therefore, it must adhere to the rules of that space when it moves. But an angel's essence isn't confined by a place, as it transcends it while containing it; thus, it can choose to engage with a place however it wants, whether through or bypassing the intervening space.

Reply Obj. 1: The place of an angel is not taken as equal to him according to magnitude, but according to contact of power: and so the angel's place can be divisible, and is not always a mere point. Yet even the intermediate divisible places are infinite, as was said above: but they are consumed by the continuity of the movement, as is evident from the foregoing.

Reply Obj. 1: An angel's position isn't measured by its size, but by the extent of its influence. Therefore, an angel's position can be divided and isn't just a single point. However, even these intermediate divisible positions are infinite, as mentioned earlier, but they are consumed by the continuity of movement, which is clear from what has been explained.

Reply Obj. 2: While an angel is moved locally, his essence is applied to various places: but the soul's essence is not applied to the things thought of, but rather the things thought of are in it. So there is no comparison.

Reply Obj. 2: While an angel can be in different places, its essence is spread across them; however, the essence of the soul isn’t attached to the things it thinks about, but instead, those things exist within it. So there’s no comparison.

Reply Obj. 3: In continuous movement the actual change is not a part of the movement, but its conclusion; hence movement must precede change. Accordingly such movement is through the mid-space. But in movement which is not continuous, the change is a part, as a unit is a part of number: hence the succession of the various places, even without the mid-space, constitutes such movement. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: In continuous movement, the actual change is not a part of the movement but rather its conclusion; therefore, movement must come before change. Thus, this movement occurs through the mid-space. However, in movement that is not continuous, the change is a part of it, similar to how a unit is part of a number: hence, the succession of various locations, even without the mid-space, constitutes such movement.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 53, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 53, Art. 3]

Whether the Movement of an Angel Is Instantaneous?

Whether the movement of an angel happens instantly?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel's movement is instantaneous. For the greater the power of the mover, and the less the moved resist the mover, the more rapid is the movement. But the power of an angel moving himself exceeds beyond all proportion the power which moves a body. Now the proportion of velocities is reckoned according to the lessening of the time. But between one length of time and any other length of time there is proportion. If therefore a body is moved in time, an angel is moved in an instant.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel's movement is instantaneous. The stronger the mover's power and the less resistance from the moved, the faster the movement. An angel's power to move itself is far greater than the power that moves a body. The speed of movement is based on the reduction of time. There is a proportional relationship between different lengths of time. Therefore, if a body moves over a period of time, an angel moves in an instant.

Obj. 2: Further, the angel's movement is simpler than any bodily change. But some bodily change is effected in an instant, such as illumination; both because the subject is not illuminated successively, as it gets hot successively; and because a ray does not reach sooner what is near than what is remote. Much more therefore is the angel's movement instantaneous.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the angel's movement is simpler than any physical change. However, certain physical changes can happen instantly, like illumination; this is because the subject isn't illuminated gradually, as it gets hot gradually; and because a ray doesn't reach something nearby sooner than something further away. Therefore, the angel's movement is even more instantaneous.

Obj. 3: Further, if an angel be moved from place to place in time, it is manifest that in the last instant of such time he is in the term whereto: but in the whole of the preceding time, he is either in the place immediately preceding, which is taken as the term wherefrom; or else he is partly in the one, and partly in the other, it follows that he is divisible; which is impossible. Therefore during the whole of the preceding time he is in the term wherefrom. Therefore he rests there: since to be at rest is to be in the same place now and previously, as was said (A. 2). Therefore it follows that he is not moved except in the last instant of time.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if an angel moves from one place to another over time, it's clear that at the last moment of that time he is at the destination whereto: but during all the time before that, he is either at the place right before, which is referred to as the starting point wherefrom; or he exists partly in one place and partly in the other, which implies he can be divided; and that can't happen. So, during all the time leading up to that moment, he is at the starting point wherefrom. Hence, he remains there: because being at rest means being in the same place now as he was before, as mentioned (A. 2). Therefore, it follows that he is only in motion during the very last moment of time.

On the contrary, In every change there is a before and after. Now the before and after of movement is reckoned by time. Consequently every movement, even of an angel, is in time, since there is a before and after in it.

On the contrary, In every change, there is a before and after. Now the before and after of movement is measured by time. Therefore, every movement, even that of an angel, exists in time, since there is a before and after involved.

I answer that, Some have maintained that the local movement of an angel is instantaneous. They said that when an angel is moved from place to place, during the whole of the preceding time he is in the term wherefrom; but in the last instant of such time he is in the term whereto. Nor is there any need for a medium between the terms, just as there is no medium between time and the limit of time. But there is a mid-time between two "nows" of time: hence they say that a last "now" cannot be assigned in which it was in the term wherefrom, just as in illumination, and in the substantial generation of fire, there is no last instant to be assigned in which the air was dark, or in which the matter was under the privation of the form of fire: but a last time can be assigned, so that in the last instant of such time there is light in the air, or the form of fire in the matter. And so illumination and substantial generation are called instantaneous movements.

I respond that, Some people have argued that an angel's local movement happens instantly. They claim that when an angel moves from one place to another, for the entire time before that, it exists in the wherefrom position; but at the very last moment, it exists in the whereto. There’s no need for a medium between these two positions, just like there’s no medium between time and its endpoint. However, there is a midpoint between two "nows" in time: thus, they argue that a final "now" can't be pinpointed when it was in the wherefrom position, just as in the case of light and the generation of fire, there is no last moment assigned when the air was dark or when the matter lacked the form of fire: but it is possible to assign a final time, so that in the very last moment of that time, there is light in the air, or the form of fire in the matter. Therefore, both illumination and substantial generation are referred to as instantaneous movements.

But this does not hold good in the present case; and it is shown thus. It is of the nature of rest that the subject in repose be not otherwise disposed now than it was before: and therefore in every "now" of time which measures rest, the subject reposing is in the same "where" in the first, in the middle, and in the last "now." On the other hand, it is of the very nature of movement for the subject moved to be otherwise now than it was before: and therefore in every "now" of time which measures movement, the movable subject is in various dispositions; hence in the last "now" it must have a different form from what it had before. So it is evident that to rest during the whole time in some (disposition), for instance, in whiteness, is to be in it in every instant of such time. Hence it is not possible for anything to rest in one term during the whole of the preceding time, and afterwards in the last instant of that time to be in the other term. But this is possible in movement: because to be moved in any whole time, is not to be in the same disposition in every instant of that time. Therefore all instantaneous changes of the kind are terms of a continuous movement: just as generation is the term of the alteration of matter, and illumination is the term of the local movement of the illuminating body. Now the local movement of an angel is not the term of any other continuous movement, but is of itself, depending upon no other movement. Consequently it is impossible to say that he is in any place during the whole time, and that in the last "now" he is in another place: but some "now" must be assigned in which he was last in the preceding place. But where there are many "nows" succeeding one another, there is necessarily time; since time is nothing else than the reckoning of before and after in movement. It remains, then, that the movement of an angel is in time. It is in continuous time if his movement be continuous, and in non-continuous time if his movement is non-continuous for, as was said (A. 1), his movement can be of either kind, since the continuity of time comes of the continuity of movement, as the Philosopher says (Phys. iv, text 99).

But this doesn’t apply in this case, and it can be demonstrated as follows. Rest is characterized by the fact that the subject at rest is not in a different state now than it was before; therefore, in every "now" of time that measures rest, the resting subject is in the same "place" at the first, in the middle, and in the last "now." On the other hand, movement inherently involves the subject in motion being in a different state now than it was before; thus, in every "now" of time that measures movement, the moving subject is in various states, meaning it must have a different form in the last "now" than it did previously. So, it's clear that to rest in the same state for some duration, such as being white, means to be in that state at every moment within that duration. Therefore, it's impossible for something to rest in one state throughout the entire previous time and then, in the last moment of that time, be in a different state. But this can happen in movement: because to be in motion for any amount of time means not being in the same state at each moment of that duration. Thus, all instantaneous changes of this type are points in a continuous movement; just as generation marks the change of matter, and illumination marks the local movement of the light source. Now, the local movement of an angel is not the endpoint of any other continuous movement; it exists independently, relying on no other movement. Therefore, it’s impossible to claim that the angel is in one place for the entire duration and then, in the last "now," is in another place; rather, there must be a specific "now" when he was last in the previous place. However, when there are many "nows" occurring one after another, there must necessarily be time, since time is just the measure of before and after in movement. Thus, it follows that the movement of an angel exists in time. It is in continuous time if his movement is continuous and in non-continuous time if his movement is not continuous; as stated earlier, his movement can be either type, since the continuity of time results from the continuity of movement, as the Philosopher says (Phys. iv, text 99).

But that time, whether it be continuous or not, is not the same as the time which measures the movement of the heavens, and whereby all corporeal things are measured, which have their changeableness from the movement of the heavens; because the angel's movement does not depend upon the movement of the heavens.

But that time, whether it's continuous or not, is different from the time that measures the movements of the heavens, by which all physical things are measured, which change based on the movement of the heavens; because the angel's movement doesn't depend on the movement of the heavens.

Reply Obj. 1: If the time of the angel's movement be not continuous, but a kind of succession of 'nows,' it will have no proportion to the time which measures the movement of corporeal things, which is continuous; since it is not of the same nature. If, however, it be continuous, it is indeed proportionable, not, indeed, because of the proportion of the mover and the movable, but on account of the proportion of the magnitudes in which the movement exists. Besides, the swiftness of the angel's movement is not measured by the quantity of his power, but according to the determination of his will.

Reply Obj. 1: If the angel's movement isn't continuous but is more like a series of 'nows,' it won't align with the time that measures the movement of physical objects, which is continuous, because they aren't the same in nature. However, if it is continuous, then it can be compared, not because of the relationship between the mover and what is moved, but due to the sizes of the things involved in the movement. Also, the speed of the angel's movement isn't determined by the amount of his power but by the choices he makes.

Reply Obj. 2: Illumination is the term of a movement; and is an alteration, not a local movement, as though the light were understood to be moved to what is near, before being moved to what is remote. But the angel's movement is local, and, besides, it is not the term of movement; hence there is no comparison.

Reply Obj. 2: Illumination refers to a type of movement; it is a change, not a local movement, as if the light were first directed towards something nearby before being directed to something far away. However, the angel's movement is local and, in addition, it is not the endpoint of a movement; therefore, there is no basis for comparison.

Reply Obj. 3: This objection is based on continuous time. But the same time of an angel's movement can be non-continuous. So an angel can be in one place in one instant, and in another place in the next instant, without any time intervening. If the time of the angel's movement be continuous, he is changed through infinite places throughout the whole time which precedes the last 'now'; as was already shown (A. 2). Nevertheless he is partly in one of the continuous places, and partly in another, not because his substance is susceptible of parts, but because his power is applied to a part of the first place and to a part of the second, as was said above (A. 2). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: This objection relies on the idea of continuous time. However, an angel's movement can occur in a non-continuous way. An angel can be in one location in one moment and in another location in the next moment, without any time in between. If we consider the angel's movement as continuous, he would move through countless locations throughout the entire time leading up to the last 'now,' as already discussed (A. 2). Still, he is partly in one of the continuous locations and partly in another, not because his essence can be divided, but because his ability is directed toward a part of the first location and a part of the second, as mentioned earlier (A. 2).

QUESTION 54

OF THE KNOWLEDGE OF THE ANGELS
(In Five Articles)

OF THE KNOWLEDGE OF THE ANGELS
(In Five Articles)

After considering what belongs to the angel's substance, we now proceed to his knowledge. This investigation will be fourfold. In the first place inquiry must be made into his power of knowledge: secondly, into his medium of knowledge: thirdly, into the objects known: and fourthly, into the manner whereby he knows them.

After looking into what makes up the angel's essence, we will now move on to his knowledge. This exploration will have four parts. First, we will examine his ability to know; second, the way he gains knowledge; third, the things he knows; and fourth, how he understands them.

Under the first heading there are five points of inquiry:

Under the first heading, there are five questions to consider:

(1) Is the angel's understanding his substance?

(1) Is the angel's understanding part of what he is made of?

(2) Is his being his understanding?

(2) Is his existence his understanding?

(3) Is his substance his power of intelligence?

(3) Is what makes him significant his ability to think?

(4) Is there in the angels an active and a passive intellect?

(4) Do angels have both an active and a passive intellect?

(5) Is there in them any other power of knowledge besides the intellect? _______________________

(5) Is there any other way to gain knowledge apart from intellect? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 54, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 54, Art. 1]

Whether an Angel's Act of Understanding Is His Substance?

Whether an Angel's Act of Understanding Is His Essence?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angel's act of understanding is his substance. For the angel is both higher and simpler than the active intellect of a soul. But the substance of the active intellect is its own action; as is evident from Aristotle (De Anima iii) and from his Commentator [*Averroes, A.D. 1126-1198]. Therefore much more is the angel's substance his action—that is, his act of understanding.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel’s act of understanding is its essence. Since an angel is both superior and more straightforward than the active intellect of a soul. The essence of the active intellect is its own action, as Aristotle shows (De Anima iii) along with his commentator [*Averroes, A.D. 1126-1198]. Therefore, it follows even more that the essence of the angel is its action—that is, its act of understanding.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher says (Metaph. xii, text 39) that "the action of the intellect is life." But "since in living things to live is to be," as he says (De Anima ii, text 37), it seems that life is essence. Therefore the action of the intellect is the essence of an angel who understands.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the Philosopher states (Metaph. xii, text 39) that "the action of the intellect is life." However, "in living beings, to live is to exist," as he mentions (De Anima ii, text 37), suggesting that life is essence. Therefore, the action of the intellect reflects the essence of an angel who understands.

Obj. 3: Further, if the extremes be one, then the middle does not differ from them; because extreme is farther from extreme than the middle is. But in an angel the intellect and the object understood are the same, at least in so far as he understands his own essence. Therefore the act of understanding, which is between the intellect and the thing understood, is one with the substance of the angel who understands.

Obj. 3: Moreover, if the extremes are the same, then the middle doesn't differ from them; because extremes are farther apart than the middle. However, in an angel, the intellect and the object that is understood are the same, at least to the extent that he understands his own essence. Therefore, the act of understanding, which lies between the intellect and the thing understood, is one with the essence of the angel who understands.

On the contrary, The action of anything differs more from its substance than does its existence. But no creature's existence is its substance, for this belongs to God only, as is evident from what was said above (Q. 3, A. 4). Therefore neither the action of an angel, nor of any other creature, is its substance.

On the contrary, The way anything acts is more different from what it is than it is from merely existing. But no creature's existence is its essence, because that belongs to God alone, as was pointed out earlier (Q. 3, A. 4). So, the actions of an angel or any other creature aren’t their essence.

I answer that, It is impossible for the action of an angel, or of any creature, to be its own substance. For an action is properly the actuality of a power; just as existence is the actuality of a substance or of an essence. Now it is impossible for anything which is not a pure act, but which has some admixture of potentiality, to be its own actuality: because actuality is opposed to potentiality. But God alone is pure act. Hence only in God is His substance the same as His existence and His action.

I respond that, it’s impossible for an angel's action, or any creature's action, to be its own substance. An action is essentially the reality of a power; just as existence is the reality of a substance or essence. Now, it's impossible for anything that isn't pure act, but rather has some degree of potentiality, to be its own reality: because reality is the opposite of potentiality. Only God is pure act. Therefore, only in God are His substance, existence, and action the same.

Besides, if an angel's act of understanding were his substance, it would be necessary for it to be subsisting. Now a subsisting act of intelligence can be but one; just as an abstract thing that subsists. Consequently an angel's substance would neither be distinguished from God's substance, which is His very act of understanding subsisting in itself, nor from the substance of another angel.

Besides, if an angel’s act of understanding were its essence, it would need to exist independently. Now, an independent act of intelligence can only be one, just like an abstract concept that exists on its own. Therefore, an angel’s essence wouldn’t be distinguishable from God’s essence, which is His act of understanding existing in itself, nor from the essence of another angel.

Also, if the angel were his own act of understanding, there could then be no degrees of understanding more or less perfectly; for this comes about through the diverse participation of the act of understanding.

Also, if the angel were simply his own act of understanding, there would be no varying degrees of understanding, whether more or less perfect; because this occurs through the different ways of participating in the act of understanding.

Reply Obj. 1: When the active intellect is said to be its own action, such predication is not essential, but concomitant, because, since its very nature consists in act, instantly, so far as lies in itself, action accompanies it: which cannot be said of the passive intellect, for this has no actions until after it has been reduced to act.

Reply Obj. 1: When we say that the active intellect is its own action, this description is not essential but rather associated, because its very nature is to be in action at all times; as far as it concerns itself, action is always present. This cannot be said of the passive intellect, as it does not engage in actions until it has been activated.

Reply Obj. 2: The relation between "life" and "to live" is not the same as that between "essence" and "to be"; but rather as that between "a race" and "to run," one of which signifies the act in the abstract, and the other in the concrete. Hence it does not follow, if "to live" is "to be," that "life" is "essence." Although life is sometimes put for the essence, as Augustine says (De Trin. x), "Memory and understanding and will are one essence, one life": yet it is not taken in this sense by the Philosopher, when he says that "the act of the intellect is life."

Reply Obj. 2: The relationship between "life" and "to live" isn’t the same as that between "essence" and "to be"; instead, it's more like the relationship between "a race" and "to run," with one referring to the act in a general sense and the other in a specific sense. Therefore, even if "to live" means "to be," it doesn't mean that "life" is the same as "essence." Although life is sometimes used to refer to essence, as Augustine mentions (De Trin. x), "Memory and understanding and will are one essence, one life," this isn't how the Philosopher uses it when he states that "the act of the intellect is life."

Reply Obj. 3: The action which is transient, passing to some extrinsic object, is really a medium between the agent and the subject receiving the action. The action which remains within the agent, is not really a medium between the agent and the object, but only according to the manner of expression; for it really follows the union of the object with the agent. For the act of understanding is brought about by the union of the object understood with the one who understands it, as an effect which differs from both. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: An action that is temporary, aimed at an external object, serves as a genuine link between the doer and the recipient of the action. In contrast, an action that stays within the doer isn’t truly a link between the doer and the object; it's just a matter of how we express it. Instead, it actually stems from the connection between the object and the doer. The act of understanding occurs through the connection between the object being understood and the person understanding it, resulting in something that is distinct from both.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 54, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 54, Art. 2]

Whether in the Angel to Understand Is to Exist?

Whether in the Angel to Understand Is to Exist?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the angel to understand is to exist. For in living things to live is to be, as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, text. 37). But to "understand is in a sense to live" (De Anima ii, text. 37). Therefore in the angel to understand is to exist.

Objection 1: It seems that for an angel, understanding is equivalent to existence. In living beings, being alive means to exist, as the Philosopher states (De Anima ii, text. 37). However, to "understand is in a way to live" (De Anima ii, text. 37). Thus, for an angel, understanding is to exist.

Obj. 2: Further, cause bears the same relation to cause, as effect to effect. But the form whereby the angel exists is the same as the form by which he understands at least himself. Therefore in the angel to understand is to exist.

Obj. 2: Additionally, cause is related to cause in the same way that effect relates to effect. However, the way the angel exists is the same as the way he understands at least himself. Therefore, for the angel, to understand is to exist.

On the contrary, The angel's act of understanding is his movement, as is clear from Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv). But to exist is not movement. Therefore in the angel to be is not to understand.

On the contrary, the angel's act of understanding is his movement, as Dionysius makes clear (Div. Nom. iv). But to exist is not the same as movement. Therefore, for the angel, to be is not to understand.

I answer that, The action of the angel, as also the action of any creature, is not his existence. For as it is said (Metaph. ix, text. 16), there is a twofold class of action; one which passes out to something beyond, and causes passion in it, as burning and cutting; and another which does not pass outwards, but which remains within the agent, as to feel, to understand, to will; by such actions nothing outside is changed, but the whole action takes place within the agent. It is quite clear regarding the first kind of action that it cannot be the agent's very existence: because the agent's existence is signified as within him, while such an action denotes something as issuing from the agent into the thing done. But the second action of its own nature has infinity, either simple or relative. As an example of simple infinity, we have the act "to understand," of which the object is "the true"; and the act "to will," of which the object is "the good"; each of which is convertible with being; and so, to understand and to will, of themselves, bear relation to all things, and each receives its species from its object. But the act of sensation is relatively infinite, for it bears relation to all sensible things; as sight does to all things visible. Now the being of every creature is restricted to one in genus and species; God's being alone is simply infinite, comprehending all things in itself, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. v). Hence the Divine nature alone is its own act of understanding and its own act of will.

I respond that, The actions of angels, like those of any creature, are not the same as their existence. As mentioned (Metaph. ix, text. 16), there are two types of action; one that reaches outward and causes change in something else, like burning or cutting; and another that remains internal to the agent, like feeling, understanding, and willing. In the first type of action, the agent's existence is not involved since that existence is inherent to the agent, while this action signifies something leaving the agent to affect another. The second type of action inherently has an infinite quality, either simple or relative. For example, the act of "understanding" relates to "truth," and the act of "willing" relates to "goodness"; both are connected to being itself, which means that understanding and willing inherently relate to all things, with their nature defined by their objects. The act of sensation, on the other hand, is relatively infinite because it relates to all things perceived; for instance, sight relates to all visible things. In contrast, every creature's existence is limited to a specific genus and species; only God's existence is simply infinite, encompassing all things within itself, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. v). Therefore, only the Divine nature is its own act of understanding and its own act of will.

Reply Obj. 1: Life is sometimes taken for the existence of the living subject: sometimes also for a vital operation, that is, for one whereby something is shown to be living. In this way the Philosopher says that to understand is, in a sense, to live: for there he distinguishes the various grades of living things according to the various functions of life.

Reply Obj. 1: Life is sometimes viewed as the existence of a living being; sometimes it refers to a vital process, meaning one that indicates something is alive. In this sense, the Philosopher says that to understand is, in a way, to live; because there, he distinguishes different levels of living things based on their various life functions.

Reply Obj. 2: The essence of an angel is the reason of his entire existence, but not the reason of his whole act of understanding, since he cannot understand everything by his essence. Consequently in its own specific nature as such an essence, it is compared to the existence of the angel, whereas to his act of understanding it is compared as included in the idea of a more universal object, namely, truth and being. Thus it is evident, that, although the form is the same, yet it is not the principle of existence and of understanding according to the same formality. On this account it does not follow that in the angel "to be" is the same as 'to understand.' _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The essence of an angel is the reason for his entire existence, but it doesn't fully explain his ability to understand, since he can’t comprehend everything through his essence alone. Therefore, when we look at the essence itself, it’s compared to the angel's existence, while his understanding is seen in relation to a broader concept, specifically, truth and being. So, it’s clear that even though the form is the same, it doesn’t mean that existence and understanding are based on the same criteria. For this reason, it doesn't mean that for the angel, "to be" is the same as "to understand."

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 54, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 54, Art. 3]

Whether an Angel's Power of Intelligence Is His Essence?

Whether an angel's ability to think is part of who they are?

Objection 1: It would seem that in an angel the power or faculty of understanding is not different from his essence. For, "mind" and "intellect" express the power of understanding. But in many passages of his writings, Dionysius styles angels "intellects" and "minds." Therefore the angel is his own power of intelligence.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel's ability to understand is the same as its essence. "Mind" and "intellect" refer to the ability to understand. In many places in his writings, Dionysius calls angels "intellects" and "minds." Therefore, an angel is its own power of intelligence.

Obj. 2: Further, if the angel's power of intelligence be anything besides his essence, then it must needs be an accident; for that which is besides the essence of anything, we call it accident. But "a simple form cannot be a subject," as Boethius states (De Trin. 1). Thus an angel would not be a simple form, which is contrary to what has been previously said (Q. 50, A. 2).

Obj. 2: Furthermore, if an angel's ability to understand is anything beyond its essence, it must be an accident; because anything that exists apart from the essence of something is called an accident. However, "a simple form cannot be a subject," as Boethius says (De Trin. 1). Therefore, an angel would not be a simple form, which contradicts what has been stated earlier (Q. 50, A. 2).

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine (Confess. xii) says, that God made the angelic nature "nigh unto Himself," while He made primary matter "nigh unto nothing"; from this it would seem that the angel is of a simpler nature than primary matter, as being closer to God. But primary matter is its own power. Therefore much more is an angel his own power of intelligence.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, Augustine (Confess. xii) says that God created the angelic nature "close to Himself," while He made primary matter "close to nothing"; this suggests that angels have a simpler nature than primary matter since they are closer to God. However, primary matter has its own power. Thus, an angel is even more its own power of intelligence.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. xi) that "the angels are divided into substance, power, and operation." Therefore substance, power, and operation, are all distinct in them.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. xi) that "the angels are divided into substance, power, and operation." Therefore, substance, power, and operation are all distinct in them.

I answer that, Neither in an angel nor in any creature, is the power or operative faculty the same as its essence: which is made evident thus. Since every power is ordained to an act, then according to the diversity of acts must be the diversity of powers; and on this account it is said that each proper act responds to its proper power. But in every creature the essence differs from the existence, and is compared to it as potentiality is to act, as is evident from what has been already said (Q. 44, A. 1). Now the act to which the operative power is compared is operation. But in the angel to understand is not the same as to exist, nor is any operation in him, nor in any other created thing, the same as his existence. Hence the angel's essence is not his power of intelligence: nor is the essence of any creature its power of operation.

I respond that, Neither in an angel nor in any creature is the power or ability the same as its essence. This becomes clear in the following way. Since every power is directed toward an act, the diversity of acts corresponds to the diversity of powers; therefore, it is said that each specific act relates to its specific power. In every creature, the essence is different from existence, and is related to it as potentiality is to act, as has been previously explained (Q. 44, A. 1). Now, the act to which the operative power is related is operation. However, in the angel, understanding is not the same as existing, nor is any operation within him, or within any other created being, the same as his existence. Thus, the angel's essence is not his power of understanding, nor is the essence of any creature its power of operation.

Reply Obj. 1: An angel is called "intellect" and "mind," because all his knowledge is intellectual: whereas the knowledge of a soul is partly intellectual and partly sensitive.

Reply Obj. 1: An angel is referred to as "intellect" and "mind" because all his knowledge is intellectual, while a soul's knowledge is a mix of intellectual and sensory experiences.

Reply Obj. 2: A simple form which is pure act cannot be the subject of accident, because subject is compared to accident as potentiality is to act. God alone is such a form: and of such is Boethius speaking there. But a simple form which is not its own existence, but is compared to it as potentiality is to act, can be the subject of accident; and especially of such accident as follows the species: for such accident belongs to the form—whereas an accident which belongs to the individual, and which does not belong to the whole species, results from the matter, which is the principle of individuation. And such a simple form is an angel.

Reply Obj. 2: A simple form that is purely an act cannot be the subject of an accident, because the subject is compared to the accident in the same way that potentiality is to an act. Only God is such a form, and that is what Boethius is referring to. However, a simple form that is not its own existence, but is compared to it as potentiality is to an act, can be the subject of an accident; especially in the case of accidents that follow the species, as such accidents belong to the form. In contrast, an accident that belongs to the individual and does not apply to the whole species comes from the matter, which is the principle of individuation. An example of such a simple form is an angel.

Reply Obj. 3: The power of matter is a potentiality in regard to substantial being itself, whereas the power of operation regards accidental being. Hence there is no comparison. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The power of matter is a potential in relation to substantial existence itself, while the power of operation pertains to accidental existence. Therefore, there is no comparison.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 54, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 54, Art. 4]

Whether There Is an Active and a Passive Intellect in an Angel?

Whether an Angel Has an Active and a Passive Intellect?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is both an active and a passive intellect in an angel. The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, text. 17) that, "in the soul, just as in every nature, there is something whereby it can become all things, and there is something whereby it can make all things." But an angel is a kind of nature. Therefore there is an active and a passive intellect in an angel.

Objection 1: It seems that angels have both an active and a passive intellect. The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, text. 17) that, "in the soul, just like in every nature, there is something that allows it to become all things, and there is something that allows it to create all things." But an angel is a type of nature. Therefore, there is an active and a passive intellect in an angel.

Obj. 2: Further, the proper function of the passive intellect is to receive; whereas to enlighten is the proper function of the active intellect, as is made clear in De Anima iii, text. 2, 3, 18. But an angel receives enlightenment from a higher angel, and enlightens a lower one. Therefore there is in him an active and a passive intellect.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the main role of the passive intellect is to receive; while the active intellect's role is to provide enlightenment, as explained in De Anima iii, text. 2, 3, 18. An angel receives enlightenment from a higher angel and provides enlightenment to a lower one. Therefore, within an angel, there exists both an active and a passive intellect.

On the contrary, The distinction of active and passive intellect in us is in relation to the phantasms, which are compared to the passive intellect as colors to the sight; but to the active intellect as colors to the light, as is clear from De Anima iii, text. 18. But this is not so in the angel. Therefore there is no active and passive intellect in the angel.

On the contrary, The distinction between active and passive intellect in us relates to the phantasms, which are similar to the passive intellect as colors are to sight; but to the active intellect as colors are to light, as is clear from De Anima iii, text. 18. However, this is not the case for angels. Therefore, there is no active and passive intellect in angels.

I answer that, The necessity for admitting a passive intellect in us is derived from the fact that we understand sometimes only in potentiality, and not actually. Hence there must exist some power, which, previous to the act of understanding, is in potentiality to intelligible things, but which becomes actuated in their regard when it apprehends them, and still more when it reflects upon them. This is the power which is denominated the passive intellect. The necessity for admitting an active intellect is due to this—that the natures of the material things which we understand do not exist outside the soul, as immaterial and actually intelligible, but are only intelligible in potentiality so long as they are outside the soul. Consequently it is necessary that there should be some power capable of rendering such natures actually intelligible: and this power in us is called the active intellect.

I answer that, The need to recognize a passive intellect within us comes from the fact that we sometimes understand things only in potential, not in actuality. Therefore, there must be some ability that exists in potentiality concerning intelligible things before we actually understand them, which becomes active when we grasp them, and even more so when we think about them. This ability is referred to as the passive intellect. The necessity for acknowledging an active intellect arises from the idea that the nature of the material things we understand doesn't exist outside the soul as immaterial and actually intelligible; instead, they are only intelligible in potential as long as they are outside the soul. Thus, there must be some power that can make these natures actually intelligible, and this power is called the active intellect.

But each of these necessities is absent from the angels. They are neither sometimes understanding only in potentiality, with regard to such things as they naturally apprehend; nor, again, are their intelligible objects intelligible in potentiality, but they are actually such; for they first and principally understand immaterial things, as will appear later (Q. 84, A. 7; Q. 85, A. 1). Therefore there cannot be an active and a passive intellect in them, except equivocally.

But none of these necessities apply to the angels. They don't just understand things potentially, in relation to concepts they naturally grasp; instead, their intelligible objects are actually intelligible. They primarily and fundamentally comprehend immaterial things, as will be discussed later (Q. 84, A. 7; Q. 85, A. 1). Therefore, there can't be an active and a passive intellect in them, except in a figurative sense.

Reply Obj. 1: As the words themselves show, the Philosopher understands those two things to be in every nature in which there chances to be generation or making. Knowledge, however, is not generated in the angels, but is present naturally. Hence there is no need for admitting an active and a passive intellect in them.

Reply Obj. 1: As the words themselves show, the Philosopher understands these two things to be present in every nature that involves generation or creation. However, knowledge is not generated in angels; it is naturally present. Therefore, there is no need to accept the existence of an active and a passive intellect in them.

Reply Obj. 2: It is the function of the active intellect to enlighten, not another intellect, but things which are intelligible in potentiality, in so far as by abstraction it makes them to be actually intelligible. It belongs to the passive intellect to be in potentiality with regard to things which are naturally capable of being known, and sometimes to apprehend them actually. Hence for one angel to enlighten another does not belong to the notion of an active intellect: neither does it belong to the passive intellect for the angel to be enlightened with regard to supernatural mysteries, to the knowledge of which he is sometimes in potentiality. But if anyone wishes to call these by the names of active and passive intellect, he will then be speaking equivocally; and it is not about names that we need trouble. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The active intellect's role is to illuminate not another intellect, but rather the things that can be understood in potential, turning them into actual understanding through abstraction. The passive intellect, on the other hand, is in a state of potential regarding things that can naturally be known and sometimes can actually comprehend them. Therefore, one angel enlightening another does not fit the concept of an active intellect; likewise, it does not fit the passive intellect for an angel to gain insight into supernatural mysteries, which he sometimes can only grasp in potential. However, if someone wants to use the terms active and passive intellect in this context, it would be a misinterpretation; and we shouldn’t get caught up in labels.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 54, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 54, Art. 5]

Whether There Is Only Intellectual Knowledge in the Angels?

Whether There Is Only Intellectual Knowledge in the Angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that the knowledge of the angels is not exclusively intellectual. For Augustine says (De Civ. Dei viii) that in the angels there is "life which understands and feels." Therefore there is a sensitive faculty in them as well.

Objection 1: It seems that angels don’t only have intellectual knowledge. Augustine says (De Civ. Dei viii) that in angels there is "life that understands and feels." So, they must also have a sensitive faculty.

Obj. 2: Further, Isidore says (De Summo Bono) that the angels have learnt many things by experience. But experience comes of many remembrances, as stated in Metaph. i, 1. Consequently they have likewise a power of memory.

Obj. 2: Moreover, Isidore states (De Summo Bono) that angels have learned many things from experience. But experience comes from many memories, as noted in Metaph. i, 1. Therefore, they also have a capacity for memory.

Obj. 3: Further, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that there is a sort of "perverted phantasy" in the demons. But phantasy belongs to the imaginative faculty. Therefore the power of the imagination is in the demons; and for the same reason it is in the angels, since they are of the same nature.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv) that demons possess a type of "twisted imagination." Since imagination is part of the creative ability, this means demons have imaginative power. For the same reasons, angels also have this power, as they share the same nature.

On the contrary, Gregory says (Hom. 29 in Ev.), that "man senses in common with the brutes, and understands with the angels."

On the contrary, Gregory says (Hom. 29 in Ev.), that "humans have senses like animals, and understanding like angels."

I answer that, In our soul there are certain powers whose operations are exercised by corporeal organs; such powers are acts of sundry parts of the body, as sight of the eye, and hearing of the ear. There are some other powers of the soul whose operations are not performed through bodily organs, as intellect and will: these are not acts of any parts of the body. Now the angels have no bodies naturally joined to them, as is manifest from what has been said already (Q. 51, A. 1). Hence of the soul's powers only intellect and will can belong to them.

I answer that, in our soul, there are certain abilities that work through physical organs; these abilities are actions of various parts of the body, like the eye's ability to see and the ear's ability to hear. There are also other abilities of the soul that do not rely on physical organs, such as thinking and wanting: these are not actions of any body parts. Now, angels do not have bodies naturally attached to them, as has already been explained (Q. 51, A. 1). Therefore, only the soul's abilities of thinking and wanting can apply to them.

The Commentator (Metaph. xii) says the same thing, namely, that the separated substances are divided into intellect and will. And it is in keeping with the order of the universe for the highest intellectual creature to be entirely intelligent; and not in part, as is our soul. For this reason the angels are called "intellects" and "minds," as was said above (A. 3, ad 1).

The Commentator (Metaph. xii) makes the same point, stating that separate substances are categorized into intellect and will. It's in line with the structure of the universe for the highest intellectual being to be completely intelligent, unlike our soul, which is only partially so. This is why angels are referred to as "intellects" and "minds," as mentioned earlier (A. 3, ad 1).

A twofold answer can be returned to the contrary objections. First, it may be replied that those authorities are speaking according to the opinion of such men as contended that angels and demons have bodies naturally united to them. Augustine often makes use of this opinion in his books, although he does not mean to assert it; hence he says (De Civ. Dei xxi) that "such an inquiry does not call for much labor." Secondly, it may be said that such authorities and the like are to be understood by way of similitude. Because, since sense has a sure apprehension of its proper sensible object, it is a common usage of speech, when we understand something for certain, to say that we "sense it." And hence it is that we use the word "sentence." Experience can be attributed to the angels according to the likeness of the things known, although not by likeness of the faculty knowing them. We have experience when we know single objects through the senses: the angels likewise know single objects, as we shall show (Q. 57, A. 2), yet not through the senses. But memory can be allowed in the angels, according as Augustine (De Trin. x) puts it in the mind; although it cannot belong to them in so far as it is a part of the sensitive soul. In like fashion 'a perverted phantasy' is attributed to demons, since they have a false practical estimate of what is the true good; while deception in us comes properly from the phantasy, whereby we sometimes hold fast to images of things as to the things themselves, as is manifest in sleepers and lunatics. _______________________

A twofold response can be given to the opposing objections. First, it can be said that those authorities are expressing the view of people who argue that angels and demons have bodies naturally connected to them. Augustine often references this opinion in his writings, even though he does not intend to endorse it; hence he states (De Civ. Dei xxi) that "such an inquiry does not require much effort." Second, it can be argued that such authorities and similar ones should be understood metaphorically. Since our senses have a clear understanding of their specific objects, it is common to say that we "sense" something when we are certain about it. This is also why we use the term "sentence." Experience can be attributed to angels based on the resemblance of the things they know, even though not in the same way that we know them. We have experiences when we perceive individual objects through our senses: angels also know individual objects, as we will explain (Q. 57, A. 2), but not through their senses. However, memory can be ascribed to angels, as Augustine (De Trin. x) suggests it is part of the mind; although it does not apply to them in the same way it belongs to the sensitive soul. Similarly, 'a distorted imagination' is ascribed to demons, as they have a flawed practical understanding of what is truly good; whereas our deceptions arise from the imagination, where we sometimes cling to images of things as if they are the actual things, which is evident in sleepers and the insane.

QUESTION 55

OF THE MEDIUM OF THE ANGELIC KNOWLEDGE
(In Three Articles)

OF THE MEDIUM OF THE ANGELIC KNOWLEDGE
(In Three Articles)

Next in order, the question arises as to the medium of the angelic knowledge. Under this heading there are three points of inquiry:

Next, the question comes up regarding the method of angelic knowledge. There are three points to consider under this topic:

(1) Do the angels know everything by their substance, or by some species?

(1) Do angels know everything through their essence, or by some kind of representation?

(2) If by species, is it by connatural species, or is it by such as they have derived from things?

(2) If by species, is it by natural species, or is it by those derived from other things?

(3) Do the higher angels know by more universal species than the lower angels? _______________________

(3) Do the higher angels understand things through more universal concepts than the lower angels?

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 55, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 55, Art. 1]

Whether the Angels Know All Things by Their Substance?

Whether the Angels Know Everything by Their Nature?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels know all things by their substance. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii) that "the angels, according to the proper nature of a mind, know the things which are happening upon earth." But the angel's nature is his essence. Therefore the angel knows things by his essence.

Objection 1: It appears that angels understand everything through their essence. Dionysius states (Div. Nom. vii) that "angels, according to the true nature of a mind, know what is happening on earth." Since an angel's nature is its essence, it follows that the angel understands things through its essence.

Obj. 2: Further, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. xii, text. 51; De Anima iii, text. 15), "in things which are without matter, the intellect is the same as the object understood." But the object understood is the same as the one who understands it, as regards that whereby it is understood. Therefore in things without matter, such as the angels, the medium whereby the object is understood is the very substance of the one understanding it.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. xii, text. 51; De Anima iii, text. 15), "in immaterial things, the intellect is identical to the object understood." But the object understood is the same as the person who understands it, in terms of what allows it to be understood. Therefore, in immaterial beings like angels, the means by which the object is understood is the very essence of the one who understands it.

Obj. 3: Further, everything which is contained in another is there according to the mode of the container. But an angel has an intellectual nature. Therefore whatever is in him is there in an intelligible mode. But all things are in him: because the lower orders of beings are essentially in the higher, while the higher are in the lower participatively: and therefore Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that God "enfolds the whole in the whole," i.e. all in all. Therefore the angel knows all things in his substance.

Obj. 3: Additionally, everything that exists within something else does so in accordance with the way the containing entity is structured. An angel has an intellectual nature. Therefore, whatever is within the angel is present in an intelligible manner. All things exist within the angel: the lower levels of existence are fundamentally present in the higher levels, while the higher exist in the lower levels in a participatory way. Thus, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv) that God "enfolds the whole in the whole," meaning everything is contained within everything. Therefore, the angel understands all things through its essence.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "the angels are enlightened by the forms of things." Therefore they know by the forms of things, and not by their own substance.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "the angels are enlightened by the forms of things." So, they understand through the forms of things, not by their own essence.

I answer that, The medium through which the intellect understands, is compared to the intellect understanding it as its form, because it is by the form that the agent acts. Now in order that the faculty may be perfectly completed by the form, it is necessary for all things to which the faculty extends to be contained under the form. Hence it is that in things which are corruptible, the form does not perfectly complete the potentiality of the matter: because the potentiality of the matter extends to more things than are contained under this or that form. But the intellective power of the angel extends to understanding all things: because the object of the intellect is universal being or universal truth. The angel's essence, however, does not comprise all things in itself, since it is an essence restricted to a genus and species. This is proper to the Divine essence, which is infinite, simply and perfectly to comprise all things in Itself. Therefore God alone knows all things by His essence. But an angel cannot know all things by his essence; and his intellect must be perfected by some species in order to know things.

I respond that, the way the intellect understands is similar to how the intellect itself is understood as its form, because it is through the form that the agent acts. For the faculty to be fully realized by the form, everything the faculty touches must be included under that form. This is why, in corruptible things, the form does not completely fulfill the potential of the matter: because the potential of the matter encompasses more than what is included in this or that form. However, the intellective ability of an angel extends to understanding everything, since the object's intellect is universal existence or universal truth. The angel's essence, however, does not include all things within itself, as it is confined to a certain kind and species. This is characteristic of the Divine essence, which is infinite and can perfectly encompass all things within Itself. Therefore, only God knows all things by His essence. An angel, on the other hand, cannot know all things by his essence; his intellect must be enhanced by some form to understand things.

Reply Obj. 1: When it is said that the angel knows things according to his own nature, the words "according to" do not determine the medium of such knowledge, since the medium is the similitude of the thing known; but they denote the knowing power, which belongs to the angel of his own nature.

Reply Obj. 1: When it’s said that the angel knows things based on his own nature, the phrase "based on" doesn’t specify how that knowledge occurs, since the way we know something is through its similarity to the thing itself; instead, it refers to the knowledge power that the angel possesses by his own nature.

Reply Obj. 2: As the sense in act is the sensible in act, as stated in De Anima ii, text. 53, not so that the sensitive power is the sensible object's likeness contained in the sense, but because one thing is made from both as from act and potentiality: so likewise the intellect in act is said to be the thing understood in act, not that the substance of the intellect is itself the similitude by which it understands, but because that similitude is its form. Now, it is precisely the same thing to say "in things which are without matter, the intellect is the same thing as the object understood," as to say that "the intellect in act is the thing understood in act"; for a thing is actually understood, precisely because it is immaterial.

Reply Obj. 2: Just as perception in action is the perceived in action, as mentioned in De Anima ii, text. 53, it’s not that the sensing ability is simply the likeness of the perceived object contained within the sense, but rather that both come together as act and potentiality. Similarly, the intellect in action is said to be the thing understood in action, not because the essence of the intellect is the likeness it uses to understand, but because that likeness is its form. Now, saying "in things that are immaterial, the intellect is the same as the object understood" is the same as saying "the intellect in action is the thing understood in action"; for a thing is actually understood precisely because it is immaterial.

Reply Obj. 3: The things which are beneath the angel, and those which are above him, are in a measure in his substance, not indeed perfectly, nor according to their own proper formality—because the angel's essence, as being finite, is distinguished by its own formality from other things—but according to some common formality. Yet all things are perfectly and according to their own formality in God's essence, as in the first and universal operative power, from which proceeds whatever is proper or common to anything. Therefore God has a proper knowledge of all things by His own essence: and this the angel has not, but only a common knowledge. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The things that are below the angel and those above him exist to some extent within his being, not completely or according to their unique nature—because the angel's essence, being finite, is defined by its own nature apart from other things—but according to some shared characteristics. However, all things exist perfectly and according to their own nature in God's essence, as the ultimate and universal source of power, from which everything unique or common arises. Therefore, God has a complete understanding of all things through His own essence; the angel, on the other hand, only has a general understanding.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 55, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 55, Art. 2]

Whether the Angels Understand by Species Drawn from Things?

Whether the Angels Get it by Species Derived from Things?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels understand by species drawn from things. For everything understood is apprehended by some likeness within him who understands it. But the likeness of the thing existing in another is there either by way of an exemplar, so that the likeness is the cause of the thing; or else by way of an image, so that it is caused by such thing. All knowledge, then, of the person understanding must either be the cause of the object understood, or else caused by it. Now the angel's knowledge is not the cause of existing things; that belongs to the Divine knowledge alone. Therefore it is necessary for the species, by which the angelic mind understands, to be derived from things.

Objection 1: It seems that angels understand through concepts formed from things. This is because everything we comprehend is grasped through some kind of representation within the person who understands it. The representation of a thing in another can exist either as an example, making the representation the source of the thing, or as an image, meaning the thing is created by that representation. Therefore, all knowledge of the person understanding must either originate from the object being understood or be influenced by it. However, angelic knowledge does not cause things to exist; that role belongs solely to Divine knowledge. Thus, the concepts through which the angelic mind understands must come from actual things.

Obj. 2: Further, the angelic light is stronger than the light of the active intellect of the soul. But the light of the active intellect abstracts intelligible species from phantasms. Therefore the light of the angelic mind can also abstract species from sensible things. So there is nothing to hinder us from saying that the angel understands through species drawn from things.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the angelic light is more powerful than the light of the active intellect of the soul. The light of the active intellect abstracts intelligible forms from images. Therefore, the light of the angelic mind can also abstract forms from sensory things. So, there's nothing stopping us from saying that the angel understands through forms drawn from things.

Obj. 3: Further, the species in the intellect are indifferent to what is present or distant, except in so far as they are taken from sensible objects. Therefore, if the angel does not understand by species drawn from things, his knowledge would be indifferent as to things present and distant; and so he would be moved locally to no purpose.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the concepts in the mind are neutral regarding what is near or far, except as they are derived from observable objects. Therefore, if the angel does not understand through concepts taken from things, his knowledge would be indifferent to both present and distant objects; thus, he would be moved physically without reason.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii) that the "angels do not gather their Divine knowledge from things divisible or sensible."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii) that the "angels do not derive their Divine knowledge from things that can be divided or perceived by the senses."

I answer that, The species whereby the angels understand are not drawn from things, but are connatural to them. For we must observe that there is a similarity between the distinction and order of spiritual substances and the distinction and order of corporeal substances. The highest bodies have in their nature a potentiality which is fully perfected by the form; whereas in the lower bodies the potentiality of matter is not entirely perfected by the form, but receives from some agent, now one form, now another. In like fashion also the lower intellectual substances —that is to say, human souls—have a power of understanding which is not naturally complete, but is successively completed in them by their drawing intelligible species from things. But in the higher spiritual substances—that is, the angels—the power of understanding is naturally complete by intelligible species, in so far as they have such species connatural to them, so as to understand all things which they can know naturally.

I answer that, The way angels understand is not based on external things, but is inherent to them. We should note that there is a similarity between the distinctions and organization of spiritual beings and those of physical beings. The highest bodies possess a potential that is fully realized by their form; in contrast, the lower bodies do not fully actualize the potential of matter through their form but receive various forms from some external agent. Similarly, lower intellectual beings—that is, human souls—have an understanding that isn't naturally whole but is gradually developed by acquiring concepts from the world around them. However, for higher spiritual beings—that is, angels—their understanding is inherently complete through the concepts that are natural to them, enabling them to grasp all that they can know by nature.

The same is evident from the manner of existence of such substances. The lower spiritual substances—that is, souls—have a nature akin to a body, in so far as they are the forms of bodies: and consequently from their very mode of existence it behooves them to seek their intelligible perfection from bodies, and through bodies; otherwise they would be united with bodies to no purpose. On the other hand, the higher substances—that is, the angels—are utterly free from bodies, and subsist immaterially and in their own intelligible nature; consequently they attain their intelligible perfection through an intelligible outpouring, whereby they received from God the species of things known, together with their intellectual nature. Hence Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii, 8): "The other things which are lower than the angels are so created that they first receive existence in the knowledge of the rational creature, and then in their own nature."

The same is clear from how these substances exist. The lower spiritual substances—meaning souls—have a nature similar to a body, as they are the forms of bodies. Therefore, by their very way of existing, they must seek their intelligible perfection through bodies; otherwise, their connection to bodies would serve no purpose. In contrast, the higher substances—meaning angels—are completely free from bodies and exist immaterially in their own intelligible nature. As a result, they achieve their intelligible perfection through an intelligible outpouring, where they receive knowledge of things from God, along with their intellectual nature. Therefore, Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. ii, 8): "The other things that are lower than the angels are created in such a way that they first gain existence in the knowledge of the rational creature, and then in their own nature."

Reply Obj. 1: There are images of creatures in the angel's mind, not, indeed derived from creatures, but from God, Who is the cause of creatures, and in Whom the likenesses of creatures first exist. Hence Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii, 8) that, "As the type, according to which the creature is fashioned, is in the Word of God before the creature which is fashioned, so the knowledge of the same type exists first in the intellectual creature, and is afterwards the very fashioning of the creature."

Reply Obj. 1: The angel has images of creatures in its mind, not directly taken from creatures, but from God, who is the source of creatures. The likenesses of creatures exist first in God. Therefore, Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. ii, 8) that, "Just as the model, which the creature is shaped after, exists in the Word of God before the creature is made, so the understanding of that same model exists first in the intellectual being and then becomes the actual creation of the creature."

Reply Obj. 2: To go from one extreme to the other it is necessary to pass through the middle. Now the nature of a form in the imagination, which form is without matter but not without material conditions, stands midway between the nature of a form which is in matter, and the nature of a form which is in the intellect by abstraction from matter and from material conditions. Consequently, however powerful the angelic mind might be, it could not reduce material forms to an intelligible condition, except it were first to reduce them to the nature of imagined forms; which is impossible, since the angel has no imagination, as was said above (Q. 54, A. 5). Even granted that he could abstract intelligible species from material things, yet he would not do so; because he would not need them, for he has connatural intelligible species.

Reply Obj. 2: To move from one extreme to another, you have to go through the middle. The nature of a form in the imagination, which exists without matter but has material conditions, is between the form that exists in matter and the form that exists in the intellect through abstraction from matter and its conditions. Therefore, no matter how powerful an angelic mind might be, it cannot simplify material forms into something understandable unless it first transforms them into the nature of imagined forms; this is impossible since angels do not have imagination, as mentioned earlier (Q. 54, A. 5). Even if it could abstract intelligible forms from material things, it wouldn't need to because it possesses its own inherent intelligible forms.

Reply Obj. 3: The angel's knowledge is quite indifferent as to what is near or distant. Nevertheless his local movement is not purposeless on that account: for he is not moved to a place for the purpose of acquiring knowledge, but for the purpose of operation. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The angel's knowledge doesn't really care about what is close or far away. Still, his movements aren't random: he's not moving to a place just to gain knowledge, but to take action.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 55, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 55, Art. 3]

Whether the Higher Angels Understand by More Universal Species Than the Lower Angels?

Whether the Higher Angels Understand by More Universal Types Than the Lower Angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that the higher angels do not understand by more universal species than the lower angels. For the universal, seemingly, is what is abstracted from particulars. But angels do not understand by species abstracted from things. Therefore it cannot be said that the species of the angelic intellect are more or less universal.

Objection 1: It seems that higher angels don’t understand more universal concepts than lower angels do. The universal, it appears, is what is derived from specific things. However, angels do not understand by concepts derived from physical things. Therefore, it can't be said that the types of understanding in the angelic intellect are more or less universal.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is known in detail is more perfectly known than what is known generically; because to know anything generically is, in a fashion, midway between potentiality and act. If, therefore, the higher angels know by more universal species than the lower, it follows that the higher have a more imperfect knowledge than the lower; which is not befitting.

Obj. 2: Moreover, anything that is understood in detail is better understood than something that is only known generally; because knowing something in general is kind of a halfway point between potential and actual understanding. So, if the higher angels understand more universal concepts than the lower ones, it means that the higher angels have a less perfect knowledge than the lower angels; which doesn't make sense.

Obj. 3: Further, the same cannot be the proper type of many. But if the higher angel knows various things by one universal form, which the lower angel knows by several special forms, it follows that the higher angel uses one universal form for knowing various things. Therefore he will not be able to have a proper knowledge of each; which seems unbecoming.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the same cannot be the proper kind of many. But if the higher angel understands various things through one universal form, which the lower angel understands through several specific forms, it follows that the higher angel uses one universal form to comprehend various things. Therefore, he will not be able to have a complete understanding of each, which seems inappropriate.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. xii) that the higher angels have a more universal knowledge than the lower. And in De Causis it is said that the higher angels have more universal forms.

On the contrary, Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. xii) that the higher angels possess a broader knowledge than the lower ones. Additionally, in De Causis, it is mentioned that the higher angels have more universal forms.

I answer that, For this reason are some things of a more exalted nature, because they are nearer to and more like unto the first, which is God. Now in God the whole plenitude of intellectual knowledge is contained in one thing, that is to say, in the Divine essence, by which God knows all things. This plenitude of knowledge is found in created intellects in a lower manner, and less simply. Consequently it is necessary for the lower intelligences to know by many forms what God knows by one, and by so many forms the more according as the intellect is lower.

I answer that, Some things are considered to be of a higher nature because they are closer to and more similar to the first cause, which is God. In God, the entire fullness of intellectual knowledge is contained in one essence, meaning that God knows all things. This fullness of knowledge exists in created intellects in a lesser and more complex way. Therefore, lower intelligences must understand through many different forms what God knows through one single form, and the number of forms they require increases as the intellect becomes lower.

Thus the higher the angel is, by so much the fewer species will he be able to apprehend the whole mass of intelligible objects. Therefore his forms must be more universal; each one of them, as it were, extending to more things. An example of this can in some measure be observed in ourselves. For some people there are who cannot grasp an intelligible truth, unless it be explained to them in every part and detail; this comes of their weakness of intellect: while there are others of stronger intellect, who can grasp many things from few.

So, the higher the angel is, the fewer types of things he can understand in their entirety. This means his forms need to be more universal; each one encompasses a wider range of concepts. We can see a bit of this in ourselves. Some people struggle to understand a concept unless it's explained in every single detail; this is due to their limited understanding. On the other hand, there are others with a stronger intellect who can grasp a lot from just a few points.

Reply Obj. 1: It is accidental to the universal to be abstracted from particulars, in so far as the intellect knowing it derives its knowledge from things. But if there be an intellect which does not derive its knowledge from things, the universal which it knows will not be abstracted from things, but in a measure will be pre-existing to them; either according to the order of causality, as the universal ideas of things are in the Word of God; or at least in the order of nature, as the universal ideas of things are in the angelic mind.

Reply Obj. 1: It's incidental for universals to be separate from particulars, since the intellect gains its understanding from things. However, if there is an intellect that doesn't obtain knowledge from things, the universal it understands won't be separated from them; instead, it will somewhat pre-exist them. This could be in the order of causality, like the universal ideas of things in the Word of God; or at least in the order of nature, as the universal ideas of things exist in the mind of angels.

Reply Obj. 2: To know anything universally can be taken in two senses. In one way, on the part of the thing known, namely, that only the universal nature of the thing is known. To know a thing thus is something less perfect: for he would have but an imperfect knowledge of a man who only knew him to be an animal. In another way, on the part of the medium of such knowledge. In this way it is more perfect to know a thing in the universal; for the intellect, which by one universal medium can know each of the things which are properly contained in it, is more perfect than one which cannot.

Reply Obj. 2: Knowing something universally can mean two things. First, it looks at the thing being known and focuses only on its universal nature. Knowing something this way is less perfect: a person would have an incomplete understanding of a man if they only recognized him as an animal. Second, it pertains to the method of knowledge. In this case, knowing something universally is more complete because the intellect that can understand each specific thing through a single universal concept is more advanced than one that cannot.

Reply Obj. 3: The same cannot be the proper and adequate type of several things. But if it be eminent, then it can be taken as the proper type and likeness of many. Just as in man, there is a universal prudence with respect to all the acts of the virtues; which can be taken as the proper type and likeness of that prudence which in the lion leads to acts of magnanimity, and in the fox to acts of wariness; and so on of the rest. The Divine essence, on account of Its eminence, is in like fashion taken as the proper type of each thing contained therein: hence each one is likened to It according to its proper type. The same applies to the universal form which is in the mind of the angel, so that, on account of its excellence, many things can be known through it with a proper knowledge. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The same cannot be the correct and suitable type of several things. However, if it is exceptional, then it can be considered the proper type and likeness of many. Just like with humans, there is a universal wisdom regarding all acts of virtue; this can be seen as the proper type and likeness of the wisdom that in lions leads to acts of bravery, and in foxes to acts of caution, and so on for others. The Divine essence, because of Its exceptional nature, is similarly regarded as the proper type of each thing included within It: therefore, each thing is compared to It according to its proper type. The same goes for the universal form that exists in the angelic mind, so that, due to its greatness, many things can be understood through it with proper knowledge.

QUESTION 56

OF THE ANGEL'S KNOWLEDGE OF IMMATERIAL THINGS
(In Three Articles)

OF THE ANGEL'S UNDERSTANDING OF NON-PHYSICAL THINGS
(In Three Parts)

We now inquire into the knowledge of the angels with regard to the objects known by them. We shall treat of their knowledge, first, of immaterial things, secondly of things material. Under the first heading there are three points of inquiry:

We now look into what the angels know about the things they are aware of. We'll discuss their knowledge, first of non-physical things, and second of physical things. Under the first topic, there are three areas we need to explore:

(1) Does an angel know himself?

(1) Does an angel know who he is?

(2) Does one angel know another?

(2) Do angels know each other?

(3) Does the angel know God by his own natural principles? _______________________

(3) Does the angel understand God through his own natural principles? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 56, Art 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 56, Art 1]

Whether an Angel Knows Himself?

Does an Angel Know Itself?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel does not know himself. For
Dionysius says that "the angels do not know their own powers" (Coel.
Hier. vi). But, when the substance is known, the power is known.
Therefore an angel does not know his own essence.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel does not know himself. For
Dionysius says that "the angels do not know their own powers" (Coel.
Hier. vi). But, when the substance is known, the power is known.
Therefore, an angel does not know his own essence.

Obj. 2: Further, an angel is a single substance, otherwise he would not act, since acts belong to single subsistences. But nothing single is intelligible. Therefore, since the angel possesses only knowledge which is intellectual, no angel can know himself.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, an angel is a single entity; otherwise, it wouldn't be able to act, since actions belong to single existences. However, nothing that is single can be understood. Therefore, since the angel has only intellectual knowledge, no angel can know itself.

Obj. 3: Further, the intellect is moved by the intelligible object: because, as stated in De Anima iii, 4 understanding is a kind of passion. But nothing is moved by or is passive to itself; as appears in corporeal things. Therefore the angel cannot understand himself.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the intellect is influenced by the object of understanding: because, as mentioned in De Anima iii, 4, understanding is a type of passion. But nothing can be moved by or be passive to itself, as seen in physical things. Therefore, an angel cannot understand itself.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii) that "the angel knew himself when he was established, that is, enlightened by truth."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii) that "the angel recognized himself when he was created, meaning, inspired by truth."

I answer that, As is evident from what has been previously said (Q. 14, A. 2; Q. 54, A. 2), the object is on a different footing in an immanent, and in a transient, action. In a transient action the object or matter into which the action passes is something separate from the agent, as the thing heated is from what gave it heat, and the building from the builder; whereas in an immanent action, for the action to proceed, the object must be united with the agent; just as the sensible object must be in contact with sense, in order that sense may actually perceive. And the object which is united to a faculty bears the same relation to actions of this kind as does the form which is the principle of action in other agents: for, as heat is the formal principle of heating in the fire, so is the species of the thing seen the formal principle of sight to the eye.

I respond that, As has been clearly stated earlier (Q. 14, A. 2; Q. 54, A. 2), the object is treated differently in an immanent action compared to a transient action. In a transient action, the object or matter that the action affects is something separate from the agent, like the object being heated is separate from the one providing the heat, and the building is separate from the builder. In contrast, for an immanent action to occur, the object must be connected to the agent; just as a sensory object must be in contact with perception for the senses to actually perceive it. The object that is connected to a faculty relates to actions of this kind in the same way as the form that serves as the source of action in other agents: just as heat is the source of heating in fire, the specific aspect of the object seen is the source of sight for the eye.

It must, however, be borne in mind that this image of the object exists sometimes only potentially in the knowing faculty; and then there is only knowledge in potentiality; and in order that there may be actual knowledge, it is required that the faculty of knowledge be actuated by the species. But if it always actually possesses the species, it can thereby have actual knowledge without any preceding change or reception. From this it is evident that it is not of the nature of knower, as knowing, to be moved by the object, but as knowing in potentiality. Now, for the form to be the principle of the action, it makes no difference whether it be inherent in something else, or self-subsisting; because heat would give forth heat none the less if it were self-subsisting, than it does by inhering in something else. So therefore, if in the order of intelligible beings there be any subsisting intelligible form, it will understand itself. And since an angel is immaterial, he is a subsisting form; and, consequently, he is actually intelligible. Hence it follows that he understands himself by his form, which is his substance.

However, it’s important to remember that this image of the object sometimes exists only potentially in the knowledge faculty; at that point, there is only potential knowledge. For there to be actual knowledge, the knowledge faculty needs to be activated by the species. But if it always actually has the species, it can attain actual knowledge without any prior change or reception. This shows that it is not the nature of the knower, as knowing, to be moved by the object, but rather as knowing in potentiality. Now, for the form to be the principle of action, it doesn’t matter whether it exists in something else or is self-subsisting; for example, heat would still produce heat whether it is self-subsisting or inherent in something else. Therefore, if there is any self-subsisting intelligible form in the order of intelligible beings, it will understand itself. And since an angel is immaterial, he is a self-subsisting form; thus, he is actually intelligible. Consequently, he understands himself through his form, which is his substance.

Reply Obj. 1: That is the text of the old translation, which is amended in the new one, and runs thus: "furthermore they," that is to say the angels, "knew their own powers": instead of which the old translation read—"and furthermore they do not know their own powers." Although even the letter of the old translation might be kept in this respect, that the angels do not know their own power perfectly; according as it proceeds from the order of the Divine Wisdom, Which to the angels is incomprehensible.

Reply Obj. 1: That is the text from the old translation, which has been updated in the new one, and goes like this: "furthermore they," referring to the angels, "knew their own powers": instead of which the old translation said—"and furthermore they do not know their own powers." Although even the wording of the old translation could be retained here, in the sense that the angels don't fully understand their own power; since it comes from the order of Divine Wisdom, which is incomprehensible to the angels.

Reply Obj. 2: We have no knowledge of single corporeal things, not because of their particularity, but on account of the matter, which is their principle of individuation. Accordingly, if there be any single things subsisting without matter, as the angels are, there is nothing to prevent them from being actually intelligible.

Reply Obj. 2: We don’t know individual physical things, not due to their uniqueness, but because of matter, which is what makes them individual. Therefore, if there are any individual things that exist without matter, like angels, there’s nothing stopping them from being fully understandable.

Reply Obj. 3: It belongs to the intellect, in so far as it is in potentiality, to be moved and to be passive. Hence this does not happen in the angelic intellect, especially as regards the fact that he understands himself. Besides the action of the intellect is not of the same nature as the action found in corporeal things, which passes into some other matter. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The intellect, when it is in potentiality, can be moved and be passive. Therefore, this doesn’t happen in the angelic intellect, particularly concerning its ability to understand itself. Also, the action of the intellect is different from the action found in physical things, which changes into something else.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 56, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 56, Art. 2]

Whether One Angel Knows Another?

Do angels recognize each other?

Objection 1: It would seem that one angel does not know another. For the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, text. 4), that if the human intellect were to have in itself any one of the sensible things, then such a nature existing within it would prevent it from apprehending external things; as likewise, if the pupil of the eye were colored with some particular color, it could not see every color. But as the human intellect is disposed for understanding corporeal things, so is the angelic mind for understanding immaterial things. Therefore, since the angelic intellect has within itself some one determinate nature from the number of such natures, it would seem that it cannot understand other natures.

Objection 1: It seems that one angel does not know another. The Philosopher states (De Anima iii, text. 4) that if the human intellect were to contain any one of the sensible things, that nature within it would block it from understanding external things; similarly, if the pupil of the eye were tinted with a specific color, it could not see all colors. Just as the human intellect is designed to understand physical things, the angelic mind is designed to understand non-physical things. Therefore, since the angelic intellect contains a specific determinate nature from a range of such natures, it seems that it cannot comprehend other natures.

Obj. 2: Further, it is stated in De Causis that "every intelligence knows what is above it, in so far as it is caused by it; and what is beneath it, in so far as it is its cause." But one angel is not the cause of another. Therefore one angel does not know another.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, it states in De Causis that "every intelligence knows what is above it, in as much as it is caused by it; and what is below it, in as much as it is its cause." However, one angel is not the cause of another. Therefore, one angel does not know another.

Obj. 3: Further, one angel cannot be known to another angel by the essence of the one knowing; because all knowledge is effected by way of a likeness. But the essence of the angel knowing is not like the essence of the angel known, except generically; as is clear from what has been said before (Q. 50, A. 4; Q. 55, A. 1, ad 3). Hence, it follows that one angel would not have a particular knowledge of another, but only a general knowledge. In like manner it cannot be said that one angel knows another by the essence of the angel known; because that whereby the intellect understands is something within the intellect; whereas the Trinity alone can penetrate the mind. Again, it cannot be said that one angel knows the other by a species; because that species would not differ from the angel understood, since each is immaterial. Therefore in no way does it appear that one angel can understand another.

Obj. 3: Additionally, one angel cannot truly know another angel through the essence of the one that knows because all knowledge happens through some kind of likeness. However, the essence of the knowing angel isn’t similar to the essence of the known angel, except in a general sense, as we've discussed earlier (Q. 50, A. 4; Q. 55, A. 1, ad 3). Therefore, it follows that one angel wouldn’t have specific knowledge about another, only general knowledge. Similarly, it cannot be claimed that one angel understands another through the essence of the known angel; this is because what the intellect understands is something within the intellect itself, and only the Trinity can truly understand the mind. Furthermore, it can't be said that one angel understands the other through a species, because that species wouldn't differ from the understood angel, since both are immaterial. Thus, it seems that there’s no way for one angel to truly understand another.

Obj. 4: Further, if one angel did understand another, this would be either by an innate species; and so it would follow that, if God were now to create another angel, such an angel could not be known by the existing angels; or else he would have to be known by a species drawn from things; and so it would follow that the higher angels could not know the lower, from whom they receive nothing. Therefore in no way does it seem that one angel knows another.

Obj. 4: Additionally, if one angel could understand another, it would be either through an inherent quality; in that case, if God were to create another angel, the existing angels wouldn’t be able to recognize it. Or, alternatively, the new angel would have to be understood through a quality derived from things; thus, higher angels wouldn't be able to know the lower ones since they receive nothing from them. Therefore, it seems impossible for one angel to know another.

On the contrary, We read in De Causis that "every intelligence knows the things which are not corrupted."

On the contrary, we read in De Causis that "every intelligence knows the things that are not corrupted."

I answer that, As Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. lit. ii), such things as pre-existed from eternity in the Word of God, came forth from Him in two ways: first, into the angelic mind; and secondly, so as to subsist in their own natures. They proceeded into the angelic mind in such a way, that God impressed upon the angelic mind the images of the things which He produced in their own natural being. Now in the Word of God from eternity there existed not only the forms of corporeal things, but likewise the forms of all spiritual creatures. So in every one of these spiritual creatures, the forms of all things, both corporeal and spiritual, were impressed by the Word of God; yet so that in every angel there was impressed the form of his own species according to both its natural and its intelligible condition, so that he should subsist in the nature of his species, and understand himself by it; while the forms of other spiritual and corporeal natures were impressed in him only according to their intelligible natures, so that by such impressed species he might know corporeal and spiritual creatures.

I answer that, As Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. lit. ii), things that existed eternally in the Word of God manifested in two ways: first, within the angelic mind; and second, as they truly exist in their own right. They entered the angelic mind in such a manner that God instilled the images of the things He created into the angelic mind. From eternity, the Word of God contained not only the forms of physical things but also the forms of all spiritual beings. In each of these spiritual beings, the forms of all things, both physical and spiritual, were engraved by the Word of God; however, in every angel, the form of its own species was imprinted in a way that aligned with both its natural and intellectual nature, allowing it to exist in the essence of its species and understand itself through it. Meanwhile, the forms of other spiritual and physical natures were imprinted in the angel only in terms of their intellectual properties, enabling it to recognize physical and spiritual beings through those imprinted forms.

Reply Obj. 1: The spiritual natures of the angels are distinguished from one another in a certain order, as was already observed (Q. 50, A. 4, ad 1, 2). So the nature of an angel does not hinder him from knowing the other angelic natures, since both the higher and lower bear affinity to his nature, the only difference being according to their various degrees of perfection.

Reply Obj. 1: The spiritual beings of the angels are categorized in a specific order, as mentioned earlier (Q. 50, A. 4, ad 1, 2). Therefore, an angel's nature doesn’t prevent him from understanding the other angelic natures, since both higher and lower angels are related to his nature, with the only difference being their varying levels of perfection.

Reply Obj. 2: The nature of cause and effect does not lead one angel to know another, except on account of likeness, so far as cause and effect are alike. Therefore if likeness without causality be admitted in the angels, this will suffice for one to know another.

Reply Obj. 2: The way cause and effect work does not allow one angel to know another unless they are similar in terms of cause and effect. So, if similarity without causality is accepted among angels, that would be enough for one to know another.

Reply Obj. 3: One angel knows another by the species of such angel existing in his intellect, which differs from the angel whose image it is, not according to material and immaterial nature, but according to natural and intentional existence. The angel is himself a subsisting form in his natural being; but his species in the intellect of another angel is not so, for there it possesses only an intelligible existence. As the form of color on the wall has a natural existence; but, in the deferent medium, it has only intentional existence.

Reply Obj. 3: One angel recognizes another by the type of angel that exists in his understanding, which is different from the angel whose image it is, not in terms of physical and non-physical nature, but in terms of natural and intentional existence. The angel himself is a distinct being in his natural state; however, the type in the understanding of another angel does not exist in the same way, as it only has an intelligible existence there. Just like the color on the wall has a physical existence; but, in a different medium, it only has intentional existence.

Reply Obj. 4: God made every creature proportionate to the universe which He determined to make. Therefore had God resolved to make more angels or more natures of things, He would have impressed more intelligible species in the angelic minds; as a builder who, if he had intended to build a larger house, would have made larger foundations. Hence, for God to add a new creature to the universe, means that He would add a new intelligible species to an angel. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: God created every creature in proportion to the universe that He decided to create. So if God had planned to make more angels or different kinds of things, He would have given the angelic minds more intelligible forms. Just like a builder, who if he intended to build a larger house, would create a bigger foundation. Therefore, for God to add a new creature to the universe means that He would also add a new intelligible form to an angel.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 56, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 56, Art. 3]

Whether an Angel Knows God by His Own Natural Principles?

Whether an Angel Understands God through Its Own Natural Principles?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels cannot know God by their natural principles. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. i) that God "by His incomprehensible might is placed above all heavenly minds." Afterwards he adds that, "since He is above all substances, He is remote from all knowledge."

Objection 1: It seems that angels cannot know God through their natural abilities. For Dionysius states (Div. Nom. i) that God "by His incomprehensible power is above all heavenly minds." He also adds that, "since He is above all substances, He is distant from all knowledge."

Obj. 2: Further, God is infinitely above the intellect of an angel. But what is infinitely beyond cannot be reached. Therefore it appears that an angel cannot know God by his natural principles.

Obj. 2: Additionally, God is far beyond what an angel’s intellect can grasp. But something that is infinitely beyond cannot be comprehended. Therefore, it seems that an angel cannot know God through his natural understanding.

Obj. 3: Further, it is written (1 Cor. 13:12): "We see now through a glass in a dark manner; but then face to face." From this it appears that there is a twofold knowledge of God; the one, whereby He is seen in His essence, according to which He is said to be seen face to face; the other whereby He is seen in the mirror of creatures. As was already shown (Q. 12, A. 4), an angel cannot have the former knowledge by his natural principles. Nor does vision through a mirror belong to the angels, since they do not derive their knowledge of God from sensible things, as Dionysius observes (Div. Nom. vii). Therefore the angels cannot know God by their natural powers.

Obj. 3: Additionally, it is written (1 Cor. 13:12): "Now we see in a mirror dimly, but then face to face." This suggests that there are two ways to know God: one is by seeing Him in His essence, which is referred to as seeing Him face to face; the other is by seeing Him reflected in His creations. As previously shown (Q. 12, A. 4), an angel cannot achieve the first type of knowledge based on their natural abilities. Furthermore, the idea of seeing through a mirror does not apply to angels, since they do not gain their understanding of God from physical things, as Dionysius points out (Div. Nom. vii). Therefore, angels cannot comprehend God through their natural powers.

On the contrary, The angels are mightier in knowledge than men. Yet men can know God through their natural principles; according to Rom. 1:19: "what is known of God is manifest in them." Therefore much more so can the angels.

On the contrary, the angels know more than humans. However, humans can understand God through their basic instincts; as it says in Rom. 1:19: "what is known of God is evident in them." So, the angels can know Him even better.

I answer that, The angels can have some knowledge of God by their own principles. In evidence whereof it must be borne in mind that a thing is known in three ways: first, by the presence of its essence in the knower, as light can be seen in the eye; and so we have said that an angel knows himself—secondly, by the presence of its similitude in the power which knows it, as a stone is seen by the eye from its image being in the eye—thirdly, when the image of the object known is not drawn directly from the object itself, but from something else in which it is made to appear, as when we behold a man in a mirror.

I respond that angels can understand some aspects of God based on their own nature. To illustrate this, it’s important to note that something can be known in three ways: first, by having its essence present in the observer, like how light is perceived by the eye; thus, we say that an angel knows itself. Second, by having its likeness existing in the ability that perceives it, like how a stone is seen by the eye from the image reflected in it. Third, when the image of the known object does not come directly from the object itself, but rather from something else in which it is reflected, like when we see a person in a mirror.

To the first-named class that knowledge of God is likened by which He is seen through His essence; and knowledge such as this cannot accrue to any creature from its natural principles, as was said above (Q. 12, A. 4). The third class comprises the knowledge whereby we know God while we are on earth, by His likeness reflected in creatures, according to Rom. 1:20: "The invisible things of God are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made." Hence, too, we are said to see God in a mirror. But the knowledge, whereby according to his natural principles the angel knows God, stands midway between these two; and is likened to that knowledge whereby a thing is seen through the species abstracted from it. For since God's image is impressed on the very nature of the angel in his essence, the angel knows God in as much as he is the image of God. Yet he does not behold God's essence; because no created likeness is sufficient to represent the Divine essence. Such knowledge then approaches rather to the specular kind; because the angelic nature is itself a kind of mirror representing the Divine image.

To the first class, knowledge of God is compared to seeing Him through His essence; this kind of knowledge cannot be gained by any creature from its natural principles, as mentioned earlier (Q. 12, A. 4). The third class consists of the knowledge we have of God while on earth, which comes from His likeness reflected in creatures, in line with Rom. 1:20: "The invisible things of God are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made." That's why we are said to see God in a mirror. The knowledge that an angel has of God, derived from its natural principles, falls between these two; it is compared to the kind of knowledge that comes from seeing a thing through its abstracted forms. Since God's image is impressed on the very nature of the angel in its essence, the angel knows God as much as it is the image of God. However, it does not perceive God’s essence fully; no created likeness is adequate to represent the Divine essence. This knowledge is more akin to a reflective type, because the angelic nature itself acts as a sort of mirror that represents the Divine image.

Reply Obj. 1: Dionysius is speaking of the knowledge of comprehension, as his words expressly state. In this way God is not known by any created intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: Dionysius is referring to the knowledge of comprehension, as his words clearly indicate. In this sense, God cannot be understood by any created intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: Since an angel's intellect and essence are infinitely remote from God, it follows that he cannot comprehend Him; nor can he see God's essence through his own nature. Yet it does not follow on that account that he can have no knowledge of Him at all: because, as God is infinitely remote from the angel, so the knowledge which God has of Himself is infinitely above the knowledge which an angel has of Him.

Reply Obj. 2: Since an angel's intelligence and essence are infinitely distant from God, it follows that he cannot fully understand Him; nor can he perceive God's essence through his own nature. However, this does not mean that he has no knowledge of Him at all: just as God is infinitely distant from the angel, the knowledge that God has of Himself is infinitely greater than the knowledge that an angel has of Him.

Reply Obj. 3: The knowledge which an angel has of God is midway between these two kinds of knowledge; nevertheless it approaches more to one of them, as was said above. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The knowledge that an angel has of God is in between these two types of knowledge; however, it leans more towards one of them, as mentioned earlier.

QUESTION 57

OF THE ANGEL'S KNOWLEDGE OF MATERIAL THINGS
(In Five Articles)

OF THE ANGEL'S KNOWLEDGE OF MATERIAL THINGS
(In Five Articles)

We next investigate the material objects which are known by the angels. Under this heading there are five points of inquiry:

We will now look into the physical objects that the angels are aware of. This topic includes five areas of investigation:

(1) Whether the angels know the natures of material things?

(1) Do the angels understand the nature of material things?

(2) Whether they know single things?

(2) Do they know individual things?

(3) Whether they know the future?

(3) Do they know the future?

(4) Whether they know secret thoughts?

(4) Do they know secret thoughts?

(5) Whether they know all mysteries of grace? _______________________

(5) Do they know all the secrets of grace? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 57, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 57, Art. 1]

Whether the Angels Know Material Things?

Whether the Angels Understand Material Things?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels do not know material things. For the object understood is the perfection of him who understands it. But material things cannot be the perfections of angels, since they are beneath them. Therefore the angels do not know material things.

Objection 1: It appears that angels do not understand material things. The object of understanding represents the perfection of the one who understands it. However, material things cannot be the perfections of angels since they are below them. Therefore, angels do not know material things.

Obj. 2: Further, intellectual vision is only of such things as exist within the soul by their essence, as is said in the gloss [*On 2 Cor. 12:2, taken from Augustine (Gen. ad lit. xii. 28)]. But the material things cannot enter by their essence into man's soul, nor into the angel's mind. Therefore they cannot be known by intellectual vision, but only by imaginary vision, whereby the images of bodies are apprehended, and by sensible vision, which regards bodies in themselves. Now there is neither imaginary nor sensible vision in the angels, but only intellectual. Therefore the angels cannot know material things.

Obj. 2: Additionally, intellectual vision only pertains to things that exist within the soul by their essence, as stated in the commentary [*On 2 Cor. 12:2, taken from Augustine (Gen. ad lit. xii. 28)]. However, material things cannot enter into a person's soul or an angel's mind by their essence. Therefore, they can't be known through intellectual vision, but only through imaginative vision, which perceives the images of bodies, and through sensory vision, which considers bodies as they are. Since angels do not possess imaginative or sensory vision, only intellectual vision, they cannot know material things.

Obj. 3: Further, material things are not actually intelligible, but are knowable by apprehension of sense and of imagination, which does not exist in angels. Therefore angels do not know material things.

Obj. 3: Additionally, physical things are not truly understandable; instead, they are known through sensory perception and imagination, which do not exist in angels. Therefore, angels do not know physical things.

On the contrary, Whatever the lower power can do, the higher can do likewise. But man's intellect, which in the order of nature is inferior to the angel's, can know material things. Therefore much more can the mind of an angel.

On the contrary, Whatever the lower power can do, the higher can do as well. But human intellect, which in the natural order is inferior to that of an angel, can understand material things. Therefore, the mind of an angel can understand even more.

I answer that, The established order of things is for the higher beings to be more perfect than the lower; and for whatever is contained deficiently, partially, and in manifold manner in the lower beings, to be contained in the higher eminently, and in a certain degree of fulness and simplicity. Therefore, in God, as in the highest source of things, all things pre-exist supersubstantially in respect of His simple Being itself, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. 1). But among other creatures the angels are nearest to God, and resemble Him most; hence they share more fully and more perfectly in the Divine goodness, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. iv). Consequently, all material things pre-exist in the angels more simply and less materially even than in themselves, yet in a more manifold manner and less perfectly than in God.

I answer that, The established order is that higher beings are more perfect than lower ones; and whatever is missing, partial, or present in multiple ways in lower beings is fully and simply present in higher beings. Therefore, in God, as the ultimate source of everything, all things exist in a superessential way in relation to His simple existence itself, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. 1). Among all creatures, angels are closest to God and resemble Him the most; thus, they participate more fully and perfectly in Divine goodness, as Dionysius points out (Coel. Hier. iv). As a result, all material things exist in the angels more simply and less materially than in themselves, but in a more varied and less perfect way than in God.

Now whatever exists in any subject, is contained in it after the manner of such subject. But the angels are intellectual beings of their own nature. Therefore, as God knows material things by His essence, so do the angels know them, forasmuch as they are in the angels by their intelligible species.

Now, everything that exists in any subject is contained within it according to the nature of that subject. But angels are intellectual beings by their very nature. Therefore, just as God understands material things through His essence, the angels understand them as well, since these things exist in the angels through their intelligible forms.

Reply Obj. 1: The thing understood is the perfection of the one who understands, by reason of the intelligible species which he has in his intellect. And thus the intelligible species which are in the intellect of an angel are perfections and acts in regard to that intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: What’s understood reflects the completeness of the one who understands, due to the ideas they have in their mind. Therefore, the ideas in an angel's intellect are considered perfections and activities related to that intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: Sense does not apprehend the essences of things, but only their outward accidents. In like manner neither does the imagination; for it apprehends only the images of bodies. The intellect alone apprehends the essences of things. Hence it is said (De Anima iii, text. 26) that the object of the intellect is "what a thing is," regarding which it does not err; as neither does sense regarding its proper sensible object. So therefore the essences of material things are in the intellect of man and angels, as the thing understood is in him who understands, and not according to their real natures. But some things are in an intellect or in the soul according to both natures; and in either case there is intellectual vision.

Reply Obj. 2: Our senses don't grasp the true essences of things but only their outward appearances. Similarly, the imagination only captures images of physical objects. It's the intellect that truly understands the essences of things. That's why it is stated (De Anima iii, text. 26) that the object of the intellect is "what a thing is," and it doesn't make mistakes about this, just as our senses don't make mistakes about their specific objects. Therefore, the essences of physical things exist in the intellect of humans and angels, similar to how the understood concept exists in the one who understands, but not according to their actual natures. However, some things exist in the intellect or soul in terms of both natures; and in either situation, there is intellectual understanding.

Reply Obj. 3: If an angel were to draw his knowledge of material things from the material things themselves, he would require to make them actually intelligible by a process of abstraction. But he does not derive his knowledge of them from the material things themselves; he has knowledge of material things by actually intelligible species of things, which species are connatural to him; just as our intellect has, by species which it makes intelligible by abstraction. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: If an angel were to learn about physical things directly from those things, he would need to make them understandable through a process of abstraction. However, he doesn't get his knowledge from the physical things themselves; he knows about physical things through actually intelligible concepts that are innate to him, just like our intellect understands things through concepts that it creates through abstraction.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 57, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 57, Art. 2]

Whether an Angel Knows Singulars?

Does an angel know individuals?

Objection 1: It would seem that angels do not know singulars. For the Philosopher says (Poster. i, text. 22): "The sense has for its object singulars, but the intellect, universals." Now, in the angels there is no power of understanding save the intellectual power, as is evident from what was said above (Q. 54, A. 5). Consequently they do not know singulars.

Objection 1: It seems that angels do not understand individual things. The Philosopher states (Poster. i, text. 22): "The senses relate to individual things, but the intellect relates to universals." Now, angels have no capacity for understanding other than intellectual understanding, as was made clear earlier (Q. 54, A. 5). Therefore, they do not know individual things.

Obj. 2: Further, all knowledge comes about by some assimilation of the knower to the object known. But it is not possible for any assimilation to exist between an angel and a singular object, in so far as it is singular; because, as was observed above (Q. 50, A. 2), an angel is immaterial, while matter is the principle of singularity. Therefore the angel cannot know singulars.

Obj. 2: Additionally, all knowledge arises from some level of alignment between the knower and the object known. However, no such alignment can occur between an angel and a singular object, because, as noted earlier (Q. 50, A. 2), an angel is immaterial, while matter is what defines singularity. Therefore, an angel cannot comprehend singulars.

Obj. 3: Further, if an angel does know singulars, it is either by singular or by universal species. It is not by singular species; because in this way he would require to have an infinite number of species. Nor is it by universal species; since the universal is not the sufficient principle for knowing the singular as such, because singular things are not known in the universal except potentially. Therefore the angel does not know singulars.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if an angel knows individual things, it must be through individual or universal concepts. It can't be through individual concepts; because that would mean he would need an infinite number of concepts. Nor can it be through universal concepts; since universals are not enough to understand individuals as they are, because individual things are only known in the universal in a potential way. Therefore, the angel does not know individual things.

On the contrary, No one can guard what he does not know. But angels guard individual men, according to Ps. 90:11: "He hath given His angels charge over Thee." Consequently the angels know singulars.

On the contrary, No one can guard what they do not know. But angels protect individual people, according to Ps. 90:11: "He has given His angels charge over You." As a result, the angels know individuals.

I answer that, Some have denied to the angels all knowledge of singulars. In the first place this derogates from the Catholic faith, which asserts that these lower things are administered by angels, according to Heb. 1:14: "They are all ministering spirits." Now, if they had no knowledge of singulars, they could exercise no provision over what is going on in this world; since acts belong to individuals: and this is against the text of Eccles. 5:5: "Say not before the angel: There is no providence." Secondly, it is also contrary to the teachings of philosophy, according to which the angels are stated to be the movers of the heavenly spheres, and to move them according to their knowledge and will.

I respond that, Some have claimed that angels have no knowledge of specific things. First, this undermines the Catholic faith, which teaches that angels oversee these lower things, according to Heb. 1:14: "They are all ministering spirits." If they had no knowledge of specific things, they would be unable to manage what happens in this world, since actions pertain to individuals; this contradicts Eccles. 5:5: "Do not say before the angel: There is no providence." Secondly, it contradicts philosophical teachings, which state that angels are the movers of the heavenly spheres and move them according to their knowledge and will.

Consequently others have said that the angel possesses knowledge of singulars, but in their universal causes, to which all particular effects are reduced; as if the astronomer were to foretell a coming eclipse from the dispositions of the movements of the heavens. This opinion does not escape the aforesaid implications; because, to know a singular, merely in its universal causes, is not to know it as singular, that is, as it exists here and now. The astronomer, knowing from computation of the heavenly movements that an eclipse is about to happen, knows it in the universal; yet he does not know it as taking place now, except by the senses. But administration, providence and movement are of singulars, as they are here and now existing.

As a result, some have claimed that the angel knows about individual things, but only in terms of their universal causes, which all specific effects come from; like an astronomer predicting an upcoming eclipse based on the movements of the stars. This view doesn't avoid the previous implications; because to understand an individual thing merely through its universal causes isn't to truly know it as an individual, meaning as it exists right here and now. The astronomer, knowing from calculations of the heavenly movements that an eclipse is about to occur, understands it in a universal sense; however, he only knows it's happening in the present through his senses. But management, guidance, and action are related to individuals, as they exist right here and now.

Therefore, it must be said differently, that, as man by his various powers of knowledge knows all classes of things, apprehending universals and immaterial things by his intellect, and things singular and corporeal by the senses, so an angel knows both by his one mental power. For the order of things runs in this way, that the higher a thing is, so much the more is its power united and far-reaching: thus in man himself it is manifest that the common sense which is higher than the proper sense, although it is but one faculty, knows everything apprehended by the five outward senses, and some other things which no outer sense knows; for example, the difference between white and sweet. The same is to be observed in other cases. Accordingly, since an angel is above man in the order of nature, it is unreasonable to say that a man knows by any one of his powers something which an angel by his one faculty of knowledge, namely, the intellect, does not know. Hence Aristotle pronounces it ridiculous to say that a discord, which is known to us, should be unknown to God (De Anima i, text. 80; Metaph. text. 15).

Therefore, it should be expressed differently that just as a person, through their various abilities, understands all types of things—grasping universal and non-material concepts with their intellect, and specific and physical objects through their senses—an angel understands both using its single mental ability. The hierarchy of things is such that the higher something is, the more its power is unified and extensive. For instance, in humans, it is clear that the common sense, which ranks higher than the specific senses, even though it is just one ability, comprehends everything perceived by the five external senses, as well as some other things that no external sense can perceive; for example, the distinction between white and sweet. The same principle applies in other situations. Thus, since angels are above humans in the hierarchy of nature, it is unreasonable to claim that a person knows something through any of their abilities that an angel, using its singular faculty of knowledge—namely, the intellect—does not understand. Therefore, Aristotle finds it absurd to suggest that a discord known to us should be unknown to God (De Anima i, text. 80; Metaph. text. 15).

The manner in which an angel knows singular things can be considered from this, that, as things proceed from God in order that they may subsist in their own natures, so likewise they proceed in order that they may exist in the angelic mind. Now it is clear that there comes forth from God not only whatever belongs to their universal nature, but likewise all that goes to make up their principles of individuation; since He is the cause of the entire substance of the thing, as to both its matter and its form. And for as much as He causes, does He know; for His knowledge is the cause of a thing, as was shown above (Q. 14, A. 8). Therefore as by His essence, by which He causes all things, God is the likeness of all things, and knows all things, not only as to their universal natures, but also as to their singularity; so through the species imparted to them do the angels know things, not only as to their universal nature, but likewise in their individual conditions, in so far as they are the manifold representations of that one simple essence.

The way an angel understands individual things can be viewed from the idea that, just as things come from God so they can exist in their own natures, they also come in order for them to exist in the angelic mind. It's clear that God brings forth not just what belongs to their universal nature, but also everything that contributes to their individual characteristics; He is the source of the entire essence of each thing, both in its material and its form. Since He causes, He knows; for His knowledge is the cause of a thing, as previously mentioned (Q. 14, A. 8). Therefore, just as through His essence, which enables Him to create all things, God reflects all things and understands all things, not only in terms of their universal natures but also their individuality; likewise, the angels know things through the forms given to them, understanding not only their universal nature but also their individual characteristics, as they represent that one simple essence in diverse ways.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher is speaking of our intellect, which apprehends only by a process of abstraction; and by such abstraction from material conditions the thing abstracted becomes a universal. Such a manner of understanding is not in keeping with the nature of the angels, as was said above (Q. 55, A. 2, A. 3 ad 1), and consequently there is no comparison.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher is talking about our intellect, which understands only through a process of abstraction. By abstracting from material conditions, the thing that is abstracted becomes a universal concept. This way of understanding does not align with the nature of angels, as mentioned earlier (Q. 55, A. 2, A. 3 ad 1), and therefore, there is no comparison.

Reply Obj. 2: It is not according to their nature that the angels are likened to material things, as one thing resembles another by agreement in genus, species, or accident; but as the higher bears resemblance to the lower, as the sun does to fire. Even in this way there is in God a resemblance of all things, as to both matter and form, in so far as there pre-exists in Him as in its cause whatever is to be found in things. For the same reason, the species in the angel's intellect, which are images drawn from the Divine essence, are the images of things not only as to their form, but also as to their matter.

Reply Obj. 2: Angels aren’t compared to material things based on their nature, as similarities between things arise from shared type, category, or accidental traits. Rather, they resemble the lower beings in a way similar to how the sun resembles fire. In God, there’s a likeness to all things regarding both matter and form, since everything that exists is found in Him as its cause. Similarly, the concepts in an angel's mind, which are images taken from the Divine essence, represent things not just in form, but also in matter.

Reply Obj. 3: Angels know singulars by universal forms, which nevertheless are the images of things both as to their universal, and as to their individuating principles. How many things can be known by the same species, has been already stated above (Q. 55, A. 3, ad 3). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Angels understand individual things through universal forms, which are images of things that represent both their universality and their unique characteristics. The number of things that can be recognized by the same type has already been discussed above (Q. 55, A. 3, ad 3).

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 57, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 57, Art. 3]

Whether Angels Know the Future?

Do angels know the future?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels know future events. For angels are mightier in knowledge than men. But some men know many future events. Therefore much more do the angels.

Objection 1: It seems that angels know about future events. Since angels have greater knowledge than humans, and some humans do know many future events, then angels must know even more.

Obj. 2: Further, the present and the future are differences of time. But the angel's intellect is above time; because, as is said in De Causis, "an intelligence keeps pace with eternity," that is, aeviternity. Therefore, to the angel's mind, past and future are not different, but he knows each indifferently.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the present and the future are differences in time. However, the angel's intellect transcends time; as stated in De Causis, "an intelligence keeps pace with eternity," which refers to aeviternity. Thus, in the angel's mind, past and future are not distinct, but he knows each equally.

Obj. 3: Further, the angel does not understand by species derived from things, but by innate universal species. But universal species refer equally to present, past, and future. Therefore it appears that the angels know indifferently things past, present, and future.

Obj. 3: Additionally, angels don't comprehend through specific things, but through innate universal concepts. Universal concepts apply equally to the present, past, and future. Hence, it seems that angels have knowledge of things from the past, present, and future without distinction.

Obj. 4: Further, as a thing is spoken of as distant by reason of time, so is it by reason of place. But angels know things which are distant according to place. Therefore they likewise know things distant according to future time.

Obj. 4: Just as something is considered distant because of time, it can also be seen as distant because of location. However, angels are aware of things that are far away in terms of location. Therefore, they must also be aware of things that are far away in terms of future time.

On the contrary, Whatever is the exclusive sign of the Divinity, does not belong to the angels. But to know future events is the exclusive sign of the Divinity, according to Isa. 41:23: "Show the things that are to come hereafter, and we shall know that ye are gods." Therefore the angels do not know future events.

On the contrary, whatever is a unique sign of the Divine does not belong to angels. However, knowing future events is a unique sign of the Divine, according to Isa. 41:23: "Show the things that are to come hereafter, and we shall know that you are gods." Therefore, angels do not know future events.

I answer that, The future can be known in two ways. First, it can be known in its cause. And thus, future events which proceed necessarily from their causes, are known with sure knowledge; as that the sun will rise tomorrow. But events which proceed from their causes in the majority of cases, are not known for certain, but conjecturally; thus the doctor knows beforehand the health of the patient. This manner of knowing future events exists in the angels, and by so much the more than it does in us, as they understand the causes of things both more universally and more perfectly; thus doctors who penetrate more deeply into the causes of an ailment can pronounce a surer verdict on the future issue thereof. But events which proceed from their causes in the minority of cases are quite unknown; such as casual and chance events.

I answer that, The future can be understood in two ways. First, it can be known through its cause. Therefore, future events that necessarily follow from their causes are known with certainty; for example, that the sun will rise tomorrow. However, events that typically follow from their causes are not known for sure, but rather as a guess; for instance, a doctor can anticipate a patient's health. This way of knowing future events exists in angels, and to a greater extent than in us, as they comprehend the causes of things both more universally and more perfectly; similarly, doctors who understand the causes of an ailment more thoroughly can provide a more reliable prediction about its future outcome. But events that follow from their causes in rare cases are completely unknown; such as random and chance occurrences.

In another way future events are known in themselves. To know the future in this way belongs to God alone; and not merely to know those events which happen of necessity, or in the majority of cases, but even casual and chance events; for God sees all things in His eternity, which, being simple, is present to all time, and embraces all time. And therefore God's one glance is cast over all things which happen in all time as present before Him; and He beholds all things as they are in themselves, as was said before when dealing with God's knowledge (Q. 14, A. 13). But the mind of an angel, and every created intellect, fall far short of God's eternity; hence the future as it is in itself cannot be known by any created intellect.

In a different way, future events are known in their own right. Knowing the future like this belongs only to God; it's not just about knowing events that happen out of necessity or most of the time, but even random and chance occurrences. God sees everything in His eternity, which is simple, timeless, and encompasses all moments. Therefore, God's single gaze covers everything that happens throughout time as if it were happening right now; He sees all things as they truly are, as previously mentioned when discussing God's knowledge (Q. 14, A. 13). However, the mind of an angel and any created intellect fall far short of God's eternal vision; thus, the future as it exists in its true form cannot be known by any created intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: Men cannot know future things except in their causes, or by God's revelation. The angels know the future in the same way, but much more distinctly.

Reply Obj. 1: People can’t know future events except through their causes or by what God reveals. Angels know the future too, but in a much clearer way.

Reply Obj. 2: Although the angel's intellect is above that time according to which corporeal movements are reckoned, yet there is a time in his mind according to the succession of intelligible concepts; of which Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii) that "God moves the spiritual creature according to time." And thus, since there is succession in the angel's intellect, not all things that happen through all time, are present to the angelic mind.

Reply Obj. 2: Even though the angel's intellect transcends the time by which physical movements are measured, there is still a timeline in the angel's mind based on the order of understandable concepts. Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. viii) that "God moves the spiritual creature according to time." Therefore, since there is a sequence in the angel's intellect, not everything that occurs throughout all time is immediately available to the angelic mind.

Reply Obj. 3: Although the species in the intellect of an angel, in so far as they are species, refer equally to things present, past, and future; nevertheless the present, past, and future; nevertheless the present, past, and future do not bear the same relations to the species. Present things have a nature according to which they resemble the species in the mind of an angel: and so they can be known thereby. Things which are yet to come have not yet a nature whereby they are likened to such species; consequently, they cannot be known by those species.

Reply Obj. 3: Even though the concepts in the mind of an angel, as concepts, relate equally to things that are present, past, and future, the present, past, and future do not have the same connections to those concepts. Present things have a nature that allows them to resemble the concepts in an angel's mind, making them knowable through those concepts. Things that are yet to come do not have a nature that aligns with those concepts, so they cannot be understood through them.

Reply Obj. 4: Things distant according to place are already existing in nature; and share in some species, whose image is in the angel; whereas this is not true of future things, as has been stated. Consequently there is no comparison. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Things that are physically distant already exist in nature and belong to certain kinds, which have their image in the angel; however, this is not true for future things, as mentioned earlier. Therefore, there’s no comparison.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 57, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 57, Art. 4]

Whether Angels Know Secret Thoughts?

Do angels know secret thoughts?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels know secret thoughts. For Gregory (Moral. xviii), explaining Job 28:17: "Gold or crystal cannot equal it," says that "then," namely in the bliss of those rising from the dead, "one shall be as evident to another as he is to himself, and when once the mind of each is seen, his conscience will at the same time be penetrated." But those who rise shall be like the angels, as is stated (Matt. 22:30). Therefore an angel can see what is in another's conscience.

Objection 1: It seems that angels are capable of knowing secret thoughts. For Gregory (Moral. xviii), explaining Job 28:17: "Gold or crystal cannot compare to it," states that "at that time," meaning in the happiness of those who have risen from the dead, "one person will be as clear to another as he is to himself, and once the mind of each is understood, that person's conscience will be fully revealed." But those who rise will be like the angels, as stated (Matt. 22:30). Therefore, an angel can see what is in another person's conscience.

Obj. 2: Further, intelligible species bear the same relation to the intellect as shapes do to bodies. But when the body is seen its shape is seen. Therefore, when an intellectual substance is seen, the intelligible species within it is also seen. Consequently, when one angel beholds another, or even a soul, it seems that he can see the thoughts of both.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, intelligible concepts relate to the mind the same way shapes relate to physical objects. Just as we see a shape when we look at a body, we also see the intelligible concepts within an intellectual being. Therefore, when one angel perceives another, or even a soul, it appears that he can also see both of their thoughts.

Obj. 3: Further, the ideas of our intellect resemble the angel more than do the images in our imagination; because the former are actually understood, while the latter are understood only potentially. But the images in our imagination can be known by an angel as corporeal things are known: because the imagination is a corporeal faculty. Therefore it seems that an angel can know the thoughts of the intellect.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the ideas we have in our minds are more similar to angels than the images in our imagination; because the former are actually understood, while the latter are only potentially understood. However, the images in our imagination can be known by an angel just like physical things are known: because the imagination is a physical faculty. Therefore, it appears that an angel can understand the thoughts of the intellect.

On the contrary, What is proper to God does not belong to the angels. But it is proper to God to read the secrets of hearts, according to Jer. 17:9: "The heart is perverse above all things, and unsearchable; who can know it? I am the Lord, Who search the heart." Therefore angels do not know the secrets of hearts.

On the contrary, what belongs to God does not belong to angels. It is God's role to understand the secrets of our hearts, as stated in Jer. 17:9: "The heart is deceitful above all things, and beyond cure; who can understand it? I am the Lord, who examines the heart." Therefore, angels do not know the secrets of our hearts.

I answer that, A secret thought can be known in two ways: first, in its effect. In this way it can be known not only by an angel, but also by man; and with so much the greater subtlety according as the effect is the more hidden. For thought is sometimes discovered not merely by outward act, but also by change of countenance; and doctors can tell some passions of the soul by the mere pulse. Much more then can angels, or even demons, the more deeply they penetrate those occult bodily modifications. Hence Augustine says (De divin. daemon.) that demons "sometimes with the greatest faculty learn man's dispositions, not only when expressed by speech, but even when conceived in thought, when the soul expresses them by certain signs in the body"; although (Retract. ii, 30) he says "it cannot be asserted how this is done."

I answer that, A secret thought can be understood in two ways: first, through its effect. This way, it can be recognized not only by an angel but also by a human; and the more hidden the effect is, the more subtly it can be perceived. Sometimes, thoughts are revealed not just by outward actions but also by changes in facial expression; doctors can identify certain emotions of the soul simply by feeling the pulse. Therefore, angels, and even demons, can discern these subtle bodily changes even more deeply. Augustine states (De divin. daemon.) that demons "sometimes with great skill learn a person's inclinations, not only when they are expressed through speech but even when conceived in thought, as the soul reveals them through certain signs in the body"; although (Retract. ii, 30) he notes "it cannot be clearly explained how this happens."

In another way thoughts can be known as they are in the mind, and affections as they are in the will: and thus God alone can know the thoughts of hearts and affections of wills. The reason of this is, because the rational creature is subject to God only, and He alone can work in it Who is its principal object and last end: this will be developed later (Q. 63, A. 1; Q. 105, A. 5). Consequently all that is in the will, and all things that depend only on the will, are known to God alone. Now it is evident that it depends entirely on the will for anyone actually to consider anything; because a man who has a habit of knowledge, or any intelligible species, uses them at will. Hence the Apostle says (1 Cor. 2:11): "For what man knoweth the things of a man, but the spirit of a man that is in him?"

In another way, thoughts can be understood as they exist in the mind, and feelings as they exist in the will: only God can truly know the thoughts of our hearts and the desires of our wills. The reason for this is that rational beings are only subject to God, and He alone can act within them as their main focus and ultimate purpose. This will be explored further (Q. 63, A. 1; Q. 105, A. 5). Therefore, everything in the will, and everything that relies solely on the will, is known only by God. It's clear that whether someone considers something or not is entirely dependent on their will; a person who has knowledge or any understandable concept can use them at will. That's why the Apostle says (1 Cor. 2:11): "For what man knows the things of a man, but the spirit of a man that is in him?"

Reply Obj. 1: In the present life one man's thought is not known by another owing to a twofold hindrance; namely, on account of the grossness of the body, and because the will shuts up its secrets. The first obstacle will be removed at the Resurrection, and does not exist at all in the angels; while the second will remain, and is in the angels now. Nevertheless the brightness of the body will show forth the quality of the soul; as to its amount of grace and of glory. In this way one will be able to see the mind of another.

Reply Obj. 1: In this life, one person's thoughts can’t be known by another because of two main barriers: the physical nature of the body and the will that keeps its secrets hidden. The first barrier will be lifted at the Resurrection, and it doesn’t exist at all in angels; however, the second barrier will still exist, and it’s present in the angels now. Still, the radiance of the body will reveal the condition of the soul, including its level of grace and glory. This way, one person will be able to understand the thoughts of another.

Reply Obj. 2: Although one angel sees the intelligible species of another, by the fact that the species are proportioned to the rank of these substances according to greater or lesser universality, yet it does not follow that one knows how far another makes use of them by actual consideration.

Reply Obj. 2: Even though one angel can perceive the intelligible forms of another, since these forms correspond to the rank of these beings based on greater or lesser universality, it doesn’t mean that one knows how much another actually utilizes them through direct observation.

Reply Obj. 3: The appetite of the brute does not control its act, but follows the impression of some other corporeal or spiritual cause. Since, therefore, the angels know corporeal things and their dispositions, they can thereby know what is passing in the appetite or in the imaginative apprehension of the brute beasts, and even of man, in so far as the sensitive appetite sometimes, through following some bodily impression, influences his conduct, as always happens in brutes. Yet the angels do not necessarily know the movement of the sensitive appetite and the imaginative apprehension of man in so far as these are moved by the will and reason; because, even the lower part of the soul has some share of reason, as obeying its ruler, as is said in Ethics iii, 12. But it does not follow that, if the angel knows what is passing through man's sensitive appetite or imagination, he knows what is in the thought or will: because the intellect or will is not subject to the sensitive appetite or the imagination, but can make various uses of them. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The instincts of animals don’t drive their actions; they merely respond to external physical or spiritual influences. Since angels understand physical things and their arrangements, they can perceive what happens within the instincts or imaginative perceptions of animals, and even humans, to the extent that a person’s sensitive instincts can influence their behavior, much like with animals. However, angels do not necessarily know how a person's sensitive instincts and imaginative perceptions operate when influenced by their will and reason, since even the lower part of the soul has some level of reason, acting under the guidance of its higher faculty, as mentioned in Ethics iii, 12. But this doesn’t mean that if an angel understands what is going on in a person’s instincts or imagination, they also know the contents of that person's thoughts or desires, because the intellect and will are not controlled by sensitive instincts or imagination and can utilize them in various ways.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 57, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 57, Art. 5]

Whether the Angels Know the Mysteries of Grace?

Whether the Angels Understand the Mysteries of Grace?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels know mysteries of grace. For, the mystery of the Incarnation is the most excellent of all mysteries. But the angels knew of it from the beginning; for Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. v, 19): "This mystery was hidden in God through the ages, yet so that it was known to the princes and powers in heavenly places." And the Apostle says (1 Tim. 3:16): "That great mystery of godliness appeared unto angels*." [*Vulg.: 'Great is the mystery of godliness, which . . . appeared unto angels.'] Therefore the angels know the mysteries of grace.

Objection 1: It seems like the angels understand the mysteries of grace. The mystery of the Incarnation is the greatest of all mysteries. However, the angels have known about it from the very beginning; Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. v, 19): "This mystery was hidden in God through the ages, yet it was known to the rulers and powers in heavenly places." Additionally, the Apostle mentions (1 Tim. 3:16): "That great mystery of godliness appeared to the angels." Therefore, the angels know the mysteries of grace.

Obj. 2: Further, the reasons of all mysteries of grace are contained in the Divine wisdom. But the angels behold God's wisdom, which is His essence. Therefore they know the mysteries of grace.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the reasons for all the mysteries of grace are found in Divine wisdom. The angels perceive God's wisdom, which is part of His essence. Therefore, they understand the mysteries of grace.

Obj. 3: Further, the prophets are enlightened by the angels, as is clear from Dionysius (Coel. Hier. iv). But the prophets knew mysteries of grace; for it is said (Amos 3:7): "For the Lord God doth nothing without revealing His secret to His servants the prophets." Therefore angels know the mysteries of grace.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the prophets receive insight from angels, as noted by Dionysius (Coel. Hier. iv). The prophets were aware of the mysteries of grace; it is stated (Amos 3:7): "For the Lord God does nothing without revealing His secret to His servants the prophets." Therefore, angels understand the mysteries of grace.

On the contrary, No one learns what he knows already. Yet even the highest angels seek out and learn mysteries of grace. For it is stated (Coel. Hier. vii) that "Sacred Scripture describes some heavenly essences as questioning Jesus, and learning from Him the knowledge of His Divine work for us; and Jesus as teaching them directly": as is evident in Isa. 63:1, where, on the angels asking, "Who is he who cometh up from Edom?" Jesus answered, "It is I, Who speak justice." Therefore the angels do not know mysteries of grace.

On the contrary, No one learns what they already know. Yet even the highest angels seek out and learn the mysteries of grace. As it is stated (Coel. Hier. vii) that "Sacred Scripture describes certain heavenly beings as questioning Jesus and learning from Him about His Divine work for us; and Jesus as teaching them directly": as is clear in Isa. 63:1, where, when the angels asked, "Who is he who comes up from Edom?" Jesus answered, "It is I, Who speak justice." Therefore, the angels do not know the mysteries of grace.

I answer that, There is a twofold knowledge in the angel. The first is his natural knowledge, according to which he knows things both by his essence, and by innate species. By such knowledge the angels cannot know mysteries of grace. For these mysteries depend upon the pure will of God: and if an angel cannot learn the thoughts of another angel, which depend upon the will of such angel, much less can he ascertain what depends entirely upon God's will. The Apostle reasons in this fashion (1 Cor. 2:11): "No one knoweth the things of a man [*Vulg.: 'What man knoweth the things of a man, but . . . ?'], but the spirit of a man that is in him." So, "the things also that are of God no man knoweth but the Spirit of God."

I respond that, there are two types of knowledge in an angel. The first is his natural knowledge, through which he understands things both by his essence and by innate forms. With this knowledge, angels cannot comprehend the mysteries of grace. These mysteries rely solely on God's pure will; and if an angel cannot know the thoughts of another angel, which depend on that angel's will, then even less can he grasp what entirely depends on God's will. The Apostle argues this way (1 Cor. 2:11): "No one knows the things of a man [*Vulg.: 'What man knows the things of a man, but . . . ?'], except the spirit of a man that is within him." Similarly, "the things that are of God no one knows except the Spirit of God."

There is another knowledge of the angels, which renders them happy; it is the knowledge whereby they see the Word, and things in the Word. By such vision they know mysteries of grace, but not all mysteries: nor do they all know them equally; but just as God wills them to learn by revelation; as the Apostle says (1 Cor. 2:10): "But to us God hath revealed them through His Spirit"; yet so that the higher angels beholding the Divine wisdom more clearly, learn more and deeper mysteries in the vision of God, which mysteries they communicate to the lower angels by enlightening them. Some of these mysteries they knew from the very beginning of their creation; others they are taught afterwards, as befits their ministrations.

There is another kind of knowledge that makes angels happy; it's the knowledge through which they see the Word and everything contained in the Word. With this vision, they understand the mysteries of grace, but not all of them; nor do they all understand equally. They learn as God allows them to through revelation, as the Apostle says (1 Cor. 2:10): "But to us God has revealed them through His Spirit." However, the higher angels, seeing Divine wisdom more clearly, grasp deeper mysteries in their vision of God, which they then communicate to the lower angels by enlightening them. Some of these mysteries were known to them from the very beginning of their creation, while others they learn later, as appropriate for their roles.

Reply Obj. 1: One can speak in two ways of the mystery of the Incarnation. First of all, in general; and in this way it was revealed to all from the commencement of their beatitude. The reason of this is, that this is a kind of general principle to which all their duties are ordered. For "all are [*Vulg.: 'Are they not all.'] ministering spirits, sent to minister for them who shall receive the inheritance of salvation" (Heb. 1:14); and this is brought about by the mystery of the Incarnation. Hence it was necessary for all of them to be instructed in this mystery from the very beginning.

Reply Obj. 1: There are two ways to talk about the mystery of the Incarnation. First, in a general sense; and in this way, it was revealed to everyone from the very start of their happiness. The reason for this is that it serves as a fundamental principle that guides all their responsibilities. For "all are [*Vulg.: 'Are they not all.'] ministering spirits, sent to serve those who will inherit salvation" (Heb. 1:14); and this happens through the mystery of the Incarnation. Therefore, it was essential for everyone to be taught this mystery from the very beginning.

We can speak of the mystery of the Incarnation in another way, as to its special conditions. Thus not all the angels were instructed on all points from the beginning; even the higher angels learned these afterwards, as appears from the passage of Dionysius already quoted.

We can discuss the mystery of the Incarnation in another way, regarding its specific conditions. Not all the angels were informed about everything from the start; even the higher angels learned these things later, as shown in the passage from Dionysius that we quoted earlier.

Reply Obj. 2: Although the angels in bliss behold the Divine wisdom, yet they do not comprehend it. So it is not necessary for them to know everything hidden in it.

Reply Obj. 2: Even though the angels in bliss see the Divine wisdom, they don’t fully understand it. So, it’s not necessary for them to know everything that’s hidden within it.

Reply Obj. 3: Whatever the prophets knew by revelation of the mysteries of grace, was revealed in a more excellent way to the angels. And although God revealed in general to the prophets what He was one day to do regarding the salvation of the human race, still the apostles knew some particulars of the same, which the prophets did not know. Thus we read (Eph. 3:4, 5): "As you reading, may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ, which in other generations was not known to the sons of men, as it is now revealed to His holy apostles." Among the prophets also, the later ones knew what the former did not know; according to Ps. 118:100: "I have had understanding above ancients," and Gregory says: "The knowledge of Divine things increased as time went on" (Hom. xvi in Ezech.). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Whatever the prophets understood through revelation about the mysteries of grace was shown to the angels in an even clearer way. While God generally revealed to the prophets what He planned to do about the salvation of humanity, the apostles learned some specific details that the prophets were unaware of. As we read in (Eph. 3:4, 5): "As you read this, you may understand my insight into the mystery of Christ, which was not made known to people in previous generations, as it has now been revealed to His holy apostles." Among the prophets, the later ones also understood things that the earlier ones did not, as noted in Ps. 118:100: "I have gained understanding greater than my elders," and Gregory states: "The understanding of divine matters grew over time" (Hom. xvi in Ezech.).

QUESTION 58

OF THE MODE OF ANGELIC KNOWLEDGE
(In Seven Articles)

OF THE MODE OF ANGELIC KNOWLEDGE
(In Seven Articles)

After the foregoing we have now to treat of the mode of the angelic knowledge, concerning which there are seven points of inquiry:

After the above, we now need to discuss how angels know things, which raises seven questions for consideration:

(1) Whether the angel's intellect be sometimes in potentiality, and sometimes in act?

(1) Is the angel's intellect sometimes potential and sometimes active?

(2) Whether the angel can understand many things at the same time?

(2) Can the angel understand multiple things at the same time?

(3) Whether the angel's knowledge is discursive?

(3) Is the angel's knowledge analytical?

(4) Whether he understands by composing and dividing?

(4) Does he understand how to compose and divide?

(5) Whether there can be error in the angel's intellect?

(5) Is it possible for the angel's intellect to be mistaken?

(6) Whether his knowledge can be styled as morning and evening?

(6) Can his knowledge be described as morning and evening?

(7) Whether the morning and evening knowledge are the same, or do they differ? _______________________

(7) Is the knowledge we gain in the morning the same as what we gain in the evening, or are they different? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, Art. 1]

Whether the Angel's Intellect Is Sometimes in Potentiality, Sometimes in Act?

Whether the Angel's Intellect is Sometimes Potential, Sometimes Active?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angel's intellect is sometimes in potentiality and sometimes in act. For movement is the act of what is in potentiality, as stated in Phys. iii, 6. But the angels' minds are moved by understanding, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv). Therefore the angelic minds are sometimes in potentiality.

Objection 1: It appears that the angel's intellect is sometimes potential and sometimes actual. Movement is the actualization of what is potential, as stated in Phys. iii, 6. However, the angels' minds are activated by understanding, as Dionysius mentions (Div. Nom. iv). Therefore, the angelic minds must be in a state of potentiality at times.

Obj. 2: Further, since desire is of a thing not possessed but possible to have, whoever desires to know anything is in potentiality thereto. But it is said (1 Pet. 1:12): "On Whom the angels desire to look." Therefore the angel's intellect is sometimes in potentiality.

Obj. 2: Additionally, since desire is for something not currently owned but possible to obtain, anyone who wants to know something is in a state of potentiality regarding that knowledge. It is also stated (1 Pet. 1:12): "On Whom the angels desire to look." Therefore, an angel's intellect is sometimes in a state of potentiality.

Obj. 3: Further, in the book De Causis it is stated that "an
intelligence understands according to the mode of its substance."
But the angel's intelligence has some admixture of potentiality.
Therefore it sometimes understands potentially.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, in the book De Causis, it says that "an
intelligence understands based on the nature of its substance."
However, the intelligence of an angel has some aspect of potentiality.
Thus, it sometimes understands in a potential way.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii): "Since the angels were created, in the eternity of the Word, they enjoy holy and devout contemplation." Now a contemplating intellect is not in potentiality, but in act. Therefore the intellect of an angel is not in potentiality.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii): "Since the angels were created, in the eternity of the Word, they experience holy and devoted contemplation." A contemplating mind is not in potential but in action. Therefore, the mind of an angel is not in potential.

I answer that, As the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, text. 8; Phys. viii, 32), the intellect is in potentiality in two ways; first, "as before learning or discovering," that is, before it has the habit of knowledge; secondly, as "when it possesses the habit of knowledge, but does not actually consider." In the first way an angel's intellect is never in potentiality with regard to the things to which his natural knowledge extends. For, as the higher, namely, the heavenly, bodies have no potentiality to existence, which is not fully actuated, in the same way the heavenly intellects, the angels, have no intelligible potentiality which is not fully completed by connatural intelligible species. But with regard to things divinely revealed to them, there is nothing to hinder them from being in potentiality: because even the heavenly bodies are at times in potentiality to being enlightened by the sun.

I answer that, As the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, text. 8; Phys. viii, 32), intellect can be in potentiality in two ways; first, "as before learning or discovering," meaning before it has acquired the habit of knowledge; secondly, "as when it possesses the habit of knowledge, but does not actually consider." In the first sense, an angel's intellect is never in potentiality regarding the things that fall within the reach of its natural knowledge. Just like higher, namely, heavenly bodies do not have potentiality for existence that is not fully realized, the heavenly intellects, or angels, have no intelligible potentiality that is not fully actualized by connatural intelligible species. However, concerning things revealed to them by God, there is nothing preventing them from being in potentiality: because even heavenly bodies can sometimes be in potentiality to being illuminated by the sun.

In the second way an angel's intellect can be in potentiality with regard to things learnt by natural knowledge; for he is not always actually considering everything that he knows by natural knowledge. But as to the knowledge of the Word, and of the things he beholds in the Word, he is never in this way in potentiality; because he is always actually beholding the Word, and the things he sees in the Word. For the bliss of the angels consists in such vision; and beatitude does not consist in habit, but in act, as the Philosopher says (Ethic. i, 8).

In the second way, an angel's intellect can be in potentiality regarding things learned through natural knowledge; because he isn't always actively thinking about everything he knows from that knowledge. However, when it comes to the knowledge of the Word and the things he sees in the Word, he is never in potentiality like this; because he is always actively perceiving the Word and the things he notices in the Word. The happiness of the angels comes from this kind of vision; and blessedness doesn’t come from having this knowledge but from experiencing it, as the Philosopher says (Ethic. i, 8).

Reply Obj. 1: Movement is taken there not as the act of something imperfect, that is, of something existing in potentiality, but as the act of something perfect, that is, of one actually existing. In this way understanding and feeling are termed movements, as stated in De Anima iii, text. 28.

Reply Obj. 1: Movement is not seen as the action of something imperfect, meaning something that exists in potential, but as the action of something perfect, meaning something that actually exists. In this way, understanding and feeling are referred to as movements, as stated in De Anima iii, text. 28.

Reply Obj. 2: Such desire on the part of the angels does not exclude the object desired, but weariness thereof. Or they are said to desire the vision of God with regard to fresh revelations, which they receive from God to fit them for the tasks which they have to perform.

Reply Obj. 2: Such desire from the angels doesn’t rule out the object of their desire but rather indicates a weariness of it. Alternatively, they are said to desire the vision of God in relation to new revelations, which they get from God to prepare them for the tasks they need to carry out.

Reply Obj. 3: In the angel's substance there is no potentiality divested of act. In the same way, the angel's intellect is never so in potentiality as to be without act. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: In the nature of an angel, there is no potential that lacks actualization. Similarly, an angel's intellect is never in a state of potentiality without being in act.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, Art. 2]

Whether an Angel Can Understand Many Things at the Same Time?

Whether an angel can understand many things at the same time?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel cannot understand many things at the same time. For the Philosopher says (Topic. ii, 4) that "it may happen that we know many things, but understand only one."

Objection 1: It seems that an angel cannot understand many things at the same time. For the Philosopher says (Topic. ii, 4) that "it may happen that we know many things, but understand only one."

Obj. 2: Further, nothing is understood unless the intellect be informed by an intelligible species; just at the body is formed by shape. But one body cannot be formed into many shapes. Therefore neither can one intellect simultaneously understand various intelligible things.

Obj. 2: Additionally, nothing can be understood unless the mind is equipped with a clear concept, just like a body is shaped by its form. But one body cannot have multiple shapes at the same time. Therefore, one mind cannot simultaneously comprehend different concepts.

Obj. 3: Further, to understand is a kind of movement. But no movement terminates in various terms. Therefore many things cannot be understood altogether.

Obj. 3: Moreover, understanding is a form of movement. However, no movement ends in different outcomes. Therefore, many things cannot be understood all at once.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 32): "The spiritual faculty of the angelic mind comprehends most easily at the same time all things that it wills."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 32): "The spiritual ability of the angelic mind understands all the things it desires very easily at the same time."

I answer that, As unity of term is requisite for unity of movement, so is unity of object required for unity of operation. Now it happens that several things may be taken as several or as one; like the parts of a continuous whole. For if each of the parts be considered severally they are many: consequently neither by sense nor by intellect are they grasped by one operation, nor all at once. In another way they are taken as forming one in the whole; and so they are grasped both by sense and intellect all at once and by one operation; as long as the entire continuous whole is considered, as is stated in De Anima iii, text. 23. In this way our intellect understands together both the subject and the predicate, as forming parts of one proposition; and also two things compared together, according as they agree in one point of comparison. From this it is evident that many things, in so far as they are distinct, cannot be understood at once; but in so far as they are comprised under one intelligible concept, they can be understood together. Now everything is actually intelligible according as its image is in the intellect. All things, then, which can be known by one intelligible species, are known as one intelligible object, and therefore are understood simultaneously. But things known by various intelligible species, are apprehended as different intelligible objects.

I answer that, just as unity of term is necessary for unity of movement, unity of object is required for unity of operation. It happens that several things can be seen either as separate entities or as one; similar to the parts of a continuous whole. If each part is considered separately, they are many: therefore, neither through the senses nor through the intellect can they be grasped in one operation or all at once. Conversely, they can be viewed as forming one in the whole; in this case, they can be perceived by both sense and intellect all at once and through one operation, as long as the entire continuous whole is taken into account, as stated in De Anima iii, text. 23. In this manner, our intellect comprehends both the subject and the predicate as parts of one proposition, and also compares two things based on their agreement in one point of comparison. From this, it’s clear that many distinct things cannot be understood at once; however, as long as they fall under one intelligible concept, they can be understood together. Now, everything is actually intelligible as its image resides in the intellect. Thus, all things that can be known through one intelligible species are known as one intelligible object, and therefore are understood simultaneously. Conversely, things known through different intelligible species are perceived as different intelligible objects.

Consequently, by such knowledge as the angels have of things through the Word, they know all things under one intelligible species, which is the Divine essence. Therefore, as regards such knowledge, they know all things at once: just as in heaven "our thoughts will not be fleeting, going and returning from one thing to another, but we shall survey all our knowledge at the same time by one glance," as Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 16). But by that knowledge wherewith the angels know things by innate species, they can at one time know all things which can be comprised under one species; but not such as are under various species.

As a result, the knowledge that angels have of things through the Word allows them to understand everything under one clear concept, which is the Divine essence. Therefore, in this sense, they can know everything all at once: just like in heaven, "our thoughts won’t be scattered, jumping from one thing to another, but we will be able to see all our knowledge simultaneously with a single glance," as Augustine states (De Trin. xv, 16). However, with the knowledge through which angels understand things through innate concepts, they can know everything that falls under one concept at a time, but not things that fall under different concepts.

Reply Obj. 1: To understand many things as one, is, so to speak, to understand one thing.

Reply Obj. 1: To grasp many things as a single concept is, in a way, to grasp one thing.

Reply Obj. 2: The intellect is informed by the intelligible species which it has within it. So it can behold at the same time many intelligible objects under one species; as one body can by one shape be likened to many bodies.

Reply Obj. 2: The mind is shaped by the concepts it holds. This allows it to understand many ideas at once under a single concept; just as one shape can represent multiple bodies.

To the third objection the answer is the same as the first. _______________________

To the third objection, the answer is the same as the first. _______________________

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, Art. 3]

Whether an Angel's Knowledge Is Discursive?

Whether an Angel's Knowledge Is Discursive?

Objection 1: It would seem that the knowledge of an angel is discursive. For the discursive movement of the mind comes from one thing being known through another. But the angels know one thing through another; for they know creatures through the Word. Therefore the intellect of an angel knows by discursive method.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel's knowledge is discursive. This is because the discursive movement of the mind involves knowing one thing through another. However, angels know one thing through another; they understand creatures through the Word. Therefore, an angel's intellect operates using a discursive method.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever a lower power can do, the higher can do. But the human intellect can syllogize, and know causes in effects; all of which is the discursive method. Therefore the intellect of the angel, which is higher in the order of nature, can with greater reason do this.

Obj. 2: Also, whatever a lower power can do, a higher power can do. The human intellect can reason and understand causes from effects; all of this is the analytical method. So, the intellect of the angel, which is higher in the natural order, can logically do this even better.

Obj. 3: Further, Isidore (De sum. bono i, 10) says that "demons learn more things by experience." But experimental knowledge is discursive: for, "one experience comes of many remembrances, and one universal from many experiences," as Aristotle observes (Poster. ii; Metaph. vii). Therefore an angel's knowledge is discursive.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Isidore (De sum. bono i, 10) says that "demons learn more things through experience." However, experiential knowledge involves reasoning: "one experience arises from many memories, and one general idea from many experiences," as Aristotle points out (Poster. ii; Metaph. vii). Therefore, an angel's knowledge is based on reasoning.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii) that the "angels do not acquire Divine knowledge from separate discourses, nor are they led to something particular from something common."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii) that the "angels do not gain Divine knowledge from separate discussions, nor are they directed to something specific from something general."

I answer that, As has often been stated (A. 1; Q. 55, A. 1), the angels hold that grade among spiritual substances which the heavenly bodies hold among corporeal substances: for Dionysius calls them "heavenly minds" (loc. cit.). Now, the difference between heavenly and earthly bodies is this, that earthly bodies obtain their last perfection by chance and movement: while the heavenly bodies have their last perfection at once from their very nature. So, likewise, the lower, namely, the human, intellects obtain their perfection in the knowledge of truth by a kind of movement and discursive intellectual operation; that is to say, as they advance from one known thing to another. But, if from the knowledge of a known principle they were straightway to perceive as known all its consequent conclusions, then there would be no discursive process at all. Such is the condition of the angels, because in the truths which they know naturally, they at once behold all things whatsoever that can be known in them.

I answer that, As has often been stated (A. 1; Q. 55, A. 1), the angels occupy the same rank among spiritual beings that heavenly bodies do among physical entities: for Dionysius refers to them as "heavenly minds" (loc. cit.). The key difference between heavenly and earthly bodies is that earthly bodies achieve their ultimate perfection through chance and movement, while heavenly bodies have their ultimate perfection inherently by their very nature. Similarly, lower intellects, like human ones, attain perfection in the understanding of truth through a kind of movement and step-by-step intellectual reasoning; in other words, they progress from one known fact to another. However, if they could immediately understand all the conclusions that follow from a known principle, then there would be no reasoning process at all. This is the state of the angels, as they can instantly perceive all that can be known in the truths they naturally understand.

Therefore they are called "intellectual beings": because even with ourselves the things which are instantly grasped by the mind are said to be understood [intelligi]; hence "intellect" is defined as the habit of first principles. But human souls which acquire knowledge of truth by the discursive method are called "rational"; and this comes of the feebleness of their intellectual light. For if they possessed the fulness of intellectual light, like the angels, then in the first aspect of principles they would at once comprehend their whole range, by perceiving whatever could be reasoned out from them.

Therefore, they are called "intellectual beings" because the things we immediately grasp in our minds are said to be understood; hence "intellect" is defined as the habit of fundamental principles. However, human souls that gain knowledge of truth through reasoning are called "rational," which is due to the limitations of their intellectual clarity. If they had the full brightness of intellectual light, like the angels, they would instantly understand everything about those principles and see whatever could be reasoned from them.

Reply Obj. 1: Discursion expresses movement of a kind. Now all movement is from something before to something after. Hence discursive knowledge comes about according as from something previously known one attains to the knowledge of what is afterwards known, and which was previously unknown. But if in the thing perceived something else be seen at the same time, as an object and its image are seen simultaneously in a mirror, it is not discursive knowledge. And in this way the angels know things in the Word.

Reply Obj. 1: Discursion shows a type of movement. All movement goes from something known to something unknown. So, discursive knowledge happens when you start with something you already know and move to understanding something new that you didn't know before. However, if you see something else at the same time, like how you can see an object and its reflection in a mirror simultaneously, then it’s not considered discursive knowledge. In this way, the angels understand things through the Word.

Reply Obj. 2: The angels can syllogize, in the sense of knowing a syllogism; and they see effects in causes, and causes in effects: yet they do not acquire knowledge of an unknown truth in this way, by syllogizing from causes to effect, or from effect to cause.

Reply Obj. 2: Angels can reason logically, in the sense that they understand a syllogism; they see effects in causes and causes in effects. However, they don’t gain knowledge of an unknown truth by deducing from causes to effects or from effects to causes.

Reply Obj. 3: Experience is affirmed of angels and demons simply by way of similitude, forasmuch as they know sensible things which are present, yet without any discursion withal. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Angels and demons understand things by similarity because they are aware of the sensory things that are present, but they do so without any analysis or deliberation.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, Art. 4]

Whether the Angels Understand by Composing and Dividing?

Whether the Angels Understand by Creating and Separating?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels understand by composing and dividing. For, where there is multiplicity of things understood, there is composition of the same, as is said in De Anima iii, text. 21. But there is a multitude of things understood in the angelic mind; because angels apprehend different things by various species, and not all at one time. Therefore there is composition and division in the angel's mind.

Objection 1: It seems that angels understand by analyzing and categorizing. Where there is a variety of things understood, there is a need for composition, as stated in De Anima iii, text 21. However, there is a variety of things understood in the minds of angels, since they grasp different concepts through various forms, and not all at once. Therefore, there is composition and division in an angel's mind.

Obj. 2: Further, negation is far more remote from affirmation than any two opposite natures are; because the first of distinctions is that of affirmation and negation. But the angel knows certain distant natures not by one, but by diverse species, as is evident from what was said (A. 2). Therefore he must know affirmation and negation by diverse species. And so it seems that he understands by composing and dividing.

Obj. 2: Moreover, negation is much farther removed from affirmation than any two opposing natures are; because the primary distinction is between affirmation and negation. However, the angel recognizes certain distant natures not by one, but by different kinds, as is clear from what was previously mentioned (A. 2). Therefore, he must understand affirmation and negation through different kinds. Thus, it appears that he comprehends by composing and dividing.

Obj. 3: Further, speech is a sign of the intellect. But in speaking to men, angels use affirmative and negative expressions, which are signs of composition and of division in the intellect; as is manifest from many passages of Sacred Scripture. Therefore it seems that the angel understands by composing and dividing.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, speech is an indicator of intelligence. When communicating with humans, angels use affirmative and negative phrases, which reflect the processes of combining and separating in the mind, as is evident from many passages in Sacred Scripture. Therefore, it seems that the angel understands through combining and separating.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii) that "the intellectual power of the angel shines forth with the clear simplicity of divine concepts." But a simple intelligence is without composition and division. Therefore the angel understands without composition or division.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii) that "the intellectual power of the angel shines forth with the clear simplicity of divine concepts." But a simple intelligence has no composition or division. Therefore the angel understands without composition or division.

I answer that, As in the intellect, when reasoning, the conclusion is compared with the principle, so in the intellect composing and dividing, the predicate is compared with the subject. For if our intellect were to see at once the truth of the conclusion in the principle, it would never understand by discursion and reasoning. In like manner, if the intellect in apprehending the quiddity of the subject were at once to have knowledge of all that can be attributed to, or removed from, the subject, it would never understand by composing and dividing, but only by understanding the essence. Thus it is evident that for the self-same reason our intellect understands by discursion, and by composing and dividing, namely, that in the first apprehension of anything newly apprehended it does not at once grasp all that is virtually contained in it. And this comes from the weakness of the intellectual light within us, as has been said (A. 3). Hence, since the intellectual light is perfect in the angel, for he is a pure and most clear mirror, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv), it follows that as the angel does not understand by reasoning, so neither does he by composing and dividing.

I answer that, just as in the intellect, when reasoning, the conclusion is compared to the principle, in the intellect's process of composing and dividing, the predicate is compared to the subject. If our intellect could immediately see the truth of the conclusion in the principle, it wouldn't need to engage in reasoning or discursive thought. Similarly, if the intellect, while grasping the essence of the subject, could simultaneously know everything that can be attributed to or taken away from it, it would not need to understand through composing and dividing, but only by understanding the essence directly. Therefore, it is clear that for the same reason our intellect understands through reasoning, composition, and division, since in its initial grasp of something new, it doesn't immediately understand everything that is implicitly contained within it. This limitation arises from the weakness of the intellectual light within us, as mentioned (A. 3). Thus, since the intellectual light is perfect in angels, as they are pure and crystal-clear mirrors, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv), it follows that angels do not understand through reasoning, nor through composing and dividing.

Nevertheless, he understands the composition and the division of enunciations, just as he apprehends the reasoning of syllogisms: for he understands simply, such things as are composite, things movable immovably, and material things immaterially.

Nevertheless, he understands how statements are structured and categorized, just as he grasps the logic of syllogisms: for he comprehends simple concepts like composites, things that are in motion but remain unchangeable, and physical objects in a non-physical way.

Reply Obj. 1: Not every multitude of things understood causes composition, but a multitude of such things understood that one of them is attributed to, or denied of, another. When an angel apprehends the nature of anything, he at the same time understands whatever can be either attributed to it, or denied of it. Hence, in apprehending a nature, he by one simple perception grasps all that we can learn by composing and dividing.

Reply Obj. 1: Not every group of things we understand leads to composition, but a group of things understood in such a way that one is attributed to or denied of another. When an angel understands the nature of something, he simultaneously understands everything that can be either attributed to it or denied of it. Therefore, in understanding a nature, he grasps all that we can learn through composition and division in one simple perception.

Reply Obj. 2: The various natures of things differ less as to their mode of existing than do affirmation and negation. Yet, as to the way in which they are known, affirmation and negation have something more in common; because directly the truth of an affirmation is known, the falsehood of the opposite negation is known also.

Reply Obj. 2: The different natures of things vary less in how they exist than affirmation and negation do. However, when it comes to how they are understood, affirmation and negation have more in common; because as soon as the truth of an affirmation is recognized, the falsehood of the opposing negation is also recognized.

Reply Obj. 3: The fact that angels use affirmative and negative forms of speech, shows that they know both composition and division: yet not that they know by composing and dividing, but by knowing simply the nature of a thing. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The fact that angels use both affirmative and negative forms of speech shows that they understand both composition and division; however, this does not mean they know by composing and dividing, but rather by simply understanding the nature of a thing.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, Art. 5]

Whether There Can Be Falsehood in the Intellect of an Angel?

Whether an Angel's Intellect Can Have Falsehood?

Objection 1: It would seem that there can be falsehood in the angel's intellect. For perversity appertains to falsehood. But, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv), there is "a perverted fancy" in the demons. Therefore it seems that there can be falsehood in the intellect of the angels.

Objection 1: It seems that there can be falsehood in the angels' intellect. Perversity is related to falsehood. However, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv), there is "a perverted fancy" in demons. Therefore, it seems that falsehood can also exist in the intellect of the angels.

Obj. 2: Further, nescience is the cause of estimating falsely. But, as Dionysius says (Eccl. Hier. vi), there can be nescience in the angels. Therefore it seems there can be falsehood in them.

Obj. 2: Additionally, ignorance is the reason for making false judgments. However, as Dionysius states (Eccl. Hier. vi), angels can have ignorance. Therefore, it seems that they can also experience falsehood.

Obj. 3: Further, everything which falls short of the truth of wisdom, and which has a depraved reason, has falsehood or error in its intellect. But Dionysius (Div. Nom. vii) affirms this of the demons. Therefore it seems that there can be error in the minds of the angels.

Obj. 3: Additionally, anything that lacks true wisdom and has a corrupt reasoning has falsehood or error in its understanding. But Dionysius (Div. Nom. vii) states this about demons. Therefore, it seems that there can be error in the minds of angels.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, text. 41) that "the intelligence is always true." Augustine likewise says (QQ. 83, qu. 32) that "nothing but what is true can be the object of intelligence" Therefore there can be neither deception nor falsehood in the angel's knowledge.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, text. 41) that "the intellect is always truthful." Augustine also states (QQ. 83, qu. 32) that "only what is true can be the focus of intellect." Therefore, there can be no deception or falsehood in the angel's knowledge.

I answer that, The truth of this question depends partly upon what has gone before. For it has been said (A. 4) that an angel understands not by composing and dividing, but by understanding what a thing is. Now the intellect is always true as regards what a thing is, just as the sense regarding its proper object, as is said in De Anima iii, text. 26. But by accident, deception and falsehood creep in, when we understand the essence of a thing by some kind of composition, and this happens either when we take the definition of one thing for another, or when the parts of a definition do not hang together, as if we were to accept as the definition of some creature, "a four-footed flying beast," for there is no such animal. And this comes about in things composite, the definition of which is drawn from diverse elements, one of which is as matter to the other. But there is no room for error in understanding simple quiddities, as is stated in Metaph. ix, text. 22; for either they are not grasped at all, and so we know nothing respecting them; or else they are known precisely as they exist.

I respond that, The truth of this question relies partly on what has been previously discussed. It has been noted (A. 4) that an angel comprehends not by analyzing and breaking things down, but by grasping what something is. The intellect is always accurate regarding the essence of a thing, just as the senses are in relation to their specific objects, as mentioned in De Anima iii, text. 26. However, misunderstandings and falsehoods can arise when we try to understand the essence of something through some form of analysis. This can occur either when we mistakenly use one definition for a different thing, or when the components of a definition don’t fit together properly, such as if we tried to define a creature as "a four-footed flying beast," because no such animal exists. This issue arises in composite things, whose definitions come from different elements, one of which serves as the matter for the other. However, there is no possibility of error in understanding simple essences, as stated in Metaph. ix, text. 22; because either they are not understood at all, and thus we know nothing about them, or they are known exactly as they are.

So therefore, no falsehood, error, or deception can exist of itself in the mind of any angel; yet it does so happen accidentally; but very differently from the way it befalls us. For we sometimes get at the quiddity of a thing by a composing and dividing process, as when, by division and demonstration, we seek out the truth of a definition. Such is not the method of the angels; but through the (knowledge of the) essence of a thing they know everything that can be said regarding it. Now it is quite evident that the quiddity of a thing can be a source of knowledge with regard to everything belonging to such thing, or excluded from it; but not of what may be dependent on God's supernatural ordinance. Consequently, owing to their upright will, from their knowing the nature of every creature, the good angels form no judgments as to the nature of the qualities therein, save under the Divine ordinance; hence there can be no error or falsehood in them. But since the minds of demons are utterly perverted from the Divine wisdom, they at times form their opinions of things simply according to the natural conditions of the same. Nor are they ever deceived as to the natural properties of anything; but they can be misled with regard to supernatural matters; for example, on seeing a dead man, they may suppose that he will not rise again, or, on beholding Christ, they may judge Him not to be God.

So, no falsehood, error, or deception can exist on its own in the mind of any angel; however, it can happen accidentally, but very differently than it does for us. We sometimes understand the essence of something by breaking it down and analyzing it, like when we examine a definition to find out the truth. Angels don’t use this method; instead, they know everything about a thing through its essence. It's clear that the essence of a thing can provide knowledge about everything related to it or excluded from it, but not about what might depend on God's supernatural plans. Thus, due to their pure will, the good angels, knowing the nature of every creature, don’t make judgments about the qualities within, except as guided by Divine ordinance; therefore, they have no errors or falsehoods. In contrast, demons' minds are completely twisted away from Divine wisdom, and sometimes they form opinions based solely on the natural aspects of things. They are never misled about the natural properties of anything, but they can be confused when it comes to supernatural matters; for example, upon seeing a dead man, they might think he will not rise again, or when they see Christ, they might judge Him not to be God.

From all this the answers to the objections of both sides of the question are evident. For the perversity of the demons comes of their not being subject to the Divine wisdom; while nescience is in the angels as regards things knowable, not naturally but supernaturally. It is, furthermore, evident that their understanding of what a thing is, is always true, save accidentally, according as it is, in an undue manner, referred to some composition or division. _______________________

From all this, it's clear what the answers are to the objections from both sides of the debate. The demons are perverse because they aren't subject to Divine wisdom, while the angels have ignorance about things that can be known, not in a natural way but through supernatural means. Additionally, it's clear that the angels' understanding of what something is, is always correct, except in accidental cases where it’s improperly related to some composition or division.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, A. 6]

Whether There Is a "Morning" and an "Evening" Knowledge in the
Angels?

Whether There Is a "Morning" and an "Evening" Knowledge in the
Angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is neither an evening nor a morning knowledge in the angels; because evening and morning have an admixture of darkness. But there is no darkness in the knowledge of an angel; since there is no error nor falsehood. Therefore the angelic knowledge ought not to be termed morning and evening knowledge.

Objection 1: It seems that angels don’t have morning or evening knowledge because those terms imply a mix of darkness. However, there is no darkness in an angel’s knowledge, as there is no error or falsehood. Therefore, angelic knowledge shouldn’t be referred to as morning and evening knowledge.

Obj. 2: Further, between evening and morning the night intervenes; while noonday falls between morning and evening. Consequently, if there be a morning and an evening knowledge in the angels, for the same reason it appears that there ought to be a noonday and a night knowledge.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the night comes between evening and morning; while noonday is positioned between morning and evening. Therefore, if angels have morning and evening knowledge, it seems that they should also have noonday and night knowledge.

Obj. 3: Further, knowledge is diversified according to the difference of the objects known: hence the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, text. 38), "The sciences are divided just as things are." But there is a threefold existence of things: to wit, in the Word; in their own natures; and in the angelic knowledge, as Augustine observes (Gen. ad lit. ii, 8). If, therefore, a morning and an evening knowledge be admitted in the angels, because of the existence of things in the Word, and in their own nature, then there ought to be admitted a third class of knowledge, on account of the existence of things in the angelic mind.

Obj. 3: Additionally, knowledge varies based on the differences among the objects that are known. The Philosopher states (De Anima iii, text. 38), "The sciences are categorized just like things are." There are three ways things exist: in the Word, in their own natures, and in the knowledge of angels, as Augustine notes (Gen. ad lit. ii, 8). Therefore, if we accept both morning and evening knowledge in angels due to the existence of things in the Word and in their own nature, we should also recognize a third type of knowledge based on the existence of things in the angelic mind.

On the contrary, Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 22, 31; De Civ. Dei xii, 7, 20) divides the knowledge of the angels into morning and evening knowledge.

On the contrary, Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 22, 31; De Civ. Dei xii, 7, 20) splits the knowledge of angels into morning and evening knowledge.

I answer that, The expression "morning" and "evening" knowledge was devised by Augustine; who interprets the six days wherein God made all things, not as ordinary days measured by the solar circuit, since the sun was only made on the fourth day, but as one day, namely, the day of angelic knowledge as directed to six classes of things. As in the ordinary day, morning is the beginning, and evening the close of day, so, their knowledge of the primordial being of things is called morning knowledge; and this is according as things exist in the Word. But their knowledge of the very being of the thing created, as it stands in its own nature, is termed evening knowledge; because the being of things flows from the Word, as from a kind of primordial principle; and this flow is terminated in the being which they have in themselves.

I answer that, The terms "morning" and "evening" knowledge were introduced by Augustine, who interprets the six days during which God created everything, not as regular days based on the solar cycle—since the sun was created on the fourth day—but as one day, specifically the day of angelic knowledge corresponding to six categories of things. Just as in an ordinary day, morning represents the beginning and evening signifies the end, their understanding of the essential being of things is called morning knowledge; this reflects how things exist in the Word. Conversely, their knowledge of the actual nature of the created thing as it exists independently is referred to as evening knowledge, because the essence of things originates from the Word, acting as a foundational principle, and this essence culminates in the existence that they possess in themselves.

Reply Obj. 1: Evening and morning knowledge in the angelic knowledge are not taken as compared to an admixture of darkness, but as compared to beginning and end. Or else it can be said, as Augustine puts it (Gen. ad lit. iv, 23), that there is nothing to prevent us from calling something light in comparison with one thing, and darkness with respect to another. In the same way the life of the faithful and the just is called light in comparison with the wicked, according to Eph. 5:8: "You were heretofore darkness; but now, light in the Lord": yet this very life of the faithful, when set in contrast to the life of glory, is termed darkness, according to 2 Pet. 1:19: "You have the firm prophetic word, whereunto you do well to attend, as to a light that shineth in a dark place." So the angel's knowledge by which he knows things in their own nature, is day in comparison with ignorance or error; yet it is dark in comparison with the vision of the Word.

Reply Obj. 1: The knowledge that angels possess is not considered in contrast to a mix of darkness, but rather in relation to a beginning and an end. Alternatively, as Augustine suggests (Gen. ad lit. iv, 23), there's nothing stopping us from referring to something as light in one context and darkness in another. Similarly, the lives of the faithful and the righteous are seen as light when compared to the wicked, as noted in Eph. 5:8: "You were once darkness; but now, you are light in the Lord." However, this same life of the faithful, when compared to the life of glory, is referred to as darkness, according to 2 Pet. 1:19: "You have the solid prophetic word, to which you do well to pay attention, like a light shining in a dark place." Thus, the knowledge that angels have, which allows them to understand things in their true form, is like daylight when set against ignorance or error; yet it appears dark when compared to the vision of the Word.

Reply Obj. 2: The morning and evening knowledge belong to the day, that is, to the enlightened angels, who are quite apart from the darkness, that is, from the evil spirits. The good angels, while knowing the creature, do not adhere to it, for that would be to turn to darkness and to night; but they refer this back to the praise of God, in Whom, as in their principle, they know all things. Consequently after "evening" there is no night, but "morning"; so that morning is the end of the preceding day, and the beginning of the following, in so far as the angels refer to God's praise their knowledge of the preceding work. Noonday is comprised under the name of day, as the middle between the two extremes. Or else the noon can be referred to their knowledge of God Himself, Who has neither beginning nor end.

Reply Obj. 2: Morning and evening knowledge belong to the day, meaning to the enlightened angels, who are completely separate from the darkness, or the evil spirits. The good angels, while understanding the created world, do not cling to it, as that would lead them into darkness and night; rather, they direct this understanding back to the praise of God, in whom, as their principle, they comprehend all things. Therefore, after "evening," there is no night, only "morning"; meaning that morning marks the end of the previous day and the start of the next, as the angels connect their knowledge of the previous creation to God's praise. Noon is included under the term day, serving as the midpoint between the two extremes. Alternatively, noon can also be connected to their knowledge of God Himself, who has neither beginning nor end.

Reply Obj. 3: The angels themselves are also creatures. Accordingly the existence of things in the angelic knowledge is comprised under evening knowledge, as also the existence of things in their own nature. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The angels are also creatures. Therefore, the existence of things in angelic knowledge falls under evening knowledge, just like the existence of things in their own nature.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 58, Art. 7]

Whether the Morning and Evening Knowledge Are One?

Whether the Morning and Evening Knowledge Are One?

Objection 1: It would seem that the morning and the evening knowledge are one. For it is said (Gen. 1:5): "There was evening and morning, one day." But by the expression "day" the knowledge of the angels is to be understood, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 23). Therefore the morning and evening knowledge of the angels are one and the same.

Objection 1: It seems that the morning and evening knowledge are the same. For it says (Gen. 1:5): "There was evening and morning, one day." The term "day" refers to the knowledge of the angels, as Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. iv, 23). Therefore, the morning and evening knowledge of the angels are identical.

Obj. 2: Further, it is impossible for one faculty to have two operations at the same time. But the angels are always using their morning knowledge; because they are always beholding God and things in God, according to Matt. 18:10. Therefore, if the evening knowledge were different from the morning, the angel could never exercise his evening knowledge.

Obj. 2: Additionally, one faculty cannot perform two actions simultaneously. However, angels are constantly using their morning knowledge; they are always observing God and things within God, as stated in Matt. 18:10. Therefore, if the evening knowledge were different from the morning knowledge, the angel would never be able to use his evening knowledge.

Obj. 3: Further, the Apostle says (1 Cor. 13:10): "When that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away." But, if the evening knowledge be different from the morning, it is compared to it as the less perfect to the perfect. Therefore the evening knowledge cannot exist together with the morning knowledge.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the Apostle states (1 Cor. 13:10): "When the perfect comes, the partial will be abolished." However, if the evening knowledge is different from the morning knowledge, it is seen as lesser compared to the perfect. Therefore, evening knowledge cannot coexist with morning knowledge.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 24): "There is a vast difference between knowing anything as it is in the Word of God, and as it is in its own nature; so that the former belongs to the day, and the latter to the evening."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 24): "There's a big difference between knowing something as it is in the Word of God and as it is in its own nature; the former belongs to the day, and the latter belongs to the evening."

I answer that, As was observed (A. 6), the evening knowledge is that by which the angels know things in their proper nature. This cannot be understood as if they drew their knowledge from the proper nature of things, so that the preposition "in" denotes the form of a principle; because, as has been already stated (Q. 55, A. 2), the angels do not draw their knowledge from things. It follows, then, that when we say "in their proper nature" we refer to the aspect of the thing known in so far as it is an object of knowledge; that is to say, that the evening knowledge is in the angels in so far as they know the being of things which those things have in their own nature.

I answer that, As was noted (A. 6), the evening knowledge is how the angels understand things in their true nature. This shouldn’t be taken to mean that they acquire their knowledge from the true nature of things, as if the preposition "in" indicates the form of a principle; because, as mentioned earlier (Q. 55, A. 2), angels do not derive their knowledge from things. Therefore, when we say "in their proper nature," we are referring to the way the known object is perceived as an object of knowledge; that is to say, evening knowledge exists in the angels to the extent that they understand the essence of things as those things truly are.

Now they know this through a twofold medium, namely, by innate ideas, or by the forms of things existing in the Word. For by beholding the Word, they know not merely the being of things as existing in the Word, but the being as possessed by the things themselves; as God by contemplating Himself sees that being which things have in their own nature. It, therefore, it be called evening knowledge, in so far as when the angels behold the Word, they know the being which things have in their proper nature, then the morning and the evening knowledge are essentially one and the same, and only differ as to the things known. If it be called evening knowledge, in so far as through innate ideas they know the being which things have in their own natures, then the morning and the evening knowledge differ. Thus Augustine seems to understand it when he assigns one as inferior to the other.

Now they understand this in two ways: through innate ideas or through the forms of things that exist in the Word. By looking at the Word, they not only comprehend the existence of things as represented in the Word but also the essence of those things in themselves; just as God, by reflecting on Himself, perceives the essence that things have in their own nature. Therefore, if it's called evening knowledge because when the angels view the Word, they grasp the essence that things have in their true nature, then morning and evening knowledge are fundamentally the same, differing only in what is known. If it is referred to as evening knowledge in the sense that they understand the essence of things through innate ideas, then morning and evening knowledge are distinct. This seems to be how Augustine interprets it when he suggests one is lesser than the other.

Reply Obj. 1: The six days, as Augustine understands them, are taken as the six classes of things known by the angels; so that the day's unit is taken according to the unit of the thing understood; which, nevertheless, can be apprehended by various ways of knowing it.

Reply Obj. 1: The six days, as Augustine sees them, represent the six categories of things known by the angels; therefore, the unit of the day corresponds to the unit of the thing understood, which can still be comprehended through different ways of knowing it.

Reply Obj. 2: There can be two operations of the same faculty at the one time, one of which is referred to the other; as is evident when the will at the same time wills the end and the means to the end; and the intellect at the same instant perceives principles and conclusions through those principles, when it has already acquired knowledge. As Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 24), the evening knowledge is referred to the morning knowledge in the angels; hence there is nothing to hinder both from being at the same time in the angels.

Reply Obj. 2: Two actions from the same faculty can happen simultaneously, with one action relating to the other. This is clear when the will simultaneously desires both the goal and the means to achieve it, and when the intellect simultaneously understands principles and concludes things based on those principles, having already obtained that knowledge. As Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. iv, 24), the knowledge gained in the evening is connected to the knowledge gained in the morning in angels; therefore, there’s nothing preventing both from existing at the same time in angels.

Reply Obj. 3: On the coming of what is perfect, the opposite imperfect is done away: just as faith, which is of the things that are not seen, is made void when vision succeeds. But the imperfection of the evening knowledge is not opposed to the perfection of the morning knowledge. For that a thing be known in itself, is not opposite to its being known in its cause. Nor, again, is there any inconsistency in knowing a thing through two mediums, one of which is more perfect and the other less perfect; just as we can have a demonstrative and a probable medium for reaching the same conclusion. In like manner a thing can be known by the angel through the uncreated Word, and through an innate idea. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: When the perfect comes, the imperfect disappears; just as faith, which is about things we can't see, becomes meaningless when we have vision. However, the imperfect understanding we have in the evening doesn’t contradict the perfect understanding we have in the morning. Knowing something in its essence isn't opposed to knowing it by its cause. Additionally, there's no inconsistency in understanding something through two different means, one more perfect and the other less perfect; just like we can achieve the same conclusion through both a demonstrative and a probable method. Similarly, something can be known by the angel through the uncreated Word and through an innate idea.

QUESTION 59
THE WILL OF THE ANGELS (FOUR ARTICLES)

In the next place we must treat of things concerning the will of the angels. In the first place we shall treat of the will itself; secondly, of its movement, which is love. Under the first heading there are four points of inquiry:

In the next section, we need to discuss matters related to the will of the angels. First, we'll address the will itself; secondly, we'll talk about its movement, which is love. Under the first topic, there are four points to explore:

(1) Whether there is will in the angels?

(1) Do angels have free will?

(2) Whether the will of the angel is his nature, or his intellect?

(2) Is the angel's will part of his nature or his intellect?

(3) Is there free-will in the angels?

(3) Do angels have free will?

(4) Is there an irascible and a concupiscible appetite in them? _______________________

(4) Do they have a quick-tempered and a passionate desire? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 59, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 59, Art. 1]

Whether There Is Will in the Angels?

Do angels have free will?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is no will in the angels. For as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, text. 42), "The will is in the reason." But there is no reason in the angels, but something higher than reason. Therefore there is no will in the angels, but something higher than the will.

Objection 1: It seems that angels don’t have a will. As the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, text. 42), "The will is in reason." However, angels don’t possess reason; they have something greater than reason. Therefore, angels don’t have a will, but something above will.

Obj. 2: Further, the will is comprised under the appetite, as is evident from the Philosopher (De Anima iii, text. 42). But the appetite argues something imperfect; because it is a desire of something not as yet possessed. Therefore, since there is no imperfection in the angels, especially in the blessed ones, it seems that there is no will in them.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the will is included under the appetite, as the Philosopher clearly states (De Anima iii, text. 42). However, the appetite indicates something imperfect because it is a desire

Obj. 3: Further, the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, text. 54) that the will is a mover which is moved; for it is moved by the appetible object understood. Now the angels are immovable, since they are incorporeal. Therefore there is no will in the angels.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the Philosopher states (De Anima ii, text. 54) that the will is a mover that can also be moved; it is influenced by an understood desirable object. However, angels are unchanging because they are incorporeal. Therefore, there is no will in angels.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. x, 11,12) that the image of the Trinity is found in the soul according to memory, understanding, and will. But God's image is found not only in the soul of man, but also in the angelic mind, since it also is capable of knowing God. Therefore there is will in the angels.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. x, 11,12) that the image of the Trinity is reflected in the soul through memory, understanding, and will. However, God's image exists not just in the human soul, but also in the minds of angels, as they are also able to know God. Therefore, angels possess will.

I answer that, We must necessarily place a will in the angels. In evidence thereof, it must be borne in mind that, since all things flow from the Divine will, all things in their own way are inclined by appetite towards good, but in different ways. Some are inclined to good by their natural inclination, without knowledge, as plants and inanimate bodies. Such inclination towards good is called "a natural appetite." Others, again, are inclined towards good, but with some knowledge; not that they know the aspect of goodness, but that they apprehend some particular good; as in the sense, which knows the sweet, the white, and so on. The inclination which follows this apprehension is called "a sensitive appetite." Other things, again, have an inclination towards good, but with a knowledge whereby they perceive the aspect of goodness; this belongs to the intellect. This is most perfectly inclined towards what is good; not, indeed, as if it were merely guided by another towards some particular good only, like things devoid of knowledge, nor towards some particular good only, as things which have only sensitive knowledge, but as inclined towards good in general. Such inclination is termed "will." Accordingly, since the angels by their intellect know the universal aspect of goodness, it is manifest that there is a will in them.

I answer that, we definitely have to recognize a will in the angels. To support this, we should remember that since everything comes from the Divine will, everything is inclined towards good in its own way, but in different manners. Some things are inclined to good by their natural instinct, without any awareness, like plants and inanimate objects. This natural inclination towards good is referred to as "a natural appetite." Others are drawn to good but with some understanding; they may not perceive the nature of goodness itself, but they notice specific goods, like the sense that recognizes sweetness, whiteness, and so on. This sort of inclination is called "a sensitive appetite." Other entities have an inclination toward good, combined with an awareness that allows them to recognize goodness; this is the role of the intellect. The intellect is most fully drawn to what is good—not just following another toward a specific good, as things without knowledge do, nor focusing on only one particular good, like things with just sensory awareness, but rather being inclined toward good in general. This inclination is what we call "will." Therefore, since the angels understand the broader concept of goodness through their intellect, it is clear that they possess a will.

Reply Obj. 1: Reason surpasses sense in a different way from that in which intellect surpasses reason. Reason surpasses sense according to the diversity of the objects known; for sense judges of particular objects, while reason judges of universals. Therefore there must be one appetite tending towards good in the abstract, which appetite belongs to reason; and another with a tendency towards particular good, which appetite belongs to sense. But intellect and reason differ as to their manner of knowing; because the intellect knows by simple intuition, while reason knows by a process of discursion from one thing to another. Nevertheless by such discursion reason comes to know what intellect learns without it, namely, the universal. Consequently the object presented to the appetitive faculty on the part of reason and on the part of intellect is the same. Therefore in the angels, who are purely intellectual, there is no appetite higher than the will.

Reply Obj. 1: Reason is more advanced than sense in a different way than intellect is more advanced than reason. Reason exceeds sense because it understands a variety of objects; sense perceives specific objects, while reason understands general concepts. Therefore, there must be one desire aimed at the abstract good, which is associated with reason, and another aimed at particular goods, which is tied to sense. Intellect and reason differ in how they know things; intellect understands through direct insight, while reason understands through a process of reasoning from one idea to another. However, through this reasoning, reason can grasp what intellect understands directly, namely, the universal. Thus, the object that the appetitive faculty responds to in terms of reason and intellect is the same. Therefore, in angels, who are purely intellectual beings, there is no desire that surpasses the will.

Reply Obj. 2: Although the name of the appetitive part is derived from seeking things not yet possessed, yet the appetitive part reaches out not to these things only, but also to many other things; thus the name of a stone [lapis] is derived from injuring the foot [laesione pedis], though not this alone belongs to a stone. In the same way the irascible faculty is so denominated from anger [ira]; though at the same time there are several other passions in it, as hope, daring, and the rest.

Reply Obj. 2: While the term for the appetitive part comes from wanting things we don’t have yet, it actually goes beyond just those things and includes many others as well; for example, the word for stone [lapis] comes from the way it can hurt your foot [laesione pedis], even though that’s not the only thing a stone does. Similarly, the irascible faculty is named for anger [ira], but it also includes various other emotions like hope, courage, and others.

Reply Obj. 3: The will is called a mover which is moved, according as to will and to understand are termed movements of a kind; and there is nothing to prevent movement of this kind from existing in the angels, since such movement is the act of a perfect agent, as stated in De Anima iii, text. 28. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The will is referred to as a mover that is moved, just as willing and understanding are considered types of movement; and there is nothing stopping this kind of movement from existing in angels, since such movement is the action of a perfect agent, as stated in De Anima iii, text. 28.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 59, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 59, Art. 2]

Whether in the Angels the Will Differs from the Intellect?

Whether in the Angels, the Will is Different from the Intellect?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the angel the will does not differ from the intellect and from the nature. For an angel is more simple than a natural body. But a natural body is inclined through its form towards its end, which is its good. Therefore much more so is the angel. Now the angel's form is either the nature in which he subsists, or else it is some species within his intellect. Therefore the angel inclines towards the good through his own nature, or through an intelligible species. But such inclination towards the good belongs to the will. Therefore the will of the angel does not differ from his nature or his intellect.

Objection 1: It seems that in an angel, the will is not different from the intellect and the nature. An angel is simpler than a physical body. A physical body is directed towards its purpose or good because of its form. Therefore, an angel has an even stronger inclination towards the good. The angel's form is either the nature in which it exists or some idea within its intellect. So, the angel moves towards the good through its nature or through an intellectual concept. However, such an inclination towards the good is a characteristic of the will. Therefore, the angel's will is not different from its nature or intellect.

Obj. 2: Further, the object of the intellect is the true, while the object of the will is the good. Now the good and the true differ, not really but only logically [*Cf. Q. 16, A. 4]. Therefore will and intellect are not really different.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the focus of the intellect is the truth, while the focus of the will is the good. The good and the true are different, not in reality but only in concept [*Cf. Q. 16, A. 4]. Therefore, will and intellect are not truly different.

Obj. 3: Further, the distinction of common and proper does not differentiate the faculties; for the same power of sight perceives color and whiteness. But the good and the true seem to be mutually related as common to particular; for the true is a particular good, to wit, of the intellect. Therefore the will, whose object is the good, does not differ from the intellect, whose object is the true.

Obj. 3: Moreover, the distinction between common and proper does not separate the faculties; because the same ability to see recognizes color and whiteness. However, good and true seem to be interconnected as common and specific; because the true is a specific good, namely, for the intellect. Therefore, the will, which aims at the good, does not differ from the intellect, which aims at the true.

On the contrary, The will in the angels regards good things only, while their intellect regards both good and bad things, for they know both. Therefore the will of the angels is distinct from their intellect.

On the contrary, The will of the angels focuses only on good things, while their intellect considers both good and bad things, as they are aware of both. Therefore, the will of the angels is separate from their intellect.

I answer that, In the angels the will is a special faculty or power, which is neither their nature nor their intellect. That it is not their nature is manifest from this, that the nature or essence of a thing is completely comprised within it: whatever, then, extends to anything beyond it, is not its essence. Hence we see in natural bodies that the inclination to being does not come from anything superadded to the essence, but from the matter which desires being before possessing it, and from the form which keeps it in such being when once it exists. But the inclination towards something extrinsic comes from something superadded to the essence; as tendency to a place comes from gravity or lightness, while the inclination to make something like itself comes from the active qualities.

I answer that, in angels, the will is a distinct ability or power that is neither part of their nature nor their intellect. It’s clear that it is not part of their nature because the nature or essence of a thing is fully contained within itself: anything that reaches beyond that is not part of its essence. Therefore, we observe in natural bodies that the drive to exist doesn’t come from anything added to their essence, but rather from the matter that yearns for existence before it has it, and from the form that maintains that existence once it is achieved. However, the drive towards something external comes from something added to the essence; for instance, the tendency to move towards a location comes from gravity or buoyancy, while the inclination to create something similar to itself arises from active qualities.

Now the will has a natural tendency towards good. Consequently there alone are essence and will identified where all good is contained within the essence of him who wills; that is to say, in God, Who wills nothing beyond Himself except on account of His goodness. This cannot be said of any creature, because infinite goodness is quite foreign to the nature of any created thing. Accordingly, neither the will of the angel, nor that of any creature, can be the same thing as its essence.

Now the will naturally leans towards good. As a result, essence and will are identified only where all good exists within the essence of the one who wills; that is to say, in God, who doesn't will anything beyond Himself except for His goodness. This can't be said of any creature because infinite goodness is entirely outside the nature of anything created. Therefore, neither the will of an angel nor that of any creature can be the same as its essence.

In like manner neither can the will be the same thing as the intellect of angel or man. Because knowledge comes about in so far as the object known is within the knower; consequently the intellect extends itself to what is outside it, according as what, in its essence, is outside it is disposed to be somehow within it. On the other hand, the will goes out to what is beyond it, according as by a kind of inclination it tends, in a manner, to what is outside it. Now it belongs to one faculty to have within itself something which is outside it, and to another faculty to tend to what is outside it. Consequently intellect and will must necessarily be different powers in every creature. It is not so with God, for He has within Himself universal being, and the universal good. Therefore both intellect and will are His nature.

Similarly, the will cannot be the same as the intellect of an angel or a human. Knowledge occurs when the object of knowledge is present within the knower; therefore, the intellect reaches out to things outside itself, depending on how those external things can be understood within it. In contrast, the will extends toward what is beyond it, driven by an inclination that leads it to things outside itself. One faculty can contain what lies outside it, while another faculty can aim toward what's outside. Thus, the intellect and will must be distinct powers in every creature. This isn't the case with God, as He encompasses universal existence and the ultimate good within Himself. Thus, both intellect and will are part of His nature.

Reply Obj. 1: A natural body is moved to its own being by its substantial form: while it is inclined to something outside by something additional, as has been said.

Reply Obj. 1: A natural body is guided to its own existence by its essential form; at the same time, it is drawn toward something external by an additional factor, as previously mentioned.

Reply Obj. 2: Faculties are not differentiated by any material difference of their objects, but according to their formal distinction, which is taken from the nature of the object as such. Consequently the diversity derived from the notion of good and true suffices for the difference of intellect from will.

Reply Obj. 2: Faculties aren't differentiated by any material difference in their objects, but rather by their formal distinctions, which come from the nature of the object itself. Therefore, the variety based on the concepts of good and truth is enough to distinguish intellect from will.

Reply Obj. 3: Because the good and the true are really convertible, it follows that the good is apprehended by the intellect as something true; while the true is desired by the will as something good. Nevertheless, the diversity of their aspects is sufficient for diversifying the faculties, as was said above (ad 2). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Since the good and the true are actually interchangeable, it follows that the intellect understands the good as something true; while the will seeks the true as something good. However, the difference in how they are perceived is enough to differentiate the faculties, as mentioned earlier (ad 2).

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 59, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 59, Art. 3]

Whether There Is Free-Will in the Angels?

Do Angels Have Free Will?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is no free-will in the angels. For the act of free-will is to choose. But there can be no choice with the angels, because choice is "the desire of something after taking counsel," while counsel is "a kind of inquiry," as stated in Ethic. iii, 3. But the angels' knowledge is not the result of inquiring, for this belongs to the discursiveness of reason. Therefore it appears that there is no free-will in the angels.

Objection 1: It seems that angels do not have free will. Free will involves making a choice. However, there can't be any choice among angels, because choice is "the desire for something after considering options," while considering options is "a form of inquiry," as stated in Ethic. iii, 3. But the knowledge of angels isn't based on inquiry, since that pertains to the reasoning process. Therefore, it appears that angels do not possess free will.

Obj. 2: Further, free-will implies indifference to alternatives. But in the angels on the part of their intellect there is no such indifference; because, as was observed already (Q. 58, A. 5), their intellect is not deceived as to things which are naturally intelligible to them. Therefore neither on the part of their appetitive faculty can there be free-will.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, free will suggests a lack of preference for alternatives. However, the angels do not experience this lack of preference in their intellect; as previously noted (Q. 58, A. 5), their intellect isn’t misled regarding things that they can naturally understand. Therefore, there can also be no free will in terms of their desire.

Obj. 3: Further, the natural endowments of the angels belong to them according to degrees of more or less; because in the higher angels the intellectual nature is more perfect than in the lower. But the free-will does not admit of degrees. Therefore there is no free-will in them.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the natural gifts of the angels vary in degree; the higher angels possess a more perfected intellectual nature compared to the lower ones. However, free will does not vary by degrees. Therefore, they do not have free will.

On the contrary, Free-will is part of man's dignity. But the angels' dignity surpasses that of men. Therefore, since free-will is in men, with much more reason is it in the angels.

On the contrary, free will is part of human dignity. However, the dignity of angels is greater than that of humans. Therefore, since free will exists in humans, it is even more present in angels.

I answer that, Some things there are which act, not from any previous judgment, but, as it were, moved and made to act by others; just as the arrow is directed to the target by the archer. Others act from some kind of judgment; but not from free-will, such as irrational animals; for the sheep flies from the wolf by a kind of judgment whereby it esteems it to be hurtful to itself: such a judgment is not a free one, but implanted by nature. Only an agent endowed with an intellect can act with a judgment which is free, in so far as it apprehends the common note of goodness; from which it can judge this or the other thing to be good. Consequently, wherever there is intellect, there is free-will. It is therefore manifest that just as there is intellect, so is there free-will in the angels, and in a higher degree of perfection than in man.

I answer that, There are some things that act, not from any prior judgment, but are moved and made to act by others; just like an arrow is aimed at a target by an archer. Others act based on some form of judgment, but not out of free will, such as irrational animals; for example, a sheep runs away from a wolf based on a kind of judgment that tells it the wolf is a threat. This judgment isn't a free choice, but something instinctive. Only an agent with intellect can act with a judgment that is free, as it recognizes the shared notion of goodness, allowing it to determine whether something is good or not. Therefore, wherever there is intellect, there is free will. It is clear that just as there is intellect, there is also free will in angels, and to a greater degree of perfection than in humans.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher is speaking of choice, as it is in man. As a man's estimate in speculative matters differs from an angel's in this, that the one needs not to inquire, while the other does so need; so is it in practical matters. Hence there is choice in the angels, yet not with the inquisitive deliberation of counsel, but by the sudden acceptance of truth.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher is talking about choice as it exists in humans. A person's judgment in theoretical issues is different from an angel's in that one doesn’t require inquiry while the other does. The same applies to practical matters. Therefore, angels do have choice, but not with the careful consideration of advice; rather, they accept truth instantly.

Reply Obj. 2: As was observed already (A. 2), knowledge is effected by the presence of the known within the knower. Now it is a mark of imperfection in anything not to have within it what it should naturally have. Consequently an angel would not be perfect in his nature, if his intellect were not determined to every truth which he can know naturally. But the act of the appetitive faculty comes of this, that the affection is directed to something outside. Yet the perfection of a thing does not come from everything to which it is inclined, but only from something which is higher than it. Therefore it does not argue imperfection in an angel if his will be not determined with regard to things beneath him; but it would argue imperfection in him, were he to be indeterminate to what is above him.

Reply Obj. 2: As mentioned earlier (A. 2), knowledge relies on the presence of the known within the knower. It's a sign of imperfection for anything not to possess what it should naturally have. Thus, an angel wouldn't be perfect in its nature if its intellect weren't focused on every truth it can naturally know. However, the act of the appetitive faculty comes from the affection being directed toward something external. Yet, the perfection of a thing doesn’t come from everything it is attracted to, but only from something that is greater than it. Therefore, it doesn’t indicate imperfection in an angel if its will isn't focused on things below it; but it would indicate imperfection if it were not focused on what is above it.

Reply Obj. 3: Free-will exists in a nobler manner in the higher angels than it does in the lower, as also does the judgment of the intellect. Yet it is true that liberty, in so far as the removal of compulsion is considered, is not susceptible of greater and less degree; because privations and negations are not lessened nor increased directly of themselves; but only by their cause, or through the addition of some qualification. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Free will exists in a more refined way in the higher angels than in the lower ones, just as the judgment of the intellect does. However, it's true that liberty, in terms of the absence of compulsion, doesn't have greater or lesser degrees; because limitations and absences themselves aren't diminished or increased directly; they only change through their cause or by adding some kind of qualification. _______________________

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 59, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 59, Art. 4]

Whether There Is an Irascible and a Concupiscible Appetite in the
Angels?

Whether there is a quick-tempered and a desire-driven appetite in the
Angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is an irascible and a concupiscible appetite in the angels. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that in the demons there is "unreasonable fury and wild concupiscence." But demons are of the same nature as angels; for sin has not altered their nature. Therefore there is an irascible and a concupiscible appetite in the angels.

Objection 1: It seems that angels have both an irascible appetite and a concupiscible appetite. Dionysius mentions (Div. Nom. iv) that demons exhibit "unreasonable fury and wild desire." Since demons share the same nature as angels, as sin hasn’t changed their nature, it follows that angels must also have an irascible and a concupiscible appetite.

Obj. 2: Further, love and joy are in the concupiscible; while anger, hope, and fear are in the irascible appetite. But in the Sacred Scriptures these things are attributed both to the good and to the wicked angels. Therefore there is an irascible and a concupiscible appetite in the angels.

Obj. 2: Also, love and joy are part of the concupiscible appetite, while anger, hope, and fear belong to the irascible appetite. However, in the Sacred Scriptures, these emotions are associated with both good and wicked angels. Therefore, angels have both an irascible and a concupiscible appetite.

Obj. 3: Further, some virtues are said to reside in the irascible appetite and some in the concupiscible: thus charity and temperance appear to be in the concupiscible, while hope and fortitude are in the irascible. But these virtues are in the angels. Therefore there is both a concupiscible and an irascible appetite in the angels.

Obj. 3: Additionally, some virtues are said to exist in the irascible appetite and others in the concupiscible: for example, charity and temperance seem to be in the concupiscible, while hope and fortitude belong to the irascible. Since these virtues exist in angels, it follows that angels have both a concupiscible and an irascible appetite.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, text. 42) that the irascible and concupiscible are in the sensitive part, which does not exist in angels. Consequently there is no irascible or concupiscible appetite in the angels.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, text. 42) that the irascible and concupiscible are in the sensitive part, which does not exist in angels. Consequently, there is no irascible or concupiscible appetite in the angels.

I answer that, The intellective appetite is not divided into irascible and concupiscible; only the sensitive appetite is so divided. The reason of this is because, since the faculties are distinguished from one another not according to the material but only by the formal distinction of objects, if to any faculty there respond an object according to some common idea, there will be no distinction of faculties according to the diversity of the particular things contained under that common idea. Just as if the proper object of the power of sight be color as such, then there are not several powers of sight distinguished according to the difference of black and white: whereas if the proper object of any faculty were white, as white, then the faculty of seeing white would be distinguished from the faculty of seeing black.

I respond that, the intellectual appetite isn't split into irascible and concupiscible; only the sensitive appetite is divided this way. The reason is that faculties are separated not by material differences but by the formal distinction of objects. If a faculty has an object that corresponds to a common idea, there won't be a distinction among faculties based on the variety of specific things that fall under that common idea. For example, if the proper object of sight is color in general, then there aren't multiple types of sight differentiated by black and white; however, if the proper object of a faculty were specifically white, then the ability to see white would be distinguished from the ability to see black.

Now it is quite evident from what has been said (A. 1; Q. 16, A. 1), that the object of the intellective appetite, otherwise known as the will, is good according to the common aspect of goodness; nor can there be any appetite except of what is good. Hence, in the intellective part, the appetite is not divided according to the distinction of some particular good things, as the sensitive appetite is divided, which does not crave for what is good according to its common aspect, but for some particular good object. Accordingly, since there exists in the angels only an intellective appetite, their appetite is not distinguished into irascible and concupiscible, but remains undivided; and it is called the will.

It's now pretty clear from what we've discussed (A. 1; Q. 16, A. 1) that the focus of the intellective appetite, or what we call the will, is on goodness in its general sense; there can't be any appetite for anything that isn't good. Therefore, in the intellective part, the appetite isn't split according to specific good things, unlike the sensitive appetite, which only desires particular good objects, not goodness in a general sense. So, since angels only have an intellective appetite, theirs isn't divided into irascible and concupiscible; it remains whole and is referred to as the will.

Reply Obj. 1: Fury and concupiscence are metaphorically said to be in the demons, as anger is sometimes attributed to God;—on account of the resemblance in the effect.

Reply Obj. 1: Fury and desire are metaphorically said to be in the demons, just as anger is sometimes attributed to God—due to the similarity in the effects.

Reply Obj. 2: Love and joy, in so far as they are passions, are in the concupiscible appetite, but in so far as they express a simple act of the will, they are in the intellective part: in this sense to love is to wish well to anyone; and to be glad is for the will to repose in some good possessed. Universally speaking, none of these things is said of the angels, as by way of passions; as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei ix).

Reply Obj. 2: Love and joy, as feelings, belong to the desire for pleasure, but when they reflect a simple decision of the will, they are part of the intellectual side: in this sense, to love means to wish well for someone; and to feel joy is for the will to find rest in some good that is already held. Generally speaking, none of these things applies to angels in terms of feelings, as Augustine states (De Civ. Dei ix).

Reply Obj. 3: Charity, as a virtue, is not in the concupiscible appetite, but in the will; because the object of the concupiscible appetite is the good as delectable to the senses. But the Divine goodness, which is the object of charity, is not of any such kind. For the same reason it must be said that hope does not exist in the irascible appetite; because the object of the irascible appetite is something arduous belonging to the sensible order, which the virtue of hope does not regard; since the object of hope is arduous and divine. Temperance, however, considered as a human virtue, deals with the desires of sensible pleasures, which belong to the concupiscible faculty. Similarly, fortitude regulates daring and fear, which reside in the irascible part. Consequently temperance, in so far as it is a human virtue, resides in the concupiscible part, and fortitude in the irascible. But they do not exist in the angels in this manner. For in them there are no passions of concupiscence, nor of fear and daring, to be regulated by temperance and fortitude. But temperance is predicated of them according as in moderation they display their will in conformity with the Divine will. Fortitude is likewise attributed to them, in so far as they firmly carry out the Divine will. All of this is done by their will, and not by the irascible or concupiscible appetite. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Charity, as a virtue, isn’t found in the desire for pleasure, but in the will; because the desire for pleasure is drawn to what is good as it appeals to the senses. However, the Divine goodness, which is the focus of charity, is not of that nature. For the same reason, we can say that hope doesn’t arise from the feeling of anger or fear; because the focus of those feelings pertains to challenging things within the sensory realm, which the virtue of hope does not consider; since hope relates to what is challenging and divine. Temperance, on the other hand, as a human virtue, deals with the cravings for sensory pleasures, which belong to the desire for pleasure. Likewise, fortitude governs courage and fear, which exist in the emotional aspect of anger. Therefore, temperance, as a human virtue, is found in the desire for pleasure, while fortitude is found in the emotional aspect of anger. However, angels do not possess these traits in the same way. They do not have feelings of desire or fear and courage that need to be managed by temperance and fortitude. But temperance is attributed to them as they moderate their will in alignment with the Divine will. Fortitude is also ascribed to them as they faithfully carry out the Divine will. All of this is governed by their will, not by the feelings of anger or desire.

QUESTION 60

OF THE LOVE OR DILECTION OF THE ANGELS
(In Five Articles)

OF THE LOVE OR DILECTION OF THE ANGELS
(In Five Articles)

The next subject for our consideration is that act of the will which is love or dilection; because every act of the appetitive faculty comes of love.

The next topic for us to think about is the act of will that is love or affection; because every action of the desire faculty stems from love.

Under this heading there are five points of inquiry:

Under this heading, there are five areas to explore:

(1) Whether there is natural love in the angels?

(1) Is there natural love in angels?

(2) Whether there is in them love of choice?

(2) Is there love of choice in them?

(3) Whether the angel loves himself with natural love or with love of choice?

(3) Does the angel love himself with natural love or with chosen love?

(4) Whether one angel loves another with natural love as he loves himself?

(4) Does one angel love another with the same natural love that he has for himself?

(5) Whether the angel loves God more than self with natural love? _______________________

(5) Does the angel love God more than itself with natural love? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 60, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 60, Art. 1]

Whether There Is Natural Love or Dilection in an Angel?

Whether There Is Natural Love or Affection in an Angel?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is no natural love or dilection in the angels. For, natural love is contradistinguished from intellectual love, as stated by Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv). But an angel's love is intellectual. Therefore it is not natural.

Objection 1: It seems that angels do not have natural love or affection. Natural love is different from intellectual love, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv). But an angel's love is intellectual. Therefore, it is not natural.

Obj. 2: Further, those who love with natural love are more acted upon than active in themselves; for nothing has control over its own nature. Now the angels are not acted upon, but act of themselves; because they possess free-will, as was shown above (Q. 59, A. 3). Consequently there is no natural love in them.

Obj. 2: Additionally, those who love with natural love are more influenced by outside forces than they are self-driven; because nothing can control its own nature. Now the angels are not influenced by outside forces, but act on their own; because they have free will, as previously shown (Q. 59, A. 3). Therefore, there is no natural love in them.

Obj. 3: Further, every love is either ordinate or inordinate. Now ordinate love belongs to charity; while inordinate love belongs to wickedness. But neither of these belongs to nature; because charity is above nature, while wickedness is against nature. Therefore there is no natural love in the angels.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, every love is either proper or improper. Proper love is associated with charity, while improper love is linked to wickedness. However, neither of these is natural; because charity transcends nature, while wickedness goes against nature. Therefore, there is no natural love among the angels.

On the contrary, Love results from knowledge; for, nothing is loved except it be first known, as Augustine says (De Trin. x, 1,2). But there is natural knowledge in the angels. Therefore there is also natural love.

On the contrary, Love comes from knowledge; nothing can be loved unless it is first known, as Augustine says (De Trin. x, 1,2). Angels possess natural knowledge. Therefore, they also have natural love.

I answer that, We must necessarily place natural love in the angels. In evidence of this we must bear in mind that what comes first is always sustained in what comes after it. Now nature comes before intellect, because the nature of every subject is its essence. Consequently whatever belongs to nature must be preserved likewise in such subjects as have intellect. But it is common to every nature to have some inclination; and this is its natural appetite or love. This inclination is found to exist differently in different natures; but in each according to its mode. Consequently, in the intellectual nature there is to be found a natural inclination coming from the will; in the sensitive nature, according to the sensitive appetite; but in a nature devoid of knowledge, only according to the tendency of the nature to something. Therefore, since an angel is an intellectual nature, there must be a natural love in his will.

I respond that, we must certainly acknowledge that natural love exists in angels. To support this, we need to remember that what comes first is always upheld by what follows. Now, nature precedes intellect because the essence of every being is tied to its nature. Therefore, whatever is inherent in nature must also be retained in beings that possess intellect. Every nature has some form of inclination, which is its natural desire or love. This inclination manifests differently across various natures, but each does so in its own way. Thus, in intellectual beings, there exists a natural inclination arising from the will; in sensitive beings, it arises from the sensitive appetite; while in beings without knowledge, it is based solely on the tendencies of their nature. Therefore, since an angel is an intellectual being, there must be a natural love in its will.

Reply Obj. 1: Intellectual love is contradistinguished from that natural love, which is merely natural, in so far as it belongs to a nature which has not likewise the perfection of either sense or intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: Intellectual love is different from natural love, which is just instinctive, because it pertains to a nature that lacks the refinement of either sensation or intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: All things in the world are moved to act by something else except the First Agent, Who acts in such a manner that He is in no way moved to act by another; and in Whom nature and will are the same. So there is nothing unfitting in an angel being moved to act in so far as such natural inclination is implanted in him by the Author of his nature. Yet he is not so moved to act that he does not act himself, because he has free-will.

Reply Obj. 2: Everything in the world is set in motion by something else, except for the First Cause, which acts independently and is not influenced to act by anything outside itself; in this being, nature and will are one and the same. Therefore, it’s not inappropriate for an angel to be motivated to act based on the natural inclination given to him by his Creator. However, he is not compelled to act in such a way that he loses his ability to choose, since he has free will.

Reply Obj. 3: As natural knowledge is always true, so is natural love well regulated; because natural love is nothing else than the inclination implanted in nature by its Author. To say that a natural inclination is not well regulated, is to derogate from the Author of nature. Yet the rectitude of natural love is different from the rectitude of charity and virtue: because the one rectitude perfects the other; even so the truth of natural knowledge is of one kind, and the truth of infused or acquired knowledge is of another. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Just as natural knowledge is always true, natural love is also well regulated; because natural love is simply the inclination that is built into nature by its Creator. To claim that a natural inclination is not well regulated is to diminish the Creator of nature. However, the correctness of natural love differs from the correctness of charity and virtue; because one type of correctness improves the other; similarly, the truth of natural knowledge is one kind, while the truth of infused or acquired knowledge is another.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 60, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 60, Art. 2]

Whether There Is Love of Choice in the Angels?

Whether Angels Have the Capacity to Choose Love?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is no love of choice in the angels. For love of choice appears to be rational love; since choice follows counsel, which lies in inquiry, as stated in Ethic. iii, 3. Now rational love is contrasted with intellectual, which is proper to angels, as is said (Div. Nom. iv). Therefore there is no love of choice in the angels.

Objection 1: It seems that angels do not have love of choice. Love of choice seems to be a rational kind of love, because choice comes after deliberation, which involves questioning, as stated in Ethic. iii, 3. Now rational love is different from intellectual love, which is what angels have, as mentioned in (Div. Nom. iv). Therefore, angels do not have love of choice.

Obj. 2: Further, the angels have only natural knowledge besides such as is infused: since they do not proceed from principles to acquire the knowledge of conclusions. Hence they are disposed to everything they can know, as our intellect is disposed towards first principles, which it can know naturally. Now love follows knowledge, as has been already stated (A. 1; Q. 16, A. 1). Consequently, besides their infused love, there is only natural love in the angels. Therefore there is no love of choice in them.

Obj. 2: Additionally, angels have only natural knowledge along with what is infused; they don’t start from principles to gain knowledge of conclusions. Therefore, they are open to everything they can understand, just as our intellect is naturally inclined toward first principles that it can know. Love follows knowledge, as stated earlier (A. 1; Q. 16, A. 1). So, apart from their infused love, the only love that exists in angels is natural love. Consequently, there is no choice-based love in them.

On the contrary, We neither merit nor demerit by our natural acts. But by their love the angels merit or demerit. Therefore there is love of choice in them.

On the contrary, We neither gain nor lose points for our natural actions. However, the angels gain or lose points based on their love. Therefore, they have love that is a matter of choice.

I answer that, There exists in the angels a natural love, and a love of choice. Their natural love is the principle of their love of choice; because, what belongs to that which precedes, has always the nature of a principle. Wherefore, since nature is first in everything, what belongs to nature must be a principle in everything.

I respond that, In angels, there is both a natural love and a love of choice. Their natural love forms the basis for their love of choice; because what comes first always has the nature of a principle. Therefore, since nature is primary in everything, what relates to nature must be a principle in everything.

This is clearly evident in man, with respect to both his intellect and his will. For the intellect knows principles naturally; and from such knowledge in man comes the knowledge of conclusions, which are known by him not naturally, but by discovery, or by teaching. In like manner, the end acts in the will in the same way as the principle does in the intellect, as is laid down in Phys. ii, text. 89. Consequently the will tends naturally to its last end; for every man naturally wills happiness: and all other desires are caused by this natural desire; since whatever a man wills he wills on account of the end. Therefore the love of that good, which a man naturally wills as an end, is his natural love; but the love which comes of this, which is of something loved for the end's sake, is the love of choice.

This is clearly evident in humans, regarding both their intellect and their will. The intellect naturally understands principles; and from that understanding comes knowledge of conclusions, which a person gains not naturally but through discovery or teaching. Similarly, the ultimate goal influences the will in the same way that a principle does in the intellect, as stated in Phys. ii, text. 89. Therefore, the will naturally strives for its ultimate goal; every person inherently desires happiness, and all other desires stem from this natural desire, since whatever someone wants, they want for the sake of the end. Consequently, the love for the good that a person naturally desires as an end is their natural love; however, the love that arises from this, which is directed toward something loved for the sake of that end, is the love of choice.

There is however a difference on the part of the intellect and on the part of the will. Because, as was stated already (Q. 59, A. 2), the mind's knowledge is brought about by the inward presence of the known within the knower. It comes of the imperfection of man's intellectual nature that his mind does not simultaneously possess all things capable of being understood, but only a few things from which he is moved in a measure to grasp other things. The act of the appetitive faculty, on the contrary, follows the inclination of man towards things; some of which are good in themselves, and consequently are appetible in themselves; others being good only in relation to something else, and being appetible on account of something else. Consequently it does not argue imperfection in the person desiring, for him to seek one thing naturally as his end, and something else from choice as ordained to such end. Therefore, since the intellectual nature of the angels is perfect, only natural and not deductive knowledge is to be found in them, but there is to be found in them both natural love and love of choice.

However, there is a distinction between the intellect and the will. As mentioned earlier (Q. 59, A. 2), the mind's knowledge comes from the internal presence of what is known within the knower. It is due to the limitations of human intellectual nature that our minds cannot grasp everything that can be understood at once, but only a select few things that inspire us to understand other concepts. In contrast, the actions of the appetitive faculty align with human inclinations toward different things; some of these are good in themselves and, therefore, desirable on their own; others are only considered good in relation to something else and are sought after for that reason. Therefore, it does not indicate a flaw in a person's desires when they naturally pursue one thing as their ultimate goal and another thing of their own choosing as a means to that goal. Thus, since angels have perfect intellectual natures, they possess only natural and not deductive knowledge, but they do exhibit both natural love and chosen love.

In saying all this, we are passing over all that regards things which are above nature, since nature is not the sufficient principle thereof: but we shall speak of them later on (Q. 62).

In saying all this, we are skipping over everything related to things that are beyond nature since nature is not the sufficient principle of those matters: but we will discuss them later on (Q. 62).

Reply Obj. 1: Not all love of choice is rational love, according as rational is distinguished from intellectual love. For rational love is so called which follows deductive knowledge: but, as was said above (Q. 59, A. 3, ad 1), when treating of free-will, every choice does not follow a discursive act of the reason; but only human choice. Consequently the conclusion does not follow.

Reply Obj. 1: Not all love that comes from choice is rational love, as rational is different from intellectual love. Rational love is referred to as such because it follows logical reasoning. However, as mentioned earlier (Q. 59, A. 3, ad 1), when discussing free will, not every choice is based on a reasoned thought process; only human choices are. Therefore, the conclusion doesn't hold true.

The reply to the second objection follows from what has been said. _______________________

The response to the second objection follows from what has already been discussed.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 60, Art. 4]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 60, Art. 4]

Whether the Angel Loves Himself with Both Natural Love, and Love of
Choice?

Whether the Angel loves himself with both natural love and love of choice?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angel does not love himself both with natural love and a love of choice. For, as was said (A. 2), natural love regards the end itself; while love of choice regards the means to the end. But the same thing, with regard to the same, cannot be both the end and a means to the end. Therefore natural love and the love of choice cannot have the same object.

Objection 1: It seems that the angel does not love himself both with natural love and with chosen love. As mentioned earlier (A. 2), natural love focuses on the end itself, while chosen love considers the means to that end. However, the same thing cannot be both the end and a means to the end at the same time. Therefore, natural love and chosen love cannot have the same object.

Obj. 2: Further, as Dionysius observes (Div. Nom. iv): "Love is a uniting and a binding power." But uniting and binding imply various things brought together. Therefore the angel cannot love himself.

Obj. 2: Moreover, as Dionysius notes (Div. Nom. iv): "Love is a unifying and binding force." But to unify and bind suggests different things coming together. Therefore, the angel cannot love himself.

Obj. 3: Further, love is a kind of movement. But every movement tends towards something else. Therefore it seems that an angel cannot love himself with either natural or elective love.

Obj. 3: Additionally, love is a form of movement. However, every movement is aimed at something else. Thus, it appears that an angel cannot love himself with either natural or elective love.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Ethic. ix, 8): "Love for others comes of love for oneself."

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Ethic. ix, 8): "Caring for others comes from caring for yourself."

I answer that, Since the object of love is good, and good is to be found both in substance and in accident, as is clear from Ethic. i, 6, a thing may be loved in two ways; first of all as a subsisting good; and secondly as an accidental or inherent good. That is loved as a subsisting good, which is so loved that we wish well to it. But that which we wish unto another, is loved as an accidental or inherent good: thus knowledge is loved, not that any good may come to it but that it may be possessed. This kind of love has been called by the name "concupiscence" while the first is called "friendship."

I respond that, Since the object of love is good, and good can be found both in essence and in qualities, as is clear from Ethic. i, 6, something can be loved in two ways: first, as a fundamental good; and second, as a good that is incidental or inherent. What is loved as a fundamental good is loved in such a way that we wish well for it. However, what we wish for another is loved as an incidental or inherent good: for example, we love knowledge, not for any good that may come to it but simply for the sake of possessing it. This type of love has been referred to as "concupiscence," while the first type is known as "friendship."

Now it is manifest that in things devoid of knowledge, everything naturally seeks to procure what is good for itself; as fire seeks to mount upwards. Consequently both angel and man naturally seek their own good and perfection. This is to love self. Hence angel and man naturally love self, in so far as by natural appetite each desires what is good for self. On the other hand, each loves self with the love of choice, in so far as from choice he wishes for something which will benefit himself.

Now it’s clear that in areas lacking knowledge, everything instinctively aims to seek what’s good for itself, just like fire rises. As a result, both angels and humans naturally pursue their own good and perfection. This is self-love. Therefore, both angels and humans naturally love themselves, as each, by their innate desire, wants what’s good for them. On the other hand, each loves themselves through chosen love, in that they intentionally seek something that will benefit them.

Reply Obj. 1: It is not under the same but under quite different aspects that an angel or a man loves self with natural and with elective love, as was observed above.

Reply Obj. 1: An angel or a person loves themselves in both natural and chosen ways, but these are quite different, as noted earlier.

Reply Obj. 2: As to be one is better than to be united, so there is more oneness in love which is directed to self than in love which unites one to others. Dionysius used the terms "uniting" and "binding" in order to show the derivation of love from self to things outside self; as uniting is derived from unity.

Reply Obj. 2: Being one is better than just being united, so there's a deeper sense of oneness in love that focuses on oneself than in love that connects us to others. Dionysius used the terms "uniting" and "binding" to illustrate how love comes from the self to things outside of it; after all, uniting comes from unity.

Reply Obj. 3: As love is an action which remains within the agent, so also is it a movement which abides within the lover, but does not of necessity tend towards something else; yet it can be reflected back upon the lover so that he loves himself; just as knowledge is reflected back upon the knower, in such a way that he knows himself. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Just like love is an action that stays with the person who feels it, it's also a feeling that exists within the lover, but doesn't always have to focus on something else; however, it can be directed back at the lover, allowing them to love themselves, similar to how knowledge can be turned back on the knower, enabling them to understand themselves.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 60, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 60, Art. 4]

Whether an Angel Loves Another with Natural Love As He Loves Himself?

Whether an angel loves another with natural love just like he loves himself?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel does not love another with natural love as he loves himself. For love follows knowledge. But an angel does not know another as he knows himself: because he knows himself by his essence, while he knows another by his similitude, as was said above (Q. 56, AA. 1, 2). Therefore it seems that one angel does not love another with natural love as he loves himself.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel doesn’t love another angel with natural love the way he loves himself. Love follows knowledge. However, an angel knows himself through his essence, while he knows another angel through their similarity, as mentioned above (Q. 56, AA. 1, 2). Therefore, it appears that one angel does not love another angel with natural love as he loves himself.

Obj. 2: Further, the cause is more powerful than the effect; and the principle than what is derived from it. But love for another comes of love for self, as the Philosopher says (Ethic. ix, 8). Therefore one angel does not love another as himself, but loves himself more.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the cause is stronger than the effect, and the principle is greater than what comes from it. However, love for someone else stems from love for oneself, as the Philosopher states (Ethic. ix, 8). Therefore, one angel does not love another as he loves himself, but instead loves himself more.

Obj. 3: Further, natural love is of something as an end, and is unremovable. But no angel is the end of another; and again, such love can be severed from him, as is the case with the demons, who have no love for the good angels. Therefore an angel does not love another with natural love as he loves himself.

Obj. 3: Additionally, natural love is directed towards something as an ultimate goal, and it cannot be taken away. However, no angel serves as the ultimate goal for another; moreover, this kind of love can be cut off, as is evident with demons, who do not love the good angels. Therefore, one angel does not love another with natural love in the same way he loves himself.

On the contrary, That seems to be a natural property which is found in all, even in such as devoid of reason. But, "every beast loves its like," as is said, Ecclus. 13:19. Therefore an angel naturally loves another as he loves himself.

On the contrary, that appears to be a natural trait present in everyone, even in those without reason. But, "every beast loves its own," as it is said, Ecclus. 13:19. Therefore, an angel naturally loves another just as he loves himself.

I answer that, As was observed (A. 3), both angel and man naturally love self. Now what is one with a thing, is that thing itself: consequently every thing loves what is one with itself. So, if this be one with it by natural union, it loves it with natural love; but if it be one with it by non-natural union, then it loves it with non-natural love. Thus a man loves his fellow townsman with a social love, while he loves a blood relation with natural affection, in so far as he is one with him in the principle of natural generation.

I respond that, As noted (A. 3), both angels and humans naturally love themselves. Now, whatever is united with something is that thing itself: therefore, everything loves what is united with it. If this unity is natural, it loves it with natural affection; but if the unity is not natural, then it loves it with non-natural affection. So, a person loves their neighbor with a social love, while they love a family member with a natural affection, as they are united in the principle of natural generation.

Now it is evident that what is generically or specifically one with another, is the one according to nature. And so everything loves another which is one with it in species, with a natural affection, in so far as it loves its own species. This is manifest even in things devoid of knowledge: for fire has a natural inclination to communicate its form to another thing, wherein consists this other thing's good; as it is naturally inclined to seek its own good, namely, to be borne upwards.

Now it's clear that what is the same in general or specific terms is unified by nature. Everything has a natural affection for others that are the same species, as it loves its own kind. This is evident even in things that lack awareness: fire naturally strives to pass on its form to something else, which represents the good of that other thing; additionally, it instinctively seeks its own good, which is to rise upwards.

So then, it must be said that one angel loves another with natural affection, in so far as he is one with him in nature. But so far as an angel has something else in common with another angel, or differs from him in other respects, he does not love him with natural love.

So, it has to be said that one angel loves another with a natural affection, as they share the same nature. However, in terms of other things they might have in common or differences between them, he doesn't love him with that natural love.

Reply Obj. 1: The expression 'as himself' can in one way qualify the knowledge and the love on the part of the one known and loved: and thus one angel knows another as himself, because he knows the other to be even as he knows himself to be. In another way the expression can qualify the knowledge and the love on the part of the knower and lover. And thus one angel does not know another as himself, because he knows himself by his essence, and the other not by the other's essence. In like manner he does not love another as he loves himself, because he loves himself by his own will; but he does not love another by the other's will.

Reply Obj. 1: The phrase 'as himself' can describe the knowledge and love from the perspective of the one who is known and loved: in this sense, one angel knows another as himself because he understands the other just as he understands himself. Conversely, the phrase can also refer to the knowledge and love from the viewpoint of the knower and lover. In this case, one angel does not know another as himself, since he knows himself through his essence, which is not how he knows the other. Similarly, he does not love another as he loves himself because he loves himself based on his own will; however, he does not love another based on the other's will.

Reply Obj. 2: The expression "as" does not denote equality, but likeness. For since natural affection rests upon natural unity, the angel naturally loves less what is less one with him. Consequently he loves more what is numerically one with himself, than what is one only generically or specifically. But it is natural for him to have a like love for another as for himself, in this respect, that as he loves self in wishing well to self, so he loves another in wishing well to him.

Reply Obj. 2: The term "as" does not mean equality, but similarity. Since natural affection is based on natural unity, an angel naturally loves less what is less united with him. Therefore, he loves what is numerically one with himself more than what is only one in a general or specific sense. However, it is natural for him to have a similar love for another as he does for himself, in that just as he wishes well for himself, he also wishes well for another.

Reply Obj. 3: Natural love is said to be of the end, not as of that end to which good is willed, but rather as of that good which one wills for oneself, and in consequence for another, as united to oneself. Nor can such natural love be stripped from the wicked angels, without their still retaining a natural affection towards the good angels, in so far as they share the same nature with them. But they hate them, in so far as they are unlike them according to righteousness and unrighteousness. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Natural love is described as being focused on the end, not in relation to the end that one desires for the good, but rather concerning the good that one wants for oneself, and consequently for others, as connected to oneself. Even wicked angels cannot be completely devoid of this natural love; they still maintain a natural affection for the good angels, since they share the same nature. However, they hate them because they differ from them in terms of righteousness and unrighteousness.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 60, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 60, Art. 5]

Whether an angel by natural love loves God more than he loves himself?

Whether an angel loves God more than he loves himself out of natural love?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angel does not love God by natural love more than he loves himself. For, as was stated (A. 4), natural love rests upon natural union. Now the Divine nature is far above the angelic nature. Therefore, according to natural love, the angel loves God less than self, or even than another angel.

Objection 1: It seems that the angel does not love God by natural love more than he loves himself. As mentioned (A. 4), natural love is based on natural union. Since the Divine nature is much higher than the angelic nature, according to natural love, the angel loves God less than himself or even less than another angel.

Obj. 2: Further, "That on account of which a thing is such, is yet more so." But every one loves another with natural love for his own sake: because one thing loves another as good for itself. Therefore the angel does not love God more than self with natural love.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, "The reason something is the way it is, is even more so." But everyone loves others with a natural love for their own benefit: because one thing loves another as good for itself. Therefore, the angel does not love God more than itself with natural love.

Obj. 3: Further, nature is self-centered in its operation; for we behold every agent acting naturally for its own preservation. But nature's operation would not be self-centered were it to tend towards anything else more than to nature itself. Therefore the angel does not love God more than himself from natural love.

Obj. 3: Additionally, nature is focused on itself in its actions; because we observe every being acting naturally for its own survival. However, nature's actions wouldn't be self-focused if they aimed at anything else more than nature itself. Therefore, the angel does not love God more than himself out of natural love.

Obj. 4: Further, it is proper to charity to love God more than self. But to love from charity is not natural to the angels; for "it is poured out upon their hearts by the Holy Spirit Who is given to them," as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xii, 9). Therefore the angels do not love God more than themselves by natural love.

Obj. 4: Additionally, it is fitting for charity to love God more than oneself. However, loving from charity is not natural for the angels; for "it is poured out upon their hearts by the Holy Spirit Who is given to them," as Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xii, 9). Therefore, the angels do not love God more than themselves through natural love.

Obj. 5: Further, natural love lasts while nature endures. But the love of God more than self does not remain in the angel or man who sins; for Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv), "Two loves have made two cities; namely love of self unto the contempt of God has made the earthly city; while love of God unto the contempt of self has made the heavenly city." Therefore it is not natural to love God more than self.

Obj. 5: Additionally, natural love lasts as long as nature does. However, the love of God over self does not remain in an angel or human who sins; as Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xiv), "Two loves have created two cities: the love of self that leads to the disregard of God has formed the earthly city, while the love of God that leads to the disregard of self has formed the heavenly city." Therefore, it's not natural to love God more than oneself.

On the contrary, All the moral precepts of the law come of the law of nature. But the precept of loving God more than self is a moral precept of the law. Therefore, it is of the law of nature. Consequently from natural love the angel loves God more than himself.

On the contrary, all the moral principles of the law originate from the law of nature. But the principle of loving God more than oneself is a moral principle of the law. Therefore, it comes from the law of nature. Consequently, due to natural love, the angel loves God more than himself.

I answer that, There have been some who maintained that an angel loves God more than himself with natural love, both as to the love of concupiscence, through his seeking the Divine good for himself rather than his own good; and, in a fashion, as to the love of friendship, in so far as he naturally desires a greater good to God than to himself; because he naturally wishes God to be God, while as for himself, he wills to have his own nature. But absolutely speaking, out of the natural love he loves himself more than he does God, because he naturally loves himself before God, and with greater intensity.

I respond that, some have argued that an angel loves God more than himself with a natural love, both in terms of the love of desire, through seeking the Divine good for himself rather than his own benefit; and, in a sense, regarding the love of friendship, to the extent that he naturally wants a greater good for God than for himself; because he naturally wishes for God to be God, while he wants to maintain his own nature. However, in absolute terms, from a natural love perspective, he loves himself more than he loves God, because he inherently prioritizes his own well-being over that of God, and with greater intensity.

The falsity of such an opinion stands in evidence, if one but consider whither natural movement tends in the natural order of things; because the natural tendency of things devoid of reason shows the nature of the natural inclination residing in the will of an intellectual nature. Now, in natural things, everything which, as such, naturally belongs to another, is principally, and more strongly inclined to that other to which it belongs, than towards itself. Such a natural tendency is evidenced from things which are moved according to nature: because "according as a thing is moved naturally, it has an inborn aptitude to be thus moved," as stated in Phys. ii, text. 78. For we observe that the part naturally exposes itself in order to safeguard the whole; as, for instance, the hand is without deliberation exposed to the blow for the whole body's safety. And since reason copies nature, we find the same inclination among the social virtues; for it behooves the virtuous citizen to expose himself to the danger of death for the public weal of the state; and if man were a natural part of the city, then such inclination would be natural to him.

The falsehood of this opinion is clear when we consider where natural movement leads in the order of things. The natural tendency of things that lack reason reflects the nature of the inclination present in the will of an intellectual being. In natural things, everything that naturally belongs to another is primarily and more strongly drawn to that other than to itself. This natural tendency is evident from things that move according to nature; as stated in Phys. ii, text. 78, "a thing is moved naturally, it has an inborn aptitude to be thus moved." We see this when a part naturally exposes itself to protect the whole; for example, the hand instinctively gets in the way of a blow to protect the entire body. Similarly, because reason reflects nature, we find the same inclination among social virtues. A virtuous citizen should be willing to risk death for the good of the community; and if a person is a natural part of the city, then such an inclination would be natural to him.

Consequently, since God is the universal good, and under this good both man and angel and all creatures are comprised, because every creature in regard to its entire being naturally belongs to God, it follows that from natural love angel and man alike love God before themselves and with a greater love. Otherwise, if either of them loved self more than God, it would follow that natural love would be perverse, and that it would not be perfected but destroyed by charity.

Consequently, since God is the universal good, and all beings including humans and angels fall under this goodness—because every creature, in its entirety, naturally belongs to God—it follows that, out of natural love, both angels and humans love God more than themselves and with a greater love. If either of them loved themselves more than God, it would mean that natural love is twisted, and it would not be fulfilled but rather corrupted by charity.

Reply Obj. 1: Such reasoning holds good of things adequately divided whereof one is not the cause of the existence and goodness of the other; for in such natures each loves itself naturally more than it does the other, inasmuch as it is more one with itself than it is with the other. But where one is the whole cause of the existence and goodness of the other, that one is naturally more loved than self; because, as we said above, each part naturally loves the whole more than itself: and each individual naturally loves the good of the species more than its own individual good. Now God is not only the good of one species, but is absolutely the universal good; hence everything in its own way naturally loves God more than itself.

Reply Obj. 1: This reasoning applies to things that are clearly distinct, where one doesn't cause the existence and goodness of the other; in such cases, each thing has a natural tendency to love itself more than the other, since it is more unified with itself than with anything else. However, when one is the complete cause of the existence and goodness of the other, that one is naturally loved more than itself; because, as mentioned earlier, each part naturally loves the whole more than it loves itself: and each individual naturally prioritizes the good of its species over its own individual good. Now, God is not only the good of a single species, but is universally the supreme good; therefore, everything, in its own way, naturally loves God more than itself.

Reply Obj. 2: When it is said that God is loved by an angel "in so far" as He is good to the angel, if the expression "in so far" denotes an end, then it is false; for he does not naturally love God for his own good, but for God's sake. If it denotes the nature of love on the lover's part, then it is true; for it would not be in the nature of anyone to love God, except from this—that everything is dependent on that good which is God.

Reply Obj. 2: When we say that an angel loves God "in so far" as He is good to the angel, if "in so far" refers to an end, then that's not true; the angel doesn't naturally love God for his own benefit, but for God's sake. If it refers to the nature of love from the lover's perspective, then it's true; because no one would love God unless it’s because everything relies on that goodness which is God.

Reply Obj. 3: Nature's operation is self-centered not merely as to certain particular details, but much more as to what is common; for everything is inclined to preserve not merely its individuality, but likewise its species. And much more has everything a natural inclination towards what is the absolutely universal good.

Reply Obj. 3: Nature's function is self-centered not just in specific details, but even more so in what is shared; everything tends to maintain not only its individual identity but also its species. Furthermore, everything has a natural tendency toward what is the truly universal good.

Reply Obj. 4: God, in so far as He is the universal good, from Whom every natural good depends, is loved by everything with natural love. So far as He is the good which of its very nature beatifies all with supernatural beatitude, He is love with the love of charity.

Reply Obj. 4: God, being the universal good, is the source of every natural good and is loved by everything with a natural love. In His essence as the good that inherently brings happiness to all through supernatural joy, He embodies love through charity.

Reply Obj. 5: Since God's substance and universal goodness are one and the same, all who behold God's essence are by the same movement of love moved towards the Divine essence as it is distinct from other things, and according as it is the universal good. And because He is naturally loved by all so far as He is the universal good, it is impossible that whoever sees Him in His essence should not love Him. But such as do not behold His essence, know Him by some particular effects, which are sometimes opposed to their will. So in this way they are said to hate God; yet nevertheless, so far as He is the universal good of all, every thing naturally loves God more than itself. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: Since God's nature and universal goodness are the same, everyone who perceives God's essence is moved by the same love towards the Divine essence as it is distinct from other things, according to its status as the universal good. Because He is inherently loved by all to the extent that He is the universal good, it is impossible for anyone who sees Him in His essence not to love Him. However, those who do not perceive His essence may recognize Him through certain specific effects, which can sometimes go against their will. In this way, they might be said to hate God; yet, to the extent that He is the universal good for everyone, everything naturally loves God more than itself.

QUESTION 61

OF THE PRODUCTION OF THE ANGELS IN THE ORDER OF NATURAL BEING
(In Four Articles)

OF THE PRODUCTION OF THE ANGELS IN THE ORDER OF NATURAL BEING
(In Four Articles)

After dealing with the nature of the angels, their knowledge and will, it now remains for us to treat of their creation, or, speaking in a general way, of their origin. Such consideration is threefold. In the first place we must see how they were brought into natural existence; secondly, how they were made perfect in grace or glory; and thirdly, how some of them became wicked.

After discussing the nature of angels, including their knowledge and will, we now need to address their creation, or, more broadly, their origin. This examination has three parts. First, we should look at how they came into being; second, how they were made perfect in grace or glory; and third, how some of them turned evil.

Under the first heading there are four points of inquiry:

Under the first heading, there are four questions to explore:

(1) Whether the angel has a cause of his existence?

(1) Does the angel have a reason for his existence?

(2) Whether he has existed from eternity?

(2) Has he existed since forever?

(3) Whether he was created before corporeal creatures?

(3) Was he created before physical beings?

(4) Whether the angels were created in the empyrean heaven? _______________________

(4) Were the angels created in the highest heaven? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 61, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 61, Art. 1]

Whether the Angels Have a Cause of Their Existence?

Whether the Angels Have a Reason for Their Existence?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels have no cause of their existence. For the first chapter of Genesis treats of things created by God. But there is no mention of angels. Therefore the angels were not created by God.

Objection 1: It seems that angels have no reason for their existence. The first chapter of Genesis discusses things created by God. However, angels are not mentioned. Therefore, it could be argued that angels were not created by God.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher says (Metaph. viii, text. 16) that if any substance be a form without matter, "straightway it has being and unity of itself, and has no cause of its being and unity." But the angels are immaterial forms, as was shown above (Q. 50, A. 2). Therefore they have no cause of their being.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the Philosopher states (Metaph. viii, text. 16) that if any substance is a form without matter, "it immediately has existence and unity of itself, and has no cause for its existence and unity." However, the angels are immaterial forms, as demonstrated earlier (Q. 50, A. 2). Therefore, they have no cause for their existence.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever is produced by any agent, from the very fact of its being produced, receives form from it. But since the angels are forms, they do not derive their form from any agent. Therefore the angels have no active cause.

Obj. 3: Additionally, anything created by any agent, by the mere fact of its creation, takes on form from that agent. But since angels are forms themselves, they do not get their form from any agent. Therefore, angels have no active cause.

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 148:2): "Praise ye Him, all His angels"; and further on, verse 5: "For He spoke and they were made."

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 148:2): "Praise Him, all His angels"; and further on, verse 5: "For He spoke and they were created."

I answer that, It must be affirmed that angels and everything existing, except God, were made by God. God alone is His own existence; while in everything else the essence differs from the existence, as was shown above (Q. 3, A. 4). From this it is clear that God alone exists of His own essence: while all other things have their existence by participation. Now whatever exists by participation is caused by what exists essentially; as everything ignited is caused by fire. Consequently the angels, of necessity, were made by God.

I answer that, It's important to affirm that angels and everything else that exists, apart from God, was created by God. God is unique in that He is His own existence; in all other cases, essence and existence are distinct, as explained above (Q. 3, A. 4). Therefore, it's clear that God exists by His own essence, while everything else has its existence through participation. Everything that exists through participation is caused by what exists essentially, much like everything that is ignited comes from fire. Hence, it follows that angels were necessarily created by God.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 50) that the angels were not passed over in that account of the first creation of things, but are designated by the name "heavens" or of "light." And they were either passed over, or else designated by the names of corporeal things, because Moses was addressing an uncultured people, as yet incapable of understanding an incorporeal nature; and if it had been divulged that there were creatures existing beyond corporeal nature, it would have proved to them an occasion of idolatry, to which they were inclined, and from which Moses especially meant to safeguard them.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 50) that the angels were not overlooked in the account of the initial creation of things, but are referred to as "heavens" or "light." They were either ignored or identified by the names of physical things because Moses was speaking to an unrefined people who were not yet able to grasp an incorporeal nature. If it had been revealed that there were beings existing beyond the physical realm, it would have led them to idol worship, something they were already prone to, and from which Moses particularly aimed to protect them.

Reply Obj. 2: Substances that are subsisting forms have no 'formal' cause of their existence and unity, nor such active cause as produces its effect by changing the matter from a state of potentiality to actuality; but they have a cause productive of their entire substance.

Reply Obj. 2: Substances that exist in their current forms don’t have a 'formal' cause for their existence and unity, nor do they have an active cause that creates an effect by changing matter from a state of potential to actual; instead, they have a cause that brings about their whole substance.

From this the solution of the third difficulty is manifest. _______________________

From this, the solution to the third difficulty is clear.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 61, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 61, Art. 2]

Whether the Angel Was Produced by God from Eternity?

Whether the Angel Was Created by God from Eternity?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angel was produced by God from eternity. For God is the cause of the angel by His being: for He does not act through something besides His essence. But His being is eternal. Therefore He produced the angels from eternity.

Objection 1: It seems that the angel was created by God from eternity. God is the cause of the angel through His essence, as He does not act through anything outside of His nature. Since His essence is eternal, it follows that He created the angels from eternity.

Obj. 2: Further, everything which exists at one period and not at another, is subject to time. But the angel is above time, as is laid down in the book De Causis. Therefore the angel is not at one time existing and at another non-existing, but exists always.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, anything that exists at one time and not at another is bound by time. However, the angel is beyond time, as stated in the book De Causis. Therefore, the angel does not exist at one time and not at another; rather, it always exists.

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine (De Trin. xiii) proves the soul's incorruptibility by the fact that the mind is capable of truth. But as truth is incorruptible, so is it eternal. Therefore the intellectual nature of the soul and of the angel is not only incorruptible, but likewise eternal.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, Augustine (De Trin. xiii) demonstrates that the soul is incorruptible because the mind can grasp truth. And since truth is incorruptible, it is also eternal. Therefore, the intellectual nature of the soul and of the angel is not just incorruptible, but also eternal.

On the contrary, It is said (Prov. 8:22), in the person of begotten Wisdom: "The Lord possessed me in the beginning of His ways, before He made anything from the beginning." But, as was shown above (A. 1), the angels were made by God. Therefore at one time the angels were not.

On the contrary, it is said (Prov. 8:22), in the voice of begotten Wisdom: "The Lord had me from the start of His creations, before He made anything at the very beginning." However, as previously shown (A. 1), the angels were created by God. Therefore, there was a time when the angels did not exist.

I answer that, God alone, Father, Son and Holy Ghost, is from eternity. Catholic Faith holds this without doubt; and everything to the contrary must be rejected as heretical. For God so produced creatures that He made them "from nothing"; that is, after they had not been.

I answer that, God alone, Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, exists from eternity. The Catholic Faith firmly believes this; anything contrary must be dismissed as heretical. God created creatures "out of nothing"; that is, after they had not existed.

Reply Obj. 1: God's being is His will. So the fact that God produced the angels and other creatures by His being does not exclude that He made them also by His will. But, as was shown above (Q. 19, A. 3; Q. 46, A. 1), God's will does not act by necessity in producing creatures. Therefore He produced such as He willed, and when He willed.

Reply Obj. 1: God's essence is His will. So, the fact that God created the angels and other beings through His essence doesn’t rule out the idea that He also made them through His will. However, as shown earlier (Q. 19, A. 3; Q. 46, A. 1), God's will does not operate by necessity in creating beings. Therefore, He created them according to His will and in His own time.

Reply Obj. 2: An angel is above that time which is the measure of the movement of the heavens; because he is above every movement of a corporeal nature. Nevertheless he is not above time which is the measure of the succession of his existence after his non-existence, and which is also the measure of the succession which is in his operations. Hence Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 20,21) that "God moves the spiritual creature according to time."

Reply Obj. 2: An angel exists beyond the time that measures the movement of the heavens because he is above all physical motion. However, he is not beyond the time that measures the sequence of his existence after he did not exist, which also measures the sequence of his actions. Therefore, Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. viii, 20,21) that "God moves the spiritual creature according to time."

Reply Obj. 3: Angels and intelligent souls are incorruptible by the very fact of their having a nature whereby they are capable of truth. But they did not possess this nature from eternity; it was bestowed upon them when God Himself willed it. Consequently it does not follow that the angels existed from eternity. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Angels and intelligent souls are incorruptible simply because they have a nature that allows them to understand truth. However, they did not have this nature for all time; it was given to them when God decided to do so. Therefore, it doesn’t mean that the angels existed eternally.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 61, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 61, Art. 3]

Whether the Angels Were Created Before the Corporeal World?

Whether the Angels Were Created Before the Physical World?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels were created before the corporeal world. For Jerome says (In Ep. ad Tit. i, 2): "Six thousand years of our time have not yet elapsed; yet how shall we measure the time, how shall we count the ages, in which the Angels, Thrones, Dominations, and the other orders served God?" Damascene also says (De Fide Orth. ii): "Some say that the angels were begotten before all creation; as Gregory the Theologian declares, He first of all devised the angelic and heavenly powers, and the devising was the making thereof."

Objection 1: It seems that the angels were created before the physical world. Jerome says (In Ep. ad Tit. i, 2): "Six thousand years of our time have not yet passed; yet how can we measure time or count the ages in which the Angels, Thrones, Dominations, and the other orders served God?" Damascene also states (De Fide Orth. ii): "Some say that the angels were created before all of creation; as Gregory the Theologian declares, He first conceived the angelic and heavenly powers, and the conception was their creation."

Obj. 2: Further, the angelic nature stands midway between the Divine and the corporeal natures. But the Divine nature is from eternity; while corporeal nature is from time. Therefore the angelic nature was produced ere time was made, and after eternity.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the nature of angels exists between the Divine and the physical natures. The Divine nature is eternal, while the physical nature is time-bound. Therefore, the angelic nature was created before time began and is thus after eternity.

Obj. 3: Further, the angelic nature is more remote from the corporeal nature than one corporeal nature is from another. But one corporeal nature was made before another; hence the six days of the production of things are set forth in the opening of Genesis. Much more, therefore, was the angelic nature made before every corporeal nature.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the angelic nature is further removed from the physical nature than one physical nature is from another. One physical nature was created before another; this is why the six days of creation are detailed in the beginning of Genesis. In fact, the angelic nature was created even before any physical nature.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 1:1): "In the beginning God created heaven and earth." Now, this would not be true if anything had been created previously. Consequently the angels were not created before corporeal nature.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 1:1): "In the beginning God created heaven and earth." Now, this wouldn't be true if anything had been created before that. Therefore, the angels were not created before the physical universe.

I answer that, There is a twofold opinion on this point to be found in the writings of the Fathers. The more probable one holds that the angels were created at the same time as corporeal creatures. For the angels are part of the universe: they do not constitute a universe of themselves; but both they and corporeal natures unite in constituting one universe. This stands in evidence from the relationship of creature to creature; because the mutual relationship of creatures makes up the good of the universe. But no part is perfect if separate from the whole. Consequently it is improbable that God, Whose "works are perfect," as it is said Deut. 32:4, should have created the angelic creature before other creatures. At the same time the contrary is not to be deemed erroneous; especially on account of the opinion of Gregory Nazianzen, "whose authority in Christian doctrine is of such weight that no one has ever raised objection to his teaching, as is also the case with the doctrine of Athanasius," as Jerome says.

I answer that, There are two main views on this issue found in the writings of the Church Fathers. The more accepted view suggests that angels were created at the same time as physical creatures. Angels are part of the universe; they don’t create a separate universe on their own, but together with physical beings, they form one universe. This is evident from the connections between creatures; the mutual relationships among them contribute to the goodness of the universe. No part can be complete if it is isolated from the whole. Therefore, it seems unlikely that God, whose "works are perfect," as stated in Deut. 32:4, would have created angels before other beings. However, the opposing view is not incorrect, especially considering the opinion of Gregory Nazianzen, whose authority in Christian teaching is so significant that no one has ever contested his views, as Jerome notes regarding the teachings of Athanasius.

Reply Obj. 1: Jerome is speaking according to the teaching of the Greek Fathers; all of whom hold the creation of the angels to have taken place previously to that of the corporeal world.

Reply Obj. 1: Jerome is expressing the view of the Greek Fathers, all of whom believe that the creation of angels occurred before the creation of the physical world.

Reply Obj. 2: God is not a part of, but far above, the whole universe, possessing within Himself the entire perfection of the universe in a more eminent way. But an angel is a part of the universe. Hence the comparison does not hold.

Reply Obj. 2: God is not part of the universe; He is far above it, possessing the complete perfection of the universe in a much greater way. However, an angel is part of the universe. Therefore, the comparison doesn't work.

Reply Obj. 3: All corporeal creatures are one in matter; while the angels do not agree with them in matter. Consequently the creation of the matter of the corporeal creature involves in a manner the creation of all things; but the creation of the angels does not involve creation of the universe.

Reply Obj. 3: All physical creatures are the same in material; however, the angels do not share that material. Therefore, creating the material of physical creatures involves, in a sense, creating everything; but creating the angels does not involve creating the universe.

If the contrary view be held, then in the text of Gen. 1, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," the words, "In the beginning," must be interpreted, "In the Son," or "In the beginning of time": but not, "In the beginning, before which there was nothing," unless we say "Before which there was nothing of the nature of corporeal creatures." _______________________

If a different perspective is taken, then in the text of Gen. 1, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," the phrase "In the beginning" should be understood as "In the Son" or "At the start of time," but not as "In the beginning, when there was nothing," unless we clarify that "when there was nothing" refers to the absence of physical beings.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 61, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 61, Art. 4]

Whether the Angels Were Created in the Empyrean Heaven?

Whether the Angels Were Created in the Highest Heaven?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels were not created in the empyrean heaven. For the angels are incorporeal substances. Now a substance which is incorporeal is not dependent upon a body for its existence; and as a consequence, neither is it for its creation. Therefore the angels were not created in any corporeal place.

Objection 1: It seems that the angels were not created in the empyrean heaven. Angels are incorporeal beings. An incorporeal being doesn’t rely on a body for its existence, so it also wouldn’t depend on a body for its creation. Therefore, the angels were not created in any physical location.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine remarks (Gen. ad lit. iii, 10), that the angels were created in the upper atmosphere: therefore not in the empyrean heaven.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine notes (Gen. ad lit. iii, 10) that the angels were created in the upper atmosphere; therefore, not in the empyrean heaven.

Obj. 3: Further, the empyrean heaven is said to be the highest heaven. If therefore the angels were created in the empyrean heaven, it would not beseem them to mount up to a still higher heaven. And this is contrary to what is said in Isaias, speaking in the person of the sinning angel: "I will ascend into heaven" (Isa. 14:13).

Obj. 3: Additionally, the empyrean heaven is described as the highest heaven. If the angels were created in the empyrean heaven, it wouldn’t make sense for them to rise to an even higher heaven. This contradicts what is stated in Isaiah, where the sinful angel says, "I will ascend into heaven" (Isa. 14:13).

On the contrary, Strabus, commenting on the text "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," says: "By heaven he does not mean the visible firmament, but the empyrean, that is, the fiery or intellectual firmament, which is not so styled from its heat, but from its splendor; and which was filled with angels directly it was made."

On the contrary, Strabus, discussing the phrase "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," says: "By heaven, he doesn't mean the visible sky, but the empyrean, which is the fiery or intellectual realm. It's called that not because of its heat, but because of its brilliance; and it was filled with angels as soon as it was created."

I answer that, As was observed (A. 3), the universe is made up of corporeal and spiritual creatures. Consequently spiritual creatures were so created as to bear some relationship to the corporeal creature, and to rule over every corporeal creature. Hence it was fitting for the angels to be created in the highest corporeal place, as presiding over all corporeal nature; whether it be styled the empyrean heaven, or whatever else it be called. So Isidore says that the highest heaven is the heaven of the angels, explaining the passage of Deut. 10:14: "Behold heaven is the Lord's thy God, and the heaven of heaven."

I respond that, as mentioned (A. 3), the universe consists of physical and spiritual beings. As a result, spiritual beings were created to have a connection with physical beings and to govern every physical creature. Therefore, it was appropriate for the angels to be created in the highest physical realm, overseeing all of physical nature, whether it's referred to as the empyrean heaven or something else. Isidore states that the highest heaven is the heaven of the angels, explaining the verse from Deut. 10:14: "Behold, heaven is the Lord's your God, and the heaven of heavens."

Reply Obj. 1: The angels were created in a corporeal place, not as if depending upon a body either as to their existence or as to their being made; because God could have created them before all corporeal creation, as many holy Doctors hold. They were made in a corporeal place in order to show their relationship to corporeal nature, and that they are by their power in touch with bodies.

Reply Obj. 1: The angels were created in a physical space, but not as if they relied on a body for their existence or creation; because God could have created them before any physical creation, as many holy Doctors believe. They were made in a physical space to demonstrate their connection to the physical world and that they have the ability to interact with bodies.

Reply Obj. 2: By the uppermost atmosphere Augustine possibly means the highest part of heaven, to which the atmosphere has a kind of affinity owing to its subtlety and transparency. Or else he is not speaking of all the angels; but only of such as sinned, who, in the opinion of some, belonged to the inferior orders. But there is nothing to hinder us from saying that the higher angels, as having an exalted and universal power over all corporeal things, were created in the highest place of the corporeal creature; while the other angels, as having more restricted powers, were created among the inferior bodies.

Reply Obj. 2: By the uppermost atmosphere, Augustine might be referring to the highest part of heaven, which shares a kind of closeness with the atmosphere because of its delicacy and clarity. Alternatively, he may not be talking about all the angels, but only about those who sinned, who, according to some, belong to the lower ranks. However, there’s nothing stopping us from saying that the higher angels, who have a greater and more universal influence over all physical things, were created in the most elevated position of the physical realm; while the other angels, with more limited powers, were created among the lower entities.

Reply Obj. 3: Isaias is not speaking there of any corporeal heaven, but of the heaven of the Blessed Trinity; unto which the sinning angel wished to ascend, when he desired to be equal in some manner to God, as will appear later on (Q. 63, A. 3). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Isaias is not referring to any physical heaven, but to the heaven of the Blessed Trinity; the sinning angel wanted to rise there when he aimed to be somewhat equal to God, as will be explained later (Q. 63, A. 3).

QUESTION 62

OF THE PERFECTION OF THE ANGELS IN THE ORDER OF GRACE AND OF GLORY
(In Nine Articles)

OF THE PERFECTION OF THE ANGELS IN THE ORDER OF GRACE AND OF GLORY
(In Nine Articles)

In due sequence we have to inquire how the angels were made in the order of grace and of glory; under which heading there are nine points of inquiry:

In the proper order, we need to look into how the angels were created in terms of grace and glory; under this topic, there are nine points to explore:

(1) Were the angels created in beatitude?

(1) Were the angels created in bliss?

(2) Did they need grace in order to turn to God?

(2) Did they need grace to turn to God?

(3) Were they created in grace?

(3) Were they made with grace?

(4) Did they merit their beatitude?

(4) Did they deserve their happiness?

(5) Did they at once enter into beatitude after merit?

(5) Did they immediately enter into bliss after earning it?

(6) Did they receive grace and glory according to their natural capacities?

(6) Did they receive grace and glory based on their natural abilities?

(7) After entering glory, did their natural love and knowledge remain?

(7) After achieving glory, did their natural love and understanding stay the same?

(8) Could they have sinned afterwards?

(8) Could they have sinned after that?

(9) After entering into glory, could they advance farther? _______________________

(9) After reaching glory, could they go any further? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 1]

Whether the Angels Were Created in Beatitude?

Whether the Angels Were Created in Happiness?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels were created in beatitude. For it is stated (De Eccl. Dogm. xxix) that "the angels who continue in the beatitude wherein they were created, do not of their nature possess the excellence they have." Therefore the angels were created in beatitude.

Objection 1: It seems that angels were created in a state of happiness. For it states (De Eccl. Dogm. xxix) that "the angels who remain in the happiness they were created in do not inherently have the greatness they possess." Therefore, the angels were created in a state of happiness.

Obj. 2: Further, the angelic nature is nobler than the corporeal creature. But the corporeal creature straightway from its creation was made perfect and complete; nor did its lack of form take precedence in time, but only in nature, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. i, 15). Therefore neither did God create the angelic nature imperfect and incomplete. But its formation and perfection are derived from its beatitude, whereby it enjoys God. Therefore it was created in beatitude.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the nature of angels is more noble than that of physical beings. However, the physical creature was made perfect and complete right from its creation; its lack of form did not come first in time, only in nature, as Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. i, 15). So, God also did not create the angelic nature as imperfect and incomplete. Its formation and perfection come from its blessedness, through which it enjoys God. Therefore, it was created in a state of blessedness.

Obj. 3: Further, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 34; v, 5), the things which we read of as being made in the works of the six days, were made together at one time; and so all the six days must have existed instantly from the beginning of creation. But, according to his exposition, in those six days, "the morning" was the angelic knowledge, according to which they knew the Word and things in the Word. Therefore straightway from their creation they knew the Word, and things in the Word. But the bliss of the angels comes of seeing the Word. Consequently the angels were in beatitude straightway from the very beginning of their creation.

Obj. 3: Additionally, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 34; v, 5), the things we read about as having been created during the six days were all made at the same time; thus, all six days must have existed instantly from the start of creation. However, according to his interpretation, during those six days, "the morning" represents the knowledge of the angels, by which they understood the Word and the things associated with the Word. Therefore, from the moment they were created, they knew the Word and everything in it. The joy of the angels comes from seeing the Word. As a result, the angels experienced bliss right from the very start of their creation.

On the contrary, To be established or confirmed in good is of the nature of beatitude. But the angels were not confirmed in good as soon as they were created; the fall of some of them shows this. Therefore the angels were not in beatitude from their creation.

On the contrary, Being established or confirmed in goodness is part of true happiness. However, the angels were not confirmed in goodness right after they were created; the fall of some of them demonstrates this. Thus, the angels were not in a state of happiness from the moment of their creation.

I answer that, By the name of beatitude is understood the ultimate perfection of rational or of intellectual nature; and hence it is that it is naturally desired, since everything naturally desires its ultimate perfection. Now there is a twofold ultimate perfection of rational or of intellectual nature. The first is one which it can procure of its own natural power; and this is in a measure called beatitude or happiness. Hence Aristotle (Ethic. x) says that man's ultimate happiness consists in his most perfect contemplation, whereby in this life he can behold the best intelligible object; and that is God. Above this happiness there is still another, which we look forward to in the future, whereby "we shall see God as He is." This is beyond the nature of every created intellect, as was shown above (Q. 12, A. 4).

I answer that, by the term "beatitude," we mean the highest state of perfection of rational or intellectual nature; therefore, it is something that is naturally sought after, as everything inherently desires its ultimate perfection. There are two kinds of ultimate perfection for rational or intellectual nature. The first is something that can be achieved through its own natural abilities, which is referred to as beatitude or happiness. Aristotle (Ethic. x) states that a person's ultimate happiness lies in their most perfect contemplation, through which, in this life, they can perceive the highest intelligible object, which is God. Beyond this happiness, there’s another one that we anticipate in the future, where "we shall see God as He is." This surpasses the capabilities of any created intellect, as was explained above (Q. 12, A. 4).

So, then, it remains to be said, that, as regards this first beatitude, which the angel could procure by his natural power, he was created already blessed. Because the angel does not acquire such beatitude by any progressive action, as man does, but, as was observed above (Q. 58, AA. 3, 4), is straightway in possession thereof, owing to his natural dignity. But the angels did not have from the beginning of their creation that ultimate beatitude which is beyond the power of nature; because such beatitude is no part of their nature, but its end; and consequently they ought not to have it immediately from the beginning.

So, it should be noted that concerning this first beatitude, which the angel could achieve through his inherent power, he was already created blessed. Unlike humans, who attain beatitude through gradual effort, the angel possesses it immediately due to his natural dignity. However, the angels did not have that ultimate beatitude from the moment of their creation, as that beatitude is not an aspect of their nature but rather its ultimate goal; therefore, they shouldn't have it right from the start.

Reply Obj. 1: Beatitude is there taken for that natural perfection which the angel had in the state of innocence.

Reply Obj. 1: Beatitude refers to the natural perfection that the angel possessed in a state of innocence.

Reply Obj. 2: The corporeal creature instantly in the beginning of its creation could not have the perfection to which it is brought by its operation; consequently, according to Augustine (Gen. ad. lit. v, 4, 23; viii, 3), the growing of plants from the earth did not take place at once among the first works, in which only the germinating power of the plants was bestowed upon the earth. In the same way, the angelic creature in the beginning of its existence had the perfection of its nature; but it did not have the perfection to which it had to come by its operation.

Reply Obj. 2: The physical being, right at the start of its creation, couldn't possess the perfection that it achieved through its actions; therefore, as Augustine points out (Gen. ad. lit. v, 4, 23; viii, 3), the emergence of plants from the ground didn't happen all at once among the initial creations, where only the ability for plants to grow was given to the earth. Similarly, the angelic being at the beginning of its existence had the perfection of its nature, but it hadn't yet reached the perfection it needed to attain through its actions.

Reply Obj. 3: The angel has a twofold knowledge of the Word; the one which is natural, and the other according to glory. He has a natural knowledge whereby he knows the Word through a similitude thereof shining in his nature; and he has a knowledge of glory whereby he knows the Word through His essence. By both kinds of knowledge the angel knows things in the Word; imperfectly by his natural knowledge, and perfectly by his knowledge of glory. Therefore the first knowledge of things in the Word was present to the angel from the outset of his creation; while the second was not, but only when the angels became blessed by turning to the good. And this is properly termed their morning knowledge. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The angel has two types of knowledge of the Word: one that is natural and the other that is based on glory. He has a natural knowledge that allows him to understand the Word through a reflection of it that shines in his nature; and he has a knowledge of glory that enables him to know the Word through its essence. By both types of knowledge, the angel understands things in the Word—imperfectly through his natural knowledge and perfectly through his knowledge of glory. Thus, the angel's initial knowledge of things in the Word was present from the moment of his creation, while the second type was only acquired when the angels became blessed by turning towards the good. This is referred to as their morning knowledge.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 2]

Whether an Angel Needs Grace in Order to Turn to God?

Whether an angel needs grace to turn to God?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angel had no need of grace in order to turn to God. For, we have no need of grace for what we can accomplish naturally. But the angel naturally turns to God: because he loves God naturally, as is clear from what has been said (Q. 60, A. 5). Therefore an angel did not need grace in order to turn to God.

Objection 1: It seems that angels don't need grace to turn to God. We don't require grace for what we can achieve naturally. But angels naturally turn to God because they love Him naturally, as explained earlier (Q. 60, A. 5). Therefore, angels didn't need grace to turn to God.

Obj. 2: Further, seemingly we need help only for difficult tasks. Now it was not a difficult task for the angel to turn to God; because there was no obstacle in him to such turning. Therefore the angel had no need of grace in order to turn to God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, it seems that we only need help for tough tasks. Now, turning to God wasn’t a difficult task for the angel; there was no barrier within him to prevent such a turn. Therefore, the angel didn’t need grace to turn to God.

Obj. 3: Further, to turn oneself to God is to dispose oneself for grace; hence it is said (Zech. 1:3): "Turn ye to Me, and I will turn to you." But we do not stand in need of grace in order to prepare ourselves for grace: for thus we should go on to infinity. Therefore the angel did not need grace to turn to God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, turning to God means making oneself open to grace; hence it is said (Zech. 1:3): "Turn to Me, and I will turn to you." However, we do not need grace in order to prepare ourselves for grace, as that would lead to an endless cycle. Therefore, the angel did not require grace to turn to God.

On the contrary, It was by turning to God that the angel reached to beatitude. If, then, he had needed no grace in order to turn to God, it would follow that he did not require grace in order to possess everlasting life. But this is contrary to the saying of the Apostle (Rom. 6:23): "The grace of God is life everlasting."

On the contrary, it was by turning to God that the angel achieved happiness. If he didn't need grace to turn to God, it would mean he didn't need grace to have eternal life. But this contradicts what the Apostle says (Rom. 6:23): "The grace of God is eternal life."

I answer that, The angels stood in need of grace in order to turn to God, as the object of beatitude. For, as was observed above (Q. 60, A. 2) the natural movement of the will is the principle of all things that we will. But the will's natural inclination is directed towards what is in keeping with its nature. Therefore, if there is anything which is above nature, the will cannot be inclined towards it, unless helped by some other supernatural principle. Thus it is clear that fire has a natural tendency to give forth heat, and to generate fire; whereas to generate flesh is beyond the natural power of fire; consequently, fire has no tendency thereto, except in so far as it is moved instrumentally by the nutritive soul.

I answer that, The angels needed grace to turn to God, who is the ultimate source of happiness. As mentioned earlier (Q. 60, A. 2), the natural movement of the will is the basis of everything we desire. However, the will's natural inclination is aimed at what aligns with its nature. So, if there is something that goes beyond nature, the will cannot be inclined toward it unless it is assisted by some supernatural force. For example, fire naturally tends to produce heat and create fire; however, creating flesh is beyond fire's natural ability. Therefore, fire has no inclination to do so unless it is guided by the nutritive soul.

Now it was shown above (Q. 12, AA. 4, 5), when we were treating of God's knowledge, that to see God in His essence, wherein the ultimate beatitude of the rational creature consists, is beyond the nature of every created intellect. Consequently no rational creature can have the movement of the will directed towards such beatitude, except it be moved thereto by a supernatural agent. This is what we call the help of grace. Therefore it must be said that an angel could not of his own will be turned to such beatitude, except by the help of grace.

Now it was shown earlier (Q. 12, AA. 4, 5), when discussing God's knowledge, that seeing God in His essence, which is where the ultimate happiness of rational beings lies, is beyond the capability of any created intellect. As a result, no rational creature can willfully pursue such happiness unless they are inspired to do so by a supernatural force. This is what we refer to as the help of grace. Therefore, it must be said that an angel could not turn towards such happiness on its own volition, except with the help of grace.

Reply Obj. 1: The angel loves God naturally, so far as God is the author of his natural being. But here we are speaking of turning to God, so far as God bestows beatitude by the vision of His essence.

Reply Obj. 1: The angel loves God instinctively because God is the source of his natural existence. However, we are discussing the act of turning to God in terms of how God grants happiness through the vision of His essence.

Reply Obj. 2: A thing is "difficult" which is beyond a power; and this happens in two ways. First of all, because it is beyond the natural capacity of the power. Thus, if it can be attained by some help, it is said to be "difficult"; but if it can in no way be attained, then it is "impossible"; thus it is impossible for a man to fly. In another way a thing may be beyond the power, not according to the natural order of such power, but owing to some intervening hindrance; as to mount upwards is not contrary to the natural order of the motive power of the soul; because the soul, considered in itself, can be moved in any direction; but is hindered from so doing by the weight of the body; consequently it is difficult for a man to mount upwards. To be turned to his ultimate beatitude is difficult for man, both because it is beyond his nature, and because he has a hindrance from the corruption of the body and infection of sin. But it is difficult for an angel, only because it is supernatural.

Reply Obj. 2: Something is "difficult" when it exceeds a power, and this can happen in two ways. First, it can be beyond the natural ability of that power. If it can be achieved with some assistance, it's described as "difficult"; however, if it can't be achieved at all, it's labeled as "impossible"; for example, it's impossible for a person to fly. In another case, something may exceed the power not due to the natural order of that power, but because of some obstacle; for instance, moving upward isn't against the natural order of the soul's motivating power because the soul, in itself, can move in any direction, but it's blocked from doing so by the body's weight; therefore, it's difficult for a person to rise upward. Attaining ultimate happiness is tough for humans, both because it's beyond their nature and due to obstacles from bodily corruption and the influence of sin. For an angel, it's only difficult because it’s supernatural.

Reply Obj. 3: Every movement of the will towards God can be termed a conversion to God. And so there is a threefold turning to God. The first is by the perfect love of God; this belongs to the creature enjoying the possession of God; and for such conversion, consummate grace is required. The next turning to God is that which merits beatitude; and for this there is required habitual grace, which is the principle of merit. The third conversion is that whereby a man disposes himself so that he may have grace; for this no habitual grace is required; but the operation of God, Who draws the soul towards Himself, according to Lament. 5:21: "Convert us, O Lord, to Thee, and we shall be converted." Hence it is clear that there is no need to go on to infinity. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Every movement of the will toward God can be called a conversion to God. There are three ways to turn to God. The first is through perfect love of God, which belongs to the creature that is in the possession of God; and this type of conversion requires complete grace. The second turning to God is one that earns beatitude, and for this, habitual grace is needed, which is the basis of merit. The third conversion is when a person prepares themselves to receive grace; for this, habitual grace is not required, but rather the action of God, who draws the soul toward Himself, as stated in Lament. 5:21: "Convert us, O Lord, to Thee, and we shall be converted." Therefore, it is clear that there is no need to go on indefinitely.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 3]

Whether the Angels Were Created in Grace?

Whether the Angels Were Created in Grace?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels were not created in grace. For Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii, 8) that the angelic nature was first made without form, and was called "heaven": but afterwards it received its form, and was then called "light." But such formation comes from grace. Therefore they were not created in grace.

Objection 1: It seems that the angels were not created in grace. For Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii, 8) that the angelic nature was first made formless, and was called "heaven"; but later it received its form and was then called "light." This kind of transformation comes from grace. Therefore, they were not created in grace.

Obj. 2: Further, grace turns the rational creature towards God. If, therefore, the angel had been created in grace, no angel would ever have turned away from God.

Obj. 2: Moreover, grace directs the rational being towards God. If the angel had been created with grace, then no angel would have ever turned away from God.

Obj. 3: Further, grace comes midway between nature and glory. But the angels were not beatified in their creation. Therefore it seems that they were not created in grace; but that they were first created in nature only, and then received grace, and that last of all they were beatified.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, grace stands between nature and glory. However, the angels weren't made perfect at the time of their creation. So it seems that they weren't created with grace; instead, they were initially created with just nature, then received grace, and finally, they were made perfect.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xii, 9), "Who wrought the good will of the angels? Who, save Him Who created them with His will, that is, with the pure love wherewith they cling to Him; at the same time building up their nature and bestowing grace on them?"

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xii, 9), "Who created the good will of the angels? Who, except for Him Who made them with His will, that is, with the pure love that they have for Him; while also shaping their nature and giving them grace?"

I answer that, Although there are conflicting opinions on this point, some holding that the angels were created only in a natural state, while others maintain that they were created in grace; yet it seems more probable, and more in keeping with the sayings of holy men, that they were created in sanctifying grace. For we see that all things which, in the process of time, being created by the work of Divine Providence, were produced by the operation of God, were created in the first fashioning of things according to seedlike forms, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 3), such as trees, animals, and the rest. Now it is evident that sanctifying grace bears the same relation to beatitude as the seedlike form in nature does to the natural effect; hence (1 John 3:9) grace is called the "seed" of God. As, then, in Augustine's opinion it is contended that the seedlike forms of all natural effects were implanted in the creature when corporeally created, so straightway from the beginning the angels were created in grace.

I answer that, While there are different opinions on this topic—some believe that angels were created only in a natural state, while others argue that they were created in grace—it seems more likely, and aligns better with the teachings of holy people, that they were created in sanctifying grace. We observe that everything, created over time through Divine Providence, was formed by God's action, initially made according to seed-like forms, as Augustine notes (Gen. ad lit. viii, 3), including trees, animals, and others. It's clear that sanctifying grace is related to beatitude in the same way that a seed-form in nature relates to its natural outcome; this is why grace is referred to as the "seed" of God (1 John 3:9). Thus, as Augustine argues, just as the seed-like forms of all natural outcomes were instilled in creatures during their physical creation, so angels were created in grace right from the start.

Reply Obj. 1: Such absence of form in the angels can be understood either by comparison with their formation in glory; and so the absence of formation preceded formation by priority of time. Or else it can be understood of the formation according to grace: and so it did not precede in the order of time, but in the order of nature; as Augustine holds with regard to the formation of corporeal things (Gen. ad lit. i, 15).

Reply Obj. 1: The lack of form in angels can be understood in two ways: first, by comparing it to their glorious formation, where the absence of form came before the formation in time. Alternatively, it can be understood in relation to the formation according to grace, meaning it didn’t come first in time but rather in the order of nature; this is similar to what Augustine says about the formation of physical things (Gen. ad lit. i, 15).

Reply Obj. 2: Every form inclines the subject after the mode of the subject's nature. Now it is the mode of an intellectual nature to be inclined freely towards the objects it desires. Consequently the movement of grace does not impose necessity; but he who has grace can fail to make use of it, and can sin.

Reply Obj. 2: Every form influences the subject according to the subject's nature. It's part of an intellectual nature to be inclined freely toward the things it desires. Therefore, the movement of grace doesn't create a requirement; however, someone who has grace can choose not to use it and can still sin.

Reply Obj. 3: Although in the order of nature grace comes midway between nature and glory, nevertheless, in the order of time, in created nature, glory is not simultaneous with nature; because glory is the end of the operation of nature helped by grace. But grace stands not as the end of operation, because it is not of works, but as the principle of right operation. Therefore it was fitting for grace to be given straightway with nature. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Even though grace is positioned between nature and glory in the order of nature, in terms of time, glory does not occur at the same moment as nature in created beings; glory is the result of nature's work, assisted by grace. However, grace is not the outcome of that work, as it doesn't come from our efforts, but rather serves as the foundation for proper functioning. So, it makes sense that grace was given immediately along with nature.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 4]

Whether an Angel Merits His Beatitude?

Whether an Angel Deserves His Bliss?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angel did not merit his beatitude. For merit arises from the difficulty of the meritorious act. But the angel experienced no difficulty in acting rightly. Therefore righteous action was not meritorious for him.

Objection 1: It seems that the angel did not deserve his happiness. Merit comes from the challenge of doing something worthy. But the angel faced no challenge in doing the right thing. Therefore, doing the right thing wasn’t worthy of merit for him.

Obj. 2: Further, we do not merit by merely natural operations. But it was quite natural for the angel to turn to God. Therefore he did not thereby merit beatitude.

Obj. 2: Also, we don't earn merit through just natural actions. But it was completely natural for the angel to turn to God. Therefore, he didn't earn beatitude that way.

Obj. 3: Further, if a beatified angel merited his beatitude, he did so either before he had it, or else afterwards. But it was not before; because, in the opinion of many, he had no grace before whereby to merit it. Nor did he merit it afterwards, because thus he would be meriting it now; which is clearly false, because in that case a lower angel could by meriting rise up to the rank of a higher, and the distinct degrees of grace would not be permanent; which is not admissible. Consequently the angel did not merit his beatitude.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if a beatified angel earned his beatitude, he did so either before he had it or afterward. But it wasn't before; because, according to many, he had no grace at that time to earn it. Nor did he earn it afterward, because that would imply he is earning it now; which is clearly false, since a lower angel could then earn his way up to a higher rank, and the different levels of grace wouldn't be permanent, which isn't acceptable. Therefore, the angel did not earn his beatitude.

On the contrary, It is stated (Apoc. 21:17) that the "measure of the angel" in that heavenly Jerusalem is "the measure of a man." Therefore the same is the case with the angel.

On the contrary, It is stated (Apoc. 21:17) that the "measure of the angel" in that heavenly Jerusalem is "the measure of a man." Therefore, the same applies to the angel.

I answer that, Perfect beatitude is natural only to God, because existence and beatitude are one and the same thing in Him. Beatitude, however, is not of the nature of the creature, but is its end. Now everything attains its last end by its operation. Such operation leading to the end is either productive of the end, when such end is not beyond the power of the agent working for the end, as the healing art is productive of health; or else it is deserving of the end, when such end is beyond the capacity of the agent striving to attain it; wherefore it is looked for from another's bestowing. Now it is evident from what has gone before (AA. 1, 2; Q. 12, AA. 4, 5), ultimate beatitude exceeds both the angelic and the human nature. It remains, then, that both man and angel merited their beatitude.

I respond that, true happiness is something only God possesses, because in Him, existence and happiness are one and the same. Happiness, however, isn’t part of a creature’s nature but is its ultimate goal. Everything reaches its final goal through its actions. This action leading to the goal can either create the goal when it’s something the agent can achieve, like how the healing profession brings about health; or it can be worthy of the goal when that goal is beyond what the agent can achieve on its own; in such cases, it’s expected to come from someone else’s generosity. Based on what has been discussed (AA. 1, 2; Q. 12, AA. 4, 5), it’s clear that ultimate happiness surpasses both angelic and human nature. Therefore, it follows that both humans and angels have earned their happiness.

And if the angel was created in grace, without which there is no merit, there would be no difficulty in saying that he merited beatitude: as also, if one were to say that he had grace in any way before he had glory.

And if the angel was created with grace, which is essential for any merit, it would be easy to say that he deserved happiness: just as it would be if someone said that he had grace in some way before he achieved glory.

But if he had no grace before entering upon beatitude, it would then have to be said that he had beatitude without merit, even as we have grace. This, however, is quite foreign to the idea of beatitude; which conveys the notion of an end, and is the reward of virtue, as even the Philosopher says (Ethic. i, 9). Or else it will have to be said, as some others have maintained, that the angels merit beatitude by their present ministrations, while in beatitude. This is quite contrary, again, to the notion of merit: since merit conveys the idea of a means to an end; while what is already in its end cannot, properly speaking, be moved towards such end; and so no one merits to produce what he already enjoys. Or else it will have to be said that one and the same act of turning to God, so far as it comes of free-will, is meritorious; and so far as it attains the end, is the fruition of beatitude. Even this view will not stand, because free-will is not the sufficient cause of merit; and, consequently, an act cannot be meritorious as coming from free-will, except in so far as it is informed by grace; but it cannot at the same time be informed by imperfect grace, which is the principle of meriting, and by perfect grace, which is the principle of enjoying. Hence it does not appear to be possible for anyone to enjoy beatitude, and at the same time to merit it.

But if he had no grace before achieving beatitude, it would then have to be said that he had beatitude without merit, just as we have grace. However, this is quite foreign to the idea of beatitude, which suggests an end and serves as the reward for virtue, as even the Philosopher states (Ethic. i, 9). Alternatively, some maintain that angels earn beatitude through their current actions while in beatitude. This, however, contradicts the concept of merit: merit implies a means to an end; something that is already at its end cannot, strictly speaking, progress towards that end. Therefore, no one can earn what they already possess. Another possibility is that the same act of turning towards God, insofar as it comes from free will, is meritorious; and as it reaches the end, it is the enjoyment of beatitude. Even this perspective fails, as free will is not the sole cause of merit; consequently, an act cannot be meritorious simply because it stems from free will, unless it is influenced by grace. Yet it cannot simultaneously be influenced by imperfect grace, which constitutes the basis for earning merit, and by perfect grace, which is the basis for enjoyment. Thus, it seems impossible for anyone to experience beatitude and simultaneously earn it.

Consequently it is better to say that the angel had grace ere he was admitted to beatitude, and that by such grace he merited beatitude.

Consequently, it’s better to say that the angel had grace before he was granted happiness, and that through that grace he deserved happiness.

Reply Obj. 1: The angel's difficulty of working righteously does not come from any contrariety or hindrance of natural powers; but from the fact that the good work is beyond his natural capacity.

Reply Obj. 1: The angel's struggle to act righteously doesn't arise from any opposition or limitation of natural abilities; rather, it stems from the fact that the good work exceeds his natural capacity.

Reply Obj. 2: An angel did not merit beatitude by natural movement towards God; but by the movement of charity, which comes of grace.

Reply Obj. 2: An angel did not earn happiness by naturally moving towards God; but through the movement of love, which comes from grace.

The answer to the Third Objection is evident from what we have said. _______________________

The answer to the Third Objection is clear from what we've discussed. _______________________

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 5]

Whether the Angel Obtained Beatitude Immediately After One Act of
Merit?

Whether the Angel Achieved Bliss Right After One Good Deed?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angel did not possess beatitude instantly after one act of merit. For it is more difficult for a man to do well than for an angel. But man is not rewarded at once after one act of merit. Therefore neither was the angel.

Objection 1: It seems that the angel did not achieve happiness immediately after a single good deed. For a human finds it harder to do good than an angel does. But a human isn't rewarded right away after just one good act. Therefore, neither was the angel.

Obj. 2: Further, an angel could act at once, and in an instant, from the very outset of his creation, for even natural bodies begin to be moved in the very instant of their creation; and if the movement of a body could be instantaneous, like operations of mind and will, it would have movement in the first instant of its generation. Consequently, if the angel merited beatitude by one act of his will, he merited it in the first instant of his creation; and so, if their beatitude was not retarded, then the angels were in beatitude in the first instant.

Obj. 2: Additionally, an angel could act immediately, right from the moment of his creation, because even natural bodies start to move the moment they are created; and if a body’s movement could be instantaneous, like the functions of the mind and will, it would move the very first moment it exists. Therefore, if an angel earned beatitude through one act of his will, he earned it at the very first moment of his creation; and so, if their beatitude was not delayed, then the angels experienced beatitude from the very first instant.

Obj. 3: Further, there must be many intervals between things which are far apart. But the beatific state of the angels is very far remote from their natural condition: while merit comes midway between. Therefore the angel would have to pass through many stages of merit in order to reach beatitude.

Obj. 3: Additionally, there must be numerous gaps between things that are distant from each other. However, the blessed state of the angels is much further removed from their natural condition: while merit stands in between. Therefore, an angel would have to go through several stages of merit to attain beatitude.

On the contrary, Man's soul and an angel are ordained alike for beatitude: consequently equality with angels is promised to the saints. Now the soul separated from the body, if it has merit deserving beatitude, enters at once into beatitude, unless there be some obstacle. Therefore so does an angel. Now an angel instantly, in his first act of charity, had the merit of beatitude. Therefore, since there was no obstacle within him, he passed at once into beatitude by only one meritorious act.

On the contrary, the soul of a person and an angel are both destined for happiness: as a result, equality with angels is promised to the saints. When the soul separates from the body, if it has earned the right to happiness, it immediately enters into that happiness, unless there's some barrier. An angel does the same. From the start, in his first act of love, an angel gains the merit needed for happiness. Since there was no barrier within him, he immediately enters into happiness through just one act of merit.

I answer that, The angel was beatified instantly after the first act of charity, whereby he merited beatitude. The reason whereof is because grace perfects nature according to the manner of the nature; as every perfection is received in the subject capable of perfection, according to its mode. Now it is proper to the angelic nature to receive its natural perfection not by passing from one stage to another; but to have it at once naturally, as was shown above (A. 1; Q. 58, AA. 3, 4). But as the angel is of his nature inclined to natural perfection, so is he by merit inclined to glory. Hence instantly after merit the angel secured beatitude. Now the merit of beatitude in angel and man alike can be from merely one act; because man merits beatitude by every act informed by charity. Hence it remains that an angel was beatified straightway after one act of charity.

I answer that, The angel was immediately beatified after the first act of charity, which allowed him to earn that beatitude. This is because grace enhances nature in a way that aligns with that nature; every perfection is received by a subject capable of perfection according to its nature. It is inherent to the angelic nature to attain its natural perfection all at once, rather than progressing through stages, as previously explained (A. 1; Q. 58, AA. 3, 4). While the angel is naturally inclined towards natural perfection, he is also inclined toward glory through merit. Therefore, right after earning merit, the angel attained beatitude. The merit for beatitude can come from just one act for both angels and humans, as a person earns beatitude through every act infused with charity. Thus, it follows that an angel was beatified immediately after one act of charity.

Reply Obj. 1: Man was not intended to secure his ultimate perfection at once, like the angel. Hence a longer way was assigned to man than to the angel for securing beatitude.

Reply Obj. 1: Man wasn't meant to achieve his ultimate perfection all at once, like the angel. Therefore, a longer path was given to man than to the angel for attaining happiness.

Reply Obj. 2: The angel is above the time of corporeal things; hence the various instants regarding the angels are not to be taken except as reckoning the succession of their acts. Now their act which merited beatitude could not be in them simultaneously with the act of beatitude, which is fruition; since the one belongs to imperfect grace, and the other to consummate grace. Consequently, it remains for different instants to be conceived, in one of which the angel merited beatitude, and in another was beatified.

Reply Obj. 2: The angel exists outside of time and physical things; therefore, the different moments related to angels should only be seen as reflecting the sequence of their actions. The action that led to their happiness couldn't happen at the same time as the act of happiness itself, which is enjoyment; since one is related to imperfect grace and the other to complete grace. Thus, we must consider different moments, where in one moment the angel achieved happiness and in another moment, they experienced that happiness.

Reply Obj. 3: It is of the nature of an angel instantly to attain the perfection unto which he is ordained. Consequently, only one meritorious act is required; which act can so far be called an interval as through it the angel is brought to beatitude. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: An angel is designed to instantly achieve the perfection it was created for. Therefore, only one worthy action is needed; this action can be seen as a moment in which the angel is brought to happiness.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 6]

Whether the Angels Receive Grace and Glory According to the Degree of
Their Natural Gifts?

Whether the Angels Receive Grace and Glory Based on Their Natural Abilities?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels did not receive grace and glory according to the degree of their natural gifts. For grace is bestowed of God's absolute will. Therefore the degree of grace depends on God's will, and not on the degree of their natural gifts.

Objection 1: It seems that the angels didn't receive grace and glory based on their natural abilities. Grace is given at God's absolute discretion. Therefore, the amount of grace depends on God's will, not on the level of their natural gifts.

Obj. 2: Further, a moral act seems to be more closely allied with grace than nature is; because a moral act is preparatory to grace. But grace does not come "of works," as is said Rom. 11:6. Therefore much less does the degree of grace depend upon the degree of their natural gifts.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, a moral act seems to be more closely connected to grace than to nature; because a moral act prepares the way for grace. However, grace does not come from "works," as stated in Rom. 11:6. Therefore, the level of grace is even less dependent on the level of their natural abilities.

Obj. 3: Further, man and angel are alike ordained for beatitude or grace. But man does not receive more grace according to the degree of his natural gifts. Therefore neither does the angel.

Obj. 3: Additionally, both humans and angels are intended for happiness or grace. However, a person does not receive more grace based on the level of their natural abilities. Therefore, neither does the angel.

On the contrary, Is the saying of the Master of the Sentences (Sent. ii, D, 3) that "those angels who were created with more subtle natures and of keener intelligence in wisdom, were likewise endowed with greater gifts of grace."

On the contrary, the Master of the Sentences says (Sent. ii, D, 3) that "the angels who were created with more subtle natures and sharper intelligence in wisdom were also given greater gifts of grace."

I answer that, It is reasonable to suppose that gifts of graces and perfection of beatitude were bestowed on the angels according to the degree of their natural gifts. The reason for this can be drawn from two sources. First of all, on the part of God, Who, in the order of His wisdom, established various degrees in the angelic nature. Now as the angelic nature was made by God for attaining grace and beatitude, so likewise the grades of the angelic nature seem to be ordained for the various degrees of grace and glory; just as when, for example, the builder chisels the stones for building a house, from the fact that he prepares some more artistically and more fittingly than others, it is clear that he is setting them apart for the more ornate part of the house. So it seems that God destined those angels for greater gifts of grace and fuller beatitude, whom He made of a higher nature.

I respond that, It's reasonable to think that gifts of grace and the perfection of happiness were given to the angels based on their natural abilities. This can be understood from two perspectives. First, on God's part, Who, in His wisdom, created different levels in angelic nature. Since angelic nature was created by God to achieve grace and happiness, the different levels of angelic nature appear to be designated for various degrees of grace and glory; for instance, when a builder shapes stones for a house, the fact that he prepares some with more skill and suitability than others indicates he's reserving them for the more decorative sections of the house. In the same way, it seems that God appointed those angels who have a higher nature for greater gifts of grace and a fuller level of happiness.

Secondly, the same is evident on the part of the angel. The angel is not a compound of different natures, so that the inclination of the one thwarts or retards the tendency of the other; as happens in man, in whom the movement of his intellective part is either retarded or thwarted by the inclination of his sensitive part. But when there is nothing to retard or thwart it, nature is moved with its whole energy. So it is reasonable to suppose that the angels who had a higher nature, were turned to God more mightily and efficaciously. The same thing happens in men, since greater grace and glory are bestowed according to the greater earnestness of their turning to God. Hence it appears that the angels who had the greater natural powers, had the more grace and glory.

Secondly, the same holds true for the angel. An angel isn't made up of different natures, so there's no part that hinders or slows down the other; unlike in humans, where the actions of the intellect can be slowed or obstructed by the desires of the senses. When there’s nothing to hinder or obstruct, nature acts with its full strength. Therefore, it makes sense to think that angels with a higher nature were drawn to God more strongly and effectively. The same applies to humans, as greater grace and glory are given based on how earnestly they turn to God. Thus, it seems that angels with greater natural abilities received more grace and glory.

Reply Obj. 1: As grace comes of God's will alone, so likewise does the nature of the angel: and as God's will ordained nature for grace, so did it ordain the various degrees of nature to the various degrees of grace.

Reply Obj. 1: Just as grace comes from God's will alone, so does the nature of the angel. And just as God's will established nature for grace, it also established the different levels of nature corresponding to the different levels of grace.

Reply Obj. 2: The acts of the rational creature are from the creature itself; whereas nature is immediately from God. Accordingly it seems rather that grace is bestowed according to degree of nature than according to works.

Reply Obj. 2: The actions of a rational being come from the being itself; however, nature comes directly from God. Thus, it seems more likely that grace is given based on the level of nature rather than based on actions.

Reply Obj. 3: Diversity of natural gifts is in one way in the angels, who are themselves different specifically; and in quite another way in men, who differ only numerically. For specific difference is on account of the end; while numerical difference is because of the matter. Furthermore, there is something in man which can thwart or impede the movement of his intellective nature; but not in the angels. Consequently the argument is not the same for both. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The diversity of natural gifts exists in one way in angels, who are specifically different from one another, and in a completely different way in humans, who only differ numerically. Specific difference arises from the purpose, while numerical difference is due to the material aspects. Additionally, there is something in humans that can hinder or obstruct the functioning of their intellective nature, but this is not the case for angels. Therefore, the argument is not the same for both.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 7]

Whether Natural Knowledge and Love Remain in the Beatified Angels?

Whether Natural Knowledge and Love Remain in the Beatified Angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that natural knowledge and love do not remain in the beatified angels. For it is said (1 Cor. 13:10): "When that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away." But natural love and knowledge are imperfect in comparison with beatified knowledge and love. Therefore, in beatitude, natural knowledge and love cease.

Objection 1: It seems that natural knowledge and love do not exist in the blessed angels. For it is said (1 Cor. 13:10): "When the perfect comes, the partial will be done away." But natural love and knowledge are imperfect compared to the knowledge and love of the blessed. Therefore, in beatitude, natural knowledge and love come to an end.

Obj. 2: Further, where one suffices, another is superfluous. But the knowledge and love of glory suffice for the beatified angels. Therefore it would be superfluous for their natural knowledge and love to remain.

Obj. 2: Additionally, where one is enough, another is unnecessary. But the knowledge and love of glory are sufficient for the blessed angels. Therefore, it would be unnecessary for their natural knowledge and love to continue.

Obj. 3: Further, the same faculty has not two simultaneous acts, as the same line cannot, at the same end, be terminated in two points. But the beatified angels are always exercising their beatified knowledge and love; for, as is said Ethic. i, 8, happiness consists not in habit, but in act. Therefore there can never be natural knowledge and love in the angels.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the same faculty cannot perform two actions at the same time, just as the same line cannot end at two different points simultaneously. However, the beatified angels are constantly engaging their beatified knowledge and love; as stated in Ethic. i, 8, happiness is found not in habit, but in action. Therefore, the angels can never possess natural knowledge and love.

On the contrary, So long as a nature endures, its operation remains. But beatitude does not destroy nature, since it is its perfection. Therefore it does not take away natural knowledge and love.

On the contrary, As long as nature exists, its function continues. But happiness doesn’t eliminate nature, as it is its ultimate state. Therefore, it doesn’t remove natural knowledge and love.

I answer that, Natural knowledge and love remain in the angels. For as principles of operations are mutually related, so are the operations themselves. Now it is manifest that nature is to beatitude as first to second; because beatitude is superadded to nature. But the first must ever be preserved in the second. Consequently nature must be preserved in beatitude: and in like manner the act of nature must be preserved in the act of beatitude.

I respond that, Natural knowledge and love exist in the angels. Just as the principles of actions are interconnected, so are the actions themselves. It is clear that nature relates to happiness as the first relates to the second; because happiness is something added to nature. However, the first must always be maintained in the second. Therefore, nature must be upheld in happiness; similarly, the act of nature must be upheld in the act of happiness.

Reply Obj. 1: The advent of a perfection removes the opposite imperfection. Now the imperfection of nature is not opposed to the perfection of beatitude, but underlies it; as the imperfection of the power underlies the perfection of the form, and the power is not taken away by the form, but the privation which is opposed to the form. In the same way, the imperfection of natural knowledge is not opposed to the perfection of the knowledge in glory; for nothing hinders us from knowing a thing through various mediums, as a thing may be known at the one time through a probable medium and through a demonstrative one. In like manner, an angel can know God by His essence, and this appertains to his knowledge of glory; and at the same time he can know God by his own essence, which belongs to his natural knowledge.

Reply Obj. 1: The arrival of perfection eliminates the opposite imperfection. Now, the imperfection of nature doesn't contradict the perfection of happiness; rather, it underlies it. Just as the imperfection of power supports the perfection of form, the power isn’t removed by the form, but rather the lack that contradicts the form. Similarly, the imperfection of natural knowledge doesn’t oppose the perfection of knowledge in glory; because nothing prevents us from knowing something through different means, as we can know something simultaneously through a likely medium and a definite one. In the same way, an angel can know God by His essence, which relates to his knowledge of glory; and at the same time, he can know God through his own essence, which relates to his natural knowledge.

Reply Obj. 2: All things which make up beatitude are sufficient of themselves. But in order for them to exist, they presuppose the natural gifts; because no beatitude is self-subsisting, except the uncreated beatitude.

Reply Obj. 2: All the things that constitute happiness are enough on their own. However, for them to exist, they rely on natural gifts; because no happiness can exist independently, except for the uncreated happiness.

Reply Obj. 3: There cannot be two operations of the one faculty at the one time, except the one be ordained to the other. But natural knowledge and love are ordained to the knowledge and love of glory. Accordingly there is nothing to hinder natural knowledge and love from existing in the angel conjointly with those of glory. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: There can't be two actions of the same faculty happening at the same time unless one is directed towards the other. However, natural knowledge and love are directed towards the knowledge and love of glory. Therefore, there's nothing preventing natural knowledge and love from existing in the angel alongside those of glory.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 8]

Whether a Beatified Angel Can Sin?

Whether a Beatified Angel Can Sin?

Objection 1: It would seem that a beatified angel can sin. For, as as said above (A. 7), beatitude does not do away with nature. But it is of the very notion of created nature, that it can fail. Therefore a beatified angel can sin.

Objection 1: It seems that a beatified angel can sin. As mentioned earlier (A. 7), beatitude doesn't eliminate nature. However, it's inherent to created nature that it has the capacity to fail. Therefore, a beatified angel can sin.

Obj. 2: Further, the rational powers are referred to opposites, as the Philosopher observes (Metaph. iv, text. 3). But the will of the angel in beatitude does not cease to be rational. Therefore it is inclined towards good and evil.

Obj. 2: Additionally, rational powers are connected to opposites, as the Philosopher notes (Metaph. iv, text. 3). However, the will of the angel in blessedness remains rational. Therefore, it is inclined towards both good and evil.

Obj. 3: Further, it belongs to the liberty of free-will for man to be able to choose good or evil. But the freedom of will is not lessened in the beatified angels. Therefore they can sin.

Obj. 3: Additionally, it's part of free will for a person to be able to choose between good and evil. However, the freedom of will isn't diminished in the blessed angels. Therefore, they can sin.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xi) that "there is in the holy angels that nature which cannot sin." Therefore the holy angels cannot sin.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xi) that "the holy angels have a nature that can't sin." Therefore, the holy angels cannot sin.

I answer that, The beatified angels cannot sin. The reason for this is, because their beatitude consists in seeing God through His essence. Now, God's essence is the very essence of goodness. Consequently the angel beholding God is disposed towards God in the same way as anyone else not seeing God is to the common form of goodness. Now it is impossible for any man either to will or to do anything except aiming at what is good; or for him to wish to turn away from good precisely as such. Therefore the beatified angel can neither will nor act, except as aiming towards God. Now whoever wills or acts in this manner cannot sin. Consequently the beatified angel cannot sin.

I respond that the blessed angels cannot sin. The reason for this is that their happiness comes from seeing God in His essence. God's essence is the essence of goodness itself. Therefore, an angel who sees God is oriented towards Him in the same way that anyone else who doesn’t see God is oriented towards the general idea of goodness. It’s impossible for any person to will or do anything without aiming at what is good, or to want to turn away from good as such. That’s why a blessed angel can only will or act with the intention of moving towards God. And anyone who wills or acts in this way cannot sin. Therefore, a blessed angel cannot sin.

Reply Obj. 1: Created good, considered in itself, can fail. But from its perfect union with the uncreated good, such as is the union of beatitude, it is rendered unable to sin, for the reason already alleged.

Reply Obj. 1: Created good, considered on its own, can fail. But because of its perfect union with the uncreated good, like the union found in beatitude, it becomes incapable of sin, for the reason already stated.

Reply Obj. 2: The rational powers are referred to opposites in the things to which they are not inclined naturally; but as to the things whereunto they have a natural tendency, they are not referred to opposites. For the intellect cannot but assent to naturally known principles; in the same way, the will cannot help clinging to good, formally as good; because the will is naturally ordained to good as to its proper object. Consequently the will of the angels is referred to opposites, as to doing many things, or not doing them. But they have no tendency to opposites with regard to God Himself, Whom they see to be the very nature of goodness; but in all things their aim is towards God, which ever alternative they choose, that is not sinful.

Reply Obj. 2: Rational powers are connected to opposites in situations where they aren't naturally inclined; however, in situations where they have a natural tendency, they aren't linked to opposites. The intellect has to agree with principles that it naturally understands; similarly, the will can't help but pursue good, precisely because the will is naturally directed towards good as its appropriate object. Therefore, the will of angels is related to opposites in terms of doing various things or choosing not to do them. However, they have no inclination towards opposites when it comes to God Himself, whom they recognize as the essence of goodness; regardless of the choices they make, as long as they aren't sinful, their focus is always on God.

Reply Obj. 3: Free-will in its choice of means to an end is disposed just as the intellect is to conclusions. Now it is evident that it belongs to the power of the intellect to be able to proceed to different conclusions, according to given principles; but for it to proceed to some conclusion by passing out of the order of the principles, comes of its own defect. Hence it belongs to the perfection of its liberty for the free-will to be able to choose between opposite things, keeping the order of the end in view; but it comes of the defect of liberty for it to choose anything by turning away from the order of the end; and this is to sin. Hence there is greater liberty of will in the angels, who cannot sin, than there is in ourselves, who can sin. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Free will, in choosing means to an end, operates similarly to how the intellect works toward conclusions. It's clear that the intellect has the ability to reach different conclusions based on given principles; however, reaching a conclusion by ignoring these principles arises from a flaw within it. Therefore, it's part of the perfection of free will to be able to choose between opposing options while keeping the ultimate goal in mind; if it chooses something that goes against the goal's order, this reflects a flaw in its freedom, and this is what we call sin. Consequently, angels possess a greater freedom of will since they cannot sin, unlike us, who can.

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 3]

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 62, Art. 3]

Whether the Beatified Angels Advance in Beatitude?

Whether the Blessed Angels Progress in Happiness?

Objection 1: It would seem that the beatified angels can advance in beatitude. For charity is the principle of merit. But there is perfect charity in the angels. Therefore the beatified angels can merit. Now, as merit increases, the reward of beatitude increases. Therefore the beatified angels can progress in beatitude.

Objection 1: It seems that the angels in heaven can grow in happiness. Since charity is the foundation of merit, and the angels have perfect charity, they must be able to earn merit. As merit increases, the reward of happiness also increases. So, the angels in heaven can progress in their happiness.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. i) that "God makes use of us for our own gain, and for His own goodness. The same thing happens to the angels, whom He uses for spiritual ministrations"; since "they are all [*Vulg.: 'Are they not all . . . ?'] ministering spirits, sent to minister for them who shall receive the inheritance of salvation" (Heb. 1:14). This would not be for their profit were they not to merit thereby, nor to advance to beatitude. It remains, then, that the beatified angels can merit, and can advance in beatitude.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (De Doctr. Christ. i) that "God uses us for our own benefit and for His own goodness. The same applies to the angels, whom He employs for spiritual services"; since "they are all [*Vulg.: 'Are they not all . . . ?'] ministering spirits, sent to serve those who will receive the inheritance of salvation" (Heb. 1:14). This wouldn't be for their benefit if they didn't earn something from it, nor to advance toward bliss. Therefore, it follows that the blessed angels can earn merit and can progress in bliss.

Obj. 3: Further, it argues imperfection for anyone not occupying the foremost place not to be able to advance. But the angels are not in the highest degree of beatitude. Therefore if unable to ascend higher, it would appear that there is imperfection and defect in them; which is not admissible.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, it claims that anyone who is not in the top position cannot progress. However, the angels do not occupy the highest level of happiness. Therefore, if they cannot move up to a higher state, it would seem that there is imperfection and deficiency in them; which is not acceptable.

On the contrary, Merit and progress belong to this present condition of life. But angels are not wayfarers travelling towards beatitude, they are already in possession of beatitude. Consequently the beatified angels can neither merit nor advance in beatitude.

On the contrary, Merit and progress are part of our current state of being. But angels aren't travelers heading towards bliss; they already possess it. Therefore, the blessed angels can't gain merit or grow in bliss.

I answer that, In every movement the mover's intention is centered upon one determined end, to which he intends to lead the movable subject; because intention looks to the end, to which infinite progress is repugnant. Now it is evident, since the rational creature cannot of its own power attain to its beatitude, which consists in the vision of God, as is clear from what has gone before (Q. 12, A. 4), that it needs to be moved by God towards its beatitude. Therefore there must be some one determined thing to which every rational creature is directed as to its last end.

I respond that, in every action, the mover's intention is focused on a specific goal that they aim to guide the subject towards; because intention is directed towards the goal, and infinite progress is not possible. It is clear that since a rational being cannot, on its own, achieve its ultimate happiness, which is found in the vision of God, as previously explained (Q. 12, A. 4), it is necessary for it to be guided by God towards this happiness. Therefore, there must be a specific final goal that every rational being is directed towards.

Now this one determinate object cannot, in the vision of God, consist precisely in that which is seen; for the Supreme Truth is seen by all the blessed in various degrees: but it is on the part of the mode of vision, that diverse terms are fixed beforehand by the intention of Him Who directs towards the end. For it is impossible that as the rational creature is led on to the vision of the Supreme Essence, it should be led on in the same way to the supreme mode of vision, which is comprehension, for this belongs to God only; as is evident from what was said above (Q. 12, A. 7; Q. 14, A. 3). But since infinite efficacy is required for comprehending God, while the creature's efficacy in beholding is only finite; and since every finite being is in infinite degrees removed from the infinite; it comes to pass that the rational creature understands God more or less clearly according to infinite degrees. And as beatitude consists in vision, so the degree of vision lies in a determinate mode of the vision.

Now this one specific object cannot, in God's view, consist solely of what is seen; because the Supreme Truth is perceived by all the blessed to varying degrees. However, it depends on the way of seeing, where different terms are established in advance by the intention of Him Who leads towards the ultimate goal. It’s impossible for a rational being to be guided towards the vision of the Supreme Essence in the same way as it is led to the highest form of vision, which is understanding, as that belongs only to God; this is clear from what was mentioned earlier (Q. 12, A. 7; Q. 14, A. 3). Since an infinite ability is necessary to comprehend God, while a creature's ability to perceive is only finite; and since every finite being is infinitely distanced from the infinite; it results in the rational creature understanding God more or less clearly according to infinite degrees. And just as happiness consists in vision, the degree of vision exists in a specific way of seeing.

Therefore every rational creature is so led by God to the end of its beatitude, that from God's predestination it is brought even to a determinate degree of beatitude. Consequently, when that degree is once secured, it cannot pass to a higher degree.

Therefore, every rational being is guided by God toward their ultimate happiness, and through God's predestination, they are brought to a specific level of happiness. As a result, once that level is achieved, it cannot advance to a higher level.

Reply Obj. 1: Merit belongs to a subject which is moving towards its end. Now the rational creature is moved towards its end, not merely passively, but also by working actively. If the end is within the power of the rational creature, then its action is said to procure the end; as man acquires knowledge by reflection: but if the end be beyond its power, and is looked for from another, then the action will be meritorious of such end. But what is already in the ultimate term is not said to be moved, but to have been moved. Consequently, to merit belongs to the imperfect charity of this life; whereas perfect charity does not merit but rather enjoys the reward. Even as in acquired habits, the operation preceding the habit is productive of the habit; but the operation from an acquired habit is both perfect and enjoyable. In the same way the act of perfect charity has no quality of merit, but belongs rather to the perfection of the reward.

Reply Obj. 1: Merit is tied to a subject that is progressing toward its goal. The rational being isn't just passively moved towards this goal; it actively works towards it. If the goal is achievable by the rational being, then its actions help bring about that goal, like when a person gains knowledge through reflection. However, if the goal is beyond their reach and is expected from someone else, then those actions will be considered meritorious toward that goal. But when something is already at its ultimate state, it is viewed as having been moved rather than still in motion. Therefore, merit is associated with the imperfect love of this life; perfect love doesn’t merit but instead enjoys the reward. Similarly, in developed habits, the actions that lead up to the habit create the habit itself, while actions stemming from a developed habit are both complete and satisfying. In the same way, the act of perfect love lacks any merit and is instead linked to the completeness of the reward.

Reply Obj. 2: A thing can be termed useful in two ways. First of all, as being on the way to an end; and so the merit of beatitude is useful. Secondly, as the part is useful for the whole; as the wall for a house. In this way the angelic ministerings are useful for the beatified angels, inasmuch as they are a part of their beatitude; for to pour out acquired perfection upon others is of the nature of what is perfect, considered as perfect.

Reply Obj. 2: Something can be described as useful in two ways. First, it can be useful as a means to an end; in this sense, the merit of happiness is useful. Second, it can be useful as a part that contributes to the whole; like how a wall is useful for a house. In this way, the angelic services are useful for the blessed angels, since they are a part of their happiness; because sharing acquired perfection with others is part of what it means to be perfect, regarded as perfect.

Reply Obj. 3: Although a beatified angel is not absolutely in the highest degree of beatitude, yet, in his own regard he is in the highest degree, according to Divine predestination. Nevertheless the joy of the angels can be increased with regard to the salvation of such as are saved by their ministrations, according to Luke 15:10: "There is [Vulg.'shall be'] joy before the angels of God upon one sinner doing penance." Such joy belongs to their accidental reward, which can be increased unto judgment day. Hence some writers say that they can merit as to their accidental reward. But it is better to say that the Blessed can in no wise merit without being at the same time a wayfarer and a comprehensor; like Christ, Who alone was such. For the Blessed acquire such joy from the virtue of their beatitude, rather than merit it. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: While a beatified angel is not in the absolute highest state of beatitude, he is considered to be at the highest level in his own context, according to Divine predestination. Still, the joy of the angels can grow when it comes to the salvation of those saved through their assistance, as mentioned in Luke 15:10: "There is [Vulg.'shall be'] joy before the angels of God over one sinner who repents." This joy is part of their accidental reward, which can increase until the judgment day. Therefore, some writers suggest that they can earn merit for their accidental reward. However, it’s better to say that the Blessed cannot merit anything without also being a wayfarer and a comprehensor, similar to Christ, who alone fulfills this. The Blessed derive such joy from the virtue of their beatitude, rather than by merit.

QUESTION 63

THE MALICE OF THE ANGELS WITH REGARD TO SIN
(In Nine Articles)

THE MALICE OF THE ANGELS REGARDING SIN
(In Nine Articles)

In the next place we must consider how angels became evil: first of all with regard to the evil of fault; and secondly, as to the evil of punishment. Under the first heading there are nine points for consideration:

In the next place, we need to consider how angels became evil: first, in terms of the evil of fault; and second, regarding the evil of punishment. Under the first heading, there are nine points to consider:

(1) Can there be evil of fault in the angels?

Can angels be imperfect?

(2) What kind of sins can be in them?

(2) What kinds of sins can be found in them?

(3) What did the angel seek in sinning?

(3) What did the angel want by sinning?

(4) Supposing that some became evil by a sin of their own choosing, are any of them naturally evil?

(4) If some became evil because of a sin they chose, are any of them naturally evil?

(5) Supposing that it is not so, could any one of them become evil in the first instant of his creation by an act of his own will?

(5) If that's not the case, could any of them turn evil the moment they were created by their own choice?

(6) Supposing that he did not, was there any interval between his creation and fall?

(6) If he didn't, was there any gap between his creation and his fall?

(7) Was the highest of them who fell, absolutely the highest among the angels?

(7) Was he the highest of those who fell, definitely the highest among the angels?

(8) Was the sin of the foremost angel the cause of the others sinning?

(8) Did the sin of the leading angel lead to the others sinning?

(9) Did as many sin as remained steadfast? _______________________

(9) Did as many people sin as stayed strong? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 1]

Whether the Evil of Fault Can Be in the Angels?

Whether the Fault of Evil Can Exist in Angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that there can be no evil of fault in the angels. For there can be no evil except in things which are in potentiality, as is said by the Philosopher (Metaph. ix, text. 19), because the subject of privation is a being in potentiality. But the angels have not being in potentiality, since they are subsisting forms. Therefore there can be no evil in them.

Objection 1: It seems that angels cannot have any faults. Evil can only exist in things that are not fully realized, as the Philosopher states (Metaph. ix, text. 19), because lack or absence occurs in something that has potential. However, angels do not exist in a state of potentiality, since they are complete forms. Therefore, there can be no evil in them.

Obj. 2: Further, the angels are higher than the heavenly bodies. But philosophers say that there cannot be evil in the heavenly bodies. Therefore neither can there be in the angels.

Obj. 2: Additionally, angels are superior to heavenly bodies. However, philosophers argue that there can't be evil in heavenly bodies. So, there can't be evil in angels either.

Obj. 3: Further, what is natural to a thing is always in it. But it
is natural for the angels to be moved by the movement of love towards
God. Therefore such love cannot be withdrawn from them. But in loving
God they do not sin. Consequently the angels cannot sin.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, what is natural to a being is always within it. But it is natural for angels to be inspired by love for God. Therefore, this love cannot be taken away from them. However, in loving God, they do not sin. Hence, angels cannot sin.

Obj. 4: Further, desire is only of what is good or apparently good. Now for the angels there can be no apparent good which is not a true good; because in them either there can be no error at all, or at least not before guilt. Therefore the angels can desire only what it truly good. But no one sins by desiring what is truly good. Consequently the angel does not sin by desire.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, desire is only for what is good or seems good. Now for the angels, there can be no apparent good that isn’t a true good; because in them, there is either no possibility of error at all, or at least not before guilt. Therefore, angels can only desire what is truly good. But no one sins by desiring what is truly good. Consequently, an angel does not sin by desire.

On the contrary, It is said (Job 4:18): "In His angels He found wickedness."

On the contrary, it is said (Job 4:18): "In His angels, He found wickedness."

I answer that, An angel or any other rational creature considered in his own nature, can sin; and to whatever creature it belongs not to sin, such creature has it as a gift of grace, and not from the condition of nature. The reason of this is, because sinning is nothing else than a deviation from that rectitude which an act ought to have; whether we speak of sin in nature, art, or morals. That act alone, the rule of which is the very virtue of the agent, can never fall short of rectitude. Were the craftsman's hand the rule itself engraving, he could not engrave the wood otherwise than rightly; but if the rightness of engraving be judged by another rule, then the engraving may be right or faulty. Now the Divine will is the sole rule of God's act, because it is not referred to any higher end. But every created will has rectitude of act so far only as it is regulated according to the Divine will, to which the last end is to be referred: as every desire of a subordinate ought to be regulated by the will of his superior; for instance, the soldier's will, according to the will of his commanding officer. Thus only in the Divine will can there be no sin; whereas there can be sin in the will of every creature; considering the condition of its nature.

I respond that, an angel or any other rational being, when considered in its own nature, can sin; and for any being that does not sin, that ability is a gift of grace, not a result of its nature. The reason for this is that sinning is simply a departure from the standard of rightness that an action should have, whether we're talking about sin in nature, art, or morals. Only actions where the standard is the very virtue of the agent can never be lacking in rightness. If the craftsman's hand is the standard that guides his engraving, he cannot engrave the wood incorrectly; however, if the quality of engraving is judged by a different standard, then the engraving could be right or wrong. Now, God's will is the only standard for God's actions because it is not aimed at any higher purpose. However, every created will has the rightness of action only to the extent that it is aligned with God's will, which is the ultimate goal: just as every desire of someone subordinate should align with the will of their superior; for instance, a soldier's will should align with the will of their commanding officer. Thus, only in God's will can there be no sin, while there can be sin in the will of every creature when considering the nature of its being.

Reply Obj. 1: In the angels there is no potentiality to natural existence. Yet there is potentiality in their intellective part, as regards their being inclined to this or the other object. In this respect there can be evil in them.

Reply Obj. 1: Angels do not have the potential for natural existence. However, there is potential in their intellect when it comes to being attracted to one object or another. In this sense, they can experience evil.

Reply Obj. 2: The heavenly bodies have none but a natural operation. Therefore as there can be no evil of corruption in their nature; so neither can there be evil of disorder in their natural action. But besides their natural action there is the action of free-will in the angels, by reason of which evil may be in them.

Reply Obj. 2: The heavenly bodies only operate according to natural laws. Therefore, just as there can't be any corrupt nature in them, there also can't be any disorder in their natural actions. However, in addition to their natural actions, the angels have actions driven by free will, which is how evil can manifest in them.

Reply Obj. 3: It is natural for the angel to turn to God by the movement of love, according as God is the principle of his natural being. But for him to turn to God as the object of supernatural beatitude, comes of infused love, from which he could be turned away by sinning.

Reply Obj. 3: It's natural for an angel to turn to God out of love since God is the source of his existence. However, turning to God as the object of supernatural happiness comes from a special kind of love that can be lost through sin.

Reply Obj. 4: Mortal sin occurs in two ways in the act of free-will. First, when something evil is chosen; as man sins by choosing adultery, which is evil of itself. Such sin always comes of ignorance or error; otherwise what is evil would never be chosen as good. The adulterer errs in the particular, choosing this delight of an inordinate act as something good to be performed now, from the inclination of passion or of habit; even though he does not err in his universal judgment, but retains a right opinion in this respect. In this way there can be no sin in the angel; because there are no passions in the angels to fetter reason or intellect, as is manifest from what has been said above (Q. 59, A. 4); nor, again, could any habit inclining to sin precede their first sin. In another way sin comes of free-will by choosing something good in itself, but not according to proper measure or rule; so that the defect which induces sin is only on the part of the choice which is not properly regulated, but not on the part of the thing chosen; as if one were to pray, without heeding the order established by the Church. Such a sin does not presuppose ignorance, but merely absence of consideration of the things which ought to be considered. In this way the angel sinned, by seeking his own good, from his own free-will, insubordinately to the rule of the Divine will. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Mortal sin happens in two ways through the act of free will. First, it occurs when someone chooses something evil, like when a person commits adultery, which is inherently wrong. Such a sin is usually the result of ignorance or mistake; otherwise, no one would ever choose evil when they think it's good. The adulterer makes a mistake in the specific choice, seeing the pleasure of an inappropriate act as something worthwhile to pursue right now, driven by passion or habit; even though he doesn’t make a mistake in his overall judgment and holds a correct opinion in that regard. In this context, an angel cannot sin because they lack passions that could cloud reason or intellect, as has been previously discussed (Q. 59, A. 4); nor could any sinful habit precede their first sin. In another way, sin arises from free will when something good in itself is chosen, but not in accordance with the appropriate measure or guidelines; in this case, the flaw leading to sin comes from the poorly made choice, not from the goodness of what is chosen; for example, if someone prays without following the order established by the Church. This type of sin does not require ignorance, just a lack of consideration for the factors that should be taken into account. In this way, the angel sinned by pursuing his own good, acting out of his own free will, disregarding the rule of Divine will.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 2]

Whether Only the Sin of Pride and Envy Can Exist in an Angel?

Whether can only the sin of pride and envy exist in an angel?

Objection 1: It would seem that there can be other sins in the angels besides those of pride and envy. Because whosoever can delight in any kind of sin, can fall into the sin itself. But the demons delight even in the obscenities of carnal sins; as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 3). Therefore there can also be carnal sins in the demons.

Objection 1: It seems that there can be other sins in angels besides pride and envy. Anyone who can find pleasure in any type of sin can also fall into that sin. However, demons take pleasure in the immoralities of carnal sins; as Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xiv, 3). Therefore, there can also be carnal sins among demons.

Obj. 2: Further, as pride and envy are spiritual sins, so are sloth, avarice, and anger. But spiritual sins are concerned with the spirit, just as carnal sins are with the flesh. Therefore not only can there be pride and envy in the angels; but likewise sloth and avarice.

Obj. 2: Additionally, just as pride and envy are spiritual sins, so are sloth, greed, and anger. Spiritual sins relate to the spirit, just as physical sins relate to the body. Therefore, there can be pride and envy among angels; similarly, there can be sloth and greed.

Obj. 3: Further, according to Gregory (Moral. xxxi), many vices spring from pride; and in like manner from envy. But, if the cause is granted, the effect follows. If, therefore, there can be pride and envy in the angels, for the same reason there can likewise be other vices in them.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, as Gregory states (Moral. xxxi), many vices arise from pride and similarly from envy. But, if we accept the cause, the effect follows. Therefore, if pride and envy can exist among angels, the same can also be true for other vices within them.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 3) that the devil "is not a fornicator nor a drunkard, nor anything of the like sort; yet he is proud and envious."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 3) that the devil "is not a fornicator or a drunkard, nor anything like that; yet he is proud and envious."

I answer that, Sin can exist in a subject in two ways: first of all by actual guilt, and secondly by affection. As to guilt, all sins are in the demons; since by leading men to sin they incur the guilt of all sins. But as to affection only those sins can be in the demons which can belong to a spiritual nature. Now a spiritual nature cannot be affected by such pleasures as appertain to bodies, but only by such as are in keeping with spiritual things; because nothing is affected except with regard to something which is in some way suited to its nature. But there can be no sin when anyone is incited to good of the spiritual order; unless in such affection the rule of the superior be not kept. Such is precisely the sin of pride—not to be subject to a superior when subjection is due. Consequently the first sin of the angel can be none other than pride.

I reply that sin can exist in a person in two ways: first through actual guilt, and second through inclination. In terms of guilt, all sins are in the demons because by leading people to sin, they share in the guilt of all sins. However, regarding inclination, only those sins that can be associated with a spiritual nature can be found in the demons. A spiritual nature cannot be affected by pleasures related to the physical body, but only by those that align with spiritual matters; because nothing is affected except in relation to something that fits its nature in some way. There can be no sin when someone is motivated to pursue good of a spiritual nature, unless in that inclination the authority of the superior is not respected. This is precisely the sin of pride—not being submissive to a superior when submission is warranted. Therefore, the first sin of the angel must be none other than pride.

Yet, as a consequence, it was possible for envy also to be in them, since for the appetite to tend to the desire of something involves on its part resistance to anything contrary. Now the envious man repines over the good possessed by another, inasmuch as he deems his neighbor's good to be a hindrance to his own. But another's good could not be deemed a hindrance to the good coveted by the wicked angel, except inasmuch as he coveted a singular excellence, which would cease to be singular because of the excellence of some other. So, after the sin of pride, there followed the evil of envy in the sinning angel, whereby he grieved over man's good, and also over the Divine excellence, according as against the devil's will God makes use of man for the Divine glory.

Yet, as a result, it was possible for them to feel envy as well, since the desire for something means resisting anything that stands in its way. The envious person resents the good that another has because they see their neighbor's good as a barrier to their own. However, another's good can't really be a barrier to the good desired by the wicked angel, except in the sense that he desired a unique greatness, which would no longer be unique because of the greatness of someone else. So, after the sin of pride, envy followed in the sinning angel, causing him to mourn over humanity's good and also over the Divine greatness, as God uses man for Divine glory against the devil's will.

Reply Obj. 1: The demons do not delight in the obscenities of the sins of the flesh, as if they themselves were disposed to carnal pleasures: it is wholly through envy that they take pleasure in all sorts of human sins, so far as these are hindrances to a man's good.

Reply Obj. 1: The demons don’t enjoy the immoral acts of physical sins, as if they themselves were inclined to earthly pleasures: they derive pleasure purely out of envy concerning human sins, as these acts are obstacles to a person’s well-being.

Reply Obj. 2: Avarice, considered as a special kind of sin, is the immoderate greed of temporal possessions which serve the use of human life, and which can be estimated in value of money; to these demons are not at all inclined, any more than they are to carnal pleasures. Consequently avarice properly so called cannot be in them. But if every immoderate greed of possessing any created good be termed avarice, in this way avarice is contained under the pride which is in the demons. Anger implies passion, and so does concupiscence; consequently they can only exist metaphorically in the demons. Sloth is a kind of sadness, whereby a man becomes sluggish in spiritual exercises because they weary the body; which does not apply to the demons. So it is evident that pride and envy are the only spiritual sins which can be found in demons; yet so that envy is not to be taken for a passion, but for a will resisting the good of another.

Reply Obj. 2: Avarice, considered a specific type of sin, is the excessive greed for material possessions that support human life and can be measured in terms of money; demons are not at all inclined toward this, just as they are not inclined toward physical pleasures. Therefore, true avarice cannot exist in them. However, if we define avarice as any excessive desire to possess created goods, then it can be seen as a part of the pride that exists in demons. Anger involves emotion, and so does desire; hence, they can only exist metaphorically in demons. Sloth is a form of sadness that causes someone to become lazy in spiritual activities because they tire the body, which does not apply to demons. So it is clear that pride and envy are the only spiritual sins that can be found in demons, but envy should not be understood as an emotion, rather as a will that opposes the good of another.

Reply Obj. 3: Under envy and pride, as found in the demons, are comprised all other sins derived from them. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Envy and pride, as seen in the demons, encompass all other sins that stem from them.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 3]

Whether the Devil Desired to Be As God?

Whether the Devil Wanted to Be Like God?

Objection 1: It would seem that the devil did not desire to be as God. For what does not fall under apprehension, does not fall under desire; because the good which is apprehended moves the appetite, whether sensible, rational, or intellectual; and sin consists only in such desire. But for any creature to be God's equal does not fall under apprehension, because it implies a contradiction; for it the finite equals the infinite, then it would itself be infinite. Therefore an angel could not desire to be as God.

Objection 1: It seems that the devil didn't want to be like God. What we can't understand, we can't want; because the good that we can understand drives our desires, whether they are physical, rational, or intellectual, and sin is only found in such desires. However, for any creature to be equal to God doesn't make sense, as it creates a contradiction; if the finite were equal to the infinite, then it would also have to be infinite. Therefore, an angel couldn't desire to be like God.

Obj. 2: Further, the natural end can always be desired without sin. But to be likened unto God is the end to which every creature naturally tends. If, therefore, the angel desired to be as God, not by equality, but by likeness, it would seem that he did not thereby sin.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the natural goal can always be pursued without wrongdoing. However, being similar to God is the ultimate aim that every creature naturally strives for. Therefore, if an angel wanted to be like God, not in equality, but in likeness, it seems that he wouldn’t be sinning by doing so.

Obj. 3: Further, the angel was created with greater fulness of wisdom than man. But no man, save a fool, ever makes choice of being the equal of an angel, still less of God; because choice regards only things which are possible, regarding which one takes deliberation. Therefore much less did the angel sin by desiring to be as God.

Obj. 3: Also, the angel was created with greater wisdom than humans. No person, except a fool, ever chooses to be equal to an angel, let alone God; because choices only relate to things that are possible and require careful consideration. Therefore, the angel sinned much less by wanting to be like God.

On the contrary, It is said, in the person of the devil (Isa. 14:13, 14), "I will ascend into heaven . . . I will be like the Most High." And Augustine (De Qu. Vet. Test. cxiii) says that being "inflated with pride, he wished to be called God."

On the contrary, it is said, in the person of the devil (Isa. 14:13, 14), "I will rise to heaven . . . I will be like the Most High." And Augustine (De Qu. Vet. Test. cxiii) states that being "full of pride, he wanted to be called God."

I answer that, Without doubt the angel sinned by seeking to be as God. But this can be understood in two ways: first, by equality; secondly, by likeness. He could not seek to be as God in the first way; because by natural knowledge he knew that this was impossible: and there was no habit preceding his first sinful act, nor any passion fettering his mind, so as to lead him to choose what was impossible by failing in some particular; as sometimes happens in ourselves. And even supposing it were possible, it would be against the natural desire; because there exists in everything the natural desire of preserving its own nature; which would not be preserved were it to be changed into another nature. Consequently, no creature of a lower order can ever covet the grade of a higher nature; just as an ass does not desire to be a horse: for were it to be so upraised, it would cease to be itself. But herein the imagination plays us false; for one is liable to think that, because a man seeks to occupy a higher grade as to accidentals, which can increase without the destruction of the subject, he can also seek a higher grade of nature, to which he could not attain without ceasing to exist. Now it is quite evident that God surpasses the angels, not merely in accidentals, but also in degree of nature; and one angel, another. Consequently it is impossible for one angel of lower degree to desire equality with a higher; and still more to covet equality with God.

I respond that, Without a doubt, the angel sinned by trying to be like God. This can be understood in two ways: first, in terms of equality; secondly, in terms of similarity. He could not attempt to be like God in the first way, because he inherently knew that this was impossible. There was no prior habit leading to his first sinful act, nor any overwhelming passion that clouded his mind and led him to choose something impossible due to a specific failure, as sometimes happens with us. Even if it were possible, it would go against the natural desire, since everything has a natural desire to maintain its own nature, which would be lost if it were to change into another nature. Therefore, no creature of a lower order can ever aspire to the level of a higher nature; just as a donkey does not wish to be a horse: for if it were to be elevated like that, it would stop being itself. However, imagination can mislead us; one might think that because a person strives to achieve a higher status in terms of external qualities, which can increase without destroying the subject, they can also aspire to a higher nature, which they could never attain without ceasing to exist. It is clear that God exceeds the angels, not just in external qualities, but also in the degree of nature; and one angel exceeds another. As a result, it is impossible for one angel of a lower degree to desire equality with a higher one; and even more so to covet equality with God.

To desire to be as God according to likeness can happen in two ways. In one way, as to that likeness whereby everything is made to be likened unto God. And so, if anyone desire in this way to be Godlike, he commits no sin; provided that he desires such likeness in proper order, that is to say, that he may obtain it of God. But he would sin were he to desire to be like unto God even in the right way, as of his own, and not of God's power. In another way one may desire to be like unto God in some respect which is not natural to one; as if one were to desire to create heaven and earth, which is proper to God; in which desire there would be sin. It was in this way that the devil desired to be as God. Not that he desired to resemble God by being subject to no one else absolutely; for so he would be desiring his own 'not-being'; since no creature can exist except by holding its existence under God. But he desired resemblance with God in this respect—by desiring, as his last end of beatitude, something which he could attain by the virtue of his own nature, turning his appetite away from supernatural beatitude, which is attained by God's grace. Or, if he desired as his last end that likeness of God which is bestowed by grace, he sought to have it by the power of his own nature; and not from Divine assistance according to God's ordering. This harmonizes with Anselm's opinion, who says [*De casu diaboli, iv.] that "he sought that to which he would have come had he stood fast." These two views in a manner coincide; because according to both, he sought to have final beatitude of his own power, whereas this is proper to God alone.

Wanting to be like God can happen in two ways. One way is to desire that likeness in which everything is made to resemble God. If someone wants to be Godlike in this manner, they aren’t committing any sin, as long as they seek that likeness in the right way, meaning they aim to receive it from God. However, it would be sinful if they wanted to be like God in their own way, without relying on God's power. The second way is to desire to be like God in a way that isn't natural to a person; for example, wanting to create the heavens and the earth, which is a divine role. Such a desire would be sinful. This is how the devil wanted to be like God—not by wanting to be completely independent from anyone else, as that would mean wanting to not exist; since no creature can exist without depending on God for its existence. The devil wanted to be like God in the sense of pursuing something he thought he could achieve through his own nature, turning away from supernatural happiness, which is granted through God's grace. If he desired that divine likeness bestowed by grace as his ultimate goal, he sought to attain it through his own nature, rather than through divine help as God intends. This aligns with Anselm's view, who states in [*De casu diaboli, iv.] that "he sought that to which he would have come had he stood firm." Both perspectives overlap in that he aimed for ultimate happiness through his own power, which is something only God can truly offer.

Since, then, what exists of itself is the cause of what exists of another, it follows from this furthermore that he sought to have dominion over others; wherein he also perversely wished to be like unto God.

Since what exists on its own is the cause of what exists because of something else, it also follows that he wanted to have power over others; in this, he also wrongly wanted to be like God.

From this we have the answer to all the objections. _______________________

From this, we have the response to all the objections. _______________________

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 4]

Whether Any Demons Are Naturally Wicked?

Whether any demons are naturally evil?

Objection 1: It would seem that some demons are naturally wicked. For Porphyry says, as quoted by Augustine (De Civ. Dei x, 11): "There is a class of demons of crafty nature, pretending that they are gods and the souls of the dead." But to be deceitful is to be evil. Therefore some demons are naturally wicked.

Objection 1: It seems that some demons are naturally evil. Porphyry says, as quoted by Augustine (De Civ. Dei x, 11): "There is a type of demon with a deceitful nature, pretending to be gods and the souls of the dead." But being deceitful means being evil. Therefore, some demons are naturally wicked.

Obj. 2: Further, as the angels are created by God, so are men.
But some men are naturally wicked, of whom it is said (Wis. 12:10):
"Their malice is natural." Therefore some angels may be naturally
wicked.

Obj. 2: Just as angels are created by God, so are humans.
However, some people are inherently wicked, as it is stated (Wis. 12:10):
"Their malice is natural." Therefore, some angels may also be inherently
wicked.

Obj. 3: Further, some irrational animals have wicked dispositions by nature: thus the fox is naturally sly, and the wolf naturally rapacious; yet they are God's creatures. Therefore, although the demons are God's creatures, they may be naturally wicked.

Obj. 3: Additionally, some irrational animals have evil tendencies by nature: for example, the fox is naturally cunning, and the wolf is naturally greedy; yet they are creations of God. Therefore, although demons are also God's creations, they might be inherently wicked.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "the demons are not naturally wicked."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "the demons are not inherently evil."

I answer that, Everything which exists, so far as it exists and has a particular nature, tends naturally towards some good; since it comes from a good principle; because the effect always reverts to its principle. Now a particular good may happen to have some evil connected with it; thus fire has this evil connected with it that it consumes other things: but with the universal good no evil can be connected. If, then, there be anything whose nature is inclined towards some particular good, it can tend naturally to some evil; not as evil, but accidentally, as connected with some good. But if anything of its nature be inclined to good in general, then of its own nature it cannot be inclined to evil. Now it is manifest that every intellectual nature is inclined towards good in general, which it can apprehend and which is the object of the will. Hence, since the demons are intellectual substances, they can in no wise have a natural inclination towards any evil whatsoever; consequently they cannot be naturally evil.

I respond that, Everything that exists, as long as it exists and has a specific nature, naturally aims for some good; because it originates from a good source; since the outcome always reflects its source. Now, a specific good might be associated with some evil; for example, fire has the drawback of consuming other things. However, with universal good, no evil can be connected. So, if there is something that is inclined towards a particular good, it can naturally lean towards some evil; not as evil, but incidentally, because of its connection to some good. But if something is inclined towards good in general by its very nature, then it cannot be inclined towards evil. It is clear that every intellectual being is drawn towards good in general, which it can understand and which is the aim of the will. Therefore, since demons are intellectual beings, they cannot have a natural inclination towards any evil at all; thus, they cannot be naturally evil.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine rebukes Porphyry for saying that the demons are naturally deceitful; himself maintaining that they are not naturally so, but of their own will. Now the reason why Porphyry held that they are naturally deceitful was that, as he contended, demons are animals with a sensitive nature. Now the sensitive nature is inclined towards some particular good, with which evil may be connected. In this way, then, it can have a natural inclination to evil; yet only accidentally, inasmuch as evil is connected with good.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine criticizes Porphyry for claiming that demons are naturally deceitful; he argues that they are not naturally deceitful, but act out of their own will. Porphyry believed that demons are naturally deceitful because, in his view, demons are living beings with a sensitive nature. This sensitive nature is drawn toward a specific good, which can be associated with evil. Thus, it might have a natural tendency toward evil, but only in an accidental way, since evil is linked to good.

Reply Obj. 2: The malice of some men can be called natural, either because of custom which is a second nature; or on account of the natural proclivity on the part of the sensitive nature to some inordinate passion, as some people are said to be naturally wrathful or lustful; but not on the part of the intellectual nature.

Reply Obj. 2: The maliciousness of some people can be seen as natural, either due to habit, which acts like a second nature, or because of a natural tendency in their emotional side toward certain excessive passions, as some individuals are described as being naturally angry or lustful; but this doesn’t apply to the intellectual side.

Reply Obj. 3: Brute beasts have a natural inclination in their sensitive nature towards certain particular goods, with which certain evils are connected; thus the fox in seeking its food has a natural inclination to do so with a certain skill coupled with deceit. Wherefore it is not evil in the fox to be sly, since it is natural to him; as it is not evil in the dog to be fierce, as Dionysius observes (De Div. Nom. iv). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Wild animals have a natural tendency in their instincts toward certain specific benefits, which are associated with certain harms; for example, the fox, while looking for food, has a natural tendency to do so with a certain skill combined with cunning. Therefore, it’s not wrong for the fox to be sly since it’s part of its nature; similarly, it’s not wrong for the dog to be fierce, as Dionysius points out (De Div. Nom. iv).

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 5]

Whether the Devil Was Wicked by the Fault of His Own Will in the
First Instant of His Creation?

Whether the Devil was evil because of his own choices in the
first moment of his creation?

Objection 1: It would seem that the devil was wicked by the fault of his own will in the first instant of his creation. For it is said of the devil (John 8:44): "He was a murderer from the beginning."

Objection 1: It seems that the devil was evil because of his own choice right from the moment he was created. For it is stated about the devil (John 8:44): "He was a murderer from the beginning."

Obj. 2: Further, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. i, 15), the lack of form in the creature did not precede its formation in order of time, but merely in order of nature. Now according to him (Gen. ad lit. ii, 8), the "heaven," which is said to have been created in the beginning, signifies the angelic nature while as yet not fully formed: and when it is said that God said: "Be light made: and light was made," we are to understand the full formation of the angel by turning to the Word. Consequently, the nature of the angel was created, and light was made, in the one instant. But at the same moment that light was made, it was made distinct from "darkness," whereby the angels who sinned are denoted. Therefore in the first instant of their creation some of the angels were made blessed, and some sinned.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. i, 15), the lack of form in the creature didn't happen before its formation in time, but only in terms of its nature. Now, according to him (Gen. ad lit. ii, 8), the "heaven" that is said to have been created at the beginning represents the angelic nature while it was still not fully formed. When it says that God said: "Let there be light," and light was created, we should understand this as the complete formation of the angel through the Word. As a result, the nature of the angel was created, and light was made, all at the same moment. But at the exact moment that light was created, it was made distinct from "darkness," which refers to the angels who sinned. Thus, in the very first moment of their creation, some of the angels were made blessed, while others sinned.

Obj. 3: Further, sin is opposed to merit. But some intellectual nature can merit in the first instant of its creation; as the soul of Christ, or also the good angels. Therefore the demons likewise could sin in the first instant of their creation.

Obj. 3: Additionally, sin goes against merit. However, some intellectual beings can have merit right at the moment of their creation, like the soul of Christ or the good angels. Therefore, the demons could also sin at the very moment of their creation.

Obj. 4: Further, the angelic nature is more powerful than the corporeal nature. But a corporeal thing begins to have its operation in the first instant of its creation; as fire begins to move upwards in the first instant it is produced. Therefore the angel could also have his operation in the first instant of his creation. Now this operation was either ordinate or inordinate. If ordinate, then, since he had grace, he thereby merited beatitude. But with the angels the reward follows immediately upon merit; as was said above (Q. 62, A. 5). Consequently they would have become blessed at once; and so would never have sinned, which is false. It remains, then, that they sinned by inordinate action in their first instant.

Obj. 4: Additionally, angelic beings are more powerful than physical beings. A physical being starts to act the moment it is created; for example, fire begins to rise right when it is formed. Therefore, an angel could also begin to act the moment it is created. Now, this action could either be orderly or disorderly. If it was orderly, then, since the angel had grace, it would have earned bliss. But with angels, the reward comes right after the merit, as mentioned earlier (Q. 62, A. 5). Thus, they would have become blissful immediately, which means they wouldn't have sinned, and that's false. Therefore, they must have sinned through disorderly action from the very start.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:31): "God saw all the things that He had made, and they were very good." But among them were also the demons. Therefore the demons were at some time good.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:31): "God saw all the things that He had made, and they were very good." But among them were also the demons. Therefore, the demons were at some time good.

I answer that, Some have maintained that the demons were wicked straightway in the first instant of their creation; not by their nature, but by the sin of their own will; because, as soon as he was made, the devil refused righteousness. To this opinion, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 13), if anyone subscribes, he does not agree with those Manichean heretics who say that the devil's nature is evil of itself. Since this opinion, however, is in contradiction with the authority of Scripture—for it is said of the devil under the figure of the prince of Babylon (Isa. 14:12): "How art thou fallen . . . O Lucifer, who didst rise in the morning!" and it is said to the devil in the person of the King of Tyre (Ezech. 28:13): "Thou wast in the pleasures of the paradise of God,"—consequently, this opinion was reasonably rejected by the masters as erroneous.

I respond that, Some have argued that demons were wicked from the very moment of their creation; not because of their nature, but due to the sin of their own will, since as soon as he was made, the devil rejected righteousness. According to Augustine (De Civ. Dei xi, 13), if anyone agrees with this viewpoint, they do not align with the Manichean heretics who claim that the devil's nature is evil by itself. However, this opinion contradicts Scripture— as it is said of the devil, using the figure of the prince of Babylon (Isa. 14:12): "How art thou fallen . . . O Lucifer, who didst rise in the morning!" and it is said to the devil in the guise of the King of Tyre (Ezech. 28:13): "Thou wast in the pleasures of the paradise of God,"— therefore, this opinion was rightly rejected by the scholars as incorrect.

Hence others have said that the angels, in the first instant of their creation, could have sinned, but did not. Yet this view also is repudiated by some, because, when two operations follow one upon the other, it seems impossible for each operation to terminate in the one instant. Now it is clear that the angel's sin was an act subsequent to his creation. But the term of the creative act is the angel's very being, while the term of the sinful act is the being wicked. It seems, then, an impossibility for the angel to have been wicked in the first instant of his existence.

Some have argued that angels, at the moment of their creation, had the ability to sin but chose not to. However, this perspective is also rejected by others, because when one event follows another, it doesn’t seem possible for both to happen at the exact same moment. It’s clear that an angel’s sin occurred after they were created. The result of the creative act is the angel’s very existence, while the result of the sinful act is being wicked. Therefore, it seems impossible for the angel to have been wicked at the very first moment of their existence.

This argument, however, does not satisfy. For it holds good only in such movements as are measured by time, and take place successively; thus, if local movement follows a change, then the change and the local movement cannot be terminated in the same instant. But if the changes are instantaneous, then all at once and in the same instant there can be a term to the first and the second change; thus in the same instant in which the moon is lit up by the sun, the atmosphere is lit up by the moon. Now, it is manifest that creation is instantaneous; so also is the movement of free-will in the angels; for, as has been already stated, they have no occasion for comparison or discursive reasoning (Q. 58, A. 3). Consequently, there is nothing to hinder the term of creation and of free-will from existing in the same instant.

This argument, however, doesn’t hold up. It only works for movements that are measured over time and happen one after the other; therefore, if a local movement follows a change, then the change and the local movement cannot end at the same time. But if the changes happen instantly, then both the first and the second change can occur simultaneously. For instance, the moment the moon is illuminated by the sun, the atmosphere is illuminated by the moon as well. It’s clear that creation happens instantaneously; so does the movement of free will in angels; as mentioned before, they don’t need to use comparison or logical reasoning (Q. 58, A. 3). So, there’s nothing preventing the act of creation and free will from existing at the same moment.

We must therefore reply that, on the contrary, it was impossible for the angel to sin in the first instant by an inordinate act of free-will. For although a thing can begin to act in the first instant of its existence, nevertheless, that operation which begins with the existence comes of the agent from which it drew its nature; just as upward movement in fire comes of its productive cause. Therefore, if there be anything which derives its nature from a defective cause, which can be the cause of a defective action, it can in the first instant of its existence have a defective operation; just as the leg, which is defective from birth, through a defect in the principle of generation, begins at once to limp. But the agent which brought the angels into existence, namely, God, cannot be the cause of sin. Consequently it cannot be said that the devil was wicked in the first instant of his creation.

We must respond that, on the contrary, it was impossible for the angel to sin right from the start due to an improper use of free will. While something can begin to act the moment it comes into existence, that action is a reflection of the nature of the agent that created it; similar to how upward movement in fire comes from its source. Therefore, if there is anything that gets its nature from a flawed cause, which could lead to a flawed action, it might start with a defective operation from the very beginning; just like a leg that’s defective from birth, due to issues in its development, will immediately begin to limp. However, the agent that created the angels, namely God, cannot be the cause of sin. Therefore, it cannot be claimed that the devil was evil from the very moment he was created.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 15), when it is stated that "the devil sins from the beginning," "he is not to be thought of as sinning from the beginning wherein he was created, but from the beginning of sin": that is to say, because he never went back from his sin.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 15), when it is stated that "the devil sins from the beginning," "he is not to be understood as sinning from the moment he was created, but from the start of sin": in other words, because he never turned away from his sin.

Reply Obj. 2: That distinction of light and darkness, whereby the sins of the demons are understood by the term darkness, must be taken as according to God's foreknowledge. Hence Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 15), that "He alone could discern light and darkness, Who also could foreknow, before they fell, those who would fall."

Reply Obj. 2: The difference between light and darkness, where the sins of the demons are referred to as darkness, should be understood in light of God's foreknowledge. Therefore, Augustine mentions (De Civ. Dei xi, 15) that "Only He could distinguish light and darkness, Who also could foresee, before they fell, those who would fall."

Reply Obj. 3: All that is in merit is from God; and consequently an angel could merit in the first instant of his creation. The same reason does not hold good of sin; as has been said.

Reply Obj. 3: Everything that has merit comes from God; therefore, an angel could have merit from the very moment of its creation. The same reasoning does not apply to sin, as has been stated.

Reply Obj. 4: God did not distinguish between the angels before the turning away of some of them, and the turning of others to Himself, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 15). Therefore, as all were created in grace, all merited in their first instant. But some of them at once placed an impediment to their beatitude, thereby destroying their preceding merit; and consequently they were deprived of the beatitude which they had merited. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: God didn’t make a distinction between the angels before some of them turned away and others turned to Him, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 15). Therefore, since all were created in grace, they all had merit at their very first moment. But some of them immediately created an obstacle to their happiness, which destroyed their previous merit; as a result, they were deprived of the happiness they had earned.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 6]

Whether There Was Any Interval Between the Creation and the Fall of the Angel?

Whether There Was Any Interval Between the Creation and the Fall of the Angel?

Objection 1: It would seem that there was some interval between the angel's creation and his fall. For, it is said (Ezech. 28:15): "Thou didst walk perfect [*Vulg.: 'Thou hast walked in the midst of the stones of fire; thou wast perfect . . .'] in thy ways from the day of thy creation until iniquity was found in thee." But since walking is continuous movement, it requires an interval. Therefore there was some interval between the devil's creation and his fall.

Objection 1: It seems that there was some time between the angel's creation and his fall. For it says (Ezekiel 28:15): "You walked perfectly in your ways from the day of your creation until iniquity was found in you." But since walking implies ongoing movement, it suggests that there was a period of time involved. Therefore, there was some time between the devil's creation and his fall.

Obj. 2: Further, Origen says (Hom. i in Ezech.) that "the serpent of old did not from the first walk upon his breast and belly"; which refers to his sin. Therefore the devil did not sin at once after the first instant of his creation.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Origen states (Hom. i in Ezech.) that "the serpent of old did not from the first walk upon his breast and belly"; which refers to his sin. Therefore, the devil did not sin immediately after the moment of his creation.

Obj. 3: Further, capability of sinning is common alike to man and angel. But there was some delay between man's formation and his sin. Therefore, for the like reason there was some interval between the devil's formation and his sin.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the ability to sin is common to both humans and angels. However, there was some time between the creation of humans and their sin. So, for the same reason, there was also a delay between the creation of the devil and his sin.

Obj. 4: Further, the instant wherein the devil sinned was distinct from the instant wherein he was created. But there is a middle time between every two instants. Therefore there was an interval between his creation and his fall.

Obj. 4: Also, the moment the devil sinned was separate from the moment he was created. But there's always a period of time in between any two moments. Therefore, there was a gap between his creation and his fall.

On the contrary, It is said of the devil (John 8:44): "He stood not in the truth": and, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 15), "we must understand this in the sense, that he was in the truth, but did not remain in it."

On the contrary, it is said of the devil (John 8:44): "He does not stand in the truth"; and, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 15), "we must understand this to mean that he was in the truth, but did not stay in it."

I answer that, There is a twofold opinion on this point. But the more probable one, which is also more in harmony with the teachings of the Saints, is that the devil sinned at once after the first instant of his creation. This must be maintained if it be held that he elicited an act of free-will in the first instant of his creation, and that he was created in grace; as we have said (Q. 62, A. 3). For since the angels attain beatitude by one meritorious act, as was said above (Q. 62, A. 5), if the devil, created in grace, merited in the first instant, he would at once have received beatitude after that first instant, if he had not placed an impediment by sinning.

I answer that, There are two main opinions on this matter. However, the more likely one, which also aligns better with the teachings of the Saints, is that the devil sinned immediately after the very first moment of his creation. This view must be upheld if we believe that he made an act of free will in that first moment of his existence and that he was created in grace, as we have already discussed (Q. 62, A. 3). Since angels achieve beatitude through one meritorious act, as mentioned earlier (Q. 62, A. 5), if the devil, created in grace, had merited in that first moment, he would have immediately attained beatitude after that moment, had he not created a barrier by sinning.

If, however, it be contended that the angel was not created in grace, or that he could not elicit an act of free-will in the first instant, then there is nothing to prevent some interval being interposed between his creation and fall.

If, however, it's argued that the angel wasn't created with grace, or that he couldn't make a free-will choice right from the start, then there's nothing stopping a gap from existing between his creation and his fall.

Reply Obj. 1: Sometimes in Holy Scripture spiritual instantaneous movements are represented by corporeal movements which are measured by time. In this way by "walking" we are to understand the movement of free-will tending towards good.

Reply Obj. 1: Sometimes in the Bible, spiritual instantaneous movements are described using physical movements that can be measured by time. In this way, "walking" refers to the movement of free will directed towards good.

Reply Obj. 2: Origen says, "The serpent of old did not from the first walk upon his breast and belly," because of the first instant in which he was not wicked.

Reply Obj. 2: Origen says, "The serpent of old did not from the first walk on his chest and belly," because he wasn't evil at the very beginning.

Reply Obj. 3: An angel has an inflexible free-will after once choosing; consequently, if after the first instant, in which he had a natural movement to good, he had not at once placed a barrier to beatitude, he would have been confirmed in good. It is not so with man; and therefore the argument does not hold good.

Reply Obj. 3: An angel has a fixed free will after making a choice; therefore, if right after the first moment when he had a natural inclination towards good, he didn't immediately put up a barrier to happiness, he would have been solidified in goodness. This isn't the case for humans, which is why the argument doesn't apply.

Reply Obj. 4: It is true to say that there is a middle time between every two instants, so far as time is continuous, as it is proved Phys. vi, text. 2. But in the angels, who are not subject to the heavenly movement, which is primarily measured by continuous time, time is taken to mean the succession of their mental acts, or of their affections. So the first instant in the angels is understood to respond to the operation of the angelic mind, whereby it introspects itself by its evening knowledge because on the first day evening is mentioned, but not morning. This operation was good in them all. From such operation some of them were converted to the praise of the Word by their morning knowledge while others, absorbed in themselves, became night, "swelling up with pride," as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 24). Hence the first act was common to them all; but in their second they were separated. Consequently they were all of them good in the first instant; but in the second the good were set apart from the wicked. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: It’s true that there’s a middle moment between any two instants, since time is continuous, as shown in Phys. vi, text. 2. However, for angels, who aren’t influenced by heavenly motion that primarily tracks continuous time, time refers to the sequence of their mental actions or feelings. So, the first instant for angels is seen as corresponding to the function of the angelic mind, which reflects on itself through its evening knowledge because evening is mentioned on the first day, but not morning. This action was good for all of them. From this action, some were turned toward praising the Word through their morning knowledge, while others, lost in themselves, became night, "swelling up with pride,” as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 24). Therefore, the first act was shared by all; but in their second act, they were divided. As a result, they were all good in the first instant, but in the second, the good were separated from the wicked. _______________________

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 7]

Whether the Highest Angel Among Those Who Sinned Was the Highest of
All?

Whether the highest angel among those who sinned was the highest of all?

Objection 1: It would seem that the highest among the angels who sinned was not the highest of all. For it is stated (Ezech. 28:14): "Thou wast a cherub stretched out, and protecting, and I set thee in the holy mountain of God." Now the order of the Cherubim is under the order of the Seraphim, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. vi, vii). Therefore, the highest angel among those who sinned was not the highest of all.

Objection 1: It seems that the highest angel who sinned was not the highest of all. For it says in Ezekiel 28:14: "You were a guardian cherub; I placed you on the holy mountain of God." The order of Cherubim is below the order of Seraphim, as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. vi, vii). Therefore, the highest angel among those who sinned was not the highest of all.

Obj. 2: Further, God made intellectual nature in order that it might attain to beatitude. If therefore the highest of the angels sinned, it follows that the Divine ordinance was frustrated in the noblest creature which is unfitting.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, God created intelligent beings so they could achieve happiness. Therefore, if the highest of the angels sinned, it suggests that the Divine plan was thwarted in the noblest creature, which is inappropriate.

Obj. 3: Further, the more a subject is inclined towards anything, so much the less can it fall away from it. But the higher an angel is, so much the more is he inclined towards God. Therefore so much the less can he turn away from God by sinning. And so it seems that the angel who sinned was not the highest of all, but one of the lower angels.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the more a being is drawn to something, the less likely it is to stray from it. The higher an angel ranks, the more it is drawn to God. Therefore, it is less able to turn away from God by sinning. This suggests that the angel who sinned was not the highest of all, but rather one of the lower-ranking angels.

On the contrary, Gregory (Hom. xxxiv in Ev.) says that the chief angel who sinned, "being set over all the hosts of angels, surpassed them in brightness, and was by comparison the most illustrious among them."

On the contrary, Gregory (Hom. xxxiv in Ev.) says that the main angel who sinned, "being in charge of all the angels, was brighter than them and was, in comparison, the most remarkable among them."

I answer that, Two things have to be considered in sin, namely, the proneness to sin, and the motive for sinning. If, then, in the angels we consider the proneness to sin, it seems that the higher angels were less likely to sin than the lower. On this account Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii), that the highest of those who sinned was set over the terrestrial order. This opinion seems to agree with the view of the Platonists, which Augustine quotes (De Civ. Dei vii, 6, 7; x, 9, 10, 11). For they said that all the gods were good; whereas some of the demons were good, and some bad; naming as 'gods' the intellectual substances which are above the lunar sphere, and calling by the name of "demons" the intellectual substances which are beneath it, yet higher than men in the order of nature. Nor is this opinion to be rejected as contrary to faith; because the whole corporeal creation is governed by God through the angels, as Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4,5). Consequently there is nothing to prevent us from saying that the lower angels were divinely set aside for presiding over the lower bodies, the higher over the higher bodies; and the highest to stand before God. And in this sense Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii) that they who fell were of the lower grade of angels; yet in that order some of them remained good.

I answer that, two things need to be considered when it comes to sin: the tendency to sin and the reasons behind it. If we look at the angels, it seems that the higher angels were less likely to sin than the lower ones. For this reason, Damascene states (De Fide Orth. ii) that the highest among those who sinned was placed over the earthly realm. This belief aligns with the perspective of the Platonists, which Augustine mentions (De Civ. Dei vii, 6, 7; x, 9, 10, 11). They argued that all the gods were good, while some demons were good and others bad; they referred to the intellectual beings above the lunar sphere as 'gods' and the beings below it, but still above humans in nature, as "demons." This view isn’t contrary to faith, as the entire physical creation is overseen by God through the angels, as Augustine explains (De Trin. iii, 4, 5). Therefore, there's nothing stopping us from saying that the lower angels were designated by God to oversee the lower beings, the higher angels to oversee the higher beings, and the highest angels to stand before God. In this context, Damascene mentions (De Fide Orth. ii) that those who fell were from the lower rank of angels; yet even among them, some remained good.

But if the motive for sinning be considered, we find that it existed in the higher angels more than in the lower. For, as has been said (A. 2), the demons' sin was pride; and the motive of pride is excellence, which was greater in the higher spirits. Hence Gregory says that he who sinned was the very highest of all. This seems to be the more probable view: because the angels' sin did not come of any proneness, but of free choice alone. Consequently that argument seems to have the more weight which is drawn from the motive in sinning. Yet this must not be prejudicial to the other view; because there might be some motive for sinning in him also who was the chief of the lower angels.

But if we look at the reasons behind sinning, we see that it was more present in the higher angels than in the lower ones. As noted earlier (A. 2), the demons' sin was pride, and the reason for pride is a desire for greatness, which was more pronounced in the higher spirits. Thus, Gregory states that the one who sinned was the very highest of all. This seems to be the more likely explanation because the angels' sin didn't stem from a tendency but purely from free will. Therefore, the argument based on the motive for sinning seems stronger. However, this shouldn't dismiss the other perspective, as there could still be a reason for sinning in the chief of the lower angels.

Reply Obj. 1: Cherubim is interpreted "fulness of knowledge," while "Seraphim" means "those who are on fire," or "who set on fire." Consequently Cherubim is derived from knowledge; which is compatible with mortal sin; but Seraphim is derived from the heat of charity, which is incompatible with mortal sin. Therefore the first angel who sinned is called, not a Seraph, but a Cherub.

Reply Obj. 1: Cherubim is understood as "fullness of knowledge," while "Seraphim" means "those who are on fire," or "who ignite." Therefore, Cherubim comes from knowledge, which can coexist with mortal sin; however, Seraphim comes from the intensity of love, which can't coexist with mortal sin. So, the first angel who sinned is referred to as a Cherub, not a Seraph.

Reply Obj. 2: The Divine intention is not frustrated either in those who sin, or in those who are saved; for God knows beforehand the end of both; and He procures glory from both, saving these of His goodness, and punishing those of His justice. But the intellectual creature, when it sins, falls away from its due end. Nor is this unfitting in any exalted creature; because the intellectual creature was so made by God, that it lies within its own will to act for its end.

Reply Obj. 2: God's purpose is not defeated in those who sin or in those who are saved; He knows the outcome for both. He gains glory from both, saving some out of His goodness and punishing others out of His justice. However, when an intellectual being sins, it strays from its intended purpose. This is appropriate for any exalted being because God created the intellectual creature with the ability to choose to act towards its purpose.

Reply Obj. 3: However great was the inclination towards good in the highest angel, there was no necessity imposed upon him: consequently it was in his power not to follow it. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: No matter how strong the inclination towards good was in the highest angel, he wasn't forced to follow it: therefore, it was within his control to choose otherwise.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 8]

Whether the Sin of the Highest Angel Was the Cause of the Others
Sinning?

Whether the sin of the highest angel caused the others
Sinning?

Objection 1: It would seem that the sin of the highest angel was not the cause of the others sinning. For the cause precedes the effect. But, as Damascene observes (De Fide Orth. ii), they all sinned at one time. Therefore the sin of one was not the cause of the others' sinning.

Objection 1: It seems that the sin of the highest angel did not cause the others to sin. Since the cause comes before the effect. However, as Damascene notes (De Fide Orth. ii), they all sinned simultaneously. Therefore, the sin of one was not the cause of the others' sinning.

Obj. 2: Further, an angel's first sin can only be pride, as was shown above (A. 2). But pride seeks excellence. Now it is more contrary to excellence for anyone to be subject to an inferior than to a superior; and so it does not appear that the angels sinned by desiring to be subject to a higher angel rather than to God. Yet the sin of one angel would have been the cause of the others sinning, if he had induced them to be his subjects. Therefore it does not appear that the sin of the highest angel was the cause of the others sinning.

Obj. 2: Also, an angel's first sin can only be pride, as shown above (A. 2). But pride seeks greatness. Now, it is more contrary to greatness for anyone to be under someone inferior than to someone superior; so it doesn't seem that the angels sinned by wanting to be subject to a higher angel instead of God. However, the sin of one angel could have led the others to sin if he had persuaded them to be his followers. Therefore, it doesn't seem that the sin of the highest angel was the reason the others sinned.

Obj. 3: Further, it is a greater sin to wish to be subject to another against God, than to wish to be over another against God; because there is less motive for sinning. If, therefore, the sin of the foremost angel was the cause of the others sinning, in that he induced them to subject themselves to him, then the lower angels would have sinned more deeply than the highest one; which is contrary to a gloss on Ps. 103:26: "This dragon which Thou hast formed—He who was the more excellent than the rest in nature, became the greater in malice." Therefore the sin of the highest angel was not the cause of the others sinning.

Obj. 3: Moreover, it is a bigger sin to want to be under someone else against God than to want to be above someone else against God; because there's less motivation for sinning. So, if the sin of the highest angel led the others to sin by making them want to submit to him, then the lower angels would have sinned more seriously than the highest one; which contrasts with a commentary on Ps. 103:26: "This dragon which You have made—He who was greater than the rest in nature became greater in wickedness." Therefore, the sin of the highest angel was not what caused the others to sin.

On the contrary, It is said (Apoc. 12:4) that the dragon "drew" with him "the third part of the stars of heaven."

On the contrary, it is said (Apoc. 12:4) that the dragon "drew" with him "the third part of the stars of heaven."

I answer that, The sin of the highest angel was the cause of the others sinning; not as compelling them, but as inducing them by a kind of exhortation. A token thereof appears in this, that all the demons are subjects of that highest one; as is evident from our Lord's words: "Go [Vulg. 'Depart from Me'], you cursed, into everlasting fire, which was prepared for the devil and his angels" (Matt. 25:41). For the order of Divine justice exacts that whosoever consents to another's evil suggestion, shall be subjected to him in his punishment; according to (2 Pet. 2:19): "By whom a man is overcome, of the same also he is the slave."

I respond that the sin of the highest angel led to the sins of others; not by forcing them, but by encouraging them through a kind of persuasion. Evidence of this is shown in the fact that all the demons are subjects of that highest one, as our Lord's words make clear: "Go [Vulg. 'Depart from Me'], you cursed, into everlasting fire, which was prepared for the devil and his angels" (Matt. 25:41). For the order of Divine justice demands that anyone who agrees to another's wrongdoing will be subjected to him in his punishment; as stated in (2 Pet. 2:19): "Whoever a man is overcome by, he becomes a slave to that same thing."

Reply Obj. 1: Although the demons all sinned in the one instant, yet the sin of one could be the cause of the rest sinning. For the angel needs no delay of time for choice, exhortation, or consent, as man, who requires deliberation in order to choose and consent, and vocal speech in order to exhort; both of which are the work of time. And it is evident that even man begins to speak in the very instant when he takes thought; and in the last instant of speech, another who catches his meaning can assent to what is said; as is especially evident with regard to primary concepts, "which everyone accepts directly they are heard" [*Boethius, De Hebdom.].

Reply Obj. 1: Although the demons all sinned at the same moment, the sin of one could influence the others to sin. Angels don’t need time to make choices, encourage, or agree, unlike humans, who need time to think things over before deciding and to use spoken language to encourage each other—all of which take time. It’s clear that even humans start speaking the instant they begin to think; and in the last moment of speech, someone who understands can agree with what’s being said; this is especially clear with basic concepts, which everyone accepts immediately upon hearing them.

Taking away, then, the time for speech and deliberation which is required in us; in the same instant in which the highest angel expressed his affection by intelligible speech, it was possible for the others to consent thereto.

Taking away the time needed for speech and discussion that we require; at the very moment the highest angel voiced his feelings through clear words, the others were able to agree with him.

Reply Obj. 2: Other things being equal, the proud would rather be subject to a superior than to an inferior. Yet he chooses rather to be subject to an inferior than to a superior, if he can procure an advantage under an inferior which he cannot under a superior. Consequently it was not against the demons' pride for them to wish to serve an inferior by yielding to his rule; for they wanted to have him as their prince and leader, so that they might attain their ultimate beatitude of their own natural powers; especially because in the order of nature they were even then subject to the highest angel.

Reply Obj. 2: Other things being equal, a proud person would prefer to be under a superior rather than an inferior. However, they would rather be under an inferior if it means they can gain an advantage that they can't get from a superior. Therefore, it wasn't against the demons' pride for them to want to serve an inferior by submitting to his authority; they desired him as their prince and leader, so they could achieve the ultimate happiness from their own natural abilities, especially since, in the natural order, they were already subject to the highest angel.

Reply Obj. 3: As was observed above (Q. 62, A. 6), an angel has nothing in him to retard his action, and with his whole might he is moved to whatsoever he is moved, be it good or bad. Consequently since the highest angel had greater natural energy than the lower angels, he fell into sin with intenser energy, and therefore he became the greater in malice. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: As noted earlier (Q. 62, A. 6), an angel has nothing that slows down his actions, and he is fully driven to whatever he does, whether it’s good or bad. So, since the highest angel has more natural power than the lower angels, he sinned with greater intensity, which is why he became more malicious.

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 9]

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 63, Art. 9]

Whether Those Who Sinned Were As Many As Those Who Remained Firm?

Whether the number of those who sinned was as great as those who stayed strong?

Objection 1: It would seem that more angels sinned than stood firm. For, as the Philosopher says (Ethic. ii, 6): "Evil is in many, but good is in few."

Objection 1: It seems that more angels sinned than remained loyal. For, as the Philosopher says (Ethic. ii, 6): "Evil is common among many, but good is found in few."

Obj. 2: Further, justice and sin are to be found in the same way in men and in angels. But there are more wicked men to be found than good; according to Eccles. 1:15: "The number of fools is infinite." Therefore for the same reason it is so with the angels.

Obj. 2: Additionally, justice and sin are present in both humans and angels in the same way. However, there are more wicked people than good ones; as stated in Eccles. 1:15: "The number of fools is infinite." Therefore, the same applies to the angels for the same reason.

Obj. 3: Further, the angels are distinguished according to persons and orders. Therefore if more angelic persons stood firm, it would appear that those who sinned were not from all the orders.

Obj. 3: Also, the angels are categorized by their roles and ranks. So, if several angelic beings remained faithful, it would suggest that those who fell weren't from every rank.

On the contrary, It is said (4 Kings 6:16): "There are more with us than with them": which is expounded of the good angels who are with us to aid us, and the wicked spirits who are our foes.

On the contrary, it is said (2 Kings 6:16): "There are more with us than with them," which refers to the good angels who are here to support us, and the evil spirits who are our enemies.

I answer that, More angels stood firm than sinned. Because sin is contrary to the natural inclination; while that which is against the natural order happens with less frequency; for nature procures its effects either always, or more often than not.

I respond that, more angels remained loyal than fell into sin. This is because sin goes against the natural tendency; while actions that contradict the natural order occur less frequently; for nature achieves its outcomes either consistently or more often than not.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher is speaking with regard to men, in whom evil comes to pass from seeking after sensible pleasures, which are known to most men, and from forsaking the good dictated by reason, which good is known to the few. In the angels there is only an intellectual nature; hence the argument does not hold.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher is referring to humans, where evil arises from pursuing physical pleasures, which most people understand, and from ignoring the good that reason suggests, which only a few recognize. In angels, there is only an intellectual nature; therefore, the argument doesn't apply.

And from this we have the answer to the second difficulty.

And from this, we have the answer to the second challenge.

Reply Obj. 3: According to those who hold that the chief devil belonged to the lower order of the angels, who are set over earthly affairs, it is evident that some of every order did not fall, but only those of the lowest order. According to those who maintain that the chief devil was of the highest order, it is probable that some fell of every order; just as men are taken up into every order to supply for the angelic ruin. In this view the liberty of free-will is more established; which in every degree of creature can be turned to evil. In the Sacred Scripture, however, the names of some orders, as of Seraphim and Thrones, are not attributed to demons; since they are derived from the ardor of love and from God's indwelling, which are not consistent with mortal sin. Yet the names of Cherubim, Powers, and Principalities are attributed to them; because these names are derived from knowledge and from power, which can be common to both good and bad. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Those who believe that the chief devil was from the lower order of angels, who oversee earthly matters, suggest that not all orders fell, but only those of the lowest rank. On the other hand, those who argue that the chief devil came from the highest order think that some fell from every rank, just as humans are elevated into every order to compensate for the angels' fall. This perspective reinforces the idea of free will, which can lead any creature to do evil. However, in Sacred Scripture, certain orders like Seraphim and Thrones are not associated with demons, as these names come from intense love and God's presence, which are incompatible with mortal sin. In contrast, the names of Cherubim, Powers, and Principalities are attributed to demons; these names arise from knowledge and power, traits that can be found in both good and evil. _______________________

QUESTION 64

THE PUNISHMENT OF THE DEMONS
(In Four Articles)

THE PUNISHMENT OF THE DEMONS
(In Four Articles)

It now remains as a sequel to deal with the punishment of the demons; under which heading there are four points of inquiry:

It now remains to continue with the punishment of the demons; under this topic, there are four points to discuss:

(1) Of their darkness of intellect;

(1) Of their lack of understanding;

(2) Of their obstinacy of will;

(2) About their stubbornness of will;

(3) Of their grief;

Their grief;

(4) Of their place of punishment. _______________________

(4) About their place of punishment. _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 64, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 64, Art. 1]

Whether the Demons' Intellect Is Darkened by Privation of the
Knowledge of All Truth?

Whether the demons' intelligence is clouded by a lack of
knowledge of all truth?

Objection 1: It would seem that the demons' intellect is darkened by being deprived of the knowledge of all truth. For if they knew any truth at all, they would most of all know themselves; which is to know separated substances. But this is not in keeping with their unhappiness: for this seems to belong to great happiness, insomuch as that some writers have assigned as man's last happiness the knowledge of the separated substances. Therefore the demons are deprived of all knowledge of truth.

Objection 1: It seems that the demons' intellect is clouded because they lack knowledge of all truth. If they knew any truth, they would most importantly know themselves, which means understanding separate beings. But this doesn’t match with their misery, since knowing separated substances is considered part of great happiness; in fact, some writers describe the knowledge of separated substances as the ultimate happiness for humans. Therefore, the demons lack all knowledge of truth.

Obj. 2: Further, what is most manifest in its nature, seems to be specially manifest to the angels, whether good or bad. That the same is not manifest with regard to ourselves, comes from the weakness of our intellect which draws its knowledge from phantasms; as it comes from the weakness of its eye that the owl cannot behold the light of the sun. But the demons cannot know God, Who is most manifest of Himself, because He is the sovereign truth; and this is because they are not clean of heart, whereby alone can God be seen. Therefore neither can they know other things.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, what is most obvious in its nature seems especially obvious to the angels, whether they are good or bad. The fact that this is not obvious to us is due to the limitations of our intellect, which relies on images; just as the owl can't see the sunlight because of its weak vision. Demons cannot know God, who is the most apparent of Himself, because He is the ultimate truth; and this is because they are not pure of heart, which is the only way to see God. Therefore, they also cannot understand other things.

Obj. 3: Further, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 22), the proper knowledge of the angels is twofold; namely, morning and evening. But the demons have no morning knowledge, because they do not see things in the Word; nor have they the evening knowledge, because this evening knowledge refers the things known to the Creator's praise (hence, after "evening" comes "morning" [Gen. 1]). Therefore the demons can have no knowledge of things.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 22), the proper understanding of angels is twofold: morning and evening. However, demons lack morning understanding because they don't perceive things through the Word; nor do they possess evening understanding, as this evening understanding connects known things to the Creator's praise (thus, after "evening" comes "morning" [Gen. 1]). Therefore, demons cannot have knowledge of things.

Obj. 4: Further, the angels at their creation knew the mystery of the kingdom of God, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. v, 19; De Civ. Dei xi). But the demons are deprived of such knowledge: "for if they had known it, they would never have crucified the Lord of glory," as is said 1 Cor. 2:8. Therefore, for the same reason, they are deprived of all other knowledge of truth.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the angels knew the mystery of the kingdom of God when they were created, as Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. v, 19; De Civ. Dei xi). However, the demons lack this understanding: "for if they had known it, they would never have crucified the Lord of glory," as mentioned in 1 Cor. 2:8. Thus, for the same reason, they are deprived of all other knowledge of truth.

Obj. 5: Further, whatever truth anyone knows is known either naturally, as we know first principles; or by deriving it from someone else, as we know by learning; or by long experience, as the things we learn by discovery. Now, the demons cannot know the truth by their own nature, because, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 33), the good angels are separated from them as light is from darkness; and every manifestation is made through light, as is said Eph. 5:13. In like manner they cannot learn by revelation, nor by learning from the good angels: because "there is no fellowship of light with darkness [*Vulg.: 'What fellowship hath . . . ?']" (2 Cor. 6:14). Nor can they learn by long experience: because experience comes of the senses. Consequently there is no knowledge of truth in them.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, any truth that someone knows is known either naturally, like how we understand basic principles; or by getting it from someone else, like when we learn; or through extensive experience, like the things we discover over time. Now, demons can’t know the truth by their own nature because, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 33), good angels are separated from them just like light is from darkness; and every revelation is made through light, as mentioned in Eph. 5:13. Similarly, they cannot learn through revelation or by learning from good angels because "there is no fellowship of light with darkness" (2 Cor. 6:14). They also can't gain knowledge through long experience because experience comes from the senses. As a result, they have no knowledge of the truth.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that, "certain gifts were bestowed upon the demons which, we say, have not been changed at all, but remain entire and most brilliant." Now, the knowledge of truth stands among those natural gifts. Consequently there is some knowledge of truth in them.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that, "certain gifts were given to the demons that we say have not changed at all, but remain whole and very bright." Now, the knowledge of truth is included among those natural gifts. Therefore, there is some knowledge of truth in them.

I answer that, The knowledge of truth is twofold: one which comes of nature, and one which comes of grace. The knowledge which comes of grace is likewise twofold: the first is purely speculative, as when Divine secrets are imparted to an individual; the other is effective, and produces love for God; which knowledge properly belongs to the gift of wisdom.

I respond that, the knowledge of truth is two types: one that comes from nature and one that comes from grace. The knowledge that comes from grace is also two types: the first is purely theoretical, like when Divine secrets are given to someone; the other is practical and leads to love for God; this knowledge is rightly associated with the gift of wisdom.

Of these three kinds of knowledge the first was neither taken away nor lessened in the demons. For it follows from the very nature of the angel, who, according to his nature, is an intellect or mind: since on account of the simplicity of his substance, nothing can be withdrawn from his nature, so as to punish him by subtracting from his natural powers, as a man is punished by being deprived of a hand or a foot or of something else. Therefore Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that the natural gifts remain entire in them. Consequently their natural knowledge was not diminished. The second kind of knowledge, however, which comes of grace, and consists in speculation, has not been utterly taken away from them, but lessened; because, of these Divine secrets only so much is revealed to them as is necessary; and that is done either by means of the angels, or "through some temporal workings of Divine power," as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei ix, 21); but not in the same degree as to the holy angels, to whom many more things are revealed, and more fully, in the Word Himself. But of the third knowledge, as likewise of charity, they are utterly deprived.

Of these three types of knowledge, the first was neither taken away nor reduced in the demons. This is because, by their very nature, angels are intellects or minds: due to the simplicity of their substance, nothing can be removed from their nature to punish them by taking away their natural abilities, like a person being punished by losing a hand or foot or something else. Therefore, Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv) that their natural gifts remain intact. As a result, their natural knowledge was not diminished. However, the second type of knowledge, which comes from grace and involves speculation, has not been completely removed from them, but it has been diminished. Only as much of these Divine secrets is revealed to them as is necessary, and that is done either through angels or "by some temporary workings of Divine power," as Augustine describes (De Civ. Dei ix, 21); but not to the same extent as the holy angels, who are revealed many more things in a deeper way through the Word Himself. As for the third type of knowledge, along with charity, they are completely deprived of it.

Reply Obj. 1: Happiness consists in self-application to something higher. The separated substances are above us in the order of nature; hence man can have happiness of a kind by knowing the separated substances, although his perfect happiness consists in knowing the first substance, namely, God. But it is quite natural for one separate substance to know another; as it is natural for us to know sensible natures. Hence, as man's happiness does not consist in knowing sensible natures; so neither does the angel's happiness consist in knowing separated substances.

Reply Obj. 1: Happiness comes from focusing on something greater. The separated substances are higher than us in the natural order; therefore, a person can experience a kind of happiness by knowing these separated substances, though true happiness comes from knowing the first substance, which is God. It's natural for one separate substance to understand another, just as it's natural for us to understand the physical world. Therefore, since a person's happiness doesn't come from knowing the physical world, the angel's happiness also doesn't come from knowing separated substances.

Reply Obj. 2: What is most manifest in its nature is hidden from us by its surpassing the bounds of our intellect; and not merely because our intellect draws knowledge from phantasms. Now the Divine substance surpasses the proportion not only of the human intellect, but even of the angelic. Consequently, not even an angel can of his own nature know God's substance. Yet on account of the perfection of his intellect he can of his nature have a higher knowledge of God than man can have. Such knowledge of God remains also in the demons. Although they do not possess the purity which comes with grace, nevertheless they have purity of nature; and this suffices for the knowledge of God which belongs to them from their nature.

Reply Obj. 2: What is most obvious about its nature is hidden from us because it goes beyond the limits of our intellect, and not just because our intellect gains knowledge from sensory images. The Divine essence exceeds the capacity not only of the human mind but even of the angelic mind. Therefore, not even an angel can fully understand God's essence in its own nature. However, due to the perfection of their intellect, angels can have a deeper understanding of God than humans can. This understanding of God also exists among demons. Even though they lack the purity that comes with grace, they still have a purity of nature; and this is enough for the knowledge of God that they possess by nature.

Reply Obj. 3: The creature is darkness in comparison with the excellence of the Divine light; and therefore the creature's knowledge in its own nature is called "evening" knowledge. For the evening is akin to darkness, yet it possesses some light: but when the light fails utterly, then it is night. So then the knowledge of things in their own nature, when referred to the praise of the Creator, as it is in the good angels, has something of the Divine light, and can be called evening knowledge; but if it be not referred to God, as is the case with the demons, it is not called evening, but "nocturnal" knowledge. Accordingly we read in Gen. 1:5 that the darkness, which God separated from the light, "He called night."

Reply Obj. 3: The creature is like darkness compared to the brilliance of Divine light; thus, the creature's knowledge in its own nature is referred to as "evening" knowledge. Evening is similar to darkness, yet it has some light; but when the light completely disappears, it becomes night. Therefore, the knowledge of things in their own nature, when directed toward praising the Creator, as with the good angels, has some of the Divine light and can be called evening knowledge. However, if this knowledge is not directed toward God, as is the case with demons, it is not referred to as evening, but as "nocturnal" knowledge. Accordingly, we read in Gen. 1:5 that the darkness, which God separated from the light, "He called night."

Reply Obj. 4: All the angels had some knowledge from the very beginning respecting the mystery of God's kingdom, which found its completion in Christ; and most of all from the moment when they were beatified by the vision of the Word, which vision the demons never had. Yet all the angels did not fully and equally apprehend it; hence the demons much less fully understood the mystery of the Incarnation, when Christ was in the world. For, as Augustine observes (De Civ. Dei ix, 21), "It was not manifested to them as it was to the holy angels, who enjoy a participated eternity of the Word; but it was made known by some temporal effects, so as to strike terror into them." For had they fully and certainly known that He was the Son of God and the effect of His passion, they would never have procured the crucifixion of the Lord of glory.

Reply Obj. 4: All the angels had some understanding from the very beginning about the mystery of God's kingdom, which was fulfilled in Christ; especially from the moment they experienced the vision of the Word, a vision that the demons never had. However, not all the angels understood it fully and equally; therefore, the demons had an even lesser understanding of the mystery of the Incarnation when Christ was in the world. As Augustine points out (De Civ. Dei ix, 21), "It was not revealed to them as it was to the holy angels, who share in the eternal experience of the Word; instead, it was shown to them through some temporary effects, intended to instill fear." For if they had fully and clearly known that He was the Son of God and the implications of His passion, they would never have orchestrated the crucifixion of the Lord of glory.

Reply Obj. 5: The demons know a truth in three ways: first of all by the subtlety of their nature; for although they are darkened by privation of the light of grace, yet they are enlightened by the light of their intellectual nature: secondly, by revelation from the holy angels; for while not agreeing with them in conformity of will, they do agree, nevertheless, by their likeness of intellectual nature, according to which they can accept what is manifested by others: thirdly, they know by long experience; not as deriving it from the senses; but when the similitude of their innate intelligible species is completed in individual things, they know some things as present, which they previously did not know would come to pass, as we said when dealing with the knowledge of the angels (Q. 57, A. 3, ad 3). _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: The demons understand truth in three ways: first, through the nature of their being; even though they are blinded by the absence of grace, they still have insight from their intellectual nature. Second, by revelation from the holy angels; while they don’t align with the angels in will, they share a similar intellectual nature that allows them to grasp what is revealed by others. Third, they know through extensive experience; not by sensing things directly, but when the likeness of their innate understanding comes together with particular things, they can recognize some things as present that they didn’t know would happen before, similar to what we discussed regarding the knowledge of angels (Q. 57, A. 3, ad 3).

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 64, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 64, Art. 2]

Whether the Will of the Demons Is Obstinate in Evil?

Whether the Will of the Demons Is Stubborn in Evil?

Objection 1: It would seem that the will of the demons is not obstinate in evil. For liberty of will belongs to the nature of an intellectual being, which nature remains in the demons, as we said above (A. 1). But liberty of will is directly and firstly ordained to good rather than to evil. Therefore the demons' will is not so obstinate in evil as not to be able to return to what is good.

Objection 1: It seems that the will of the demons is not stubbornly fixed in evil. The freedom of will is part of what it means to be an intellectual being, and this nature still exists in demons, as mentioned earlier (A. 1). However, the freedom of will is primarily intended for good instead of evil. Therefore, the demons' will is not so resolutely aligned with evil that it cannot turn back to what is good.

Obj. 2: Further, since God's mercy is infinite, it is greater than the demons' malice, which is finite. But no one returns from the malice of sin to the goodness of justice save through God's mercy. Therefore the demons can likewise return from their state of malice to the state of justice.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, because God's mercy is infinite, it surpasses the demons' malice, which is limited. No one can move from the evil of sin back to the goodness of justice except through God's mercy. Therefore, the demons can also return from their state of malice to a state of justice.

Obj. 3: Further, if the demons have a will obstinate in evil, then their will would be especially obstinate in the sin whereby they fell. But that sin, namely, pride, is in them no longer; because the motive for the sin no longer endures, namely, excellence. Therefore the demon is not obstinate in malice.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if the demons have a will that is stubbornly evil, then their will would be particularly stubborn in the sin that caused their fall. However, that sin, which is pride, no longer exists in them because the reason for the sin is no longer present, specifically, the desire for superiority. Therefore, the demon is not stubborn in malice.

Obj. 4: Further, Gregory says (Moral. iv) that man can be reinstated by another, since he fell through another. But, as was observed already (Q. 63, A. 8), the lower demons fell through the highest one. Therefore their fall can be repaired by another. Consequently they are not obstinate in malice.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, Gregory states (Moral. iv) that a person can be restored by someone else since they fell because of another. However, as previously noted (Q. 63, A. 8), the lower demons fell because of the highest one. Thus, their fall can be fixed by another person. Therefore, they are not stubborn in their evil.

Obj. 5: Further, whoever is obstinate in malice, never performs any good work. But the demon performs some good works: for he confesses the truth, saying to Christ: "I know Who Thou art, the holy one of God" (Mark 1:24). "The demons" also "believe and tremble" (James 2:19). And Dionysius observes (Div. Nom. iv), that "they desire what is good and best, which is, to be, to live, to understand." Therefore they are not obstinate in malice.

Obj. 5: Moreover, anyone who is stubbornly malicious never does any good actions. However, the demon does perform some good actions: for he acknowledges the truth, saying to Christ, "I know who you are, the Holy One of God" (Mark 1:24). "The demons" also "believe and tremble" (James 2:19). And Dionysius notes (Div. Nom. iv), that "they desire what is good and best, which is to exist, to live, to understand." Therefore, they are not stubbornly malicious.

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 73:23): "The pride of them that hate Thee, ascendeth continually"; and this is understood of the demons. Therefore they remain ever obstinate in their malice.

On the contrary, it is said (Ps. 73:23): "The pride of those who hate You continually rises"; and this is understood to refer to the demons. Therefore, they remain always stubborn in their malice.

I answer that, It was Origen's opinion [*Peri Archon i. 6] that every will of the creature can by reason of free-will be inclined to good and evil; with the exception of the soul of Christ on account of the union of the Word. Such a statement deprives angels and saints of true beatitude, because everlasting stability is of the very nature of true beatitude; hence it is termed "life everlasting." It is also contrary to the authority of Sacred Scripture, which declares that demons and wicked men shall be sent "into everlasting punishment," and the good brought "into everlasting life." Consequently such an opinion must be considered erroneous; while according to Catholic Faith, it must be held firmly both that the will of the good angels is confirmed in good, and that the will of the demons is obstinate in evil.

I answer that, Origen believed [*Peri Archon i. 6] that every creature has the free will to choose between good and evil, except for the soul of Christ due to the union of the Word. This view denies angels and saints the true happiness that comes from everlasting stability, which is essential to true happiness; that's why it's called "eternal life." It also contradicts the authority of Sacred Scripture, which states that demons and wicked people will be sent "into everlasting punishment," while the good will be brought "into everlasting life." Therefore, this opinion must be regarded as incorrect; instead, according to Catholic Faith, we must firmly hold that the will of good angels is firmly fixed in good, and the will of demons is stubbornly set in evil.

We must seek for the cause of this obstinacy, not in the gravity of the sin, but in the condition of their nature or state. For as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii), "death is to men, what the fall is to the angels." Now it is clear that all the mortal sins of men, grave or less grave, are pardonable before death; whereas after death they are without remission and endure for ever.

We need to look for the reason behind this stubbornness, not in the seriousness of the sin, but in the state of their nature or condition. As Damascene states (De Fide Orth. ii), "death is to humans what the fall is to angels." It's clear that all mortal sins committed by humans, whether serious or not, can be forgiven before death; however, after death, they cannot be forgiven and last forever.

To find the cause, then, of this obstinacy, it must be borne in mind that the appetitive power is in all things proportioned to the apprehensive, whereby it is moved, as the movable by its mover. For the sensitive appetite seeks a particular good; while the will seeks the universal good, as was said above (Q. 59, A. 1); as also the sense apprehends particular objects, while the intellect considers universals. Now the angel's apprehension differs from man's in this respect, that the angel by his intellect apprehends immovably, as we apprehend immovably first principles which are the object of the habit of "intelligence"; whereas man by his reason apprehends movably, passing from one consideration to another; and having the way open by which he may proceed to either of two opposites. Consequently man's will adheres to a thing movably, and with the power of forsaking it and of clinging to the opposite; whereas the angel's will adheres fixedly and immovably. Therefore, if his will be considered before its adhesion, it can freely adhere either to this or to its opposite (namely, in such things as he does not will naturally); but after he has once adhered, he clings immovably. So it is customary to say that man's free-will is flexible to the opposite both before and after choice; but the angel's free-will is flexible either opposite before the choice, but not after. Therefore the good angels who adhered to justice, were confirmed therein; whereas the wicked ones, sinning, are obstinate in sin. Later on we shall treat of the obstinacy of men who are damned (Suppl., Q. 98, AA. 1, 2).

To find the reason for this stubbornness, it’s important to remember that the appetitive power in all beings is proportional to the apprehensive one, which it moves, like something movable is moved by its mover. The sensitive appetite seeks a specific good, while the will seeks the universal good, as mentioned earlier (Q. 59, A. 1); similarly, the senses perceive specific objects, while the intellect considers universals. The way angels perceive differs from humans in that angels grasp things immovably with their intellect, just as we grasp fundamental principles, which are the focus of our intelligence; on the other hand, humans understand with their reason in a movable manner, shifting from one consideration to another and having the option to choose between two opposites. As a result, a person’s will is attached to something in a movable way, with the ability to abandon it and grasp its opposite, while an angel's will is attached firmly and immovably. Therefore, if we think of an angel's will before it clings to something, it can freely attach itself to either this or its opposite (specifically in cases that it doesn’t naturally will); but once it has made an attachment, it holds firmly. It is often said that human free will is flexible toward opposites both before and after making a choice, while an angel's free will is flexible toward either opposite before making a choice, but not after. Consequently, the good angels who chose to align with justice were confirmed in that choice; meanwhile, the wicked angels, in their sin, remain stubborn in their wrongdoing. Later, we will discuss the stubbornness of the damned (Suppl., Q. 98, AA. 1, 2).

Reply Obj. 1: The good and wicked angels have free-will, but according to the manner and condition of their state, as has been said.

Reply Obj. 1: Both good and evil angels have free will, but this exists according to their specific nature and situation, as previously mentioned.

Reply Obj. 2: God's mercy delivers from sin those who repent. But such as are not capable of repenting, cling immovably to sin, and are not delivered by the Divine mercy.

Reply Obj. 2: God's mercy saves from sin those who repent. However, those who cannot repent hold onto sin firmly and are not saved by Divine mercy.

Reply Obj. 3: The devil's first sin still remains in him according to desire; although not as to his believing that he can obtain what he desired. Even so, if a man were to believe that he can commit murder, and wills to commit it, and afterwards the power is taken from him; nevertheless, the will to murder can stay with him, so that he would he had done it, or still would do it if he could.

Reply Obj. 3: The devil's original sin still exists within him in terms of desire, even though he no longer believes he can achieve what he wanted. Similarly, if a person believes they can commit murder and intends to do it, but later loses the ability to carry it out, the desire to murder can still remain with them, so that they might feel they have done it or would still do it if they had the chance.

Reply Obj. 4: The fact that man sinned from another's suggestion, is not the whole cause of man's sin being pardonable. Consequently the argument does not hold good.

Reply Obj. 4: Just because a person sinned because of someone else's suggestion doesn't mean that their sin isn't forgivable. Therefore, the argument is invalid.

Reply Obj. 5: A demon's act is twofold. One comes of deliberate will; and this is properly called his own act. Such an act on the demon's part is always wicked; because, although at times he does something good, yet he does not do it well; as when he tells the truth in order to deceive; and when he believes and confesses, yet not willingly, but compelled by the evidence of things. Another kind of act is natural to the demon; this can be good and bears witness to the goodness of nature. Yet he abuses even such good acts to evil purpose. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: A demon's actions are twofold. One comes from deliberate will, and this is rightly called his own action. This type of action from the demon is always evil; because, even though he occasionally does something good, he does not do it well. For example, when he tells the truth to deceive or when he believes and confesses, but not willingly—rather, he’s forced by the evidence of things. The other type of action is natural to the demon; this can be good and reflects the goodness of his nature. However, he misuses even such good actions for evil purposes.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 64, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 64, Art. 3]

Whether There Is Sorrow in the Demons?

Do Demons Feel Sadness?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is no sorrow in the demons. For since sorrow and joy are opposites, they cannot be together in the same subject. But there is joy in the demons: for Augustine writing against the Maniches (De Gen. Contra Manich. ii, 17) says: "The devil has power over them who despise God's commandments, and he rejoices over this sinister power." Therefore there is no sorrow in the demons.

Objection 1: It appears that demons do not experience sorrow. Since sorrow and joy are opposites, they can't exist together in the same being. However, demons do experience joy: Augustine, writing against the Manicheans (De Gen. Contra Manich. ii, 17), states, "The devil has power over those who disregard God's commandments, and he takes pleasure in this dark power." Therefore, demons do not feel sorrow.

Obj. 2: Further, sorrow is the cause of fear, for those things cause fear while they are future, which cause sorrow when they are present. But there is no fear in the demons, according to Job 41:24, "Who was made to fear no one." Therefore there is no grief in the demons.

Obj. 2: Also, sadness is the root of fear, because those things that cause fear when they are still ahead also bring sadness when they occur. However, demons don’t experience fear, as stated in Job 41:24, "Who was made to fear no one." So, demons do not feel grief.

Obj. 3: Further, it is a good thing to be sorry for evil. But the demons can do no good action. Therefore they cannot be sorry, at least for the evil of sin; which applies to the worm of conscience.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, feeling remorse for wrongdoing is a good thing. However, demons are incapable of doing anything good. Therefore, they cannot feel remorse, at least not for the wrongdoing of sin, which relates to the torment of conscience.

On the contrary, The demon's sin is greater than man's sin. But man is punished with sorrow on account of the pleasure taken in sin, according to Apoc. 18:7, "As much as she hath glorified herself, and lived in delicacies, so much torment and sorrow give ye to her." Consequently much more is the devil punished with the grief of sorrow, because he especially glorified himself.

On the contrary, the demon's sin is greater than man's sin. However, man is punished with sorrow due to the pleasure he finds in sin, as stated in Apoc. 18:7, "As much as she has glorified herself and lived in luxury, so much torment and sorrow give to her." Therefore, the devil is punished even more with sorrow because he has particularly glorified himself.

I answer that, Fear, sorrow, joy, and the like, so far as they are passions, cannot exist in the demons; for thus they are proper to the sensitive appetite, which is a power in a corporeal organ. According, however, as they denote simple acts of the will, they can be in the demons. And it must be said that there is sorrow in them; because sorrow, as denoting a simple act of the will, is nothing else than the resistance of the will to what is, or to what is not. Now it is evident that the demons would wish many things not to be, which are, and others to be, which are not: for, out of envy, they would wish others to be damned, who are saved. Consequently, sorrow must be said to exist in them: and especially because it is of the very notion of punishment for it to be repugnant to the will. Moreover, they are deprived of happiness, which they desire naturally; and their wicked will is curbed in many respects.

I respond that fear, sadness, joy, and similar emotions, as passions, cannot exist in demons; they are tied to the sensitive appetite, which operates through a physical organ. However, as these emotions express simple acts of the will, they can be present in demons. It should be noted that there is sadness in them; sadness, as an expression of the will, is simply the will's resistance to what exists or does not exist. It is clear that demons wish for many things that are to not exist and for others that are not to come into being; out of envy, they desire for the saved to be damned. Therefore, we must acknowledge that sadness exists in them, particularly because the essence of punishment includes being at odds with the will. Furthermore, they are deprived of the happiness they naturally desire, and their malicious will is restricted in many ways.

Reply Obj. 1: Joy and sorrow about the same thing are opposites, but not about different things. Hence there is nothing to hinder a man from being sorry for one thing, and joyful for another; especially so far as sorrow and joy imply simple acts of the will; because, not merely in different things, but even in one and the same thing, there can be something that we will, and something that we will not.

Reply Obj. 1: Joy and sorrow about the same thing are opposites, but not about different things. Therefore, there’s nothing stopping someone from feeling sad about one thing and happy about another; particularly since sorrow and joy involve straightforward acts of the will. In fact, it's possible to want one aspect of a situation and not want another, even when it’s all about the same thing.

Reply Obj. 2: As there is sorrow in the demons over present evil, so also there is fear of future evil. Now when it is said, "He was made to fear no one," this is to be understood of the fear of God which restrains from sin. For it is written elsewhere that "the devils believe and tremble" (James 2:19).

Reply Obj. 2: Just as demons feel sorrow over current evil, they also experience fear of future evil. When it is said, "He was made to fear no one," this refers to the fear of God that keeps one from sinning. It is written elsewhere that "the devils believe and tremble" (James 2:19).

Reply Obj. 3: To be sorry for the evil of sin on account of the sin bears witness to the goodness of the will, to which the evil of sin is opposed. But to be sorry for the evil of punishment, or for the evil of sin on account of the punishment, bears witness to the goodness of nature, to which the evil of punishment is opposed. Hence Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xix, 13), that "sorrow for good lost by punishment, is the witness to a good nature." Consequently, since the demon has a perverse and obstinate will, he is not sorry for the evil of sin. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Being sorry for the wrong of sin because of the sin itself shows the goodness of the will, which is opposed to the wrong of sin. However, being sorry for the harm of punishment, or for the harm of sin because of the punishment, shows the goodness of nature, which is opposed to the harm of punishment. Therefore, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xix, 13) that "sorrow for the good lost due to punishment is a sign of a good nature." Thus, since the demon has a twisted and stubborn will, he does not feel remorse for the wrong of sin. _______________________

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 64, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 64, Art. 4]

Whether Our Atmosphere Is the Demons' Place of Punishment?

Whether Our Atmosphere Is the Demons' Place of Punishment?

Objection 1: It would seem that this atmosphere is not the demons' place of punishment. For a demon is a spiritual nature. But a spiritual nature is not affected by place. Therefore there is no place of punishment for demons.

Objection 1: It seems that this atmosphere is not the demons' place of punishment. A demon is a spiritual being. But a spiritual being isn’t impacted by location. Therefore, there is no place of punishment for demons.

Obj. 2: Further, man's sin is not graver than the demons'. But man's place of punishment is hell. Much more, therefore, is it the demons' place of punishment; and consequently not the darksome atmosphere.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, human sin is not worse than that of demons. However, humans are punished in hell. Therefore, it is even more so for demons, and as a result, it’s not just the gloomy environment.

Obj. 3: Further, the demons are punished with the pain of fire. But there is no fire in the darksome atmosphere. Therefore the darksome atmosphere is not the place of punishment for the demons.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the demons are tormented by the agony of fire. But there is no fire in the dark atmosphere. Therefore, the dark atmosphere is not the place of punishment for the demons.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iii, 10), that "the darksome atmosphere is as a prison to the demons until the judgment day."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iii, 10), that "the dark atmosphere is like a prison for the demons until judgment day."

I answer that, The angels in their own nature stand midway between God and men. Now the order of Divine providence so disposes, that it procures the welfare of the inferior orders through the superior. But man's welfare is disposed by Divine providence in two ways: first of all, directly, when a man is brought unto good and withheld from evil; and this is fittingly done through the good angels. In another way, indirectly, as when anyone assailed is exercised by fighting against opposition. It was fitting for this procuring of man's welfare to be brought about through the wicked spirits, lest they should cease to be of service in the natural order. Consequently a twofold place of punishment is due to the demons: one, by reason of their sin, and this is hell; and another, in order that they may tempt men, and thus the darksome atmosphere is their due place of punishment.

I answer that, the angels are naturally positioned between God and humans. The way Divine providence is organized helps ensure the well-being of lower beings through those who are higher. Humanity's well-being is managed by Divine providence in two ways: first, directly, when a person is guided towards good and kept away from evil; and this is appropriately handled by good angels. The second way is indirectly, as when someone is challenged and strengthened by resisting opposition. It makes sense that the welfare of humanity be supported through evil spirits, so they remain relevant in the natural order. As a result, the demons deserve a dual punishment: one for their sins, which is hell; and another, so that they can tempt humans, making the dark realm their fitting place of punishment.

Now the procuring of men's salvation is prolonged even to the judgment day: consequently, the ministry of the angels and wrestling with demons endure until then. Hence until then the good angels are sent to us here; and the demons are in this dark atmosphere for our trial: although some of them are even now in hell, to torment those whom they have led astray; just as some of the good angels are with the holy souls in heaven. But after the judgment day all the wicked, both men and angels, will be in hell, and the good in heaven.

Now the process of securing people's salvation continues all the way to judgment day; as a result, the ministry of angels and the struggle against demons persists until then. Until that time, good angels are sent to us here, and demons inhabit this dark world to test us; although some of them are already in hell, tormenting those they have misled, just as some good angels are with the holy souls in heaven. But after judgment day, all the wicked, both humans and angels, will be in hell, while the good will be in heaven.

Reply Obj. 1: A place is not penal to angel or soul as if affecting the nature by changing it, but as affecting the will by saddening it: because the angel or the soul apprehends that it is in a place not agreeable to its will.

Reply Obj. 1: A place doesn’t punish an angel or a soul by changing its nature, but by affecting its will and making it feel downcast: because the angel or soul realizes it is in a place that isn't in line with its desires.

Reply Obj. 2: One soul is not set over another in the order of nature, as the demons are over men in the order of nature; consequently there is no parallel.

Reply Obj. 2: One soul is not positioned above another in the natural order, like demons are over humans; therefore, there is no comparison.

Reply Obj. 3: Some have maintained that the pain of sense for demons and souls is postponed until the judgment day: and that the beatitude of the saints is likewise postponed until the judgment day. But this is erroneous, and contrary to the teaching of the Apostle (2 Cor. 5:1): "If our earthly house of this habitation be dissolved, we have a house in heaven." Others, again, while not admitting the same of souls, admit it as to demons. But it is better to say that the same judgment is passed upon wicked souls and wicked angels, even as on good souls and good angels.

Reply Obj. 3: Some people argue that the suffering of demons and souls is delayed until judgment day, and that the happiness of the saints is also postponed until then. However, this is incorrect and goes against the Apostle's teaching (2 Cor. 5:1): "If our earthly house of this habitation is dissolved, we have a house in heaven." Others, while rejecting this idea for souls, agree it applies to demons. But it’s better to say that the same judgment applies to wicked souls and wicked angels, just like it does for good souls and good angels.

Consequently, it must be said that, although a heavenly place belongs to the glory of the angels, yet their glory is not lessened by their coming to us, for they consider that place to be their own; in the same way as we say that the bishop's honor is not lessened while he is not actually sitting on his throne. In like manner it must be said, that although the demons are not actually bound within the fire of hell while they are in this dark atmosphere, nevertheless their punishment is none the less; because they know that such confinement is their due. Hence it is said in a gloss upon James 3:6: "They carry fire of hell with them wherever they go." Nor is this contrary to what is said (Luke 8:31), "They besought the Lord not to cast them into the abyss"; for they asked for this, deeming it to be a punishment for them to be cast out of a place where they could injure men. Hence it is stated, "They [Vulg. 'He'] besought Him that He would not expel them [Vulg. 'him'] out of the country" (Mark 5:10). _______________________

As a result, we can say that while a heavenly place reflects the glory of the angels, their glory isn't diminished by coming to us, as they regard that place as their own; similar to how we can say that a bishop's honor isn't lessened when he's not sitting on his throne. Likewise, it should be noted that even though demons aren't physically trapped in the fire of hell while existing in this dark environment, they still face punishment; they are aware that such confinement is what they deserve. That's why it’s noted in a commentary on James 3:6: "They carry the fire of hell with them wherever they go." This isn't in conflict with what it says in Luke 8:31, "They begged the Lord not to send them into the abyss," because they requested this, believing it to be a punishment to be cast out of a place where they could harm people. Thus, it is mentioned, "They [Vulg. 'He'] begged Him not to send them [Vulg. 'him'] out of the region" (Mark 5:10).

TREATISE ON THE WORK OF THE SIX DAYS (QQ. 65-74) _______________________

TREATISE ON THE WORK OF THE SIX DAYS (QQ. 65-74) _______________________

QUESTION 65

THE WORK OF CREATION OF CORPOREAL CREATURES
(In Four Articles)

THE WORK OF CREATING PHYSICAL BEINGS
(In Four Parts)

From the consideration of spiritual creatures we proceed to that of corporeal creatures, in the production of which, as Holy Scripture makes mention, three works are found, namely, the work of creation, as given in the words, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth"; the work of distinction as given in the words, "He divided the light from the darkness, and the waters that are above the firmament from the waters that are under the firmament"; and the work of adornment, expressed thus, "Let there be lights in the firmament."

Starting with spiritual beings, we move on to physical beings, in the creation of which, as stated in the Holy Scripture, three actions are present: the act of creation, as noted in the phrase, "In the beginning, God created heaven and earth"; the act of separation, as expressed in the words, "He divided the light from the darkness, and the waters above the sky from the waters below the sky"; and the act of beautification, stated as, "Let there be lights in the sky."

First, then, we must consider the work of creation; secondly, the work of distinction; and thirdly, the work of adornment. Under the first head there are four points of inquiry:

First, we need to think about the work of creation; second, the work of distinction; and third, the work of embellishment. Under the first topic, there are four points to explore:

(1) Whether corporeal creatures are from God?

(1) Are physical beings created by God?

(2) Whether they were created on account of God's goodness?

(2) Were they created because of God's goodness?

(3) Whether they were created by God through the medium of the angels?

(3) Were they created by God through the angels?

(4) Whether the forms of bodies are from the angels or immediately from God. _______________________

(4) Whether the shapes of bodies come from angels or directly from God.

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 65, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 65, Art. 1]

Whether Corporeal Creatures Are from God?

Whether Physical Beings Come from God?

Objection 1: It would seem that corporeal creatures are not from God. For it is said (Eccles. 3:14): "I have learned that all the works which God hath made, continue for ever." But visible bodies do not continue for ever, for it is said (2 Cor. 4:18): "The things which are seen are temporal, but the things which are not seen are eternal." Therefore God did not make visible bodies.

Objection 1: It seems that physical creatures do not come from God. For it is said (Eccles. 3:14): "I have learned that all the works which God has made last forever." But visible bodies do not last forever, since it is said (2 Cor. 4:18): "The things that are seen are temporary, but the things that are not seen are eternal." Therefore, God did not create visible bodies.

Obj. 2: Further, it is said (Gen. 1:31): "God saw all things that He had made, and they were very good." But corporeal creatures are evil, since we find them harmful in many ways; as may be seen in serpents, in the sun's heat, and other things. Now a thing is called evil, in so far as it is harmful. Corporeal creatures, therefore, are not from God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, it is stated (Gen. 1:31): "God saw everything He had made, and it was very good." However, physical creatures can be harmful, as seen in serpents, the heat of the sun, and other things. Something is considered evil when it causes harm. Therefore, physical creatures are not from God.

Obj. 3: Further, what is from God does not withdraw us from God, but leads us to Him. But corporeal creatures withdraw us from God. Hence the Apostle (2 Cor. 4:18): "While we look not at the things which are seen." Corporeal creatures, therefore, are not from God.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, what comes from God doesn't distance us from Him but brings us closer. However, physical beings pull us away from God. That's why the Apostle says (2 Cor. 4:18): "While we look not at the things which are seen." Therefore, physical beings are not from God.

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 145:6): "Who made heaven and earth, the sea, and all things that are in them."

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 145:6): "Who made heaven and earth, the sea, and everything in them."

I answer that, Certain heretics maintain that visible things are not created by the good God, but by an evil principle, and allege in proof of their error the words of the Apostle (2 Cor. 4:4), "The god of this world hath blinded the minds of unbelievers." But this position is altogether untenable. For, if things that differ agree in some point, there must be some cause for that agreement, since things diverse in nature cannot be united of themselves. Hence whenever in different things some one thing common to all is found, it must be that these different things receive that one thing from some one cause, as different bodies that are hot receive their heat from fire. But being is found to be common to all things, however otherwise different. There must, therefore, be one principle of being from which all things in whatever way existing have their being, whether they are invisible and spiritual, or visible and corporeal. But the devil is called the god of this world, not as having created it, but because worldlings serve him, of whom also the Apostle says, speaking in the same sense, "Whose god is their belly" (Phil. 3:19).

I answer that, Some heretics claim that visible things weren't created by the good God, but by an evil force, pointing to the Apostle's words (2 Cor. 4:4), "The god of this world has blinded the minds of unbelievers," as evidence of their mistake. However, this view is completely unfounded. If different things share some common aspect, there must be a reason for that connection, since diverse entities can't unite on their own. Therefore, whenever there is something shared among different things, it must be that these varied entities receive that shared aspect from a single source, like different hot objects gaining their heat from fire. Being is found to be common to all things, regardless of their differences. Thus, there must be one source of being from which all things, regardless of their nature—whether invisible and spiritual, or visible and physical—derive their existence. The devil is called the god of this world, not because he created it, but because people in the world serve him, which is similar to what the Apostle says, "Whose god is their belly" (Phil. 3:19).

Reply Obj. 1: All the creatures of God in some respects continue for ever, at least as to matter, since what is created will never be annihilated, even though it be corruptible. And the nearer a creature approaches God, Who is immovable, the more it also is immovable. For corruptible creatures endure for ever as regards their matter, though they change as regards their substantial form. But incorruptible creatures endure with respect to their substance, though they are mutable in other respects, such as place, for instance, the heavenly bodies; or the affections, as spiritual creatures. But the Apostle's words, "The things which are seen are temporal," though true even as regards such things considered in themselves (in so far as every visible creature is subject to time, either as to being or as to movement), are intended to apply to visible things in so far as they are offered to man as rewards. For such rewards, as consist in these visible things, are temporal; while those that are invisible endure for ever. Hence he said before (2 Cor. 4:17): "It worketh for us . . . an eternal weight of glory."

Reply Obj. 1: All of God's creatures last forever in some ways, at least when it comes to their matter, since what is created will never be completely destroyed, even if it can decay. The closer a creature is to God, Who is unchanging, the more stable it also becomes. Corruptible creatures last eternally in terms of their matter, even though they change in their essential form. However, incorruptible creatures last with respect to their nature, although they can change in other aspects, like location, as seen with heavenly bodies, or emotions, like spiritual beings. The Apostle's statement, "The things which are seen are temporary," is accurate when considering these things on their own (since every visible creature is subject to time, either in its existence or movement), but it's meant to refer to visible things as they are presented to humans as rewards. These rewards, which consist of visible things, are temporary; whereas the invisible rewards last forever. That's why he previously said (2 Cor. 4:17): "It works for us... an eternal weight of glory."

Reply Obj. 2: Corporeal creatures according to their nature are good, though this good is not universal, but partial and limited, the consequence of which is a certain opposition of contrary qualities, though each quality is good in itself. To those, however, who estimate things, not by the nature thereof, but by the good they themselves can derive therefrom, everything which is harmful to themselves seems simply evil. For they do not reflect that what is in some way injurious to one person, to another is beneficial, and that even to themselves the same thing may be evil in some respects, but good in others. And this could not be, if bodies were essentially evil and harmful.

Reply Obj. 2: Physical creatures are fundamentally good, though this goodness isn't universal; it's partial and limited. This leads to a certain opposition of conflicting qualities, even though each quality is good in its own right. However, for those who judge things not by their inherent nature but by the good they can personally gain from them, everything that harms them appears purely evil. They fail to realize that what is harmful to one person can be beneficial to another, and that even for themselves, the same thing might be harmful in some ways but beneficial in others. This couldn't be true if physical beings were essentially evil and harmful.

Reply Obj. 3: Creatures of themselves do not withdraw us from God, but lead us to Him; for "the invisible things of God are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made" (Rom. 1:20). If, then, they withdraw men from God, it is the fault of those who use them foolishly. Thus it is said (Wis. 14:11): "Creatures are turned into a snare to the feet of the unwise." And the very fact that they can thus withdraw us from God proves that they came from Him, for they cannot lead the foolish away from God except by the allurements of some good that they have from Him. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Creatures don’t take us away from God on their own; instead, they guide us to Him. As it says, "the invisible things of God are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made" (Rom. 1:20). If they do lead people away, it’s because those people are using them wrongly. It’s also stated (Wis. 14:11): "Creatures are turned into a snare to the feet of the unwise." The fact that they can distract us from God shows that they originate from Him because they can only mislead the foolish by offering some good that they have from Him.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 65, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 65, Art. 2]

Whether Corporeal Things Were Made on Account of God's Goodness?

Whether Physical Things Were Made Because of God's Goodness?

Objection 1: It would seem that corporeal creatures were not made on account of God's goodness. For it is said (Wis. 1:14) that God "created all things that they might be." Therefore all things were created for their own being's sake, and not on account of God's goodness.

Objection 1: It seems that physical beings were not created because of God's goodness. As it is stated (Wis. 1:14) that God "created all things that they might exist." Therefore, all things were created for their own existence, not because of God's goodness.

Obj. 2: Further, good has the nature of an end; therefore the greater good in things is the end of the lesser good. But spiritual creatures are related to corporeal creatures, as the greater good to the lesser. Corporeal creatures, therefore, are created for the sake of spiritual creatures, and not on account of God's goodness.

Obj. 2: Also, good has the quality of being an end; therefore, the greater good in things serves as the end for the lesser good. Spiritual beings are related to physical beings in the way that the greater good relates to the lesser. Physical beings, then, are created for the sake of spiritual beings, and not because of God's goodness.

Obj. 3: Further, justice does not give unequal things except to the unequal. Now God is just: therefore inequality not created by God must precede all inequality created by Him. But an inequality not created by God can only arise from free-will, and consequently all inequality results from the different movements of free-will. Now, corporeal creatures are unequal to spiritual creatures. Therefore the former were made on account of movements of free-will, and not on account of God's goodness.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, justice doesn't give unequal things except to those who are unequal. Since God is just, any inequality that isn't created by God must come before any inequality that He creates. However, an inequality that isn't created by God can only come from free will, so all inequality comes from the different choices made by free will. Physical beings are unequal to spiritual beings. Therefore, physical beings were created because of the actions of free will, not because of God's goodness.

On the contrary, It is said (Prov. 16:4): "The Lord hath made all things for Himself."

On the contrary, it is said (Prov. 16:4): "The Lord has made everything for Himself."

I answer that, Origen laid down [*Peri Archon ii.] that corporeal creatures were not made according to God's original purpose, but in punishment of the sin of spiritual creatures. For he maintained that God in the beginning made spiritual creatures only, and all of equal nature; but that of these by the use of free-will some turned to God, and, according to the measure of their conversion, were given a higher or a lower rank, retaining their simplicity; while others turned from God, and became bound to different kinds of bodies according to the degree of their turning away. But this position is erroneous. In the first place, because it is contrary to Scripture, which, after narrating the production of each kind of corporeal creatures, subjoins, "God saw that it was good" (Gen. 1), as if to say that everything was brought into being for the reason that it was good for it to be. But according to Origen's opinion, the corporeal creature was made, not because it was good that it should be, but that the evil in another might be punished. Secondly, because it would follow that the arrangement, which now exists, of the corporeal world would arise from mere chance. For it the sun's body was made what it is, that it might serve for a punishment suitable to some sin of a spiritual creature, it would follow, if other spiritual creatures had sinned in the same way as the one to punish whom the sun had been created, that many suns would exist in the world; and so of other things. But such a consequence is altogether inadmissible. Hence we must set aside this theory as false, and consider that the entire universe is constituted by all creatures, as a whole consists of its parts.

I respond that, Origen stated [*Peri Archon ii.] that physical beings were not created according to God's original intent, but as a punishment for the sins of spiritual beings. He argued that God originally created only spiritual beings, all of equal nature; however, some of these beings used their free will to turn toward God, and based on how much they turned, they were assigned a higher or lower status, while keeping their simplicity. Others turned away from God and became tied to various types of bodies based on the degree of their departure. But this viewpoint is mistaken. First, it contradicts Scripture, which, after describing the creation of each type of physical being, adds, "God saw that it was good" (Gen. 1), implying that everything was created because it was good for it to exist. According to Origen's belief, the physical being was created not because it was good for it to exist, but as a punishment for another's evil. Second, it would imply that the current arrangement of the physical world resulted from mere chance. If the sun was created in its current form to punish some sin of a spiritual being, it would follow that if other spiritual beings had sinned in the same manner as the one being punished by the sun, there would have to be many suns in the world; and this logic applies to other things as well. But such a conclusion is completely unacceptable. Therefore, we must reject this theory as false and understand that the entire universe is made up of all beings, just as a whole is composed of its parts.

Now if we wish to assign an end to any whole, and to the parts of that whole, we shall find, first, that each and every part exists for the sake of its proper act, as the eye for the act of seeing; secondly, that less honorable parts exist for the more honorable, as the senses for the intellect, the lungs for the heart; and, thirdly, that all parts are for the perfection of the whole, as the matter for the form, since the parts are, as it were, the matter of the whole. Furthermore, the whole man is on account of an extrinsic end, that end being the fruition of God. So, therefore, in the parts of the universe also every creature exists for its own proper act and perfection, and the less noble for the nobler, as those creatures that are less noble than man exist for the sake of man, whilst each and every creature exists for the perfection of the entire universe. Furthermore, the entire universe, with all its parts, is ordained towards God as its end, inasmuch as it imitates, as it were, and shows forth the Divine goodness, to the glory of God. Reasonable creatures, however, have in some special and higher manner God as their end, since they can attain to Him by their own operations, by knowing and loving Him. Thus it is plain that the Divine goodness is the end of all corporeal things.

If we want to determine a purpose for any whole and its parts, we'll first see that each part exists for its specific function, like the eye exists for seeing. Second, less important parts exist for the sake of more important ones, like the senses exist for the intellect and the lungs exist for the heart. Third, all parts contribute to the perfection of the whole, like matter for form, since the parts serve as the matter of the whole. Additionally, the whole person exists for an external purpose, which is to experience God. Similarly, in the universe, every creature exists for its own specific function and perfection, with the less noble existing for the nobler, like creatures that are less noble than humans existing for the sake of humans, while every creature contributes to the perfection of the entire universe. Moreover, the entire universe, along with all its parts, is directed towards God as its ultimate purpose, as it reflects and reveals Divine goodness, glorifying God. However, rational beings have a special and higher relationship with God as their purpose because they can reach Him through their own actions by knowing and loving Him. Thus, it is clear that Divine goodness is the ultimate purpose of all physical things.

Reply Obj. 1: In the very fact of any creature possessing being, it represents the Divine being and Its goodness. And, therefore, that God created all things, that they might have being, does not exclude that He created them for His own goodness.

Reply Obj. 1: The very existence of any creature reflects the Divine being and Its goodness. Therefore, the fact that God created all things so they could exist doesn’t mean He didn’t create them for His own goodness.

Reply Obj. 2: The proximate end does not exclude the ultimate end. Therefore that corporeal creatures were, in a manner, made for the sake of the spiritual, does not prevent their being made on account of God's goodness.

Reply Obj. 2: The immediate purpose doesn’t rule out the ultimate purpose. So, the fact that physical beings were created, in a sense, for the sake of the spiritual doesn't stop them from being created because of God's goodness.

Reply Obj. 3: Equality of justice has its place in retribution, since equal rewards or punishments are due to equal merit or demerit. But this does not apply to things as at first instituted. For just as an architect, without injustice, places stones of the same kind in different parts of a building, not on account of any antecedent difference in the stones, but with a view to securing that perfection of the entire building, which could not be obtained except by the different positions of the stones; even so, God from the beginning, to secure perfection in the universe, has set therein creatures of various and unequal natures, according to His wisdom, and without injustice, since no diversity of merit is presupposed. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The principle of equal justice is relevant in retribution because equal rewards or punishments are deserved for equal merit or demerit. However, this does not apply to the way things were initially created. Just as an architect can place stones of the same type in different areas of a building without any unfairness, not because the stones are inherently different but to achieve the overall perfection of the structure—which couldn't be accomplished without the varied placement of the stones—similarly, God, from the very beginning, has created a universe with a variety of unequal beings according to His wisdom, and without injustice, since no prior difference in merit is assumed.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 65, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 65, Art. 3]

Whether Corporeal Creatures Were Produced by God Through the Medium of the Angels?

Whether physical beings were created by God through the agency of angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that corporeal creatures were produced by God through the medium of the angels. For, as all things are governed by the Divine wisdom, so by it were all things made, according to Ps. 103:24: "Thou hast made all things in wisdom." But "it belongs to wisdom to ordain," as stated in the beginning of the Metaphysics (i, 2). Hence in the government of things the lower is ruled by the higher in a certain fitting order, as Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4). Therefore in the production of things it was ordained that the corporeal should be produced by the spiritual, as the lower by the higher.

Objection 1: It seems that physical creatures were created by God through the agency of angels. Just as everything is governed by Divine wisdom, everything was made through it, as stated in Ps. 103:24: "You made all things in wisdom." But "it belongs to wisdom to arrange," as mentioned at the beginning of the Metaphysics (i, 2). Therefore, in the governance of things, the lower is directed by the higher in a fitting order, as Augustine notes (De Trin. iii, 4). Thus, in the creation of things, it was determined that the physical should be created by the spiritual, just as the lower is created by the higher.

Obj. 2: Further, diversity of effects shows diversity of causes, since like always produces like. If then all creatures, both spiritual and corporeal, were produced immediately by God, there would be no diversity in creatures, for one would not be further removed from God than another. But this is clearly false; for the Philosopher says that some things are corruptible because they are far removed from God (De Gen. et Corrup. ii, text. 59).

Obj. 2: Additionally, the variety of effects indicates a variety of causes, since similar things produce similar results. If all creatures, both spiritual and physical, were created directly by God, there would be no diversity among creatures, as none would be any further from God than others. But this is clearly not true; as the Philosopher states, some things are corruptible because they are distanced from God (De Gen. et Corrup. ii, text. 59).

Obj. 3: Further, infinite power is not required to produce a finite effect. But every corporeal thing is finite. Therefore, it could be, and was, produced by the finite power of spiritual creatures: for in suchlike beings there is no distinction between what is and what is possible: especially as no dignity befitting a nature is denied to that nature, unless it be in punishment of a fault.

Obj. 3: Additionally, infinite power isn’t necessary to create a finite effect. Since every physical thing is finite, it could be—and was—created by the finite power of spiritual beings. In such beings, there’s no real distinction between what exists and what is possible, especially since no dignity appropriate to a nature is denied to that nature unless it is due to the punishment of a fault.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 1:1): "In the beginning God created heaven and earth"; by which are understood corporeal creatures. These, therefore, were produced immediately by God.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 1:1): "In the beginning God created heaven and earth"; which refers to physical beings. These, therefore, were created directly by God.

I answer that, Some have maintained that creatures proceeded from God by degrees, in such a way that the first creature proceeded from Him immediately, and in its turn produced another, and so on until the production of corporeal creatures. But this position is untenable, since the first production of corporeal creatures is by creation, by which matter itself is produced: for in the act of coming into being the imperfect must be made before the perfect: and it is impossible that anything should be created, save by God alone.

I respond that, Some people believe that creatures came from God in stages, starting with the first creature, which came directly from Him and then created another, and this continued until physical creatures were produced. However, this idea doesn't hold up because the initial production of physical creatures is through creation, which is when matter itself comes into existence: in the process of coming to life, the imperfect must be made before the perfect; and nothing can be created except by God alone.

In proof whereof it must be borne in mind that the higher the cause, the more numerous the objects to which its causation extends. Now the underlying principle in things is always more universal than that which informs and restricts it; thus, being is more universal than living, living than understanding, matter than form. The more widely, then, one thing underlies others, the more directly does that thing proceed from a higher cause. Thus the thing that underlies primarily all things, belongs properly to the causality of the supreme cause. Therefore no secondary cause can produce anything, unless there is presupposed in the thing produced something that is caused by a higher cause. But creation is the production of a thing in its entire substance, nothing being presupposed either uncreated or created. Hence it remains that nothing can create except God alone, Who is the first cause. Therefore, in order to show that all bodies were created immediately by God, Moses said: "In the beginning God created heaven and earth."

In proof of this, it's important to remember that the greater the cause, the more numerous the effects it produces. The fundamental principle behind things is always more universal than the specific aspects that shape and limit them; thus, existence is more universal than life, life is more universal than understanding, and matter is more universal than form. The more broadly one thing supports others, the more directly it comes from a higher cause. Therefore, the thing that fundamentally supports all things belongs to the causality of the supreme cause. No secondary cause can create anything unless the created thing contains something that has been caused by a higher cause. However, creation is the act of producing something in its entirety, without presupposing anything that is uncreated or created. Therefore, only God, who is the first cause, can create. To illustrate that all things were created directly by God, Moses stated: "In the beginning God created heaven and earth."

Reply Obj. 1: In the production of things an order exists, but not such that one creature is created by another, for that is impossible; but rather such that by the Divine wisdom diverse grades are constituted in creatures.

Reply Obj. 1: In the creation of things, there is an order, but it's not the case that one being is made by another, as that is impossible; instead, it’s that Divine wisdom establishes different levels among beings.

Reply Obj. 2: God Himself, though one, has knowledge of many and different things without detriment to the simplicity of His nature, as has been shown above (Q. 15, A. 2); so that by His wisdom He is the cause of diverse things as known by Him, even as an artificer, by apprehending diverse forms, produces diverse works of art.

Reply Obj. 2: God, although one, has knowledge of many different things without losing the simplicity of His nature, as mentioned earlier (Q. 15, A. 2). Through His wisdom, He is the reason for the variety of things known to Him, just like an artist, by understanding different forms, creates various pieces of art.

Reply Obj. 3: The amount of the power of an agent is measured not only by the thing made, but also by the manner of making it; for one and the same thing is made in one way by a higher power, in another by a lower. But the production of finite things, where nothing is presupposed as existing, is the work of infinite power, and, as such, can belong to no creature. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The extent of an agent's power is determined not just by what is created, but also by how it's created; because the same thing can be produced in one way by a higher power and in another way by a lower one. However, the creation of finite things, where nothing is assumed to exist beforehand, is the result of infinite power, and therefore cannot be attributed to any creature.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 65, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 65, Art. 4]

Whether the Forms of Bodies Are from the Angels?

Whether the Shapes of Bodies Come from Angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that the forms of bodies come from the angels. For Boethius says (De Trin. i): "From forms that are without matter come the forms that are in matter." But forms that are without matter are spiritual substances, and forms that are in matter are the forms of bodies. Therefore, the forms of bodies are from spiritual substances.

Objection 1: It seems that the forms of bodies come from angels. Boethius states (De Trin. i): "Forms that exist without matter give rise to the forms that are in matter." Forms that exist without matter are spiritual substances, while forms that are in matter refer to the forms of bodies. Therefore, the forms of bodies originate from spiritual substances.

Obj. 2: Further, all that is such by participation is reduced to that which is such by its essence. But spiritual substances are forms essentially, whereas corporeal creatures have forms by participation. Therefore the forms of corporeal things are derived from spiritual substances.

Obj. 2: Additionally, everything that exists by participation is based on what exists by its essence. Spiritual substances are essentially forms, while physical beings have forms by participation. Therefore, the forms of physical things come from spiritual substances.

Obj. 3: Further, spiritual substances have more power of causation than the heavenly bodies. But the heavenly bodies give form to things here below, for which reason they are said to cause generation and corruption. Much more, therefore, are material forms derived from spiritual substances.

Obj. 3: Additionally, spiritual substances have greater causal power than heavenly bodies. However, heavenly bodies give form to things here on Earth, which is why they are said to cause creation and destruction. Therefore, material forms are even more derived from spiritual substances.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8): "We must not suppose that this corporeal matter serves the angels at their nod, but rather that it obeys God thus." But corporeal matter may be said thus to serve that from which it receives its form. Corporeal forms, then, are not from the angels, but from God.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8): "We shouldn't think that this physical matter acts on the angels' command, but rather that it follows God's will." However, physical matter can be said to serve that from which it gets its form. Therefore, physical forms do not come from the angels but from God.

I answer that, It was the opinion of some that all corporeal forms are derived from spiritual substances, which we call the angels. And there are two ways in which this has been stated. For Plato held that the forms of corporeal matter are derived from, and formed by, forms immaterially subsisting, by a kind of participation. Thus he held that there exists an immaterial man, and an immaterial horse, and so forth, and that from such the individual sensible things that we see are constituted, in so far as in corporeal matter there abides the impression received from these separate forms, by a kind of assimilation, or as he calls it, "participation" (Phaedo xlix). And, according to the Platonists, the order of forms corresponds to the order of those separate substances; for example, that there is a single separate substance, which is horse and the cause of all horses, whilst above this is separate life, or per se life, as they term it, which is the cause of all life, and that above this again is that which they call being itself, which is the cause of all being. Avicenna, however, and certain others, have maintained that the forms of corporeal things do not subsist per se in matter, but in the intellect only. Thus they say that from forms existing in the intellect of spiritual creatures (called "intelligences" by them, but "angels" by us) proceed all the forms of corporeal matter, as the form of his handiwork proceeds from the forms in the mind of the craftsman. This theory seems to be the same as that of certain heretics of modern times, who say that God indeed created all things, but that the devil formed corporeal matter, and differentiated it into species.

I answer that, Some people believe that all physical forms come from spiritual substances, which we refer to as angels. There are two main ways this has been explained. Plato suggested that the forms of physical matter come from and are shaped by immaterial forms that exist independently, in a kind of participation. He proposed that there is an immaterial version of a man, an immaterial horse, and so on, and that the individual tangible things we see are made up of these forms, as they leave an impression on physical matter, through a kind of assimilation, or what he calls "participation" (Phaedo xlix). According to the Platonists, the arrangement of forms reflects the arrangement of these separate substances; for example, they believe there is one distinct substance that is a horse, which causes all horses, and above this is a separate life, or per se life, as they describe it, which is the source of all life, and further above that is the concept of being itself, which is the source of all existence. In contrast, Avicenna and a few others argue that the forms of physical things do not exist per se in matter but only in the intellect. They claim that the forms in the intellects of spiritual beings (which they call "intelligences" but we call "angels") give rise to all the forms of physical matter, similar to how a craftsman’s creations come from the forms in his mind. This idea resembles the beliefs of certain modern heretics who say that while God created everything, the devil shaped physical matter and separated it into different species.

But all these opinions seem to have a common origin; they all, in fact, sought for a cause of forms as though the form were of itself brought into being. Whereas, as Aristotle (Metaph. vii, text. 26, 27, 28), proves, what is, properly speaking, made, is the "composite." Now, such are the forms of corruptible things that at one time they exist and at another exist not, without being themselves generated or corrupted, but by reason of the generation or corruption of the "composite"; since even forms have not being, but composites have being through forms: for, according to a thing's mode of being, is the mode in which it is brought into being. Since, then, like is produced from like, we must not look for the cause of corporeal forms in any immaterial form, but in something that is composite, as this fire is generated by that fire. Corporeal forms, therefore, are caused, not as emanations from some immaterial form, but by matter being brought from potentiality into act by some composite agent. But since the composite agent, which is a body, is moved by a created spiritual substance, as Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4, 5), it follows further that even corporeal forms are derived from spiritual substances, not emanating from them, but as the term of their movement. And, further still, the species of the angelic intellect, which are, as it were, the seminal types of corporeal forms, must be referred to God as the first cause. But in the first production of corporeal creatures no transmutation from potentiality to act can have taken place, and accordingly, the corporeal forms that bodies had when first produced came immediately form God, whose bidding alone matter obeys, as its own proper cause. To signify this, Moses prefaces each work with the words, "God said, Let this thing be," or "that," to denote the formation of all things by the Word of God, from Whom, according to Augustine [*Tract. i. in Joan. and Gen. ad lit. i. 4], is "all form and fitness and concord of parts."

But all these opinions seem to come from the same place; they all, in fact, searched for a source of forms as if the form existed on its own. However, as Aristotle proves, what is truly made is the "composite." The forms of things that can decay exist at one moment and not at another, without being themselves created or destroyed, but because of the generation or corruption of the "composite"; since even forms do not exist on their own, but composites exist through forms. The way something exists determines how it is brought into being. Since similar things produce similar things, we shouldn’t look for the cause of physical forms in any immaterial form, but in something that is composite, like fire being generated by fire. Therefore, physical forms are caused not as outflows from some immaterial form, but by matter being changed from potential to actual by some composite agent. But since that composite agent, which is a body, is moved by a created spiritual substance, as Augustine says, it follows that even physical forms come from spiritual substances, not as a flow from them, but as the result of their movement. Furthermore, the types of angelic intellect, which can be seen as the formative templates of physical forms, must be attributed to God as the first cause. But in the initial creation of physical creatures, no change from potentiality to actuality could have happened, and therefore, the physical forms that bodies had when they were first created came directly from God, who alone commands matter, as its true cause. To express this, Moses begins each creation with the words, "God said, Let this thing be," or "that," indicating that all things were formed by the Word of God, from whom, according to Augustine, comes "all form and fitness and harmony of parts."

Reply Obj. 1: By immaterial forms Boethius understands the types of things in the mind of God. Thus the Apostle says (Heb. 11:3): "By faith we understand that the world was framed by the Word of God; that from invisible things visible things might be made." But if by immaterial forms he understands the angels, we say that from them come material forms, not by emanation, but by motion.

Reply Obj. 1: By immaterial forms, Boethius refers to the kinds of things in the mind of God. As the Apostle says (Heb. 11:3): "By faith we understand that the world was created by the Word of God, so that things that are visible were made from things that are invisible." However, if he means that immaterial forms refer to angels, we argue that material forms come from them, not through emanation, but through movement.

Reply Obj. 2: Forms received into matter are to be referred, not to self-subsisting forms of the same type, as the Platonists held, but either to intelligible forms of the angelic intellect, from which they proceed by movement, or, still higher, to the types in the Divine intellect, by which the seeds of forms are implanted in created things, that they may be able to be brought by movement into act.

Reply Obj. 2: Forms that are received into matter should not be attributed to self-existing forms of the same kind, as the Platonists believed, but rather to the intelligible forms of the angelic intellect, from which they come into being through movement, or, even more fundamentally, to the types in the Divine intellect, through which the seeds of forms are planted in created things, enabling them to be brought into action through movement.

Reply Obj. 3: The heavenly bodies inform earthly ones by movement, not by emanation. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The celestial bodies influence those on Earth through their movement, not by emitting energy.

QUESTION 66

ON THE ORDER OF CREATION TOWARDS DISTINCTION
(In Four Articles)

ON THE ORDER OF CREATION TOWARDS DISTINCTION
(In Four Articles)

We must next consider the work of distinction; first, the ordering of creation towards distinction; secondly, the distinction itself. Under the first head there are four points of inquiry:

We need to look at the process of making distinctions next; first, how creation is organized for distinction; and second, the distinction itself. Under the first point, there are four areas to explore:

(1) Whether formlessness of created matter preceded in time its formation?

(1) Did the formlessness of created matter exist before its formation in time?

(2) Whether the matter of all corporeal things is the same?

(2) Is the matter of all physical things the same?

(3) Whether the empyrean heaven was created contemporaneously with formless matter?

(3) Was the empyrean heaven created at the same time as formless matter?

(4) Whether time was created simultaneously with it? _______________________

(4) Was time created at the same time as it? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 66, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 66, Art. 1]

Objection 1: It would seem that formlessness of matter preceded in time its formation. For it is said (Gen. 1:2): "The earth was void and empty," or "invisible and shapeless," according to another version [*Septuagint]; by which is understood the formlessness of matter, as Augustine says (Confess. xii, 12). Therefore matter was formless until it received its form.

Objection 1: It seems that the formless state of matter came before its formation in time. It is stated (Gen. 1:2): "The earth was void and empty," or "invisible and shapeless," according to another translation [*Septuagint]; this refers to the formless nature of matter, as Augustine explains (Confess. xii, 12). Therefore, matter was formless until it obtained its form.

Obj. 2: Further, nature in its working imitates the working of God, as a secondary cause imitates a first cause. But in the working of nature formlessness precedes form in time. It does so, therefore, in the Divine working.

Obj. 2: Moreover, nature in its actions reflects the actions of God, much like a secondary cause reflects a primary cause. In the process of nature, formlessness comes before form in time. Therefore, it must also be the case in the Divine actions.

Obj. 3: Further, matter is higher than accident, for matter is part of substance. But God can effect that accident exist without substance, as in the Sacrament of the Altar. He could, therefore, cause matter to exist without form.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, matter is more fundamental than accidents because matter is a part of substance. However, God can make accidents exist without substance, as seen in the Sacrament of the Altar. Therefore, He could cause matter to exist without form.

On the contrary, An imperfect effect proves imperfection in the agent. But God is an agent absolutely perfect; wherefore it is said of Him (Deut. 32:4): "The works of God are perfect." Therefore the work of His creation was at no time formless. Further, the formation of corporeal creatures was effected by the work of distinction. But confusion is opposed to distinction, as formlessness to form. If, therefore, formlessness preceded in time the formation of matter, it follows that at the beginning confusion, called by the ancients chaos, existed in the corporeal creation.

On the contrary, an imperfect result indicates imperfection in the agent. But God is an absolutely perfect agent; that's why it is said of Him (Deut. 32:4): "The works of God are perfect." Therefore, His creation was never formless. Moreover, the formation of physical creatures was accomplished through the process of distinction. Confusion is the opposite of distinction, just as formlessness is the opposite of form. If, then, formlessness existed before the formation of matter, it follows that at the beginning, confusion—referred to by the ancients as chaos—existed in physical creation.

I answer that, On this point holy men differ in opinion. Augustine for instance (Gen. ad lit. i, 15), believes that the formlessness of matter was not prior in time to its formation, but only in origin or the order of nature, whereas others, as Basil (Hom. ii In Hexaem.), Ambrose (In Hexaem. i), and Chrysostom (Hom. ii In Gen.), hold that formlessness of matter preceded in time its formation. And although these opinions seem mutually contradictory, in reality they differ but little; for Augustine takes the formlessness of matter in a different sense from the others. In his sense it means the absence of all form, and if we thus understand it we cannot say that the formlessness of matter was prior in time either to its formation or to its distinction. As to formation, the argument is clear. For if formless matter preceded in duration, it already existed; for this is implied by duration, since the end of creation is being in act: and act itself is a form. To say, then, that matter preceded, but without form, is to say that being existed actually, yet without act, which is a contradiction in terms. Nor can it be said that it possessed some common form, on which afterwards supervened the different forms that distinguish it. For this would be to hold the opinion of the ancient natural philosophers, who maintained that primary matter was some corporeal thing in act, as fire, air, water, or some intermediate substance. Hence, it followed that to be made means merely to be changed; for since that preceding form bestowed actual substantial being, and made some particular thing to be, it would result that the supervening form would not simply make an actual being, but 'this' actual being; which is the proper effect of an accidental form. Thus the consequent forms would be merely accidents, implying not generation, but alteration. Hence we must assert that primary matter was not created altogether formless, nor under any one common form, but under distinct forms. And so, if the formlessness of matter be taken as referring to the condition of primary matter, which in itself is formless, this formlessness did not precede in time its formation or distinction, but only in origin and nature, as Augustine says; in the same way as potentiality is prior to act, and the part to the whole. But the other holy writers understand by formlessness, not the exclusion of all form, but the absence of that beauty and comeliness which are now apparent in the corporeal creation. Accordingly they say that the formlessness of corporeal matter preceded its form in duration. And so, when this is considered, it appears that Augustine agrees with them in some respects, and in others disagrees, as will be shown later (Q. 69, A. 1; Q. 74, A. 2).

I answer that, on this point, holy men have different opinions. Augustine, for example (Gen. ad lit. i, 15), believes that the formlessness of matter wasn’t earlier in time than its formation, but only in terms of origin or natural order. Others, like Basil (Hom. ii In Hexaem.), Ambrose (In Hexaem. i), and Chrysostom (Hom. ii In Gen.), believe that the formlessness of matter came before its formation in time. While these views seem to contradict each other, they don’t actually differ much; Augustine interprets the formlessness of matter differently than the others. For him, it means the complete absence of form. If we understand it this way, we can’t say that the formlessness of matter existed prior to its formation or distinction. The argument is clear regarding formation. If formless matter came before in duration, it already existed, since duration implies existence, and the purpose of creation is to be in action; and action itself is a form. So, to say that matter came first but without form is to claim that being existed actually, yet without action, which is contradictory. It also can’t be claimed that it had some common form, from which different forms later emerged. This would reflect the views of ancient natural philosophers, who believed that primary matter was a corporeal thing in action, like fire, air, water, or some intermediate substance. Thus, to be made would mean simply being changed; since that initial form gave actual substantial being and made something exist, it would follow that the additional form wouldn’t just create an actual being but 'this' actual being, which is the result of an accidental form. Therefore, the subsequent forms would merely be accidents, suggesting alteration rather than generation. Hence, we must assert that primary matter was not created entirely formless, nor under any single common form, but under distinct forms. So, if we consider the formlessness of matter as referring to the condition of primary matter, which in itself is formless, this formlessness did not precede in time its formation or distinction but only in origin and nature, as Augustine states; similar to how potentiality is prior to action, and a part is prior to the whole. The other holy writers, however, interpret formlessness not as a lack of all form, but as the absence of the beauty and attractiveness now seen in corporeal creation. Therefore, they claim that the formlessness of corporeal matter came before its form in duration. Considering this, it seems that Augustine agrees with them in some aspects, while disagreeing in others, as will be explained later (Q. 69, A. 1; Q. 74, A. 2).

As far as may be gathered from the text of Genesis a threefold beauty was wanting to corporeal creatures, for which reason they are said to be without form. For the beauty of light was wanting to all that transparent body which we call the heavens, whence it is said that "darkness was upon the fact of the deep." And the earth lacked beauty in two ways: first, that beauty which it acquired when its watery veil was withdrawn, and so we read that "the earth was void," or "invisible," inasmuch as the waters covered and concealed it from view; secondly, that which it derives from being adorned by herbs and plants, for which reason it is called "empty," or, according to another reading [*Septuagint], "shapeless"—that is, unadorned. Thus after mention of two created natures, the heaven and the earth, the formlessness of the heaven is indicated by the words, "darkness was upon the face of the deep," since the air is included under heaven; and the formlessness of the earth, by the words, "the earth was void and empty."

From the text of Genesis, it can be understood that physical beings were lacking a threefold beauty, which is why they are described as formless. The beauty of light was absent from the clear body we call the heavens, leading to the statement that "darkness was upon the face of the deep." The earth lacked beauty in two ways: first, it gained beauty when its watery cover was lifted, which is why it is noted that "the earth was void," or "invisible," as the waters hid and obscured it from sight; second, it lacked the beauty that comes from being decorated with plants and herbs, which is why it is referred to as "empty," or according to another translation [*Septuagint], "shapeless"—meaning undecorated. Thus, after mentioning the two created natures, heaven and earth, the formlessness of heaven is shown by the phrase, "darkness was upon the face of the deep," since air is included in heaven; and the formlessness of the earth is denoted by the words, "the earth was void and empty."

Reply Obj. 1: The word earth is taken differently in this passage by Augustine, and by other writers. Augustine holds that by the words "earth" and "water," in this passage, primary matter itself is signified on account of its being impossible for Moses to make the idea of such matter intelligible to an ignorant people, except under the similitude of well-known objects. Hence he uses a variety of figures in speaking of it, calling it not water only, nor earth only, lest they should think it to be in very truth water or earth. At the same time it has so far a likeness to earth, in that it is susceptible of form, and to water in its adaptability to a variety of forms. In this respect, then, the earth is said to be "void and empty," or "invisible and shapeless," that matter is known by means of form. Hence, considered in itself, it is called "invisible" or "void," and its potentiality is completed by form; thus Plato says that matter is "place" [*Timaeus, quoted by Aristotle, Phys. iv, text. 15]. But other holy writers understand by earth the element of earth, and we have said (A. 1) how, in this sense, the earth was, according to them, without form.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine and other writers interpret the word "earth" differently in this passage. Augustine believes that by using the terms "earth" and "water," he is referring to primary matter itself, since it would be impossible for Moses to explain such abstract concepts to an uneducated people without comparing them to familiar objects. Therefore, he uses various figures to describe it, calling it neither water nor earth alone, to prevent them from thinking it is literally water or earth. At the same time, it resembles earth in that it can take on a form, and it resembles water in its ability to adapt to different forms. In this way, the earth is described as "void and empty" or "invisible and shapeless," indicating that matter is understood through form. Thus, when viewed on its own, it is termed "invisible" or "void," and its potential is realized through form; hence, Plato states that matter is "place" [*Timaeus, quoted by Aristotle, Phys. iv, text. 15]. However, other holy writers interpret "earth" as the element of earth, and we have stated (A. 1) how, in this sense, they believe the earth was formless.

Reply Obj. 2: Nature produces effect in act from being in potentiality; and consequently in the operations of nature potentiality must precede act in time, and formlessness precede form. But God produces being in act out of nothing, and can, therefore, produce a perfect thing in an instant, according to the greatness of His power.

Reply Obj. 2: Nature brings about effects in action from being in potential; therefore, in nature's operations, potentiality must come before action in time, and formlessness must come before form. However, God creates being in action out of nothing, and can, therefore, create a perfect thing in an instant, proportional to His power.

Reply Obj. 3: Accident, inasmuch as it is a form, is a kind of act; whereas matter, as such, is essentially being in potentiality. Hence it is more repugnant that matter should be in act without form, than for accident to be without subject.

Reply Obj. 3: An accident, as a form, is a type of act; whereas matter, in itself, is fundamentally being in potentiality. Therefore, it's more contradictory for matter to be in act without form than for an accident to exist without a subject.

In reply to the first argument in the contrary sense, we say that if, according to some holy writers, formlessness was prior in time to the informing of matter, this arose, not from want of power on God's part, but from His wisdom, and from the design of preserving due order in the disposition of creatures by developing perfection from imperfection.

In response to the first opposing argument, we say that if, according to some holy writers, formlessness existed before matter received form, this was not due to any lack of power on God's part, but rather stemmed from His wisdom and the intention of maintaining proper order in the arrangement of creatures by evolving perfection from imperfection.

In reply to the second argument, we say that certain of the ancient natural philosophers maintained confusion devoid of all distinction; except Anaxagoras, who taught that the intellect alone was distinct and without admixture. But previous to the work of distinction Holy Scripture enumerates several kinds of differentiation, the first being that of the heaven from the earth, in which even a material distinction is expressed, as will be shown later (A. 3; Q. 68, A. 1). This is signified by the words, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth." The second distinction mentioned is that of the elements according to their forms, since both earth and water are named. That air and fire are not mentioned by name is due to the fact that the corporeal nature of these would not be so evident as that of earth and water, to the ignorant people to whom Moses spoke. Plato (Timaeus xxvi), nevertheless, understood air to be signified by the words, "Spirit of God," since spirit is another name for air, and considered that by the word heaven is meant fire, for he held heaven to be composed of fire, as Augustine relates (De Civ. Dei viii, 11). But Rabbi Moses (Perplex. ii), though otherwise agreeing with Plato, says that fire is signified by the word darkness, since, said he, fire does not shine in its own sphere. However, it seems more reasonable to hold to what we stated above; because by the words "Spirit of God" Scripture usually means the Holy Ghost, Who is said to "move over the waters," not, indeed, in bodily shape, but as the craftsman's will may be said to move over the material to which he intends to give a form. The third distinction is that of place; since the earth is said to be under the waters that rendered it invisible, whilst the air, the subject of darkness, is described as being above the waters, in the words: "Darkness was upon the face of the deep." The remaining distinctions will appear from what follows (Q. 71). _______________________

In response to the second argument, we assert that some ancient natural philosophers claimed confusion with no distinction; except for Anaxagoras, who believed that intellect alone was distinct and not mixed. However, before making any distinctions, Holy Scripture lists several types of differentiation, the first being the separation of heaven from earth, where a material distinction is clearly expressed, as will be demonstrated later (A. 3; Q. 68, A. 1). This is indicated by the phrase, "In the beginning, God created heaven and earth." The second distinction mentioned involves the elements according to their forms, since both earth and water are specifically named. The absence of air and fire is because their physical nature wouldn’t have been as evident to the ignorant people Moses addressed. Nevertheless, Plato (Timaeus xxvi) interpreted air to be represented by the phrase, "Spirit of God," because spirit is another term for air, and he believed that the word heaven refers to fire, as he thought heaven was made of fire, as Augustine noted (De Civ. Dei viii, 11). However, Rabbi Moses (Perplex. ii), although generally in agreement with Plato, stated that fire is represented by the term darkness, since, he claimed, fire does not shine in its own realm. Nevertheless, it seems more reasonable to stick to our earlier statement; because by the phrase "Spirit of God," Scripture usually refers to the Holy Ghost, who is described as "moving over the waters," not in a physical form, but like a craftsman’s will might be said to move over the material he intends to shape. The third distinction is that of place; since the earth is described as being beneath the waters that made it invisible, while the air, associated with darkness, is described as being above the waters, as stated: "Darkness was upon the face of the deep." The other distinctions will become clear from the following (Q. 71).

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 66, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 66, Art. 2]

Whether the Formless Matter of All Corporeal Things Is the Same?

Whether the Formless Matter of All Physical Things Is the Same?

Objection 1: It would seem that the formless matter of all corporeal things is the same. For Augustine says (Confess. xii, 12): "I find two things Thou hast made, one formed, the other formless," and he says that the latter was the earth invisible and shapeless, whereby, he says, the matter of all corporeal things is designated. Therefore the matter of all corporeal things is the same.

Objection 1: It seems that the formless matter of all physical things is the same. Augustine says (Confess. xii, 12): "I find two things You have made, one formed and the other formless," and he states that the latter was the invisible and shapeless earth, which means that the matter of all physical things is indicated. Therefore, the matter of all physical things is the same.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher says (Metaph. v, text. 10): "Things that are one in genus are one in matter." But all corporeal things are in the same genus of body. Therefore the matter of all bodies is the same.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Philosopher states (Metaph. v, text. 10): "Things that belong to the same genus share the same matter." But all physical things fall under the same category of body. Therefore, the matter of all bodies is the same.

Obj. 3: Further, different acts befit different potentialities, and the same act befits the same potentiality. But all bodies have the same form, corporeity. Therefore all bodies have the same matter.

Obj. 3: Additionally, various actions suit different abilities, and the same action suits the same ability. But all bodies have the same form, which is physicality. Therefore, all bodies share the same matter.

Obj. 4: Further, matter, considered in itself, is only in potentiality. But distinction is due to form. Therefore matter considered in itself is the same in all corporeal things.

Obj. 4: Additionally, matter, when looked at on its own, is only in potentiality. But distinction comes from form. So, matter considered by itself is the same in all physical things.

On the contrary, Things of which the matter is the same are mutually interchangeable and mutually active or passive, as is said (De Gener. i, text. 50). But heavenly and earthly bodies do not act upon each other mutually. Therefore their matter is not the same.

On the contrary, Things with the same matter can be exchanged with one another and can influence each other, as mentioned (De Gener. i, text. 50). However, heavenly and earthly bodies do not interact with each other in the same way. Thus, their matter is not the same.

I answer that, On this question the opinions of philosophers have differed. Plato and all who preceded Aristotle held that all bodies are of the nature of the four elements. Hence because the four elements have one common matter, as their mutual generation and corruption prove, it followed that the matter of all bodies is the same. But the fact of the incorruptibility of some bodies was ascribed by Plato, not to the condition of matter, but to the will of the artificer, God, Whom he represents as saying to the heavenly bodies: "By your own nature you are subject to dissolution, but by My will you are indissoluble, for My will is more powerful than the link that binds you together." But this theory Aristotle (De Caelo i, text. 5) disproves by the natural movements of bodies. For since, he says, the heavenly bodies have a natural movement, different from that of the elements, it follows that they have a different nature from them. For movement in a circle, which is proper to the heavenly bodies, is not by contraries, whereas the movements of the elements are mutually opposite, one tending upwards, another downwards: so, therefore, the heavenly body is without contrariety, whereas the elemental bodies have contrariety in their nature. And as generation and corruption are from contraries, it follows that, whereas the elements are corruptible, the heavenly bodies are incorruptible. But in spite of this difference of natural corruption and incorruption, Avicebron taught unity of matter in all bodies, arguing from their unity of form. And, indeed, if corporeity were one form in itself, on which the other forms that distinguish bodies from each other supervene, this argument would necessarily be true; for this form of corporeity would inhere in matter immutably and so far all bodies would be incorruptible. But corruption would then be merely accidental through the disappearance of successive forms—that is to say, it would be corruption, not pure and simple, but partial, since a being in act would subsist under the transient form. Thus the ancient natural philosophers taught that the substratum of bodies was some actual being, such as air or fire. But supposing that no form exists in corruptible bodies which remains subsisting beneath generation and corruption, it follows necessarily that the matter of corruptible and incorruptible bodies is not the same. For matter, as it is in itself, is in potentiality to form.

I answer that, On this question, philosophers have had different opinions. Plato and those who came before Aristotle believed that all bodies are made up of the four elements. Therefore, since the four elements share a common matter, as evidenced by their ability to generate and corrupt each other, it follows that the matter of all bodies is the same. However, Plato attributed the incorruptibility of some bodies not to the nature of matter, but to the will of the creator, God, whom he portrays as saying to the heavenly bodies: "By your own nature, you are subject to decay, but by My will, you are indestructible, for My will is stronger than what binds you together." Yet, Aristotle (De Caelo i, text. 5) disproves this theory through the investigation of the natural movements of bodies. He explains that heavenly bodies have a natural movement that is different from that of the elements, meaning they must have a different nature. The circular movement, which is characteristic of heavenly bodies, does not operate based on opposites, while the movements of elements do have opposing forces, with one moving upward and another downward. Thus, heavenly bodies are free from contradiction, whereas elemental bodies contain contradictory qualities. Since generation and corruption come from opposites, it follows that while the elements are corruptible, the heavenly bodies are incorruptible. Nonetheless, despite this distinction between natural corruption and incorruption, Avicebron asserted that all bodies share a unity of matter, basing his argument on their unity of form. Indeed, if corporeality were a single form by itself, from which other forms arise to differentiate bodies, this argument could hold true; for this form of corporeality would exist in matter unchanging, and therefore, all bodies would be incorruptible. However, corruption would then simply be an accidental result of the disappearance of transient forms; that is, it would be a form of corruption that is partial, as a being in existence would remain under a temporary form. Thus, ancient natural philosophers taught that the foundation of bodies was some actual substance, like air or fire. But if we assume that no form exists in corruptible bodies that persists beneath generation and corruption, it logically follows that the matter of corruptible and incorruptible bodies cannot be the same. For matter, in its essence, is in a state of potentiality to form.

Considered in itself, then, it is in potentiality in respect to all those forms to which it is common, and in receiving any one form it is in act only as regards that form. Hence it remains in potentiality to all other forms. And this is the case even where some forms are more perfect than others, and contain these others virtually in themselves. For potentiality in itself is indifferent with respect to perfection and imperfection, so that under an imperfect form it is in potentiality to a perfect form, and vice versa. Matter, therefore, whilst existing under the form of an incorruptible body, would be in potentiality to the form of a corruptible body; and as it does not actually possess the latter, it has both form and the privation of form; for want of a form in that which is in potentiality thereto is privation. But this condition implies corruptibility. It is therefore impossible that bodies by nature corruptible, and those by nature incorruptible, should possess the same matter.

When considered on its own, it has potential in relation to all forms it shares, and by taking on any specific form, it is actual only in connection with that form. Thus, it still holds potential for all other forms. This applies even when some forms are more perfect than others and contain the lesser forms within them. Potentiality itself is neutral concerning perfection and imperfection, so that under an imperfect form it can still be potential for a perfect form, and vice versa. Therefore, matter, while existing in the form of an incorruptible body, would be potential for the form of a corruptible body; and since it does not actually have the latter, it holds both form and the absence of form because lacking a form in that which is potential to it is a kind of absence. However, this situation implies the possibility of corruption. Consequently, it is impossible for naturally corruptible bodies and those that are naturally incorruptible to share the same matter.

Neither can we say, as Averroes [*De Substantia Orbis ii.] imagines, that a heavenly body itself is the matter of the heaven—being in potentiality with regard to place, though not to being, and that its form is a separate substance united to it as its motive force. For it is impossible to suppose any being in act, unless in its totality it be act and form, or be something which has act or form. Setting aside, then, in thought, the separate substance stated to be endowed with motive power, if the heavenly body is not something having form—that is, something composed of a form and the subject of that form—it follows that in its totality it is form and act. But every such thing is something actually understood, which the heavenly bodies are not, being sensible. It follows, then, that the matter of the heavenly bodies, considered in itself, is in potentiality to that form alone which it actually possesses. Nor does it concern the point at issue to inquire whether this is a soul or any other thing. Hence this form perfects this matter in such a way that there remains in it no potentiality with respect to being, but only to place, as Aristotle [*De Coelo i, text. 20] says. So, then, the matter of the heavenly bodies and of the elements is not the same, except by analogy, in so far as they agree in the character of potentiality.

We can't say, as Averroes suggests, that a heavenly body is basically the matter of the heavens—potentially regarding location, but not in existence—and that its form is a separate substance acting as its driving force. It's impossible to think of any being that is actually real unless it is entirely act and form or has act or form. If we set aside the idea of a separate substance with motive power, and if the heavenly body is not something that has form—meaning it's not a combination of form and the subject of that form—it follows that, as a whole, it is both form and act. However, everything like that is something that is actually comprehended, which heavenly bodies are not, as they are sensory. Therefore, the matter of heavenly bodies, when considered on its own, is only potentially that form which it actually has. It doesn't matter whether this is a soul or something else. Thus, this form completes this matter so that there's no potentiality left regarding existence but only concerning location, as Aristotle mentions. Therefore, the matter of heavenly bodies and elements is not the same, except in an analogous way, as they both share the attribute of potentiality.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine follows in this the opinion of Plato, who does not admit a fifth essence. Or we may say that formless matter is one with the unity of order, as all bodies are one in the order of corporeal creatures.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine agrees with Plato's view, who does not accept a fifth essence. Alternatively, we can say that formless matter is unified with the order of things, just as all bodies are unified in the hierarchy of physical beings.

Reply Obj. 2: If genus is taken in a physical sense, corruptible and incorruptible things are not in the same genus, on account of their different modes of potentiality, as is said in Metaph. x, text. 26. Logically considered, however, there is but one genus of all bodies, since they are all included in the one notion of corporeity.

Reply Obj. 2: If we understand genus in a physical sense, corruptible and incorruptible things don't belong to the same genus because of their different types of potentiality, as mentioned in Metaph. x, text. 26. However, from a logical perspective, there is only one genus for all bodies since they all fall under the single concept of corporeity.

Reply Obj. 3: The form of corporeity is not one and the same in all bodies, being no other than the various forms by which bodies are distinguished, as stated above.

Reply Obj. 3: The form of physicality is not the same in all bodies; it is simply the different forms that distinguish one body from another, as mentioned earlier.

Reply Obj. 4: As potentiality is directed towards act, potential beings are differentiated by their different acts, as sight is by color, hearing by sound. Therefore for this reason the matter of the celestial bodies is different from that of the elemental, because the matter of the celestial is not in potentiality to an elemental form. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Since potentiality is aimed at action, potential beings are distinguished by the different actions they can perform, just as vision is distinguished by color and hearing by sound. For this reason, the matter of celestial bodies is different from that of elemental bodies, because the matter of celestial bodies is not in potentiality to take on an elemental form.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 66, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 66, Art. 3]

Whether the Empyrean Heaven Was Created at the Same Time As Formless
Matter?

Whether the Empyrean Heaven was created at the same time as formless
matter?

Objection 1: It would seem that the empyrean heaven was not created at the same time as formless matter. For the empyrean, if it is anything at all, must be a sensible body. But all sensible bodies are movable, and the empyrean heaven is not movable. For if it were so, its movement would be ascertained by the movement of some visible body, which is not the case. The empyrean heaven, then, was not created contemporaneously with formless matter.

Objection 1: It seems that the empyrean heaven wasn't created at the same time as formless matter. If the empyrean is anything at all, it must be a tangible body. However, all tangible bodies can move, and the empyrean heaven does not move. If it did, its movement would be determined by the movement of some visible body, which isn't true. Therefore, the empyrean heaven wasn't created at the same time as formless matter.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4) that "the lower bodies are governed by the higher in a certain order." If, therefore, the empyrean heaven is the highest of bodies, it must necessarily exercise some influence on bodies below it. But this does not seem to be the case, especially as it is presumed to be without movement; for one body cannot move another unless itself also be moved. Therefore the empyrean heaven was not created together with formless matter.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Augustine states (De Trin. iii, 4) that "the lower bodies are controlled by the higher in a certain order." Therefore, if the empyrean heaven is the highest of bodies, it must have some influence on the bodies beneath it. However, this doesn't seem to be true, especially since it is thought to be unmoving; one body cannot move another unless it is also in motion. Therefore, the empyrean heaven was not created at the same time as formless matter.

Obj. 3: Further, if it is held that the empyrean heaven is the place of contemplation, and not ordained to natural effects; on the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20): "In so far as we mentally apprehend eternal things, so far are we not of this world"; from which it is clear that contemplation lifts the mind above the things of this world. Corporeal place, therefore, cannot be the seat of contemplation.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if it is believed that the empyrean heaven is a place for contemplation and not meant for natural effects; on the other hand, Augustine states (De Trin. iv, 20): "To the extent that we understand eternal things, we are not of this world"; from which it is evident that contemplation raises the mind above worldly matters. Therefore, a physical location cannot be the base of contemplation.

Obj. 4: Further, among the heavenly bodies exists a body, partly transparent and partly luminous, which we call the sidereal heaven. There exists also a heaven wholly transparent, called by some the aqueous or crystalline heaven. If, then, there exists a still higher heaven, it must be wholly luminous. But this cannot be, for then the air would be constantly illuminated, and there would be no night. Therefore the empyrean heaven was not created together with formless matter.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, among the celestial bodies, there is one that is partly transparent and partly shines, which we refer to as the starry heaven. There is also a completely transparent heaven, referred to by some as the watery or crystalline heaven. If there is a higher heaven, it must be entirely luminous. However, this cannot be the case, because then the air would always be lit up, and there would be no night. Therefore, the empyrean heaven was not created alongside formless matter.

On the contrary, Strabus says that in the passage, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," heaven denotes not the visible firmament, but the empyrean or fiery heaven.

On the contrary, Strabus states that in the passage, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," heaven refers not to the visible sky, but to the empyrean or fiery heaven.

I answer that, The empyrean heaven rests only on the authority of Strabus and Bede, and also of Basil; all of whom agree in one respect, namely, in holding it to be the place of the blessed. Strabus and Bede say that as soon as created it was filled with angels; and Basil [*Hom. ii. in Hexaem.] says: "Just as the lost are driven into the lowest darkness, so the reward for worthy deeds is laid up in the light beyond this world, where the just shall obtain the abode of rest." But they differ in the reasons on which they base their statement. Strabus and Bede teach that there is an empyrean heaven, because the firmament, which they take to mean the sidereal heaven, is said to have been made, not in the beginning, but on the second day: whereas the reason given by Basil is that otherwise God would seem to have made darkness His first work, as the Manicheans falsely assert, when they call the God of the Old Testament the God of darkness. These reasons, however, are not very cogent. For the question of the firmament, said to have been made on the second day, is solved in one way by Augustine, and in another by other holy writers. But the question of the darkness is explained according to Augustine [*Gen. ad lit. i; vii.], by supposing that formlessness, signified by darkness, preceded form not by duration, but by origin. According to others, however, since darkness is no creature, but a privation of light, it is a proof of Divine wisdom, that the things it created from nothing it produced first of all in an imperfect state, and afterwards brought them to perfection. But a better reason can be drawn from the state of glory itself. For in the reward to come a two-fold glory is looked for, spiritual and corporeal, not only in the human body to be glorified, but in the whole world which is to be made new. Now the spiritual glory began with the beginning of the world, in the blessedness of the angels, equality with whom is promised to the saints. It was fitting, then, that even from the beginning, there should be made some beginning of bodily glory in something corporeal, free at the very outset from the servitude of corruption and change, and wholly luminous, even as the whole bodily creation, after the Resurrection, is expected to be. So, then, that heaven is called the empyrean, i.e. fiery, not from its heat, but from its brightness. It is to be noticed, however, that Augustine (De Civ. Dei x, 9, 27) says that Porphyry sets the demons apart from the angels by supposing that the former inhabit the air, the latter the ether, or empyrean. But Porphyry, as a Platonist, held the heaven, known as sidereal, to be fiery, and therefore called it empyrean or ethereal, taking ethereal to denote the burning of flame, and not as Aristotle understands it, swiftness of movement (De Coel. i, text. 22). This much has been said to prevent anyone from supposing that Augustine maintained an empyrean heaven in the sense understood by modern writers.

I answer that, The empyrean heaven relies solely on the authority of Strabus, Bede, and Basil; all of whom agree on one point, that it is the place of the blessed. Strabus and Bede state that as soon as it was created, it was filled with angels; and Basil [*Hom. ii. in Hexaem.] says: "Just as the damned are cast into the deepest darkness, the reward for virtuous actions is stored in the light beyond this world, where the righteous will find their resting place." However, they differ in their reasoning. Strabus and Bede argue for the existence of an empyrean heaven because they believe the firmament, which they interpret as the sidereal heaven, was created not at the beginning, but on the second day. Basil, on the other hand, argues that if this were not the case, God would appear to have made darkness His first creation, which the Manicheans incorrectly claim, calling the God of the Old Testament the God of darkness. However, these arguments are not very strong. The issue of the firmament, which is said to have been created on the second day, is addressed differently by Augustine and other holy writers. The question of darkness is explained according to Augustine [*Gen. ad lit. i; vii.], by suggesting that formlessness, represented by darkness, came before form not in terms of time, but in terms of origin. Others suggest that since darkness is not a created thing but a lack of light, it demonstrates Divine wisdom that what was created from nothing was initially brought into being in an imperfect state and later perfected. A stronger argument can be made from the state of glory itself. In the reward that is to come, two types of glory are anticipated: spiritual and physical, not only in the glorification of the human body but also in the entire world that is to be renewed. The spiritual glory began with the creation of the world, reflecting the blessedness of the angels, with whom equality is promised to the saints. Therefore, it makes sense that even from the beginning, there should be some inception of bodily glory in something physical, free from the bondage of corruption and change, and entirely radiant, just as the entirety of physical creation is expected to be after the Resurrection. Thus, that heaven is referred to as empyrean, meaning fiery, not because of its warmth, but because of its brightness. It’s worth noting that Augustine (De Civ. Dei x, 9, 27) states that Porphyry distinguishes demons from angels by claiming that demons reside in the air while angels inhabit the ether or empyrean. However, Porphyry, as a Platonist, interpreted the known sidereal heaven as fiery and therefore referred to it as empyrean or ethereal, understanding ethereal as related to the burning of flame, not as Aristotle interprets it, which is in terms of quickness of movement (De Coel. i, text. 22). This has been stated to prevent anyone from assuming that Augustine believed in an empyrean heaven in the way modern authors do.

Reply Obj. 1: Sensible corporeal things are movable in the present state of the world, for by the movement of corporeal creatures is secured by the multiplication of the elements. But when glory is finally consummated, the movement of bodies will cease. And such must have been from the beginning the condition of the empyrean.

Reply Obj. 1: Physical things can move in the current state of the world because the movement of physical creatures is maintained by the multiplication of the elements. However, when glory is fully realized, the movement of bodies will stop. This must have been the original condition of the empyrean.

Reply Obj. 2: It is sufficiently probable, as some assert, that the empyrean heaven, having the state of glory for its ordained end, does not influence inferior bodies of another order—those, namely, that are directed only to natural ends. Yet it seems still more probable that it does influence bodies that are moved, though itself motionless, just as angels of the highest rank, who assist [*Infra, Q. 112, A. 3], influence those of lower degree who act as messengers, though they themselves are not sent, as Dionysius teaches (Coel. Hier. xii). For this reason it may be said that the influence of the empyrean upon that which is called the first heaven, and is moved, produces therein not something that comes and goes as a result of movement, but something of a fixed and stable nature, as the power of conservation or causation, or something of the kind pertaining to dignity.

Reply Obj. 2: It is quite likely, as some say, that the empyrean heaven, which is intended for a state of glory, does not have any effect on lower bodies that are only aimed at natural ends. However, it seems even more likely that it does influence moving bodies, even though it itself remains motionless, just like the highest-ranking angels who support those of lower rank who act as messengers, even though they themselves are not sent, as Dionysius explains (Coel. Hier. xii). For this reason, we can say that the influence of the empyrean on what is called the first heaven, which is in motion, results not in something that comes and goes due to movement, but in something that is fixed and stable in nature, reflecting a power of preservation or causation, or something related to dignity.

Reply Obj. 3: Corporeal place is assigned to contemplation, not as necessary, but as congruous, that the splendor without may correspond to that which is within. Hence Basil (Hom. ii in Hexaem.) says: "The ministering spirit could not live in darkness, but made his habitual dwelling in light and joy."

Reply Obj. 3: Physical space is designated for contemplation, not out of necessity, but because it’s fitting, allowing the external brilliance to reflect the inner light. Therefore, Basil (Hom. ii in Hexaem.) says: "The ministering spirit could not live in darkness, but made his usual home in light and joy."

Reply Obj. 4: As Basil says (Hom. ii in Hexaem.): "It is certain that the heaven was created spherical in shape, of dense body, and sufficiently strong to separate what is outside it from what it encloses. On this account it darkens the region external to it, the light by which itself is lit up being shut out from that region." But since the body of the firmament, though solid, is transparent, for that it does not exclude light (as is clear from the fact that we can see the stars through the intervening heavens), we may also say that the empyrean has light, not condensed so as to emit rays, as the sun does, but of a more subtle nature. Or it may have the brightness of glory which differs from mere natural brightness. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: As Basil states (Hom. ii in Hexaem.): "It is certain that the heaven was created spherical in shape, solid, and strong enough to separate what is outside from what it contains. Because of this, it darkens the area outside it, as the light that illuminates it is blocked from that region." However, since the material of the firmament, while solid, is transparent—because it doesn’t block light (as shown by the fact that we can see the stars through the heavens)—we can also say that the empyrean has light that isn’t concentrated enough to emit rays like the sun does, but is of a more subtle nature. Alternatively, it might possess the brightness of glory, which is different from ordinary natural brightness. _______________________

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 66, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 66, Art. 4]

Whether Time Was Created Simultaneously with Formless Matter?

Whether time was created at the same time as formless matter?

Objection 1: It would seem that time was not created simultaneously with formless matter. For Augustine says (Confess. xii, 12): "I find two things that Thou didst create before time was, the primary corporeal matter, and the angelic nature. "Therefore time was not created with formless matter.

Objection 1: It seems that time wasn’t created at the same time as formless matter. Augustine states (Confess. xii, 12): "I find two things that You created before time existed: primary corporeal matter and angelic nature.” Therefore, time was not created along with formless matter.

Obj. 2: Further, time is divided by day and night. But in the beginning there was neither day nor night, for these began when "God divided the light from the darkness." Therefore in the beginning time was not.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, time is split into day and night. But at the beginning, there was neither day nor night, for these started when "God separated the light from the darkness." Therefore, in the beginning, time did not exist.

Obj. 3: Further, time is the measure of the firmament's movement; and the firmament is said to have been made on the second day. Therefore in the beginning time was not.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, time is the measure of the sky's movement; and the sky is said to have been created on the second day. Therefore, at the beginning, there was no time.

Obj. 4: Further, movement precedes time, and therefore should be reckoned among the first things created, rather than time.

Obj. 4: Additionally, movement comes before time, so it should be considered one of the first things created, rather than time.

Obj. 5: Further, as time is the extrinsic measure of created things, so is place. Place, then, as truly as time, must be reckoned among the things first created.

Obj. 5: Additionally, just as time is the external measure of created things, so is space. Therefore, space, just like time, must be considered one of the first things created.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. i, 3): "Both spiritual and corporeal creatures were created at the beginning of time."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. i, 3): "Both spiritual and physical beings were created at the start of time."

I answer that, It is commonly said that the first things created were these four—the angelic nature, the empyrean heaven, formless corporeal matter, and time. It must be observed, however, that this is not the opinion of Augustine. For he (Confess. xii, 12) specifies only two things as first created—the angelic nature and corporeal matter—making no mention of the empyrean heaven. But these two, namely, the angelic nature and formless matter, precede the formation, by nature only, and not by duration; and therefore, as they precede formation, so do they precede movement and time. Time, therefore, cannot be included among them. But the enumeration above given is that of other holy writers, who hold that the formlessness of matter preceded by duration its form, and this view postulates the existence of time as the measure of duration: for otherwise there would be no such measure.

I answer that, It’s commonly said that the first things created were these four—angelic nature, the empyrean heaven, formless physical matter, and time. However, it should be noted that this is not Augustine’s viewpoint. In his work (Confess. xii, 12), he only identifies two things as being first created—the angelic nature and physical matter—without mentioning the empyrean heaven. But these two, the angelic nature and formless matter, only precede formation in nature, not in duration; therefore, as they come before formation, they also come before movement and time. Consequently, time cannot be included among them. The list mentioned earlier comes from other holy writers, who believe that the formlessness of matter existed before its form in terms of duration, which implies the existence of time as the measure of that duration; otherwise, there would be no such measure.

Reply Obj. 1: The teaching of Augustine rests on the opinion that the angelic nature and formless matter precede time by origin or nature.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine's teaching is based on the belief that angelic beings and formless matter exist before time, either by origin or by nature.

Reply Obj. 2: As in the opinion of some holy writers matter was in some measure formless before it received its full form, so time was in a manner formless before it was fully formed and distinguished into day and night.

Reply Obj. 2: Just as some religious writers believe that matter was somewhat formless before it took on its complete shape, time was also, in a way, formless before it was fully defined and divided into day and night.

Reply Obj. 3: If the movement of the firmament did not begin immediately from the beginning, then the time that preceded was the measure, not of the firmament's movement, but of the first movement of whatsoever kind. For it is accidental to time to be the measure of the firmament's movement, in so far as this is the first movement. But if the first movement was another than this, time would have been its measure, for everything is measured by the first of its kind. And it must be granted that forthwith from the beginning, there was movement of some kind, at least in the succession of concepts and affections in the angelic mind: while movement without time cannot be conceived, since time is nothing else than "the measure of priority and succession in movement."

Reply Obj. 3: If the movement of the heavens didn’t start right away, then the time that came before was a measure of something else, not the movement of the heavens, but of the first kind of movement there was. It’s not inherent to time to measure the movement of the heavens, as this is the initial movement. But if the first movement was something different, then time would measure that instead, since everything is measured by its first instance. We must agree that from the very beginning, some kind of movement existed, at least in the flow of thoughts and feelings in the angelic mind; since we can’t understand movement without time, as time is simply “the measure of priority and succession in movement.”

Reply Obj. 4: Among the first created things are to be reckoned those which have a general relationship to things. And, therefore, among these time must be included, as having the nature of a common measure; but not movement, which is related only to the movable subject.

Reply Obj. 4: Among the first created things are those that have a general relationship to other things. Therefore, time must be included in this category, as it serves as a common measure; however, movement is only related to the movable subject.

Reply Obj. 5: Place is implied as existing in the empyrean heaven, this being the boundary of the universe. And since place has reference to things permanent, it was created at once in its totality. But time, as not being permanent, was created in its beginning: even as actually we cannot lay hold of any part of time save the "now." _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: Place is understood to exist in the empyrean heaven, which is the edge of the universe. Since place relates to things that are permanent, it was created fully at once. However, time, not being permanent, was created at its start: just as we can only grasp any moment of time in the "now."

QUESTION 67

ON THE WORK OF DISTINCTION IN ITSELF
(In Four Articles)

ON THE WORK OF DISTINCTION IN ITSELF
(In Four Articles)

We must consider next the work of distinction in itself. First, the work of the first day; secondly, the work of the second day; thirdly the work of the third day.

We must now consider the work of distinction itself. First, the work of the first day; second, the work of the second day; third, the work of the third day.

Under the first head there are four points of inquiry:

Under the first topic, there are four areas to explore:

(1) Whether the word light is used in its proper sense in speaking of spiritual things?

(1) Is the word "light" used correctly when referring to spiritual matters?

(2) Whether light, in corporeal things, is itself corporeal?

(2) Is light, in physical things, itself physical?

(3) Whether light is a quality?

Is light a property?

(4) Whether light was fittingly made on the first day? _______________________

(4) Was light created properly on the first day? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 67, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 67, Art. 1]

Whether the Word "Light" Is Used in Its Proper Sense in Speaking of
Spiritual Things?

Whether the word "light" is used in its proper sense when talking about
spiritual matters?

Objection 1: It would seem that "light" is used in its proper sense in spiritual things. For Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 28) that "in spiritual things light is better and surer: and that Christ is not called Light in the same sense as He is called the Stone; the former is to be taken literally, and the latter metaphorically."

Objection 1: It seems that "light" is used in its true sense in spiritual matters. For Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 28) that "in spiritual matters, light is better and more certain: and that Christ is not referred to as Light in the same way He is called the Stone; the former is to be understood literally, and the latter metaphorically."

Obj. 2: Further, Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv) includes Light among the intellectual names of God. But such names are used in their proper sense in spiritual things. Therefore light is used in its proper sense in spiritual matters.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv) lists Light as one of the intellectual names of God. However, these names are meant to be understood in their true sense in spiritual contexts. Therefore, light is understood in its true sense in spiritual matters.

Obj. 3: Further, the Apostle says (Eph. 5:13): "All that is made manifest is light." But to be made manifest belongs more properly to spiritual things than to corporeal. Therefore also does light.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the Apostle states (Eph. 5:13): "Everything that is made visible is light." However, being made visible is more characteristic of spiritual things than physical ones. This also applies to light.

On the contrary, Ambrose says (De Fide ii) that "Splendor" is among those things which are said of God metaphorically.

On the contrary, Ambrose says (De Fide ii) that "Splendor" is among the things that are described about God in a metaphorical way.

I answer that, Any word may be used in two ways—that is to say, either in its original application or in its more extended meaning. This is clearly shown in the word "sight," originally applied to the act of the sense, and then, as sight is the noblest and most trustworthy of the senses, extended in common speech to all knowledge obtained through the other senses. Thus we say, "Seeing how it tastes," or "smells," or "burns." Further, sight is applied to knowledge obtained through the intellect, as in those words: "Blessed are the clean of heart, for they shall see God" (Matt. 5:8). And thus it is with the word light. In its primary meaning it signifies that which makes manifest to the sense of sight; afterwards it was extended to that which makes manifest to cognition of any kind. If, then, the word is taken in its strict and primary meaning, it is to be understood metaphorically when applied to spiritual things, as Ambrose says (De Fide ii). But if taken in its common and extended use, as applied to manifestation of every kind, it may properly be applied to spiritual things.

I answer that, Any word can be used in two ways—either in its original sense or in a broader sense. This is clearly illustrated by the word "sight," which originally referred to the act of seeing, and then, since sight is the most noble and reliable of the senses, it was extended in everyday language to encompass all knowledge gained through the other senses. For example, we say, "Seeing how it tastes," or "smells," or "burns." Furthermore, "sight" is also used in reference to knowledge gained through the intellect, as seen in the phrase: "Blessed are the clean of heart, for they shall see God" (Matt. 5:8). The same applies to the word "light." In its most basic meaning, it refers to what makes things visible to the eye; later, it was broadened to mean anything that makes knowledge clear. Therefore, if the word is taken in its strict original sense, it should be understood metaphorically when applied to spiritual matters, as Ambrose states (De Fide ii). However, if it’s taken in its common, broader use, referring to all types of manifestation, it can appropriately be applied to spiritual things.

The answer to the objections will sufficiently appear from what has been said. _______________________

The answer to the objections will clearly come from what has been stated. _______________________

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 67, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 67, Art. 2]

Whether Light Is a Body?

Is Light a Body?

Objection 1: It would seem that light is a body. For Augustine says (De Lib. Arb. iii, 5) that "light takes the first place among bodies."Therefore light is a body.

Objection 1: It seems that light is a physical object. Augustine states (De Lib. Arb. iii, 5) that "light takes the first place among physical objects." Therefore, light is a physical object.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher says (Topic. v, 2) that "light is a species of fire." But fire is a body, and therefore so is light.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the Philosopher states (Topic. v, 2) that "light is a type of fire." But fire is a physical substance, and therefore, so is light.

Obj. 3: Further, the powers of movement, intersection, reflection, belong properly to bodies; and all these are attributes of light and its rays. Moreover, different rays of light, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ii) are united and separated, which seems impossible unless they are bodies. Therefore light is a body.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the abilities to move, intersect, and reflect are characteristics of physical objects; all of these are traits of light and its rays. Furthermore, different rays of light, as Dionysius mentions (Div. Nom. ii), come together and separate, which seems impossible unless they are physical entities. Therefore, light is a physical body.

On the contrary, Two bodies cannot occupy the same place simultaneously. But this is the case with light and air. Therefore light is not a body.

On the contrary, Two bodies cannot occupy the same space at the same time. But this is what happens with light and air. Therefore, light is not a body.

I answer that, Light cannot be a body, for three evident reasons. First, on the part of place. For the place of any one body is different from that of any other, nor is it possible, naturally speaking, for any two bodies of whatever nature, to exist simultaneously in the same place; since contiguity requires distinction of place.

I answer that, light cannot be a physical object for three obvious reasons. First, regarding location. The space taken up by one object is different from that of another, and naturally, no two objects, regardless of their nature, can exist in the same location at the same time; since being next to each other requires distinct spaces.

The second reason is from movement. For if light were a body, its diffusion would be the local movement of a body. Now no local movement of a body can be instantaneous, as everything that moves from one place to another must pass through the intervening space before reaching the end: whereas the diffusion of light is instantaneous. Nor can it be argued that the time required is too short to be perceived; for though this may be the case in short distances, it cannot be so in distances so great as that which separates the East from the West. Yet as soon as the sun is at the horizon, the whole hemisphere is illuminated from end to end. It must also be borne in mind on the part of movement that whereas all bodies have their natural determinate movement, that of light is indifferent as regards direction, working equally in a circle as in a straight line. Hence it appears that the diffusion of light is not the local movement of a body.

The second reason is based on movement. If light were a physical object, its spreading would be similar to the local movement of an object. However, no local movement can happen instantly, since anything moving from one place to another must travel through the space in between before arriving at the destination. In contrast, the spreading of light occurs instantly. We can't say that the time it takes is too brief to notice; while this might be true over short distances, it doesn't hold for the immense distance between the East and the West. As soon as the sun reaches the horizon, the entire hemisphere becomes lit from one end to the other. Additionally, it's important to remember that while all objects have a specific natural movement, light can move in any direction, whether in a circle or a straight line. Therefore, it seems clear that the spreading of light is not the local movement of a physical object.

The third reason is from generation and corruption. For if light were a body, it would follow that whenever the air is darkened by the absence of the luminary, the body of light would be corrupted, and its matter would receive a new form. But unless we are to say that darkness is a body, this does not appear to be the case. Neither does it appear from what matter a body can be daily generated large enough to fill the intervening hemisphere. Also it would be absurd to say that a body of so great a bulk is corrupted by the mere absence of the luminary. And should anyone reply that it is not corrupted, but approaches and moves around with the sun, we may ask why it is that when a lighted candle is obscured by the intervening object the whole room is darkened? It is not that the light is condensed round the candle when this is done, since it burns no more brightly then than it burned before.

The third reason has to do with generation and corruption. If light were a physical object, it would mean that whenever the air is dark because the light source is absent, the light would be corrupted, and its matter would take on a new form. However, unless we claim that darkness is a physical object, this doesn’t seem to be true. It also doesn’t make sense to suggest that a body could be formed each day large enough to fill the entire space. It would be ridiculous to say that such a large object is corrupted just by the absence of the light source. If someone argues that it’s not corrupted but instead moves with the sun, we can ask why, when an object blocks a lit candle, the whole room becomes dark. It’s not because the light is somehow concentrated around the candle, as it doesn’t burn any brighter than it did before.

Since, therefore, these things are repugnant, not only to reason, but to common sense, we must conclude that light cannot be a body.

Since these things are not only unreasonable but also make no sense, we have to conclude that light cannot be a physical object.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine takes light to be a luminous body in act—in other words, to be fire, the noblest of the four elements.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine sees light as a glowing substance in action—in other words, as fire, the most esteemed of the four elements.

Reply Obj. 2: Aristotle pronounces light to be fire existing in its own proper matter: just as fire in aerial matter is "flame," or in earthly matter is "burning coal." Nor must too much attention be paid to the instances adduced by Aristotle in his works on logic, as he merely mentions them as the more or less probable opinions of various writers.

Reply Obj. 2: Aristotle claims that light is fire that exists in its own specific matter: just like fire in air is "flame," or in solid materials is "burning coal." We shouldn't focus too much on the examples Aristotle gives in his writings on logic, since he only references them as the somewhat likely views of different authors.

Reply Obj. 3: All these properties are assigned to light metaphorically, and might in the same way be attributed to heat. For because movement from place to place is naturally first in the order of movement as is proved Phys. viii, text. 55, we use terms belonging to local movement in speaking of alteration and movement of all kinds. For even the word distance is derived from the idea of remoteness of place, to that of all contraries, as is said Metaph. x, text. 13. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: All these characteristics are attributed to light in a metaphorical sense and could similarly be applied to heat. This is because movement from one location to another is naturally the first type of movement, as demonstrated in Phys. viii, text. 55. We use terms related to physical movement when discussing changes and movements of all kinds. Even the term distance originates from the concept of being far away from a place, relating to all opposites, as mentioned in Metaph. x, text. 13.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 67, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 67, Art. 3]

Whether Light Is a Quality?

Is light a quality?

Objection 1: It would seem that light is not a quality. For every quality remains in its subject, though the active cause of the quality be removed, as heat remains in water removed from the fire. But light does not remain in the air when the source of light is withdrawn. Therefore light is not a quality.

Objection 1: It seems that light is not a quality. Every quality stays in its subject even when the active cause of that quality is gone, like how heat remains in water after it's taken away from the fire. But light doesn't stay in the air when the light source is removed. Therefore, light is not a quality.

Obj. 2: Further, every sensible quality has its opposite, as cold is opposed to heat, blackness to whiteness. But this is not the case with light since darkness is merely a privation of light. Light therefore is not a sensible quality.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, every tangible quality has an opposite, like cold being opposite to heat, and blackness being opposite to whiteness. However, this doesn't hold true for light since darkness is simply the absence of light. Therefore, light is not a tangible quality.

Obj. 3: Further, a cause is more potent than its effect. But the light of the heavenly bodies is a cause of substantial forms of earthly bodies, and also gives to colors their immaterial being, by making them actually visible. Light, then, is not a sensible quality, but rather a substantial or spiritual form.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, a cause is stronger than its effect. The light from celestial bodies is a cause of the essential forms of earthly bodies and also gives colors their immaterial existence by making them actually visible. Therefore, light is not just a physical quality, but rather a significant or spiritual essence.

On the contrary, Damascene (De Fide Orth. i) says that light is a species of quality.

On the contrary, Damascene (De Fide Orth. i) states that light is a type of quality.

I answer that, Some writers have said that the light in the air has not a natural being such as the color on a wall has, but only an intentional being, as a similitude of color in the air. But this cannot be the case for two reasons. First, because light gives a name to the air, since by it the air becomes actually luminous. But color does not do this, for we do not speak of the air as colored. Secondly, because light produces natural effects, for by the rays of the sun bodies are warmed, and natural changes cannot be brought about by mere intentions. Others have said that light is the sun's substantial form, but this also seems impossible for two reasons. First, because substantial forms are not of themselves objects of the senses; for the object of the intellect is what a thing is, as is said De Anima iii, text. 26: whereas light is visible of itself. In the second place, because it is impossible that what is the substantial form of one thing should be the accidental form of another; since substantial forms of their very nature constitute species: wherefore the substantial form always and everywhere accompanies the species. But light is not the substantial form of air, for if it were, the air would be destroyed when light is withdrawn. Hence it cannot be the substantial form of the sun.

I answer that, Some writers have argued that the light in the air doesn't have a natural existence like color on a wall does, but only an intentional existence, as a likeness of color in the air. However, this cannot be true for two reasons. First, because light gives the air its name, since it makes the air actually luminous. But color doesn't do this, as we don't refer to the air as colored. Second, because light produces natural effects; the rays of the sun warm objects, and natural changes can’t be caused by mere intentions. Others have claimed that light is the sun's substantial form, but this also seems unlikely for two reasons. First, because substantial forms are not, in themselves, objects of the senses; the object of the intellect is what a thing is, as stated in De Anima iii, text. 26: whereas light is visible in itself. Secondly, it’s impossible for what is the substantial form of one thing to be the accidental form of another, since substantial forms inherently define species; therefore, the substantial form always accompanies the species. But light is not the substantial form of air, for if it were, the air would be destroyed when light is taken away. Thus, it cannot be the substantial form of the sun.

We must say, then, that as heat is an active quality consequent on the substantial form of fire, so light is an active quality consequent on the substantial form of the sun, or of another body that is of itself luminous, if there is any such body. A proof of this is that the rays of different stars produce different effects according to the diverse natures of bodies.

We can say that just as heat is an active quality that comes from the essential nature of fire, light is an active quality that comes from the essential nature of the sun, or any other luminous body, if such a body exists. This is evident because the rays from different stars have different effects based on the various properties of the bodies they interact with.

Reply Obj. 1: Since quality is consequent upon substantial form, the mode in which the subject receives a quality differs as the mode differs in which a subject receives a substantial form. For when matter receives its form perfectly, the qualities consequent upon the form are firm and enduring; as when, for instance, water is converted into fire. When, however, substantial form is received imperfectly, so as to be, as it were, in process of being received, rather than fully impressed, the consequent quality lasts for a time but is not permanent; as may be seen when water which has been heated returns in time to its natural state. But light is not produced by the transmutation of matter, as though matter were in receipt of a substantial form, and light were a certain inception of substantial form. For this reason light disappears on the disappearance of its active cause.

Reply Obj. 1: Because quality depends on substantial form, the way a subject experiences a quality varies depending on how it receives the substantial form. When matter fully takes on its form, the resulting qualities are strong and lasting; for example, when water turns to fire. However, when the substantial form is only partially received and not fully realized, the resultant quality lasts for a while but isn't permanent; for instance, when heated water eventually cools back to its normal state. Light, on the other hand, isn't created by the transformation of matter, as if matter were receiving a substantial form and light were just an initial version of that form. For this reason, light fades away when its source is no longer present.

Reply Obj. 2: It is accidental to light not to have a contrary, forasmuch as it is the natural quality of the first corporeal cause of change, which is itself removed from contrariety.

Reply Obj. 2: It is an accident of light not to have a contrary, since it is the natural quality of the primary physical cause of change, which itself is beyond contrariety.

Reply Obj. 3: As heat acts towards perfecting the form of fire, as an instrumental cause, by virtue of the substantial form, so does light act instrumentally, by virtue of the heavenly bodies, towards producing substantial forms; and towards rendering colors actually visible, inasmuch as it is a quality of the first sensible body. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Just as heat helps perfect the form of fire as an instrumental cause because of its substantial form, light also acts instrumentally through celestial bodies to create substantial forms and to make colors actually visible, since it is a quality of the primary sensible body.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 67, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 67, Art. 4]

Whether the Production of Light Is Fittingly Assigned to the First
Day?

Whether the creation of light is appropriately attributed to the first
day?

Objection 1: It would seem that the production of light is not fittingly assigned to the first day. For light, as stated above (A. 3), is a quality. But qualities are accidents, and as such should have, not the first, but a subordinate place. The production of light, then, ought not to be assigned to the first day.

Objection 1: It seems that creating light shouldn't be designated to the first day. Light, as mentioned earlier (A. 3), is a quality. However, qualities are accidents, and therefore, they should occupy a secondary position, not the primary one. So, producing light shouldn't be assigned to the first day.

Obj. 2: Further, it is light that distinguishes night from day, and this is effected by the sun, which is recorded as having been made on the fourth day. Therefore the production of light could not have been on the first day.

Obj. 2: Additionally, it's light that separates night from day, and this is caused by the sun, which is noted as having been created on the fourth day. So, the creation of light couldn't have happened on the first day.

Obj. 3: Further, night and day are brought about by the circular movement of a luminous body. But movement of this kind is an attribute of the firmament, and we read that the firmament was made on the second day. Therefore the production of light, dividing night from day, ought not to be assigned to the first day.

Obj. 3: Moreover, night and day are caused by the circular movement of a light source. This kind of movement is a characteristic of the sky, and we read that the sky was created on the second day. Therefore, the creation of light, which separates night from day, should not be attributed to the first day.

Obj. 4: Further, if it be said that spiritual light is here spoken of, it may be replied that the light made on the first day dispels the darkness. But in the beginning spiritual darkness was not, for even the demons were in the beginning good, as has been shown (Q. 63, A. 5). Therefore the production of light ought not to be assigned to the first day.

Obj. 4: Additionally, if it is claimed that spiritual light is being referred to here, it can be argued that the light created on the first day drives away the darkness. However, in the beginning, spiritual darkness did not exist, as even the demons were originally good, as previously discussed (Q. 63, A. 5). Therefore, the creation of light shouldn't be attributed to the first day.

On the contrary, That without which there could not be day, must have been made on the first day. But there can be no day without light. Therefore light must have been made on the first day.

On the contrary, what is essential for day to exist must have been created on the first day. But there can be no day without light. Therefore, light must have been created on the first day.

I answer that, There are two opinions as to the production of light. Augustine seems to say (De Civ. Dei xi, 9,33) that Moses could not have fittingly passed over the production of the spiritual creature, and therefore when we read, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," a spiritual nature as yet formless is to be understood by the word "heaven," and formless matter of the corporeal creature by the word "earth." And spiritual nature was formed first, as being of higher dignity than corporeal. The forming, therefore, of this spiritual nature is signified by the production of light, that is to say, of spiritual light. For a spiritual nature receives its form by the enlightenment whereby it is led to adhere to the Word of God.

I answer that, There are two views on the creation of light. Augustine seems to suggest (De Civ. Dei xi, 9,33) that Moses could not have adequately discussed the creation of spiritual beings. Thus, when we read, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," the term "heaven" should be understood as referring to a spiritual nature that is still formless, while "earth" refers to the formless matter of the physical world. Spiritual nature was created first because it holds a higher status than the physical. Therefore, the creation of this spiritual nature is indicated by the emergence of light, meaning spiritual light. A spiritual nature gains its form through the illumination that guides it to connect with the Word of God.

Other writers think that the production of spiritual creatures was purposely omitted by Moses, and give various reasons. Basil [*Hom. i in Hexaem.] says that Moses begins his narrative from the beginning of time which belongs to sensible things; but that the spiritual or angelic creation is passed over, as created beforehand.

Other writers believe that Moses intentionally left out the creation of spiritual beings and offer different explanations for this. Basil [*Hom. i in Hexaem.] states that Moses starts his account from the beginning of time, focusing on physical things, while the creation of spiritual or angelic beings is overlooked, as it was created earlier.

Chrysostom [*Hom. ii in Genes.] gives as a reason for the omission that Moses was addressing an ignorant people, to whom material things alone appealed, and whom he was endeavoring to withdraw from the service of idols. It would have been to them a pretext for idolatry if he had spoken to them of natures spiritual in substance and nobler than all corporeal creatures; for they would have paid them Divine worship, since they were prone to worship as gods even the sun, moon, and stars, which was forbidden them (Deut. 4).

Chrysostom [*Hom. ii in Genes.] explains that Moses left this out because he was speaking to an uneducated crowd, who only understood physical things, and he was trying to steer them away from idol worship. If he had talked about spiritual beings that were more important than all physical creations, they might have used that as an excuse to worship them as gods, since they were already inclined to worship the sun, moon, and stars, which was prohibited (Deut. 4).

But mention is made of several kinds of formlessness, in regard to the corporeal creature. One is where we read that "the earth was void and empty," and another where it is said that "darkness was upon the face of the deep." Now it seems to be required, for two reasons, that the formlessness of darkness should be removed first of all by the production of light. In the first place because light is a quality of the first body, as was stated (A. 3), and thus by means of light it was fitting that the world should first receive its form. The second reason is because light is a common quality. For light is common to terrestrial and celestial bodies. But as in knowledge we proceed from general principles, so do we in work of every kind. For the living thing is generated before the animal, and the animal before the man, as is shown in De Gener. Anim. ii, 3. It was fitting, then, as an evidence of the Divine wisdom, that among the works of distinction the production of light should take first place, since light is a form of the primary body, and because it is more common quality.

But several types of formlessness are mentioned in relation to the physical being. One instance is when we read that "the earth was void and empty," and another is where it states that "darkness was upon the face of the deep." It seems necessary, for two reasons, that the formlessness of darkness should first be addressed by the creation of light. First, because light is a characteristic of the fundamental body, as previously stated (A. 3), and therefore, through light, it was appropriate for the world to first take on its form. The second reason is that light is a universal quality. Light is shared by both earthly and heavenly bodies. Just as we advance from general principles in knowledge, we do the same in all types of work. For example, a living thing is created before an animal, and an animal before a human, as discussed in De Gener. Anim. ii, 3. So, as a testament to Divine wisdom, it was fitting that the creation of light should take precedence among the acts of distinction, since light is a form of the primary body and because it is a more universal quality.

Basil [*Hom. ii in Hexaem.], indeed, adds a third reason: that all other things are made manifest by light. And there is yet a fourth, already touched upon in the objections; that day cannot be unless light exists, which was made therefore on the first day.

Basil [*Hom. ii in Hexaem.] mentions a third reason: that everything else is revealed by light. There’s also a fourth reason, which has already been mentioned in the objections; that day cannot exist without light, which was created on the first day.

Reply Obj. 1: According to the opinion of those who hold that the formlessness of matter preceded its form in duration, matter must be held to have been created at the beginning with substantial forms, afterwards receiving those that are accidental, among which light holds the first place.

Reply Obj. 1: According to those who believe that matter existed in a formless state before acquiring its form over time, we must consider that matter was created at the beginning with fundamental forms, later receiving additional accidental forms, with light being the most significant among them.

Reply Obj. 2: In the opinion of some the light here spoken of was a kind of luminous nebula, and that on the making of the sun this returned to the matter of which it had been formed. But this cannot well be maintained, as in the beginning of Genesis Holy Scripture records the institution of that order of nature which henceforth is to endure. We cannot, then, say that what was made at that time afterwards ceased to exist.

Reply Obj. 2: Some people think the light mentioned here was a type of glowing nebula, and that when the sun was created, it went back to the matter it was made from. But this viewpoint doesn’t hold up because, at the start of Genesis, the Holy Scriptures describe the establishment of that order of nature which is meant to last. Therefore, we cannot claim that what was created at that time later stopped existing.

Others, therefore, held that this luminous nebula continues in existence, but so closely attached to the sun as to be indistinguishable. But this is as much as to say that it is superfluous, whereas none of God's works have been made in vain. On this account it is held by some that the sun's body was made out of this nebula. This, too, is impossible to those at least who believe that the sun is different in its nature from the four elements, and naturally incorruptible. For in that case its matter cannot take on another form.

Others believe that this bright nebula still exists, but it's so closely tied to the sun that we can't see it. However, this implies it’s unnecessary, which contradicts the idea that none of God's creations are pointless. For this reason, some think that the sun was formed from this nebula. This notion is also impossible for those who believe that the sun is fundamentally different from the four elements and is naturally unchanging. In that case, its substance can’t change into something else.

I answer, then, with Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv), that the light was the sun's light, formless as yet, being already the solar substance, and possessing illuminative power in a general way, to which was afterwards added the special and determinative power required to produce determinate effects. Thus, then, in the production of this light a triple distinction was made between light and darkness. First, as to the cause, forasmuch as in the substance of the sun we have the cause of light, and in the opaque nature of the earth the cause of darkness. Secondly, as to place, for in one hemisphere there was light, in the other darkness. Thirdly, as to time; because there was light for one and darkness for another in the same hemisphere; and this is signified by the words, "He called the light day, and the darkness night."

I respond, then, with Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv), that the light was the sun's light, still formless at that point, yet already the solar substance, and having the power to illuminate in a general sense, which was later enhanced with the specific and defining power needed to create distinct effects. Thus, in the creation of this light, a threefold distinction was made between light and darkness. First, regarding the cause, as the substance of the sun is the cause of light, while the opaque nature of the earth is the cause of darkness. Second, regarding location, since one hemisphere experienced light while the other was in darkness. Third, regarding time; because there was light for one and darkness for another in the same hemisphere; and this is indicated by the words, "He called the light day, and the darkness night."

Reply Obj. 3: Basil says (Hom. ii in Hexaem.) that day and night were then caused by expansion and contraction of light, rather than by movement. But Augustine objects to this (Gen. ad lit. i), that there was no reason for this vicissitude of expansion and contraction since there were neither men nor animals on the earth at that time, for whose service this was required. Nor does the nature of a luminous body seem to admit of the withdrawal of light, so long as the body is actually present; though this might be effected by a miracle. As to this, however, Augustine remarks (Gen. ad lit. i) that in the first founding of the order of nature we must not look for miracles, but for what is in accordance with nature. We hold, then, that the movement of the heavens is twofold. Of these movements, one is common to the entire heaven, and is the cause of day and night. This, as it seems, had its beginning on the first day. The other varies in proportion as it affects various bodies, and by its variations is the cause of the succession of days, months, and years. Thus it is, that in the account of the first day the distinction between day and night alone is mentioned; this distinction being brought about by the common movement of the heavens. The further distinction into successive days, seasons, and years recorded as begun on the fourth day, in the words, "let them be for seasons, and for days, and years" is due to proper movements.

Reply Obj. 3: Basil states (Hom. ii in Hexaem.) that day and night were caused by the expansion and contraction of light, rather than by any movement. However, Augustine counters this (Gen. ad lit. i), arguing that there was no reason for this cycle of expansion and contraction since there were neither humans nor animals on the earth at that time, whose service such a phenomenon would require. Additionally, the nature of a light source does not seem to allow for a decrease in light as long as the source is present; although this could theoretically occur through a miracle. Augustine also points out (Gen. ad lit. i) that during the initial establishment of the natural order, we should not expect miracles, but rather what aligns with the laws of nature. Therefore, we assert that the movement of the heavens is twofold. One type of movement is shared by the entire sky and is responsible for day and night. This movement apparently began on the first day. The other type varies according to how it affects different bodies and causes the changes of days, months, and years. Thus, in the description of the first day, only the distinction between day and night is mentioned; this separation results from the common movement of the heavens. The further distinction into successive days, seasons, and years, noted as starting on the fourth day with the phrase, "let them be for seasons, and for days, and years," is caused by specific movements.

Reply Obj. 4: As Augustine teaches (Confess. xii; Gen. ad lit. 1, 15), formlessness did not precede forms in duration; and so we must understand the production of light to signify the formation of spiritual creatures, not, indeed, with the perfection of glory, in which they were not created, but with the perfection of grace, which they possessed from their creation as said above (Q. 62, A. 3). Thus the division of light from darkness will denote the distinction of the spiritual creature from other created things as yet without form. But if all created things received their form at the same time, the darkness must be held to mean the spiritual darkness of the wicked, not as existing from the beginning but such as God foresaw would exist. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: As Augustine explains (Confess. xii; Gen. ad lit. 1, 15), formlessness didn’t come before forms in time; so we should interpret the creation of light as the formation of spiritual beings, not with the perfection of glory, which they weren’t created with, but with the perfection of grace, which they had from the moment they were created as mentioned earlier (Q. 62, A. 3). Thus, the separation of light from darkness signifies the distinction of spiritual beings from other created things that were still formless. However, if all created things received their form at the same time, then darkness would represent the spiritual darkness of the wicked, not as something that existed from the beginning but as something God foresaw would come to be.

QUESTION 68

ON THE WORK OF THE SECOND DAY
(In Four Articles)

ON THE WORK OF THE SECOND DAY
(In Four Articles)

We must next consider the work of the second day. Under this head there are four points of inquiry:

We need to look at what happened on the second day. There are four aspects to examine:

(1) Whether the firmament was made on the second day?

(1) Was the sky created on the second day?

(2) Whether there are waters above the firmament?

(2) Are there waters above the sky?

(3) Whether the firmament divides waters from waters?

(3) Does the sky separate the waters from each other?

(4) Whether there is more than one heaven? _______________________

(4) Is there more than one heaven? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 68, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 68, Art. 1]

Whether the Firmament Was Made on the Second Day?

Whether the Sky Was Created on the Second Day?

Objection 1: It would seem that the firmament was not made on the second day. For it is said (Gen. 1:8): "God called the firmament heaven." But the heaven existed before days, as is clear from the words, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth." Therefore the firmament was not made on the second day.

Objection 1: It seems that the sky wasn't made on the second day. It's written (Gen. 1:8): "God called the sky heaven." But heaven existed before the days, as shown in the phrase, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth." Therefore, the sky wasn't made on the second day.

Obj. 2: Further, the work of the six days is ordered conformably to the order of Divine wisdom. Now it would ill become the Divine wisdom to make afterwards that which is naturally first. But though the firmament naturally precedes the earth and the waters, these are mentioned before the formation of light, which was on the first day. Therefore the firmament was not made on the second day.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the creation over six days aligns with the order of Divine wisdom. It would not be fitting for Divine wisdom to create something that is naturally first afterwards. Although the sky naturally comes before the earth and the waters, these are mentioned prior to the creation of light, which took place on the first day. Therefore, the sky was not created on the second day.

Obj. 3: Further, all that was made in the six days was formed out of matter created before days began. But the firmament cannot have been formed out of pre-existing matter, for if so it would be liable to generation and corruption. Therefore the firmament was not made on the second day.

Obj. 3: Additionally, everything created in the six days was made from matter that existed before the days started. However, the firmament couldn't have been made from pre-existing matter, because if it were, it would be subject to change and decay. Therefore, the firmament was not created on the second day.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:6): "God said: let there be a firmament," and further on (verse 8); "And the evening and morning were the second day."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:6): "God said: let there be a firmament," and further on (verse 8); "And the evening and morning were the second day."

I answer that, In discussing questions of this kind two rules are to be observed, as Augustine teaches (Gen. ad lit. i, 18). The first is, to hold the truth of Scripture without wavering. The second is that since Holy Scripture can be explained in a multiplicity of senses, one should adhere to a particular explanation, only in such measure as to be ready to abandon it, if it be proved with certainty to be false; lest Holy Scripture be exposed to the ridicule of unbelievers, and obstacles be placed to their believing.

I answer that, When discussing questions like this, two rules should be followed, as Augustine teaches (Gen. ad lit. i, 18). The first is to hold firmly to the truth of Scripture. The second is that since Holy Scripture can be interpreted in various ways, one should stick with a particular interpretation only as long as one is willing to give it up if it is proven to be false; otherwise, Holy Scripture may be mocked by nonbelievers and become a barrier to their faith.

We say, therefore, that the words which speak of the firmament as made on the second day can be understood in two senses. They may be understood, first, of the starry firmament, on which point it is necessary to set forth the different opinions of philosophers. Some of these believed it to be composed of the elements; and this was the opinion of Empedocles, who, however, held further that the body of the firmament was not susceptible of dissolution, because its parts are, so to say, not in disunion, but in harmony. Others held the firmament to be of the nature of the four elements, not, indeed, compounded of them, but being as it were a simple element. Such was the opinion of Plato, who held that element to be fire. Others, again, have held that the heaven is not of the nature of the four elements, but is itself a fifth body, existing over and above these. This is the opinion of Aristotle (De Coel. i, text. 6,32).

We say, then, that the phrases describing the sky as created on the second day can be interpreted in two ways. First, they can refer to the starry sky, where it's important to outline the different views of philosophers. Some believed it was made up of elements, such as Empedocles, who further argued that the body of the sky cannot dissolve, because its parts are in harmony rather than in conflict. Others believed the sky is made from the four elements, not in a combined sense, but as if it is a separate, singular element. This was Plato's view, who considered that element to be fire. Additionally, some thinkers have argued that the heavens are not made from the four elements but are actually a fifth body, existing above them. This is Aristotle's position (De Coel. i, text. 6,32).

According to the first opinion, it may, strictly speaking, be granted that the firmament was made, even as to substance, on the second day. For it is part of the work of creation to produce the substance of the elements, while it belongs to the work of distinction and adornment to give forms to the elements that pre-exist.

According to the first view, it can be argued that the sky was created, even in terms of its substance, on the second day. This is because creating the substance of the elements is part of the act of creation, while distinguishing and decorating involves giving shapes to the already existing elements.

But the belief that the firmament was made, as to its substance, on the second day is incompatible with the opinion of Plato, according to whom the making of the firmament implies the production of the element of fire. This production, however, belongs to the work of creation, at least, according to those who hold that formlessness of matter preceded in time its formation, since the first form received by matter is the elemental.

But the idea that the sky was created, in terms of its substance, on the second day clashes with Plato's view, which suggests that making the sky involves creating the element of fire. However, this creation is part of the work of creation, at least according to those who believe that formless matter existed before its shaping, since the first shape that matter takes is the elemental.

Still less compatible with the belief that the substance of the firmament was produced on the second day is the opinion of Aristotle, seeing that the mention of days denotes succession of time, whereas the firmament, being naturally incorruptible, is of a matter not susceptible of change of form; wherefore it could not be made out of matter existing antecedently in time.

Even less compatible with the belief that the material of the sky was created on the second day is Aristotle's view, since the reference to days implies a sequence of time, while the sky, being naturally unchangeable, is made of a substance that can't change its form; therefore, it couldn't have been made from matter that existed before that time.

Hence to produce the substance of the firmament belongs to the work of creation. But its formation, in some degree, belongs to the second day, according to both opinions: for as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv), the light of the sun was without form during the first three days, and afterwards, on the fourth day, received its form.

Hence, creating the substance of the sky is part of the work of creation. However, its formation is somewhat attributed to the second day, according to both viewpoints: as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv), the sunlight was formless during the first three days, and then, on the fourth day, it took shape.

If, however, we take these days to denote merely sequence in the natural order, as Augustine holds (Gen. ad lit. iv, 22,24), and not succession in time, there is then nothing to prevent our saying, whilst holding any one of the opinions given above, that the substantial formation of the firmament belongs to the second day.

If we consider these days to represent just a sequence in the natural order, like Augustine suggests (Gen. ad lit. iv, 22, 24), rather than a progression in time, then there's nothing stopping us from saying, while adhering to any of the opinions mentioned above, that the main creation of the firmament takes place on the second day.

Another possible explanation is to understand by the firmament that was made on the second day, not that in which the stars are set, but the part of the atmosphere where the clouds are collected, and which has received the name firmament from the firmness and density of the air. "For a body is called firm," that is dense and solid, "thereby differing from a mathematical body" as is remarked by Basil (Hom. iii in Hexaem.). If, then, this explanation is adopted none of these opinions will be found repugnant to reason. Augustine, in fact (Gen. ad lit. ii, 4), recommends it thus: "I consider this view of the question worthy of all commendation, as neither contrary to faith nor difficult to be proved and believed."

Another possible explanation is that the firmament created on the second day refers not to the sky where the stars are placed, but to the part of the atmosphere where clouds gather, which is called firmament because of the firmness and density of the air. "A body is called firm," meaning dense and solid, "thus differing from a mathematical body," as noted by Basil (Hom. iii in Hexaem.). If this explanation is accepted, none of these views will be found unreasonable. Augustine, in fact (Gen. ad lit. ii, 4), suggests it like this: "I think this perspective on the question is worthy of great praise, as it is neither against faith nor hard to prove and believe."

Reply Obj. 1: According to Chrysostom (Hom. iii in Genes.), Moses prefaces his record by speaking of the works of God collectively, in the words, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," and then proceeds to explain them part by part; in somewhat the same way as one might say: "This house was constructed by that builder," and then add: "First, he laid the foundations, then built the walls, and thirdly, put on the roof." In accepting this explanation we are, therefore, not bound to hold that a different heaven is spoken of in the words: "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," and when we read that the firmament was made on the second day.

Reply Obj. 1: According to Chrysostom (Hom. iii in Genes.), Moses begins his account by referring to God's works collectively, saying, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," and then goes on to explain them in detail; similar to how one might say, "This house was built by that builder," and then add, "First, he laid the foundations, then built the walls, and finally, put on the roof." By accepting this explanation, we are not required to believe that a different heaven is mentioned in the phrase: "In the beginning God created heaven and earth," when we see that the firmament was made on the second day.

We may also say that the heaven recorded as created in the beginning is not the same as that made on the second day; and there are several senses in which this may be understood. Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. i, 9) that the heaven recorded as made on the first day is the formless spiritual nature, and that the heaven of the second day is the corporeal heaven. According to Bede (Hexaem. i) and Strabus, the heaven made on the first day is the empyrean, and the firmament made on the second day, the starry heaven. According to Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii) that of the first day was spherical in form and without stars, the same, in fact, that the philosophers speak of, calling it the ninth sphere, and the primary movable body that moves with diurnal movement: while by the firmament made on the second day he understands the starry heaven. According to another theory, touched upon by Augustine [*Gen. ad lit. ii, 1] the heaven made on the first day was the starry heaven, and the firmament made on the second day was that region of the air where the clouds are collected, which is also called heaven, but equivocally. And to show that the word is here used in an equivocal sense, it is expressly said that "God called the firmament heaven"; just as in a preceding verse it said that "God called the light day" (since the word "day" is also used to denote a space of twenty-four hours). Other instances of a similar use occur, as pointed out by Rabbi Moses.

We can also say that the heaven described as created at the beginning is not the same as the one made on the second day, and there are several ways to understand this. Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. i, 9) that the heaven created on the first day is the formless spiritual nature, while the heaven of the second day is the physical heaven. According to Bede (Hexaem. i) and Strabus, the heaven made on the first day is the empyrean, and the firmament made on the second day is the starry heaven. Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii) suggests that the heaven of the first day was spherical and devoid of stars, the same one that philosophers refer to as the ninth sphere, the primary moving body that moves with daily rotation; while the firmament created on the second day represents the starry heaven. Another theory, mentioned by Augustine [*Gen. ad lit. ii, 1], holds that the heaven made on the first day was the starry heaven, and the firmament made on the second day refers to that part of the atmosphere where clouds gather, which is also called heaven, but in a different sense. To show that the term is being used in a different sense here, it specifically states that "God called the firmament heaven"; just as a preceding verse notes that "God called the light day" (since the term "day" is also used to denote a period of twenty-four hours). There are other examples of similar usage, as pointed out by Rabbi Moses.

The second and third objections are sufficiently answered by what has been already said. _______________________

The second and third objections are adequately addressed by what has already been mentioned. _______________________

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 68, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 68, Art. 2]

Whether There Are Waters Above the Firmament?

Whether There Are Waters Above the Firmament?

Objection 1: It would seem that there are not waters above the firmament. For water is heavy by nature, and heavy things tend naturally downwards, not upwards. Therefore there are not waters above the firmament.

Objection 1: It seems that there aren't any waters above the sky. Water is naturally heavy, and heavy things usually go down, not up. So, there aren't any waters above the sky.

Obj. 2: Further, water is fluid by nature, and fluids cannot rest on a sphere, as experience shows. Therefore, since the firmament is a sphere, there cannot be water above it.

Obj. 2: Moreover, water is naturally fluid, and fluids can't stay still on a sphere, as we know from experience. Therefore, since the sky is a sphere, there can't be water above it.

Obj. 3: Further, water is an element, and appointed to the generation of composite bodies, according to the relation in which imperfect things stand towards perfect. But bodies of composite nature have their place upon the earth, and not above the firmament, so that water would be useless there. But none of God's works are useless. Therefore there are not waters above the firmament.

Obj. 3: Additionally, water is an element designed for the creation of composite bodies, based on the relationship between imperfect things and perfect ones. However, composite bodies exist on earth and not above the sky, which means water wouldn't be useful there. But none of God's creations are useless. Therefore, there aren’t any waters above the sky.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:7): "(God) divided the waters that were under the firmament, from those that were above the firmament."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:7): "(God) separated the waters below the sky from the waters above it."

I answer with Augustine (Gen. ad lit. ii, 5) that, "These words of Scripture have more authority than the most exalted human intellect. Hence, whatever these waters are, and whatever their mode of existence, we cannot for a moment doubt that they are there." As to the nature of these waters, all are not agreed. Origen says (Hom. i in Gen.) that the waters that are above the firmament are "spiritual substances." Wherefore it is written (Ps. 148:4): "Let the waters that are above the heavens praise the name of the Lord," and (Dan. 3:60): "Ye waters that are above the heavens, bless the Lord."To this Basil answers (Hom. iii in Hexaem.) that these words do not mean that these waters are rational creatures, but that "the thoughtful contemplation of them by those who understand fulfils the glory of the Creator." Hence in the same context, fire, hail, and other like creatures, are invoked in the same way, though no one would attribute reason to these.

I respond alongside Augustine (Gen. ad lit. ii, 5) that, "These words of Scripture carry more weight than the most elevated human mind. Therefore, regardless of what these waters are and how they exist, we cannot doubt for a second that they are present." Regarding the nature of these waters, there isn't a consensus. Origen states (Hom. i in Gen.) that the waters above the firmament are "spiritual substances." This is why it is written (Ps. 148:4): "Let the waters that are above the heavens praise the name of the Lord," and (Dan. 3:60): "You waters that are above the heavens, bless the Lord." Basil responds (Hom. iii in Hexaem.) that these words don't imply that these waters are rational beings, but that "the thoughtful contemplation of them by those who understand fulfills the glory of the Creator." Thus, in the same context, fire, hail, and other similar beings are likewise invoked, even though no one would consider them to possess reason.

We must hold, then, these waters to be material, but their exact nature will be differently defined according as opinions on the firmament differ. For if by the firmament we understand the starry heaven, and as being of the nature of the four elements, for the same reason it may be believed that the waters above the heaven are of the same nature as the elemental waters. But if by the firmament we understand the starry heaven, not, however, as being of the nature of the four elements, then the waters above the firmament will not be of the same nature as the elemental waters, but just as, according to Strabus, one heaven is called empyrean, that is, fiery, solely on account of its splendor: so this other heaven will be called aqueous solely on account of its transparence; and this heaven is above the starry heaven. Again, if the firmament is held to be of other nature than the elements, it may still be said to divide the waters, if we understand by water not the element but formless matter. Augustine, in fact, says (Super Gen. cont. Manich. i, 5,7) that whatever divides bodies from bodies can be said to divide waters from waters.

We should consider these waters to be material, but their exact nature will be defined differently based on varying opinions about the firmament. If we interpret the firmament as the starry sky and see it as part of the four elements, then it makes sense to think that the waters above the sky are of the same nature as the elemental waters. However, if we understand the firmament to be the starry sky but not as part of the four elements, then the waters above the firmament won't be of the same nature as the elemental waters. Just as, according to Strabus, one heaven is called empyrean, meaning fiery, solely because of its brightness, this other heaven will be referred to as aqueous purely because of its transparency; and this heaven is positioned above the starry heaven. Furthermore, if we consider the firmament to have a different nature than the elements, it can still be seen as separating the waters, if we interpret water not as the element but as formless matter. Augustine, in fact, states (Super Gen. cont. Manich. i, 5,7) that anything that separates bodies from bodies can also be said to separate waters from waters.

If, however, we understand by the firmament that part of the air in which the clouds are collected, then the waters above the firmament must rather be the vapors resolved from the waters which are raised above a part of the atmosphere, and from which the rain falls. But to say, as some writers alluded to by Augustine (Gen. ad lit. ii, 4), that waters resolved into vapor may be lifted above the starry heaven, is a mere absurdity. The solid nature of the firmament, the intervening region of fire, wherein all vapor must be consumed, the tendency in light and rarefied bodies to drift to one spot beneath the vault of the moon, as well as the fact that vapors are perceived not to rise even to the tops of the higher mountains, all to go to show the impossibility of this. Nor is it less absurd to say, in support of this opinion, that bodies may be rarefied infinitely, since natural bodies cannot be infinitely rarefied or divided, but up to a certain point only.

If we think of the firmament as the part of the atmosphere where clouds gather, then the waters above the firmament must actually be the vapor that comes from the water rising in part of the atmosphere, which is what the rain falls from. However, to claim, as some writers mentioned by Augustine (Gen. ad lit. ii, 4), that vapor can be lifted above the starry sky is simply ridiculous. The solid nature of the firmament, the area of fire in between, where all vapor would be consumed, the tendency of light and less dense materials to settle beneath the moon's vault, and the fact that vapor doesn't even rise to the tops of the tallest mountains all demonstrate that this is impossible. It’s equally absurd to argue, in support of this view, that materials can be thinned out infinitely, because natural substances cannot be infinitely thinned or divided—only up to a certain extent.

Reply Obj. 1: Some have attempted to solve this difficulty by supposing that in spite of the natural gravity of water, it is kept in its place above the firmament by the Divine power. Augustine (Gen. ad lit. ii, 1), however will not admit this solution, but says "It is our business here to inquire how God has constituted the natures of His creatures, not how far it may have pleased Him to work on them by way of miracle." We leave this view, then, and answer that according to the last two opinions on the firmament and the waters the solution appears from what has been said. According to the first opinion, an order of the elements must be supposed different from that given by Aristotle, that is to say, that the waters surrounding the earth are of a dense consistency, and those around the firmament of a rarer consistency, in proportion to the respective density of the earth and of the heaven.

Reply Obj. 1: Some have tried to resolve this issue by assuming that despite the natural heaviness of water, it is held in place above the heavens by Divine power. However, Augustine (Gen. ad lit. ii, 1) does not accept this explanation and states, "Our task here is to explore how God has designed the natures of His creations, not how far He may choose to intervene through miracles." Therefore, we set aside this viewpoint and respond that, according to the last two perspectives on the firmament and the waters, the solution is clear from what has been discussed. According to the first perspective, a different order of elements must be assumed than what Aristotle proposed; that is, the waters surrounding the earth have a denser consistency, while those around the firmament have a lighter consistency, corresponding to the relative density of the earth and the heavens.

Or by the water, as stated, we may understand the matter of bodies to be signified.

Or by the water, as mentioned, we can understand the subject of bodies to be represented.

Reply Obj. 2: The solution is clear from what has been said, according to the last two opinions. But according to the first opinion, Basil gives two replies (Hom. iii in Hexaem.). He answers first, that a body seen as concave beneath need not necessarily be rounded, or convex, above. Secondly, that the waters above the firmament are not fluid, but exist outside it in a solid state, as a mass of ice, and that this is the crystalline heaven of some writers.

Reply Obj. 2: The answer is straightforward based on the last two views. However, according to the first view, Basil provides two responses (Hom. iii in Hexaem.). He first states that a body appearing concave below does not have to be rounded or convex on top. Secondly, he argues that the waters above the firmament are not fluid, but exist outside it in a solid form, like a mass of ice, which some writers refer to as the crystalline heaven.

Reply Obj. 3: According to the third opinion given, the waters above the firmament have been raised in the form of vapors, and serve to give rain to the earth. But according to the second opinion, they are above the heaven that is wholly transparent and starless. This, according to some, is the primary mobile, the cause of the daily revolution of the entire heaven, whereby the continuance of generation is secured. In the same way the starry heaven, by the zodiacal movement, is the cause whereby different bodies are generated or corrupted, through the rising and setting of the stars, and their various influences. But according to the first opinion these waters are set there to temper the heat of the celestial bodies, as Basil supposes (Hom. iii in Hexaem.). And Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii, 5) that some have considered this to be proved by the extreme cold of Saturn owing to its nearness to the waters that are above the firmament. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: According to the third view, the waters above the firmament have risen as vapor and provide rain to the earth. However, the second view suggests they are above a completely clear and starless heaven. Some believe this to be the primary mover, the reason for the daily rotation of the entire cosmos, which ensures the ongoing cycle of generation. Similarly, the starry heaven, through the zodiacal movement, causes different entities to be created or destroyed through the rising and setting of the stars and their various influences. Nonetheless, the first opinion holds that these waters exist to moderate the heat of the celestial bodies, as Basil suggests (Hom. iii in Hexaem.). Augustine also mentions (Gen. ad lit. ii, 5) that some have argued this is supported by the extreme cold of Saturn due to its proximity to the waters above the firmament. _______________________

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 68, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 68, Art. 3]

Whether the Firmament Divides Waters from Waters?

Whether the sky separates the waters from the waters?

Objection 1: It would seem that the firmament does not divide waters from waters. For bodies that are of one and the same species have naturally one and the same place. But the Philosopher says (Topic. i, 6): "All water is the same species." Water therefore cannot be distinct from water by place.

Objection 1: It seems that the sky does not separate waters from waters. Bodies of the same kind naturally occupy the same space. But the Philosopher says (Topic. i, 6): "All water is the same kind." Therefore, water cannot be situated apart from water by location.

Obj. 2: Further, should it be said that the waters above the firmament differ in species from those under the firmament, it may be argued, on the contrary, that things distinct in species need nothing else to distinguish them. If then, these waters differ in species, it is not the firmament that distinguishes them.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, if it’s claimed that the waters above the sky are different from those below it, one could argue that things that are different in type don’t need anything else to set them apart. So, if these waters are indeed different in type, then it isn’t the sky that separates them.

Obj. 3: Further, it would appear that what distinguishes waters from waters must be something which is in contact with them on either side, as a wall standing in the midst of a river. But it is evident that the waters below do not reach up to the firmament. Therefore the firmament does not divide the waters from the waters.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, it seems that what separates waters from waters must be something that is in contact with them on either side, like a wall standing in the middle of a river. However, it's clear that the waters below do not extend up to the sky. Therefore, the sky does not separate the waters from each other.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:6): "Let there be a firmament made amidst the waters; and let it divide the waters from the waters."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:6): "Let there be a sky created among the waters; and let it separate the waters from the waters."

I answer that, The text of Genesis, considered superficially, might lead to the adoption of a theory similar to that held by certain philosophers of antiquity, who taught that water was a body infinite in dimension, and the primary element of all bodies. Thus in the words, "Darkness was upon the face of the deep," the word "deep" might be taken to mean the infinite mass of water, understood as the principle of all other bodies. These philosophers also taught that not all corporeal things are confined beneath the heaven perceived by our senses, but that a body of water, infinite in extent, exists above that heaven. On this view the firmament of heaven might be said to divide the waters without from those within—that is to say, from all bodies under the heaven, since they took water to be the principle of them all.

I answer that, The text of Genesis, when viewed superficially, might suggest a theory similar to that of some ancient philosophers who claimed that water was an endless body and the fundamental element of all things. Thus, in the phrase, "Darkness was upon the face of the deep," the term "deep" could be interpreted as the infinite mass of water, seen as the source of all other entities. These philosophers also believed that not all physical things are restricted to the heavens we observe with our senses, but that there exists an infinite body of water above that heaven. According to this perspective, the firmament of heaven could be described as separating the waters outside from those inside—that is, from all bodies beneath the heaven, since they considered water to be the source of them all.

As, however, this theory can be shown to be false by solid reasons, it cannot be held to be the sense of Holy Scripture. It should rather be considered that Moses was speaking to ignorant people, and that out of condescension to their weakness he put before them only such things as are apparent to sense. Now even the most uneducated can perceive by their senses that earth and water are corporeal, whereas it is not evident to all that air also is corporeal, for there have even been philosophers who said that air is nothing, and called a space filled with air a vacuum.

Since this theory can be clearly proven false by solid arguments, it can't be considered the meaning of Holy Scripture. Instead, we should think that Moses was addressing people who lacked knowledge, and out of kindness to their limitations, he presented only what could be easily observed. Even the most uneducated can see that earth and water are physical substances, while not everyone recognizes that air is also physical, as there have even been philosophers who claimed that air is nothing and referred to a space filled with air as a vacuum.

Moses, then, while he expressly mentions water and earth, makes no express mention of air by name, to avoid setting before ignorant persons something beyond their knowledge. In order, however, to express the truth to those capable of understanding it, he implies in the words: "Darkness was upon the face of the deep," the existence of air as attendant, so to say, upon the water. For it may be understood from these words that over the face of the water a transparent body was extended, the subject of light and darkness, which, in fact, is the air.

Moses, while he specifically mentions water and earth, doesn't actually name air to avoid confusing people who might not understand. However, to convey the truth to those who can grasp it, he hints at the existence of air with the phrase: "Darkness was upon the face of the deep." This implies that there was a transparent substance above the water, which is related to light and darkness, and that substance is air.

Whether, then, we understand by the firmament the starry heaven, or the cloudy region of the air, it is true to say that it divides the waters from the waters, according as we take water to denote formless matter, or any kind of transparent body, as fittingly designated under the name of waters. For the starry heaven divides the lower transparent bodies from the higher, and the cloudy region divides that higher part of the air, where the rain and similar things are generated, from the lower part, which is connected with the water and included under that name.

Whether we see the firmament as the starry sky or the cloudy area of the air, it’s accurate to say that it separates the waters from the waters, depending on whether we consider water as formless matter or any kind of clear substance that can be appropriately called waters. The starry sky separates the lower clear bodies from the higher ones, while the cloudy area separates the upper part of the air, where rain and similar phenomena occur, from the lower part, which is connected to the water and known by that name.

Reply Obj. 1: If by the firmament is understood the starry heaven, the waters above are not of the same species as those beneath. But if by the firmament is understood the cloudy region of the air, both these waters are of the same species, and two places are assigned to them, though not for the same purpose, the higher being the place of their begetting, the lower, the place of their repose.

Reply Obj. 1: If by the firmament we mean the starry sky, then the waters above are different from those below. But if by the firmament we mean the cloudy area of the atmosphere, both types of water are the same, and they are assigned two locations, though not for the same reason: the higher one is where they are created, while the lower one is where they rest.

Reply Obj. 2: If the waters are held to differ in species, the firmament cannot be said to divide the waters, as the cause of their destruction, but only as the boundary of each.

Reply Obj. 2: If the waters are considered to be different in kind, the sky cannot be said to separate the waters as the reason for their destruction, but only as the boundary for each.

Reply Obj. 3: On account of the air and other similar bodies being invisible, Moses includes all such bodies under the name of water, and thus it is evident that waters are found on each side of the firmament, whatever be the sense in which the word is used. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Since air and other similar things are invisible, Moses refers to all these things as water. Therefore, it's clear that waters are present on both sides of the firmament, regardless of how the term is interpreted.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 68, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 68, Art. 4]

Whether There Is Only One Heaven?

Whether There Is Only One Heaven?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is only one heaven. For the heaven is contrasted with the earth, in the words, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth." But there is only one earth. Therefore there is only one heaven.

Objection 1: It seems like there's only one heaven. Heaven is set against the earth in the phrase, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth." But there is only one earth. So, there must be only one heaven.

Obj. 2: Further, that which consists of the entire sum of its own matter, must be one; and such is the heaven, as the Philosopher proves (De Coel. i, text. 95). Therefore there is but one heaven.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, anything that is made up of its whole substance must be one; and this is true for the heaven, as the Philosopher demonstrates (De Coel. i, text. 95). Therefore, there is only one heaven.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever is predicated of many things univocally is predicated of them according to some common notion. But if there are more heavens than one, they are so called univocally, for if equivocally only, they could not properly be called many. If, then, they are many, there must be some common notion by reason of which each is called heaven, but this common notion cannot be assigned. Therefore there cannot be more than one heaven.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, anything that is described in the same way for multiple things is described based on some shared idea. But if there are multiple heavens, they are named the same way; if they were only named differently, they couldn’t truly be considered many. So, if there are indeed many, there must be some shared idea that justifies calling each one heaven, but we can't actually define this shared idea. Therefore, there can't be more than one heaven.

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 148:4): "Praise Him, ye heavens of heavens."

On the contrary, It is said (Ps. 148:4): "Praise Him, you heavens of heavens."

I answer that, On this point there seems to be a diversity of opinion between Basil and Chrysostom. The latter says that there is only one heaven (Hom. iv in Gen.), and that the words 'heavens of heavens' are merely the translation of the Hebrew idiom according to which the word is always used in the plural, just as in Latin there are many nouns that are wanting in the singular. On the other hand, Basil (Hom. iii in Hexaem.), whom Damascene follows (De Fide Orth. ii), says that there are many heavens. The difference, however, is more nominal than real. For Chrysostom means by the one heaven the whole body that is above the earth and the water, for which reason the birds that fly in the air are called birds of heaven [*Ps. 8:9]. But since in this body there are many distinct parts, Basil said that there are more heavens than one.

I respond that, on this topic, there seems to be differing opinions between Basil and Chrysostom. The latter claims that there is only one heaven (Hom. iv in Gen.), and that the phrase 'heavens of heavens' is simply a translation of the Hebrew expression, which is consistently used in the plural, similar to many Latin nouns that have no singular form. Conversely, Basil (Hom. iii in Hexaem.), whom Damascene supports (De Fide Orth. ii), argues that there are multiple heavens. However, the difference is more about terminology than substance. Chrysostom refers to the one heaven as the entire expanse above the earth and water, which is why birds that fly in the air are called birds of heaven [*Ps. 8:9]. But since this expanse has many distinct parts, Basil suggested that there are more than one heaven.

In order, then, to understand the distinction of heavens, it must be borne in mind that Scripture speaks of heaven in a threefold sense. Sometimes it uses the word in its proper and natural meaning, when it denotes that body on high which is luminous actually or potentially, and incorruptible by nature. In this body there are three heavens; the first is the empyrean, which is wholly luminous; the second is the aqueous or crystalline, wholly transparent; and the third is called the starry heaven, in part transparent, and in part actually luminous, and divided into eight spheres. One of these is the sphere of the fixed stars; the other seven, which may be called the seven heavens, are the spheres of the planets.

To understand the different aspects of heaven, it's important to recognize that Scripture refers to heaven in three ways. Sometimes it uses the term in its most straightforward sense, referring to that high realm that is either actually or potentially luminous and is inherently incorruptible. In this realm, there are three heavens: the first is the empyrean, which is completely radiant; the second is the aqueous or crystalline heaven, which is entirely transparent; and the third is known as the starry heaven, which is partly transparent and partly luminous, divided into eight spheres. One of these spheres contains the fixed stars, while the other seven, which can be called the seven heavens, are the spheres of the planets.

In the second place, the name heaven is applied to a body that participates in any property of the heavenly body, as sublimity and luminosity, actual or potential. Thus Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii) holds as one heaven all the space between the waters and the moon's orb, calling it the aerial. According to him, then, there are three heavens, the aerial, the starry, and one higher than both these, of which the Apostle is understood to speak when he says of himself that he was "rapt to the third heaven."

In addition, the term "heaven" refers to a space that shares any qualities of a heavenly body, like greatness and brightness, whether real or potential. Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii) describes the area between the waters and the moon's path as one heaven, calling it the aerial. According to him, there are three heavens: the aerial, the starry, and a higher one that is beyond both, which the Apostle refers to when he mentions being "caught up to the third heaven."

But since this space contains two elements, namely, fire and air, and in each of these there is what is called a higher and a lower region Rabanus subdivides this space into four distinct heavens. The higher region of fire he calls the fiery heaven; the lower, the Olympian heaven from a lofty mountain of that name: the higher region of air he calls, from its brightness, the ethereal heaven; the lower, the aerial. When, therefore, these four heavens are added to the three enumerated above, there are seven corporeal heavens in all, in the opinion of Rabanus.

But since this space consists of two elements, fire and air, and each of these has a higher and a lower region, Rabanus divides this space into four distinct heavens. He names the higher region of fire the fiery heaven and the lower region the Olympian heaven, after a high mountain of that name. He calls the higher region of air the ethereal heaven, due to its brightness, and the lower region the aerial. Therefore, when these four heavens are added to the three mentioned above, there are a total of seven physical heavens, according to Rabanus.

Thirdly, there are metaphorical uses of the word heaven, as when this name is applied to the Blessed Trinity, Who is the Light and the Most High Spirit. It is explained by some, as thus applied, in the words, "I will ascend into heaven"; whereby the evil spirit is represented as seeking to make himself equal with God. Sometimes also spiritual blessings, the recompense of the Saints, from being the highest of all good gifts, are signified by the word heaven, and, in fact, are so signified, according to Augustine (De Serm. Dom. in Monte), in the words, "Your reward is very great in heaven" (Matt. 5:12).

Thirdly, the word heaven is used metaphorically, as when it refers to the Blessed Trinity, who is the Light and the Most High Spirit. Some explain this usage with the phrase, "I will ascend into heaven," where the evil spirit is portrayed as trying to make himself equal to God. Sometimes, the word heaven also signifies spiritual blessings, the rewards of the Saints, which are the highest of all good gifts. In fact, according to Augustine (De Serm. Dom. in Monte), this is reflected in the words, "Your reward is very great in heaven" (Matt. 5:12).

Again, three kinds of supernatural visions, bodily, imaginative, and intellectual, are called sometimes so many heavens, in reference to which Augustine (Gen. ad lit. xii) expounds Paul's rapture "to the third heaven."

Again, three types of supernatural visions—physical, imaginative, and intellectual—are referred to as different heavens. In this context, Augustine (Gen. ad lit. xii) explains Paul's experience of being "caught up to the third heaven."

Reply Obj. 1: The earth stands in relation to the heaven as the centre of a circle to its circumference. But as one center may have many circumferences, so, though there is but one earth, there may be many heavens.

Reply Obj. 1: The earth is related to the heavens like the center of a circle is to its edge. Just as one center can have multiple circumferences, there is only one earth, but there can be many heavens.

Reply Obj. 2: The argument holds good as to the heaven, in so far as it denotes the entire sum of corporeal creation, for in that sense it is one.

Reply Obj. 2: The argument is valid regarding heaven, as it represents the complete total of physical creation; in that sense, it is unified.

Reply Obj. 3: All the heavens have in common sublimity and some degree of luminosity, as appears from what has been said. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: All the heavens share a sense of grandeur and some level of brightness, as has been discussed.

QUESTION 69

ON THE WORK OF THE THIRD DAY
(In Two Articles)

ON THE WORK OF THE THIRD DAY
(In Two Articles)

We next consider the work of the third day. Under this head there are two points of inquiry:

We will now look at the work of the third day. In this regard, there are two areas of investigation:

(1) About the gathering together of the waters.

(1) About the coming together of the waters.

(2) About the production of plants. _______________________

(2) About how plants are produced. _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 69, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 69, Art. 1]

Whether It Was Fitting That the Gathering Together of the Waters
Should Take Place, As Recorded, on the Third Day?

Whether it was appropriate for the gathering together of the waters
to happen, as noted, on the third day?

Objection 1: It would seem that it was not fitting that the gathering together of the waters should take place on the third day. For what was made on the first and second days is expressly said to have been "made" in the words, "God said: Be light made," and "Let there be a firmament made."But the third day is contradistinguished from the first and the second days. Therefore the work of the third day should have been described as a making not as a gathering together.

Objection 1: It seems that it wasn't appropriate for the gathering of the waters to happen on the third day. On the first and second days, what was created is clearly stated with phrases like "God said: Let there be light" and "Let there be a firmament." But the third day is different from the first and second days. So, the work of the third day should have been described as creation rather than gathering.

Obj. 2: Further, the earth hitherto had been completely covered by the waters, wherefore it was described as "invisible" [* See Q. 66, A. 1, Obj. 1]. There was then no place on the earth to which the waters could be gathered together.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the earth had been entirely covered by water, which is why it was referred to as "invisible" [* See Q. 66, A. 1, Obj. 1]. At that time, there was no part of the earth where the water could be collected.

Obj. 3: Further, things which are not in continuous contact cannot occupy one place. But not all the waters are in continuous contact, and therefore all were not gathered together into one place.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, things that aren't in continuous contact can't occupy the same space. But not all the waters are in continuous contact, so they weren't all gathered into one place.

Obj. 4: Further, a gathering together is a mode of local movement.
But the waters flow naturally, and take their course towards the sea.
In their case, therefore, a Divine precept of this kind was
unnecessary.

Obj. 4: Also, coming together is a form of local movement.
However, the waters flow on their own and head towards the sea.
So, in their situation, a Divine command like this was
not needed.

Obj. 5: Further, the earth is given its name at its first creation by the words, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth." Therefore the imposition of its name on the third day seems to be recorded without necessity.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, the earth received its name at its initial creation with the phrase, "In the beginning God created heaven and earth." Thus, it seems unnecessary to note the assignment of its name on the third day.

On the contrary, The authority of Scripture suffices.

On the contrary, The authority of Scripture is enough.

I answer that, It is necessary to reply differently to this question according to the different interpretations given by Augustine and other holy writers. In all these works, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. i, 15; iv, 22, 34; De Gen. Contr. Manich. i, 5, 7), there is no order of duration, but only of origin and nature. He says that the formless spiritual and formless corporeal natures were created first of all, and that the latter are at first indicated by the words "earth" and "water." Not that this formlessness preceded formation, in time, but only in origin; nor yet that one formation preceded another in duration, but merely in the order of nature. Agreeably, then, to this order, the formation of the highest or spiritual nature is recorded in the first place, where it is said that light was made on the first day. For as the spiritual nature is higher than the corporeal, so the higher bodies are nobler than the lower. Hence the formation of the higher bodies is indicated in the second place, by the words, "Let there be made a firmament," by which is to be understood the impression of celestial forms on formless matter, that preceded with priority not of time, but of origin only. But in the third place the impression of elemental forms on formless matter is recorded, also with a priority of origin only. Therefore the words, "Let the waters be gathered together, and the dry land appear," mean that corporeal matter was impressed with the substantial form of water, so as to have such movement, and with the substantial form of earth, so as to have such an appearance.

I answer that, It’s necessary to respond to this question in different ways based on the various interpretations by Augustine and other holy writers. In all these works, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. i, 15; iv, 22, 34; De Gen. Contr. Manich. i, 5, 7), there’s no order of time, just of origin and nature. He states that the formless spiritual and formless physical natures were created first, with the latter initially referred to as "earth" and "water." This formlessness did not precede formation in time, but only in origin; nor did one formation come before another in duration, but only in terms of nature. Accordingly, following this order, the formation of the highest or spiritual nature is noted first, where it mentions that light was created on the first day. Just as spiritual nature is above physical nature, the higher bodies are also more noble than the lower ones. Thus, the formation of the higher bodies comes next, with the words, "Let there be made a firmament," which refers to the impression of celestial forms on formless matter, occurring with precedence in origin, not in time. In third place, the impression of elemental forms on formless matter is also noted, again with precedence of origin only. Therefore, the phrase "Let the waters be gathered together, and the dry land appear" signifies that physical matter was impressed with the substantial form of water, allowing it to have such movement, and with the substantial form of earth, granting it such an appearance.

According, however, to other holy writers [* See Q. 66, A. 1], an order of duration in the works is to be understood, by which is meant that the formlessness of matter precedes its formation, and one form another, in order of time. Nevertheless, they do not hold that the formlessness of matter implies the total absence of form, since heaven, earth, and water already existed, since these three are named as already clearly perceptible to the senses; rather they understand by formlessness the want of due distinction and of perfect beauty, and in respect of these three Scripture mentions three kinds of formlessness. Heaven, the highest of them, was without form so long as "darkness" filled it, because it was the source of light. The formlessness of water, which holds the middle place, is called the "deep," because, as Augustine says (Contr. Faust. xxii, 11), this word signifies the mass of waters without order. Thirdly, the formless state of the earth is touched upon when the earth is said to be "void" or "invisible," because it was covered by the waters. Thus, then, the formation of the highest body took place on the first day. And since time results from the movement of the heaven, and is the numerical measure of the movement of the highest body, from this formation, resulted the distinction of time, namely, that of night and day. On the second day the intermediate body, water, was formed, receiving from the firmament a sort of distinction and order (so that water be understood as including certain other things, as explained above (Q. 68, A. 3)). On the third day the earth, the lowest body, received its form by the withdrawal of the waters, and there resulted the distinction in the lowest body, namely, of land and sea. Hence Scripture, having clearly expressed the formless state of the earth, by saying that it was "invisible" or "void," expresses the manner in which it received its form by the equally suitable words, "Let the dry land appear."

According to other holy writers [* See Q. 66, A. 1], there’s a sequence in the duration of the works, meaning that the formlessness of matter comes before its formation, and that one form precedes another in time. However, they don’t believe that the formlessness of matter means it has no form at all, since heaven, earth, and water already existed and are clearly noticeable to our senses. Instead, they understand formlessness as a lack of proper distinction and perfect beauty, highlighting three kinds of formlessness in these three elements. Heaven, the highest of these, was formless while "darkness" filled it because it was the source of light. The formlessness of water, which occupies the middle ground, is referred to as the "deep" because, as Augustine states (Contr. Faust. xxii, 11), this term indicates a chaotic mass of waters. Lastly, the formless state of the earth is mentioned when it’s described as "void" or "invisible," due to being covered by water. Thus, the formation of the highest body occurred on the first day. Since time arises from the movement of heaven and is a measure of the movement of the highest body, this formation resulted in the distinction of time, namely, night and day. On the second day, the intermediate body, water, was formed, gaining a sort of distinction and order from the firmament (so that water includes certain other elements, as explained above (Q. 68, A. 3)). On the third day, the earth, the lowest body, took shape as the waters receded, resulting in the distinction of land and sea. Therefore, Scripture clearly conveys the formless state of the earth by stating that it was "invisible" or "void," and describes how it took shape with the phrase, "Let the dry land appear."

Reply Obj. 1: According to Augustine [*Gen. ad lit. ii, 7, 8; iii, 20], Scripture does not say of the work of the third day, that it was made, as it says of those that precede, in order to show that higher and spiritual forms, such as the angels and the heavenly bodies, are perfect and stable in being, whereas inferior forms are imperfect and mutable. Hence the impression of such forms is signified by the gathering of the waters, and the appearing of the land. For "water," to use Augustine's words, "glides and flows away, the earth abides" (Gen. ad lit. ii, 11). Others, again, hold that the work of the third day was perfected on that day only as regards movement from place to place, and that for this reason Scripture had no reason to speak of it as made.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine points out that Scripture doesn’t mention the creation of the work done on the third day like it does for the previous days. This suggests that higher and spiritual forms, such as angels and heavenly bodies, are perfect and stable, while lower forms are imperfect and changeable. The gathering of waters and the appearance of land represent this distinction. Augustine states, “water glides and flows away, the earth abides.” Others believe that the work of the third day was only perfected regarding movement from one place to another, which is why Scripture doesn’t refer to it as having been made.

Reply Obj. 2: This argument is easily solved, according to Augustine's opinion (De Gen. Contr. Manich. i), because we need not suppose that the earth was first covered by the waters, and that these were afterwards gathered together, but that they were produced in this very gathering together. But according to the other writers there are three solutions, which Augustine gives (Gen. ad lit. i, 12). The first supposes that the waters are heaped up to a greater height at the place where they were gathered together, for it has been proved in regard to the Red Sea, that the sea is higher than the land, as Basil remarks (Hom. iv in Hexaem.). The second explains the water that covered the earth as being rarefied or nebulous, which was afterwards condensed when the waters were gathered together. The third suggests the existence of hollows in the earth, to receive the confluence of waters. Of the above the first seems the most probable.

Reply Obj. 2: This argument is easily resolved, based on Augustine's view (De Gen. Contr. Manich. i), because we don't have to assume that the earth was initially covered by water, which was later gathered together; instead, we can think of the water as being created during this gathering. According to other scholars, Augustine offers three explanations (Gen. ad lit. i, 12). The first suggests that the waters accumulate to a greater height where they gathered, as it has been demonstrated in the case of the Red Sea that it is higher than the land, as noted by Basil (Hom. iv in Hexaem.). The second explanation describes the water that covered the earth as being diffuse or mist-like, which was later condensed when the waters came together. The third proposes that there are depressions in the earth that collect the merging waters. Of these, the first seems the most likely.

Reply Obj. 3: All the waters have the sea as their goal, into which they flow by channels hidden or apparent, and this may be the reason why they are said to be gathered together into one place. Or, "one place" is to be understood not simply, but as contrasted with the place of the dry land, so that the sense would be, "Let the waters be gathered together in one place," that is, apart from the dry land. That the waters occupied more places than one seems to be implied by the words that follow, "The gathering together of the waters He called Seas."

Reply Obj. 3: All the waters have the sea as their destination, flowing through visible or hidden channels, and this might be why they are said to be gathered into one place. Or, "one place" should not be taken simply, but as contrasted with the area of dry land, so that it means, "Let the waters be gathered together in one place," meaning separate from the dry land. The fact that the waters cover more than one area seems to be suggested by the words that follow, "The gathering together of the waters He called Seas."

Reply Obj. 4: The Divine command gives bodies their natural movement and by these natural movements they are said to "fulfill His word." Or we may say that it was according to the nature of water completely to cover the earth, just as the air completely surrounds both water and earth; but as a necessary means towards an end, namely, that plants and animals might be on the earth, it was necessary for the waters to be withdrawn from a portion of the earth. Some philosophers attribute this uncovering of the earth's surface to the action of the sun lifting up the vapors and thus drying the land. Scripture, however, attributes it to the Divine power, not only in the Book of Genesis, but also Job 38:10 where in the person of the Lord it is said, "I set My bounds around the sea," and Jer. 5:22, where it is written: "Will you not then fear Me, saith the Lord, who have set the sand a bound for the sea?"

Reply Obj. 4: The Divine command gives bodies their natural movement, and through these movements, they are said to "fulfill His word." We could also say that it is in the nature of water to completely cover the earth, just as air completely surrounds both water and earth; however, to allow plants and animals to exist on land, it was necessary for the waters to recede from part of the earth. Some philosophers attribute this exposure of the earth's surface to the sun's action in lifting the vapors and drying the land. However, Scripture attributes this to Divine power, not only in the Book of Genesis but also in Job 38:10, where the Lord says, "I set My bounds around the sea," and in Jer. 5:22, where it is written: "Will you not then fear Me, says the Lord, who have set the sand as a boundary for the sea?"

Reply Obj. 5: According to Augustine (De Gen. Contr. Manich. i), primary matter is meant by the word earth, where first mentioned, but in the present passage it is to be taken for the element itself. Again it may be said with Basil (Hom. iv in Hexaem.), that the earth is mentioned in the first passage in respect of its nature, but here in respect of its principal property, namely, dryness. Wherefore it is written: "He called the dry land, Earth." It may also be said with Rabbi Moses, that the expression, "He called," denotes throughout an equivocal use of the name imposed. Thus we find it said at first that "He called the light Day": for the reason that later on a period of twenty-four hours is also called day, where it is said that "there was evening and morning, one day." In like manner it is said that "the firmament," that is, the air, "He called heaven": for that which was first created was also called "heaven." And here, again, it is said that "the dry land," that is, the part from which the waters had withdrawn, "He called, Earth," as distinct from the sea; although the name earth is equally applied to that which is covered with waters or not. So by the expression "He called" we are to understand throughout that the nature or property He bestowed corresponded to the name He gave. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: According to Augustine (De Gen. Contr. Manich. i), the term "earth" refers to primary matter when first mentioned, but in this passage, it should be understood as the element itself. Additionally, as Basil states (Hom. iv in Hexaem.), the term "earth" in the first instance pertains to its nature, while here it relates to its main characteristic, which is dryness. Hence, it is written: "He called the dry land Earth." Rabbi Moses also notes that the phrase "He called" indicates a varied use of the name given. For instance, it's initially stated that "He called the light Day" because later a period of twenty-four hours is also referred to as day, as mentioned: "there was evening and morning, one day." Similarly, it is noted that "the firmament," or the air, "He called heaven," as that which was first created was also labeled "heaven." Again, it states that "the dry land," meaning the area from which the waters receded, "He called Earth," which is separate from the sea, although the term earth can also refer to that which is covered with water or not. Therefore, the phrase "He called" indicates that the nature or attribute He assigned corresponded with the name He provided.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 69, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 69, Art. 2]

Whether It Was Fitting That the Production of Plants Should Take Place on the Third Day?

Whether it was appropriate for plants to be created on the third day?

Objection 1: It would seem that it was not fitting that the production of plants should take place on the third day. For plants have life, as animals have. But the production of animals belongs to the work, not of distinction, but of adornment. Therefore the production of plants, as also belonging to the work of adornment, ought not to be recorded as taking place on the third day, which is devoted to the work of distinction.

Objection 1: It seems that it wasn’t appropriate for plants to be created on the third day. Plants are living things, just like animals. However, the creation of animals is part of the work that focuses on embellishment, not distinction. Therefore, the creation of plants, which also falls under embellishment, shouldn’t be noted as happening on the third day, which is dedicated to the work of distinction.

Obj. 2: Further, a work by which the earth is accursed should have been recorded apart from the work by which it receives its form. But the words of Gen. 3:17, "Cursed is the earth in thy work, thorns and thistles shall it bring forth to thee," show that by the production of certain plants the earth was accursed. Therefore the production of plants in general should not have been recorded on the third day, which is concerned with the work of formation.

Obj. 2: Additionally, a task that brings a curse upon the earth should have been documented separately from the task by which the earth takes shape. However, the lines from Gen. 3:17, "Cursed is the earth because of your work; it will produce thorns and thistles for you," indicate that the earth was cursed through the emergence of certain plants. Thus, the emergence of plants in general shouldn't have been mentioned on the third day, which is focused on the process of formation.

Obj. 3: Further, as plants are firmly fixed to the earth, so are stones and metals, which are, nevertheless, not mentioned in the work of formation. Plants, therefore, ought not to have been made on the third day.

Obj. 3: Additionally, just as plants are securely rooted in the ground, so are stones and metals, which are, however, not included in the creation process. Therefore, plants should not have been created on the third day.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 1:12): "The earth brought forth the green herb," after which there follows, "The evening and the morning were the third day."

On the contrary, it is said (Gen. 1:12): "The earth produced the green plant," after which it follows, "The evening and the morning were the third day."

I answer that, On the third day, as said (A. 1), the formless state of the earth comes to an end. But this state is described as twofold. On the one hand, the earth was "invisible" or "void," being covered by the waters; on the other hand, it was "shapeless" or "empty," that is, without that comeliness which it owes to the plants that clothe it, as it were, with a garment. Thus, therefore, in either respect this formless state ends on the third day: first, when "the waters were gathered together into one place and the dry land appeared"; secondly, when "the earth brought forth the green herb." But concerning the production of plants, Augustine's opinion differs from that of others. For other commentators, in accordance with the surface meaning of the text, consider that the plants were produced in act in their various species on this third day; whereas Augustine (Gen. ad lit. v, 5; viii, 3) says that the earth is said to have then produced plants and trees in their causes, that is, it received then the power to produce them. He supports this view by the authority of Scripture, for it is said (Gen. 2:4, 5): "These are the generations of the heaven and the earth, when they were created, in the day that . . . God made the heaven and the earth, and every plant of the field before it sprung up in the earth, and every herb of the ground before it grew." Therefore, the production of plants in their causes, within the earth, took place before they sprang up from the earth's surface. And this is confirmed by reason, as follows. In these first days God created all things in their origin or causes, and from this work He subsequently rested. Yet afterwards, by governing His creatures, in the work of propagation, "He worketh until now." Now the production of plants from the earth is a work of propagation, and therefore they were not produced in act on the third day, but in their causes only. However, in accordance with other writers, it may be said that the first constitution of species belongs to the work of the six days, but the reproduction among them of like from like, to the government of the universe. And Scripture indicates this in the words, "before it sprung up in the earth," and "before it grew," that is, before like was produced from like; just as now happens in the natural course by the production of seed. Wherefore Scripture says pointedly (Gen. 1:11): "Let the earth bring forth the green herb, and such as may seed," as indicating the production of perfect species, from which the seed of others should arise. Nor does the question where the seminal power may reside, whether in root, stem, or fruit, affect the argument.

I answer that, on the third day, as mentioned (A. 1), the formless state of the earth comes to an end. This state is described in two ways. First, the earth was "invisible" or "void," covered by water; second, it was "shapeless" or "empty," lacking the beauty it gains from the plants that cover it like a garment. Thus, this formless state ends on the third day in two respects: first, when "the waters were gathered together into one place and the dry land appeared"; second, when "the earth brought forth the green herb." However, concerning the growth of plants, Augustine's view differs from that of others. Other commentators, following the surface meaning of the text, think that plants were created in their various forms on this third day; whereas Augustine (Gen. ad lit. v, 5; viii, 3) believes that the earth is said to have produced plants and trees in their causes, meaning it then received the ability to create them. He supports this view with Scripture, which states (Gen. 2:4, 5): "These are the generations of the heaven and the earth, when they were created, in the day that . . . God made the heaven and the earth, and every plant of the field before it sprung up in the earth, and every herb of the ground before it grew." Therefore, the production of plants in their causes within the earth occurred before they emerged from the earth's surface. This is also supported by reasoning: in those first days, God created everything in its origin or causes, and after this work, He rested. However, by managing His creations through propagation, "He worketh until now." The production of plants from the earth is an act of propagation, so they were not created in full form on the third day, but only in their causes. Nonetheless, following other writers, it can be said that the initial establishment of species is part of the work of the six days, while the reproduction of similar forms is part of the governance of the universe. Scripture points this out in the phrases, "before it sprung up in the earth," and "before it grew," meaning before similar things were produced from one another, just as now occurs naturally through seed production. Therefore, Scripture clearly states (Gen. 1:11): "Let the earth bring forth the green herb, and such as may seed," indicating the creation of complete species, from which the seeds of others should arise. The question of where the power of generation resides, whether in the root, stem, or fruit, does not affect the argument.

Reply Obj. 1: Life in plants is hidden, since they lack sense and local movement, by which the animate and the inanimate are chiefly discernible. And therefore, since they are firmly fixed in the earth, their production is treated as a part of the earth's formation.

Reply Obj. 1: Life in plants is not obvious because they don’t have senses or the ability to move around, which are the main ways we distinguish between living and non-living things. Since they are rooted in the ground, their growth is considered part of the earth's formation.

Reply Obj. 2: Even before the earth was accursed, thorns and thistles had been produced, either virtually or actually. But they were not produced in punishment of man; as though the earth, which he tilled to gain his food, produced unfruitful and noxious plants. Hence it is said: "Shall it bring forth to thee."

Reply Obj. 2: Even before the earth was cursed, thorns and thistles had emerged, either in some form or actually. But they weren't created as a punishment for man; it's not like the earth, which he worked to provide his food, produced useless and harmful plants. That's why it's said: "Shall it bring forth to you."

Reply Obj. 3: Moses put before the people such things only as were manifest to their senses, as we have said (Q. 67, A. 4; Q. 68, A. 3). But minerals are generated in hidden ways within the bowels of the earth. Moreover they seem hardly specifically distinct from earth, and would seem to be species thereof. For this reason, therefore, he makes no mention of them. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Moses presented to the people only things that were clear to their senses, as we have mentioned (Q. 67, A. 4; Q. 68, A. 3). However, minerals form in secret ways deep within the earth. Additionally, they hardly seem different from soil and could be considered a type of it. For this reason, he doesn’t mention them.

QUESTION 70

OF THE WORK OF ADORNMENT, AS REGARDS THE FOURTH DAY
(In Three Articles)

OF THE WORK OF ADORNMENT, AS REGARDS THE FOURTH DAY
(In Three Articles)

We must next consider the work of adornment, first as to each day by itself, secondly as to all seven days in general.

We should next look at the work of decoration, first for each day individually, and then for all seven days as a whole.

In the first place, then, we consider the work of the fourth day, secondly, that of the fifth day, thirdly, that of the sixth day, and fourthly, such matters as belong to the seventh day.

In the first place, we look at the work of the fourth day, then the fifth day, next the sixth day, and finally, the aspects that relate to the seventh day.

Under the first head there are three points of inquiry:

Under the first topic, there are three points to explore:

(1) As to the production of the lights;

(1) Regarding the production of the lights;

(2) As to the end of their production;

(2) Regarding the end of their production;

(3) Whether they are living beings? _______________________

(3) Are they living beings? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 70, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 70, Art. 1]

Whether the Lights Ought to Have Been Produced on the Fourth Day?

Whether the lights should have been created on the fourth day?

Objection 1: It would seem that the lights ought not to have been produced on the fourth day. For the heavenly luminaries are by nature incorruptible bodies: wherefore their matter cannot exist without their form. But as their matter was produced in the work of creation, before there was any day, so therefore were their forms. It follows, then, that the lights were not produced on the fourth day.

Objection 1: It seems that the lights shouldn’t have been created on the fourth day. The heavenly bodies are by nature incorruptible: therefore, their material cannot exist without their form. Since their material was produced in the act of creation before there was any day, so too were their forms. It follows that the lights were not created on the fourth day.

Obj. 2: Further, the luminaries are, as it were, vessels of light. But light was made on the first day. The luminaries, therefore, should have been made on the first day, not on the fourth.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the celestial bodies are like containers of light. However, light was created on the first day. Therefore, the celestial bodies should have been created on the first day, not on the fourth.

Obj. 3: Further, the lights are fixed in the firmament, as plants are fixed in the earth. For, the Scripture says: "He set them in the firmament." But plants are described as produced when the earth, to which they are attached, received its form. The lights, therefore, should have been produced at the same time as the firmament, that is to say, on the second day.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the lights are set in the sky, just like plants are rooted in the ground. Scripture states, "He set them in the firmament." However, plants are said to come into being when the earth, to which they are connected, takes shape. Therefore, the lights should have been created at the same time as the sky, which means on the second day.

Obj. 4: Further, plants are an effect of the sun, moon, and other heavenly bodies. Now, cause precedes effect in the order of nature. The lights, therefore, ought not to have been produced on the fourth day, but on the third day.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, plants are a result of the sun, moon, and other celestial bodies. In nature, the cause comes before the effect. Therefore, these lights should have been created on the third day, not on the fourth day.

Obj. 5: Further, as astronomers say, there are many stars larger than the moon. Therefore the sun and the moon alone are not correctly described as the "two great lights."

Obj. 5: Additionally, as astronomers state, there are many stars that are larger than the moon. So, it's not accurate to refer to just the sun and the moon as the "two great lights."

On the contrary, Suffices the authority of Scripture.

On the contrary, The authority of Scripture is enough.

I answer that, In recapitulating the Divine works, Scripture says (Gen. 2:1): "So the heavens and the earth were finished and all the furniture of them," thereby indicating that the work was threefold. In the first work, that of "creation," the heaven and the earth were produced, but as yet without form. In the second, or work of "distinction," the heaven and the earth were perfected, either by adding substantial form to formless matter, as Augustine holds (Gen. ad lit. ii, 11), or by giving them the order and beauty due to them, as other holy writers suppose. To these two works is added the work of adornment, which is distinct from perfect[ion]. For the perfection of the heaven and the earth regards, seemingly, those things that belong to them intrinsically, but the adornment, those that are extrinsic, just as the perfection of a man lies in his proper parts and forms, and his adornment, in clothing or such like. Now just as distinction of certain things is made most evident by their local movement, as separating one from another; so the work of adornment is set forth by the production of things having movement in the heavens, and upon the earth. But it has been stated above (Q. 69, A. 1), that three things are recorded as created, namely, the heaven, the water, and the earth; and these three received their form from the three days' work of distinction, so that heaven was formed on the first day; on the second day the waters were separated; and on the third day, the earth was divided into sea and dry land. So also is it in the work of adornment; on the first day of this work, which is the fourth of creation, are produced the lights, to adorn the heaven by their movements; on the second day, which is the fifth, birds and fishes are called into being, to make beautiful the intermediate element, for they move in air and water, which are here taken as one; while on the third day, which is the sixth, animals are brought forth, to move upon the earth and adorn it. It must also here be noted that Augustine's opinion (Gen. ad lit. v, 5) on the production of lights is not at variance with that of other holy writers, since he says that they were made actually, and not merely virtually, for the firmament has not the power of producing lights, as the earth has of producing plants. Wherefore Scripture does not say: "Let the firmament produce lights," though it says: "Let the earth bring forth the green herb."

I answer that, When summarizing the Divine works, Scripture states (Gen. 2:1): "So the heavens and the earth were completed along with everything in them," indicating that the work was threefold. In the first work, or "creation," the heaven and the earth were made, but they were still formless. In the second work, or "distinction," the heaven and the earth were refined, either by adding substantial form to formless matter, as Augustine argues (Gen. ad lit. ii, 11), or by giving them the order and beauty they deserved, as suggested by other holy writers. To these two works, we add the work of adornment, which is different from perfection. The perfection of the heaven and the earth refers to what belongs to them intrinsically, while adornment pertains to what is external, similar to how a man's perfection lies in his natural parts and forms, and his adornment lies in clothing or similar things. Just as the distinction between certain things is made clear by their local movement, separating one from another, the work of adornment is illustrated by the creation of things that move in the heavens and on the earth. It has also been stated above (Q. 69, A. 1) that three things are recorded as created: the heaven, the water, and the earth; and these three received their form from the three days of work of distinction, meaning the heaven was formed on the first day; on the second day, the waters were separated; and on the third day, the earth was divided into sea and dry land. Similarly, in the work of adornment, on the first day of this work, which is the fourth of creation, the lights are created to adorn the heaven with their movements; on the second day, which is the fifth, birds and fish are created to beautify the intermediate element, as they move in air and water, which are considered together; while on the third day, which is the sixth, animals come forth to move upon and embellish the earth. It should also be noted that Augustine's view (Gen. ad lit. v, 5) on the creation of lights does not conflict with that of other holy writers, as he states that they were made actually, not just virtually, because the firmament does not have the ability to produce lights as the earth does to produce plants. Therefore, Scripture does not say, "Let the firmament produce lights," but it does say, "Let the earth bring forth the green herb."

Reply Obj. 1: In Augustine's opinion there is no difficulty here; for he does not hold a succession of time in these works, and so there was no need for the matter of the lights to exist under another form. Nor is there any difficulty in the opinion of those who hold the heavenly bodies to be of the nature of the four elements, for it may be said that they were formed out of matter already existing, as animals and plants were formed. For those, however, who hold the heavenly bodies to be of another nature from the elements, and naturally incorruptible, the answer must be that the lights were substantially created at the beginning, but that their substance, at first formless, is formed on this day, by receiving not its substantial form, but a determination of power. As to the fact that the lights are not mentioned as existing from the beginning, but only as made on the fourth day, Chrysostom (Hom. vi in Gen.) explains this by the need of guarding the people from the danger of idolatry: since the lights are proved not to be gods, by the fact that they were not from the beginning.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine believes there's no issue here; he doesn’t see a sequential passage of time in these creations, so there was no need for the matter of the lights to exist in another form. There’s also no problem with those who think the heavenly bodies are made up of the four elements, as it can be said they were created from already existing matter, just like animals and plants. However, for those who believe the heavenly bodies are different from the elements and naturally incorruptible, the response must be that the lights were created in substance at the beginning, but that their initially formless substance was shaped on this day by receiving not its substantial form, but a determination of power. Regarding the fact that the lights are not mentioned as existing from the beginning but are noted as being created on the fourth day, Chrysostom (Hom. vi in Gen.) clarifies this by highlighting the need to protect the people from the risk of idolatry: the lights are shown not to be gods because they did not exist from the start.

Reply Obj. 2: No difficulty exists if we follow Augustine in holding the light made on the first day to be spiritual, and that made on this day to be corporeal. If, however, the light made on the first day is understood to be itself corporeal, then it must be held to have been produced on that day merely as light in general; and that on the fourth day the lights received a definite power to produce determinate effects. Thus we observe that the rays of the sun have one effect, those of the moon another, and so forth. Hence, speaking of such a determination of power, Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv) says that the sun's light which previously was without form, was formed on the fourth day.

Reply Obj. 2: There’s no issue if we follow Augustine and view the light created on the first day as spiritual, while the light created today is seen as physical. However, if we consider the light made on the first day to be physical, then it should be regarded as having been produced that day simply as light in general; and on the fourth day the lights gained a specific ability to create particular effects. Therefore, we notice that the rays of the sun have one effect, the rays of the moon another, and so on. Thus, in discussing this specific ability, Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv) states that the sun’s light, which was previously unformed, became formed on the fourth day.

Reply Obj. 3: According to Ptolemy the heavenly luminaries are not fixed in the spheres, but have their own movement distinct from the movement of the spheres. Wherefore Chrysostom says (Hom. vi in Gen.) that He is said to have set them in the firmament, not because He fixed them there immovably, but because He bade them to be there, even as He placed man in Paradise, to be there. In the opinion of Aristotle, however, the stars are fixed in their orbits, and in reality have no other movement but that of the spheres; and yet our senses perceive the movement of the luminaries and not that of the spheres (De Coel. ii, text. 43). But Moses describes what is obvious to sense, out of condescension to popular ignorance, as we have already said (Q. 67, A. 4; Q. 68, A. 3). The objection, however, falls to the ground if we regard the firmament made on the second day as having a natural distinction from that in which the stars are placed, even though the distinction is not apparent to the senses, the testimony of which Moses follows, as stated above (De Coel. ii, text. 43). For although to the senses there appears but one firmament; if we admit a higher and a lower firmament, the lower will be that which was made on the second day, and on the fourth the stars were fixed in the higher firmament.

Reply Obj. 3: According to Ptolemy, the heavenly bodies aren’t fixed in the spheres; they have their own movements that are separate from the movement of the spheres. Therefore, Chrysostom states (Hom. vi in Gen.) that it’s said He set them in the sky, not because He made them immovable there, but because He commanded them to be there, just like He placed man in Paradise to dwell there. However, Aristotle believes that the stars are fixed in their orbits and only move with the spheres; yet our senses pick up the movement of the heavenly bodies, not the movement of the spheres (De Coel. ii, text. 43). Moses describes what is evident to the senses to accommodate common ignorance, as we have already mentioned (Q. 67, A. 4; Q. 68, A. 3). However, the objection loses its strength if we consider the firmament created on the second day as having a natural difference from the one where the stars are placed, even if that difference isn't noticeable to the senses, which Moses follows, as stated above (De Coel. ii, text. 43). Although to the senses there seems to be just one firmament; if we acknowledge a higher and a lower firmament, the lower is the one made on the second day, and on the fourth, the stars were set in the higher firmament.

Reply Obj. 4: In the words of Basil (Hom. v in Hexaem.), plants were recorded as produced before the sun and moon, to prevent idolatry, since those who believe the heavenly bodies to be gods, hold that plants originate primarily from these bodies. Although as Chrysostom remarks (Hom. vi in Gen.), the sun, moon, and stars cooperate in the work of production by their movements, as the husbandman cooperates by his labor.

Reply Obj. 4: According to Basil (Hom. v in Hexaem.), plants were said to have been created before the sun and moon to discourage idolatry, because those who consider celestial bodies to be gods believe that plants come primarily from these bodies. However, as Chrysostom points out (Hom. vi in Gen.), the sun, moon, and stars play a role in the process of creation through their movements, similar to how a farmer contributes through his work.

Reply Obj. 5: As Chrysostom says, the two lights are called great, not so much with regard to their dimensions as to their influence and power. For though the stars be of greater bulk than the moon, yet the influence of the moon is more perceptible to the senses in this lower world. Moreover, as far as the senses are concerned, its apparent size is greater. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: As Chrysostom says, the two lights are called great, not so much because of their size but because of their influence and power. Even though the stars are larger than the moon, the moon's effect is more noticeable to our senses in this world. Additionally, its perceived size is larger in terms of what we see.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 70, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 70, Art. 2]

Whether the Cause Assigned for the Production of the Lights Is
Reasonable?

Whether the reason given for the creation of the lights is
reasonable?

Objection 1: It would seem that the cause assigned for the production of the lights is not reasonable. For it is said (Jer. 10:2): "Be not afraid of the signs of heaven, which the heathens fear." Therefore the heavenly lights were not made to be signs.

Objection 1: It seems that the reason given for the creation of the lights is not reasonable. For it says (Jer. 10:2): "Don't be afraid of the signs in the sky, which the pagans fear." Therefore, the heavenly lights were not created to be signs.

Obj. 2: Further, sign is contradistinguished from cause. But the lights are the cause of what takes place upon the earth. Therefore they are not signs.

Obj. 2: Additionally, a sign is distinctly different from a cause. However, the lights are the cause of what happens on Earth. Therefore, they are not signs.

Obj. 3: Further, the distinction of seasons and days began from the first day. Therefore the lights were not made "for seasons, and days, and years," that is, in order to distinguish them.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the division of seasons and days started on the first day. So, the lights weren't created "for seasons, and days, and years," meaning they weren't meant to differentiate between them.

Obj. 4: Further, nothing is made for the sake of that which is inferior to itself, "since the end is better than the means" (Topic. iii). But the lights are nobler than the earth. Therefore they were not made "to enlighten it."

Obj. 4: Furthermore, nothing is created for the sake of something that is inferior to it, "since the end is better than the means" (Topic. iii). But the lights are more noble than the earth. Therefore, they were not made "to enlighten it."

Obj. 5: Further, the new moon cannot be said "to rule the night." But such it probably did when first made; for men begin to count from the new moon. The moon, therefore, was not made "to rule the night."

Obj. 5: Moreover, the new moon can’t really be said "to rule the night." However, it likely did when it was first created; because people start counting from the new moon. Therefore, the moon wasn't created "to rule the night."

On the contrary, Suffices the authority of Scripture.

On the contrary, The authority of Scripture is enough.

I answer that, As we have said above (Q. 65, A. 2), a corporeal creature can be considered as made either for the sake of its proper act, or for other creatures, or for the whole universe, or for the glory of God. Of these reasons only that which points out the usefulness of these things to man, is touched upon by Moses, in order to withdraw his people from idolatry. Hence it is written (Deut. 4:19): "Lest perhaps lifting up thy eyes to heaven, thou see the sun and the moon and all the stars of heaven, and being deceived by error thou adore and serve them, which the Lord thy God created for the service of all nations." Now, he explains this service at the beginning of Genesis as threefold. First, the lights are of service to man, in regard to sight, which directs him in his works, and is most useful for perceiving objects. In reference to this he says: "Let them shine in the firmament and give life to the earth." Secondly, as regards the changes of the seasons, which prevent weariness, preserve health, and provide for the necessities of food; all of which things could not be secured if it were always summer or winter. In reference to this he says: "Let them be for seasons, and for days, and years." Thirdly, as regards the convenience of business and work, in so far as the lights are set in the heavens to indicate fair or foul weather, as favorable to various occupations. And in this respect he says: "Let them be for signs."

I answer that, As we mentioned earlier (Q. 65, A. 2), a physical creature can be seen as created either for its own purpose, for the sake of other creatures, for the whole universe, or for the glory of God. Among these reasons, only the one highlighting the usefulness of these things to humans is mentioned by Moses, to steer his people away from idolatry. Thus, it is written (Deut. 4:19): "Lest perhaps lifting up your eyes to heaven, you see the sun and the moon and all the stars of heaven, and being deceived by error you worship and serve them, which the Lord your God created for the service of all nations." Now, he explains this service at the beginning of Genesis as threefold. First, the lights serve humanity by aiding vision, which guides him in his tasks and is essential for perceiving objects. In this regard, he says: "Let them shine in the firmament and give life to the earth." Secondly, concerning the changes of the seasons, which prevent fatigue, maintain health, and provide food essentials; all of which would be impossible if it were always summer or winter. In relation to this, he says: "Let them be for seasons, and for days, and years." Thirdly, regarding the convenience of business and work, as the lights are positioned in the heavens to indicate good or bad weather, favorable for various activities. In this respect, he says: "Let them be for signs."

Reply Obj. 1: The lights in the heaven are set for signs of changes effected in corporeal creatures, but not of those changes which depend upon the free-will.

Reply Obj. 1: The lights in the sky are meant to indicate changes that occur in physical beings, but not changes that rely on free will.

Reply Obj. 2: We are sometimes brought to the knowledge of hidden effects through their sensible causes, and conversely. Hence nothing prevents a sensible cause from being a sign. But he says "signs," rather than "causes," to guard against idolatry.

Reply Obj. 2: Sometimes we discover hidden effects through their observable causes, and the other way around. Therefore, there's nothing stopping an observable cause from being a sign. But he uses the term "signs" instead of "causes" to avoid the risk of idolatry.

Reply Obj. 3: The general division of time into day and night took place on the first day, as regards the diurnal movement, which is common to the whole heaven and may be understood to have begun on that first day. But the particular distinctions of days and seasons and years, according as one day is hotter than another, one season than another, and one year than another, are due to certain particular movements of the stars: which movements may have had their beginning on the fourth day.

Reply Obj. 3: The basic division of time into day and night started on the first day, relating to the daily movement that is common to the entire sky and can be understood to have begun on that day. However, the specific differences between days, seasons, and years, since one day can be hotter than another, one season can be different from another, and one year can vary from another, are due to certain specific movements of the stars, which likely began on the fourth day.

Reply Obj. 4: Light was given to the earth for the service of man, who, by reason of his soul, is nobler than the heavenly bodies. Nor is it untrue to say that a higher creature may be made for the sake of a lower, considered not in itself, but as ordained to the good of the universe.

Reply Obj. 4: Light was given to the earth for the benefit of humans, who, due to their souls, are more noble than the heavenly bodies. It's also true to say that a higher creature may be created for the benefit of a lower one, not viewed on its own, but as intended for the greater good of the universe.

Reply Obj. 5: When the moon is at its perfection it rises in the evening and sets in the morning, and thus it rules the night, and it was probably made in its full perfection as were plants yielding seed, as also were animals and man himself. For although the perfect is developed from the imperfect by natural processes, yet the perfect must exist simply before the imperfect. Augustine, however (Gen. ad lit. ii), does not say this, for he says that it is not unfitting that God made things imperfect, which He afterwards perfected. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: When the moon is at its peak, it rises in the evening and sets in the morning, thereby ruling the night. It was likely created in its full form just like seed-bearing plants, animals, and even humans. While the perfect comes from the imperfect through natural processes, the perfect must exist in some form before the imperfect. Augustine, however (Gen. ad lit. ii), disagrees, stating that it is not inappropriate for God to create things imperfect, which He later brings to perfection.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 70, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 70, Art. 3]

Whether the Lights of Heaven Are Living Beings?

Whether the Lights of Heaven Are Living Beings?

Objection 1: It would seem that the lights of heaven are living beings. For the nobler a body is, the more nobly it should be adorned. But a body less noble than the heaven, is adorned with living beings, with fish, birds, and the beasts of the field. Therefore the lights of heaven, as pertaining to its adornment, should be living beings also.

Objection 1: It seems that the lights in the sky are living creatures. The more noble a body is, the more beautifully it should be decorated. But a body less noble than the heavens is populated with living beings, such as fish, birds, and animals. Therefore, the lights in the sky, as part of its decoration, should also be living beings.

Obj. 2: Further, the nobler a body is, the nobler must be its form. But the sun, moon, and stars are nobler bodies than plants or animals, and must therefore have nobler forms. Now the noblest of all forms is the soul, as being the first principle of life. Hence Augustine (De Vera Relig. xxix) says: "Every living substance stands higher in the order of nature than one that has not life." The lights of heaven, therefore, are living beings.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the more noble a body is, the more noble its form must be. However, the sun, moon, and stars are more noble bodies than plants or animals, so they must also have more noble forms. The noblest of all forms is the soul, as it is the first principle of life. Therefore, Augustine (De Vera Relig. xxix) states: "Every living substance stands higher in the order of nature than one that does not have life." Thus, the lights in the sky are living beings.

Obj. 3: Further, a cause is nobler than its effect. But the sun, moon, and stars are a cause of life, as is especially evidenced in the case of animals generated from putrefaction, which receive life from the power of the sun and stars. Much more, therefore, have the heavenly bodies a living soul.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, a cause is more noble than its effect. The sun, moon, and stars are causes of life, particularly seen in the case of animals that are created from decay, which gain life from the energy of the sun and stars. Therefore, the heavenly bodies, by far, have a living soul.

Obj. 4: Further, the movement of the heaven and the heavenly bodies are natural (De Coel. i, text. 7, 8): and natural movement is from an intrinsic principle. Now the principle of movement in the heavenly bodies is a substance capable of apprehension, and is moved as the desirer is moved by the object desired (Metaph. xii, text. 36). Therefore, seemingly, the apprehending principle is intrinsic to the heavenly bodies: and consequently they are living beings.

Obj. 4: Moreover, the movement of the heavens and heavenly bodies is natural (De Coel. i, text. 7, 8), and natural movement comes from an internal principle. The principle of movement in the heavenly bodies is a substance that can be understood and is moved in the same way that a desire is influenced by the object of that desire (Metaph. xii, text. 36). Therefore, it appears that the understanding principle is inherent to the heavenly bodies; thus, they are considered living beings.

Obj. 5: Further, the first of movables is the heaven. Now, of all things that are endowed with movement the first moves itself, as is proved in Phys. viii, text. 34, because, what is such of itself precedes that which is by another. But only beings that are living move themselves, as is shown in the same book (text. 27). Therefore the heavenly bodies are living beings.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, the first of all movable things is the heaven. Now, among all things that can move, the first moves on its own, as proven in Phys. viii, text. 34, because what moves itself comes before what is moved by something else. But only living beings can move themselves, as shown in the same book (text. 27). Therefore, the heavenly bodies are living beings.

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii), "Let no one esteem the heavens or the heavenly bodies to be living things, for they have neither life nor sense."

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii), "Let no one consider the heavens or the heavenly bodies to be living things, for they have neither life nor sensation."

I answer that, Philosophers have differed on this question. Anaxagoras, for instance, as Augustine mentions (De Civ. Dei xviii, 41), "was condemned by the Athenians for teaching that the sun was a fiery mass of stone, and neither a god nor even a living being." On the other hand, the Platonists held that the heavenly bodies have life. Nor was there less diversity of opinion among the Doctors of the Church. It was the belief of Origen (Peri Archon i) and Jerome that these bodies were alive, and the latter seems to explain in that sense the words (Eccles. 1:6), "The spirit goeth forward, surveying all places round about." But Basil (Hom. iii, vi in Hexaem.) and Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii) maintain that the heavenly bodies are inanimate. Augustine leaves the matter in doubt, without committing himself to either theory, though he goes so far as to say that if the heavenly bodies are really living beings, their souls must be akin to the angelic nature (Gen. ad lit. ii, 18; Enchiridion lviii).

I answer that, philosophers have disagreed on this question. Anaxagoras, for example, as Augustine mentions (De Civ. Dei xviii, 41), "was condemned by the Athenians for teaching that the sun was a fiery mass of stone, and not a god or even a living being." On the other hand, the Platonists believed that the heavenly bodies are alive. There was also a range of opinions among the Church Fathers. Origen (Peri Archon i) and Jerome believed that these bodies were alive, and Jerome seems to interpret the words (Eccles. 1:6), "The spirit goes forward, surveying all places around." However, Basil (Hom. iii, vi in Hexaem.) and Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii) argue that the heavenly bodies are inanimate. Augustine leaves the issue unresolved, not committing to either theory, though he suggests that if the heavenly bodies are indeed living beings, their souls must be similar to angelic nature (Gen. ad lit. ii, 18; Enchiridion lviii).

In examining the truth of this question, where such diversity of opinion exists, we shall do well to bear in mind that the union of soul and body exists for the sake of the soul and not of the body; for the form does not exist for the matter, but the matter for the form. Now the nature and power of the soul are apprehended through its operation, which is to a certain extent its end. Yet for some of these operations, as sensation and nutrition, our body is a necessary instrument. Hence it is clear that the sensitive and nutritive souls must be united to a body in order to exercise their functions. There are, however, operations of the soul, which are not exercised through the medium of the body, though the body ministers, as it were, to their production. The intellect, for example, makes use of the phantasms derived from the bodily senses, and thus far is dependent on the body, although capable of existing apart from it. It is not, however, possible that the functions of nutrition, growth, and generation, through which the nutritive soul operates, can be exercised by the heavenly bodies, for such operations are incompatible with a body naturally incorruptible. Equally impossible is it that the functions of the sensitive soul can appertain to the heavenly body, since all the senses depend on the sense of touch, which perceives elemental qualities, and all the organs of the senses require a certain proportion in the admixture of elements, whereas the nature of the heavenly bodies is not elemental. It follows, then, that of the operations of the soul the only ones left to be attributed to the heavenly bodies are those of understanding and moving; for appetite follows both sensitive and intellectual perception, and is in proportion thereto. But the operations of the intellect, which does not act through the body, do not need a body as their instrument, except to supply phantasms through the senses. Moreover, the operations of the sensitive soul, as we have seen, cannot be attributed to the heavenly bodies. Accordingly, the union of a soul to a heavenly body cannot be for the purpose of the operations of the intellect. It remains, then, only to consider whether the movement of the heavenly bodies demands a soul as the motive power, not that the soul, in order to move the heavenly body, need be united to the latter as its form; but by contact of power, as a mover is united to that which he moves. Wherefore Aristotle (Phys. viii, text. 42, 43), after showing that the first mover is made up of two parts, the moving and the moved, goes on to show the nature of the union between these two parts. This, he says, is effected by contact which is mutual if both are bodies; on the part of one only, if one is a body and the other not. The Platonists explain the union of soul and body in the same way, as a contact of a moving power with the object moved, and since Plato holds the heavenly bodies to be living beings, this means nothing else but that substances of spiritual nature are united to them, and act as their moving power. A proof that the heavenly bodies are moved by the direct influence and contact of some spiritual substance, and not, like bodies of specific gravity, by nature, lies in the fact that whereas nature moves to one fixed end which having attained, it rests; this does not appear in the movement of heavenly bodies. Hence it follows that they are moved by some intellectual substances. Augustine appears to be of the same opinion when he expresses his belief that all corporeal things are ruled by God through the spirit of life (De Trin. iii, 4).

When we explore the truth of this question, especially in the midst of such differing opinions, it’s important to remember that the union of soul and body serves the soul, not the body. The form exists for the matter, but the matter exists for the form. The nature and abilities of the soul are understood through its actions, which are, to some extent, its purpose. Yet, for certain actions, like sensation and nourishment, our body is a necessary tool. Therefore, it's clear that the sensitive and nutritive souls must be connected to a body to perform their functions. However, there are actions of the soul that don't rely on the body, though the body supports their occurrence. For example, the intellect uses images derived from the bodily senses and is thus dependent on the body, even though it can exist independently. The processes of nutrition, growth, and reproduction that the nutritive soul engages in cannot be performed by heavenly bodies, as those actions aren’t compatible with a body that is naturally incorruptible. Similarly, the functions of the sensitive soul can't belong to heavenly bodies because all senses rely on touch, which perceives elemental qualities, and all sensory organs need a specific mix of elements, whereas heavenly bodies aren’t made of elements. So, the only operations of the soul that can be attributed to heavenly bodies are those of understanding and movement; desire follows both sensitive and intellectual perception and relates to them. But the intellect, which doesn’t function through the body, doesn’t require a body as an instrument, except for providing images via the senses. Additionally, the actions of the sensitive soul, as we've discussed, can’t be attributed to heavenly bodies. Therefore, the union of a soul with a heavenly body can’t be for the purpose of intellectual operations. We must then consider if the movement of heavenly bodies requires a soul as the driving force—not that the soul needs to be united with the heavenly body as its form, but rather through a connection of power, like a mover with what it moves. Aristotle (Phys. viii, text. 42, 43) explains that the first mover consists of two parts: the mover and the moved, and he goes on to describe how these two parts are united. He states that this connection happens through mutual contact if both are bodies, or through the contact of one if one is a body and the other isn’t. The Platonists describe the union of soul and body similarly, as a contact of a moving power with the moved object; since Plato considers heavenly bodies to be living beings, this means that spiritual substances are united with them and act as their driving force. Evidence that heavenly bodies are moved by the direct influence and contact of some spiritual substance—and not, like bodies with specific gravity, by nature—lies in the fact that nature moves toward a fixed goal and rests once it achieves that; this isn’t evident in the movement of heavenly bodies. Thus, it follows that they are moved by some intellectual substances. Augustine seems to share this view when he expresses his belief that all physical things are governed by God through the spirit of life (De Trin. iii, 4).

From what has been said, then, it is clear that the heavenly bodies are not living beings in the same sense as plants and animals, and that if they are called so, it can only be equivocally. It will also be seen that the difference of opinion between those who affirm, and those who deny, that these bodies have life, is not a difference of things but of words.

From what has been said, it's clear that celestial bodies aren't living beings in the same way that plants and animals are. If they're referred to as such, it can only be in a figurative sense. It's also evident that the disagreement between those who claim these bodies are alive and those who argue they aren't is not about the actual nature of things but rather about how we're using words.

Reply Obj. 1: Certain things belong to the adornment of the universe by reason of their proper movement; and in this way the heavenly luminaries agree with others that conduce to that adornment, for they are moved by a living substance.

Reply Obj. 1: Some things are part of the beauty of the universe because of how they move; in this way, the heavenly bodies align with others that contribute to that beauty, as they are moved by a living substance.

Reply Obj. 2: One being may be nobler than another absolutely, but not in a particular respect. While, then, it is not conceded that the souls of heavenly bodies are nobler than the souls of animals absolutely it must be conceded that they are superior to them with regard to their respective forms, since their form perfects their matter entirely, which is not in potentiality to other forms; whereas a soul does not do this. Also as regards movement the power that moves the heavenly bodies is of a nobler kind.

Reply Obj. 2: One being can be more noble than another in an absolute sense, but not in a specific way. While it’s not agreed that the souls of heavenly bodies are absolutely nobler than the souls of animals, it must be acknowledged that they are superior concerning their specific forms, since their form fully perfects their matter, which isn’t just potentially other forms; whereas a soul doesn’t achieve this. Furthermore, in terms of movement, the force that moves the heavenly bodies is of a higher quality.

Reply Obj. 3: Since the heavenly body is a mover moved, it is of the nature of an instrument, which acts in virtue of the agent: and therefore since this agent is a living substance the heavenly body can impart life in virtue of that agent.

Reply Obj. 3: Since the heavenly body is both a mover and moved, it acts as an instrument that operates through the agent. Therefore, since this agent is a living being, the heavenly body can give life through that agent.

Reply Obj. 4: The movements of the heavenly bodies are natural, not on account of their active principle, but on account of their passive principle; that is to say, from a certain natural aptitude for being moved by an intelligent power.

Reply Obj. 4: The movements of the heavenly bodies are natural, not because of their active principle, but because of their passive principle; in other words, due to a certain natural ability to be influenced by an intelligent power.

Reply Obj. 5: The heaven is said to move itself in as far as it is compounded of mover and moved; not by the union of the mover, as the form, with the moved, as the matter, but by contact with the motive power, as we have said. So far, then, the principle that moves it may be called intrinsic, and consequently its movement natural with respect to that active principle; just as we say that voluntary movement is natural to the animal as animal (Phys. viii, text. 27). _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: The heavens are said to move themselves because they consist of both a mover and something being moved; not through the union of the mover, as the form, with the moved, as the matter, but through contact with the motivating force, as we have mentioned. Thus, the principle that drives this movement can be considered intrinsic, making its movement natural in relation to that active principle; just as we say that voluntary movement is natural for an animal in its essence (Phys. viii, text. 27).

QUESTION 71

ON THE WORK OF THE FIFTH DAY
(In One Article)

ON THE WORK OF THE FIFTH DAY
(In One Article)

We must next consider the work of the fifth day.

We should next look at the work of the fifth day.

Objection 1: It would seem that this work is not fittingly described. For the waters produce that which the power of water suffices to produce. But the power of water does not suffice for the production of every kind of fishes and birds since we find that many of them are generated from seed. Therefore the words, "Let the waters bring forth the creeping creature having life, and the fowl that may fly over the earth," do not fittingly describe this work.

Objection 1: It seems that this work isn’t accurately described. The waters can only produce what the power of water is capable of creating. However, the power of water alone isn’t enough to produce every type of fish and bird since we see that many are generated from seed. Therefore, the phrase, "Let the waters bring forth the creeping creature having life, and the fowl that may fly over the earth," doesn’t accurately describe this work.

Obj. 2: Further, fishes and birds are not produced from water only, but earth seems to predominate over water in their composition, as is shown by the fact that their bodies tend naturally to the earth and rest upon it. It is not, then, fittingly said that fishes and birds are produced from water.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, fish and birds aren't created solely from water; rather, earth appears to be more significant than water in their make-up, evidenced by the way their bodies naturally gravitate toward the ground and rest on it. Therefore, it's not accurate to say that fish and birds originate from water.

Obj. 3: Further, fishes move in the waters, and birds in the air. If, then, fishes are produced from the waters, birds ought to be produced from the air, and not from the waters.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, fish move in the water, and birds fly in the air. If fish come from the water, then birds should come from the air and not from the water.

Obj. 4: Further, not all fishes creep through the waters, for some, as seals, have feet and walk on land. Therefore the production of fishes is not sufficiently described by the words, "Let the waters bring forth the creeping creature having life."

Obj. 4: Furthermore, not all fish move through the waters; some, like seals, have feet and can walk on land. Therefore, the creation of fish is not fully captured by the phrase, "Let the waters bring forth the creeping creature having life."

Obj. 5: Further, land animals are more perfect than birds and fishes which appears from the fact that they have more distinct limbs, and generation of a higher order. For they bring forth living beings, whereas birds and fishes bring forth eggs. But the more perfect has precedence in the order of nature. Therefore fishes and birds ought not to have been produced on the fifth day, before land animals.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, land animals are more advanced than birds and fish. This is clear because they have more distinct limbs and reproduce in a more developed way. Land animals give birth to live young, while birds and fish lay eggs. Since the more advanced form has priority in the natural order, it follows that fish and birds should not have been created on the fifth day, before land animals.

On the contrary, Suffices the authority of Scripture.

On the contrary, The authority of Scripture is enough.

I answer that, As said above, (Q. 70, A. 1), the order of the work of adornment corresponds to the order of the work of distinction. Hence, as among the three days assigned to the work of distinction, the middle, or second, day is devoted to the work of distinction of water, which is the intermediate body, so in the three days of the work of adornment, the middle day, which is the fifth, is assigned to the adornment of the intermediate body, by the production of birds and fishes. As, then, Moses makes mention of the lights and the light on the fourth day, to show that the fourth day corresponds to the first day on which he had said that the light was made, so on this fifth day he mentions the waters and the firmament of heaven to show that the fifth day corresponds to the second. It must, however, be observed that Augustine differs from other writers in his opinion about the production of fishes and birds, as he differs about the production of plants. For while others say that fishes and birds were produced on the fifth day actually, he holds that the nature of the waters produced them on that day potentially.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier, (Q. 70, A. 1), the process of embellishment aligns with the process of differentiation. Therefore, among the three days dedicated to differentiation, the second day focuses on the distinction of water, which is the intermediate element. Likewise, in the three days of embellishment, the middle day, which is the fifth, is designated for embellishing the intermediate element through the creation of birds and fish. Just as Moses refers to the lights and the light on the fourth day to indicate that this day corresponds to the first day when the light was created, on this fifth day, he mentions the waters and the heavens to show that the fifth day corresponds to the second. However, it's important to note that Augustine has a different view from other writers regarding the creation of fish and birds, as he does with the creation of plants. While others claim that fish and birds were created on the fifth day, he believes that the nature of the waters allowed for their potential creation on that day.

Reply Obj. 1: It was laid down by Avicenna that animals of all kinds can be generated by various minglings of the elements, and naturally, without any kind of seed. This, however, seems repugnant to the fact that nature produces its effects by determinate means, and consequently, those things that are naturally generated from seed cannot be generated naturally in any other way. It ought, then, rather to be said that in the natural generation of all animals that are generated from seed, the active principle lies in the formative power of the seed, but that in the case of animals generated from putrefaction, the formative power of is the influence of the heavenly bodies. The material principle, however, in the generation of either kind of animals, is either some element, or something compounded of the elements. But at the first beginning of the world the active principle was the Word of God, which produced animals from material elements, either in act, as some holy writers say, or virtually, as Augustine teaches. Not as though the power possessed by water or earth of producing all animals resides in the earth and the water themselves, as Avicenna held, but in the power originally given to the elements of producing them from elemental matter by the power of seed or the influence of the stars.

Reply Obj. 1: Avicenna stated that all types of animals can come into existence through various combinations of elements and naturally, without any seeds. However, this contradicts the fact that nature produces its effects through specific means, meaning that things that are naturally created from seeds cannot be generated in any other way. It should rather be said that in the natural generation of all animals that come from seeds, the active principle lies in the formative power of the seed, while in the case of animals that arise from decay, the formative power comes from the influence of celestial bodies. The material principle in the generation of either type of animal is either some element or something made up of the elements. However, at the very beginning of the world, the active principle was the Word of God, which created animals from material elements, either in actuality, as some holy writers say, or potentially, as Augustine teaches. This is not to suggest that the ability of water or earth to produce all animals lies within the earth and water themselves, as Avicenna believed, but rather in the power originally given to the elements to create them from elemental matter through the power of seed or the influence of the stars.

Reply Obj. 2: The bodies of birds and fishes may be considered from two points of view. If considered in themselves, it will be evident that the earthly element must predominate, since the element that is least active, namely, the earth, must be the most abundant in quantity in order that the mingling may be duly tempered in the body of the animal. But if considered as by nature constituted to move with certain specific motions, thus they have some special affinity with the bodies in which they move; and hence the words in which their generation is described.

Reply Obj. 2: The bodies of birds and fish can be viewed in two ways. If we look at them on their own, it’s clear that the earthly element must dominate, since the least active element, earth, needs to be the most plentiful to ensure the right balance in the animal's body. However, if we consider them as naturally designed to move in specific ways, they have a unique connection to the bodies in which they move; this is reflected in the language used to describe their creation.

Reply Obj. 3: The air, as not being so apparent to the senses, is not enumerated by itself, but with other things: partly with the water, because the lower region of the air is thickened by watery exhalations; partly with the heaven as to the higher region. But birds move in the lower part of the air, and so are said to fly "beneath the firmament," even if the firmament be taken to mean the region of clouds. Hence the production of birds is ascribed to the water.

Reply Obj. 3: Since air isn’t easily perceived by our senses, it’s not listed on its own but along with other elements: partly with water, because the lower part of the air is made denser by moisture in the atmosphere; partly with the sky when referring to the upper region. Birds fly in the lower part of the air and are said to fly "beneath the firmament," even if the firmament is understood to mean the area of clouds. Therefore, the creation of birds is attributed to water.

Reply Obj. 4: Nature passes from one extreme to another through the medium; and therefore there are creatures of intermediate type between the animals of the air and those of the water, having something in common with both; and they are reckoned as belonging to that class to which they are most allied, through the characters possessed in common with that class, rather than with the other. But in order to include among fishes all such intermediate forms as have special characters like to theirs, the words, "Let the waters bring forth the creeping creature having life," are followed by these: "God created great whales," etc.

Reply Obj. 4: Nature shifts from one extreme to another through a middle ground; therefore, there are creatures that are intermediate between air animals and water animals, sharing traits with both. They are classified in the group they are most closely related to, based on the shared characteristics with that group rather than the other. To include all the intermediate forms that have unique traits similar to fish, the phrase, "Let the waters bring forth the creeping creature having life," is followed by, "God created great whales," etc.

Reply Obj. 5: The order in which the production of these animals is given has reference to the order of those bodies which they are set to adorn, rather than to the superiority of the animals themselves. Moreover, in generation also the more perfect is reached through the less perfect. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: The sequence in which these animals are produced relates to the arrangement of the bodies they are meant to embellish, rather than to the superiority of the animals themselves. Additionally, in reproduction, the more advanced form is achieved from the less advanced.

QUESTION 72

ON THE WORK OF THE SIXTH DAY
(In One Article)

ON THE WORK OF THE SIXTH DAY
(In One Article)

We must now consider the work of the sixth day.

We now need to look at what happened on the sixth day.

Objection 1: It would seem that this work is not fittingly described. For as birds and fishes have a living soul, so also have land animals. But these animals are not themselves living souls. Therefore the words, "Let the earth bring forth the living creature," should rather have been, "Let the earth bring forth the living four-footed creatures."

Objection 1: It seems that this work isn't accurately described. Just as birds and fish have a living soul, so do land animals. However, these animals are not living souls on their own. Therefore, the phrase, "Let the earth bring forth the living creature," should have been phrased as, "Let the earth bring forth the living four-footed creatures."

Obj. 2: Further, a genus ought not to be opposed to its species. But beasts and cattle are quadrupeds. Therefore quadrupeds ought not to be enumerated as a class with beasts and cattle.

Obj. 2: Additionally, a genus shouldn’t be in conflict with its species. However, beasts and cattle are quadrupeds. So, quadrupeds shouldn’t be counted as a category alongside beasts and cattle.

Obj. 3: Further, as animals belong to a determinate genus and species, so also does man. But in the making of man nothing is said of his genus and species, and therefore nothing ought to have been said about them in the production of other animals, whereas it is said "according to its genus" and "in its species."

Obj. 3: Furthermore, just like animals belong to a specific genus and species, so does man. However, when it comes to the creation of man, there’s no mention of his genus and species, so nothing should have been mentioned about them in the creation of other animals. Yet, it is stated "according to its genus" and "in its species."

Obj. 4: Further, land animals are more like man, whom God is recorded to have blessed, than are birds and fishes. But as birds and fishes are said to be blessed, this should have been said, with much more reason, of the other animals as well.

Obj. 4: Moreover, land animals are more similar to humans, who God is said to have blessed, than birds and fish are. However, since birds and fish are also described as being blessed, it would make much more sense to say the same about the other animals.

Obj. 5: Further, certain animals are generated from putrefaction, which is a kind of corruption. But corruption is repugnant to the first founding of the world. Therefore such animals should not have been produced at that time.

Obj. 5: Additionally, some animals come from decay, which is a form of corruption. But corruption goes against the original creation of the world. So, these animals shouldn't have been created at that time.

Obj. 6: Further, certain animals are poisonous, and injurious to man. But there ought to have been nothing injurious to man before man sinned. Therefore such animals ought not to have been made by God at all, since He is the Author of good; or at least not until man had sinned.

Obj. 6: Additionally, some animals are poisonous and harmful to humans. However, there shouldn't have been anything harmful to humans before mankind sinned. Therefore, such animals shouldn't have been created by God at all, since He is the source of goodness; or at least not until after humanity had sinned.

On the contrary, Suffices the authority of Scripture.

On the contrary, The authority of Scripture is sufficient.

I answer that, As on the fifth day the intermediate body, namely, the water, is adorned, and thus that day corresponds to the second day; so the sixth day, on which the lowest body, or the earth, is adorned by the production of land animals, corresponds to the third day. Hence the earth is mentioned in both places. And here again Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. v) that the production was potential, and other holy writers that it was actual.

I answer that, Just as on the fifth day the intermediate element, which is water, is made beautiful, corresponding to the second day, the sixth day, when the lowest element, or the earth, is beautified by the creation of land animals, corresponds to the third day. Therefore, the earth is mentioned in both instances. Additionally, Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. v) that the creation was potential, while other holy writers assert that it was actual.

Reply Obj. 1: The different grades of life which are found in different living creatures can be discovered from the various ways in which Scripture speaks of them, as Basil says (Hom. viii in Hexaem.). The life of plants, for instance, is very imperfect and difficult to discern, and hence, in speaking of their production, nothing is said of their life, but only their generation is mentioned, since only in generation is a vital act observed in them. For the powers of nutrition and growth are subordinate to the generative life, as will be shown later on (Q. 78, A. 2). But amongst animals, those that live on land are, generally speaking, more perfect than birds and fishes, not because the fish is devoid of memory, as Basil upholds (Hom. viii in Hexaem.) and Augustine rejects (Gen. ad lit. iii), but because their limbs are more distinct and their generation of a higher order, (yet some imperfect animals, such as bees and ants, are more intelligent in certain ways). Scripture, therefore, does not call fishes "living creatures," but "creeping creatures having life"; whereas it does call land animals "living creatures" on account of their more perfect life, and seems to imply that fishes are merely bodies having in them something of a soul, whilst land animals, from the higher perfection of their life, are, as it were, living souls with bodies subject to them. But the life of man, as being the most perfect grade, is not said to be produced, like the life of other animals, by earth or water, but immediately by God.

Reply Obj. 1: The different levels of life found in various living creatures can be understood from the different ways Scripture refers to them, as Basil mentions (Hom. viii in Hexaem.). For example, the life of plants is quite basic and hard to identify, so when discussing their creation, nothing is said about their life, only about their generation, because vital activity is only noticeable in their generation. The functions of nutrition and growth are secondary to generative life, as will be explained later (Q. 78, A. 2). Among animals, those that live on land are generally considered more advanced than birds and fish, not because fish lack memory, as Basil argues (Hom. viii in Hexaem.) and Augustine disputes (Gen. ad lit. iii), but because they have more defined limbs and a higher form of generation (though some simpler animals, like bees and ants, exhibit intelligence in specific ways). Therefore, Scripture does not refer to fish as "living creatures," but as "creeping creatures that have life"; whereas it does classify land animals as "living creatures" due to their more advanced life, suggesting that fish are just bodies containing some aspect of a soul, while land animals, with their higher life forms, are essentially living souls with bodies. However, the life of humans, being the highest form, is described as being created directly by God, rather than through earth or water like the lives of other animals.

Reply Obj. 2: By "cattle," domestic animals are signified, which in any way are of service to man: but by "beasts," wild animals such as bears and lions are designated. By "creeping things" those animals are meant which either have no feet and cannot rise from the earth, as serpents, or those whose feet are too short to lift them far from the ground, as the lizard and tortoise. But since certain animals, as deer and goats, seem to fall under none of these classes, the word "quadrupeds" is added. Or perhaps the word "quadruped" is used first as being the genus, to which the others are added as species, for even some reptiles, such as lizards and tortoises, are four-footed.

Reply Obj. 2: By "cattle," we mean domesticated animals that are in any way useful to humans; by "beasts," we refer to wild animals like bears and lions. "Creeping things" are those animals that either have no feet and cannot rise from the ground, like snakes, or those with legs that are too short to lift them far off the ground, such as lizards and tortoises. However, since some animals, like deer and goats, don’t clearly fit into these categories, the term "quadrupeds" is included. Or maybe "quadruped" is used first as a broader category, with the others as specific examples, since even some reptiles, like lizards and tortoises, have four legs.

Reply Obj. 3: In other animals, and in plants, mention is made of genus and species, to denote the generation of like from like. But it was unnecessary to do so in the case of man, as what had already been said of other creatures might be understood of him. Again, animals and plants may be said to be produced according to their kinds, to signify their remoteness from the Divine image and likeness, whereas man is said to be made "to the image and likeness of God."

Reply Obj. 3: In other animals and in plants, we talk about genus and species to indicate that like produces like. But this wasn’t needed for humans, since what was already said about other creatures can also be applied to us. Furthermore, animals and plants can be considered to be produced according to their kinds to show how far they are from the Divine image and likeness, while humans are said to be made "in the image and likeness of God."

Reply Obj. 4: The blessing of God gives power to multiply by generation, and, having been mentioned in the preceding account of the making of birds and fishes, could be understood of the beasts of the earth, without requiring to be repeated. The blessing, however, is repeated in the case of man, since in him generation of children has a special relation to the number of the elect [*Cf. Augustine, Gen. ad lit. iii, 12], and to prevent anyone from saying that there was any sin whatever in the act of begetting children. As to plants, since they experience neither desire of propagation, nor sensation in generating, they are deemed unworthy of a formal blessing.

Reply Obj. 4: God's blessing empowers multiplication through generations, and since this was mentioned earlier in the discussion about the creation of birds and fish, it can also be understood for the animals on land without needing to be repeated. However, the blessing is repeated for humans because their ability to have children is especially significant regarding the number of the chosen ones [*Cf. Augustine, Gen. ad lit. iii, 12], and to clarify that there is no sin in the act of procreation. As for plants, since they do not have a desire to reproduce or any sensation when producing, they are considered unworthy of a formal blessing.

Reply Obj. 5: Since the generation of one thing is the corruption of another, it was not incompatible with the first formation of things, that from the corruption of the less perfect the more perfect should be generated. Hence animals generated from the corruption of inanimate things, or of plants, may have been generated then. But those generated from corruption of animals could not have been produced then otherwise than potentially.

Reply Obj. 5: Since the creation of one thing happens alongside the destruction of another, it was not inconsistent with the initial creation of things that from the decay of the less perfect, the more perfect could come into being. Therefore, animals that arose from the decay of non-living things or plants may have been created at that time. However, those that came from the decay of animals could only have been produced then in a potential sense.

Reply Obj. 6: In the words of Augustine (Super. Gen. contr. Manich. i): "If an unskilled person enters the workshop of an artificer he sees in it many appliances of which he does not understand the use, and which, if he is a foolish fellow, he considers unnecessary. Moreover, should he carelessly fall into the fire, or wound himself with a sharp-edged tool, he is under the impression that many of the things there are hurtful; whereas the craftsman, knowing their use, laughs at his folly. And thus some people presume to find fault with many things in this world, through not seeing the reasons for their existence. For though not required for the furnishing of our house, these things are necessary for the perfection of the universe." And, since man before he sinned would have used the things of this world conformably to the order designed, poisonous animals would not have injured him. _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: As Augustine says (Super. Gen. contr. Manich. i): "If someone who doesn't know much enters a skilled worker's shop, they'll see many tools they don't understand and, if they’re not very bright, might consider them unnecessary. Furthermore, if they carelessly fall into a fire or cut themselves with a sharp tool, they'll think that many items there are harmful; meanwhile, the skilled worker, knowing how everything is meant to be used, just laughs at their ignorance. Similarly, some people criticize many things in the world simply because they don’t understand why they exist. Even though they aren't essential for our immediate needs, these things are crucial for the overall harmony of the universe." And, since a person before sin would have used the world’s resources according to their intended order, poisonous creatures wouldn't have harmed them.

QUESTION 73

ON THE THINGS THAT BELONG TO THE SEVENTH DAY
(In Three Articles)

ON THE THINGS THAT BELONG TO THE SEVENTH DAY
(In Three Articles)

We must next consider the things that belong to the seventh day.
Under this head there are three points of inquiry:

We should now look at the things related to the seventh day.
In this area, there are three questions to explore:

(1) About the completion of the works;

(1) Regarding the completion of the work;

(2) About the resting of God;

About God's rest;

(3) About the blessing and sanctifying of this day. _______________________

(3) About the blessing and making this day special. _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 73, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 73, Art. 1]

Whether the Completion of the Divine Works Ought to Be Ascribed to the Seventh Day?

Whether the Completion of the Divine Works Should Be Attributed to the Seventh Day?

Objection 1: It would seem that the completion of the Divine works ought not to be ascribed to the seventh day. For all things that are done in this world belong to the Divine works. But the consummation of the world will be at the end of the world (Matt. 13:39, 40). Moreover, the time of Christ's Incarnation is a time of completion, wherefore it is called "the time of fulness [*Vulg.: 'the fulness of time']" (Gal. 4:4). And Christ Himself, at the moment of His death, cried out, "It is consummated" (John 19:30). Hence the completion of the Divine works does not belong to the seventh day.

Objection 1: It seems that the completion of God's works shouldn't be attributed to the seventh day. Everything that happens in this world is part of God's works. However, the fulfillment of the world will occur at the end of time (Matt. 13:39, 40). Additionally, the period of Christ's Incarnation is a time of completion, which is why it's referred to as "the time of fullness" (Gal. 4:4). Moreover, at the moment of His death, Christ exclaimed, "It is finished" (John 19:30). Therefore, the completion of God's works does not belong to the seventh day.

Obj. 2: Further, the completion of a work is an act in itself. But we do not read that God acted at all on the seventh day, but rather that He rested from all His work. Therefore the completion of the works does not belong to the seventh day.

Obj. 2: Additionally, finishing a task is an action in itself. However, we don’t read that God did anything on the seventh day; instead, it says He rested from all His work. So, the completion of the works doesn’t belong to the seventh day.

Obj. 3: Further, nothing is said to be complete to which many things are added, unless they are merely superfluous, for a thing is called perfect to which nothing is wanting that it ought to possess. But many things were made after the seventh day, as the production of many individual beings, and even of certain new species that are frequently appearing, especially in the case of animals generated from putrefaction. Also, God creates daily new souls. Again, the work of the Incarnation was a new work, of which it is said (Jer. 31:22): "The Lord hath created a new thing upon the earth." Miracles also are new works, of which it is said (Eccles. 36:6): "Renew thy signs, and work new miracles." Moreover, all things will be made new when the Saints are glorified, according to Apoc. 21:5: "And He that sat on the throne said: Behold I make all things new." Therefore the completion of the Divine works ought not to be attributed to the seventh day.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, nothing can be considered complete if many things are added to it, unless those additions are merely unnecessary, because something is called perfect when it lacks nothing that it should have. However, many things were created after the seventh day, such as the existence of many individual beings and even certain new species that often appear, especially in the case of animals produced from decay. Also, God creates new souls daily. Additionally, the work of the Incarnation was a new act, as stated (Jer. 31:22): "The Lord has created a new thing on the earth." Miracles are also new acts, as mentioned (Eccles. 36:6): "Renew your signs, and perform new miracles." Moreover, all things will be made new when the Saints are glorified, according to Apoc. 21:5: "And He who sat on the throne said: Behold, I make all things new." Therefore, the completion of Divine works should not be attributed to the seventh day.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 2:2): "On the seventh day God ended His work which He had made."

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 2:2): "On the seventh day, God finished the work He had done."

I answer that, The perfection of a thing is twofold, the first perfection and the second perfection. The first perfection is that according to which a thing is substantially perfect, and this perfection is the form of the whole; which form results from the whole having its parts complete. But the second perfection is the end, which is either an operation, as the end of the harpist is to play the harp; or something that is attained by an operation, as the end of the builder is the house that he makes by building. But the first perfection is the cause of the second, because the form is the principle of operation. Now the final perfection, which is the end of the whole universe, is the perfect beatitude of the Saints at the consummation of the world; and the first perfection is the completeness of the universe at its first founding, and this is what is ascribed to the seventh day.

I respond that, the perfection of something is twofold: first perfection and second perfection. The first perfection is what makes a thing fundamentally perfect, and this perfection is the essence of the whole; this essence comes from the whole having its parts complete. However, the second perfection is the goal, which can be either an action, like the goal of the harpist is to play the harp; or something achieved through an action, like the goal of the builder is the house he creates through building. The first perfection causes the second because the essence is the principle of action. Now, the ultimate perfection, which is the goal of the entire universe, is the perfect happiness of the Saints at the end of the world; while the first perfection is the completeness of the universe at its initial creation, which is what is attributed to the seventh day.

Reply Obj. 1: The first perfection is the cause of the second, as above said. Now for the attaining of beatitude two things are required, nature and grace. Therefore, as said above, the perfection of beatitude will be at the end of the world. But this consummation existed previously in its causes, as to nature, at the first founding of the world, as to grace, in the Incarnation of Christ. For, "Grace and truth came by Jesus Christ" (John 1:17). So, then, on the seventh day was the consummation of nature, in Christ's Incarnation the consummation of grace, and at the end of the world will be the consummation of glory.

Reply Obj. 1: The first perfection causes the second, as mentioned above. To achieve beatitude, two things are necessary: nature and grace. Therefore, as noted earlier, the perfection of beatitude will occur at the end of the world. However, this fulfillment already existed in its causes: in terms of nature, at the very beginning of the world, and in terms of grace, at the Incarnation of Christ. As it says, "Grace and truth came through Jesus Christ" (John 1:17). Thus, the seventh day marked the completion of nature, the Incarnation of Christ marked the completion of grace, and at the end of the world, we will see the completion of glory.

Reply Obj. 2: God did act on the seventh day, not by creating new creatures, but by directing and moving His creatures to the work proper to them, and thus He made some beginning of the second perfection. So that, according to our version of the Scripture, the completion of the works is attributed to the seventh day, though according to another it is assigned to the sixth. Either version, however, may stand, since the completion of the universe as to the completeness of its parts belongs to the sixth day, but its completion as regards their operation, to the seventh. It may also be added that in continuous movement, so long as any movement further is possible, movement cannot be called completed till it comes to rest, for rest denotes consummation of movement. Now God might have made many other creatures besides those which He made in the six days, and hence, by the fact that He ceased making them on the seventh day, He is said on that day to have consummated His work.

Reply Obj. 2: God did act on the seventh day, not by creating new beings, but by guiding and moving His creations to do their proper work, thus initiating the second perfection. So, according to our interpretation of Scripture, the completion of the works is attributed to the seventh day, although another interpretation assigns it to the sixth. However, both interpretations are valid since the completion of the universe in terms of its parts belongs to the sixth day, while its completion in terms of their functioning relates to the seventh. It can also be said that in continuous movement, as long as further movement is possible, movement cannot be deemed complete until it comes to rest, as rest signifies the fulfillment of movement. Now, God could have created many other beings beyond those He made in the six days, and thus, by ceasing to create on the seventh day, He is said to have completed His work on that day.

Reply Obj. 3: Nothing entirely new was afterwards made by God, but all things subsequently made had in a sense been made before in the work of the six days. Some things, indeed, had a previous experience materially, as the rib from the side of Adam out of which God formed Eve; whilst others existed not only in matter but also in their causes, as those individual creatures that are now generated existed in the first of their kind. Species, also, that are new, if any such appear, existed beforehand in various active powers; so that animals, and perhaps even new species of animals, are produced by putrefaction by the power which the stars and elements received at the beginning. Again, animals of new kinds arise occasionally from the connection of individuals belonging to different species, as the mule is the offspring of an ass and a mare; but even these existed previously in their causes, in the works of the six days. Some also existed beforehand by way of similitude, as the souls now created. And the work of the Incarnation itself was thus foreshadowed, for as we read (Phil. 2:7), The Son of God "was made in the likeness of men." And again, the glory that is spiritual was anticipated in the angels by way of similitude; and that of the body in the heaven, especially the empyrean. Hence it is written (Eccles. 1:10), "Nothing under the sun is new, for it hath already gone before, in the ages that were before us." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Nothing completely new was made by God afterward, but everything created later had, in a sense, already been created during the six days of creation. Some things, like the rib taken from Adam to form Eve, had a previous physical existence, while others existed not just in matter but also in their causes, like those individual creatures that now come into being, which existed in the first of their kind. New species, if any appear, were present beforehand in various active potentials; thus animals, and possibly even new animal species, come about through decay, driven by the powers that the stars and elements received at the beginning. Additionally, new kinds of animals sometimes arise from the mating of individuals from different species, as a mule is the offspring of a donkey and a mare; but even these had their origins in their causes during the works of the six days. Some also existed beforehand in terms of similarity, just like the souls we create now. The work of the Incarnation itself was foreshadowed, as we read (Phil. 2:7), the Son of God "was made in the likeness of men." Furthermore, the spiritual glory was anticipated in the angels through similarity, and the glory of the body in the heavens, particularly in the empyrean. Thus it is written (Eccles. 1:10), "Nothing under the sun is new, for it has already gone before in the ages that were before us."

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 73, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 73, Art. 2]

Whether God Rested on the Seventh Day from All His Work?

Whether God Took a Break on the Seventh Day from All His Work?

Objection 1: It would seem that God did not rest on the seventh day from all His work. For it is said (John 5:17), "My Father worketh until now, and I work." God, then, did not rest on the seventh day from all His work.

Objection 1: It seems that God didn’t rest on the seventh day from all His work. For it says (John 5:17), "My Father is still working, and I am working." So, God didn’t rest on the seventh day from all His work.

Obj. 2: Further, rest is opposed to movement, or to labor, which movement causes. But, as God produced His work without movement and without labor, He cannot be said to have rested on the seventh day from His work.

Obj. 2: Also, rest is the opposite of movement, or the work that movement creates. However, since God created His work without movement or effort, He can't be said to have rested on the seventh day from His work.

Obj. 3: Further, should it be said that God rested on the seventh day by causing man to rest; against this it may be argued that rest is set down in contradistinction to His work; now the words "God created" or "made" this thing or the other cannot be explained to mean that He made man create or make these things. Therefore the resting of God cannot be explained as His making man to rest.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if it's said that God rested on the seventh day to make man rest, it can be argued that rest is defined in contrast to His work; the phrases "God created" or "made" this thing or that cannot be interpreted to mean that He made man create or make these things. Therefore, God's resting cannot be understood as His making man rest.

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 2:2): "God rested on the seventh day from all the work which He had done."

On the contrary, It is said (Gen. 2:2): "God rested on the seventh day from all the work He had completed."

I answer that, Rest is, properly speaking, opposed to movement, and consequently to the labor that arises from movement. But although movement, strictly speaking, is a quality of bodies, yet the word is applied also to spiritual things, and in a twofold sense. On the one hand, every operation may be called a movement, and thus the Divine goodness is said to move and go forth to its object, in communicating itself to that object, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ii). On the other hand, the desire that tends to an object outside itself, is said to move towards it. Hence rest is taken in two senses, in one sense meaning a cessation from work, in the other, the satisfying of desire. Now, in either sense God is said to have rested on the seventh day. First, because He ceased from creating new creatures on that day, for, as said above (A. 1, ad 3), He made nothing afterwards that had not existed previously, in some degree, in the first works; secondly, because He Himself had no need of the things that He had made, but was happy in the fruition of Himself. Hence, when all things were made He is not said to have rested "in" His works, as though needing them for His own happiness, but to have rested "from" them, as in fact resting in Himself, as He suffices for Himself and fulfils His own desire. And even though from all eternity He rested in Himself, yet the rest in Himself, which He took after He had finished His works, is that rest which belongs to the seventh day. And this, says Augustine, is the meaning of God's resting from His works on that day (Gen. ad lit. iv).

I respond that, rest is, in the strict sense, the opposite of movement, and therefore the labor that comes from movement. However, while movement is primarily a quality of physical bodies, the term is also used for spiritual matters, and in two ways. On one hand, any action can be considered a movement, and so divine goodness is described as moving outward toward its object when it communicates itself to that object, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. ii). On the other hand, the desire that seeks something outside itself is also said to move toward it. Thus, rest is understood in two ways: one meaning a pause in work, and the other, the fulfillment of desire. In either interpretation, it is said that God rested on the seventh day. First, because He stopped creating new beings on that day; as previously mentioned (A. 1, ad 3), He didn’t make anything afterward that hadn’t already existed, in some form, in the first acts of creation. Secondly, because He had no need for the things He created but found joy in the enjoyment of Himself. Therefore, when everything was made, He is not described as resting "in" His works, as if He needed them for His happiness, but rather as resting "from" them, truly resting in Himself, as He is complete in Himself and satisfies His own desires. Even though He has rested in Himself for all eternity, the rest He took after finishing His works represents the rest attributed to the seventh day. And this, Augustine states, is what is meant by God's rest from His works on that day (Gen. ad lit. iv).

Reply Obj. 1: God indeed "worketh until now" by preserving and providing for the creatures He has made, but not by the making of new ones.

Reply Obj. 1: God does indeed "worketh until now" by preserving and providing for the creatures He has made, but not by creating new ones.

Reply Obj. 2: Rest is here not opposed to labor or to movement, but to the production of new creatures, and to the desire tending to an external object.

Reply Obj. 2: Rest here isn’t opposed to work or movement, but to the creation of new beings and to the desire directed towards an external object.

Reply Obj. 3: Even as God rests in Himself alone and is happy in the enjoyment of Himself, so our own sole happiness lies in the enjoyment of God. Thus, also, He makes us find rest in Himself, both from His works and our own. It is not, then, unreasonable to say that God rested in giving rest to us. Still, this explanation must not be set down as the only one, and the other is the first and principal explanation. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Just as God finds rest and happiness in Himself, our true happiness comes from enjoying God. He also allows us to find rest in Him, through both His work and ours. Therefore, it's not unreasonable to say that God rested while providing us with rest. However, this interpretation shouldn't be considered the only one; it is, instead, the primary and most important explanation.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 73, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 73, Art. 3]

Whether Blessing and Sanctifying Are Due to the Seventh Day?

Whether Blessing and Sanctifying Are Due to the Seventh Day?

Objection 1: It would seem that blessing and sanctifying are not due to the seventh day. For it is usual to call a time blessed or holy for that some good thing has happened in it, or some evil been avoided. But whether God works or ceases from work nothing accrues to Him or is lost to Him. Therefore no special blessing or sanctifying are due to the seventh day.

Objection 1: It seems that blessing and sanctifying are not meant for the seventh day. Typically, we consider a time blessed or holy because something good has happened during it, or some evil has been avoided. However, whether God is working or taking a break from work, nothing is gained or lost for Him. Therefore, no specific blessing or sanctifying is meant for the seventh day.

Obj. 2: Further, the Latin "benedictio" [blessing] is derived from "bonitas" [goodness]. But it is the nature of good to spread and communicate itself, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv). The days, therefore, in which God produced creatures deserved a blessing rather than the day on which He ceased producing them.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Latin "benedictio" [blessing] comes from "bonitas" [goodness]. However, it's inherent to goodness to share and extend itself, as Dionysius mentions (Div. Nom. iv). Therefore, the days when God created beings are more deserving of a blessing than the day He stopped creating them.

Obj. 3: Further, over each creature a blessing was pronounced, as upon each work it was said, "God saw that it was good." Therefore it was not necessary that after all had been produced, the seventh day should be blessed.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, a blessing was given to each creature, as it was stated for each creation, "God saw that it was good." Therefore, it wasn't necessary to bless the seventh day after everything had been created.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:3), "God blessed the seventh day and sanctified it, because in it He had rested from all His work."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:3), "God blessed the seventh day and made it holy, because on that day He rested from all His work."

I answer that, As said above (A. 2), God's rest on the seventh day is understood in two ways. First, in that He ceased from producing new works, though He still preserves and provides for the creatures He has made. Secondly, in that after all His works He rested in Himself. According to the first meaning, then, a blessing befits the seventh day, since, as we explained (Q. 72, ad 4), the blessing referred to the increase by multiplication; for which reason God said to the creatures which He blessed: "Increase and multiply." Now, this increase is effected through God's Providence over His creatures, securing the generation of like from like. And according to the second meaning, it is right that the seventh day should have been sanctified, since the special sanctification of every creature consists in resting in God. For this reason things dedicated to God are said to be sanctified.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (A. 2), God's rest on the seventh day can be understood in two ways. First, it means that He stopped creating new things, but He still looks after and provides for the creatures He has made. Second, it means that after completing His work, He found rest in Himself. Based on the first meaning, the seventh day is blessed, since, as we explained (Q. 72, ad 4), the blessing relates to growth through multiplication; that's why God told the creatures He blessed: "Increase and multiply." This growth happens through God's Providence over His creatures, ensuring that like begets like. According to the second meaning, it's appropriate for the seventh day to be sanctified, because the true sanctification of every creature lies in resting in God. That's why things dedicated to God are referred to as sanctified.

Reply Obj. 1: The seventh day is said to be sanctified not because anything can accrue to God, or be taken from Him, but because something is added to creatures by their multiplying, and by their resting in God.

Reply Obj. 1: The seventh day is called holy not because anything can be gained by God or taken away from Him, but because something is given to creatures through their procreation and by finding rest in God.

Reply Obj. 2: In the first six days creatures were produced in their first causes, but after being thus produced, they are multiplied and preserved, and this work also belongs to the Divine goodness. And the perfection of this goodness is made most clear by the knowledge that in it alone God finds His own rest, and we may find ours in its fruition.

Reply Obj. 2: In the first six days, creatures were created in their original forms, but after that, they multiply and are sustained, and this work also reflects God’s goodness. The greatness of this goodness is evident in the fact that God alone finds His rest in it, and we too can find our rest in its fulfillment.

Reply Obj. 3: The good mentioned in the works of each day belongs to the first institution of nature; but the blessing attached to the seventh day, to its propagation. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The good mentioned in the activities of each day belongs to the original creation of nature; but the blessing associated with the seventh day pertains to its continuation.

QUESTION 74

ON ALL THE SEVEN DAYS IN COMMON
(In Three Articles)

ON ALL THE SEVEN DAYS IN COMMON
(In Three Articles)

We next consider all the seven days in common: and there are three points of inquiry:

We’ll now look at all seven days together, and there are three main questions to explore:

(1) As to the sufficiency of these days;

(1) Regarding the adequacy of these days;

(2) Whether they are all one day, or more than one?

(2) Are they all one day, or are there multiple days?

(3) As to certain modes of speaking which Scripture uses in narrating the works of the six days. _______________________

(3) Regarding specific ways of speaking that Scripture uses to describe the events of the six days. _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 74, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 74, Art. 1]

Whether these days are sufficiently enumerated?

Whether these days are counted enough?

Objection 1: It would seem that these days are not sufficiently enumerated. For the work of creation is no less distinct from the works of distinction and adornment than these two works are from one another. But separate days are assigned to distinction and to adornment, and therefore separate days should be assigned to creation.

Objection 1: It seems that these days are not counted enough. The act of creation is just as different from the acts of distinction and decoration as these two acts are from each other. But separate days are assigned for distinction and decoration, so separate days should be set aside for creation as well.

Obj. 2: Further, air and fire are nobler elements than earth and water. But one day is assigned to the distinction of water, and another to the distinction of the land. Therefore, other days ought to be devoted to the distinction of fire and air.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, air and fire are more noble elements than earth and water. One day is designated for the recognition of water, and another for the distinction of land. Therefore, other days should be dedicated to the recognition of fire and air.

Obj. 3: Further, fish differ from birds as much as birds differ from the beasts of the earth, whereas man differs more from other animals than all animals whatsoever differ from each other. But one day is devoted to the production of fishes, and another to that of the beast of the earth. Another day, then, ought to be assigned to the production of birds and another to that of man.

Obj. 3: Additionally, fish are as different from birds as birds are from land animals, while humans are more distinct from other animals than any animals are from each other. One day is set aside for creating fish, and another for creating land animals. Therefore, one day should be dedicated to creating birds and another for creating humans.

Obj. 4: Further, it would seem, on the other hand, that some of these days are superfluous. Light, for instance, stands to the luminaries in the relation of accident to subject. But the subject is produced at the same time as the accident proper to it. The light and the luminaries, therefore, ought not to have been produced on different days.

Obj. 4: Additionally, it seems that some of these days are unnecessary. Light, for example, relates to the luminaries as an accident does to a subject. However, the subject is created together with the accident that belongs to it. Therefore, light and the luminaries shouldn’t have been created on different days.

Obj. 5: Further, these days are devoted to the first instituting of the world. But as on the seventh day nothing was instituted, that day ought not to be enumerated with the others.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, these days are dedicated to the initial creation of the world. However, since nothing was created on the seventh day, that day should not be counted among the others.

I answer that, The reason of the distinction of these days is made clear by what has been said above (Q. 70, A. 1), namely, that the parts of the world had first to be distinguished, and then each part adorned and filled, as it were, by the beings that inhabit it. Now the parts into which the corporeal creation is divided are three, according to some holy writers, these parts being the heaven, or highest part, the water, or middle part, and the earth, or the lowest part. Thus the Pythagoreans teach that perfection consists in three things, the beginning, the middle, and the end. The first part, then, is distinguished on the first day, and adorned on the fourth, the middle part distinguished on the middle day, and adorned on the fifth, and the third part distinguished on the third day, and adorned on the sixth. But Augustine, while agreeing with the above writers as to the last three days, differs as to the first three, for, according to him, spiritual creatures are formed on the first day, and corporeal on the two others, the higher bodies being formed on the first these two days, and the lower on the second. Thus, then, the perfection of the Divine works corresponds to the perfection of the number six, which is the sum of its aliquot parts, one, two, three; since one day is assigned to the forming of spiritual creatures, two to that of corporeal creatures, and three to the work of adornment.

I answer that, The reason for distinguishing these days is explained by what has been mentioned above (Q. 70, A. 1), specifically that the parts of the world had to be identified first, and then each part filled and embellished, so to speak, by the beings that inhabit it. The parts of the physical creation are divided into three, according to some holy writers: the heaven, or highest part; the water, or middle part; and the earth, or lowest part. The Pythagoreans teach that perfection consists of three elements: the beginning, the middle, and the end. Therefore, the first part is defined on the first day and decorated on the fourth; the middle part is defined on the second day and decorated on the fifth; and the third part is defined on the third day and decorated on the sixth. Augustine agrees with the aforementioned writers regarding the last three days but holds a different view about the first three. According to him, spiritual beings are made on the first day, and physical beings are created on the next two days, with higher bodies formed on the first of these two days and lower bodies on the second. Thus, the perfection of the Divine works corresponds to the perfection of the number six, which is the sum of its aliquot parts, one, two, three; since one day is dedicated to the creation of spiritual beings, two days are for physical beings, and three days are for the work of embellishment.

Reply Obj. 1: According to Augustine, the work of creation belongs to the production of formless matter, and of the formless spiritual nature, both of which are outside of time, as he himself says (Confess. xii, 12). Thus, then, the creation of either is set down before there was any day. But it may also be said, following other holy writers, that the works of distinction and adornment imply certain changes in the creature which are measurable by time; whereas the work of creation lies only in the Divine act producing the substance of beings instantaneously. For this reason, therefore, every work of distinction and adornment is said to take place "in a day," but creation "in the beginning" which denotes something indivisible.

Reply Obj. 1: According to Augustine, creation involves producing formless matter and formless spiritual nature, both of which exist outside of time, as he himself states (Confess. xii, 12). Therefore, the creation of either occurs before any day. However, it can also be said, following other holy writers, that the works of distinction and adornment involve specific changes in the created things that can be measured by time, while the act of creation solely involves the Divine act that creates the substance of beings instantly. For this reason, every act of distinction and adornment is described as happening "in a day," but creation is said to occur "in the beginning," which signifies something indivisible.

Reply Obj. 2: Fire and air, as not distinctly known by the unlettered, are not expressly named by Moses among the parts of the world, but reckoned with the intermediate part, or water, especially as regards the lowest part of the air; or with the heaven, to which the higher region of air approaches, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii, 13).

Reply Obj. 2: Fire and air, which are not clearly understood by those who are uneducated, are not specifically mentioned by Moses as parts of the world. Instead, they are considered alongside the intermediate element, or water, particularly referring to the lower part of the air; or with heaven, to which the upper region of air is closely related, as Augustine notes (Gen. ad lit. ii, 13).

Reply Obj. 3: The production of animals is recorded with reference to their adorning the various parts of the world, and therefore the days of their production are separated or united according as the animals adorn the same parts of the world, or different parts.

Reply Obj. 3: The development of animals is noted based on their inhabiting different parts of the world, so the days of their creation are grouped together or set apart depending on whether the animals populate the same regions or different areas.

Reply Obj. 4: The nature of light, as existing in a subject, was made on the first day; and the making of the luminaries on the fourth day does not mean that their substance was produced anew, but that they then received a form that they had not before, as said above (Q. 70, [A. 1] ad 2).

Reply Obj. 4: The essence of light, as it exists within a subject, was created on the first day; and the creation of the luminaries on the fourth day doesn't imply that their material was newly formed, but rather that they then obtained a form they didn't have before, as mentioned earlier (Q. 70, [A. 1] ad 2).

Reply Obj. 5: According to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 15), after all that has been recorded that is assigned to the six days, something distinct is attributed to the seventh—namely, that on it God rested in Himself from His works: and for this reason it was right that the seventh day should be mentioned after the six. It may also be said, with the other writers, that the world entered on the seventh day upon a new state, in that nothing new was to be added to it, and that therefore the seventh day is mentioned after the six, from its being devoted to cessation from work. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: According to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 15), after everything that's been recorded for the six days, something different is attributed to the seventh—specifically, that on it God rested in Himself from His works. For this reason, it makes sense that the seventh day is mentioned after the six. It can also be stated, along with other writers, that on the seventh day the world entered a new phase, where nothing new would be added to it, and that's why the seventh day is noted after the six, as it is dedicated to rest from work.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 74, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 74, Art. 2]

Whether All These Days Are One Day?

Whether All These Days Are One Day?

Objection 1: It would seem that all these days are one day. For it is written (Gen. 2:4, 5): "These are the generations of the heaven and the earth, when they were created, in the day that the Lord . . . made the heaven and the earth, and every plant of the field, before it sprung up in the earth." Therefore the day in which God made "the heaven and the earth, and every plant of the field," is one and the same day. But He made the heaven and the earth on the first day, or rather before there was any day, but the plant of the field He made on the third day. Therefore the first and third days are but one day, and for a like reason all the rest.

Objection 1: It seems that all these days are actually one day. For it is written (Gen. 2:4, 5): "These are the generations of the heaven and the earth, when they were created, in the day that the Lord . . . made the heaven and the earth, and every plant of the field, before it sprang up in the earth." Therefore, the day in which God made "the heaven and the earth, and every plant of the field," is the same day. But He made the heaven and the earth on the first day, or rather before there was any day, while the plant of the field was made on the third day. Therefore, the first and third days are just one day, and the same goes for all the other days.

Obj. 2: Further, it is said (Ecclus. 18:1): "He that liveth for ever, created all things together." But this would not be the case if the days of these works were more than one. Therefore they are not many but one only.

Obj. 2: Moreover, it states (Ecclus. 18:1): "He who lives forever created all things at once." But this wouldn't hold true if the days of these works were more than one. Therefore, there aren't multiple days but just one.

Obj. 3: Further, on the seventh day God ceased from all new works. If, then, the seventh day is distinct from the other days, it follows that He did not make that day; which is not admissible.

Obj. 3: Additionally, on the seventh day, God stopped all new work. If the seventh day is different from the other days, it implies that He did not create that day, which is not acceptable.

Obj. 4: Further, the entire work ascribed to one day God perfected in an instant, for with each work are the words (God) "said . . . . and it was . . . done." If, then, He had kept back His next work to another day, it would follow that for the remainder of a day He would have ceased from working and left it vacant, which would be superfluous. The day, therefore, of the preceding work is one with the day of the work that follows.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the whole task assigned to a single day was completed by God in an instant because with each act, there are the words (God) "said... and it was... done." So, if He had postponed His next act to another day, it would mean that for the rest of that day He would have stopped working and left it empty, which would be unnecessary. Therefore, the day of the previous act is the same as the day of the act that follows.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1), "The evening and the morning were the second day . . . the third day," and so on. But where there is a second and third there are more than one. There was not, therefore, only one day.

On the contrary, it says (Gen. 1), "The evening and the morning were the second day . . . the third day," and so on. But where there is a second and a third, there are more than one. Therefore, there wasn’t just one day.

I answer that, On this question Augustine differs from other expositors. His opinion is that all the days that are called seven, are one day represented in a sevenfold aspect (Gen. ad lit. iv, 22; De Civ. Dei xi, 9; Ad Orosium xxvi); while others consider there were seven distinct days, not one only. Now, these two opinions, taken as explaining the literal text of Genesis, are certainly widely different. For Augustine understands by the word "day," the knowledge in the mind of the angels, and hence, according to him, the first day denotes their knowledge of the first of the Divine works, the second day their knowledge of the second work, and similarly with the rest. Thus, then, each work is said to have been wrought in some one of these days, inasmuch as God wrought nothing in the universe without impressing the knowledge thereof on the angelic mind; which can know many things at the same time, especially in the Word, in Whom all angelic knowledge is perfected and terminated. So the distinction of days denotes the natural order of the things known, and not a succession in the knowledge acquired, or in the things produced. Moreover, angelic knowledge is appropriately called "day," since light, the cause of day, is to be found in spiritual things, as Augustine observes (Gen. ad lit. iv, 28). In the opinion of the others, however, the days signify a succession both in time, and in the things produced.

I answer that, On this question, Augustine has a different perspective from other interpreters. He believes that all the days referred to as seven are actually one day shown in a sevenfold way (Gen. ad lit. iv, 22; De Civ. Dei xi, 9; Ad Orosium xxvi); while others think that there were seven separate days, not just one. These two viewpoints, when explaining the literal text of Genesis, are certainly very different. Augustine interprets the word "day" as the knowledge in the minds of the angels. Thus, for him, the first day represents their understanding of the first Divine work, the second day represents their understanding of the second work, and this pattern continues with the rest. In this way, each work is said to have been done on one of these days because God did nothing in the universe without impressing that knowledge onto the angelic mind, which can grasp many things at once, especially in the Word, in which all angelic knowledge is completed and fulfilled. Therefore, the distinction of days reflects the natural order of the things known, rather than a sequence in the knowledge gained or in the things created. Additionally, angelic knowledge is aptly referred to as "day," since light, which causes day, can be found in spiritual matters, as Augustine notes (Gen. ad lit. iv, 28). In contrast, the others believe that the days indicate a sequence both in time and in the things created.

If, however, these two explanations are looked at as referring to the mode of production, they will be found not greatly to differ, if the diversity of opinion existing on two points, as already shown (Q. 67, A. 1; Q. 69, A. 1), between Augustine and other writers is taken into account. First, because Augustine takes the earth and the water as first created, to signify matter totally without form; but the making of the firmament, the gathering of the waters, and the appearing of dry land, to denote the impression of forms upon corporeal matter. But other holy writers take the earth and the water, as first created, to signify the elements of the universe themselves existing under the proper forms, and the works that follow to mean some sort of distinction in bodies previously existing, as also has been shown (Q. 67, AA. 1, 4; Q. 69, A. 1). Secondly, some writers hold that plants and animals were produced actually in the work of the six days; Augustine, that they were produced potentially. Now the opinion of Augustine, that the works of the six days were simultaneous, is consistent with either view of the mode of production. For the other writers agree with him that in the first production of things matter existed under the substantial form of the elements, and agree with him also that in the first instituting of the world animals and plants did not exist actually. There remains, however, a difference as to four points; since, according to the latter, there was a time, after the production of creatures, in which light did not exist, the firmament had not been formed, and the earth was still covered by the waters, nor had the heavenly bodies been formed, which is the fourth difference; which are not consistent with Augustine's explanation. In order, therefore, to be impartial, we must meet the arguments of either side.

If we consider these two explanations as relating to the mode of production, we'll find that they don’t differ much, especially when we factor in the diversity of opinions on two points, as previously mentioned (Q. 67, A. 1; Q. 69, A. 1), between Augustine and other writers. First, Augustine views the earth and water as the first created elements, representing matter without form, while the creation of the firmament, the gathering of waters, and the appearance of dry land signify the imposition of forms on physical matter. In contrast, other holy writers see the earth and water, as initially created, representing the elements of the universe already existing in their proper forms, and the subsequent works indicate some form of distinction among bodies that were pre-existing, as previously discussed (Q. 67, AA. 1, 4; Q. 69, A. 1). Secondly, some writers believe that plants and animals were actually produced during the six days of creation; Augustine argues they were produced potentially. Augustine's idea that the works of the six days occurred simultaneously aligns with either perspective on the mode of production. Other writers agree that initially, in the first creation of things, matter existed in the substantial form of the elements and concur with Augustine that initially, animals and plants did not exist actually. However, there remains a difference on four points; according to the latter view, there was a time after the creation of creatures when light did not exist, the firmament had not yet formed, the earth was still covered by waters, and the heavenly bodies had yet to be created, which contradicts Augustine's view. Therefore, to remain impartial, we must address the arguments from both sides.

Reply Obj. 1: On the day on which God created the heaven and the earth, He created also every plant of the field, not, indeed, actually, but "before it sprung up in the earth," that is, potentially. And this work Augustine ascribes to the third day, but other writers to the first instituting of the world.

Reply Obj. 1: On the day God created the heavens and the earth, He also created every plant in the field, not in a literal sense, but "before it grew up from the earth," meaning in a potential form. Augustine attributes this work to the third day, while other writers assign it to the first establishment of the world.

Reply Obj. 2: God created all things together so far as regards their substance in some measure formless. But He did not create all things together, so far as regards that formation of things which lies in distinction and adornment. Hence the word "creation" is significant.

Reply Obj. 2: God created everything at once in terms of their basic substance, which was somewhat formless. However, He did not create everything at once regarding the specific structure and beauty of things. Therefore, the term "creation" is meaningful.

Reply Obj. 3: On the seventh day God ceased from making new things, but not from providing for their increase, and to this latter work it belongs that the first day is succeeded by other days.

Reply Obj. 3: On the seventh day, God stopped creating new things, but He didn’t stop caring for their growth. This is why the first day is followed by other days.

Reply Obj. 4: All things were not distinguished and adorned together, not from a want of power on God's part, as requiring time in which to work, but that due order might be observed in the instituting of the world. Hence it was fitting that different days should be assigned to the different states of the world, as each succeeding work added to the world a fresh state of perfection.

Reply Obj. 4: Not everything was created and arranged all at once, not because God lacked the power to do so or needed time to work, but to maintain proper order in the creation of the world. Therefore, it made sense that different days were designated for different stages of creation, as each new act of creation introduced a new level of perfection to the world.

Reply Obj. 5: According to Augustine, the order of days refers to the natural order of the works attributed to the days. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: According to Augustine, the sequence of days refers to the natural order of the work done on each day.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 74, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 74, Art. 3]

Whether Scripture Uses Suitable Words to Express the Work of the Six
Days?

Whether Scripture Uses Suitable Words to Describe the Work of the Six
Days?

Objection 1: It would seem the Scripture does not use suitable words to express the works of the six days. For as light, the firmament, and other similar works were made by the Word of God, so were the heaven and the earth. For "all things were made by Him" (John 1:3). Therefore in the creation of heaven and earth, as in the other works, mention should have been made of the Word of God.

Objection 1: It seems that Scripture doesn't use the right words to describe the works of the six days. Just as light, the sky, and other similar creations were made by the Word of God, so were heaven and earth. For "all things were made by Him" (John 1:3). Therefore, when discussing the creation of heaven and earth, the Word of God should have been mentioned, just like with the other works.

Obj. 2: Further, the water was created by God, yet its creation is not mentioned. Therefore the creation of the world is not sufficiently described.

Obj. 2: Additionally, God created the water, but its creation isn’t mentioned. So, the creation of the world isn’t described in enough detail.

Obj. 3: Further, it is said (Gen. 1:31): "God saw all the things that He had made, and they were very good." It ought, then, to have been said of each work, "God saw that it was good." The omission, therefore, of these words in the work of creation and in that of the second day, is not fitting.

Obj. 3: Additionally, it states in Genesis 1:31: "God saw all the things that He had made, and they were very good." It should have been mentioned for each creation, "God saw that it was good." Therefore, the absence of these words in the creation work, especially on the second day, is not appropriate.

Obj. 4: Further, the Spirit of God is God Himself. But it does not befit God to move and to occupy place. Therefore the words, "The Spirit of God moved over the waters," are unbecoming.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the Spirit of God is God Himself. But it isn't suitable for God to move or occupy space. Therefore, the phrase "The Spirit of God moved over the waters" is inappropriate.

Obj. 5: Further, what is already made is not made over again.
Therefore to the words, "God said: Let the firmament be made . . .
and it was so," it is superfluous to add, "God made the firmament."
And the like is to be said of other works.

Obj. 5: Additionally, what has already been created isn't recreated.
So when it says, "God said: Let the firmament be created . . .
and it happened," it's unnecessary to add, "God created the firmament."
The same applies to other creations.

Obj. 6: Further, evening and morning do not sufficiently divide the day, since the day has many parts. Therefore the words, "The evening and morning were the second day" or, "the third day," are not suitable.

Obj. 6: Also, evening and morning don’t clearly separate the day since the day has many parts. So, the phrases, "The evening and morning were the second day" or, "the third day," don’t fit well.

Obj. 7: Further, "first," not "one," corresponds to "second" and "third." It should therefore have been said that, "The evening and the morning were the first day," rather than "one day."

Obj. 7: Furthermore, "first," not "one," corresponds to "second" and "third." It should have been said that, "The evening and the morning were the first day," rather than "one day."

Reply Obj. 1: According to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. i, 4), the person of the Son is mentioned both in the first creation of the world, and in its distinction and adornment, but differently in either place. For distinction and adornment belong to the work by which the world receives its form. But as the giving form to a work of art is by means of the form of the art in the mind of the artist, which may be called his intelligible word, so the giving form to every creature is by the word of God; and for this reason in the works of distinction and adornment the Word is mentioned. But in creation the Son is mentioned as the beginning, by the words, "In the beginning God created," since by creation is understood the production of formless matter. But according to those who hold that the elements were created from the first under their proper forms, another explanation must be given; and therefore Basil says (Hom. ii, iii in Hexaem.) that the words, "God said," signify a Divine command. Such a command, however, could not have been given before creatures had been produced that could obey it.

Reply Obj. 1: According to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. i, 4), the person of the Son is mentioned both in the initial creation of the world and in its distinction and embellishment, but in different ways in each case. Distinction and embellishment pertain to the work where the world takes on its form. Just as the form of a piece of art exists in the mind of the artist and can be described as their intelligible word, the form of every creature is given by the word of God; that's why the Word is referenced in the works of distinction and embellishment. In creation, the Son is referred to as the beginning, as in the words, "In the beginning God created," because creation refers to the emergence of formless matter. However, for those who believe that the elements were created originally in their specific forms, a different explanation is needed; hence, Basil states (Hom. ii, iii in Hexaem.) that the words "God said" represent a Divine command. Nevertheless, such a command couldn’t have been given before there were creatures capable of obeying it.

Reply Obj. 2: According to Augustine (De Civ. Dei ix, 33), by the heaven is understood the formless spiritual nature, and by the earth, the formless matter of all corporeal things, and thus no creature is omitted. But, according to Basil (Hom. i in Hexaem.), the heaven and the earth, as the two extremes, are alone mentioned, the intervening things being left to be understood, since all these move heavenwards, if light, or earthwards, if heavy. And others say that under the word, "earth," Scripture is accustomed to include all the four elements as (Ps. 148:7,8) after the words, "Praise the Lord from the earth," is added, "fire, hail, snow, and ice."

Reply Obj. 2: According to Augustine (De Civ. Dei ix, 33), by "heaven" we mean the formless spiritual nature, and by "earth," the formless matter of all physical things, meaning no creature is left out. But, according to Basil (Hom. i in Hexaem.), only "heaven" and "earth" are mentioned as the two extremes, while the things in between are implied, since everything either moves upward towards heaven if it's light or downward towards earth if it's heavy. Others argue that when Scripture refers to "earth," it actually includes all four elements, as seen in (Ps. 148:7,8) where after "Praise the Lord from the earth," it continues with, "fire, hail, snow, and ice."

Reply Obj. 3: In the account of the creation there is found something to correspond to the words, "God saw that it was good," used in the work of distinction and adornment, and this appears from the consideration that the Holy Spirit is Love. Now, "there are two things," says Augustine (Gen. ad lit. i, 8) which came from God's love of His creatures, their existence and their permanence. That they might then exist, and exist permanently, "the Spirit of God," it is said, "moved over the waters"—that is to say, over that formless matter, signified by water, even as the love of the artist moves over the materials of his art, that out of them he may form his work. And the words, "God saw that it was good," signify that the things that He had made were to endure, since they express a certain satisfaction taken by God in His works, as of an artist in his art: not as though He knew the creature otherwise, or that the creature was pleasing to Him otherwise, than before He made it. Thus in either work, of creation and of formation, the Trinity of Persons is implied. In creation the Person of the Father is indicated by God the Creator, the Person of the Son by the beginning, in which He created, and the Person of the Holy Ghost by the Spirit that moved over the waters. But in the formation, the Person of the Father is indicated by God that speaks, and the Person of the Son by the Word in which He speaks, and the Person of the Holy Spirit by the satisfaction with which God saw that what was made was good. And if the words, "God saw that it was good," are not said of the work of the second day, this is because the work of distinguishing the waters was only begun on that day, but perfected on the third. Hence these words, that are said of the third day, refer also to the second. Or it may be that Scripture does not use these words of approval of the second day's work, because this is concerned with the distinction of things not evident to the senses of mankind. Or, again, because by the firmament is simply understood the cloudy region of the air, which is not one of the permanent parts of the universe, nor of the principal divisions of the world. The above three reasons are given by Rabbi Moses [*Perplex. ii.], and to these may be added a mystical one derived from numbers and assigned by some writers, according to whom the work of the second day is not marked with approval because the second number is an imperfect number, as receding from the perfection of unity.

Reply Obj. 3: In the creation account, there's something that matches the phrase, "God saw that it was good," associated with the work of distinction and embellishment. This is evident because the Holy Spirit represents Love. Augustine notes (Gen. ad lit. i, 8) that there are two things that arise from God's love for His creations: their existence and their permanence. For them to exist and last, "the Spirit of God," it states, "moved over the waters"—meaning over that formless matter symbolized by water, just like an artist's love moves over their materials to create their work. The phrase, "God saw that it was good," indicates that the things He made were meant to endure, reflecting a certain satisfaction God finds in His creations, similar to an artist with their art: not as if He perceived the creature differently or found it pleasing in another way than before it was made. Thus, in both the acts of creation and formation, the Trinity is implied. In creation, the Father is signified by God the Creator, the Son by the beginning through which He created, and the Holy Spirit by the Spirit moving over the waters. In formation, the Father is represented by God who speaks, the Son by the Word through which He speaks, and the Holy Spirit by the satisfaction with which God saw that what was made was good. If the phrase, "God saw that it was good," isn’t found regarding the work of the second day, it’s because the distinction of the waters was only started that day and completed on the third. Therefore, the words said on the third day also apply to the second. Alternatively, Scripture may not use these approving words for the second day's work because it concerns distinctions not obvious to human senses. Furthermore, the firmament is simply understood as the cloudy region of the air, which is neither a permanent part of the universe nor a primary division of the world. Rabbi Moses provides these three reasons [*Perplex. ii.], and a mystical one based on numbers is suggested by some writers, stating that the second day's work isn't marked with approval because the number two is an imperfect number, deviating from the perfection of unity.

Reply Obj. 4: Rabbi Moses (Perplex. ii) understands by the "Spirit of the Lord," the air or the wind, as Plato also did, and says that it is so called according to the custom of Scripture, in which these things are throughout attributed to God. But according to the holy writers, the Spirit of the Lord signifies the Holy Ghost, Who is said to "move over the water"—that is to say, over what Augustine holds to mean formless matter, lest it should be supposed that God loved of necessity the works He was to produce, as though He stood in need of them. For love of that kind is subject to, not superior to, the object of love. Moreover, it is fittingly implied that the Spirit moved over that which was incomplete and unfinished, since that movement is not one of place, but of pre-eminent power, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. i, 7). It is the opinion, however, of Basil (Hom. ii in Hexaem.) that the Spirit moved over the element of water, "fostering and quickening its nature and impressing vital power, as the hen broods over her chickens." For water has especially a life-giving power, since many animals are generated in water, and the seed of all animals is liquid. Also the life of the soul is given by the water of baptism, according to John 3:5: "Unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God."

Reply Obj. 4: Rabbi Moses (Perplex. ii) interprets the "Spirit of the Lord" as air or wind, similar to Plato's view, and states that it is called this way based on the style of Scripture, where such concepts are frequently attributed to God. However, according to the biblical writers, the Spirit of the Lord refers to the Holy Ghost, who is described as "moving over the water"—which Augustine interprets as formless matter—so that it’s not assumed that God was compelled to create because He needed the works He would produce. That kind of love depends on the object of love rather than being superior to it. Additionally, it’s appropriately suggested that the Spirit moved over something that was incomplete and unfinished, as this movement represents not a physical motion but an extraordinary power, as Augustine explains (Gen. ad lit. i, 7). Basil (Hom. ii in Hexaem.) argues that the Spirit moved over the element of water, "nurturing and energizing its nature and instilling life force, like a hen brooding over her chicks." Water, in particular, has a life-giving quality, as many creatures are born in water, and all animal seeds are liquid. Furthermore, spiritual life is granted through the water of baptism, as stated in John 3:5: "Unless a man is born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter the kingdom of God."

Reply Obj. 5: According to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. i, 8), these three phrases denote the threefold being of creatures; first, their being in the Word, denoted by the command "Let . . . be made"; secondly, their being in the angelic mind, signified by the words, "It was . . . done"; thirdly, their being in their proper nature, by the words, "He made." And because the formation of the angels is recorded on the first day, it was not necessary there to add, "He made." It may also be said, following other writers, that the words, "He said," and "Let . . . be made," denote God's command, and the words, "It was done," the fulfilment of that command. But as it was necessary, for the sake of those especially who have asserted that all visible things were made by the angels, to mention how things were made, it is added, in order to remove that error, that God Himself made them. Hence, in each work, after the words, "It was done," some act of God is expressed by some such words as, "He made," or, "He divided," or, "He called."

Reply Obj. 5: According to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. i, 8), these three phrases represent the threefold existence of creatures: first, their existence in the Word, indicated by the command "Let . . . be made"; second, their existence in the angelic mind, signified by the words, "It was . . . done"; and third, their existence in their true nature, by the words, "He made." Since the creation of the angels is mentioned on the first day, it wasn't necessary to add "He made" there. It can also be noted, following other writers, that the phrases "He said" and "Let . . . be made" represent God's command, while "It was done" refers to the fulfillment of that command. However, it was important, especially for those who have claimed that all visible things were created by the angels, to clarify how things were made; hence, it is emphasized that God Himself created them. Therefore, in each act, after the phrase "It was done," some action of God is expressed by terms such as "He made," "He divided," or "He called."

Reply Obj. 6: According to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 22, 30), by the "evening" and the "morning" are understood the evening and the morning knowledge of the angels, which has been explained (Q. 58, A. 6, 7). But, according to Basil (Hom. ii in Hexaem.), the entire period takes its name, as is customary, from its more important part, the day. An instance of this is found in the words of Jacob, "The days of my pilgrimage," where night is not mentioned at all. But the evening and the morning are mentioned as being the ends of the day, since day begins with morning and ends with evening, or because evening denotes the beginning of night, and morning the beginning of day. It seems fitting, also, that where the first distinction of creatures is described, divisions of time should be denoted only by what marks their beginning. And the reason for mentioning the evening first is that as the evening ends the day, which begins with the light, the termination of the light at evening precedes the termination of the darkness, which ends with the morning. But Chrysostom's explanation is that thereby it is intended to show that the natural day does not end with the evening, but with the morning (Hom. v in Gen.).

Reply Obj. 6: According to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 22, 30), the "evening" and "morning" refer to the evening and morning knowledge of the angels, which has been explained (Q. 58, A. 6, 7). However, Basil (Hom. ii in Hexaem.) states that the entire period is named, as is customary, after its most significant part, the day. An example of this is found in the words of Jacob, "The days of my pilgrimage," where night isn’t mentioned at all. The evening and morning are noted as the ends of the day, since the day starts with the morning and ends with the evening, or because evening marks the start of the night, and morning marks the start of the day. It seems appropriate that when the initial distinctions of creatures are described, divisions of time should be indicated only by what signifies their beginning. The reason for mentioning the evening first is because, as the evening concludes the day that begins with light, the end of light in the evening comes before the end of darkness, which concludes with the morning. Yet, Chrysostom explains that this suggests that the natural day does not end with the evening, but rather with the morning (Hom. v in Gen.).

Reply Obj. 7: The words "one day" are used when day is first instituted, to denote that one day is made up of twenty-four hours. Hence, by mentioning "one," the measure of a natural day is fixed. Another reason may be to signify that a day is completed by the return of the sun to the point from which it commenced its course. And yet another, because at the completion of a week of seven days, the first day returns which is one with the eighth day. The three reasons assigned above are those given by Basil (Hom. ii in Hexaem.). _______________________

Reply Obj. 7: The phrase "one day" is used when day is first established to indicate that one day consists of twenty-four hours. Therefore, by mentioning "one," the length of a natural day is defined. Another reason could be to show that a day is finished when the sun returns to the point where it started its path. Yet another reason is that after completing a week of seven days, the first day recurs, which is the same as the eighth day. The three reasons mentioned above are those provided by Basil (Hom. ii in Hexaem.).

TREATISE ON MAN (QQ. 75-102) _______________________

TREATISE ON MAN (QQ. 75-102) _______________________

QUESTION 75

OF MAN WHO IS COMPOSED OF A SPIRITUAL AND A CORPOREAL SUBSTANCE: AND
IN THE FIRST PLACE, CONCERNING WHAT BELONGS TO THE ESSENCE OF THE SOUL
(In Seven Articles)

OF MAN WHO IS MADE UP OF BOTH A SPIRITUAL AND A PHYSICAL SUBSTANCE: AND
FIRSTLY, ABOUT WHAT PERTAINS TO THE ESSENCE OF THE SOUL
(In Seven Articles)

Having treated of the spiritual and of the corporeal creature, we now proceed to treat of man, who is composed of a spiritual and corporeal substance. We shall treat first of the nature of man, and secondly of his origin. Now the theologian considers the nature of man in relation to the soul; but not in relation to the body, except in so far as the body has relation to the soul. Hence the first object of our consideration will be the soul. And since Dionysius (Ang. Hier. xi) says that three things are to be found in spiritual substances—essence, power, and operation—we shall treat first of what belongs to the essence of the soul; secondly, of what belongs to its power; thirdly, of what belongs to its operation.

Having discussed the spiritual and physical being, we now move on to talk about humans, who are made of both spiritual and physical substances. We'll first look at the nature of humans, and then at their origin. The theologian examines human nature in relation to the soul but not in relation to the body, except in how the body connects to the soul. Therefore, our initial focus will be the soul. Since Dionysius (Ang. Hier. xi) states that there are three aspects to spiritual substances—essence, power, and operation—we will first discuss what pertains to the essence of the soul, then what relates to its power, and finally what has to do with its operation.

Concerning the first, two points have to be considered; the first is the nature of the soul considered in itself; the second is the union of the soul with the body. Under the first head there are seven points of inquiry.

Concerning the first, two points need to be considered; the first is the nature of the soul on its own; the second is the relationship between the soul and the body. Under the first point, there are seven areas of inquiry.

(1) Whether the soul is a body?

(1) Is the soul a body?

(2) Whether the human soul is a subsistence?

(2) Is the human soul a subsistence?

(3) Whether the souls of brute animals are subsistent?

(3) Do brute animals have souls that exist independently?

(4) Whether the soul is man, or is man composed of soul and body?

(4) Is the soul the same as a person, or is a person made up of both a soul and a body?

(5) Whether the soul is composed of matter and form?

(5) Is the soul made up of matter and form?

(6) Whether the soul is incorruptible?

Is the soul immortal?

(7) Whether the soul is of the same species as an angel? _______________________

(7) Is the soul the same kind as an angel? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 1]

Whether the Soul Is a Body?

Whether the Soul Is a Body?

Objection 1: It would seem that the soul is a body. For the soul is the moving principle of the body. Nor does it move unless moved. First, because seemingly nothing can move unless it is itself moved, since nothing gives what it has not; for instance, what is not hot does not give heat. Secondly, because if there be anything that moves and is not moved, it must be the cause of eternal, unchanging movement, as we find proved Phys. viii, 6; and this does not appear to be the case in the movement of an animal, which is caused by the soul. Therefore the soul is a mover moved. But every mover moved is a body. Therefore the soul is a body.

Objection 1: It seems that the soul is a body. The soul is the active principle of the body, and it doesn't move unless it's moved. First, because nothing can move unless it itself is moved, since nothing can give what it doesn't have; for example, something that isn’t hot can’t give off heat. Secondly, if there is something that moves and isn’t moved, it must be the source of eternal, unchanging movement, as demonstrated in Physics VIII, 6; and this doesn’t seem to be true for the movement of an animal, which is caused by the soul. Therefore, the soul is a mover that is moved. But every mover that is moved is a body. Thus, the soul is a body.

Obj. 2: Further, all knowledge is caused by means of a likeness. But there can be no likeness of a body to an incorporeal thing. If, therefore, the soul were not a body, it could not have knowledge of corporeal things.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, all knowledge comes from a resemblance. But a body cannot resemble something that has no physical form. Therefore, if the soul isn’t a body, it wouldn’t be able to have knowledge of physical things.

Obj. 3: Further, between the mover and the moved there must be contact. But contact is only between bodies. Since, therefore, the soul moves the body, it seems that the soul must be a body.

Obj. 3: Additionally, there must be contact between the mover and the moved. However, contact only occurs between physical bodies. Therefore, since the soul moves the body, it appears that the soul must be a physical body.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 6) that the soul "is simple in comparison with the body, inasmuch as it does not occupy space by its bulk."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 6) that the soul "is simple compared to the body, as it doesn't take up space with its mass."

I answer that, To seek the nature of the soul, we must premise that the soul is defined as the first principle of life of those things which live: for we call living things "animate," [*i.e. having a soul] and those things which have no life, "inanimate." Now life is shown principally by two actions, knowledge and movement. The philosophers of old, not being able to rise above their imagination, supposed that the principle of these actions was something corporeal: for they asserted that only bodies were real things; and that what is not corporeal is nothing: hence they maintained that the soul is something corporeal. This opinion can be proved to be false in many ways; but we shall make use of only one proof, based on universal and certain principles, which shows clearly that the soul is not a body.

I respond that, To explore the nature of the soul, we must start by defining it as the fundamental principle of life for living beings: we refer to living things as "animate," [*i.e. having a soul] and those that are lifeless as "inanimate." Life is primarily demonstrated through two actions, knowledge and movement. Ancient philosophers, unable to look beyond their imagination, believed that the source of these actions was something physical: they claimed that only bodies were real and that anything non-physical was nothing; thus, they argued that the soul is something physical. This belief can be proven false in many ways, but we will use just one argument, based on universal and certain principles, which clearly shows that the soul is not a body.

It is manifest that not every principle of vital action is a soul, for then the eye would be a soul, as it is a principle of vision; and the same might be applied to the other instruments of the soul: but it is the first principle of life, which we call the soul. Now, though a body may be a principle of life, as the heart is a principle of life in an animal, yet nothing corporeal can be the first principle of life. For it is clear that to be a principle of life, or to be a living thing, does not belong to a body as such; since, if that were the case, every body would be a living thing, or a principle of life. Therefore a body is competent to be a living thing or even a principle of life, as "such" a body. Now that it is actually such a body, it owes to some principle which is called its act. Therefore the soul, which is the first principle of life, is not a body, but the act of a body; thus heat, which is the principle of calefaction, is not a body, but an act of a body.

It’s clear that not every principle of vital action is a soul, because if that were true, the eye would be a soul since it’s a principle of vision. The same reasoning applies to the other organs of the soul. Rather, it’s the first principle of life that we call the soul. While a body can be a principle of life, like the heart is for an animal, no physical entity can be the first principle of life. This is evident because being a principle of life or a living thing doesn’t inherently belong to a body; if it did, every body would be a living thing or a principle of life. Therefore, a body can be a living thing or even a principle of life, as long as it is recognized as "such" a body. Since it is indeed such a body, it derives this from a principle known as its act. Consequently, the soul, which is the first principle of life, is not a body but the act of a body; similarly, heat, which is the principle of warming, is not a body but an act of a body.

Reply Obj. 1: As everything which is in motion must be moved by something else, a process which cannot be prolonged indefinitely, we must allow that not every mover is moved. For, since to be moved is to pass from potentiality to actuality, the mover gives what it has to the thing moved, inasmuch as it causes it to be in act. But, as is shown in Phys. viii, 6, there is a mover which is altogether immovable, and not moved either essentially, or accidentally; and such a mover can cause an invariable movement. There is, however, another kind of mover, which, though not moved essentially, is moved accidentally; and for this reason it does not cause an invariable movement; such a mover, is the soul. There is, again, another mover, which is moved essentially—namely, the body. And because the philosophers of old believed that nothing existed but bodies, they maintained that every mover is moved; and that the soul is moved directly, and is a body.

Reply Obj. 1: Since everything that’s in motion has to be moved by something else, a process that can’t go on forever, we have to recognize that not every mover is moved. To be moved means to transition from potential to actual, so the mover imparts its action to the thing being moved, causing it to be in action. However, as demonstrated in Phys. viii, 6, there is a mover that is completely immovable and not moved either in essence or incidentally; this type of mover can initiate a constant movement. There is, however, another type of mover that, while not moved in essence, is incidentally moved, and for this reason, it doesn’t cause a constant movement; this type of mover is the soul. There is also another mover that is moved in essence—namely, the body. Because the ancient philosophers believed that only bodies existed, they argued that every mover is moved and that the soul is moved directly and is a body.

Reply Obj. 2: The likeness of a thing known is not of necessity actually in the nature of the knower; but given a thing which knows potentially, and afterwards knows actually, the likeness of the thing known must be in the nature of the knower, not actually, but only potentially; thus color is not actually in the pupil of the eye, but only potentially. Hence it is necessary, not that the likeness of corporeal things should be actually in the nature of the soul, but that there be a potentiality in the soul for such a likeness. But the ancient philosophers omitted to distinguish between actuality and potentiality; and so they held that the soul must be a body in order to have knowledge of a body; and that it must be composed of the principles of which all bodies are formed in order to know all bodies.

Reply Obj. 2: The likeness of something known doesn’t have to actually exist in the nature of the knower; however, when something has the potential to know and then actually knows, the likeness of the known thing must be present in the knower’s nature—not actually, but only potentially. For example, color isn’t actually in the pupil of the eye, but only potentially. Therefore, it’s not necessary for the likeness of physical things to actually exist in the nature of the soul; what’s needed is for the soul to have the potential to reflect that likeness. However, the ancient philosophers failed to distinguish between actuality and potentiality, leading them to believe that the soul must be a body to have knowledge of a body, and that it must be made up of the same elements that all bodies are made of in order to know all bodies.

Reply Obj. 3: There are two kinds of contact; of "quantity," and of "power." By the former a body can be touched only by a body; by the latter a body can be touched by an incorporeal thing, which moves that body. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: There are two types of contact: "quantity" and "power." With the first type, a physical body can only be touched by another physical body; with the second type, a physical body can be influenced by something non-physical, which affects that body.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 2]

Whether the Human Soul Is Something Subsistent?

Whether the Human Soul Is Something That Exists Independently?

Objection 1: It would seem that the human soul is not something subsistent. For that which subsists is said to be "this particular thing." Now "this particular thing" is said not of the soul, but of that which is composed of soul and body. Therefore the soul is not something subsistent.

Objection 1: It seems that the human soul isn't something that exists on its own. What exists independently is referred to as "this particular thing." Now, "this particular thing" isn't used to describe the soul, but rather something made up of both soul and body. So, the soul isn't something that exists independently.

Obj. 2: Further, everything subsistent operates. But the soul does not operate; for, as the Philosopher says (De Anima i, 4), "to say that the soul feels or understands is like saying that the soul weaves or builds." Therefore the soul is not subsistent.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, everything that exists is active. But the soul does not act; because, as the Philosopher says (De Anima i, 4), "to say that the soul feels or understands is like saying that the soul weaves or builds." Therefore, the soul does not exist independently.

Obj. 3: Further, if the soul were subsistent, it would have some operation apart from the body. But it has no operation apart from the body, not even that of understanding: for the act of understanding does not take place without a phantasm, which cannot exist apart from the body. Therefore the human soul is not something subsistent.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if the soul existed independently, it would be able to perform some actions without the body. However, it does not perform any actions without the body, not even understanding: because understanding cannot occur without a mental image, which cannot exist separately from the body. Therefore, the human soul is not an independent entity.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. x, 7): "Who understands that the nature of the soul is that of a substance and not that of a body, will see that those who maintain the corporeal nature of the soul, are led astray through associating with the soul those things without which they are unable to think of any nature—i.e. imaginary pictures of corporeal things." Therefore the nature of the human intellect is not only incorporeal, but it is also a substance, that is, something subsistent.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. x, 7): "Anyone who understands that the soul is a substance and not a body will realize that those who argue for the physical nature of the soul are mistaken because they connect the soul with things that they cannot conceive of without—namely, mental images of physical objects." Therefore, the nature of the human intellect is not only non-physical, but it is also a substance, meaning it exists independently.

I answer that, It must necessarily be allowed that the principle of intellectual operation which we call the soul, is a principle both incorporeal and subsistent. For it is clear that by means of the intellect man can have knowledge of all corporeal things. Now whatever knows certain things cannot have any of them in its own nature; because that which is in it naturally would impede the knowledge of anything else. Thus we observe that a sick man's tongue being vitiated by a feverish and bitter humor, is insensible to anything sweet, and everything seems bitter to it. Therefore, if the intellectual principle contained the nature of a body it would be unable to know all bodies. Now every body has its own determinate nature. Therefore it is impossible for the intellectual principle to be a body. It is likewise impossible for it to understand by means of a bodily organ; since the determinate nature of that organ would impede knowledge of all bodies; as when a certain determinate color is not only in the pupil of the eye, but also in a glass vase, the liquid in the vase seems to be of that same color.

I answer that, it must be accepted that the principle of intellectual activity we refer to as the soul is both immaterial and independent. It's evident that through the intellect, humans can understand all physical things. Anything that knows certain things cannot have any of them inherently, because what is internally present would interfere with the knowledge of other things. For example, we see that when a sick person has a tongue affected by a feverish and bitter substance, it cannot perceive anything sweet, and everything tastes bitter to it. Therefore, if the intellectual principle included the nature of a physical body, it wouldn't be able to comprehend all bodies. Each body has its own specific nature. Hence, it's impossible for the intellectual principle to be a physical body. Additionally, it's also impossible for it to understand through a physical organ, since the specific nature of that organ would obstruct knowledge of all bodies; just as when a particular color is present not only in the pupil of the eye but also in a glass vase, the liquid in the vase appears to be that same color.

Therefore the intellectual principle which we call the mind or the intellect has an operation per se apart from the body. Now only that which subsists can have an operation per se. For nothing can operate but what is actual: for which reason we do not say that heat imparts heat, but that what is hot gives heat. We must conclude, therefore, that the human soul, which is called the intellect or the mind, is something incorporeal and subsistent.

Therefore, the intellectual aspect that we refer to as the mind or intellect functions per se independently from the body. Only something that exists can have an operation per se. Nothing can act unless it is real; that’s why we say that something hot gives off heat, rather than saying heat itself imparts heat. We can thus conclude that the human soul, which is known as the intellect or mind, is something non-physical and exists on its own.

Reply Obj. 1: "This particular thing" can be taken in two senses. Firstly, for anything subsistent; secondly, for that which subsists, and is complete in a specific nature. The former sense excludes the inherence of an accident or of a material form; the latter excludes also the imperfection of the part, so that a hand can be called "this particular thing" in the first sense, but not in the second. Therefore, as the human soul is a part of human nature, it can indeed be called "this particular thing," in the first sense, as being something subsistent; but not in the second, for in this sense, what is composed of body and soul is said to be "this particular thing."

Reply Obj. 1: "This specific thing" can mean two different things. First, it can refer to anything that exists; second, it can refer to something that exists and is complete in a particular nature. The first meaning excludes the presence of an accident or a physical form; the second meaning also excludes any imperfection of the part, so a hand can be referred to as "this specific thing" in the first sense, but not in the second. Therefore, since the human soul is a part of human nature, it can indeed be called "this specific thing" in the first sense, as it is something that exists; but not in the second sense, as in this meaning, what is composed of body and soul is called "this specific thing."

Reply Obj. 2: Aristotle wrote those words as expressing not his own opinion, but the opinion of those who said that to understand is to be moved, as is clear from the context. Or we may reply that to operate per se belongs to what exists per se. But for a thing to exist per se, it suffices sometimes that it be not inherent, as an accident or a material form; even though it be part of something. Nevertheless, that is rightly said to subsist per se, which is neither inherent in the above sense, nor part of anything else. In this sense, the eye or the hand cannot be said to subsist per se; nor can it for that reason be said to operate per se. Hence the operation of the parts is through each part attributed to the whole. For we say that man sees with the eye, and feels with the hand, and not in the same sense as when we say that what is hot gives heat by its heat; for heat, strictly speaking, does not give heat. We may therefore say that the soul understands, as the eye sees; but it is more correct to say that man understands through the soul.

Reply Obj. 2: Aristotle wrote those words not to express his own belief, but to reflect the views of those who argued that understanding involves being moved, as is clear from the context. Alternatively, we can say that to operate per se pertains to what exists per se. However, for something to exist per se, it doesn’t always need to be inherent, like an accident or a material form; it can still be a part of something. Nonetheless, what is correctly said to exist per se is something that is neither inherent in that way nor a part of something else. Therefore, the eye or the hand cannot be said to exist per se; they also cannot be said to operate per se. Thus, the functioning of the parts is attributed to the whole through each part. We say that a person sees with the eye and feels with the hand, but not in the same way we say that something hot gives off heat; because heat, strictly speaking, does not give heat. Therefore, we can say that the soul understands, just like the eye sees; but it is more accurate to say that a person understands through the soul.

Reply Obj. 3: The body is necessary for the action of the intellect, not as its origin of action, but on the part of the object; for the phantasm is to the intellect what color is to the sight. Neither does such a dependence on the body prove the intellect to be non-subsistent; otherwise it would follow that an animal is non-subsistent, since it requires external objects of the senses in order to perform its act of perception. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The body is essential for the functioning of the intellect, not as the source of its action, but in relation to the object; because the phantasm is to the intellect what color is to sight. This dependence on the body doesn’t prove that the intellect isn't self-sufficient; otherwise, it would imply that an animal isn’t self-sufficient, since it needs external sensory objects to carry out its act of perception.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 3]

Whether the Souls of Brute Animals Are Subsistent?

Whether the souls of animals are independent?

Objection 1: It would seem that the souls of brute animals are subsistent. For man is of the same genus as other animals; and, as we have just shown (A. 2), the soul of man is subsistent. Therefore the souls of other animals are subsistent.

Objection 1: It seems that the souls of non-human animals exist independently. Since humans belong to the same group as other animals, and as we have just shown (A. 2), the soul of a human is independent. Therefore, the souls of other animals must also be independent.

Obj. 2: Further, the relation of the sensitive faculty to sensible objects is like the relation of the intellectual faculty to intelligible objects. But the intellect, apart from the body, apprehends intelligible objects. Therefore the sensitive faculty, apart from the body, perceives sensible objects. Therefore, since the souls of brute animals are sensitive, it follows that they are subsistent; just as the human intellectual soul is subsistent.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the relationship of the sensory faculty to physical objects is similar to the relationship of the intellectual faculty to abstract objects. However, the intellect can understand abstract objects without the body. Therefore, the sensory faculty can perceive physical objects independently of the body. Since the souls of animals are sensitive, it follows that they exist independently, just like the human intellectual soul does.

Obj. 3: Further, the soul of brute animals moves the body. But the body is not a mover, but is moved. Therefore the soul of brute animals has an operation apart from the body.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the soul of non-human animals animates the body. However, the body does not initiate movement; it is moved instead. Therefore, the soul of non-human animals has a function that exists independently from the body.

On the contrary, Is what is written in the book De Eccl. Dogm. xvi, xvii: "Man alone we believe to have a subsistent soul: whereas the souls of animals are not subsistent."

On the contrary, is what is written in the book De Eccl. Dogm. xvi, xvii: "We believe that only humans have a subsistent soul, while the souls of animals do not."

I answer that, The ancient philosophers made no distinction between sense and intellect, and referred both to a corporeal principle, as has been said (A. 1). Plato, however, drew a distinction between intellect and sense; yet he referred both to an incorporeal principle, maintaining that sensing, just as understanding, belongs to the soul as such. From this it follows that even the souls of brute animals are subsistent. But Aristotle held that of the operations of the soul, understanding alone is performed without a corporeal organ. On the other hand, sensation and the consequent operations of the sensitive soul are evidently accompanied with change in the body; thus in the act of vision, the pupil of the eye is affected by a reflection of color: and so with the other senses. Hence it is clear that the sensitive soul has no per se operation of its own, and that every operation of the sensitive soul belongs to the composite. Wherefore we conclude that as the souls of brute animals have no per se operations they are not subsistent. For the operation of anything follows the mode of its being.

I answer that, The ancient philosophers didn't differentiate between sense and intellect, viewing both as tied to a physical principle, as mentioned (A. 1). Plato, however, distinguished between intellect and sense; yet he attributed both to a non-physical principle, asserting that both sensing and understanding belong to the soul itself. This suggests that even the souls of non-human animals exist independently. But Aristotle argued that among the soul's activities, only understanding happens without a physical organ. In contrast, sensation and the resulting activities of the sensitive soul are clearly accompanied by changes in the body; for instance, during vision, the pupil of the eye reacts to a reflection of color, and the same applies to the other senses. Therefore, it is evident that the sensitive soul lacks any per se operation of its own, implying that all operations of the sensitive soul are tied to the composite. Thus, we conclude that since the souls of non-human animals have no per se operations, they do not exist independently. The operations of anything correspond to the way it exists.

Reply Obj. 1: Although man is of the same genus as other animals, he is of a different species. Specific difference is derived from the difference of form; nor does every difference of form necessarily imply a diversity of genus.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though humans belong to the same category as other animals, they are a different species. The specific difference comes from variations in form; furthermore, not every variation in form means there is a difference in category.

Reply Obj. 2: The relation of the sensitive faculty to the sensible object is in one way the same as that of the intellectual faculty to the intelligible object, in so far as each is in potentiality to its object. But in another way their relations differ, inasmuch as the impression of the object on the sense is accompanied with change in the body; so that excessive strength of the sensible corrupts sense; a thing that never occurs in the case of the intellect. For an intellect that understands the highest of intelligible objects is more able afterwards to understand those that are lower. If, however, in the process of intellectual operation the body is weary, this result is accidental, inasmuch as the intellect requires the operation of the sensitive powers in the production of the phantasms.

Reply Obj. 2: The relationship between the senses and the objects we perceive is somewhat similar to that of the intellect and the concepts we understand, in that both are potentially related to their respective objects. However, their relationships also differ because when an object interacts with the senses, it causes a change in the body; too much of a strong impression can overwhelm the senses, which isn’t something that happens with the intellect. In fact, when the intellect grasps the most complex concepts, it becomes better equipped to understand simpler ones later. If the body feels tired during intellectual activities, that’s just a secondary effect, as the intellect relies on the senses to create images in the mind.

Reply Obj. 3: Motive power is of two kinds. One, the appetitive power, commands motion. The operation of this power in the sensitive soul is not apart from the body; for anger, joy, and passions of a like nature are accompanied by a change in the body. The other motive power is that which executes motion in adapting the members for obeying the appetite; and the act of this power does not consist in moving, but in being moved. Whence it is clear that to move is not an act of the sensitive soul without the body. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: There are two types of motive power. The first is the appetitive power, which drives movement. The function of this power in the sensitive soul is connected to the body because emotions like anger, joy, and similar feelings come with physical changes. The second type of motive power is what actually carries out the movement by preparing the body to respond to the appetite; the action of this power isn’t about moving itself, but rather about being moved. Therefore, it’s clear that movement is not an action of the sensitive soul without the body.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 4]

Whether the Soul Is Man?

Is the Soul Man?

Objection 1: It would seem that the soul is man. For it is written (2
Cor. 4:16): "Though our outward man is corrupted, yet the inward man
is renewed day by day." But that which is within man is the soul.
Therefore the soul is the inward man.

Objection 1: It seems that the soul is man. For it is written (2
Cor. 4:16): "Though our outward self is wasting away, our inner self
is being renewed day by day." But what is within a person is the soul.
Therefore, the soul is the inner self.

Obj. 2: Further, the human soul is a substance. But it is not a universal substance. Therefore it is a particular substance. Therefore it is a "hypostasis" or a person; and it can only be a human person. Therefore the soul is man; for a human person is a man.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the human soul is a substance. However, it is not a universal substance. Thus, it is a particular substance. Therefore, it is a "hypostasis" or a person; and it can only be a human person. Consequently, the soul is man; because a human person is a man.

On the contrary, Augustine (De Civ. Dei xix, 3) commends Varro as holding "that man is not a mere soul, nor a mere body; but both soul and body."

On the contrary, Augustine (De Civ. Dei xix, 3) praises Varro for stating "that man is not just a soul or just a body; but both soul and body."

I answer that, The assertion "the soul is man," can be taken in two senses. First, that man is a soul; though this particular man, Socrates, for instance, is not a soul, but composed of soul and body. I say this, forasmuch as some held that the form alone belongs to the species; while matter is part of the individual, and not the species. This cannot be true; for to the nature of the species belongs what the definition signifies; and in natural things the definition does not signify the form only, but the form and the matter. Hence in natural things the matter is part of the species; not, indeed, signate matter, which is the principle of individuality; but the common matter. For as it belongs to the notion of this particular man to be composed of this soul, of this flesh, and of these bones; so it belongs to the notion of man to be composed of soul, flesh, and bones; for whatever belongs in common to the substance of all the individuals contained under a given species, must belong to the substance of the species.

I answer that, the statement "the soul is man" can be understood in two ways. First, it can mean that man is a soul; however, this specific man, like Socrates, is not just a soul, but made up of both soul and body. I say this because some people believed that only the form is related to the species, while matter is part of the individual and not the species itself. This isn't correct; the essence of the species includes what the definition indicates, and in living things, the definition refers to both form and matter. Therefore, in living things, matter is part of the species; not the specific matter that determines individuality, but general matter. Just as it is inherent to this particular man to be made of this soul, this flesh, and these bones, it is inherent to the concept of man to be made of soul, flesh, and bones; because anything that is common to the substance of all individuals within a given species must also be part of the substance of that species.

It may also be understood in this sense, that this soul is this man; and this could be held if it were supposed that the operation of the sensitive soul were proper to it, apart from the body; because in that case all the operations which are attributed to man would belong to the soul only; and whatever performs the operations proper to a thing, is that thing; wherefore that which performs the operations of a man is man. But it has been shown above (A. 3) that sensation is not the operation of the soul only. Since, then, sensation is an operation of man, but not proper to him, it is clear that man is not a soul only, but something composed of soul and body. Plato, through supposing that sensation was proper to the soul, could maintain man to be a soul making use of the body.

It can also be understood this way: the soul is the man; this could be true if we assume that the sensitive soul operates independently of the body. In that case, all actions attributed to humans would belong solely to the soul; and whatever carries out the actions of a thing is that thing. Therefore, whatever performs the actions of a person is that person. However, it has been shown above (A. 3) that sensation is not just the soul's action. So, since sensation is an action of man but not exclusive to him, it’s clear that a person is not just a soul but something made up of both soul and body. Plato, by assuming that sensation belonged solely to the soul, could argue that man is a soul using the body.

Reply Obj. 1: According to the Philosopher (Ethic. ix, 8), a thing seems to be chiefly what is princip[al] in it; thus what the governor of a state does, the state is said to do. In this way sometimes what is princip[al] in man is said to be man; sometimes, indeed, the intellectual part which, in accordance with truth, is called the "inward" man; and sometimes the sensitive part with the body is called man in the opinion of those whose observation does not go beyond the senses. And this is called the "outward" man.

Reply Obj. 1: According to the Philosopher (Ethic. ix, 8), a thing is primarily defined by what is most essential to it; therefore, what the leader of a state does is seen as what the state does. Similarly, sometimes what is essential in a person is referred to as that person; at times, it’s the intellectual aspect, which, in line with the truth, is referred to as the "inner" man; and at other times, it’s the sensory aspect combined with the body that is called man by those whose understanding is limited to what they can perceive through their senses. This is referred to as the "outer" man.

Reply Obj. 2: Not every particular substance is a hypostasis or a person, but that which has the complete nature of its species. Hence a hand, or a foot, is not called a hypostasis, or a person; nor, likewise, is the soul alone so called, since it is a part of the human species. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Not every specific substance is a hypostasis or a person, but only that which possesses the full nature of its kind. Therefore, a hand or a foot isn’t referred to as a hypostasis or a person; similarly, the soul alone isn’t classified as such since it is a part of the human species.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 5]

Whether the Soul Is Composed of Matter and Form?

Whether the Soul Is Made Up of Matter and Form?

Objection 1: It would seem that the soul is composed of matter and form. For potentiality is opposed to actuality. Now, whatsoever things are in actuality participate of the First Act, which is God; by participation of Whom, all things are good, are beings, and are living things, as is clear from the teaching of Dionysius (Div. Nom. v). Therefore whatsoever things are in potentiality participate of the first potentiality. But the first potentiality is primary matter. Therefore, since the human soul is, after a manner, in potentiality; which appears from the fact that sometimes a man is potentially understanding; it seems that the human soul must participate of primary matter, as part of itself.

Objection 1: It seems that the soul is made up of matter and form. Potentiality is the opposite of actuality. Now, everything that exists in actuality participates in the First Act, which is God; and through that participation, all things are good, exist, and are living beings, as clearly explained by Dionysius (Div. Nom. v). Therefore, everything that has potentiality must participate in the first potentiality. But the first potentiality is primary matter. Since the human soul is, in some way, in potentiality—evident from the fact that sometimes a person is potentially understanding—it seems that the human soul must involve primary matter as part of itself.

Obj. 2: Further, wherever the properties of matter are found, there matter is. But the properties of matter are found in the soul—namely, to be a subject, and to be changed, for it is a subject to science, and virtue; and it changes from ignorance to knowledge and from vice to virtue. Therefore matter is in the soul.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, wherever the characteristics of matter exist, there matter is present. The characteristics of matter are found in the soul—specifically, to be a subject and to undergo change, as it is a subject to science and virtue; it transitions from ignorance to knowledge and from vice to virtue. Thus, matter exists in the soul.

Obj. 3: Further, things which have no matter, have no cause of their existence, as the Philosopher says Metaph. viii (Did. vii, 6). But the soul has a cause of its existence, since it is created by God. Therefore the soul has matter.

Obj. 3: Additionally, things that lack substance have no reason for their existence, as the Philosopher states in Metaph. viii (Did. vii, 6). However, the soul has a reason for its existence, since it is created by God. Therefore, the soul possesses substance.

Obj. 4: Further, what has no matter, and is a form only, is a pure act, and is infinite. But this belongs to God alone. Therefore the soul has matter.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, what has no substance and is only form is a pure act and is infinite. But this belongs to God alone. Therefore, the soul has substance.

On the contrary, Augustine (Gen. ad lit. vii, 7,8,9) proves that the soul was made neither of corporeal matter, nor of spiritual matter.

On the contrary, Augustine (Gen. ad lit. vii, 7,8,9) demonstrates that the soul was created from neither physical matter nor spiritual matter.

I answer that, The soul has no matter. We may consider this question in two ways. First, from the notion of a soul in general; for it belongs to the notion of a soul to be the form of a body. Now, either it is a form by virtue of itself, in its entirety, or by virtue of some part of itself. If by virtue of itself in its entirety, then it is impossible that any part of it should be matter, if by matter we understand something purely potential: for a form, as such, is an act; and that which is purely potentiality cannot be part of an act, since potentiality is repugnant to actuality as being opposite thereto. If, however, it be a form by virtue of a part of itself, then we call that part the soul: and that matter, which it actualizes first, we call the "primary animate."

I answer that, The soul has no physical substance. We can look at this question in two ways. First, from the general idea of a soul; it is essential for a soul to be the form of a body. Now, either it is a form by its very nature, entirely, or it's a form because of some part of itself. If it’s a form by its very nature, then it's impossible for any part of it to be physical substance, if by physical substance we mean something that is purely potential: because a form, by its nature, is an act; and anything that is purely potential cannot be part of an act, since potentiality contradicts actuality as they are opposites. However, if it is a form because of a part of itself, then we refer to that part as the soul; and the physical substance that it first actualizes we call the "primary animate."

Secondly, we may proceed from the specific notion of the human soul inasmuch as it is intellectual. For it is clear that whatever is received into something is received according to the condition of the recipient. Now a thing is known in as far as its form is in the knower. But the intellectual soul knows a thing in its nature absolutely: for instance, it knows a stone absolutely as a stone; and therefore the form of a stone absolutely, as to its proper formal idea, is in the intellectual soul. Therefore the intellectual soul itself is an absolute form, and not something composed of matter and form. For if the intellectual soul were composed of matter and form, the forms of things would be received into it as individuals, and so it would only know the individual: just as it happens with the sensitive powers which receive forms in a corporeal organ; since matter is the principle by which forms are individualized. It follows, therefore, that the intellectual soul, and every intellectual substance which has knowledge of forms absolutely, is exempt from composition of matter and form.

Secondly, we can move on from the specific idea of the human soul as an intellectual entity. It's clear that whatever is absorbed into something is taken in according to the nature of the receiver. A thing is understood to the extent that its form exists in the one who knows. The intellectual soul comprehends a thing in its true nature: for example, it recognizes a stone purely as a stone; therefore, the essence of a stone, in terms of its true formal idea, exists within the intellectual soul. Consequently, the intellectual soul itself is a pure form, not something made up of matter and form. If the intellectual soul were made up of matter and form, it would only receive forms in their individual state, thereby only recognizing the individual: this is similar to how our senses receive forms through a physical organ, since matter is what allows forms to become individual. Therefore, it's evident that the intellectual soul, along with any intellectual being that understands forms in their purest sense, is free from the combination of matter and form.

Reply Obj. 1: The First Act is the universal principle of all acts; because It is infinite, virtually "precontaining all things," as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. v). Wherefore things participate of It not as a part of themselves, but by diffusion of Its processions. Now as potentiality is receptive of act, it must be proportionate to act. But the acts received which proceed from the First Infinite Act, and are participations thereof, are diverse, so that there cannot be one potentiality which receives all acts, as there is one act, from which all participated acts are derived; for then the receptive potentiality would equal the active potentiality of the First Act. Now the receptive potentiality in the intellectual soul is other than the receptive potentiality of first matter, as appears from the diversity of the things received by each. For primary matter receives individual forms; whereas the intelligence receives absolute forms. Hence the existence of such a potentiality in the intellectual soul does not prove that the soul is composed of matter and form.

Reply Obj. 1: The First Act is the universal principle of all actions because it is infinite, essentially "containing all things," as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. v). Therefore, things participate in it not as a part of themselves, but through the outpouring of its processes. Now, since potentiality can receive action, it must be proportionate to action. However, the actions received that come from the First Infinite Act, and are participations of it, are diverse, meaning there cannot be a single potentiality that receives all actions, just as there is one action from which all participatory actions are derived; otherwise, the receptive potentiality would be equal to the active potentiality of the First Act. The receptive potentiality in the intellectual soul is different from that of primary matter, as shown by the diversity of the things each can receive. Primary matter receives individual forms, while intelligence receives absolute forms. Therefore, the existence of such potentiality in the intellectual soul does not prove that the soul is made up of matter and form.

Reply Obj. 2: To be a subject and to be changed belong to matter by reason of its being in potentiality. As, therefore, the potentiality of the intelligence is one thing and the potentiality of primary matter another, so in each is there a different reason of subjection and change. For the intelligence is subject to knowledge, and is changed from ignorance to knowledge, by reason of its being in potentiality with regard to the intelligible species.

Reply Obj. 2: Being a subject and being changed are characteristics of matter because of its potential. Just as the potential of the intellect is one thing and the potential of primary matter is another, each has a different reason for being subject to change. The intellect is subject to knowledge and transitions from ignorance to knowledge due to its potential concerning intelligible concepts.

Reply Obj. 3: The form causes matter to be, and so does the agent; wherefore the agent causes matter to be, so far as it actualizes it by transmuting it to the act of a form. A subsistent form, however, does not owe its existence to some formal principle, nor has it a cause transmuting it from potentiality to act. So after the words quoted above, the Philosopher concludes, that in things composed of matter and form "there is no other cause but that which moves from potentiality to act; while whatsoever things have no matter are simply beings at once." [*The Leonine edition has, "simpliciter sunt quod vere entia aliquid." The Parma edition of St. Thomas's Commentary on Aristotle has, "statim per se unum quiddam est . . . et ens quiddam."]

Reply Obj. 3: The form brings matter into existence, and the agent does the same; therefore, the agent brings matter into existence by transforming it into the act of a form. However, a subsistent form doesn’t depend on any formal principle for its existence, nor does it have a cause that changes it from potentiality to actuality. After the previously quoted words, the Philosopher concludes that in things made up of matter and form, "there is no other cause but that which moves from potentiality to act; whereas anything that lacks matter simply exists at once." [*The Leonine edition has, "simpliciter sunt quod vere entia aliquid." The Parma edition of St. Thomas's Commentary on Aristotle has, "statim per se unum quiddam est . . . et ens quiddam."]

Reply Obj. 4: Everything participated is compared to the participator as its act. But whatever created form be supposed to subsist "per se," must have existence by participation; for "even life," or anything of that sort, "is a participator of existence," as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. v). Now participated existence is limited by the capacity of the participator; so that God alone, Who is His own existence, is pure act and infinite. But in intellectual substances there is composition of actuality and potentiality, not, indeed, of matter and form, but of form and participated existence. Wherefore some say that they are composed of that "whereby they are" and that "which they are"; for existence itself is that by which a thing is. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Everything that participates is compared to what it participates in as its action. But any created form that is thought to exist "in itself" must have existence through participation; for "even life," or anything like it, "participates in existence," as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. v). Now, participated existence is limited by the capacity of the participator; so only God, who is His own existence, is pure action and infinite. In intellectual substances, there is a combination of actuality and potentiality, not of matter and form, but of form and participated existence. Therefore, some say they are made up of that "which allows them to exist" and that "which they are"; for existence itself is what makes a thing a thing.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 6]

Whether the Human Soul Is Incorruptible?

Whether the Human Soul Is Incorruptible?

Objection 1: It would seem that the human soul is corruptible. For those things that have a like beginning and process seemingly have a like end. But the beginning, by generation, of men is like that of animals, for they are made from the earth. And the process of life is alike in both; because "all things breathe alike, and man hath nothing more than the beast," as it is written (Eccles. 3:19). Therefore, as the same text concludes, "the death of man and beast is one, and the condition of both is equal." But the souls of brute animals are corruptible. Therefore, also, the human soul is corruptible.

Objection 1: It seems that the human soul can be corrupted. Things that have a similar beginning and process usually have a similar end. The beginning of humans, through birth, is similar to that of animals since both are made from the earth. The process of living is the same for both; because "all living beings breathe similarly, and humans are no different from animals," as it is stated (Eccles. 3:19). Therefore, as the same text concludes, "the death of humans and animals is the same, and their condition is equal." Since the souls of animals can be corrupted, it follows that the human soul can also be corrupted.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is out of nothing can return to nothingness; because the end should correspond to the beginning. But as it is written (Wis. 2:2), "We are born of nothing"; which is true, not only of the body, but also of the soul. Therefore, as is concluded in the same passage, "After this we shall be as if we had not been," even as to our soul.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, anything that comes from nothing can return to nothing; because the end should match the beginning. As it is said (Wis. 2:2), "We are born of nothing"; this is true not just for the body, but also for the soul. Therefore, as concluded in the same passage, "After this we will be as if we had never existed," even concerning our soul.

Obj. 3: Further, nothing is without its own proper operation. But the operation proper to the soul, which is to understand through a phantasm, cannot be without the body. For the soul understands nothing without a phantasm; and there is no phantasm without the body as the Philosopher says (De Anima i, 1). Therefore the soul cannot survive the dissolution of the body.

Obj. 3: Moreover, everything has its own specific function. However, the function of the soul, which is to understand via a mental image, cannot exist without the body. The soul can't understand anything without a mental image, and a mental image can't exist without the body, as the Philosopher states (De Anima i, 1). Therefore, the soul cannot continue to exist after the body breaks down.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that human souls owe to Divine goodness that they are "intellectual," and that they have "an incorruptible substantial life."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that human souls owe to Divine goodness that they are "intellectual," and that they have "an incorruptible substantial life."

I answer that, We must assert that the intellectual principle which we call the human soul is incorruptible. For a thing may be corrupted in two ways—per se, and accidentally. Now it is impossible for any substance to be generated or corrupted accidentally, that is, by the generation or corruption of something else. For generation and corruption belong to a thing, just as existence belongs to it, which is acquired by generation and lost by corruption. Therefore, whatever has existence per se cannot be generated or corrupted except "per se"; while things which do not subsist, such as accidents and material forms, acquire existence or lose it through the generation or corruption of composite things. Now it was shown above (AA. 2, 3) that the souls of brutes are not self-subsistent, whereas the human soul is; so that the souls of brutes are corrupted, when their bodies are corrupted; while the human soul could not be corrupted unless it were corrupted per se. This, indeed, is impossible, not only as regards the human soul, but also as regards anything subsistent that is a form alone. For it is clear that what belongs to a thing by virtue of itself is inseparable from it; but existence belongs to a form, which is an act, by virtue of itself. Wherefore matter acquires actual existence as it acquires the form; while it is corrupted so far as the form is separated from it. But it is impossible for a form to be separated from itself; and therefore it is impossible for a subsistent form to cease to exist.

I answer that, we must assert that the intellectual principle we call the human soul is incorruptible. A thing can be corrupted in two ways—per se, and accidentally. Now, it’s impossible for any substance to be generated or corrupted accidentally, meaning through the generation or corruption of something else. Generation and corruption belong to a thing just like existence does, which is gained through generation and lost through corruption. Therefore, anything that exists per se cannot be generated or corrupted except "per se"; whereas things that do not subsist, like accidents and material forms, gain or lose existence through the generation or corruption of composite things. It was shown above (AA. 2, 3) that the souls of animals are not self-sustaining, while the human soul is; thus, the souls of animals are corrupted when their bodies decay, while the human soul could not be corrupted unless it were corrupted per se. This is indeed impossible, not only for the human soul but also for anything that exists purely as a form. It’s clear that what belongs to a thing by its nature is inseparable from it; existence belongs to a form, which is an act, by its own nature. Therefore, matter acquires actual existence as it acquires form; while it is corrupted as the form is separated from it. But it’s impossible for a form to be separated from itself; hence, it’s impossible for a subsistent form to cease to exist.

Granted even that the soul is composed of matter and form, as some pretend, we should nevertheless have to maintain that it is incorruptible. For corruption is found only where there is contrariety; since generation and corruption are from contraries and into contraries. Wherefore the heavenly bodies, since they have no matter subject to contrariety, are incorruptible. Now there can be no contrariety in the intellectual soul; for it receives according to the manner of its existence, and those things which it receives are without contrariety; for the notions even of contraries are not themselves contrary, since contraries belong to the same knowledge. Therefore it is impossible for the intellectual soul to be corruptible. Moreover we may take a sign of this from the fact that everything naturally aspires to existence after its own manner. Now, in things that have knowledge, desire ensues upon knowledge. The senses indeed do not know existence, except under the conditions of "here" and "now," whereas the intellect apprehends existence absolutely, and for all time; so that everything that has an intellect naturally desires always to exist. But a natural desire cannot be in vain. Therefore every intellectual substance is incorruptible.

Even if we assume that the soul is made of matter and form, as some claim, we would still have to say that it is incorruptible. Corruption only occurs where there is opposition, since generation and corruption come from opposites and lead to opposites. This is why celestial bodies, which lack matter that can be opposed, are incorruptible. There is no opposition in the intellectual soul because it receives according to the way it exists, and what it receives does not have opposition; even the ideas of opposites are not in themselves contrary, as opposites belong to the same understanding. Therefore, it is impossible for the intellectual soul to be corruptible. We can also take a sign of this from the fact that everything naturally strives to exist in its own way. In beings with knowledge, desire follows knowledge. The senses only grasp existence in terms of "here" and "now," while the intellect understands existence absolutely and eternally; thus, everything with intellect naturally desires to exist forever. But a natural desire cannot be meaningless. Therefore, every intellectual being is incorruptible.

Reply Obj. 1: Solomon reasons thus in the person of the foolish, as expressed in the words of Wisdom 2. Therefore the saying that man and animals have a like beginning in generation is true of the body; for all animals alike are made of earth. But it is not true of the soul. For the souls of brutes are produced by some power of the body; whereas the human soul is produced by God. To signify this it is written as to other animals: "Let the earth bring forth the living soul" (Gen. 1:24): while of man it is written (Gen. 2:7) that "He breathed into his face the breath of life." And so in the last chapter of Ecclesiastes (12:7) it is concluded: "(Before) the dust return into its earth from whence it was; and the spirit return to God Who gave it." Again the process of life is alike as to the body, concerning which it is written (Eccles. 3:19): "All things breathe alike," and (Wis. 2:2), "The breath in our nostrils is smoke." But the process is not alike of the soul; for man is intelligent, whereas animals are not. Hence it is false to say: "Man has nothing more than beasts." Thus death comes to both alike as to the body, by not as to the soul.

Reply Obj. 1: Solomon argues, speaking through the foolish, as expressed in the words of Wisdom 2. Thus, the statement that humans and animals share a similar beginning in terms of generation is true for the body; all animals are made from earth. However, this is not true for the soul. The souls of animals are generated by some capacity of the body, while the human soul is created by God. To show this, it is written of other animals: "Let the earth bring forth the living soul" (Gen. 1:24); whereas of man it is stated (Gen. 2:7) that "He breathed into his face the breath of life." In the last chapter of Ecclesiastes (12:7), it is summarized: "(Before) the dust returns to the earth from which it came; and the spirit returns to God Who gave it." Furthermore, the process of life is the same for the body, as it is written (Eccles. 3:19): "All things breathe alike," and (Wis. 2:2), "The breath in our nostrils is smoke." But the process is not the same for the soul; for man is intelligent, while animals are not. Therefore, it is incorrect to say: "Man has nothing more than beasts." Thus, death affects both equally concerning the body, but not regarding the soul.

Reply Obj. 2: As a thing can be created by reason, not of a passive potentiality, but only of the active potentiality of the Creator, Who can produce something out of nothing, so when we say that a thing can be reduced to nothing, we do not imply in the creature a potentiality to non-existence, but in the Creator the power of ceasing to sustain existence. But a thing is said to be corruptible because there is in it a potentiality to non-existence.

Reply Obj. 2: Just as something can be created by reason, not from a passive potential to exist, but only from the active potential of the Creator, Who can make something out of nothing, when we say that something can be reduced to nothing, we’re not suggesting that the creature has the potential for non-existence. Instead, it’s about the Creator having the ability to stop sustaining existence. However, a thing is considered corruptible because it has a potential for non-existence within it.

Reply Obj. 3: To understand through a phantasm is the proper operation of the soul by virtue of its union with the body. After separation from the body it will have another mode of understanding, similar to other substances separated from bodies, as will appear later on (Q. 89, A. 1). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Understanding through a mental image is the proper function of the soul due to its connection with the body. Once separated from the body, it will have a different way of understanding, like other substances that exist apart from bodies, as will be explained later (Q. 89, A. 1).

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 75, Art. 7]

Whether the Soul Is of the Same Species As an Angel?

Whether the Soul is of the Same Type as an Angel?

Objection 1: It would seem that the soul is of the same species as an angel. For each thing is ordained to its proper end by the nature of its species, whence is derived its inclination for that end. But the end of the soul is the same as that of an angel—namely, eternal happiness. Therefore they are of the same species.

Objection 1: It seems that the soul belongs to the same category as an angel. Every being is directed towards its proper goal according to its nature, which gives rise to its tendency towards that goal. But the goal of the soul is the same as that of an angel—specifically, eternal happiness. Therefore, they belong to the same category.

Obj. 2: Further, the ultimate specific difference is the noblest, because it completes the nature of the species. But there is nothing nobler either in an angel or in the soul than their intellectual nature. Therefore the soul and the angel agree in the ultimate specific difference: therefore they belong to the same species.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the key distinguishing feature is the most admirable, as it fulfills the essence of the species. However, there is nothing greater in an angel or in the soul than their intellectual nature. Therefore, the soul and the angel align in this essential distinguishing feature; hence, they are part of the same species.

Obj. 3: Further, it seems that the soul does not differ from an angel except in its union with the body. But as the body is outside the essence of the soul, it seems that it does not belong to its species. Therefore the soul and angel are of the same species.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, it appears that the soul only differs from an angel in its connection to the body. Since the body exists outside the essence of the soul, it seems that it isn't part of its species. Thus, the soul and angel belong to the same species.

On the contrary, Things which have different natural operations are of different species. But the natural operations of the soul and of an angel are different; since, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii), "Angelic minds have simple and blessed intelligence, not gathering their knowledge of Divine things from visible things." Subsequently he says the contrary to this of the soul. Therefore the soul and an angel are not of the same species.

On the contrary, things that have different natural functions belong to different categories. The natural functions of the soul and those of an angel differ; as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. vii), "Angelic minds possess a simple and blessed understanding, not deriving their knowledge of Divine matters from what is visible." He then describes the opposite regarding the soul. Thus, the soul and an angel are not of the same category.

I answer that, Origen (Peri Archon iii, 5) held that human souls and angels are all of the same species; and this because he supposed that in these substances the difference of degree was accidental, as resulting from their free-will: as we have seen above (Q. 47, A. 2). But this cannot be; for in incorporeal substances there cannot be diversity of number without diversity of species and inequality of nature; because, as they are not composed of matter and form, but are subsistent forms, it is clear that there is necessarily among them a diversity of species. For a separate form cannot be understood otherwise than as one of a single species; thus, supposing a separate whiteness to exist, it could only be one; forasmuch as one whiteness does not differ from another except as in this or that subject. But diversity of species is always accompanied with a diversity of nature; thus in species of colors one is more perfect than another; and the same applies to other species, because differences which divide a genus are contrary to one another. Contraries, however, are compared to one another as the perfect to the imperfect, since the "principle of contrariety is habit, and privation thereof," as is written, Metaph. x (Did. ix, 4). The same would follow if the aforesaid substances were composed of matter and form. For if the matter of one be distinct from the matter of another, it follows that either the form is the principle of the distinction of matter—that is to say, that the matter is distinct on account of its relation to divers forms; and even then there would result a difference of species and inequality of nature: or else the matter is the principle of the distinction of forms. But one matter cannot be distinct from another, except by a distinction of quantity, which has no place in these incorporeal substances, such as an angel and the soul. So that it is not possible for the angel and the soul to be of the same species. How it is that there can be many souls of one species will be explained later (Q. 76, A. 2, ad 1).

I answer that, Origen (Peri Archon iii, 5) believed that human souls and angels belong to the same species; this was because he thought that the differences between them were accidental, arising from their free will, as we have discussed earlier (Q. 47, A. 2). However, this cannot be the case; for in incorporeal substances, diversity in number cannot exist without diversity in species and inequality in nature. Since they are not made up of matter and form but are subsisting forms, it is evident that there must be a diversity of species among them. A separate form can only be understood as belonging to a single species; for instance, if a separate whiteness were to exist, it could only be one, as one whiteness doesn't differ from another except in the subject it exists in. But diversity in species always comes with a diversity in nature; thus, among color species, one can be more perfect than another, and the same applies to other species, because the differences that separate a genus are contrary to each other. Contraries are compared to one another as the perfect to the imperfect, since the "principle of contrariety is habit and the lack of it," as stated in Metaph. x (Did. ix, 4). The same would apply if the aforementioned substances were made of matter and form. If the matter of one is distinct from the matter of another, it follows that either the form is what distinguishes the matter—meaning the matter is distinct due to its relation to different forms; and even then, there would still be a difference in species and inequality of nature, or the matter distinguishes the forms. However, one matter cannot be distinct from another unless it differs in quantity, which does not apply to these incorporeal substances, like angels and souls. Therefore, it isn't possible for angels and souls to be of the same species. The explanation of how many souls can belong to one species will be given later (Q. 76, A. 2, ad 1).

Reply Obj. 1: This argument proceeds from the proximate and natural end. Eternal happiness is the ultimate and supernatural end.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument is based on the immediate and natural goal. Eternal happiness is the ultimate and supernatural goal.

Reply Obj. 2: The ultimate specific difference is the noblest because it is the most determinate, in the same way as actuality is nobler than potentiality. Thus, however, the intellectual faculty is not the noblest, because it is indeterminate and common to many degrees of intellectuality; as the sensible faculty is common to many degrees in the sensible nature. Hence, as all sensible things are not of one species, so neither are all intellectual things of one species.

Reply Obj. 2: The main specific difference is the highest because it is the most defined, just like actuality is more refined than potentiality. However, the intellectual ability is not the highest because it is vague and shared among many levels of intellect; similarly, the sensory ability is shared among various degrees in the sensory world. Therefore, just as not all sensory things belong to one category, neither do all intellectual things belong to one category.

Reply Obj. 3: The body is not of the essence of the soul; but the soul by the nature of its essence can be united to the body, so that, properly speaking, not the soul alone, but the "composite," is the species. And the very fact that the soul in a certain way requires the body for its operation, proves that the soul is endowed with a grade of intellectuality inferior to that of an angel, who is not united to a body. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The body is not essential to the soul; however, the soul, by its nature, can be connected to the body, so that, strictly speaking, it is not just the soul, but the "composite," that constitutes the species. Moreover, the fact that the soul, in a certain way, needs the body to function shows that the soul possesses a level of intellect that is lower than that of an angel, who is not connected to a body.

QUESTION 76

OF THE UNION OF BODY AND SOUL
(In Eight Articles)

OF THE UNION OF BODY AND SOUL
(In Eight Articles)

We now consider the union of the soul with the body; and concerning this there are eight points of inquiry:

We now look at the connection between the soul and the body; and there are eight questions to explore regarding this:

(1) Whether the intellectual principle is united to the body as its form?

(1) Is the intellectual principle connected to the body as its form?

(2) Whether the intellectual principle is multiplied numerically according to the number of bodies; or is there one intelligence for all men?

(2) Is the intellectual principle counted separately for each person, or is there one intelligence shared by everyone?

(3) Whether in the body the form of which is an intellectual principle, there is some other soul?

(3) Is there another soul in the body, which has an intellectual principle as its form?

(4) Whether in the body there is any other substantial form?

(4) Is there any other significant form present in the body?

(5) Of the qualities required in the body of which the intellectual principle is the form?

(5) What qualities are needed in the body that the intellectual principle shapes?

(6) Whether it be united to such a body by means of another body?

(6) Is it connected to that body through another body?

(7) Whether by means of an accident?

(7) Was it due to an accident?

(8) Whether the soul is wholly in each part of the body? _______________________

(8) Is the soul present in its entirety in every part of the body? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 1]

Whether the Intellectual Principle Is United to the Body As Its Form?

Whether the Intellectual Principle Is Joined to the Body as Its Form?

Objection 1: It seems that the intellectual principle is not united to the body as its form. For the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 4) that the intellect is "separate," and that it is not the act of any body. Therefore it is not united to the body as its form.

Objection 1: It seems that the intellect is not connected to the body as its form. The Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 4) that the intellect is "separate," and that it is not the act of any body. Therefore, it is not united to the body as its form.

Obj. 2: Further, every form is determined according to the nature of the matter of which it is the form; otherwise no proportion would be required between matter and form. Therefore if the intellect were united to the body as its form, since every body has a determinate nature, it would follow that the intellect has a determinate nature; and thus, it would not be capable of knowing all things, as is clear from what has been said (Q. 75, A. 2); which is contrary to the nature of the intellect. Therefore the intellect is not united to the body as its form.

Obj. 2: Additionally, every form is defined by the nature of the matter it represents; otherwise, there would be no necessary connection between matter and form. So, if the intellect were united with the body as its form, since every body has a specific nature, it would imply that the intellect has a specific nature as well. This would mean it couldn't know everything, as we have discussed (Q. 75, A. 2), which goes against the very nature of the intellect. Therefore, the intellect is not united with the body as its form.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever receptive power is an act of a body, receives a form materially and individually; for what is received must be received according to the condition of the receiver. But the form of the thing understood is not received into the intellect materially and individually, but rather immaterially and universally: otherwise the intellect would not be capable of the knowledge of immaterial and universal objects, but only of individuals, like the senses. Therefore the intellect is not united to the body as its form.

Obj. 3: Moreover, any receptive power that is an action of a body receives a form in a material and individual way because what is received must be accepted based on the condition of the receiver. However, the form of the thing understood is not received in the intellect in a material and individual way, but rather in an immaterial and universal way; otherwise, the intellect would only be able to know immaterial and universal objects, similar to how the senses can only know individuals. Therefore, the intellect is not united to the body as its form.

Obj. 4: Further, power and action have the same subject; for the same subject is what can, and does, act. But the intellectual action is not the action of a body, as appears from above (Q. 75, A. 2). Therefore neither is the intellectual faculty a power of the body. But virtue or power cannot be more abstract or more simple than the essence from which the faculty or power is derived. Therefore neither is the substance of the intellect the form of a body.

Obj. 4: Additionally, power and action share the same subject; the same subject is what can, and does, act. However, intellectual action is not a physical action, as demonstrated earlier (Q. 75, A. 2). Therefore, the intellectual faculty isn’t a physical power. Yet, virtue or power cannot be more abstract or simpler than the essence from which the faculty or power originates. Thus, the substance of the intellect is also not the form of a body.

Obj. 5: Further, whatever has per se existence is not united to the body as its form; because a form is that by which a thing exists: so that the very existence of a form does not belong to the form by itself. But the intellectual principle has per se existence and is subsistent, as was said above (Q. 75, A. 2). Therefore it is not united to the body as its form.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, anything that has per se existence is not connected to the body as its form; because a form is what gives a thing its existence: thus, the very existence of a form does not come from the form alone. However, the intellectual principle has per se existence and is independent, as mentioned earlier (Q. 75, A. 2). Therefore, it is not connected to the body as its form.

Obj. 6: Further, whatever exists in a thing by reason of its nature exists in it always. But to be united to matter belongs to the form by reason of its nature; because form is the act of matter, not by an accidental quality, but by its own essence; otherwise matter and form would not make a thing substantially one, but only accidentally one. Therefore a form cannot be without its own proper matter. But the intellectual principle, since it is incorruptible, as was shown above (Q. 75, A. 6), remains separate from the body, after the dissolution of the body. Therefore the intellectual principle is not united to the body as its form.

Obj. 6: Additionally, whatever is inherent in a thing by its nature is always present in it. The relationship between form and matter is essential; form is the essence of matter, not just an accidental property. If that weren’t the case, matter and form wouldn’t create a substantial unity but only an accidental one. Therefore, a form cannot exist without its own specific matter. However, since the intellectual principle is incorruptible, as previously discussed (Q. 75, A. 6), it remains distinct from the body after the body has dissolved. Therefore, the intellectual principle is not united with the body as its form.

On the contrary, According to the Philosopher, Metaph. viii (Did. vii 2), difference is derived from the form. But the difference which constitutes man is "rational," which is applied to man on account of his intellectual principle. Therefore the intellectual principle is the form of man.

On the contrary, According to the Philosopher, Metaph. viii (Did. vii 2), difference comes from the form. But the difference that defines man is "rational," which is attributed to man because of his intellectual principle. Therefore, the intellectual principle is the essence of man.

I answer that, We must assert that the intellect which is the principle of intellectual operation is the form of the human body. For that whereby primarily anything acts is a form of the thing to which the act is to be attributed: for instance, that whereby a body is primarily healed is health, and that whereby the soul knows primarily is knowledge; hence health is a form of the body, and knowledge is a form of the soul. The reason is because nothing acts except so far as it is in act; wherefore a thing acts by that whereby it is in act. Now it is clear that the first thing by which the body lives is the soul. And as life appears through various operations in different degrees of living things, that whereby we primarily perform each of all these vital actions is the soul. For the soul is the primary principle of our nourishment, sensation, and local movement; and likewise of our understanding. Therefore this principle by which we primarily understand, whether it be called the intellect or the intellectual soul, is the form of the body. This is the demonstration used by Aristotle (De Anima ii, 2).

I answer that, we need to state that the intellect, which is the basis of intellectual activity, is the essence of the human body. What primarily causes anything to act is a form of the thing to which the action is attributed: for example, the primary reason a body is healed is health, and the primary reason the soul knows is knowledge; thus, health is a form of the body, and knowledge is a form of the soul. The rationale is that nothing acts except insofar as it is in action; therefore, a thing acts through what is in action. It is evident that the soul is the first thing that gives life to the body. As life manifests through various functions in different living things, the primary source of each of these vital activities is the soul. The soul is the main principle of our nourishment, sensation, and movement, as well as our understanding. Consequently, this principle by which we primarily understand, whether referred to as the intellect or the intellectual soul, is the essence of the body. This is the argument presented by Aristotle (De Anima ii, 2).

But if anyone says that the intellectual soul is not the form of the body he must first explain how it is that this action of understanding is the action of this particular man; for each one is conscious that it is himself who understands. Now an action may be attributed to anyone in three ways, as is clear from the Philosopher (Phys. v, 1); for a thing is said to move or act, either by virtue of its whole self, for instance, as a physician heals; or by virtue of a part, as a man sees by his eye; or through an accidental quality, as when we say that something that is white builds, because it is accidental to the builder to be white. So when we say that Socrates or Plato understands, it is clear that this is not attributed to him accidentally; since it is ascribed to him as man, which is predicated of him essentially. We must therefore say either that Socrates understands by virtue of his whole self, as Plato maintained, holding that man is an intellectual soul; or that intelligence is a part of Socrates. The first cannot stand, as was shown above (Q. 75, A. 4), for this reason, that it is one and the same man who is conscious both that he understands, and that he senses. But one cannot sense without a body: therefore the body must be some part of man. It follows therefore that the intellect by which Socrates understands is a part of Socrates, so that in some way it is united to the body of Socrates.

But if anyone claims that the intellectual soul isn’t the form of the body, they first need to explain how this act of understanding specifically belongs to this person; because each person is aware that it’s them who understands. An action can be attributed to someone in three different ways, as the Philosopher points out (Phys. v, 1); something can be said to move or act either by means of its whole self, like how a doctor heals; or by means of a part, as a person sees with their eye; or through an accidental quality, as when we say something white builds, simply because the builder happens to be white. So, when we say that Socrates or Plato understands, it’s clear that this isn’t attributed to him by accident since it’s recognized as something that belongs to him essentially as a man. Therefore, we must conclude either that Socrates understands by virtue of his whole self, as Plato argued, believing that man is an intellectual soul; or that intelligence is a part of Socrates. The first idea doesn’t hold, as was shown earlier (Q. 75, A. 4), for the reason that it’s the same person who is aware both of their understanding and their sensing. However, one can’t sense without a body; hence the body must be a part of the man. Therefore, it follows that the intellect by which Socrates understands is a part of him, so it is somehow connected to Socrates’ body.

The Commentator held that this union is through the intelligible species, as having a double subject, in the possible intellect, and in the phantasms which are in the corporeal organs. Thus through the intelligible species the possible intellect is linked to the body of this or that particular man. But this link or union does not sufficiently explain the fact, that the act of the intellect is the act of Socrates. This can be clearly seen from comparison with the sensitive faculty, from which Aristotle proceeds to consider things relating to the intellect. For the relation of phantasms to the intellect is like the relation of colors to the sense of sight, as he says De Anima iii, 5,7. Therefore, as the species of colors are in the sight, so are the species of phantasms in the possible intellect. Now it is clear that because the colors, the images of which are in the sight, are on a wall, the action of seeing is not attributed to the wall: for we do not say that the wall sees, but rather that it is seen. Therefore, from the fact that the species of phantasms are in the possible intellect, it does not follow that Socrates, in whom are the phantasms, understands, but that he or his phantasms are understood.

The Commentator argued that this connection happens through intelligible species, which have two subjects: in the possible intellect and in the images held in the physical organs. Thus, through intelligible species, the possible intellect is connected to the body of this or that specific person. However, this connection doesn’t adequately explain why the act of the intellect is the act of Socrates. This becomes clear when we compare it to the sensitive faculty, from which Aristotle examines matters related to the intellect. The relationship between images and the intellect is similar to the relationship between colors and the sense of sight, as he states in De Anima iii, 5,7. Therefore, just as the species of colors exist in sight, the species of images exist in the possible intellect. Now, it’s evident that just because the colors, whose images are in sight, are on a wall, the act of seeing isn’t attributed to the wall: we don’t say the wall sees, but rather that it is seen. Therefore, just because the species of images are in the possible intellect, it doesn’t mean that Socrates, who contains the images, understands; it means that he or his images are understood.

Some, however, tried to maintain that the intellect is united to the body as its motor; and hence that the intellect and body form one thing so that the act of the intellect could be attributed to the whole. This is, however, absurd for many reasons. First, because the intellect does not move the body except through the appetite, the movement of which presupposes the operation of the intellect. The reason therefore why Socrates understands is not because he is moved by his intellect, but rather, contrariwise, he is moved by his intellect because he understands. Secondly, because since Socrates is an individual in a nature of one essence composed of matter and form, if the intellect be not the form, it follows that it must be outside the essence, and then the intellect is the whole Socrates as a motor to the thing moved. Whereas the act of intellect remains in the agent, and does not pass into something else, as does the action of heating. Therefore the action of understanding cannot be attributed to Socrates for the reason that he is moved by his intellect. Thirdly, because the action of a motor is never attributed to the thing moved, except as to an instrument; as the action of a carpenter to a saw. Therefore if understanding is attributed to Socrates, as the action of what moves him, it follows that it is attributed to him as to an instrument. This is contrary to the teaching of the Philosopher, who holds that understanding is not possible through a corporeal instrument (De Anima iii, 4). Fourthly, because, although the action of a part be attributed to the whole, as the action of the eye is attributed to a man; yet it is never attributed to another part, except perhaps indirectly; for we do not say that the hand sees because the eye sees. Therefore if the intellect and Socrates are united in the above manner, the action of the intellect cannot be attributed to Socrates. If, however, Socrates be a whole composed of a union of the intellect with whatever else belongs to Socrates, and still the intellect be united to those other things only as a motor, it follows that Socrates is not one absolutely, and consequently neither a being absolutely, for a thing is a being according as it is one.

Some people, however, argued that the intellect is connected to the body like a motor, suggesting that the intellect and body together make one entity, allowing any action of the intellect to be ascribed to the whole. This idea is absurd for several reasons. First, the intellect doesn't move the body directly but does so through desire, which depends on the intellect's operation. So, Socrates understands not because his intellect moves him, but rather, he is moved by his intellect because he understands. Second, since Socrates is an individual composed of matter and form, if the intellect isn't the form, it must exist outside the essence, making the intellect the entirety of Socrates as a motor moves the thing it affects. But the act of intellect remains with the agent and doesn't transfer to something else, unlike the action of heating. Thus, understanding cannot be attributed to Socrates simply because he is influenced by his intellect. Third, a motor's action is never ascribed to the thing being moved, except as an instrument; like how a carpenter's action is attributed to a saw. If understanding is attributed to Socrates as the act of what moves him, it suggests it's attributed to him as an instrument. This contradicts what the Philosopher teaches, which is that understanding cannot occur through a physical instrument (De Anima iii, 4). Fourth, even though the action of a part can be attributed to the whole, like how we say the action of the eye pertains to a person, it is never attributed to another part directly; we don't say the hand sees just because the eye sees. Therefore, if the intellect and Socrates are united in that way, the action of the intellect cannot be assigned to Socrates. If, however, Socrates is a complete entity consisting of the intellect along with other aspects of himself, and the intellect is joined to those other elements only as a motor, it follows that Socrates is not fully one and therefore cannot be considered a being in an absolute sense, since a being is defined by its unity.

There remains, therefore, no other explanation than that given by Aristotle—namely, that this particular man understands, because the intellectual principle is his form. Thus from the very operation of the intellect it is made clear that the intellectual principle is united to the body as its form.

There’s no other explanation than the one provided by Aristotle—that this specific man understands because the intellectual principle is his essence. Therefore, the function of the intellect shows that the intellectual principle is connected to the body as its essence.

The same can be clearly shown from the nature of the human species. For the nature of each thing is shown by its operation. Now the proper operation of man as man is to understand; because he thereby surpasses all other animals. Whence Aristotle concludes (Ethic. x, 7) that the ultimate happiness of man must consist in this operation as properly belonging to him. Man must therefore derive his species from that which is the principle of this operation. But the species of anything is derived from its form. It follows therefore that the intellectual principle is the proper form of man.

The same can be clearly demonstrated by looking at human nature. The nature of anything is revealed through its function. The unique function of humans, as humans, is to understand; this is what sets us apart from all other animals. From this, Aristotle concludes (Ethic. x, 7) that true happiness for humans must come from this function that is essential to us. Therefore, humans must derive their essence from the principle that governs this function. The essence of anything comes from its form. Thus, it follows that the intellectual principle is the essential form of humanity.

But we must observe that the nobler a form is, the more it rises above corporeal matter, the less it is merged in matter, and the more it excels matter by its power and its operation; hence we find that the form of a mixed body has another operation not caused by its elemental qualities. And the higher we advance in the nobility of forms, the more we find that the power of the form excels the elementary matter; as the vegetative soul excels the form of the metal, and the sensitive soul excels the vegetative soul. Now the human soul is the highest and noblest of forms. Wherefore it excels corporeal matter in its power by the fact that it has an operation and a power in which corporeal matter has no share whatever. This power is called the intellect.

But we must recognize that the more refined a form is, the more it transcends physical matter, the less it is entwined with matter, and the more it surpasses matter through its ability and its actions. As a result, we see that the form of a mixed body has a function that isn't simply determined by its elemental qualities. As we progress to higher forms of nobility, we notice that the form's power is greater than that of the elemental matter; for example, the vegetative soul is superior to the form of metal, and the sensitive soul is superior to the vegetative soul. The human soul represents the highest and most noble form. Therefore, it surpasses physical matter in its power because it possesses a function and an ability that physical matter doesn't share at all. This power is referred to as the intellect.

It is well to remark that if anyone holds that the soul is composed of matter and form, it would follow that in no way could the soul be the form of the body. For since the form is an act, and matter is only in potentiality, that which is composed of matter and form cannot be the form of another by virtue of itself as a whole. But if it is a form by virtue of some part of itself, then that part which is the form we call the soul, and that of which it is the form we call the "primary animate," as was said above (Q. 75, A. 5).

It’s important to note that if someone believes the soul is made up of matter and form, it would mean that the soul can't be the form of the body in any way. Since form is an act and matter is only potential, something made of matter and form can't be the form of anything else on its own. But if it is a form because of a certain part of itself, then that part we refer to as the soul, and what it forms we call the "primary animate," as mentioned earlier (Q. 75, A. 5).

Reply Obj. 1: As the Philosopher says (Phys. ii, 2), the ultimate natural form to which the consideration of the natural philosopher is directed is indeed separate; yet it exists in matter. He proves this from the fact that "man and the sun generate man from matter." It is separate indeed according to its intellectual power, because the intellectual power does not belong to a corporeal organ, as the power of seeing is the act of the eye; for understanding is an act which cannot be performed by a corporeal organ, like the act of seeing. But it exists in matter so far as the soul itself, to which this power belongs, is the form of the body, and the term of human generation. And so the Philosopher says (De Anima iii) that the intellect is separate, because it is not the faculty of a corporeal organ.

Reply Obj. 1: As the Philosopher says (Phys. ii, 2), the ultimate natural form that natural philosophers focus on is indeed separate; however, it exists in matter. He supports this by stating that "man and the sun generate man from matter." It is indeed separate in terms of its intellectual capability, because this capability doesn’t belong to a physical organ, just as the power of seeing is specific to the eye; understanding is an act that can't be carried out by a physical organ, unlike seeing. However, it exists in matter insofar as the soul itself, to which this capability belongs, is the form of the body and the endpoint of human generation. Therefore, the Philosopher remarks (De Anima iii) that the intellect is separate because it is not a function of a physical organ.

From this it is clear how to answer the Second and Third objections: since, in order that man may be able to understand all things by means of his intellect, and that his intellect may understand immaterial things and universals, it is sufficient that the intellectual power be not the act of the body.

From this, it’s clear how to address the Second and Third objections: for a person to understand everything through their intellect, and for their intellect to grasp immaterial things and universals, it’s enough that the intellectual ability is not dependent on the body.

Reply Obj. 4: The human soul, by reason of its perfection, is not a form merged in matter, or entirely embraced by matter. Therefore there is nothing to prevent some power thereof not being the act of the body, although the soul is essentially the form of the body.

Reply Obj. 4: The human soul, because of its perfection, is not just a form combined with matter, nor is it completely contained within matter. So, there is nothing stopping some of its powers from not being the actions of the body, even though the soul is fundamentally the form of the body.

Reply Obj. 5: The soul communicates that existence in which it subsists to the corporeal matter, out of which and the intellectual soul there results unity of existence; so that the existence of the whole composite is also the existence of the soul. This is not the case with other non-subsistent forms. For this reason the human soul retains its own existence after the dissolution of the body; whereas it is not so with other forms.

Reply Obj. 5: The soul conveys the type of existence it has to the physical matter, leading to a unified existence between the two; thus, the existence of the entire composite also includes the existence of the soul. This differs from other non-subsistent forms. For this reason, the human soul maintains its own existence after the body disintegrates, unlike other forms.

Reply Obj. 6: To be united to the body belongs to the soul by reason of itself, as it belongs to a light body by reason of itself to be raised up. And as a light body remains light, when removed from its proper place, retaining meanwhile an aptitude and an inclination for its proper place; so the human soul retains its proper existence when separated from the body, having an aptitude and a natural inclination to be united to the body. _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: Being united with the body is inherent to the soul, just as it's inherent for light to rise. Just as a light can still be light when it's not in its right position, while still having a tendency and desire to return to that position, the human soul maintains its existence even when it's separated from the body, possessing a natural tendency and desire to reunite with it.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 2]

Whether the Intellectual Principle Is Multiplied According to the
Number of Bodies?

Whether the Intellectual Principle Is Multiplied According to the
Number of Bodies?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellectual principle is not multiplied according to the number of bodies, but that there is one intellect in all men. For an immaterial substance is not multiplied in number within one species. But the human soul is an immaterial substance; since it is not composed of matter and form as was shown above (Q. 75, A. 5). Therefore there are not many human souls in one species. But all men are of one species. Therefore there is but one intellect in all men.

Objection 1: It seems that the intellectual principle isn't multiplied based on the number of bodies, but rather that there is one intellect shared by all humans. An immaterial substance isn't counted separately within one species. The human soul is an immaterial substance since it isn't made up of matter and form as was explained earlier (Q. 75, A. 5). Therefore, there aren't multiple human souls within one species. Since all humans belong to one species, there is only one intellect shared among all people.

Obj. 2: Further, when the cause is removed, the effect is also removed. Therefore, if human souls were multiplied according to the number of bodies, it follows that the bodies being removed, the number of souls would not remain; but from all the souls there would be but a single remainder. This is heretical; for it would do away with the distinction of rewards and punishments.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, when the cause is taken away, the effect is also taken away. Therefore, if human souls were increased based on the number of bodies, it follows that when the bodies are gone, the number of souls wouldn’t remain; only one soul would be left from all the souls. This is heretical because it would eliminate the differences in rewards and punishments.

Obj. 3: Further, if my intellect is distinct from your intellect, my intellect is an individual, and so is yours; for individuals are things which differ in number but agree in one species. Now whatever is received into anything must be received according to the condition of the receiver. Therefore the species of things would be received individually into my intellect, and also into yours: which is contrary to the nature of the intellect which knows universals.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if my mind is different from your mind, then my mind is an individual, just like yours; because individuals are things that differ in number but share the same category. Now, anything that is taken into something must be taken in based on the state of the receiver. So, the types of things would be individually understood by my mind, as well as by yours: this opposes the nature of the mind, which understands universal concepts.

Obj. 4: Further, the thing understood is in the intellect which understands. If, therefore, my intellect is distinct from yours, what is understood by me must be distinct from what is understood by you; and consequently it will be reckoned as something individual, and be only potentially something understood; so that the common intention will have to be abstracted from both; since from things diverse something intelligible common to them may be abstracted. But this is contrary to the nature of the intellect; for then the intellect would seem not to be distinct from the imagination. It seems, therefore, to follow that there is one intellect in all men.

Obj. 4: Additionally, what is understood exists in the intellect that understands. So, if my intellect is separate from yours, what I understand must be different from what you understand; thus, it will be considered something individual and only potentially something understood. Therefore, the common concept will need to be taken from both, since we can abstract something shared from diverse things. However, this contradicts the nature of the intellect; otherwise, the intellect would appear indistinguishable from imagination. It follows, then, that there is one intellect shared among all humans.

Obj. 5: Further, when the disciple receives knowledge from the master, it cannot be said that the master's knowledge begets knowledge in the disciple, because then also knowledge would be an active form, such as heat is, which is clearly false. It seems, therefore, that the same individual knowledge which is in the master is communicated to the disciple; which cannot be, unless there is one intellect in both. Seemingly, therefore, the intellect of the disciple and master is but one; and, consequently, the same applies to all men.

Obj. 5: Additionally, when a student gains knowledge from the teacher, it can't be said that the teacher's knowledge directly produces knowledge in the student, because then knowledge would have to be an active force, like heat, which is obviously incorrect. It appears that the same knowledge that exists in the teacher is shared with the student; this cannot happen unless both share one intellect. Therefore, it seems that the intellect of the student and the teacher is essentially one; and, as a result, the same applies to all people.

Obj. 6: Further, Augustine (De Quant. Animae xxxii) says: "If I were
to say that there are many human souls, I should laugh at myself."
But the soul seems to be one chiefly on account of the intellect.
Therefore there is one intellect of all men.

Obj. 6: Furthermore, Augustine (De Quant. Animae xxxii) says: "If I were
to claim that there are many human souls, I would be mocking myself."
But the soul appears to be one primarily because of the intellect.
Therefore, there is one intellect shared by all people.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Phys. ii, 3) that the relation of universal causes to universals is like the relation of particular causes to individuals. But it is impossible that a soul, one in species, should belong to animals of different species. Therefore it is impossible that one individual intellectual soul should belong to several individuals.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Phys. ii, 3) that the relationship between universal causes and universals is like the relationship between particular causes and individuals. However, it’s impossible for a soul, which is one in species, to belong to animals of different species. Therefore, it’s impossible for one individual intellectual soul to belong to several individuals.

I answer that, It is absolutely impossible for one intellect to belong to all men. This is clear if, as Plato maintained, man is the intellect itself. For it would follow that Socrates and Plato are one man; and that they are not distinct from each other, except by something outside the essence of each. The distinction between Socrates and Plato would be no other than that of one man with a tunic and another with a cloak; which is quite absurd.

I answer that, It is absolutely impossible for one intellect to belong to all people. This is clear if, as Plato argued, a person is the intellect itself. It would mean that Socrates and Plato are the same person; and that they are not different from each other, except by something outside their essence. The difference between Socrates and Plato would be no more than that of one person wearing a tunic and another wearing a cloak; which is completely absurd.

It is likewise clear that this is impossible if, according to the opinion of Aristotle (De Anima ii, 2), it is supposed that the intellect is a part or a power of the soul which is the form of man. For it is impossible for many distinct individuals to have one form, as it is impossible for them to have one existence, for the form is the principle of existence.

It is also clear that this is impossible if, according to Aristotle (De Anima ii, 2), it is assumed that the intellect is a part or a power of the soul, which is the essence of a person. For it is impossible for many different individuals to share one essence, just as it is impossible for them to share one existence, because the essence is the source of existence.

Again, this is clearly impossible, whatever one may hold as to the manner of the union of the intellect to this or that man. For it is manifest that, supposing there is one principal agent, and two instruments, we can say that there is one agent absolutely, but several actions; as when one man touches several things with his two hands, there will be one who touches, but two contacts. If, on the contrary, we suppose one instrument and several principal agents, we might say that there are several agents, but one act; for example, if there be many drawing a ship by means of a rope; there will be many drawing, but one pull. If, however, there is one principal agent, and one instrument, we say that there is one agent and one action, as when the smith strikes with one hammer, there is one striker and one stroke. Now it is clear that no matter how the intellect is united or coupled to this or that man, the intellect has the precedence of all the other things which appertain to man; for the sensitive powers obey the intellect, and are at its service. Therefore, if we suppose two men to have several intellects and one sense—for instance, if two men had one eye—there would be several seers, but one sight. But if there is one intellect, no matter how diverse may be all those things of which the intellect makes use as instruments, in no way is it possible to say that Socrates and Plato are otherwise than one understanding man. And if to this we add that to understand, which is the act of the intellect, is not affected by any organ other than the intellect itself; it will further follow that there is but one agent and one action: that is to say that all men are but one "understander," and have but one act of understanding, in regard, that is, of one intelligible object.

This is clearly impossible, no matter what one thinks about how the intellect connects to this or that person. It’s obvious that if there’s one main agent and two tools, we can say there’s one agent overall, but multiple actions; like when one person touches several things with their two hands, there’s one person doing the touching but two contacts. On the other hand, if we have one tool and several main agents, we could say there are multiple agents but one action; for example, if many people are pulling a ship with a rope, there are several pulling but one pull. However, if there’s one main agent and one tool, we say there is one agent and one action, just like when a blacksmith strikes with one hammer; there’s one striker and one stroke. It’s clear that no matter how the intellect is connected to this or that person, the intellect takes precedence over everything else that belongs to humans; the sensory powers obey the intellect and serve it. Therefore, if we imagine two people having separate intellects and one sense—like if two people had one eye—there would be multiple see-ers but one sight. But if there’s one intellect, despite all the different things it uses as tools, it’s impossible to say that Socrates and Plato are anything other than one understanding person. Additionally, if we consider that understanding, which is the function of the intellect, isn’t influenced by any organ other than the intellect itself; it follows that there’s only one agent and one action: meaning that all humans are just one “understander” and have only one act of understanding regarding one intelligible object.

However, it would be possible to distinguish my intellectual action from yours by the distinction of the phantasms—that is to say, were there one phantasm of a stone in me, and another in you—if the phantasm itself, as it is one thing in me and another in you, were a form of the possible intellect; since the same agent according to divers forms produces divers actions; as, according to divers forms of things with regard to the same eye, there are divers visions. But the phantasm itself is not a form of the possible intellect; it is the intelligible species abstracted from the phantasm that is a form. Now in one intellect, from different phantasms of the same species, only one intelligible species is abstracted; as appears in one man, in whom there may be different phantasms of a stone; yet from all of them only one intelligible species of a stone is abstracted; by which the intellect of that one man, by one operation, understands the nature of a stone, notwithstanding the diversity of phantasms. Therefore, if there were one intellect for all men, the diversity of phantasms which are in this one and that one would not cause a diversity of intellectual operation in this man and that man. It follows, therefore, that it is altogether impossible and unreasonable to maintain that there exists one intellect for all men.

However, it would be possible to differentiate my intellectual actions from yours by distinguishing the mental images—that is to say, if there was one mental image of a stone in me and another in you—if the mental image itself, as it is one thing in me and another in you, were a form of the potential intellect; since the same agent produces different actions according to different forms; just like, based on different forms of things concerning the same eye, there are different visions. But the mental image itself is not a form of the potential intellect; it is the intelligible concept abstracted from the mental image that is a form. Now in one intellect, from different mental images of the same type, only one intelligible concept is abstracted; as is evident in one person, who may have different mental images of a stone; yet from all of them, only one intelligible concept of a stone is derived; by which that person's intellect, through one operation, understands the nature of a stone, despite the variety of mental images. Therefore, if there was one intellect for all people, the variety of mental images present in this person and that person would not lead to different intellectual activities in one person compared to another. It follows that it is entirely impossible and unreasonable to claim that there is one intellect for all people.

Reply Obj. 1: Although the intellectual soul, like an angel, has no matter from which it is produced, yet it is the form of a certain matter; in which it is unlike an angel. Therefore, according to the division of matter, there are many souls of one species; while it is quite impossible for many angels to be of one species.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though the intellectual soul, like an angel, isn't made from any physical matter, it still represents the form of a specific kind of matter; this is how it differs from an angel. Therefore, when it comes to the classification of matter, there can be many souls of the same kind, while it's completely impossible for multiple angels to belong to the same kind.

Reply Obj. 2: Everything has unity in the same way that it has being; consequently we must judge of the multiplicity of a thing as we judge of its being. Now it is clear that the intellectual soul, by virtue of its very being, is united to the body as its form; yet, after the dissolution of the body, the intellectual soul retains its own being. In like manner the multiplicity of souls is in proportion to the multiplicity of the bodies; yet, after the dissolution of the bodies, the souls retain their multiplied being.

Reply Obj. 2: Everything has unity just like it has existence; therefore, we should evaluate the variety of a thing in the same way we evaluate its existence. It is evident that the intellectual soul, by its very nature, is united to the body as its form; however, after the body ceases to exist, the intellectual soul continues to exist on its own. Similarly, the number of souls corresponds to the number of bodies; yet, after the bodies cease to exist, the souls maintain their individual existence.

Reply Obj. 3: Individuality of the intelligent being, or of the species whereby it understands, does not exclude the understanding of universals; otherwise, since separate intellects are subsistent substances, and consequently individual, they could not understand universals. But the materiality of the knower, and of the species whereby it knows, impedes the knowledge of the universal. For as every action is according to the mode of the form by which the agent acts, as heating is according to the mode of the heat; so knowledge is according to the mode of the species by which the knower knows. Now it is clear that common nature becomes distinct and multiplied by reason of the individuating principles which come from the matter. Therefore if the form, which is the means of knowledge, is material—that is, not abstracted from material conditions—its likeness to the nature of a species or genus will be according to the distinction and multiplication of that nature by means of individuating principles; so that knowledge of the nature of a thing in general will be impossible. But if the species be abstracted from the conditions of individual matter, there will be a likeness of the nature without those things which make it distinct and multiplied; thus there will be knowledge of the universal. Nor does it matter, as to this particular point, whether there be one intellect or many; because, even if there were but one, it would necessarily be an individual intellect, and the species whereby it understands, an individual species.

Reply Obj. 3: The individuality of an intelligent being, or of the species through which it understands, does not prevent the understanding of universals; otherwise, since separate intellects are independent substances, and therefore individual, they wouldn't be able to understand universals. However, the material nature of the knower, and the species through which it knows, hinders the knowledge of the universal. Just as every action is based on the way the form by which the agent acts operates, like heating being based on the nature of heat, knowledge also depends on the mode of the species through which the knower knows. It's clear that common nature becomes distinct and varied because of the individual characteristics that arise from matter. Thus, if the form, which is the means of knowledge, is material—that is, not separated from material conditions—its resemblance to the nature of a species or genus will depend on the distinctions and variations of that nature due to individual characteristics; hence, knowledge of a thing's nature in general becomes impossible. But if the species is abstracted from the conditions of individual matter, it will reflect the nature without those elements that make it distinct and varied; therefore, knowledge of the universal will be possible. It also doesn't matter, in this specific case, whether there is one intellect or many; because even if there were only one, it would necessarily be an individual intellect, and the species through which it understands would be an individual species.

Reply Obj. 4: Whether the intellect be one or many, what is understood is one; for what is understood is in the intellect, not according to its own nature, but according to its likeness; for "the stone is not in the soul, but its likeness is," as is said, De Anima iii, 8. Yet it is the stone which is understood, not the likeness of the stone; except by a reflection of the intellect on itself: otherwise, the objects of sciences would not be things, but only intelligible species. Now it happens that different things, according to different forms, are likened to the same thing. And since knowledge is begotten according to the assimilation of the knower to the thing known, it follows that the same thing may happen to be known by several knowers; as is apparent in regard to the senses; for several see the same color, according to different likenesses. In the same way several intellects understand one object understood. But there is this difference, according to the opinion of Aristotle, between the sense and the intelligence—that a thing is perceived by the sense according to the disposition which it has outside the soul—that is, in its individuality; whereas the nature of the thing understood is indeed outside the soul, but the mode according to which it exists outside the soul is not the mode according to which it is understood. For the common nature is understood as apart from the individuating principles; whereas such is not its mode of existence outside the soul. But, according to the opinion of Plato, the thing understood exists outside the soul in the same condition as those under which it is understood; for he supposed that the natures of things exist separate from matter.

Reply Obj. 4: Whether the intellect is one or many, what is understood is one; because what is understood exists in the intellect, not according to its own nature, but according to its likeness; for "the stone is not in the soul, but its likeness is," as stated in De Anima iii, 8. Yet it is the stone that is understood, not just the likeness of the stone; except through a reflection of the intellect on itself: otherwise, the objects of sciences would not be real things, but only intelligible forms. Different things can resemble the same thing in different ways. And since knowledge arises from the conformity of the knower to the thing known, it follows that the same thing can be known by multiple knowers; as is evident with the senses, where several people see the same color through different likenesses. Similarly, multiple intellects can understand one object that is understood. However, there is a difference, according to Aristotle, between sense and intelligence— a thing is perceived by the senses based on its external properties, that is, in its individuality; while the nature of the thing understood is outside the soul, but the way it exists outside the soul is not the same way it is understood. The common nature is understood apart from the individual principles; however, that is not how it exists outside the soul. According to Plato, the understood thing exists outside the soul in the same condition as when it is understood; for he believed that the natures of things exist separately from matter.

Reply Obj. 5: One knowledge exists in the disciple and another in the master. How it is caused will be shown later on (Q. 117, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 5: There is one kind of knowledge in the disciple and another in the master. The way this is brought about will be explained later (Q. 117, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 6: Augustine denies a plurality of souls, that would involve a plurality of species. _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: Augustine rejects the idea of multiple souls, as that would imply the existence of multiple species.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 3]

Whether Besides the Intellectual Soul There Are in Man Other Souls
Essentially Different from One Another?

Whether Besides the Intellectual Soul There Are in Man Other Souls
Essentially Different from One Another?

Objection 1: It would seem that besides the intellectual soul there are in man other souls essentially different from one another, such as the sensitive soul and the nutritive soul. For corruptible and incorruptible are not of the same substance. But the intellectual soul is incorruptible; whereas the other souls, as the sensitive and the nutritive, are corruptible, as was shown above (Q. 75, A. 6). Therefore in man the essence of the intellectual soul, the sensitive soul, and the nutritive soul, cannot be the same.

Objection 1: It seems that in addition to the intellectual soul, there are other types of souls in humans that are fundamentally different from each other, like the sensitive soul and the nutritive soul. Corruptible and incorruptible substances aren't the same. The intellectual soul is incorruptible, while the other souls, such as the sensitive and the nutritive, are corruptible, as previously discussed (Q. 75, A. 6). Therefore, the essence of the intellectual soul, the sensitive soul, and the nutritive soul in humans cannot be the same.

Obj. 2: Further, if it be said that the sensitive soul in man is incorruptible; on the contrary, "corruptible and incorruptible differ generically," says the Philosopher, Metaph. x (Did. ix, 10). But the sensitive soul in the horse, the lion, and other brute animals, is corruptible. If, therefore, in man it be incorruptible, the sensitive soul in man and brute animals will not be of the same genus. Now an animal is so called from its having a sensitive soul; and, therefore, "animal" will not be one genus common to man and other animals, which is absurd.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, if someone claims that the sensitive soul in humans is incorruptible; on the contrary, "corruptible and incorruptible differ in kind," says the Philosopher, Metaph. x (Did. ix, 10). However, the sensitive soul in horses, lions, and other animals is corruptible. Therefore, if it is incorruptible in humans, the sensitive soul in humans and animals would not belong to the same category. An animal is defined by having a sensitive soul; thus, "animal" cannot be a common category for both humans and other animals, which is absurd.

Obj. 3: Further, the Philosopher says, Metaph. viii (Did. vii, 2), that the genus is taken from the matter, and difference from the form. But "rational," which is the difference constituting man, is taken from the intellectual soul; while he is called "animal" by reason of his having a body animated by a sensitive soul. Therefore the intellectual soul may be compared to the body animated by a sensitive soul, as form to matter. Therefore in man the intellectual soul is not essentially the same as the sensitive soul, but presupposes it as a material subject.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the Philosopher says in Metaph. viii (Did. vii, 2), that the genus is derived from the matter, and the difference comes from the form. However, "rational," which is the distinguishing factor that makes someone human, comes from the intellectual soul; while he is referred to as "animal" because he has a body that is animated by a sensitive soul. Thus, the intellectual soul can be compared to the body animated by a sensitive soul, just like form is to matter. Therefore, in humans, the intellectual soul is not essentially the same as the sensitive soul, but it relies on it as a material subject.

On the contrary, It is said in the book De Ecclesiasticis Dogmatibus xv: "Nor do we say that there are two souls in one man, as James and other Syrians write; one, animal, by which the body is animated, and which is mingled with the blood; the other, spiritual, which obeys the reason; but we say that it is one and the same soul in man, that both gives life to the body by being united to it, and orders itself by its own reasoning."

On the contrary, the book De Ecclesiasticis Dogmatibus xv states: "We do not claim that there are two souls in one person, as James and other Syrians assert; one is the animal soul, which animates the body and is mixed with the blood, and the other is the spiritual soul, which follows reason; rather, we assert that there is one and the same soul in humans, which both gives life to the body through its union with it and organizes itself through its own reasoning."

I answer that, Plato held that there were several souls in one body, distinct even as to organs, to which souls he referred the different vital actions, saying that the nutritive power is in the liver, the concupiscible in the heart, and the power of knowledge in the brain. Which opinion is rejected by Aristotle (De Anima ii, 2), with regard to those parts of the soul which use corporeal organs; for this reason, that in those animals which continue to live when they have been divided in each part are observed the operations of the soul, as sense and appetite. Now this would not be the case if the various principles of the soul's operations were essentially different, and distributed in the various parts of the body. But with regard to the intellectual part, he seems to leave it in doubt whether it be "only logically" distinct from the other parts of the soul, "or also locally."

I answer that, Plato believed that there are multiple souls within one body, each distinct even in terms of organs, to which he attributed different vital actions, stating that the nutritive function is in the liver, the desire in the heart, and the intellectual capacity in the brain. Aristotle rejects this view (De Anima ii, 2) concerning those parts of the soul that use physical organs; he argues that in animals that continue to live even after being divided, the operations of the soul, such as perception and desire, are still observed. This wouldn’t happen if the different principles governing the soul's functions were fundamentally different and spread throughout the body’s parts. However, regarding the intellectual aspect, he seems unsure whether it is "only logically" distinct from the other parts of the soul, "or also locally."

The opinion of Plato might be maintained if, as he held, the soul was supposed to be united to the body, not as its form, but as its motor. For it involves nothing unreasonable that the same movable thing be moved by several motors; and still less if it be moved according to its various parts. If we suppose, however, that the soul is united to the body as its form, it is quite impossible for several essentially different souls to be in one body. This can be made clear by three different reasons.

The view of Plato could be upheld if, as he believed, the soul is connected to the body, not as its shape, but as its mover. It’s not unreasonable to think that a single movable object can be moved by multiple agents; even less so if it’s moved according to its different parts. However, if we assume that the soul is linked to the body as its form, it becomes impossible for multiple fundamentally different souls to exist within one body. This can be clarified by three distinct reasons.

In the first place, an animal would not be absolutely one, in which there were several souls. For nothing is absolutely one except by one form, by which a thing has existence: because a thing has from the same source both existence and unity; and therefore things which are denominated by various forms are not absolutely one; as, for instance, "a white man." If, therefore, man were living by one form, the vegetative soul, and animal by another form, the sensitive soul, and man by another form, the intellectual soul, it would follow that man is not absolutely one. Thus Aristotle argues, Metaph. viii (Did. vii, 6), against Plato, that if the idea of an animal is distinct from the idea of a biped, then a biped animal is not absolutely one. For this reason, against those who hold that there are several souls in the body, he asks (De Anima i, 5), "what contains them?"—that is, what makes them one? It cannot be said that they are united by the one body; because rather does the soul contain the body and make it one, than the reverse.

First of all, an animal wouldn't be completely one if it had multiple souls. Nothing is truly one unless it has one form that gives it existence; because a thing has both existence and unity from the same source. Therefore, things defined by different forms aren't completely one—for example, "a white man." So, if a man were living by one form, the vegetative soul, and functioning as an animal by another form, the sensitive soul, and referred to as man by yet another form, the intellectual soul, it would mean that man is not completely one. Thus, Aristotle argues in Metaph. viii (Did. vii, 6) against Plato that if the concept of an animal is different from the concept of a biped, then a biped animal isn't completely one. For this reason, against those who believe there are multiple souls in the body, he asks in (De Anima i, 5), "what holds them together?"—that is, what makes them one? It can't be said that they are united by the single body because, instead, the soul contains the body and makes it one, rather than the other way around.

Secondly, this is proved to be impossible by the manner in which one thing is predicated of another. Those things which are derived from various forms are predicated of one another, either accidentally, (if the forms are not ordered to one another, as when we say that something white is sweet), or essentially, in the second manner of essential predication, (if the forms are ordered one to another, the subject belonging to the definition of the predicate; as a surface is presupposed to color; so that if we say that a body with a surface is colored, we have the second manner of essential predication.) Therefore, if we have one form by which a thing is an animal, and another form by which it is a man, it follows either that one of these two things could not be predicated of the other, except accidentally, supposing these two forms not to be ordered to one another—or that one would be predicated of the other according to the second manner of essential predication, if one soul be presupposed to the other. But both of these consequences are clearly false: because "animal" is predicated of man essentially and not accidentally; and man is not part of the definition of an animal, but the other way about. Therefore of necessity by the same form a thing is animal and man; otherwise man would not really be the thing which is an animal, so that animal can be essentially predicated of man.

Secondly, this is shown to be impossible by how one thing is stated in relation to another. Things that come from different forms can refer to each other in two ways: either accidentally (when the forms aren't related, like when we say something white is sweet) or essentially (when the forms are connected, with the subject being part of the predicate's definition; for example, a surface is necessary for color, so when we say a body with a surface is colored, we have essential predication). If we have one form that makes something an animal and another that makes it a man, it suggests that one of these can't be described in relation to the other except by accident, assuming these forms aren't connected—or that one would relate to the other in an essential way if one soul is assumed to support the other. However, both these ideas are clearly wrong: because "animal" is essentially applied to man, not accidentally; and man is not part of the definition of an animal, but rather the other way around. Therefore, it must be that by the same form, a thing is both an animal and a man; otherwise, man wouldn't truly be what is an animal, which means that animal can be essentially applied to man.

Thirdly, this is shown to be impossible by the fact that when one operation of the soul is intense it impedes another, which could never be the case unless the principle of action were essentially one.

Thirdly, this is proven to be impossible by the fact that when one mental activity is intense, it interferes with another, which could never happen unless the principle of action were fundamentally one.

We must therefore conclude that in man the sensitive soul, the intellectual soul, and the nutritive soul are numerically one soul. This can easily be explained, if we consider the differences of species and forms. For we observe that the species and forms of things differ from one another, as the perfect and imperfect; as in the order of things, the animate are more perfect than the inanimate, and animals more perfect than plants, and man than brute animals; and in each of these genera there are various degrees. For this reason Aristotle, Metaph. viii (Did. vii, 3), compares the species of things to numbers, which differ in species by the addition or subtraction of unity. And (De Anima ii, 3) he compares the various souls to the species of figures, one of which contains another; as a pentagon contains and exceeds a tetragon. Thus the intellectual soul contains virtually whatever belongs to the sensitive soul of brute animals, and to the nutritive souls of plants. Therefore, as a surface which is of a pentagonal shape, is not tetragonal by one shape, and pentagonal by another—since a tetragonal shape would be superfluous as contained in the pentagonal—so neither is Socrates a man by one soul, and animal by another; but by one and the same soul he is both animal and man.

We must conclude that in humans, the sensitive soul, the intellectual soul, and the nutritive soul are all essentially one soul. This can be easily understood if we think about the differences among species and forms. We see that the species and forms of things vary from one another, with some being more perfect than others; for example, in the hierarchy of beings, animals are more perfect than plants, and humans are more perfect than non-human animals. Each of these categories has its own varying degrees of perfection. For this reason, Aristotle, Metaph. viii (Did. vii, 3), compares the species of things to numbers, which differ in type through the addition or subtraction of one unity. And (De Anima ii, 3) he compares the different souls to types of shapes, where one can contain another; for instance, a pentagon contains and surpasses a tetragon. Thus, the intellectual soul includes everything that belongs to the sensitive soul of non-human animals and the nutritive souls of plants. Therefore, just as a pentagonal shape is not tetragonal in one aspect and pentagonal in another—since a tetragonal shape would be redundant as it is included in the pentagonal—Socrates is not a man by one soul and an animal by another; instead, he is both an animal and a man by one and the same soul.

Reply Obj. 1: The sensitive soul is incorruptible, not by reason of its being sensitive, but by reason of its being intellectual. When, therefore, a soul is sensitive only, it is corruptible; but when with sensibility it has also intellectuality, it is incorruptible. For although sensibility does not give incorruptibility, yet it cannot deprive intellectuality of its incorruptibility.

Reply Obj. 1: The sensitive soul is incorruptible, not because it is sensitive, but because it is intellectual. Therefore, when a soul is only sensitive, it can be corrupted; but when it has both sensitivity and intellect, it remains incorruptible. While sensitivity does not confer incorruptibility, it also cannot take away the incorruptibility that comes from intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: Not forms, but composites, are classified either generically or specifically. Now man is corruptible like other animals. And so the difference of corruptible and incorruptible which is on the part of the forms does not involve a generic difference between man and the other animals.

Reply Obj. 2: It’s not forms that are classified generically or specifically, but composites. Now, humans are corruptible like other animals. Therefore, the distinction between corruptible and incorruptible, regarding the forms, doesn’t create a generic difference between humans and other animals.

Reply Obj. 3: The embryo has first of all a soul which is merely sensitive, and when this is removed, it is supplanted by a more perfect soul, which is both sensitive and intellectual: as will be shown further on (Q. 118, A. 2, ad 2).

Reply Obj. 3: The embryo initially has a soul that is simply sensitive, and when this is taken away, it is replaced by a more advanced soul that is both sensitive and intellectual: as will be explained later (Q. 118, A. 2, ad 2).

Reply Obj. 4: We must not consider the diversity of natural things as proceeding from the various logical notions or intentions, which flow from our manner of understanding, because reason can apprehend one and the same thing in various ways. Therefore since, as we have said, the intellectual soul contains virtually what belongs to the sensitive soul, and something more, reason can consider separately what belongs to the power of the sensitive soul, as something imperfect and material. And because it observes that this is something common to man and to other animals, it forms thence the notion of the genus; while that wherein the intellectual soul exceeds the sensitive soul, it takes as formal and perfecting; thence it gathers the "difference" of man. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: We shouldn't think of the variety of natural things as coming from different logical ideas or intentions that arise from how we understand things, because reason can perceive the same thing in different ways. Therefore, since, as we've mentioned, the intellectual soul contains what belongs to the sensitive soul, plus more, reason can separately consider what belongs to the sensitive soul as something imperfect and material. And because it sees that this is something shared by humans and other animals, it forms the concept of the genus; while what the intellectual soul has that the sensitive soul does not, it views as formal and fulfilling; from this, it derives the "difference" of humans.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 4]

Whether in Man There Is Another Form Besides the Intellectual Soul?

Whether in Man There Is Another Form Besides the Intellectual Soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that in man there is another form besides the intellectual soul. For the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 1), that "the soul is the act of a physical body which has life potentially." Therefore the soul is to the body as a form of matter. But the body has a substantial form by which it is a body. Therefore some other substantial form in the body precedes the soul.

Objection 1: It seems that in humans, there is another form besides the intellectual soul. The Philosopher states (De Anima ii, 1) that "the soul is the act of a physical body that has the potential for life." Therefore, the soul is to the body as a form is to matter. But the body has a substantial form that makes it a body. So, there must be some other substantial form in the body that exists before the soul.

Obj. 2: Further, man moves himself as every animal does. Now everything that moves itself is divided into two parts, of which one moves, and the other is moved, as the Philosopher proves (Phys. viii, 5). But the part which moves is the soul. Therefore the other part must be such that it can be moved. But primary matter cannot be moved (Phys. v, 1), since it is a being only potentially; indeed everything that is moved is a body. Therefore in man and in every animal there must be another substantial form, by which the body is constituted.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, humans move themselves just like any other animal. Now, everything that moves itself is divided into two parts: one part moves, and the other is moved, as the Philosopher demonstrates (Phys. viii, 5). The part that moves is the soul. Therefore, the other part must be capable of being moved. However, primary matter cannot be moved (Phys. v, 1), since it is only potentially a being; in fact, everything that is moved is a body. Therefore, in humans and in every animal, there must be another substantial form that makes up the body.

Obj. 3: Further, the order of forms depends on their relation to primary matter; for "before" and "after" apply by comparison to some beginning. Therefore if there were not in man some other substantial form besides the rational soul, and if this were to inhere immediately to primary matter; it would follow that it ranks among the most imperfect forms which inhere to matter immediately.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the sequence of forms relies on how they relate to primary matter; the terms "before" and "after" are used in relation to a starting point. Thus, if there were not another substantial form within man aside from the rational soul, and if this were to exist directly within primary matter, it would mean that it is classified as one of the most imperfect forms that directly exist within matter.

Obj. 4: Further, the human body is a mixed body. Now mingling does not result from matter alone; for then we should have mere corruption. Therefore the forms of the elements must remain in a mixed body; and these are substantial forms. Therefore in the human body there are other substantial forms besides the intellectual soul.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the human body is a composite entity. Now, mixing does not occur from matter alone; otherwise, we would only have degeneration. Therefore, the forms of the elements must continue to exist in a mixed body, and these are substantial forms. Hence, in the human body, there are other substantial forms in addition to the intellectual soul.

On the contrary, Of one thing there is but one substantial being. But the substantial form gives substantial being. Therefore of one thing there is but one substantial form. But the soul is the substantial form of man. Therefore it is impossible for there to be in man another substantial form besides the intellectual soul.

On the contrary, there is only one true existence for any one thing. The essential nature grants that existence. Therefore, there is only one essential nature for one thing. The soul is the essential nature of a person. Hence, it’s impossible for a person to have another essential nature apart from the intellectual soul.

I answer that, If we suppose that the intellectual soul is not united to the body as its form, but only as its motor, as the Platonists maintain, it would necessarily follow that in man there is another substantial form, by which the body is established in its being as movable by the soul. If, however, the intellectual soul be united to the body as its substantial form, as we have said above (A. 1), it is impossible for another substantial form besides the intellectual soul to be found in man.

I respond that, If we assume that the intellectual soul is not connected to the body as its form, but only as its mover, as the Platonists argue, it would necessarily follow that there is another essential form in humans, which allows the body to exist as it is moved by the soul. However, if the intellectual soul is connected to the body as its essential form, as we mentioned earlier (A. 1), then it is impossible for there to be another essential form in humans besides the intellectual soul.

In order to make this evident, we must consider that the substantial form differs from the accidental form in this, that the accidental form does not make a thing to be "simply," but to be "such," as heat does not make a thing to be simply, but only to be hot. Therefore by the coming of the accidental form a thing is not said to be made or generated simply, but to be made such, or to be in some particular condition; and in like manner, when an accidental form is removed, a thing is said to be corrupted, not simply, but relatively. Now the substantial form gives being simply; therefore by its coming a thing is said to be generated simply; and by its removal to be corrupted simply. For this reason, the old natural philosophers, who held that primary matter was some actual being—for instance, fire or air, or something of that sort—maintained that nothing is generated simply, or corrupted simply; and stated that "every becoming is nothing but an alteration," as we read, Phys. i, 4. Therefore, if besides the intellectual soul there pre-existed in matter another substantial form by which the subject of the soul were made an actual being, it would follow that the soul does not give being simply; and consequently that it is not the substantial form: and so at the advent of the soul there would not be simple generation; nor at its removal simple corruption, all of which is clearly false.

To make this clear, we need to understand that substantial form is different from accidental form in that accidental form does not make something to be "just" itself, but to be "specific," like how heat doesn’t make something simply exist but instead makes it hot. So, when an accidental form appears, something isn’t said to be created or generated simply, but to be created as a certain type, or to be in a specific state; similarly, when an accidental form is taken away, a thing is said to be corrupted, not simply, but in relation to that state. In contrast, the substantial form gives existence simply; thus, when it comes into play, we say something is generated simply, and when it is removed, it is corrupted simply. This is also why ancient natural philosophers, who believed that primary matter was an actual entity—like fire or air or something similar—argued that nothing is generated simply or corrupted simply; they claimed that "every change is just an alteration," as noted in Phys. i, 4. Therefore, if, alongside the intellectual soul, there was another substantial form already existing in matter that made the subject of the soul an actual being, it would mean that the soul does not provide existence simply; and thus it is not the substantial form; which would imply that the arrival of the soul doesn’t result in simple generation, nor does its departure lead to simple corruption, all of which is clearly untrue.

Whence we must conclude, that there is no other substantial form in man besides the intellectual soul; and that the soul, as it virtually contains the sensitive and nutritive souls, so does it virtually contain all inferior forms, and itself alone does whatever the imperfect forms do in other things. The same is to be said of the sensitive soul in brute animals, and of the nutritive soul in plants, and universally of all more perfect forms with regard to the imperfect.

Whence we must conclude, that there is no other substantial form in man besides the intellectual soul; and that the soul, as it virtually contains the sensitive and nutritive souls, so does it virtually contain all inferior forms, and itself alone does whatever the imperfect forms do in other things. The same is to be said of the sensitive soul in brute animals, and of the nutritive soul in plants, and universally of all more perfect forms with regard to the imperfect.

Reply Obj. 1: Aristotle does not say that the soul is the act of a body only, but "the act of a physical organic body which has life potentially"; and that this potentiality "does not reject the soul." Whence it is clear that when the soul is called the act, the soul itself is included; as when we say that heat is the act of what is hot, and light of what is lucid; not as though lucid and light were two separate things, but because a thing is made lucid by the light. In like manner, the soul is said to be the "act of a body," etc., because by the soul it is a body, and is organic, and has life potentially. Yet the first act is said to be in potentiality to the second act, which is operation; for such a potentiality "does not reject"—that is, does not exclude—the soul.

Reply Obj. 1: Aristotle doesn’t claim that the soul is just the act of a body, but rather "the act of a physical organic body that has life potentially"; and this potentiality "does not exclude the soul." Therefore, it's clear that when we refer to the soul as the act, the soul itself is included; similar to how we say that heat is the act of something hot, and light of something illuminated; not as if illuminated and light are two separate things, but because something becomes illuminated through light. In the same way, the soul is described as the "act of a body," etc., because it is what makes a body organic and alive potentially. However, the first act is said to be in potentiality to the second act, which is operation; for this kind of potentiality "does not exclude"—meaning it does not leave out—the soul.

Reply Obj. 2: The soul does not move the body by its essence, as the form of the body, but by the motive power, the act of which presupposes the body to be already actualized by the soul: so that the soul by its motive power is the part which moves; and the animate body is the part moved.

Reply Obj. 2: The soul doesn't move the body by its essence, like the body's form, but by its motivating power, which requires the body to already be actualized by the soul. Thus, the soul, through its motivating power, is what moves, while the living body is what gets moved.

Reply Obj. 3: We observe in matter various degrees of perfection, as existence, living, sensing, and understanding. Now what is added is always more perfect. Therefore that form which gives matter only the first degree of perfection is the most imperfect; while that form which gives the first, second, and third degree, and so on, is the most perfect: and yet it inheres to matter immediately.

Reply Obj. 3: We see different levels of perfection in matter, such as existence, life, sensation, and understanding. Whatever is added is always more perfect. So, the form that only gives matter the first level of perfection is the least perfect; whereas the form that provides the first, second, third levels, and so on, is the most perfect: and it is still directly connected to matter.

Reply Obj. 4: Avicenna held that the substantial forms of the elements remain entire in the mixed body; and that the mixture is made by the contrary qualities of the elements being reduced to an average. But this is impossible, because the various forms of the elements must necessarily be in various parts of matter; for the distinction of which we must suppose dimensions, without which matter cannot be divisible. Now matter subject to dimension is not to be found except in a body. But various bodies cannot be in the same place. Whence it follows that elements in the mixed body would be distinct as to situation. And then there would not be a real mixture which is in respect of the whole; but only a mixture apparent to sense, by the juxtaposition of particles.

Reply Obj. 4: Avicenna believed that the essential forms of the elements stay intact in a mixed body, and that the mixture occurs when the opposing qualities of the elements balance out. However, this is not possible, because the different forms of the elements must necessarily exist in different parts of matter; for this distinction, we must assume dimensions, without which matter cannot be divided. Matter that has dimensions can only be found in a body. But different bodies cannot occupy the same space. Therefore, the elements in the mixed body would have to be separate in terms of location. As a result, there wouldn't be a true mixture concerning the whole; instead, there would only be an apparent mixture perceived by the senses, created by the proximity of particles.

Averroes maintained that the forms of elements, by reason of their imperfection, are a medium between accidental and substantial forms, and so can be "more" or "less"; and therefore in the mixture they are modified and reduced to an average, so that one form emerges from them. But this is even still more impossible. For the substantial being of each thing consists in something indivisible, and every addition and subtraction varies the species, as in numbers, as stated in Metaph. viii (Did. vii, 3); and consequently it is impossible for any substantial form to receive "more" or "less." Nor is it less impossible for anything to be a medium between substance and accident.

Averroes argued that the forms of elements, due to their imperfections, serve as a middle ground between accidental and substantial forms, which means they can have varying degrees; thus, in a mixture, they are modified and combined to produce an average, resulting in one form arising from them. However, this is even less feasible. The essential nature of each thing is rooted in something indivisible, and any addition or removal changes its species, as noted in Metaph. viii (Did. vii, 3); consequently, it's impossible for any substantial form to have "more" or "less." Similarly, it is equally impossible for anything to exist as a middle ground between substance and accident.

Therefore we must say, in accordance with the Philosopher (De Gener. i, 10), that the forms of the elements remain in the mixed body, not actually but virtually. For the proper qualities of the elements remain, though modified; and in them is the power of the elementary forms. This quality of the mixture is the proper disposition for the substantial form of the mixed body; for instance, the form of a stone, or of any sort of soul. _______________________

Therefore, we must say, following the Philosopher (De Gener. i, 10), that the forms of the elements exist in the mixed body, not in a direct way but in a potential way. The specific qualities of the elements persist, although they are altered; and within them lies the power of the elemental forms. This quality of the mixture is the right setting for the essential form of the mixed body; for example, the form of a stone, or any type of soul.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 5]

Whether the Intellectual Soul Is Properly United to Such a Body?

Whether the Intellectual Soul Is Properly Connected to Such a Body?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellectual soul is improperly united to such a body. For matter must be proportionate to the form. But the intellectual soul is incorruptible. Therefore it is not properly united to a corruptible body.

Objection 1: It appears that the intellectual soul is not properly connected to such a body. For matter must match the form. But the intellectual soul is eternal. Therefore, it is not properly joined to a mortal body.

Obj. 2: Further, the intellectual soul is a perfectly immaterial form; a proof whereof is its operation in which corporeal matter does not share. But the more subtle is the body, the less has it of matter. Therefore the soul should be united to a most subtle body, to fire, for instance, and not to a mixed body, still less to a terrestrial body.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the intellectual soul is a completely immaterial form; evidence of this is seen in its function, which does not involve physical matter. However, the more refined the body is, the less material it contains. Therefore, the soul should be connected to a very refined body, like fire, rather than to a mixed body, and certainly not to a physical body.

Obj. 3: Further, since the form is the principle of the species, one form cannot produce a variety of species. But the intellectual soul is one form. Therefore, it should not be united to a body which is composed of parts belonging to various species.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, since a form is the principle of its species, one form cannot create multiple species. But the intellectual soul is a single form. Therefore, it shouldn't be united with a body made up of parts from different species.

Obj. 4: Further, what is susceptible of a more perfect form should itself be more perfect. But the intellectual soul is the most perfect of souls. Therefore since the bodies of other animals are naturally provided with a covering, for instance, with hair instead of clothes, and hoofs instead of shoes; and are, moreover, naturally provided with arms, as claws, teeth, and horns; it seems that the intellectual soul should not have been united to a body which is imperfect as being deprived of the above means of protection.

Obj. 4: Additionally, something that can take on a more perfect form should itself be more perfect. But the intellectual soul is the most perfect of souls. Since the bodies of other animals are naturally equipped with coverings, like hair instead of clothes, and hooves instead of shoes; and are also naturally designed with protection, such as claws, teeth, and horns; it seems that the intellectual soul should not be connected to a body that is imperfect due to lacking these protective features.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 1), that "the soul is the act of a physical organic body having life potentially."

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 1), that "the soul is the realization of a living physical body with the potential for life."

I answer that, Since the form is not for the matter, but rather the matter for the form, we must gather from the form the reason why the matter is such as it is; and not conversely. Now the intellectual soul, as we have seen above (Q. 55, A. 2) in the order of nature, holds the lowest place among intellectual substances; inasmuch as it is not naturally gifted with the knowledge of truth, as the angels are; but has to gather knowledge from individual things by way of the senses, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii). But nature never fails in necessary things: therefore the intellectual soul had to be endowed not only with the power of understanding, but also with the power of feeling. Now the action of the senses is not performed without a corporeal instrument. Therefore it behooved the intellectual soul to be united to a body fitted to be a convenient organ of sense.

I answer that, since the form exists for the matter, and not the other way around, we need to understand the form to explain why the matter is as it is, and not the reverse. The intellectual soul holds the lowest position among intellectual beings in the natural order, as it is not innately equipped with the knowledge of truth like the angels are; rather, it has to acquire knowledge from individual things through the senses, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. vii). However, nature does not fail in essential matters; therefore, the intellectual soul needed to be given not only the ability to understand but also the ability to feel. The action of the senses cannot occur without a physical instrument. Thus, it was necessary for the intellectual soul to be connected to a body that serves as a suitable organ for sensing.

Now all the other senses are based on the sense of touch. But the organ of touch requires to be a medium between contraries, such as hot and cold, wet and dry, and the like, of which the sense of touch has the perception; thus it is in potentiality with regard to contraries, and is able to perceive them. Therefore the more the organ of touch is reduced to an equable complexion, the more sensitive will be the touch. But the intellectual soul has the power of sense in all its completeness; because what belongs to the inferior nature pre-exists more perfectly in the superior, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. v). Therefore the body to which the intellectual soul is united should be a mixed body, above others reduced to the most equable complexion. For this reason among animals, man has the best sense of touch. And among men, those who have the best sense of touch have the best intelligence. A sign of which is that we observe "those who are refined in body are well endowed in mind," as stated in De Anima ii, 9.

Now all the other senses relate to the sense of touch. The organ of touch needs to act as a medium between opposites, like hot and cold, wet and dry, and so on, which the sense of touch can perceive; it is thus in potentiality regarding these opposites and can sense them. Therefore, the more the organ of touch achieves a balanced state, the more sensitive the touch becomes. However, the intellectual soul possesses the power of sensation in its entirety; what is found in the lower nature exists more perfectly in the higher, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. v). Thus, the body connected to the intellectual soul should be a mixed body, ideally balanced to the greatest extent. For this reason, among animals, humans have the best sense of touch. Furthermore, among humans, those with the best sense of touch also tend to have the best intelligence. An indication of this is that we see "those who are refined in body are well endowed in mind," as stated in De Anima ii, 9.

Reply Obj. 1: Perhaps someone might attempt to answer this by saying that before sin the human body was incorruptible. This answer does not seem sufficient; because before sin the human body was immortal not by nature, but by a gift of Divine grace; otherwise its immortality would not be forfeited through sin, as neither was the immortality of the devil.

Reply Obj. 1: Someone might try to say that before sin, the human body was incorruptible. However, this answer doesn't seem enough because before sin, the human body was immortal not by nature, but as a gift of Divine grace; otherwise, its immortality wouldn't have been lost through sin, just like the devil's immortality wasn't lost.

Therefore we answer otherwise by observing that in matter two conditions are to be found; one which is chosen in order that the matter be suitable to the form; the other which follows by force of the first disposition. The artisan, for instance, for the form of the saw chooses iron adapted for cutting through hard material; but that the teeth of the saw may become blunt and rusted, follows by force of the matter itself. So the intellectual soul requires a body of equable complexion, which, however, is corruptible by force of its matter. If, however, it be said that God could avoid this, we answer that in the formation of natural things we do not consider what God might do; but what is suitable to the nature of things, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii, 1). God, however, provided in this case by applying a remedy against death in the gift of grace.

So, we respond differently by noting that in matter, there are two conditions: one chosen to make the matter suitable for the form, and the other that naturally follows from the first condition. For example, an artisan selects iron for a saw that is appropriate for cutting through hard materials; however, the fact that the teeth of the saw can become dull and rusted is a result of the nature of the material itself. Similarly, the intellectual soul needs a body with a balanced composition, which can still become corruptible due to its material nature. If someone argues that God could prevent this, we reply that when discussing the formation of natural things, we should focus on what is suitable to the nature of those things, as Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. ii, 1). Nevertheless, God addressed this issue by offering a remedy against death through the gift of grace.

Reply Obj. 2: A body is not necessary to the intellectual soul by reason of its intellectual operation considered as such; but on account of the sensitive power, which requires an organ of equable temperament. Therefore the intellectual soul had to be united to such a body, and not to a simple element, or to a mixed body, in which fire was in excess; because otherwise there could not be an equability of temperament. And this body of an equable temperament has a dignity of its own by reason of its being remote from contraries, thereby resembling in a way a heavenly body.

Reply Obj. 2: A body isn't necessary for the intellectual soul just for its intellectual functions; rather, it's needed for the sensitive power, which requires an organ with a balanced temperament. So, the intellectual soul had to be connected to a body like this, not a simple element or a mixed body that had too much fire; otherwise, there wouldn't be a balance of temperament. And this body with a balanced temperament has its own dignity since it is free from opposites, making it somewhat similar to a heavenly body.

Reply Obj. 3: The parts of an animal, for instance, the eye, hand, flesh, and bones, and so forth, do not make the species; but the whole does, and therefore, properly speaking, we cannot say that these are of different species, but that they are of various dispositions. This is suitable to the intellectual soul, which, although it be one in its essence, yet on account of its perfection, is manifold in power: and therefore, for its various operations it requires various dispositions in the parts of the body to which it is united. For this reason we observe that there is a greater variety of parts in perfect than in imperfect animals; and in these a greater variety than in plants.

Reply Obj. 3: The parts of an animal, like the eye, hand, flesh, and bones, don’t define the species; it’s the whole animal that does. So, we can’t really say these are different species, but rather that they have different forms. This applies to the intellectual soul, which, while being one in essence, has many powers due to its perfection. Because of this, it needs different forms in the body parts it’s connected to for its various functions. That’s why we see more variety in the parts of perfect animals compared to imperfect ones, and even more variety in those than in plants.

Reply Obj. 4: The intellectual soul as comprehending universals, has a power extending to the infinite; therefore it cannot be limited by nature to certain fixed natural notions, or even to certain fixed means whether of defence or of clothing, as is the case with other animals, the souls of which are endowed with knowledge and power in regard to fixed particular things. Instead of all these, man has by nature his reason and his hands, which are "the organs of organs" (De Anima iii), since by their means man can make for himself instruments of an infinite variety, and for any number of purposes. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The intellectual soul, which understands universals, has an ability that goes on infinitely; therefore, it can't be restricted by nature to specific fixed ideas, or even to certain fixed tools for defense or clothing, like other animals, whose souls have knowledge and power regarding specific particular things. Instead of all this, humans naturally have their reason and hands, which are "the organs of organs" (De Anima iii), since through them, humans can create instruments with an infinite variety and for countless purposes.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 6]

Whether the Intellectual Soul Is United to the Body Through the Medium of Accidental Dispositions?

Whether the Intellectual Soul is Connected to the Body Through Accidental Traits?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellectual soul is united to the body through the medium of accidental dispositions. For every form exists in its proper disposed matter. But dispositions to a form are accidents. Therefore we must presuppose accidents to be in matter before the substantial form; and therefore before the soul, since the soul is a substantial form.

Objection 1: It appears that the intellectual soul is connected to the body through incidental traits. Every form exists in its appropriately prepared matter. However, traits leading to a form are accidents. Therefore, we must assume that accidents exist in matter before the substantial form; and thus before the soul, since the soul is a substantial form.

Obj. 2: Further, various forms of one species require various parts of matter. But various parts of matter are unintelligible without division in measurable quantities. Therefore we must suppose dimensions in matter before the substantial forms, which are many belonging to one species.

Obj. 2: Additionally, different forms of one species need different types of matter. But different types of matter are incomprehensible without dividing them into measurable quantities. Therefore, we must assume the existence of dimensions in matter before the various substantial forms, which belong to one species.

Obj. 3: Further, what is spiritual is connected with what is corporeal by virtual contact. But the virtue of the soul is its power. Therefore it seems that the soul is united to the body by means of a power, which is an accident.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the spiritual is linked to the physical through a virtual connection. However, the virtue of the soul is its power. Thus, it appears that the soul is connected to the body through a power, which is an accident.

On the contrary, Accident is posterior to substance, both in the order of time and in the order of reason, as the Philosopher says, Metaph. vii (Did. vi, 1). Therefore it is unintelligible that any accidental form exist in matter before the soul, which is the substantial form.

On the contrary, Accident comes after substance, both in terms of time and reasoning, as the Philosopher states in Metaph. vii (Did. vi, 1). Therefore, it doesn’t make sense for any accidental form to exist in matter before the soul, which is the substantial form.

I answer that, If the soul were united to the body, merely as a motor, there would be nothing to prevent the existence of certain dispositions mediating between the soul and the body; on the contrary, they would be necessary, for on the part of the soul would be required the power to move the body; and on the part of the body, a certain aptitude to be moved by the soul.

I respond that, If the soul were connected to the body simply as a mover, there would be nothing stopping the presence of certain dispositions linking the soul and the body; in fact, they would be essential, because the soul would need the ability to move the body, and the body would need a certain readiness to be moved by the soul.

If, however, the intellectual soul is united to the body as the substantial form, as we have already said above (A. 1), it is impossible for any accidental disposition to come between the body and the soul, or between any substantial form whatever and its matter. The reason is because since matter is in potentiality to all manner of acts in a certain order, what is absolutely first among the acts must be understood as being first in matter. Now the first among all acts is existence. Therefore, it is impossible for matter to be apprehended as hot, or as having quantity, before it is actual. But matter has actual existence by the substantial form, which makes it to exist absolutely, as we have said above (A. 4). Wherefore it is impossible for any accidental dispositions to pre-exist in matter before the substantial form, and consequently before the soul.

If the intellectual soul is joined to the body as its essential form, as we mentioned earlier (A. 1), then no accidental traits can exist between the body and the soul, or between any essential form and its matter. This is because matter is potentially capable of various actions in a certain sequence, and what is fundamentally first among those actions must be considered first in matter. The most fundamental of all actions is existence. Therefore, matter cannot be perceived as hot, or having dimensions, before it is actualized. Matter acquires actual existence through the essential form, which causes it to exist completely, as we noted before (A. 4). Thus, it's impossible for any accidental traits to exist in matter before the essential form, and consequently before the soul.

Reply Obj. 1: As appears from what has been already said (A. 4), the more perfect form virtually contains whatever belongs to the inferior forms; therefore while remaining one and the same, it perfects matter according to the various degrees of perfection. For the same essential form makes man an actual being, a body, a living being, an animal, and a man. Now it is clear that to every genus follow its own proper accidents. Therefore as matter is apprehended as perfected in its existence, before it is understood as corporeal, and so on; so those accidents which belong to existence are understood to exist before corporeity; and thus dispositions are understood in matter before the form, not as regards all its effects, but as regards the subsequent effect.

Reply Obj. 1: As has already been stated (A. 4), the more perfect form contains everything that belongs to the lower forms; thus, while remaining the same, it enhances matter according to different levels of perfection. The same essential form makes a person an actual being, a body, a living being, an animal, and a human. It is clear that each category has its own specific characteristics. Therefore, just as matter is seen as perfected in its existence before it is recognized as physical, the characteristics related to existence are understood to be present before physicality; hence, qualities are recognized in matter before the form, not in terms of all its effects, but in relation to the subsequent effect.

Reply Obj. 2: Dimensions of quantity are accidents consequent to the corporeity which belongs to the whole matter. Wherefore matter, once understood as corporeal and measurable, can be understood as distinct in its various parts, and as receptive of different forms according to the further degrees of perfection. For although it is essentially the same form which gives matter the various degrees of perfection, as we have said (ad 1), yet it is considered as different when brought under the observation of reason.

Reply Obj. 2: Dimensions of quantity are characteristics that come from the physical nature of the whole matter. Therefore, once matter is understood as physical and measurable, it can be recognized as separate in its different parts and able to take on various forms depending on higher levels of perfection. Although the same basic form gives matter its various levels of perfection, as we mentioned (ad 1), it is viewed as different when analyzed by reason.

Reply Obj. 3: A spiritual substance which is united to a body as its motor only, is united thereto by power or virtue. But the intellectual soul is united by its very being to the body as a form; and yet it guides and moves the body by its power and virtue. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: A spiritual substance that is connected to a body merely as its mover is united to it by power or virtue. However, the intellectual soul is connected to the body as a form by its very essence; still, it directs and moves the body through its power and virtue.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 7]

Whether the Soul Is United to the Animal Body by Means of a Body?

Whether the Soul is Connected to the Animal Body Through a Body?

Objection 1: It seems that the soul is united to the animal body by means of a body. For Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. vii, 19), that "the soul administers the body by light," that is, by fire, "and by air, which is most akin to a spirit." But fire and air are bodies. Therefore the soul is united to the human body by means of a body.

Objection 1: It seems that the soul is connected to the animal body through a physical body. Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. vii, 19) that "the soul manages the body through light," meaning through fire, "and by air, which is closest to a spirit." But fire and air are physical bodies. Therefore, the soul is connected to the human body through a physical body.

Obj. 2: Further, a link between two things seems to be that thing the removal of which involves the cessation of their union. But when breathing ceases, the soul is separated from the body. Therefore the breath, which is a subtle body, is the means of union between soul and body.

Obj. 2: Additionally, a connection between two things appears to be that element whose removal leads to the end of their association. When breathing stops, the soul separates from the body. Hence, breath, which is a subtle body, serves as the bridge between the soul and the body.

Obj. 3: Further, things which are very distant from one another, are not united except by something between them. But the intellectual soul is very distant from the body, both because it is incorporeal, and because it is incorruptible. Therefore it seems to be united to the body by means of an incorruptible body, and such would be some heavenly light, which would harmonize the elements, and unite them together.

Obj. 3: Additionally, things that are far apart from each other can only be connected through something that lies between them. However, the intellectual soul is very far from the body, both because it is non-physical and because it is eternal. Therefore, it appears to be united with the body through an everlasting body, which could be some celestial light that brings the elements together and creates harmony among them.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 1): "We need not ask if the soul and body are one, as neither do we ask if wax and its shape are one." But the shape is united to the wax without a body intervening. Therefore also the soul is thus united to the body.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 1): "We don't need to question whether the soul and body are one, just like we don't need to question if wax and its shape are one." But the shape is connected to the wax without any body getting in the way. Therefore, the soul is also connected to the body in this way.

I answer that, If the soul, according to the Platonists, were united to the body merely as a motor, it would be right to say that some other bodies must intervene between the soul and body of man, or any animal whatever; for a motor naturally moves what is distant from it by means of something nearer.

I respond that, if the soul, according to the Platonists, is connected to the body only as a mover, then it would make sense to say that there must be other bodies intervening between the soul and the body of humans or any other animals; because a mover typically influences what is far away through something that is closer.

If, however, the soul is united to the body as its form, as we have said (A. 1), it is impossible for it to be united by means of another body. The reason of this is that a thing is one, according as it is a being. Now the form, through itself, makes a thing to be actual since it is itself essentially an act; nor does it give existence by means of something else. Wherefore the unity of a thing composed of matter and form, is by virtue of the form itself, which by reason of its very nature is united to matter as its act. Nor is there any other cause of union except the agent, which causes matter to be in act, as the Philosopher says, Metaph. viii (Did. vii, 6).

If the soul is connected to the body as its form, as we've mentioned (A. 1), then it's impossible for it to be joined by another body. The reason is that something is considered one based on its existence. The form itself brings something into existence since it is fundamentally an actual entity; it doesn't grant existence through something else. Therefore, the unity of a thing made up of matter and form comes from the form itself, which, by its very nature, is connected to matter as its act. There is no other reason for this connection except for the agent that causes matter to be actual, as the Philosopher states in Metaph. viii (Did. vii, 6).

From this it is clear how false are the opinions of those who maintained the existence of some mediate bodies between the soul and body of man. Of these certain Platonists said that the intellectual soul has an incorruptible body naturally united to it, from which it is never separated, and by means of which it is united to the corruptible body of man. Others said that the soul is united to the body by means of a corporeal spirit. Others said it is united to the body by means of light, which, they say, is a body and of the nature of the fifth essence; so that the vegetative soul would be united to the body by means of the light of the sidereal heaven; the sensible soul, by means of the light of the crystal heaven; and the intellectual soul by means of the light of the empyrean heaven. Now all this is fictitious and ridiculous: for light is not a body; and the fifth essence does not enter materially into the composition of a mixed body (since it is unchangeable), but only virtually: and lastly, because the soul is immediately united to the body as the form to matter.

From this, it's clear how mistaken the views are of those who claim there are some intermediary entities between the soul and body of a person. Some Platonists argued that the intellectual soul has an incorruptible body that is naturally linked to it, from which it is never separated, and through which it is connected to the corruptible body of man. Others claimed that the soul is connected to the body through a physical spirit. Some believed it was connected to the body through light, which they argue is a body and part of the fifth essence; thus, the vegetative soul would be linked to the body by the light of the night sky, the sensitive soul by the light of the crystal sphere, and the intellectual soul by the light of the highest heaven. All of this is made-up and absurd: for light is not a body; and the fifth essence does not physically contribute to the makeup of a mixed body (since it is unchangeable), but only in a virtual sense; and finally, because the soul is directly connected to the body like form is to matter.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine speaks there of the soul as it moves the body; whence he uses the word "administration." It is true that it moves the grosser parts of the body by the more subtle parts. And the first instrument of the motive power is a kind of spirit, as the Philosopher says in De causa motus animalium (De mot. animal. x).

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine talks about the soul's role in moving the body, which is why he uses the term "administration." It is indeed the case that it influences the heavier parts of the body through the lighter parts. The primary tool of this movement is a type of spirit, as the Philosopher states in De causa motus animalium (De mot. animal. x).

Reply Obj. 2: The union of soul and body ceases at the cessation of breath, not because this is the means of union, but because of the removal of that disposition by which the body is disposed for such a union. Nevertheless the breath is a means of moving, as the first instrument of motion.

Reply Obj. 2: The connection between the soul and body ends when breathing stops, not because breath is what unites them, but because the condition that allows for that union is no longer present. However, breath is a way of movement, serving as the primary tool for motion.

Reply Obj. 3: The soul is indeed very distant from the body, if we consider the condition of each separately: so that if each had a separate existence, many means of connection would have to intervene. But inasmuch as the soul is the form of the body, it has not an existence apart from the existence of the body, but by its own existence is united to the body immediately. This is the case with every form which, if considered as an act, is very distant from matter, which is a being only in potentiality. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The soul is certainly far from the body when we look at each one on its own: if they were to exist separately, a lot of connections would need to be made. However, since the soul is the essence of the body, it doesn’t exist apart from the body; rather, it is directly linked to the body through its own existence. This applies to every form, which, when seen as an action, is quite distant from matter, which only exists in potential.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 76, Art. 8]

Whether the Soul Is in Each Part of the Body?

Whether the Soul Is in Each Part of the Body?

Objection 1: It would seem that the whole soul is not in each part of the body; for the Philosopher says in De causa motus animalium (De mot. animal. x): "It is not necessary for the soul to be in each part of the body; it suffices that it be in some principle of the body causing the other parts to live, for each part has a natural movement of its own."

Objection 1: It seems that the entire soul isn't contained in each part of the body; the Philosopher states in De causa motus animalium (De mot. animal. x): "It's not necessary for the soul to exist in every part of the body; it's enough for it to be in a principal part of the body that allows the other parts to live, since each part has its own natural movement."

Obj. 2: Further, the soul is in the body of which it is the act. But it is the act of an organic body. Therefore it exists only in an organic body. But each part of the human body is not an organic body. Therefore the whole soul is not in each part.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the soul is present in the body that it animates. But it animates an organic body. Therefore, it only exists in an organic body. However, each part of the human body is not an organic body. Thus, the entire soul is not contained in each part.

Obj. 3: Further, the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 1) that the relation of a part of the soul to a part of the body, such as the sight to the pupil of the eye, is the same as the relation of the soul to the whole body of an animal. If, therefore, the whole soul is in each part of the body, it follows that each part of the body is an animal.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the Philosopher states (De Anima ii, 1) that the connection between a part of the soul and a part of the body, like sight and the pupil of the eye, is the same as the connection between the soul and the entire body of an animal. Therefore, if the whole soul is present in each part of the body, it means that each part of the body is an animal.

Obj. 4: Further, all the powers of the soul are rooted in the essence of the soul. If, therefore, the whole soul be in each part of the body, it follows that all the powers of the soul are in each part of the body; thus the sight will be in the ear, and hearing in the eye, and this is absurd.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, all the abilities of the soul are based in the essence of the soul. If the entire soul is present in every part of the body, it follows that all the abilities of the soul are in every part of the body; therefore, sight would be in the ear, and hearing would be in the eye, which is ridiculous.

Obj. 5: Further, if the whole soul is in each part of the body, each part of the body is immediately dependent on the soul. Thus one part would not depend on another; nor would one part be nobler than another; which is clearly untrue. Therefore the soul is not in each part of the body.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, if the entire soul is present in every part of the body, then each part of the body is directly reliant on the soul. This means one part wouldn’t rely on another; nor would one part be more important than another; which is obviously false. Therefore, the soul is not in every part of the body.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 6), that "in each body the whole soul is in the whole body, and in each part is entire."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 6), that "in each body the whole soul is in the whole body, and in each part is complete."

I answer that, As we have said, if the soul were united to the body merely as its motor, we might say that it is not in each part of the body, but only in one part through which it would move the others. But since the soul is united to the body as its form, it must necessarily be in the whole body, and in each part thereof. For it is not an accidental form, but the substantial form of the body. Now the substantial form perfects not only the whole, but each part of the whole. For since a whole consists of parts, a form of the whole which does not give existence to each of the parts of the body, is a form consisting in composition and order, such as the form of a house; and such a form is accidental. But the soul is a substantial form; and therefore it must be the form and the act, not only of the whole, but also of each part. Therefore, on the withdrawal of the soul, as we do not speak of an animal or a man unless equivocally, as we speak of a painted animal or a stone animal; so is it with the hand, the eye, the flesh and bones, as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 1). A proof of which is, that on the withdrawal of the soul, no part of the body retains its proper action; although that which retains its species, retains the action of the species. But act is in that which it actuates: wherefore the soul must be in the whole body, and in each part thereof.

I respond that, as we've mentioned, if the soul were just linked to the body as its mover, we could argue that it isn't in every part of the body, but only in one part that communicates movement to the others. However, since the soul connects to the body as its form, it has to be present in the whole body and in each part of it. It’s not just an accidental form; it’s the essential form of the body. This essential form not only perfects the whole but also each part of it. Since a whole is made up of parts, a form that does not give life to each part of the body is a form based on composition and order, like the form of a house; and such a form is accidental. But the soul is an essential form, so it must serve as the form and the act not just of the whole but also of each part. Consequently, when the soul leaves, we wouldn’t refer to an animal or a person unless we were being vague, similar to how we refer to a painted animal or a stone representation of an animal; this applies to the hand, the eye, the flesh, and the bones, as the Philosopher states (De Anima ii, 1). A proof of this is that when the soul leaves, no part of the body keeps its specific function; though that which maintains its species retains the function of that species. But an action is in what it actuates; hence, the soul must be in the whole body and in each part of it.

That it is entire in each part thereof, may be concluded from this, that since a whole is that which is divided into parts, there are three kinds of totality, corresponding to three kinds of division. There is a whole which is divided into parts of quantity, as a whole line, or a whole body. There is also a whole which is divided into logical and essential parts: as a thing defined is divided into the parts of a definition, and a composite into matter and form. There is, further, a third kind of whole which is potential, divided into virtual parts. The first kind of totality does not apply to forms, except perhaps accidentally; and then only to those forms, which have an indifferent relationship to a quantitative whole and its parts; as whiteness, as far as its essence is concerned, is equally disposed to be in the whole surface and in each part of the surface; and, therefore, the surface being divided, the whiteness is accidentally divided. But a form which requires variety in the parts, such as a soul, and specially the soul of perfect animals, is not equally related to the whole and the parts: hence it is not divided accidentally when the whole is divided. So therefore quantitative totality cannot be attributed to the soul, either essentially or accidentally. But the second kind of totality, which depends on logical and essential perfection, properly and essentially belongs to forms: and likewise the virtual totality, because a form is the principle of operation.

That it is complete in each of its parts can be inferred from this: since a whole is something that is divided into parts, there are three types of wholeness, corresponding to three types of division. There is a whole that is divided into parts of quantity, like a whole line or a complete body. There is also a whole that is divided into logical and essential parts: for instance, a defined thing is divided into the components of a definition, and a composite entity is divided into matter and form. Additionally, there is a third type of whole which is potential, divided into virtual parts. The first kind of wholeness doesn’t apply to forms, unless by chance; and then only for those forms that have a neutral relationship to a quantitative whole and its parts; as whiteness, regarding its essence, is equally present in the whole surface and in each part of that surface; therefore, when the surface is divided, the whiteness is divided by chance. However, a form that requires variety in its parts, like a soul—especially the soul of perfect animals—does not have an equal relationship to the whole and its parts: hence it is not accidentally divided when the whole is divided. Therefore, quantitative wholeness cannot be assigned to the soul, either essentially or accidentally. But the second kind of wholeness, which is based on logical and essential completeness, properly and essentially belongs to forms; and similarly, virtual wholeness applies because a form is the principle of operation.

Therefore if it be asked whether the whole whiteness is in the whole surface and in each part thereof, it is necessary to distinguish. If we mean quantitative totality which whiteness has accidentally, then the whole whiteness is not in each part of the surface. The same is to be said of totality of power: since the whiteness which is in the whole surface moves the sight more than the whiteness which is in a small part thereof. But if we mean totality of species and essence, then the whole whiteness is in each part of a surface.

So, if someone asks whether the entire whiteness exists in the whole surface and in each of its parts, we need to make a distinction. If we're talking about the quantitative totality that whiteness has by accident, then the entire whiteness is not in each part of the surface. The same applies to the totality of power: the whiteness that covers the whole surface affects our sight more than the whiteness in a small part of it. However, if we're referring to the totality of species and essence, then the entire whiteness is present in each part of the surface.

Since, however, the soul has not quantitative totality, neither essentially, nor accidentally, as we have seen; it is enough to say that the whole soul is in each part of the body, by totality of perfection and of essence, but not by totality of power. For it is not in each part of the body, with regard to each of its powers; but with regard to sight, it is in the eye; and with regard to hearing, it is in the ear; and so forth. We must observe, however, that since the soul requires variety of parts, its relation to the whole is not the same as its relation to the parts; for to the whole it is compared primarily and essentially, as to its proper and proportionate perfectible; but to the parts, secondarily, inasmuch as they are ordained to the whole.

Since the soul doesn’t have a totality in a quantitative sense, neither fundamentally nor incidentally, as we’ve seen; it's enough to say that the whole soul exists in each part of the body in terms of perfection and essence, but not in terms of power. Each part of the body doesn't contain the soul in relation to all its abilities; for example, the soul is in the eye regarding sight, and in the ear regarding hearing, and so on. However, we should note that since the soul needs a variety of parts, its relationship to the whole is different from its relationship to the parts; it relates to the whole primarily and essentially, as it is aimed at completion and perfection, while it relates to the parts secondarily, as they are intended for the whole.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher is speaking there of the motive power of the soul.

Reply Obj. 1: The philosopher is discussing the driving force of the soul.

Reply Obj. 2: The soul is the act of an organic body, as of its primary and proportionate perfectible.

Reply Obj. 2: The soul is the function of an organic body, as its main and appropriately perfectible aspect.

Reply Obj. 3: An animal is that which is composed of a soul and a whole body, which is the soul's primary and proportionate perfectible. Thus the soul is not in a part. Whence it does not follow that a part of an animal is an animal.

Reply Obj. 3: An animal is something that has a soul and a complete body, which is the soul's main and fitting way to be perfected. Therefore, the soul is not just in a part of the body. So, it doesn't mean that a part of an animal is also an animal.

Reply Obj. 4: Some of the powers of the soul are in it according as it exceeds the entire capacity of the body, namely the intellect and the will; whence these powers are not said to be in any part of the body. Other powers are common to the soul and body; wherefore each of these powers need not be wherever the soul is, but only in that part of the body, which is adapted to the operation of such a power.

Reply Obj. 4: Some of the soul's abilities are in it because they go beyond what the body can fully handle, specifically the intellect and the will; therefore, these abilities aren’t attributed to any specific part of the body. Other abilities are shared between the soul and the body; thus, each of these abilities doesn't have to be present wherever the soul is, but only in the part of the body that is suited for that particular ability.

Reply Obj. 5: One part of the body is said to be nobler than another, on account of the various powers, of which the parts of the body are the organs. For that part which is the organ of a nobler power, is a nobler part of the body: as also is that part which serves the same power in a nobler manner. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: One part of the body is considered more noble than another because of the different functions that the parts serve as organs. The part that is the organ of a more noble function is a more noble part of the body, just like the part that supports the same function in a more noble way.

QUESTION 77

OF THOSE THINGS WHICH BELONG TO THE POWERS OF THE SOUL IN GENERAL
(In Eight Articles)

OF THOSE THINGS THAT RELATE TO THE POWERS OF THE SOUL IN GENERAL
(In Eight Articles)

We proceed to consider those things which belong to the powers of the soul; first, in general, secondly, in particular. Under the first head there are eight points of inquiry:

We will now look at the aspects that relate to the powers of the soul; first in a general sense, then in detail. Regarding the first part, there are eight questions to explore:

(1) Whether the essence of the soul is its power?

(1) Is the essence of the soul its power?

(2) Whether there is one power of the soul, or several?

(2) Is there one power of the soul, or are there several?

(3) How the powers of the soul are distinguished from one another?

(3) How are the powers of the soul distinguished from each other?

(4) Of the orders of the powers, one to another;

(4) Of the orders of the powers, one to another;

(5) Whether the powers of the soul are in it as in their subject?

(5) Are the powers of the soul present in it as if they are in their subject?

(6) Whether the powers flow from the essence of the soul?

(6) Do the powers come from the essence of the soul?

(7) Whether one power rises from another?

(7) Does one power rise from another?

(8) Whether all the powers of the soul remain in the soul after death? _______________________

(8) Do all the powers of the soul stay with the soul after death? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 1]

Whether the Essence of the Soul Is Its Power?

Whether the essence of the soul is its power?

Objection 1: It would seem that the essence of the soul is its power. For Augustine says (De Trin. ix, 4), that "mind, knowledge, and love are in the soul substantially, or, which is the same thing, essentially": and (De Trin. x, 11), that "memory, understanding, and will are one life, one mind, one essence."

Objection 1: It seems that the essence of the soul is its power. Augustine states (De Trin. ix, 4) that "mind, knowledge, and love are fundamentally, or essentially, part of the soul": and (De Trin. x, 11), that "memory, understanding, and will are one life, one mind, one essence."

Obj. 2: Further, the soul is nobler than primary matter. But primary matter is its own potentiality. Much more therefore is the soul its own power.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the soul is more noble than primary matter. However, primary matter has its own potential. Therefore, the soul has its own power to an even greater extent.

Obj. 3: Further, the substantial form is simpler than the accidental form; a sign of which is that the substantial form is not intensified or relaxed, but is indivisible. But the accidental form is its own power. Much more therefore is that substantial form which is the soul.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the substantial form is simpler than the accidental form; a sign of this is that the substantial form cannot be intensified or relaxed, as it is indivisible. On the other hand, the accidental form has its own power. Therefore, the substantial form, which is the soul, is of much greater significance.

Obj. 4: Further, we sense by the sensitive power and we understand by the intellectual power. But "that by which we first sense and understand" is the soul, according to the Philosopher (De Anima ii, 2). Therefore the soul is its own power.

Obj. 4: Additionally, we perceive through our senses and we comprehend through our intellect. But "that through which we first perceive and comprehend" is the soul, according to the Philosopher (De Anima ii, 2). Therefore, the soul is its own power.

Obj. 5: Further, whatever does not belong to the essence is an accident. Therefore if the power of the soul is something else besides the essence thereof, it is an accident, which is contrary to Augustine, who says that the foregoing (see Obj. 1) "are not in the soul as in a subject as color or shape, or any other quality, or quantity, are in a body; for whatever is so, does not exceed the subject in which it is: Whereas the mind can love and know other things" (De Trin. ix, 4).

Obj. 5: Additionally, anything that isn’t part of the essence is an accident. So, if the power of the soul is something other than its essence, it must be an accident, which goes against Augustine, who states that the previous things (see Obj. 1) "are not in the soul as properties like color or shape, or any other quality or quantity, are in a body; because whatever is like that doesn’t exceed the subject it belongs to: Whereas the mind can love and know other things" (De Trin. ix, 4).

Obj. 6: Further, "a simple form cannot be a subject." But the soul is a simple form; since it is not composed of matter and form, as we have said above (Q. 75, A. 5). Therefore the power of the soul cannot be in it as in a subject.

Obj. 6: Additionally, "a simple form cannot be a subject." However, the soul is a simple form; it is not made up of matter and form, as we mentioned earlier (Q. 75, A. 5). Therefore, the power of the soul cannot exist in it as it would in a subject.

Obj. 7: Further, an accident is not the principle of a substantial difference. But sensitive and rational are substantial differences; and they are taken from sense and reason, which are powers of the soul. Therefore the powers of the soul are not accidents; and so it would seem that the power of the soul is its own essence.

Obj. 7: Additionally, an accident is not the basis for a significant difference. However, sensitive and rational are significant differences; these come from sense and reason, which are abilities of the soul. Therefore, the abilities of the soul are not accidents; this suggests that the power of the soul is its own essence.

On the contrary, Dionysius (Coel. Hier. xi) says that "heavenly spirits are divided into essence, power, and operation." Much more, then, in the soul is the essence distinct from the virtue or power.

On the contrary, Dionysius (Coel. Hier. xi) states that "heavenly spirits are categorized into essence, power, and operation." Therefore, within the soul, the essence is different from the virtue or power.

I answer that, It is impossible to admit that the power of the soul is its essence, although some have maintained it. For the present purpose this may be proved in two ways. First, because, since power and act divide being and every kind of being, we must refer a power and its act to the same genus. Therefore, if the act be not in the genus of substance, the power directed to that act cannot be in the genus of substance. Now the operation of the soul is not in the genus of substance; for this belongs to God alone, whose operation is His own substance. Wherefore the Divine power which is the principle of His operation is the Divine Essence itself. This cannot be true either of the soul, or of any creature; as we have said above when speaking of the angels (Q. 54, A. 3). Secondly, this may be also shown to be impossible in the soul. For the soul by its very essence is an act. Therefore if the very essence of the soul were the immediate principle of operation, whatever has a soul would always have actual vital actions, as that which has a soul is always an actually living thing. For as a form the soul is not an act ordained to a further act, but the ultimate term of generation. Wherefore, for it to be in potentiality to another act, does not belong to it according to its essence, as a form, but according to its power. So the soul itself, as the subject of its power, is called the first act, with a further relation to the second act. Now we observe that what has a soul is not always actual with respect to its vital operations; whence also it is said in the definition of the soul, that it is "the act of a body having life potentially"; which potentiality, however, "does not exclude the soul." Therefore it follows that the essence of the soul is not its power. For nothing is in potentiality by reason of an act, as act.

I respond that, it's impossible to say that the power of the soul is its essence, even though some people claim otherwise. This can be demonstrated in two ways for our current discussion. First, because power and act distinguish different kinds of being, we need to relate a power and its act to the same category. So, if the act isn’t part of the substance category, then the power related to that act can’t be either. The operation of the soul doesn’t fall under the substance category; that's unique to God, whose operation is His very substance. Thus, the Divine power, which is the source of His actions, is the Divine Essence itself. This cannot be true for the soul or any other creature, as mentioned earlier regarding angels (Q. 54, A. 3). Secondly, we can also show that this is impossible regarding the soul. By its very essence, the soul is an act. So if the essence of the soul were the immediate source of operation, anything with a soul would always have active vital actions, since anything with a soul is always a living thing. As a form, the soul is not an act aimed at achieving another act but is rather the final result of generation. Therefore, being in potentiality for another act is not part of its essence as a form, but rather pertains to its power. Thus, the soul itself, as the subject of its power, is referred to as the first act, having a further relation to the second act. We observe that entities with souls are not always actively engaged in their vital functions; hence in the definition of the soul, it's stated that it is "the act of a body having life potentially"; however, this potentiality "does not exclude the soul." Therefore, it follows that the essence of the soul is not its power. Because nothing is in potentiality by virtue of an act, as act.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine is speaking of the mind as it knows and loves itself. Thus knowledge and love as referred to the soul as known and loved, are substantially or essentially in the soul, for the very substance or essence of the soul is known and loved. In the same way are we to understand what he says in the other passage, that those things are "one life, one mind, one essence." Or, as some say, this passage is true in the sense in which the potential whole is predicated of its parts, being midway between the universal whole, and the integral whole. For the universal whole is in each part according to its entire essence and power; as animal in a man and in a horse; and therefore it is properly predicated of each part. But the integral whole is not in each part, neither according to its whole essence, nor according to its whole power. Therefore in no way can it be predicated of each part; yet in a way it is predicated, though improperly, of all the parts together; as if we were to say that the wall, roof, and foundations are a house. But the potential whole is in each part according to its whole essence, not, however, according to its whole power. Therefore in a way it can be predicated of each part, but not so properly as the universal whole. In this sense, Augustine says that the memory, understanding, and the will are the one essence of the soul.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine is talking about the mind as it knows and loves itself. So, knowledge and love, in relation to the soul as known and loved, are fundamentally part of the soul because the very essence of the soul is known and loved. We should interpret what he says in the other passage about those things being "one life, one mind, one essence" in the same way. Some people argue that this passage is true in the sense that the potential whole is described by its parts, positioned between the universal whole and the integral whole. The universal whole exists in each part according to its complete essence and power, like the essence of an animal in both a man and a horse; thus, it can be accurately attributed to each part. However, the integral whole is not present in each part, neither in terms of its entire essence nor its entire power. Therefore, it cannot accurately be attributed to each part. Still, it can be incorrectly attributed to all the parts together, similar to saying that the wall, roof, and foundations make up a house. The potential whole exists in each part according to its complete essence, but not according to its complete power. Therefore, it can be somewhat attributed to each part, though not as correctly as the universal whole. In this sense, Augustine states that memory, understanding, and will represent the one essence of the soul.

Reply Obj. 2: The act to which primary matter is in potentiality is the substantial form. Therefore the potentiality of matter is nothing else but its essence.

Reply Obj. 2: The action that primary matter is capable of is the substantial form. So, the potential of matter is essentially its essence.

Reply Obj. 3: Action belongs to the composite, as does existence; for to act belongs to what exists. Now the composite has substantial existence through the substantial form; and it operates by the power which results from the substantial form. Hence an active accidental form is to the substantial form of the agent (for instance, heat compared to the form of fire) as the power of the soul is to the soul.

Reply Obj. 3: Action is related to the whole entity, just like existence is; because to take action is something that belongs to what exists. Now, the whole entity has substantial existence through its substantial form, and it functions by the power that comes from that substantial form. Therefore, an active accidental form is to the agent's substantial form (for example, heat in relation to the form of fire) as the power of the soul is to the soul itself.

Reply Obj. 4: That the accidental form is a principle of action is due to the substantial form. Therefore the substantial form is the first principle of action; but not the proximate principle. In this sense the Philosopher says that "the soul is that whereby we understand and sense."

Reply Obj. 4: The accidental form acts as a principle of action because of the substantial form. Therefore, the substantial form is the primary principle of action, but not the immediate principle. In this context, the Philosopher says that "the soul is what allows us to understand and perceive."

Reply Obj. 5: If we take accident as meaning what is divided against substance, then there can be no medium between substance and accident; because they are divided by affirmation and negation, that is, according to existence in a subject, and non-existence in a subject. In this sense, as the power of the soul is not its essence, it must be an accident; and it belongs to the second species of accident, that of quality. But if we take accident as one of the five universals, in this sense there is a medium between substance and accident. For the substance is all that belongs to the essence of a thing; whereas whatever is beyond the essence of a thing cannot be called accident in this sense; but only what is not caused by the essential principle of the species. For the 'proper' does not belong to the essence of a thing, but is caused by the essential principles of the species; wherefore it is a medium between the essence and accident thus understood. In this sense the powers of the soul may be said to be a medium between substance and accident, as being natural properties of the soul. When Augustine says that knowledge and love are not in the soul as accidents in a subject, this must be understood in the sense given above, inasmuch as they are compared to the soul, not as loving and knowing, but as loved and known. His argument proceeds in this sense; for if love were in the soul loved as in a subject, it would follow that an accident transcends its subject, since even other things are loved through the soul.

Reply Obj. 5: If we define "accident" as something that is different from substance, then there can't be anything in between substance and accident; they are separated by affirmation and negation, meaning existence in something and non-existence in something. In this context, since the power of the soul isn't its essence, it must be an accident, specifically a type of accident related to quality. However, if we define accident as one of the five universals, then there is a middle ground between substance and accident. Substance encompasses everything that is essential to a thing, while anything beyond a thing's essence cannot be considered an accident in this sense; only what is not generated by the essential principle of the species can be called an accident. The "proper" does not belong to the essence of a thing but is caused by the essential principles of its species; therefore, it sits between essence and accident as understood here. In this sense, the powers of the soul can be viewed as a middle ground between substance and accident, since they are natural properties of the soul. When Augustine states that knowledge and love are not found in the soul as accidents within a subject, this should be interpreted in the way mentioned earlier, in that they are compared to the soul, not as loving and knowing, but as being loved and known. His argument develops in this way; for if love were in the soul as something loved, it would imply that an accident surpasses its subject, as other entities are loved through the soul.

Reply Obj. 6: Although the soul is not composed of matter and form, yet it has an admixture of potentiality, as we have said above (Q. 75, A. 5, ad 4); and for this reason it can be the subject of an accident. The statement quoted is verified in God, Who is the Pure Act; in treating of which subject Boethius employs that phrase (De Trin. i).

Reply Obj. 6: Although the soul isn’t made up of matter and form, it still has a mix of potentiality, as we mentioned earlier (Q. 75, A. 5, ad 4); and for this reason, it can be the subject of an accident. The statement quoted is true in God, Who is Pure Act; regarding this topic, Boethius uses that phrase (De Trin. i).

Reply Obj. 7: Rational and sensitive, as differences, are not taken from the powers of sense and reason, but from the sensitive and rational soul itself. But because substantial forms, which in themselves are unknown to us, are known by their accidents; nothing prevents us from sometimes substituting accidents for substantial differences. _______________________

Reply Obj. 7: Rational and sensitive, as differences, are not derived from the abilities of sense and reason, but from the sensitive and rational soul itself. However, since substantial forms, which are inherently unknown to us, are recognized by their accidents; nothing stops us from occasionally using accidents in place of substantial differences. _______________________

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 2]

Whether There Are Several Powers of the Soul?

Whether There Are Several Powers of the Soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that there are not several powers of the soul. For the intellectual soul approaches nearest to the likeness of God. But in God there is one simple power: and therefore also in the intellectual soul.

Objection 1: It seems that the soul doesn’t have multiple powers. The intellectual soul is most similar to God. But in God, there is one simple power; therefore, the intellectual soul must have only one as well.

Obj. 2: Further, the higher a power is, the more unified it is. But the intellectual soul excels all other forms in power. Therefore above all others it has one virtue or power.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the higher a power is, the more unified it becomes. However, the intellectual soul surpasses all other forms in power. Therefore, it possesses one unique virtue or power above all others.

Obj. 3: Further, to operate belongs to what is in act. But by the one essence of the soul, man has actual existence in the different degrees of perfection, as we have seen above (Q. 76, AA. 3, 4). Therefore by the one power of the soul he performs operations of various degrees.

Obj. 3: Additionally, to operate belongs to what is active. But through the single essence of the soul, a person has actual existence in various degrees of perfection, as mentioned earlier (Q. 76, AA. 3, 4). Consequently, through the one power of the soul, a person carries out actions of different levels.

On the contrary, The Philosopher places several powers in the soul (De Anima ii, 2,3).

On the contrary, The Philosopher identifies several abilities within the soul (De Anima ii, 2,3).

I answer that, Of necessity we must place several powers in the soul. To make this evident, we observe that, as the Philosopher says (De Coelo ii, 12), the lowest order of things cannot acquire perfect goodness, but they acquire a certain imperfect goodness, by few movements; and those which belong to a higher order acquire perfect goodness by many movements; and those yet higher acquire perfect goodness by few movements; and the highest perfection is found in those things which acquire perfect goodness without any movement whatever. Thus he is least of all disposed of health, who can only acquire imperfect health by means of a few remedies; better disposed is he who can acquire perfect health by means of many remedies; and better still, he who can by few remedies; best of all is he who has perfect health without any remedies. We conclude, therefore, that things which are below man acquire a certain limited goodness; and so they have a few determinate operations and powers. But man can acquire universal and perfect goodness, because he can acquire beatitude. Yet he is in the last degree, according to his nature, of those to whom beatitude is possible; therefore the human soul requires many and various operations and powers. But to angels a smaller variety of powers is sufficient. In God there is no power or action beyond His own Essence.

I answer that, We must necessarily recognize several powers in the soul. To make this clear, we see that, as the Philosopher states (De Coelo ii, 12), the lowest level of things cannot achieve perfect goodness; they can only attain a certain imperfect goodness through a few actions. In contrast, those at a higher level can achieve perfect goodness through many actions; those at an even higher level can achieve perfect goodness through only a few actions; and the highest perfection is found in those that attain perfect goodness without any action at all. Thus, a person who can only attain imperfect health through a few remedies is the least healthy, while someone who can achieve perfect health through many remedies is better off; even better is the one who can do so with just a few remedies; the best of all is the one who has perfect health without needing any remedies. Therefore, we conclude that things lower than humans attain a certain limited goodness, which gives them a few specific operations and powers. However, humans can achieve universal and perfect goodness because they can attain beatitude. Yet, according to their nature, they are the last in line when it comes to achieving beatitude; hence, the human soul needs many and varied operations and powers. Angels require a smaller range of powers. In God, there is no power or action beyond His own Essence.

There is yet another reason why the human soul abounds in a variety of powers—because it is on the confines of spiritual and corporeal creatures; and therefore the powers of both meet together in the soul.

There’s another reason why the human soul has so many powers—it exists at the boundary between spiritual and physical beings; therefore, the powers of both converge within the soul.

Reply Obj. 1: The intellectual soul approaches to the Divine likeness, more than inferior creatures, in being able to acquire perfect goodness; although by many and various means; and in this it falls short of more perfect creatures.

Reply Obj. 1: The intellectual soul is closer to the Divine likeness than lesser creatures because it can achieve perfect goodness, even though it does so through many different ways; however, it still falls short compared to more perfect beings.

Reply Obj. 2: A unified power is superior if it extends to equal things: but a multiform power is superior to it, if it is over many things.

Reply Obj. 2: A unified power is greater if it applies to similar things; however, a diverse power is stronger if it encompasses many different things.

Reply Obj. 3: One thing has one substantial existence, but may have several operations. So there is one essence of the soul, with several powers. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: One thing has one fundamental existence, but can have multiple functions. So, there is one essence of the soul, with different abilities.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 3]

Whether the Powers Are Distinguished by Their Acts and Objects?

Whether the powers are defined by what they do and what they focus on?

Objection 1: It would seem that the powers of the soul are not distinguished by acts and objects. For nothing is determined to its species by what is subsequent and extrinsic to it. But the act is subsequent to the power; and the object is extrinsic to it. Therefore the soul's powers are not specifically distinct by acts and objects.

Objection 1: It appears that the powers of the soul are not different based on their acts and objects. Nothing is categorized by what comes after it and is external to it. However, the act comes after the power, and the object is external to it. Therefore, the soul's powers are not specifically distinct based on acts and objects.

Obj. 2: Further, contraries are what differ most from each other. Therefore if the powers are distinguished by their objects, it follows that the same power could not have contrary objects. This is clearly false in almost all the powers; for the power of vision extends to white and black, and the power to taste to sweet and bitter.

Obj. 2: Also, opposites are what differ the most from each other. So, if the powers are defined by their objects, it follows that the same power could not have opposite objects. This is clearly not true for almost all powers; for the power of sight extends to white and black, and the power of taste to sweet and bitter.

Obj. 3: Further, if the cause be removed, the effect is removed. Hence if the difference of powers came from the difference of objects, the same object would not come under different powers. This is clearly false; for the same thing is known by the cognitive power, and desired by the appetitive.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if the cause is removed, the effect is also removed. Therefore, if the difference in powers arises from the difference in objects, the same object would not fall under different powers. This is obviously false; because the same thing is understood by the cognitive ability and desired by the appetitive desire.

Obj. 4: Further, that which of itself is the cause of anything, is the cause thereof, wherever it is. But various objects which belong to various powers, belong also to some one power; as sound and color belong to sight and hearing, which are different powers, yet they come under the one power of common sense. Therefore the powers are not distinguished according to the difference of their objects.

Obj. 4: Also, whatever is the cause of something is the cause of it, no matter where it is. Different objects that belong to different senses also belong to one common sense; for instance, sound and color are related to hearing and sight, which are different senses, but they fall under the single power of common sense. Therefore, the senses are not distinguished by the differences in their objects.

On the contrary, Things that are subsequent are distinguished by what precedes. But the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 4) that "acts and operations precede the powers according to reason; and these again are preceded by their opposites," that is their objects. Therefore the powers are distinguished according to their acts and objects.

On the contrary, Things that come afterward are defined by what comes before. But the Philosopher states (De Anima ii, 4) that "actions and operations come before the powers in a logical sense; and these are in turn preceded by their opposites," meaning their corresponding objects. Therefore, powers are identified based on their actions and objects.

I answer that, A power as such is directed to an act. Wherefore we seek to know the nature of a power from the act to which it is directed, and consequently the nature of a power is diversified, as the nature of the act is diversified. Now the nature of an act is diversified according to the various natures of the objects. For every act is either of an active power or of a passive power. Now, the object is to the act of a passive power, as the principle and moving cause: for color is the principle of vision, inasmuch as it moves the sight. On the other hand, to the act of an active power the object is a term and end; as the object of the power of growth is perfect quantity, which is the end of growth. Now, from these two things an act receives its species, namely, from its principle, or from its end or term; for the act of heating differs from the act of cooling, in this, that the former proceeds from something hot, which is the active principle, to heat; the latter from something cold, which is the active principle, to cold. Therefore the powers are of necessity distinguished by their acts and objects.

I answer that, A power is aimed at an action. Therefore, we try to understand the nature of a power based on the action it targets, which means the nature of a power varies with the nature of the action. The nature of an action varies according to the different types of objects involved. Every action is either from an active power or a passive power. The object serves as the principle and driving cause for the action of a passive power; for example, color is the principle of vision because it stimulates sight. In contrast, for an active power, the object is the goal and purpose; for instance, the object of the power of growth is perfect quantity, which is the goal of growth. Thus, an action gains its specific nature from either its principle or its goal or purpose; for instance, the act of heating is different from the act of cooling because the former comes from something hot, which acts as the active principle, to create heat, while the latter comes from something cold, which also acts as the active principle, to create cold. Therefore, powers must be distinguished by their actions and objects.

Nevertheless, we must observe that things which are accidental do not change the species. For since to be colored is accidental to an animal, its species is not changed by a difference of color, but by a difference in that which belongs to the nature of an animal, that is to say, by a difference in the sensitive soul, which is sometimes rational, and sometimes otherwise. Hence "rational" and "irrational" are differences dividing animal, constituting its various species. In like manner therefore, not any variety of objects diversifies the powers of the soul, but a difference in that to which the power of its very nature is directed. Thus the senses of their very nature are directed to the passive quality which of itself is divided into color, sound, and the like, and therefore there is one sensitive power with regard to color, namely, the sight, and another with regard to sound, namely, hearing. But it is accidental to a passive quality, for instance, to something colored, to be a musician or a grammarian, great or small, a man or a stone. Therefore by reason of such differences the powers of the soul are not distinct.

However, we need to recognize that accidental traits do not change the type of species. Being colored is an accidental quality for an animal, so a change in color doesn’t alter its species; instead, a change in what defines the nature of an animal does, meaning a difference in the sensitive soul, which can sometimes be rational and sometimes not. Thus, "rational" and "irrational" are distinctions that separate animals into their various species. Similarly, not every variation of objects changes the powers of the soul, but rather a difference in what that power is fundamentally aimed at. The senses are inherently directed towards passive qualities that can be divided into color, sound, and so on, which is why there is one sensitive power related to color, like sight, and another related to sound, like hearing. It is incidental to a passive quality, for example, something that is colored, to be a musician or a grammarian, large or small, a human or a stone. Therefore, due to such differences, the powers of the soul are not distinct.

Reply Obj. 1: Act, though subsequent in existence to power, is, nevertheless, prior to it in intention and logically; as the end is with regard to the agent. And the object, although extrinsic, is, nevertheless, the principle or end of the action; and those conditions which are intrinsic to a thing, are proportionate to its principle and end.

Reply Obj. 1: An action, even though it comes after the power to do it, is still prior to that power in terms of intention and logic; just as the end relates to the agent. The object, while external, is still the principle or purpose of the action; and the conditions that are intrinsic to a thing align with its principle and purpose.

Reply Obj. 2: If any power were to have one of two contraries as such for its object, the other contrary would belong to another power. But the power of the soul does not regard the nature of the contrary as such, but rather the common aspect of both contraries; as sight does not regard white as such, but as color. This is because of two contraries one, in a manner, includes the idea of the other, since they are to one another as perfect and imperfect.

Reply Obj. 2: If any power were to focus on one of two opposites, the other opposite would belong to a different power. However, the power of the soul doesn’t focus on the nature of the opposite itself, but rather on the shared aspect of both opposites; just as sight does not see white as a standalone color, but as part of the broader concept of color. This is because one opposite, in a sense, encompasses the idea of the other, given that they relate to one another as perfect and imperfect.

Reply Obj. 3: Nothing prevents things which coincide in subject, from being considered under different aspects; therefore they can belong to various powers of the soul.

Reply Obj. 3: Nothing stops things that share the same subject from being viewed in different ways; therefore, they can be part of different powers of the soul.

Reply Obj. 4: The higher power of itself regards a more universal formality of the object than the lower power; because the higher a power is, to a greater number of things does it extend. Therefore many things are combined in the one formality of the object, which the higher power considers of itself; while they differ in the formalities regarded by the lower powers of themselves. Thus it is that various objects belong to various lower powers; which objects, however, are subject to one higher power. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The higher power itself focuses on a more universal aspect of the object than the lower power does; because the higher the power, the more things it can encompass. Therefore, many things are unified in the one aspect of the object that the higher power considers, while they vary in the aspects looked at by the lower powers. This is why different objects relate to different lower powers; however, these objects are all subject to one higher power.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 4]

Whether Among the Powers of the Soul There Is Order?

Whether There Is Order Among the Powers of the Soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is no order among the powers of the soul. For in those things which come under one division, there is no before and after, but all are naturally simultaneous. But the powers of the soul are contradistinguished from one another. Therefore there is no order among them.

Objection 1: It seems there is no order among the powers of the soul. In things that belong to the same category, there is no before and after; they all naturally occur at the same time. However, the powers of the soul are distinctly different from each other. Therefore, there is no order among them.

Obj. 2: Further, the powers of the soul are referred to their objects and to the soul itself. On the part of the soul, there is not order among them, because the soul is one. In like manner the objects are various and dissimilar, as color and sound. Therefore there is no order among the powers of the soul.

Obj. 2: Also, the abilities of the soul are related to their objects and to the soul itself. As for the soul, there is no order among them because the soul is unified. Similarly, the objects are different and distinct, like color and sound. Therefore, there is no order among the powers of the soul.

Obj. 3: Further, where there is order among powers, we find that the operation of one depends on the operation of another. But the action of one power of the soul does not depend on that of another; for sight can act independently of hearing, and conversely. Therefore there is no order among the powers of the soul.

Obj. 3: Also, when there is order among abilities, we see that the functioning of one relies on the functioning of another. However, the action of one ability of the soul does not depend on another; for sight can function independently of hearing, and vice versa. Therefore, there is no order among the abilities of the soul.

On the contrary, The Philosopher (De Anima ii, 3) compares the parts or powers of the soul to figures. But figures have an order among themselves. Therefore the powers of the soul have order.

On the contrary, The Philosopher (De Anima ii, 3) compares the parts or abilities of the soul to shapes. But shapes have a hierarchy among themselves. Therefore, the abilities of the soul are also organized.

I answer that, Since the soul is one, and the powers are many; and since a number of things that proceed from one must proceed in a certain order; there must be some order among the powers of the soul. Accordingly we may observe a triple order among them, two of which correspond to the dependence of one power on another; while the third is taken from the order of the objects. Now the dependence of one power on another can be taken in two ways; according to the order of nature, forasmuch as perfect things are by their nature prior to imperfect things; and according to the order of generation and time; forasmuch as from being imperfect, a thing comes to be perfect. Thus, according to the first kind of order among the powers, the intellectual powers are prior to the sensitive powers; wherefore they direct them and command them. Likewise the sensitive powers are prior in this order to the powers of the nutritive soul.

I respond that, since the soul is one and the abilities are many, and since several things that come from one must follow a certain sequence, there must be some order among the soul's abilities. We can observe a threefold order among them, two of which relate to how one ability depends on another, while the third is based on the order of the objects. The dependence of one ability on another can be understood in two ways: according to the order of nature, since perfect things are inherently prior to imperfect ones; and according to the order of development and time, since something imperfect becomes perfect. Thus, in terms of the first type of order among the abilities, intellectual abilities are prior to sensitive abilities, which is why they guide and control them. Similarly, sensitive abilities precede the abilities of the nutritive soul in this order.

In the second kind of order, it is the other way about. For the powers of the nutritive soul are prior by way of generation to the powers of the sensitive soul; for which, therefore, they prepare the body. The same is to be said of the sensitive powers with regard to the intellectual. But in the third kind of order, certain sensitive powers are ordered among themselves, namely, sight, hearing, and smelling. For the visible naturally comes first; since it is common to higher and lower bodies. But sound is audible in the air, which is naturally prior to the mingling of elements, of which smell is the result.

In the second type of order, it's the opposite. The abilities of the nutritive soul come first in terms of generation compared to the abilities of the sensitive soul, which they prepare the body for. The same applies to the sensitive abilities in relation to the intellectual ones. In the third type of order, certain sensitive abilities are organized among themselves, specifically sight, hearing, and smell. Vision naturally comes first because it is shared by both higher and lower beings. Sound can be heard through the air, which naturally comes before the mixture of elements that leads to smell.

Reply Obj. 1: The species of a given genus are to one another as before and after, like numbers and figures, if considered in their nature; although they may be said to be simultaneous, according as they receive the predication of the common genus.

Reply Obj. 1: The species of a given genus relate to each other as before and after, similar to numbers and shapes, when looked at in their essence; even though they can be described as existing at the same time, depending on how they fall under the definition of the common genus.

Reply Obj. 2: This order among the powers of the soul is both on the part of the soul (which, though it be one according to its essence, has a certain aptitude to various acts in a certain order) and on the part of the objects, and furthermore on the part of the acts, as we have said above.

Reply Obj. 2: This arrangement among the powers of the soul exists both from the perspective of the soul (which, although it is one in essence, has a certain ability to perform various acts in a specific order) and from the perspective of the objects, and also from the perspective of the acts, as we mentioned earlier.

Reply Obj. 3: This argument is verified as regards those powers among which order of the third kind exists. Those powers among which the two other kinds of order exist are such that the action of one depends on another. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: This argument is confirmed concerning those powers where the third kind of order exists. The powers among which the other two kinds of order exist are such that the action of one depends on the other.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 5]

Whether All the Powers of the Soul Are in the Soul As Their Subject?

Whether all the powers of the soul exist within the soul as their subject?

Objection 1: It would seem that all the powers of the soul are in the soul as their subject. For as the powers of the body are to the body; so are the powers of the soul to the soul. But the body is the subject of the corporeal powers. Therefore the soul is the subject of the powers of the soul.

Objection 1: It seems that all the abilities of the soul exist in the soul as their source. Just as the abilities of the body relate to the body, so do the abilities of the soul relate to the soul. Since the body is the source of physical abilities, the soul must be the source of its own abilities.

Obj. 2: Further, the operations of the powers of the soul are attributed to the body by reason of the soul; because, as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 2), "The soul is that by which we sense and understand primarily." But the natural principles of the operations of the soul are the powers. Therefore the powers are primarily in the soul.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the activities of the soul's powers are linked to the body because of the soul; as the Philosopher states (De Anima ii, 2), "The soul is what allows us to sense and understand primarily." The natural principles behind the soul's operations are the powers. So, the powers are primarily found in the soul.

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 7,24) that the soul senses certain things, not through the body, in fact, without the body, as fear and such like; and some things through the body. But if the sensitive powers were not in the soul alone as their subject, the soul could not sense anything without the body. Therefore the soul is the subject of the sensitive powers; and for a similar reason, of all the other powers.

Obj. 3: Moreover, Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. xii, 7,24) that the soul perceives certain things, not through the body, in fact, without the body, such as fear and similar emotions; and some things through the body. If the sensitive powers were not located in the soul alone as their source, the soul wouldn’t be able to sense anything without the body. Thus, the soul is the source of the sensitive powers, and for a similar reason, of all the other powers.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Somno et Vigilia i) that "sensation belongs neither to the soul, nor to the body, but to the composite." Therefore the sensitive power is in "the composite" as its subject. Therefore the soul alone is not the subject of all the powers.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Somno et Vigilia i) that "sensation belongs neither to the soul nor to the body, but to the composite." Therefore, the sensitive power is in "the composite" as its subject. Thus, the soul alone is not the subject of all the powers.

I answer that, The subject of operative power is that which is able to operate, for every accident denominates its proper subject. Now the same is that which is able to operate, and that which does operate. Wherefore the "subject of power" is of necessity "the subject of operation," as again the Philosopher says in the beginning of De Somno et Vigilia. Now, it is clear from what we have said above (Q. 75, AA. 2, 3; Q. 76, A. 1, ad 1), that some operations of the soul are performed without a corporeal organ, as understanding and will. Hence the powers of these operations are in the soul as their subject. But some operations of the soul are performed by means of corporeal organs; as sight by the eye, and hearing by the ear. And so it is with all the other operations of the nutritive and sensitive parts. Therefore the powers which are the principles of these operations have their subject in the composite, and not in the soul alone.

I answer that, The subject of active power is what can perform an action, since every accident identifies its specific subject. Now, the one that is capable of acting is also the one that does act. Thus, "the subject of power" must necessarily be "the subject of operation," as the Philosopher states at the beginning of De Somno et Vigilia. It is clear from what we've discussed earlier (Q. 75, AA. 2, 3; Q. 76, A. 1, ad 1) that some actions of the soul occur without a physical organ, such as understanding and will. Therefore, the powers behind these actions reside in the soul as their subject. However, some actions of the soul are carried out using physical organs, like sight through the eye and hearing through the ear. The same applies to all other functions of the nutritive and sensitive parts. Consequently, the powers that guide these actions are rooted in the composite being, not solely in the soul.

Reply Obj. 1: All the powers are said to belong to the soul, not as their subject, but as their principle; because it is by the soul that the composite has the power to perform such operations.

Reply Obj. 1: All the powers are said to belong to the soul, not as their subject, but as their principle; because it is by the soul that the composite has the power to perform such operations.

Reply Obj. 2: All such powers are primarily in the soul, as compared to the composite; not as in their subject, but as in their principle.

Reply Obj. 2: All these powers are mainly in the soul, in comparison to the composite; not as in their subject, but as in their principle.

Reply Obj. 3: Plato's opinion was that sensation is an operation proper to the soul, just as understanding is. Now in many things relating to Philosophy Augustine makes use of the opinions of Plato, not asserting them as true, but relating them. However, as far as the present question is concerned, when it is said that the soul senses some things with the body, and some without the body, this can be taken in two ways. Firstly, the words "with the body or without the body" may determine the act of sense in its mode of proceeding from the sentient. Thus the soul senses nothing without the body, because the action of sensation cannot proceed from the soul except by a corporeal organ. Secondly, they may be understood as determining the act of sense on the part of the object sensed. Thus the soul senses some things with the body, that is, things existing in the body, as when it feels a wound or something of that sort; while it senses some things without the body, that is, which do not exist in the body, but only in the apprehension of the soul, as when it feels sad or joyful on hearing something. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Plato believed that sensation is an action specific to the soul, just like understanding is. Augustine often refers to Plato's ideas in his discussions on philosophy, not claiming they are true, but sharing them. Regarding the current question, when it’s said that the soul senses some things with the body and some without, this can be interpreted in two ways. First, "with the body or without the body" might refer to how the act of sensing comes from the one sensing. In this sense, the soul doesn’t sense anything without the body because the process of sensation can only happen through a physical organ. Second, this could be understood as relating to the nature of the objects being sensed. In this view, the soul senses certain things with the body, meaning things that are physically present, like when it feels a wound; while it senses other things without the body, meaning those that aren’t physically present but exist only in the soul's perception, like feelings of sadness or joy in response to something heard.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 6]

Whether the Powers of the Soul Flow from Its Essence?

Whether the Soul's Powers Come from Its Essence?

Objection 1: It would seem that the powers of the soul do not flow from its essence. For different things do not proceed from one simple thing. But the essence of the soul is one and simple. Since, therefore, the powers of the soul are many and various, they cannot proceed from its essence.

Objection 1: It seems that the powers of the soul do not come from its essence. Different things cannot come from a single, simple thing. But the essence of the soul is one and simple. Therefore, since the powers of the soul are many and varied, they cannot originate from its essence.

Obj. 2: Further, that from which a thing proceeds is its cause.
But the essence of the soul cannot be said to be the cause of the
powers; as is clear if one considers the different kinds of causes.
Therefore the powers of the soul do not flow from its essence.

Obj. 2: Additionally, what something comes from is its cause.
However, the essence of the soul can't be considered the cause of the
powers; this is evident when one examines the different types of causes.
Therefore, the powers of the soul do not originate from its essence.

Obj. 3: Further, emanation involves some sort of movement. But nothing is moved by itself, as the Philosopher proves (Phys. vii, 1,2); except, perhaps, by reason of a part of itself, as an animal is said to be moved by itself, because one part thereof moves and another is moved. Neither is the soul moved, as the Philosopher proves (De Anima i, 4). Therefore the soul does not produce its powers within itself.

Obj. 3: Additionally, emanation involves some kind of movement. However, nothing moves on its own, as the Philosopher demonstrates (Phys. vii, 1,2); unless, perhaps, due to a part of itself, as we say that an animal moves itself because one part moves while another is moved. The soul is also not moved, as the Philosopher shows (De Anima i, 4). Therefore, the soul does not generate its powers from within itself.

On the contrary, The powers of the soul are its natural properties. But the subject is the cause of its proper accidents; whence also it is included in the definition of accident, as is clear from Metaph. vii (Did. vi, 4). Therefore the powers of the soul proceed from its essence as their cause.

On the contrary, the powers of the soul are its natural traits. However, the subject is the reason for its specific characteristics; thus, it is part of the definition of an accident, as shown in Metaph. vii (Did. vi, 4). Therefore, the powers of the soul arise from its essence as their cause.

I answer that, The substantial and the accidental form partly agree and partly differ. They agree in this, that each is an act; and that by each of them something is after a manner actual. They differ, however, in two respects. First, because the substantial form makes a thing to exist absolutely, and its subject is something purely potential. But the accidental form does not make a thing to exist absolutely but to be such, or so great, or in some particular condition; for its subject is an actual being. Hence it is clear that actuality is observed in the substantial form prior to its being observed in the subject: and since that which is first in a genus is the cause in that genus, the substantial form causes existence in its subject. On the other hand, actuality is observed in the subject of the accidental form prior to its being observed in the accidental form; wherefore the actuality of the accidental form is caused by the actuality of the subject. So the subject, forasmuch as it is in potentiality, is receptive of the accidental form: but forasmuch as it is in act, it produces it. This I say of the proper and per se accident; for with regard to the extraneous accident, the subject is receptive only, the accident being caused by an extrinsic agent. Secondly, substantial and accidental forms differ, because, since that which is the less principal exists for the sake of that which is the more principal, matter therefore exists on account of the substantial form; while on the contrary, the accidental form exists on account of the completeness of the subject.

I respond that, the substantial form and the accidental form share some similarities and some differences. They are similar in that both are acts, and through each, something becomes actual in a certain way. However, they differ in two main aspects. First, the substantial form allows something to exist absolutely, while its subject is purely potential. In contrast, the accidental form does not grant absolute existence; instead, it makes something be a certain way, or of a certain size, or in a specific condition, as its subject is an actual being. Thus, it is clear that actuality is seen in the substantial form before it is seen in the subject, and since what comes first in a category is the cause in that category, the substantial form causes existence in its subject. On the flip side, actuality is observed in the subject of the accidental form before it is seen in the accidental form itself; therefore, the actuality of the accidental form is caused by the actuality of the subject. Consequently, the subject, in its potentiality, is capable of receiving the accidental form: but in its actuality, it produces it. This applies to the proper and per se accident; regarding the extraneous accident, the subject is only receptive, as the accident is caused by an external agent. Secondly, substantial and accidental forms differ because the less important aspect exists for the sake of the more important aspect, meaning that matter exists because of the substantial form, while, conversely, the accidental form exists due to the completeness of the subject.

Now it is clear, from what has been said (A. 5), that either the subject of the soul's powers is the soul itself alone, which can be the subject of an accident, forasmuch as it has something of potentiality, as we have said above (A. 1, ad 6); or else this subject is the composite. Now the composite is actual by the soul. Whence it is clear that all the powers of the soul, whether their subject be the soul alone, or the composite, flow from the essence of the soul, as from their principle; because it has already been said that the accident is caused by the subject according as it is actual, and is received into it according as it is in potentiality.

Now it’s clear, from what we've discussed (A. 5), that either the subject of the soul’s powers is the soul itself, which can be the subject of an accident since it possesses potentiality, as we mentioned earlier (A. 1, ad 6); or the subject is the composite. The composite exists through the soul. Therefore, it's clear that all the powers of the soul, whether their subject is just the soul or the composite, come from the essence of the soul, as their source; because it has already been stated that an accident is caused by the subject in its actual state and is received based on its potentiality.

Reply Obj. 1: From one simple thing many things may proceed naturally, in a certain order; or again if there be diversity of recipients. Thus, from the one essence of the soul many and various powers proceed; both because order exists among these powers; and also by reason of the diversity of the corporeal organs.

Reply Obj. 1: From one simple thing, many things can naturally emerge in a certain order, or there can be variations depending on the recipients. So, from the one essence of the soul, many different powers arise; both because there is an order among these powers and due to the diversity of the physical organs.

Reply Obj. 2: The subject is both the final cause, and in a way the active cause, of its proper accident. It is also as it were the material cause, inasmuch as it is receptive of the accident. From this we may gather that the essence of the soul is the cause of all its powers, as their end, and as their active principle; and of some as receptive thereof.

Reply Obj. 2: The subject is both the end goal and, in a way, the active cause of its specific accident. It also acts as the material cause since it can receive the accident. From this, we can conclude that the essence of the soul is the source of all its abilities, both as their purpose and as their active principle, and for some, as something that receives them.

Reply Obj. 3: The emanation of proper accidents from their subject is not by way of transmutation, but by a certain natural resultance; thus one thing results naturally from another, as color from light. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The way proper accidents come from their subject isn't by changing it, but through a natural consequence; just like one thing naturally follows another, such as color emerging from light.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 7]

Whether One Power of the Soul Arises from Another?

Whether One Power of the Soul Comes from Another?

Objection 1: It would seem that one power of the soul does not arise from another. For if several things arise together, one of them does not arise from another. But all the powers of the soul are created at the same time with the soul. Therefore one of them does not arise from another.

Objection 1: It seems that one power of the soul doesn’t come from another. Because if several things come into being at the same time, one of them doesn’t come from another. But all the powers of the soul are created simultaneously with the soul. Therefore, one of them doesn’t come from another.

Obj. 2: Further, the power of the soul arises from the soul as an accident from the subject. But one power of the soul cannot be the subject of another; because nothing is the accident of an accident. Therefore one power does not arise from another.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the power of the soul comes from the soul as an accident from the subject. However, one power of the soul cannot be the subject of another, because nothing can be the accident of an accident. Therefore, one power does not come from another.

Obj. 3: Further, one opposite does not arise from the other opposite; but everything arises from that which is like it in species. Now the powers of the soul are oppositely divided, as various species. Therefore one of them does not proceed from another.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, one opposite does not come from another opposite; rather, everything originates from something similar in nature. The powers of the soul are divided oppositely, as different types. Therefore, one of them does not arise from another.

On the contrary, Powers are known by their actions. But the action of one power is caused by the action of another power, as the action of the imagination by the action of the senses. Therefore one power of the soul is caused by another.

On the contrary, Powers are recognized by what they do. However, the action of one power is influenced by the action of another power, just like the imagination is influenced by the senses. Therefore, one power of the soul is influenced by another.

I answer that, In those things which proceed from one according to a natural order, as the first is the cause of all, so that which is nearer to the first is, in a way, the cause of those which are more remote. Now it has been shown above (A. 4) that among the powers of the soul there are several kinds of order. Therefore one power of the soul proceeds from the essence of the soul by the medium of another. But since the essence of the soul is compared to the powers both as a principle active and final, and as a receptive principle, either separately by itself, or together with the body; and since the agent and the end are more perfect, while the receptive principle, as such, is less perfect; it follows that those powers of the soul which precede the others, in the order of perfection and nature, are the principles of the others, after the manner of the end and active principle. For we see that the senses are for the sake of the intelligence, and not the other way about. The senses, moreover, are a certain imperfect participation of the intelligence; wherefore, according to their natural origin, they proceed from the intelligence as the imperfect from the perfect. But considered as receptive principles, the more perfect powers are principles with regard to the others; thus the soul, according as it has the sensitive power, is considered as the subject, and as something material with regard to the intelligence. On this account, the more imperfect powers precede the others in the order of generation, for the animal is generated before the man.

I answer that, In things that happen in a natural order, the first cause is responsible for everything, and what is closest to the first cause is, in a way, responsible for what is further away. It has been shown earlier (A. 4) that there are different kinds of order among the powers of the soul. Therefore, one power of the soul comes from the essence of the soul through another. Since the essence of the soul acts as both a driving force and a final goal, and also as a receiving principle, either on its own or alongside the body; and considering that the agent and the goal are more complete, while the receptive principle is less complete; it follows that the powers of the soul that come first, in terms of perfection and nature, are the sources of the others, like an end and an active principle. We observe that the senses exist for the purpose of intelligence, not the other way around. Furthermore, the senses are an imperfect reflection of intelligence; thus, they come from intelligence as the imperfect comes from the perfect. However, when viewed as receptive principles, the more perfect powers serve as sources for the others; hence, the soul, with its sensitive power, is seen as a subject and as something material with respect to intelligence. For this reason, the less perfect powers come before the others in the order of generation, as animals are generated before humans.

Reply Obj. 1: As the power of the soul flows from the essence, not by a transmutation, but by a certain natural resultance, and is simultaneous with the soul, so is it the case with one power as regards another.

Reply Obj. 1: The power of the soul comes from its essence, not through a transformation, but as a natural outcome, and occurs at the same time as the soul does. This is also true for one power in relation to another.

Reply Obj. 2: An accident cannot of itself be the subject of an accident; but one accident is received prior to another into substance, as quantity prior to quality. In this sense one accident is said to be the subject of another; as surface is of color, inasmuch as substance receives an accident through the means of another. The same thing may be said of the powers of the soul.

Reply Obj. 2: An accident cannot be the subject of itself; however, one accident is received by substance before another, just like quantity comes before quality. In this way, one accident can be considered the subject of another, such as how surface relates to color, since substance receives an accident through another. The same can be said for the powers of the soul.

Reply Obj. 3: The powers of the soul are opposed to one another, as perfect and imperfect; as also are the species of numbers and figures. But this opposition does not prevent the origin of one from another, because imperfect things naturally proceed from perfect things. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The soul's abilities can clash with each other, as perfect and imperfect do; just like different kinds of numbers and shapes. However, this opposition doesn't stop one from originating from another, because imperfect things naturally come from perfect things.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 77, Art. 8]

Whether All the Powers Remain in the Soul When Separated from the
Body?

Whether all the powers stay in the soul when it's separated from the
body?

Objection 1: It would seem that all the powers of the soul remain in the soul separated from the body. For we read in the book De Spiritu et Anima that "the soul withdraws from the body, taking with itself sense and imagination, reason and intelligence, concupiscibility and irascibility."

Objection 1: It seems that all the powers of the soul stay with the soul when it's separated from the body. For we read in the book De Spiritu et Anima that "the soul pulls away from the body, taking with it sense and imagination, reason and intelligence, desire and anger."

Obj. 2: Further, the powers of the soul are its natural properties. But properties are always in that to which they belong; and are never separated from it. Therefore the powers of the soul are in it even after death.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the abilities of the soul are its inherent qualities. However, qualities always exist in what they belong to and are never separated from it. Therefore, the abilities of the soul remain within it even after death.

Obj. 3: Further, the powers even of the sensitive soul are not weakened when the body becomes weak; because, as the Philosopher says (De Anima i, 4), "If an old man were given the eye of a young man, he would see even as well as a young man." But weakness is the road to corruption. Therefore the powers of the soul are not corrupted when the body is corrupted, but remain in the separated soul.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the abilities of the sensitive soul are not diminished when the body becomes weak; because, as the Philosopher states (De Anima i, 4), "If an old man were given the eye of a young man, he would see just as well as a young man." However, weakness leads to decay. Therefore, the abilities of the soul are not harmed when the body deteriorates, but continue to exist in the separated soul.

Obj. 4: Further, memory is a power of the sensitive soul, as the Philosopher proves (De Memor. et Remin. 1). But memory remains in the separated soul; for it was said to the rich glutton whose soul was in hell: "Remember that thou didst receive good things during thy lifetime" (Luke 16:25). Therefore memory remains in the separated soul; and consequently the other powers of the sensitive part.

Obj. 4: Additionally, memory is a function of the sensitive soul, as the Philosopher demonstrates (De Memor. et Remin. 1). However, memory persists in the separated soul; for it was said to the rich glutton whose soul was in hell: "Remember that you received good things during your lifetime" (Luke 16:25). Therefore, memory continues to exist in the separated soul; and consequently, the other functions of the sensitive part do as well.

Obj. 5: Further, joy and sorrow are in the concupiscible part, which is a power of the sensitive soul. But it is clear that separate souls grieve or rejoice at the pains or rewards which they receive. Therefore the concupiscible power remains in the separate soul.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, joy and sorrow are part of our desires, which is a function of the sensitive soul. It's evident that separate souls experience grief or happiness based on the pain or rewards they receive. Therefore, this aspect of desire remains in the separate soul.

Obj. 6: Further, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 32) that, as the soul, when the body lies senseless, yet not quite dead, sees some things by imaginary vision; so also when by death the soul is quite separate from the body. But the imagination is a power of the sensitive part. Therefore the power of the sensitive part remains in the separate soul; and consequently all the other powers.

Obj. 6: In addition, Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. xii, 32) that just as the soul, when the body is unresponsive but not completely dead, perceives certain things through imaginary vision, similarly, when the soul is completely separated from the body by death. However, imagination is a function of the sensitive part. Therefore, the functions of the sensitive part continue to exist in the separate soul, and as a result, all the other functions do too.

On the contrary, It is said (De Eccl. Dogm. xix) that "of two substances only does man consist; the soul with its reason, and the body with its senses." Therefore the body being dead, the sensitive powers do not remain.

On the contrary, it is said (De Eccl. Dogm. xix) that "man consists of only two substances: the soul with its reason, and the body with its senses." Therefore, when the body is dead, the sensory powers do not persist.

I answer that, As we have said already (AA. 5, 6, 7), all the powers of the soul belong to the soul alone as their principle. But some powers belong to the soul alone as their subject; as the intelligence and the will. These powers must remain in the soul, after the destruction of the body. But other powers are subjected in the composite; as all the powers of the sensitive and nutritive parts. Now accidents cannot remain after the destruction of the subject. Wherefore, the composite being destroyed, such powers do not remain actually; but they remain virtually in the soul, as in their principle or root.

I respond that, as we have previously mentioned (AA. 5, 6, 7), all the powers of the soul belong to the soul itself as their source. However, some powers belong solely to the soul as their subject, such as intelligence and will. These powers must persist in the soul even after the body is destroyed. In contrast, other powers are tied to the composite being; this includes all the functions of the sensitive and nutritive parts. Now, accidents cannot exist after the original subject is gone. Therefore, when the composite is destroyed, those powers do not remain in actuality; however, they do continue to exist virtually in the soul, as their source or root.

So it is false that, as some say, these powers remain in the soul even after the corruption of the body. It is much more false that, as they say also, the acts of these powers remain in the separate soul; because these powers have no act apart from the corporeal organ.

So it’s not true that, as some claim, these abilities stay in the soul even after the body decays. It’s even less true that, as they also say, the actions of these abilities continue in the separate soul; because these abilities have no action without the physical organ.

Reply Obj. 1: That book has no authority, and so what is there written can be despised with the same facility as it was said; although we may say that the soul takes with itself these powers, not actually but virtually.

Reply Obj. 1: That book has no authority, so what’s written in it can be dismissed just as easily as it was stated; although we might argue that the soul carries these powers with it, not actually but in a potential sense.

Reply Obj. 2: These powers, which we say do not actually remain in the separate soul, are not the properties of the soul alone, but of the composite.

Reply Obj. 2: These abilities, which we argue do not actually stay within the separate soul, are not just characteristics of the soul itself, but of the whole being.

Reply Obj. 3: These powers are said not to be weakened when the body becomes weak, because the soul remains unchangeable, and is the virtual principle of these powers.

Reply Obj. 3: These powers are said not to be diminished when the body becomes weak because the soul remains unchanged and is the essential principle of these powers.

Reply Obj. 4: The recollection spoken of there is to be taken in the same way as Augustine (De Trin. x, 11; xiv, 7) places memory in the mind; not as a part of the sensitive soul.

Reply Obj. 4: The memory mentioned there should be understood in the same way that Augustine (De Trin. x, 11; xiv, 7) describes memory in the mind, not as a part of the sensitive soul.

Reply Obj. 5: In the separate soul, sorrow and joy are not in the sensitive, but in the intellectual appetite, as in the angels.

Reply Obj. 5: In the separate soul, sorrow and joy are not in the senses, but in the intellectual desire, similar to what we see in angels.

Reply Obj. 6: Augustine in that passage is speaking as inquiring, not as asserting. Wherefore he retracted some things which he had said there (Retrac. ii, 24). _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: Augustine in that passage is speaking as someone who is questioning, not as someone who is making a statement. That’s why he took back some things he mentioned there (Retrac. ii, 24).

QUESTION 78

OF THE SPECIFIC POWERS OF THE SOUL
(In Four Articles)

OF THE SPECIFIC POWERS OF THE SOUL
(In Four Articles)

We next treat of the powers of the soul specifically. The theologian, however, has only to inquire specifically concerning the intellectual and appetitive powers, in which the virtues reside. And since the knowledge of these powers depends to a certain extent on the other powers, our consideration of the powers of the soul taken specifically will be divided into three parts: first, we shall consider those powers which are a preamble to the intellect; secondly, the intellectual powers; thirdly, the appetitive powers.

We will now discuss the specific powers of the soul. However, the theologian only needs to focus on the intellectual and appetitive powers, where the virtues are found. Since understanding these powers is somewhat dependent on the other powers, our examination of the powers of the soul will be divided into three parts: first, we will look at the powers that lead to the intellect; secondly, the intellectual powers; and thirdly, the appetitive powers.

Under the first head there are four points of inquiry:

Under the first section, there are four points to consider:

(1) The powers of the soul considered generally;

(1) The abilities of the soul looked at in a broad sense;

(2) The various species of the vegetative part;

(2) The different types of the plant part;

(3) The exterior senses;

The outer senses;

(4) The interior senses. _______________________

The inner senses.

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 78, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 78, Art. 1]

Whether There Are to Be Distinguished Five Genera of Powers in the
Soul?

Whether There Are to Be Distinguished Five Genera of Powers in the
Soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that there are not to be distinguished five genera of powers in the soul—namely, vegetative, sensitive, appetitive, locomotive, and intellectual. For the powers of the soul are called its parts. But only three parts of the soul are commonly assigned—namely, the vegetative soul, the sensitive soul, and the rational soul. Therefore there are only three genera of powers in the soul, and not five.

Objection 1: It seems that we shouldn't distinguish five types of powers in the soul—specifically, vegetative, sensitive, appetitive, locomotive, and intellectual. The powers of the soul are considered its parts. However, typically, only three parts of the soul are identified—these are the vegetative soul, the sensitive soul, and the rational soul. So, there should only be three types of powers in the soul, not five.

Obj. 2: Further, the powers of the soul are the principles of its vital operations. Now, in four ways is a thing said to live. For the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 2): "In several ways a thing is said to live, and even if only one of these is present, the thing is said to live; as intellect and sense, local movement and rest, and lastly, movement of decrease and increase due to nourishment." Therefore there are only four genera of powers of the soul, as the appetitive is excluded.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the powers of the soul are the principles of its vital functions. A thing is said to be alive in four ways. The Philosopher states (De Anima ii, 2): "A thing is considered to live in several ways, and even if only one of these is present, it is said to be alive; these include intellect and sense, local movement and rest, and finally, the movement of growth and decline due to nourishment." Therefore, there are only four categories of the powers of the soul, since the appetitive is excluded.

Obj. 3: Further, a special kind of soul ought not to be assigned as regards what is common to all the powers. Now desire is common to each power of the soul. For sight desires an appropriate visible object; whence we read (Ecclus. 40:22): "The eye desireth favor and beauty, but more than these green sown fields." In the same way every other power desires its appropriate object. Therefore the appetitive power should not be made a special genus of the powers of the soul.

Obj. 3: Additionally, a specific type of soul shouldn't be categorized based on what is shared among all its abilities. Desire is shared by every ability of the soul. For instance, sight seeks out a suitable visible object; hence we read (Ecclus. 40:22): "The eye desires favor and beauty, but even more so green cultivated fields." Similarly, every other ability seeks its fitting object. Therefore, the appetitive power shouldn't be classified as a distinct category of the powers of the soul.

Obj. 4: Further, the moving principle in animals is sense, intellect or appetite, as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 10). Therefore the motive power should not be added to the above as a special genus of soul.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the driving force in animals is their senses, intellect, or desires, as the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 10). Therefore, motive power shouldn't be considered an additional type of soul.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 3), "The powers are the vegetative, the sensitive, the appetitive, the locomotion, and the intellectual."

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 3), "The powers are the vegetative, the sensitive, the appetitive, the locomotion, and the intellectual."

I answer that, There are five genera of powers of the soul, as above numbered. Of these, three are called souls, and four are called modes of living. The reason of this diversity lies in the various souls being distinguished accordingly as the operation of the soul transcends the operation of the corporeal nature in various ways; for the whole corporeal nature is subject to the soul, and is related to it as its matter and instrument. There exists, therefore, an operation of the soul which so far exceeds the corporeal nature that it is not even performed by any corporeal organ; and such is the operation of the rational soul. Below this, there is another operation of the soul, which is indeed performed through a corporeal organ, but not through a corporeal quality, and this is the operation of the sensitive soul; for though hot and cold, wet and dry, and other such corporeal qualities are required for the work of the senses, yet they are not required in such a way that the operation of the senses takes place by virtue of such qualities; but only for the proper disposition of the organ. The lowest of the operations of the soul is that which is performed by a corporeal organ, and by virtue of a corporeal quality. Yet this transcends the operation of the corporeal nature; because the movements of bodies are caused by an extrinsic principle, while these operations are from an intrinsic principle; for this is common to all the operations of the soul; since every animate thing, in some way, moves itself. Such is the operation of the vegetative soul; for digestion, and what follows, is caused instrumentally by the action of heat, as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 4).

I respond that, there are five types of powers of the soul, as previously listed. Of these, three are termed souls, and four are classified as modes of living. The reason for this variation is that the different souls are distinguished based on how the operation of the soul surpasses the operations of the physical nature in various ways; the entire physical nature is subject to the soul and functions as its matter and tool. Therefore, there is a function of the soul that exceeds physical nature to such an extent that it isn't even carried out by any physical organ; this is the function of the rational soul. Below this, there exists another function of the soul that is performed through a physical organ, but not through a physical quality; this is the function of the sensitive soul; for while hot and cold, wet and dry, and other such physical qualities are necessary for the work of the senses, they are not required in such a way that sensory operation occurs because of those qualities; rather, they are needed only for the proper arrangement of the organ. The lowest function of the soul is that which is performed by a physical organ and is based on a physical quality. Yet, this still goes beyond the operation of physical nature; because the movements of bodies are driven by an external principle, while these functions stem from an internal principle; this is true for all functions of the soul, since every living thing, in some way, moves itself. Such is the function of the vegetative soul; for digestion and what follows is instrumentally caused by the action of heat, as the Philosopher states (De Anima ii, 4).

Now the powers of the soul are distinguished generically by their objects. For the higher a power is, the more universal is the object to which it extends, as we have said above (Q. 77, A. 3, ad 4). But the object of the soul's operation may be considered in a triple order. For in the soul there is a power the object of which is only the body that is united to that soul; the powers of this genus are called "vegetative" for the vegetative power acts only on the body to which the soul is united. There is another genus in the powers of the soul, which genus regards a more universal object—namely, every sensible body, not only the body to which the soul is united. And there is yet another genus in the powers of the soul, which genus regards a still more universal object—namely, not only the sensible body, but all being in universal. Wherefore it is evident that the latter two genera of the soul's powers have an operation in regard not merely to that which is united to them, but also to something extrinsic. Now, since whatever operates must in some way be united to the object about which it operates, it follows of necessity that this something extrinsic, which is the object of the soul's operation, must be related to the soul in a twofold manner. First, inasmuch as this something extrinsic has a natural aptitude to be united to the soul, and to be by its likeness in the soul. In this way there are two kinds of powers—namely, the "sensitive" in regard to the less common object—the sensible body; and the "intellectual," in regard to the most common object—universal being. Secondly, forasmuch as the soul itself has an inclination and tendency to the something extrinsic. And in this way there are again two kinds of powers in the soul: one—the "appetitive"—in respect of which the soul is referred to something extrinsic as to an end, which is first in the intention; the other—the "locomotive" power—in respect of which the soul is referred to something extrinsic as to the term of its operation and movement; for every animal is moved for the purpose of realizing its desires and intentions.

Now, the abilities of the soul are categorized by what they focus on. The higher an ability is, the more general the object it engages with, as we mentioned earlier (Q. 77, A. 3, ad 4). However, we can consider the object of the soul's activity in three ways. First, there’s a power that is concerned solely with the body it is connected to; these powers are called "vegetative" because the vegetative power only acts on the body it is linked to. There’s another category of the soul's powers that concerns a broader object—specifically, any sensible body, not just the body with which the soul is connected. Furthermore, there’s another category that addresses an even broader object—not just sensible bodies, but all existence in general. Therefore, it’s clear that the last two categories of the soul's powers engage not only with what is connected to them but also with something external. Since anything that acts must somehow be linked to the object it acts upon, it follows that this external object, which is the focus of the soul's activity, must relate to the soul in two ways. First, it has a natural capability to connect with the soul and share its likeness. In this sense, there are two kinds of powers—namely, "sensitive" powers related to the less common object—the sensible body; and "intellectual" powers connected to the most universal object—universal being. Secondly, the soul itself has an inclination and tendency towards this external something. In this way, there are also two kinds of powers in the soul: one, the "appetitive," which links the soul to something external as an ultimate goal; and the other, the "locomotive" power, which connects the soul to something external as the endpoint of its actions and movements, since every animal moves to fulfill its desires and intentions.

The modes of living are distinguished according to the degrees of living things. There are some living things in which there exists only vegetative power, as the plants. There are others in which with the vegetative there exists also the sensitive, but not the locomotive power; such as immovable animals, as shellfish. There are others which besides this have locomotive powers, as perfect animals, which require many things for their life, and consequently movement to seek necessaries of life from a distance. And there are some living things which with these have intellectual power—namely, men. But the appetitive power does not constitute a degree of living things; because wherever there is sense there is also appetite (De Anima ii, 3).

The ways of living are categorized based on the levels of living beings. Some living beings, like plants, only have vegetative power. Others, like shellfish, have both vegetative and sensitive power but lack locomotion. Then there are those that possess locomotion as well, such as more advanced animals, which need various resources for survival and therefore must move to find what they need from different places. Finally, there are living beings that also possess intellectual power—specifically, humans. However, appetitive power isn’t considered a separate level of living beings because wherever there is sensation, there is also appetite (De Anima ii, 3).

Thus the first two objections are hereby solved.

Thus, the first two objections are resolved.

Reply Obj. 3: The "natural appetite" is that inclination which each thing has, of its own nature, for something; wherefore by its natural appetite each power desires something suitable to itself. But the "animal appetite" results from the form apprehended; this sort of appetite requires a special power of the soul—mere apprehension does not suffice. For a thing is desired as it exists in its own nature, whereas in the apprehensive power it exists not according to its own nature, but according to its likeness. Whence it is clear that sight desires naturally a visible object for the purpose of its act only—namely, for the purpose of seeing; but the animal by the appetitive power desires the thing seen, not merely for the purpose of seeing it, but also for other purposes. But if the soul did not require things perceived by the senses, except on account of the actions of the senses, that is, for the purpose of sensing them; there would be no need for a special genus of appetitive powers, since the natural appetite of the powers would suffice.

Reply Obj. 3: The "natural appetite" is the natural inclination each thing has for something; thus, through its natural appetite, each ability desires what is suitable for it. However, the "animal appetite" comes from the form that is understood; this type of appetite requires a specific power of the soul—just understanding isn’t enough. A thing is desired as it exists in its own nature, while in the understanding power it exists not as it is, but according to its likeness. It’s clear that sight naturally desires a visible object solely for the purpose of seeing; however, the animal, through its appetitive power, desires what it sees, not just to see it, but for other reasons as well. If the soul only required things perceived by the senses due to the actions of the senses, meaning solely for sensing, there would be no need for a specific category of appetitive powers, since the natural appetite of the powers would be sufficient.

Reply Obj. 4: Although sense and appetite are principles of movement in perfect animals, yet sense and appetite, as such, are not sufficient to cause movement, unless another power be added to them; for immovable animals have sense and appetite, and yet they have not the power of motion. Now this motive power is not only in the appetite and sense as commanding the movement, but also in the parts of the body, to make them obey the appetite of the soul which moves them. Of this we have a sign in the fact that when the members are deprived of their natural disposition, they do not move in obedience to the appetite. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: While sensory perception and desire are driving forces behind movement in perfect animals, these alone aren’t enough to create movement without an additional power. Immobile animals possess both sensory perception and desire, yet they lack the ability to move. This driving power exists not just in the desire and sense directing the movement but also within the body parts themselves, enabling them to follow the soul's desire that motivates them. This is evident from the fact that when the body parts lose their natural function, they do not respond to the desire.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 78, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 78, Art. 2]

Whether the Parts of the Vegetative Soul Are Fittingly Described As the Nutritive, Augmentative, and Generative?

Whether the parts of the vegetative soul are appropriately described as the nutritive, augmentative, and generative?

Objection 1: It would seem that the parts of the vegetative soul are not fittingly described—namely, the nutritive, augmentative, and generative. For these are called "natural" forces. But the powers of the soul are above the natural forces. Therefore we should not class the above forces as powers of the soul.

Objection 1: It seems that the components of the vegetative soul are not accurately described—specifically, the nutritive, augmentative, and generative. These are referred to as "natural" forces. However, the powers of the soul are considered to be above natural forces. Therefore, we shouldn't categorize these forces as powers of the soul.

Obj. 2: Further, we should not assign a particular power of the soul to that which is common to living and non-living things. But generation is common to all things that can be generated and corrupted, whether living or not living. Therefore the generative force should not be classed as a power of the soul.

Obj. 2: Additionally, we should not attribute a specific power of the soul to what is shared by both living and non-living things. However, generation is a characteristic common to everything that can be created and destroyed, regardless of whether it is alive or not. Thus, the generative force should not be considered a power of the soul.

Obj. 3: Further, the soul is more powerful than the body. But the body by the same force gives species and quantity; much more, therefore, does the soul. Therefore the augmentative power of the soul is not distinct from the generative power.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the soul is stronger than the body. However, the body also contributes species and quantity with the same force; therefore, the soul does so even more. Thus, the increasing power of the soul is not separate from the generative power.

Obj. 4: Further, everything is preserved in being by that whereby it exists. But the generative power is that whereby a living thing exists. Therefore by the same power the living thing is preserved. Now the nutritive force is directed to the preservation of the living thing (De Anima ii, 4), being "a power which is capable of preserving whatever receives it." Therefore we should not distinguish the nutritive power from the generative.

Obj. 4: Moreover, everything continues to exist through what gives it existence. The generative power is what enables a living thing to exist. Therefore, the same power also preserves the living thing. The nutritive force is aimed at preserving the living thing (De Anima ii, 4), functioning as "a power that can preserve whatever takes it in." Thus, we should not separate the nutritive power from the generative one.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 2,4) that the operations of this soul are "generation, the use of food," and (cf. De Anima iii, 9) "growth."

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 2,4) that the operations of this soul are "generation, the use of food," and (cf. De Anima iii, 9) "growth."

I answer that, The vegetative part has three powers. For the vegetative part, as we have said (A. 1), has for its object the body itself, living by the soul; for which body a triple operation of the soul is required. One is whereby it acquires existence, and to this is directed the generative power. Another is whereby the living body acquires its due quantity; to this is directed the augmentative power. Another is whereby the body of a living thing is preserved in its existence and in its due quantity; to this is directed the nutritive power.

I answer that, The vegetative part has three functions. The vegetative part, as we mentioned (A. 1), focuses on the body itself, which is alive through the soul; for this body, a threefold action of the soul is necessary. One is through which it gains existence, and this is handled by the generative power. The second is through which the living body achieves its appropriate size; this is managed by the augmentative power. The third is through which the body of a living being is maintained in its existence and its appropriate size; this is overseen by the nutritive power.

We must, however, observe a difference among these powers. The nutritive and the augmentative have their effect where they exist, since the body itself united to the soul grows and is preserved by the augmentative and nutritive powers which exist in one and the same soul. But the generative power has its effect, not in one and the same body but in another; for a thing cannot generate itself. Therefore the generative power, in a way, approaches to the dignity of the sensitive soul, which has an operation extending to extrinsic things, although in a more excellent and more universal manner; for that which is highest in an inferior nature approaches to that which is lowest in the higher nature, as is made clear by Dionysius (Div. Nom. vii). Therefore, of these three powers, the generative has the greater finality, nobility, and perfection, as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 4), for it belongs to a thing which is already perfect to "produce another like unto itself." And the generative power is served by the augmentative and nutritive powers; and the augmentative power by the nutritive.

We need to recognize a distinction among these powers. The nutritive and augmentative powers work where they are present since the body, connected to the soul, grows and is sustained by the augmentative and nutritive powers found in the same soul. However, the generative power acts not on the same body but on another; something cannot generate itself. Thus, the generative power is somewhat similar to the dignity of the sensitive soul, which has functions that extend to external things, although in a more excellent and universal way; for the highest aspect of a lower nature aligns with the lowest aspect of a higher nature, as noted by Dionysius (Div. Nom. vii). Therefore, among these three powers, the generative power has the greater purpose, nobility, and perfection, as the Philosopher states (De Anima ii, 4), because it is characteristic of a perfect being to "produce another like itself." The generative power relies on the augmentative and nutritive powers, and the augmentative power relies on the nutritive.

Reply Obj. 1: Such forces are called natural, both because they produce an effect like that of nature, which also gives existence, quantity and preservation (although the above forces accomplish these things in a more perfect way); and because those forces perform their actions instrumentally, through the active and passive qualities, which are the principles of natural actions.

Reply Obj. 1: These forces are referred to as natural, because they create effects similar to those of nature, which also provides existence, quantity, and preservation (though the aforementioned forces achieve these things more perfectly); and because these forces carry out their actions instrumentally, through the active and passive qualities, which are the foundations of natural actions.

Reply Obj. 2: Generation of inanimate things is entirely from an extrinsic source; whereas the generation of living things is in a higher way, through something in the living thing itself, which is the semen containing the principle productive of the body. Therefore there must be in the living thing a power that prepares this semen; and this is the generative power.

Reply Obj. 2: The creation of non-living things comes entirely from an outside source; on the other hand, the creation of living things happens in a deeper way, through something within the living thing itself, which is the semen that holds the principle responsible for forming the body. Therefore, there must be a capability within the living thing that prepares this semen, and this is the generative power.

Reply Obj. 3: Since the generation of living things is from a semen, it is necessary that in the beginning an animal of small size be generated. For this reason it must have a power in the soul, whereby it is brought to its appropriate size. But the inanimate body is generated from determinate matter by an extrinsic agent; therefore it receives at once its nature and its quantity, according to the condition of the matter.

Reply Obj. 3: Since living things are created from semen, it's necessary that initially a small-sized animal is formed. For this reason, it must possess a capability in its soul that enables it to grow to its appropriate size. However, an inanimate body is formed from specific matter through an external agent; thus, it immediately receives its nature and size based on the condition of that matter.

Reply Obj. 4: As we have said above (A. 1), the operation of the vegetative principle is performed by means of heat, the property of which is to consume humidity. Therefore, in order to restore the humidity thus lost, the nutritive power is required, whereby the food is changed into the substance of the body. This is also necessary for the action of the augmentative and generative powers. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: As we mentioned earlier (A. 1), the vegetative principle operates through heat, which has the ability to consume moisture. Therefore, to replenish the moisture that is lost, we need the nutritive power that transforms food into the body’s substance. This is also essential for the functions of growth and reproduction.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 78, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 78, Art. 3]

Whether the Five Exterior Senses Are Properly Distinguished?

Whether the Five External Senses Are Properly Recognized?

Objection 1: It would seem inaccurate to distinguish five exterior senses. For sense can know accidents. But there are many kinds of accidents. Therefore, as powers are distinguished by their objects, it seems that the senses are multiplied according to the number of the kinds of accidents.

Objection 1: It seems incorrect to identify five outer senses. Since senses can perceive qualities, and there are many types of qualities, it appears that, just as powers are defined by their objects, the senses should be counted according to the different types of qualities.

Obj. 2: Further, magnitude and shape, and other things which are called "common sensibles," are "not sensibles by accident," but are contradistinguished from them by the Philosopher (De Anima ii, 6). Now the diversity of objects, as such, diversifies the powers. Since, therefore, magnitude and shape are further from color than sound is, it seems that there is much more need for another sensitive power than can grasp magnitude or shape than for that which grasps color or sound.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, size and shape, along with other things referred to as "common senses," are "not senses by accident," but are distinguished from them by the Philosopher (De Anima ii, 6). The variety of objects diversifies the powers. Therefore, since size and shape are further from color than sound, it seems that there is a greater need for an additional sensory power to understand size or shape than for one that understands color or sound.

Obj. 3: Further, one sense regards one contrariety; as sight regards white and black. But the sense of touch grasps several contraries; such as hot or cold, damp or dry, and suchlike. Therefore it is not a single sense but several. Therefore there are more than five senses.

Obj. 3: Also, one sense pertains to one contradiction, like how sight relates to white and black. However, the sense of touch deals with several opposites, such as hot or cold, wet or dry, and so on. Therefore, it's not just one sense but multiple. Hence, there are more than five senses.

Obj. 4: Further, a species is not divided against its genus. But taste is a kind of touch. Therefore it should not be classed as a distinct sense of touch.

Obj. 4: Additionally, a species does not contradict its genus. However, taste is a type of touch. Thus, it shouldn't be categorized as a separate sense of touch.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 1): "There is no other besides the five senses."

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 1): "There are no senses beyond the five."

I answer that, The reason of the distinction and number of the senses has been assigned by some to the organs in which one or other of the elements preponderate, as water, air, or the like. By others it has been assigned to the medium, which is either in conjunction or extrinsic and is either water or air, or such like. Others have ascribed it to the various natures of the sensible qualities, according as such quality belongs to a simple body or results from complexity. But none of these explanations is apt. For the powers are not for the organs, but the organs for the powers; wherefore there are not various powers for the reason that there are various organs; on the contrary, for this has nature provided a variety of organs, that they might be adapted to various powers. In the same way nature provided various mediums for the various senses, according to the convenience of the acts of the powers. And to be cognizant of the natures of sensible qualities does not pertain to the senses, but to the intellect.

I answer that, Some people attribute the distinction and number of the senses to the organs where one or another element is dominant, like water or air. Others link it to the medium, which can be either combined or separate, such as water or air, or something similar. Some have connected it to the different natures of the qualities we perceive, based on whether a quality is part of a simple body or comes from a combination of elements. However, none of these explanations are satisfactory. The powers exist for the organs, not the other way around; this means we don’t have different powers just because there are different organs. Instead, nature has equipped us with different organs so they can match various powers. Similarly, nature has provided different mediums for the various senses to facilitate the function of those powers. Understanding the nature of the qualities we perceive isn’t the role of the senses, but rather of the intellect.

The reason of the number and distinction of the exterior senses must therefore be ascribed to that which belongs to the senses properly and per se. Now, sense is a passive power, and is naturally immuted by the exterior sensible. Wherefore the exterior cause of such immutation is what is per se perceived by the sense, and according to the diversity of that exterior cause are the sensitive powers diversified.

The reason for the number and distinction of the external senses must be attributed to what pertains to the senses themselves. Now, a sense is a passive ability and is naturally influenced by what it perceives externally. Therefore, the external cause of this influence is what is directly perceived by the sense, and the variety of that external cause results in the diversity of the sensory abilities.

Now, immutation is of two kinds, one natural, the other spiritual. Natural immutation takes place by the form of the immuter being received according to its natural existence, into the thing immuted, as heat is received into the thing heated. Whereas spiritual immutation takes place by the form of the immuter being received, according to a spiritual mode of existence, into the thing immuted, as the form of color is received into the pupil which does not thereby become colored. Now, for the operation of the senses, a spiritual immutation is required, whereby an intention of the sensible form is effected in the sensile organ. Otherwise, if a natural immutation alone sufficed for the sense's action, all natural bodies would feel when they undergo alteration.

Now, there are two types of change: natural and spiritual. Natural change occurs when the qualities of the changer are absorbed into the changed object, similar to how heat is taken in by something being heated. On the other hand, spiritual change happens when the qualities of the changer are absorbed in a spiritual way into the changed object, like how color is received by the eye without the eye itself changing color. For our senses to work, spiritual change is necessary, as it allows us to perceive the qualities of objects through our sensory organs. If only natural change were enough for sensing, then all natural objects would be able to feel when they changed.

But in some senses we find spiritual immutation only, as in sight: while in others we find not only spiritual but also a natural immutation; either on the part of the object only, or likewise on the part of the organ. On the part of the object we find natural immutation, as to place, in sound which is the object of hearing; for sound is caused by percussion and commotion of air: and we find natural immutation by alteration, in odor which is the object of smelling; for in order to exhale an odor, a body must be in a measure affected by heat. On the part of an organ, natural immutation takes place in touch and taste; for the hand that touches something hot becomes hot, while the tongue is moistened by the humidity of the flavored morsel. But the organs of smelling and hearing are not affected in their respective operations by any natural immutation unless indirectly.

But in some ways, we only see spiritual change, as in sight: while in other ways, we see both spiritual and natural change; this can happen either with the object itself or also with the organ involved. Regarding the object, we see natural change, like in place, in sound, which is the object of hearing; because sound is produced by the impact and movement of air. We also see natural change through alteration, in odor, which is the object of smelling; because for a body to release an odor, it has to be somewhat affected by heat. On the part of an organ, natural change occurs in touch and taste; for example, the hand that touches something hot becomes hot, while the tongue gets wet from the moisture of the flavored bite. However, the organs of smelling and hearing aren't directly affected in their functions by any natural change, except in an indirect way.

Now, the sight, which is without natural immutation either in its organ or in its object, is the most spiritual, the most perfect, and the most universal of all the senses. After this comes the hearing and then the smell, which require a natural immutation on the part of the object; while local motion is more perfect than, and naturally prior to, the motion of alteration, as the Philosopher proves (Phys. viii, 7). Touch and taste are the most material of all: of the distinction of which we shall speak later on (ad 3, 4). Hence it is that the three other senses are not exercised through a medium united to them, to obviate any natural immutation in their organ; as happens as regards these two senses.

Now, sight, which doesn’t rely on natural change in either its organ or its object, is the most spiritual, most perfect, and most universal of all the senses. After that comes hearing, followed by smell, which both require a natural change in the object. Local motion is more perfect than, and comes before, the motion of alteration, as the Philosopher explains (Phys. viii, 7). Touch and taste are the most physical of all: we will discuss this distinction later (ad 3, 4). This is why the other three senses don’t operate through a medium connected to them, to avoid any natural change in their organ, unlike what happens with these two senses.

Reply Obj. 1: Not every accident has in itself a power of immutation but only qualities of the third species, which are the principles of alteration: therefore only suchlike qualities are the objects of the senses; because "the senses are affected by the same things whereby inanimate bodies are affected," as stated in Phys. vii, 2.

Reply Obj. 1: Not every accident has the ability to change things, but only qualities of the third type, which are the principles of change. Therefore, only those types of qualities can be perceived by the senses, because "the senses respond to the same things that affect inanimate objects," as noted in Phys. vii, 2.

Reply Obj. 2: Size, shape, and the like, which are called "common sensibles," are midway between "accidental sensibles" and "proper sensibles," which are the objects of the senses. For the proper sensibles first, and of their very nature, affect the senses; since they are qualities that cause alteration. But the common sensibles are all reducible to quantity. As to size and number, it is clear that they are species of quantity. Shape is a quality about quantity, since the notion of shape consists of fixing the bounds of magnitude. Movement and rest are sensed according as the subject is affected in one or more ways in the magnitude of the subject or of its local distance, as in the movement of growth or of locomotion, or again, according as it is affected in some sensible qualities, as in the movement of alteration; and thus to sense movement and rest is, in a way, to sense one thing and many. Now quantity is the proximate subject of the qualities that cause alteration, as surface is of color. Therefore the common sensibles do not move the senses first and of their own nature, but by reason of the sensible quality; as the surface by reason of color. Yet they are not accidental sensibles, for they produce a certain variety in the immutation of the senses. For sense is immuted differently by a large and by a small surface: since whiteness itself is said to be great or small, and therefore it is divided according to its proper subject.

Reply Obj. 2: Size, shape, and things like that, known as "common sensibles," are intermediate between "accidental sensibles" and "proper sensibles," which are the objects of our senses. Proper sensibles inherently affect the senses because they are qualities that cause change. However, common sensibles can all be categorized as quantities. It's clear that size and number are types of quantity. Shape relates to quantity, as the concept of shape involves defining the limits of size. Movement and rest are perceived based on how a subject is affected in various ways regarding its size or distance, like in growth or locomotion, or based on changes in certain qualities, such as in alteration. Thus, sensing movement and rest involves perceiving both singular and multiple aspects. Quantity is closely tied to the qualities that cause changes, just as surface relates to color. Therefore, common sensibles do not initially and inherently stimulate the senses; they do so because of their sensible qualities, like how surface is influenced by color. Nevertheless, they are not accidental sensibles because they create a certain variation in how our senses change. For instance, our senses react differently to a large versus a small surface; whiteness can be described as large or small, and thus it is categorized based on its specific subject.

Reply Obj. 3: As the Philosopher seems to say (De Anima ii, 11), the sense of touch is generically one, but is divided into several specific senses, and for this reason it extends to various contrarieties; which senses, however, are not separate from one another in their organ, but are spread throughout the whole body, so that their distinction is not evident. But taste, which perceives the sweet and the bitter, accompanies touch in the tongue, but not in the whole body; so it is easily distinguished from touch. We might also say that all those contrarieties agree, each in some proximate genus, and all in a common genus, which is the common and formal object of touch. Such common genus is, however, unnamed, just as the proximate genus of hot and cold is unnamed.

Reply Obj. 3: As the Philosopher seems to say (De Anima ii, 11), the sense of touch is fundamentally one, but is divided into several specific senses, which allows it to relate to different opposites. However, these senses are not separate from each other in their organs; they are spread throughout the entire body, making their distinction not obvious. On the other hand, taste, which detects sweetness and bitterness, works alongside touch in the tongue, but not throughout the whole body, making it easy to distinguish from touch. We could also say that all these opposites share a common feature in some nearby category and all belong to a general category, which is the overall and formal object of touch. However, this general category doesn't have a specific name, just like the nearby category of hot and cold lacks a name.

Reply Obj. 4: The sense of taste, according to a saying of the Philosopher (De Anima ii, 9), is a kind of touch existing in the tongue only. It is not distinct from touch in general, but only from the species of touch distributed in the body. But if touch is one sense only, on account of the common formality of its object: we must say that taste is distinguished from touch by reason of a different formality of immutation. For touch involves a natural, and not only a spiritual, immutation in its organ, by reason of the quality which is its proper object. But the organ of taste is not necessarily immuted by a natural immutation by reason of the quality which is its proper object, so that the tongue itself becomes sweet and bitter: but by reason of a quality which is a preamble to, and on which is based, the flavor, which quality is moisture, the object of touch. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: According to a saying from the Philosopher (De Anima ii, 9), the sense of taste is a type of touch that only exists in the tongue. It isn't separate from touch in general, but rather distinct from the types of touch found throughout the body. Since touch is one sense due to the common nature of its object, we can say that taste is different from touch because of a different way of affecting change. Touch involves a physical, as well as a spiritual, change in its organ, due to the quality that is its specific object. However, the organ of taste isn't necessarily changed in a physical way because of the quality that it uniquely reacts to, so the tongue itself doesn't become sweet or bitter; rather, it's based on a quality that leads to flavor, which is moisture, the object of touch.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 78, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 78, Art. 4]

Whether the Interior Senses Are Suitably Distinguished?

Whether the inner senses are properly distinguished?

Objection 1: It would seem that the interior senses are not suitably distinguished. For the common is not divided against the proper. Therefore the common sense should not be numbered among the interior sensitive powers, in addition to the proper exterior senses.

Objection 1: It seems that the internal senses aren't clearly differentiated. After all, the common isn't set apart from the specific. So, the common sense shouldn't be considered one of the internal sensitive powers alongside the specific external senses.

Obj. 2: Further, there is no need to assign an interior power of apprehension when the proper and exterior sense suffices. But the proper and exterior senses suffice for us to judge of sensible things; for each sense judges of its proper object. In like manner they seem to suffice for the perception of their own actions; for since the action of the sense is, in a way, between the power and its object, it seems that sight must be much more able to perceive its own vision, as being nearer to it, than the color; and in like manner with the other senses. Therefore for this there is no need to assign an interior power, called the common sense.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, there's no need to assign an internal ability to understand when the proper and external senses are enough. The proper and external senses are sufficient for us to evaluate what we can sense; each sense is designed to judge its specific object. Similarly, they seem adequate for perceiving their own actions; since the action of a sense lies somewhat between its ability and the object, it appears that vision must be more capable of perceiving its own act of seeing since it's closer to it than the color is. The same goes for the other senses. Therefore, there's no need to assign an internal ability known as the common sense.

Obj. 3: Further, according to the Philosopher (De Memor. et Remin. i), the imagination and the memory are passions of the "first sensitive." But passion is not divided against its subject. Therefore memory and imagination should not be assigned as powers distinct from the senses.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, as stated by the Philosopher (De Memor. et Remin. i), imagination and memory are aspects of the "first sensitive." However, passion does not contradict its subject. Therefore, memory and imagination should not be regarded as separate powers from the senses.

Obj. 4: Further, the intellect depends on the senses less than any power of the sensitive part. But the intellect knows nothing but what it receives from the senses; whence we read (Poster. i, 8), that "those who lack one sense lack one kind of knowledge." Therefore much less should we assign to the sensitive part a power, which they call the "estimative" power, for the perception of intentions which the sense does not perceive.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the intellect relies less on the senses than any capability of the sensitive part. However, the intellect only knows what it gets from the senses; hence we read (Poster. i, 8) that "those who lack one sense lack one kind of knowledge." Therefore, we should assign even less to the sensitive part a capability, which they refer to as the "estimative" power, for understanding intentions that the senses do not perceive.

Obj. 5: Further, the action of the cogitative power, which consists in comparing, adding and dividing, and the action of the reminiscence, which consists in the use of a kind of syllogism for the sake of inquiry, is not less distant from the actions of the estimative and memorative powers, than the action of the estimative is from the action of the imagination. Therefore either we must add the cognitive and reminiscitive to the estimative and memorative powers, or the estimative and memorative powers should not be made distinct from the imagination.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, the function of the thinking power, which involves comparing, adding, and dividing, as well as the function of reminiscence, which involves a kind of reasoning for the purpose of inquiry, is not any closer to the functions of the judging and memory powers than the judging function is to the imagination's function. Therefore, we either need to include the thinking and reminiscence functions with the judging and memory powers, or we should not separate the judging and memory powers from the imagination.

Obj. 6: Further, Augustine (Gen. ad lit. xii, 6, 7, 24) describes three kinds of vision; namely, corporeal, which is the action of the sense; spiritual, which is an action of the imagination or phantasy; and intellectual, which is an action of the intellect. Therefore there is no interior power between the sense and intellect, besides the imagination.

Obj. 6: Furthermore, Augustine (Gen. ad lit. xii, 6, 7, 24) describes three types of vision: physical, which involves the senses; spiritual, which involves the imagination or fantasy; and intellectual, which involves the intellect. Therefore, there is no inner capacity between the senses and the intellect, other than the imagination.

On the contrary, Avicenna (De Anima iv, 1) assigns five interior sensitive powers; namely, "common sense, phantasy, imagination, and the estimative and memorative powers."

On the contrary, Avicenna (De Anima iv, 1) identifies five internal sensory abilities: "common sense, imagination, phantasy, as well as the abilities to estimate and remember."

I answer that, As nature does not fail in necessary things, there must needs be as many actions of the sensitive soul as may suffice for the life of a perfect animal. If any of these actions cannot be reduced to the same one principle, they must be assigned to diverse powers; since a power of the soul is nothing else than the proximate principle of the soul's operation.

I answer that, Since nature doesn't fall short in essential matters, there must be as many actions of the sensitive soul as needed for the life of a complete animal. If any of these actions can't be traced back to the same principle, they must be attributed to different powers; because a power of the soul is simply the immediate principle of the soul's functioning.

Now we must observe that for the life of a perfect animal, the animal should apprehend a thing not only at the actual time of sensation, but also when it is absent. Otherwise, since animal motion and action follow apprehension, an animal would not be moved to seek something absent: the contrary of which we may observe specially in perfect animals, which are moved by progression, for they are moved towards something apprehended and absent. Therefore an animal through the sensitive soul must not only receive the species of sensible things, when it is actually affected by them, but it must also retain and preserve them. Now to receive and retain are, in corporeal things, reduced to diverse principles; for moist things are apt to receive, but retain with difficulty, while it is the reverse with dry things. Wherefore, since the sensitive power is the act of a corporeal organ, it follows that the power which receives the species of sensible things must be distinct from the power which preserves them.

Now we need to see that for an animal to live fully, it should be able to understand something not just when it experiences it, but also when it's not present. Otherwise, since movement and action in animals depend on understanding, an animal wouldn’t be motivated to look for something that’s absent. We can especially observe this in advanced animals, which move forward because they are directed towards something they understand but that isn’t there. Therefore, an animal, through its sensitive soul, must not only take in the essence of things it senses when they’re affecting it, but it also has to retain and keep that essence. Receiving and retaining, in the case of physical things, rely on different principles; moist things can take in easily but have trouble holding on, while dry things do the opposite. So, since the sensitive ability comes from a physical organ, it follows that the ability to receive the essence of things must be different from the ability to keep them.

Again we must observe that if an animal were moved by pleasing and disagreeable things only as affecting the sense, there would be no need to suppose that an animal has a power besides the apprehension of those forms which the senses perceive, and in which the animal takes pleasure, or from which it shrinks with horror. But the animal needs to seek or to avoid certain things, not only because they are pleasing or otherwise to the senses, but also on account of other advantages and uses, or disadvantages: just as the sheep runs away when it sees a wolf, not on account of its color or shape, but as a natural enemy: and again a bird gathers together straws, not because they are pleasant to the sense, but because they are useful for building its nest. Animals, therefore, need to perceive such intentions, which the exterior sense does not perceive. And some distinct principle is necessary for this; since the perception of sensible forms comes by an immutation caused by the sensible, which is not the case with the perception of those intentions.

Once again, we should note that if animals were only influenced by what they find pleasurable or disagreeable through their senses, there would be no need to assume that they possess a capability beyond recognizing the forms that their senses detect, in which they take pleasure or from which they recoil in fear. However, animals need to pursue or avoid certain things not just because they are pleasing or unpleasant to their senses, but also due to other benefits or drawbacks: for example, a sheep flees when it sees a wolf, not because of the wolf's color or shape, but because it sees it as a natural threat; similarly, a bird collects twigs, not because they are visually appealing, but because they serve a practical purpose for building its nest. Therefore, animals need to recognize intentions that the external senses cannot detect. A distinct principle is required for this, as the perception of tangible forms arises from a change caused by the tangible, which doesn’t happen with the perception of those intentions.

Thus, therefore, for the reception of sensible forms, the "proper sense" and the common sense are appointed, and of their distinction we shall speak farther on (ad 1, 2). But for the retention and preservation of these forms, the "phantasy" or "imagination" is appointed; which are the same, for phantasy or imagination is as it were a storehouse of forms received through the senses. Furthermore, for the apprehension of intentions which are not received through the senses, the "estimative" power is appointed: and for the preservation thereof, the "memorative" power, which is a storehouse of such-like intentions. A sign of which we have in the fact that the principle of memory in animals is found in some such intention, for instance, that something is harmful or otherwise. And the very formality of the past, which memory observes, is to be reckoned among these intentions.

So, for the reception of perceived forms, the "proper sense" and the common sense are designated, and we'll discuss their distinction later (ad 1, 2). To retain and preserve these forms, the "phantasy" or "imagination" is assigned; they are essentially the same because phantasy or imagination serves as a storehouse for forms received through the senses. Additionally, to understand intentions not received through the senses, the "estimative" power is designated; and to preserve these, the "memorative" power acts as a storehouse for similar intentions. A sign of this is noted in animals, where the principle of memory is linked to certain intentions, such as identifying something as harmful or not. Moreover, the very essence of the past, which memory acknowledges, falls under these intentions.

Now, we must observe that as to sensible forms there is no difference between man and other animals; for they are similarly immuted by the extrinsic sensible. But there is a difference as to the above intentions: for other animals perceive these intentions only by some natural instinct, while man perceives them by means of coalition of ideas. Therefore the power by which in other animals is called the natural estimative, in man is called the "cogitative," which by some sort of collation discovers these intentions. Wherefore it is also called the "particular reason," to which medical men assign a certain particular organ, namely, the middle part of the head: for it compares individual intentions, just as the intellectual reason compares universal intentions. As to the memorative power, man has not only memory, as other animals have in the sudden recollection of the past; but also "reminiscence" by syllogistically, as it were, seeking for a recollection of the past by the application of individual intentions. Avicenna, however, assigns between the estimative and the imaginative, a fifth power, which combines and divides imaginary forms: as when from the imaginary form of gold, and imaginary form of a mountain, we compose the one form of a golden mountain, which we have never seen. But this operation is not to be found in animals other than man, in whom the imaginative power suffices thereto. To man also does Averroes attribute this action in his book De sensu et sensibilibus (viii). So there is no need to assign more than four interior powers of the sensitive part—namely, the common sense, the imagination, and the estimative and memorative powers.

Now, we should note that when it comes to sensible forms, there's no difference between humans and other animals; both are similarly influenced by external sensations. However, there is a distinction regarding the intentions mentioned earlier: other animals perceive these intentions through natural instinct, while humans perceive them by combining ideas. The capability in other animals is known as the natural estimative, whereas in humans, it's referred to as the "cogitative," which somehow discovers these intentions through a sort of comparison. This is also called "particular reason," which medical professionals associate with a specific part of the brain, namely the middle part of the head, because it compares individual intentions in the same way that intellectual reason compares universal intentions. In terms of memory, humans not only have memory like other animals, which allows for quick recall of the past, but also "reminiscence," which involves a kind of reasoning to search for past memories by applying individual intentions. Avicenna, however, introduces a fifth power that he places between the estimative and the imaginative, which combines and divides imaginary forms: for example, we can create the concept of a golden mountain from the imaginary ideas of gold and a mountain, even if we've never seen it. This kind of operation is unique to humans, as their imaginative power is sufficient for it. Averroes also assigns this function to humans in his book De sensu et sensibilibus (viii). Thus, there's no need to identify more than four internal powers of the sensitive part: namely, common sense, imagination, estimative power, and memorative power.

Reply Obj. 1: The interior sense is called "common" not by predication, as if it were a genus; but as the common root and principle of the exterior senses.

Reply Obj. 1: The inner sense is called "common" not in the sense of being a category, but as the shared foundation and principle of the outer senses.

Reply Obj. 2: The proper sense judges of the proper sensible by discerning it from other things which come under the same sense; for instance, by discerning white from black or green. But neither sight nor taste can discern white from sweet: because what discerns between two things must know both. Wherefore the discerning judgment must be assigned to the common sense; to which, as to a common term, all apprehensions of the senses must be referred: and by which, again, all the intentions of the senses are perceived; as when someone sees that he sees. For this cannot be done by the proper sense, which only knows the form of the sensible by which it is immuted, in which immutation the action of sight is completed, and from immutation follows another in the common sense which perceives the act of vision.

Reply Obj. 2: The proper sense judges the appropriate perception by distinguishing it from other things that fall under the same sense; for example, by distinguishing white from black or green. However, neither sight nor taste can differentiate white from sweet because to distinguish between two things, one must understand both. Therefore, this discerning judgment must be attributed to the common sense, to which all sensory perceptions must refer: and through which all sensory intentions are understood; similar to how someone recognizes that they see. This cannot be accomplished by the proper sense, which only understands the form of what is perceived, completing the act of seeing, and from that perception follows another in the common sense, which perceives the act of vision.

Reply Obj. 3: As one power arises from the soul by means of another, as we have seen above (Q. 77, A. 7), so also the soul is the subject of one power through another. In this way the imagination and the memory are called passions of the "first sensitive."

Reply Obj. 3: Just as one power comes from the soul through another, as we discussed earlier (Q. 77, A. 7), the soul is also the subject of one power through another. In this sense, imagination and memory are referred to as passions of the "first sensitive."

Reply Obj. 4: Although the operation of the intellect has its origin in the senses: yet, in the thing apprehended through the senses, the intellect knows many things which the senses cannot perceive. In like manner does the estimative power, though in a less perfect manner.

Reply Obj. 4: Even though our intellect starts with the senses, it can understand many things about what we sense that our senses themselves can't directly perceive. Similarly, the estimative power does this too, but in a less complete way.

Reply Obj. 5: The cogitative and memorative powers in man owe their excellence not to that which is proper to the sensitive part; but to a certain affinity and proximity to the universal reason, which, so to speak, overflows into them. Therefore they are not distinct powers, but the same, yet more perfect than in other animals.

Reply Obj. 5: The thinking and memory abilities in humans aren't excellent because of the sensitive part; rather, they reflect a connection and closeness to universal reason, which somewhat flows into them. Therefore, they aren't separate abilities but the same ones, just more refined than in other animals.

Reply Obj. 6: Augustine calls that vision spiritual which is effected by the images of bodies in the absence of bodies. Whence it is clear that it is common to all interior apprehensions. _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: Augustine refers to that vision as spiritual, which occurs through the images of physical bodies when those bodies are not present. Therefore, it is evident that this is shared by all inner understandings.

QUESTION 79

OF THE INTELLECTUAL POWERS
(In Thirteen Articles)

OF THE INTELLECTUAL POWERS
(In Thirteen Articles)

The next question concerns the intellectual powers, under which head there are thirteen points of inquiry:

The next question is about intellectual abilities, which includes thirteen topics for discussion:

(1) Whether the intellect is a power of the soul, or its essence?

(1) Is the intellect a capability of the soul or its fundamental nature?

(2) If it be a power, whether it is a passive power?

(2) If it is a power, is it a passive power?

(3) If it is a passive power, whether there is an active intellect?

(3) If it’s a passive power, is there an active intellect?

(4) Whether it is something in the soul?

(4) Is it something in the soul?

(5) Whether the active intellect is one in all?

(5) Is the active intellect the same for everyone?

(6) Whether memory is in the intellect?

(6) Is memory part of the intellect?

(7) Whether the memory be distinct from the intellect?

(7) Is memory different from intellect?

(8) Whether the reason is a distinct power from the intellect?

(8) Is reason a separate power from the intellect?

(9) Whether the superior and inferior reason are distinct powers?

(9) Are the higher and lower forms of reasoning different abilities?

(10) Whether the intelligence is distinct from the intellect?

(10) Is intelligence different from intellect?

(11) Whether the speculative and practical intellect are distinct powers?

(11) Are the speculative and practical intellect separate abilities?

(12) Whether "synderesis" is a power of the intellectual part?

(12) Is "synderesis" a capability of the intellectual part?

(13) Whether the conscience is a power of the intellectual part? _______________________

(13) Is the conscience a function of the intellectual part? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 1]

Whether the Intellect Is a Power of the Soul?

Whether the Mind Is a Power of the Soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellect is not a power of the soul, but the essence of the soul. For the intellect seems to be the same as the mind. Now the mind is not a power of the soul, but the essence; for Augustine says (De Trin. ix, 2): "Mind and spirit are not relative things, but denominate the essence." Therefore the intellect is the essence of the soul.

Objection 1: It seems that the intellect isn’t just a function of the soul, but is actually the essence of the soul. The intellect appears to be the same as the mind. The mind isn't just a power of the soul; it's the essence itself. Augustine states (De Trin. ix, 2): "Mind and spirit are not relative things, but define the essence." Therefore, the intellect is the essence of the soul.

Obj. 2: Further, different genera of the soul's powers are not united in some one power, but only in the essence of the soul. Now the appetitive and the intellectual are different genera of the soul's powers as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 3), but they are united in the mind, for Augustine (De Trin. x, 11) places the intelligence and will in the mind. Therefore the mind and intellect of man is of the very essence of the soul and not a power thereof.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the various types of the soul's abilities are not combined into a single power but only in the essence of the soul. The appetitive and intellectual aspects are distinct types of the soul's abilities, as the Philosopher states (De Anima ii, 3), but they are united in the mind, since Augustine (De Trin. x, 11) identifies the understanding and will as part of the mind. Therefore, the mind and intellect of a person are part of the essence of the soul and not merely a power of it.

Obj. 3: Further, according to Gregory, in a homily for the Ascension (xxix in Ev.), "man understands with the angels." But angels are called "minds" and "intellects." Therefore the mind and intellect of man are not a power of the soul, but the soul itself.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, as Gregory states in a sermon for the Ascension (xxix in Ev.), "humans understand alongside the angels." However, angels are referred to as "minds" and "intellects." Thus, the mind and intellect of humans are not just a function of the soul, but are the soul itself.

Obj. 4: Further, a substance is intellectual by the fact that it is immaterial. But the soul is immaterial through its essence. Therefore it seems that the soul must be intellectual through its essence.

Obj. 4: Additionally, a substance is considered intellectual because it is immaterial. But the soul is immaterial by its very nature. Therefore, it appears that the soul must be intellectual by its nature.

On the contrary, The Philosopher assigns the intellectual faculty as a power of the soul (De Anima ii, 3).

On the contrary, The Philosopher assigns the intellectual ability as a capacity of the soul (De Anima ii, 3).

I answer that, In accordance with what has been already shown (Q. 54, A. 3; Q. 77, A. 1) it is necessary to say that the intellect is a power of the soul, and not the very essence of the soul. For then alone the essence of that which operates is the immediate principle of operation, when operation itself is its being: for as power is to operation as its act, so is the essence to being. But in God alone His action of understanding is His very Being. Wherefore in God alone is His intellect His essence: while in other intellectual creatures, the intellect is a power.

I respond that, Based on what has already been demonstrated (Q. 54, A. 3; Q. 77, A. 1), it’s essential to state that the intellect is a function of the soul, not its very essence. The essence of something that acts is only the direct cause of that action when the action itself constitutes its existence: just as power relates to action as its actualization, so does essence relate to being. However, in God alone, His act of understanding is His very Being. Therefore, only in God is His intellect His essence; whereas, in other intellectual beings, the intellect is merely a function.

Reply Obj. 1: Sense is sometimes taken for the power, and sometimes for the sensitive soul; for the sensitive soul takes its name from its chief power, which is sense. And in like manner the intellectual soul is sometimes called intellect, as from its chief power; and thus we read (De Anima i, 4), that the "intellect is a substance." And in this sense also Augustine says that the mind is spirit and essence (De Trin. ix, 2; xiv, 16).

Reply Obj. 1: Sometimes "sense" refers to the ability to perceive, and other times it refers to the sensitive soul itself; the sensitive soul gets its name from its main ability, which is sense. Similarly, the intellectual soul is sometimes referred to as "intellect," based on its primary function; and this is why we read (De Anima i, 4) that the "intellect is a substance." Augustine also uses this understanding when he states that the mind is spirit and essence (De Trin. ix, 2; xiv, 16).

Reply Obj. 2: The appetitive and intellectual powers are different genera of powers in the soul, by reason of the different formalities of their objects. But the appetitive power agrees partly with the intellectual power and partly with the sensitive in its mode of operation either through a corporeal organ or without it: for appetite follows apprehension. And in this way Augustine puts the will in the mind; and the Philosopher, in the reason (De Anima iii, 9).

Reply Obj. 2: The appetitive and intellectual powers are different types of powers in the soul due to the different characteristics of their objects. However, the appetitive power partially aligns with the intellectual power and partially with the sensitive power in how it operates, either through a physical organ or without one: because appetite follows understanding. In this way, Augustine places the will in the mind, while the Philosopher places it in reason (De Anima iii, 9).

Reply Obj. 3: In the angels there is no other power besides the intellect, and the will, which follows the intellect. And for this reason an angel is called a "mind" or an "intellect"; because his whole power consists in this. But the soul has many other powers, such as the sensitive and nutritive powers, and therefore the comparison fails.

Reply Obj. 3: Angels only have the intellect and the will, which follows the intellect. That's why an angel is referred to as a "mind" or an "intellect," because all its power comes from that. In contrast, the soul has many other powers, like the sensitive and nutritive powers, so the comparison doesn't hold up.

Reply Obj. 4: The immateriality of the created intelligent substance is not its intellect; and through its immateriality it has the power of intelligence. Wherefore it follows not that the intellect is the substance of the soul, but that it is its virtue and power. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The fact that a created intelligent substance is immaterial doesn’t mean that its intellect is the same thing. Its immaterial nature gives it the ability to think. Therefore, it doesn’t follow that the intellect is the essence of the soul, but rather that it is a quality and capability of it.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 2]

Whether the Intellect Is a Passive Power?

Whether the intellect is a passive ability?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellect is not a passive power. For everything is passive by its matter, and acts by its form. But the intellectual power results from the immateriality of the intelligent substance. Therefore it seems that the intellect is not a passive power.

Objection 1: It appears that the intellect is not a passive ability. Everything is passive due to its material aspect and acts based on its form. However, the intellectual ability comes from the non-material nature of the thinking substance. So, it seems that the intellect is not a passive ability.

Obj. 2: Further, the intellectual power is incorruptible, as we have said above (Q. 79, A. 6). But "if the intellect is passive, it is corruptible" (De Anima iii, 5). Therefore the intellectual power is not passive.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the intellectual power is uncorrupted, as mentioned earlier (Q. 79, A. 6). However, "if the intellect is passive, it can be corrupted" (De Anima iii, 5). Therefore, the intellectual power is not passive.

Obj. 3: Further, the "agent is nobler than the patient," as Augustine (Gen. ad lit. xii, 16) and Aristotle (De Anima iii, 5) says. But all the powers of the vegetative part are active; yet they are the lowest among the powers of the soul. Much more, therefore, all the intellectual powers, which are the highest, are active.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the "agent is nobler than the patient," as Augustine (Gen. ad lit. xii, 16) and Aristotle (De Anima iii, 5) state. However, all the functions of the vegetative part are active; yet they are the lowest among the powers of the soul. Therefore, all the intellectual powers, which are the highest, are even more active.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 4) that "to understand is in a way to be passive."

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 4) that "to understand is, in a sense, to be passive."

I answer that, To be passive may be taken in three ways. Firstly, in its most strict sense, when from a thing is taken something which belongs to it by virtue either of its nature, or of its proper inclination: as when water loses coolness by heating, and as when a man becomes ill or sad. Secondly, less strictly, a thing is said to be passive, when something, whether suitable or unsuitable, is taken away from it. And in this way not only he who is ill is said to be passive, but also he who is healed; not only he that is sad, but also he that is joyful; or whatever way he be altered or moved. Thirdly, in a wide sense a thing is said to be passive, from the very fact that what is in potentiality to something receives that to which it was in potentiality, without being deprived of anything. And accordingly, whatever passes from potentiality to act, may be said to be passive, even when it is perfected. And thus with us to understand is to be passive. This is clear from the following reason. For the intellect, as we have seen above (Q. 78, A. 1), has an operation extending to universal being. We may therefore see whether the intellect be in act or potentiality by observing first of all the nature of the relation of the intellect to universal being. For we find an intellect whose relation to universal being is that of the act of all being: and such is the Divine intellect, which is the Essence of God, in which originally and virtually, all being pre-exists as in its first cause. And therefore the Divine intellect is not in potentiality, but is pure act. But no created intellect can be an act in relation to the whole universal being; otherwise it would needs be an infinite being. Wherefore every created intellect is not the act of all things intelligible, by reason of its very existence; but is compared to these intelligible things as a potentiality to act.

I answer that, Being passive can be understood in three different ways. Firstly, in its strictest sense, it refers to when something loses an attribute that is part of its nature or natural tendency: for example, when water loses its coolness from being heated, or when a person becomes ill or sad. Secondly, in a less strict sense, a thing is considered passive when something, whether appropriate or not, is taken away from it. In this sense, both someone who is ill and someone who is healed can be described as passive; not only someone who is sad but also someone who is joyful; or however they may be changed or affected. Thirdly, in a broader sense, something is said to be passive because what is potentially able to receive something actually receives what it was capable of, without losing anything. Thus, anything that transitions from potentiality to actuality can be considered passive, even when it's been perfected. In this way, to understand is to be passive. This is evident for the following reason. The intellect, as discussed previously (Q. 78, A. 1), has an operation that encompasses universal being. Therefore, we can determine if the intellect is in action or potentiality by first observing its relationship to universal being. We find an intellect that relates to universal being as the act of all being: this is the Divine intellect, which is the Essence of God, in which all being initially and essentially exists as its first cause. Therefore, the Divine intellect is not in potentiality but is pure act. However, no created intellect can be an act concerning the entirety of universal being; otherwise, it would have to be an infinite being. Consequently, every created intellect is not the act of all intelligible things due to its very nature; rather, it stands in relation to these intelligible things as potentiality to act.

Now, potentiality has a double relation to act. There is a potentiality which is always perfected by its act: as the matter of the heavenly bodies (Q. 58, A. 1). And there is another potentiality which is not always in act, but proceeds from potentiality to act; as we observe in things that are corrupted and generated. Wherefore the angelic intellect is always in act as regards those things which it can understand, by reason of its proximity to the first intellect, which is pure act, as we have said above. But the human intellect, which is the lowest in the order of intelligence and most remote from the perfection of the Divine intellect, is in potentiality with regard to things intelligible, and is at first "like a clean tablet on which nothing is written," as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 4). This is made clear from the fact, that at first we are only in potentiality to understand, and afterwards we are made to understand actually. And so it is evident that with us to understand is "in a way to be passive"; taking passion in the third sense. And consequently the intellect is a passive power.

Now, potentiality has a dual relationship with act. There is a potentiality that is always perfected by its act, like the matter of the heavenly bodies (Q. 58, A. 1). Then there is another potentiality that isn’t always in act but moves from potentiality to act, as we see in things that are generated and corrupted. Therefore, the angelic intellect is always active regarding those things it can understand, due to its closeness to the first intellect, which is pure act, as we mentioned earlier. However, the human intellect, which is the lowest in the hierarchy of intelligence and furthest from the perfection of the Divine intellect, is in potentiality in relation to intelligible things, and is initially "like a clean slate on which nothing is written," as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 4). This is clear from the fact that initially we are only capable of understanding, and later we actually come to understand. Thus, it is evident that for us, understanding is "in a way to be passive," taking passion in the third sense. Consequently, the intellect is a passive power.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection is verified of passion in the first and second senses, which belong to primary matter. But in the third sense passion is in anything which is reduced from potentiality to act.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection is true regarding passion in the first and second senses, which relate to primary matter. However, in the third sense, passion exists in anything that is moved from potentiality to actuality.

Reply Obj. 2: "Passive intellect" is the name given by some to the sensitive appetite, in which are the passions of the soul; which appetite is also called "rational by participation," because it "obeys the reason" (Ethic. i, 13). Others give the name of passive intellect to the cogitative power, which is called the "particular reason." And in each case "passive" may be taken in the two first senses; forasmuch as this so-called intellect is the act of a corporeal organ. But the intellect which is in potentiality to things intelligible, and which for this reason Aristotle calls the "possible" intellect (De Anima iii, 4) is not passive except in the third sense: for it is not an act of a corporeal organ. Hence it is incorruptible.

Reply Obj. 2: Some refer to the "passive intellect" as the sensitive appetite, which contains the passions of the soul; this appetite is also referred to as "rational by participation," as it "follows reason" (Ethic. i, 13). Others use the term passive intellect to describe the cogitative power, often called "particular reason." In both cases, "passive" can be understood in the first two meanings, since this so-called intellect is associated with a physical organ. However, the intellect that is in potentiality to intelligible things, which Aristotle refers to as the "possible" intellect (De Anima iii, 4), is only passive in the third sense: it is not an act of a physical organ. Therefore, it is incorruptible.

Reply Obj. 3: The agent is nobler than the patient, if the action and the passion are referred to the same thing: but not always, if they refer to different things. Now the intellect is a passive power in regard to the whole universal being: while the vegetative power is active in regard to some particular thing, namely, the body as united to the soul. Wherefore nothing prevents such a passive force being nobler than such an active one. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The agent is nobler than the patient when both the action and the passion relate to the same thing; however, this isn’t always true if they refer to different things. The intellect is a passive power concerning the entirety of universal existence, while the vegetative power is active concerning a specific thing, namely, the body as it is connected to the soul. Therefore, there is no reason why such a passive force can’t be nobler than an active one.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 3]

Whether There Is an Active Intellect?

Whether There Is an Active Intellect?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is no active intellect. For as the senses are to things sensible, so is our intellect to things intelligible. But because sense is in potentiality to things sensible, the sense is not said to be active, but only passive. Therefore, since our intellect is in potentiality to things intelligible, it seems that we cannot say that the intellect is active, but only that it is passive.

Objection 1: It seems that there is no active intellect. Just as our senses relate to things that can be sensed, our intellect relates to things that can be understood. However, since sense is in potentiality to things that can be sensed, it is considered passive rather than active. Therefore, since our intellect is in potentiality to things that can be understood, it seems that we can only say that the intellect is passive, not active.

Obj. 2: Further, if we say that also in the senses there is something active, such as light: on the contrary, light is required for sight, inasmuch as it makes the medium to be actually luminous; for color of its own nature moves the luminous medium. But in the operation of the intellect there is no appointed medium that has to be brought into act. Therefore there is no necessity for an active intellect.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, if we argue that there is something active in the senses, like light: on the contrary, light is needed for sight because it makes the medium actually luminous; the color, by its very nature, activates the luminous medium. However, in the functioning of the intellect, there isn’t a specific medium that needs to be activated. Therefore, there is no need for an active intellect.

Obj. 3: Further, the likeness of the agent is received into the patient according to the nature of the patient. But the passive intellect is an immaterial power. Therefore its immaterial nature suffices for forms to be received into it immaterially. Now a form is intelligible in act from the very fact that it is immaterial. Therefore there is no need for an active intellect to make the species actually intelligible.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the characteristics of the agent are taken on by the patient based on the patient's nature. But the passive intellect is a non-material power. Thus, its non-material nature is enough for forms to be received into it in a non-material way. Now a form is actually intelligible simply because it is non-material. Therefore, there is no need for an active intellect to make the concept actually intelligible.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 5), "As in every nature, so in the soul is there something by which it becomes all things, and something by which it makes all things." Therefore we must admit an active intellect.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 5), "Just like with everything in nature, there is something in the soul that allows it to become all things, and something that enables it to create all things." So, we have to acknowledge an active intellect.

I answer that, According to the opinion of Plato, there is no need for an active intellect in order to make things actually intelligible; but perhaps in order to provide intellectual light to the intellect, as will be explained farther on (A. 4). For Plato supposed that the forms of natural things subsisted apart from matter, and consequently that they are intelligible: since a thing is actually intelligible from the very fact that it is immaterial. And he called such forms "species or ideas"; from a participation of which, he said that even corporeal matter was formed, in order that individuals might be naturally established in their proper genera and species: and that our intellect was formed by such participation in order to have knowledge of the genera and species of things. But since Aristotle did not allow that forms of natural things exist apart from matter, and as forms existing in matter are not actually intelligible; it follows that the natures or forms of the sensible things which we understand are not actually intelligible. Now nothing is reduced from potentiality to act except by something in act; as the senses as made actual by what is actually sensible. We must therefore assign on the part of the intellect some power to make things actually intelligible, by abstraction of the species from material conditions. And such is the necessity for an active intellect.

I answer that, According to Plato, there's no need for an active intellect to make things actually understandable; however, it may be necessary to provide intellectual insight to the mind, as will be explained later (A. 4). Plato believed that the forms of natural things existed separately from matter, and because of this, they are understandable: a thing is truly understandable simply because it is immaterial. He referred to these forms as "species or ideas," from which he claimed even physical matter was shaped, so that individuals could naturally belong to their appropriate genera and species; and our intellect was shaped by this participation to have knowledge of the genera and species of things. However, since Aristotle argued that the forms of natural things do not exist apart from matter, and that forms within matter are not actually understandable, it follows that the natures or forms of the sensible things we comprehend are not actually intelligible. Now, nothing is moved from potentiality to actuality without something that is already actual; as the senses are activated by what is actually sensible. Therefore, we must attribute to the intellect some capability to make things actually understandable through the abstraction of the forms from material conditions. This is the need for an active intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: Sensible things are found in act outside the soul; and hence there is no need for an active sense. Wherefore it is clear that in the nutritive part all the powers are active, whereas in the sensitive part all are passive: but in the intellectual part, there is something active and something passive.

Reply Obj. 1: Sensible things exist in action outside the soul; therefore, there is no need for an active sense. Thus, it is clear that in the nutritive aspect, all the powers are active, while in the sensitive aspect, all are passive; but in the intellectual aspect, there is a mix of both active and passive elements.

Reply Obj. 2: There are two opinions as to the effect of light. For some say that light is required for sight, in order to make colors actually visible. And according to this the active intellect is required for understanding, in like manner and for the same reason as light is required for seeing. But in the opinion of others, light is required for sight; not for the colors to become actually visible; but in order that the medium may become actually luminous, as the Commentator says on De Anima ii. And according to this, Aristotle's comparison of the active intellect to light is verified in this, that as it is required for understanding, so is light required for seeing; but not for the same reason.

Reply Obj. 2: There are two views about the role of light. Some argue that light is necessary for sight so that colors can be seen. In this view, the active intellect is needed for understanding, just as light is needed for seeing. However, others believe that light is needed for sight, not because it makes colors visible, but so that the medium can actually become illuminated, as the Commentator explains in De Anima ii. In this perspective, Aristotle's analogy of the active intellect as light holds true in that both are needed for their respective functions—understanding for the intellect and seeing for light—but for different reasons.

Reply Obj. 3: If the agent pre-exist, it may well happen that its likeness is received variously into various things, on account of their dispositions. But if the agent does not pre-exist, the disposition of the recipient has nothing to do with the matter. Now the intelligible in act is not something existing in nature; if we consider the nature of things sensible, which do not subsist apart from matter. And therefore in order to understand them, the immaterial nature of the passive intellect would not suffice but for the presence of the active intellect which makes things actually intelligible by way of abstraction. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: If the agent exists beforehand, it can be that its likeness is received differently in various things because of their qualities. But if the agent doesn't exist beforehand, the qualities of the recipient have no relevance. Now, the intelligible in action isn't something that exists in nature; when we look at the nature of sensible things, they don't exist apart from matter. Therefore, to understand them, the immaterial nature of the passive intellect alone isn't enough; we also need the presence of the active intellect, which makes things truly intelligible through abstraction.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 4]

Whether the Active Intellect Is Something in the Soul?

Whether the Active Intellect Is Something in the Soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that the active intellect is not something in the soul. For the effect of the active intellect is to give light for the purpose of understanding. But this is done by something higher than the soul: according to John 1:9, "He was the true light that enlighteneth every man coming into this world." Therefore the active intellect is not something in the soul.

Objection 1: It seems that the active intellect is not something within the soul. The role of the active intellect is to provide understanding. However, this is accomplished by something greater than the soul: as stated in John 1:9, "He was the true light that enlightens every person who comes into this world." Therefore, the active intellect is not something within the soul.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher (De Anima iii, 5) says of the active intellect, "that it does not sometimes understand and sometimes not understand." But our soul does not always understand: sometimes it understands, sometimes it does not understand. Therefore the active intellect is not something in our soul.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Philosopher (De Anima iii, 5) states about the active intellect, "it does not sometimes understand and sometimes not understand." However, our soul does not always understand: at times it understands, and at other times it does not. Therefore, the active intellect is not a part of our soul.

Obj. 3: Further, agent and patient suffice for action. If, therefore, the passive intellect, which is a passive power, is something belonging to the soul; and also the active intellect, which is an active power: it follows that a man would always be able to understand when he wished, which is clearly false. Therefore the active intellect is not something in our soul.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the agent and the patient are necessary for action. Therefore, if the passive intellect, which is a passive ability, belongs to the soul; and also the active intellect, which is an active ability: it follows that a person would always be able to understand whenever they wanted, which is clearly not true. Thus, the active intellect is not something that exists in our soul.

Obj. 4: Further, the Philosopher (De Anima iii, 5) says that the active intellect is a "substance in actual being." But nothing can be in potentiality and in act with regard to the same thing. If, therefore, the passive intellect, which is in potentiality to all things intelligible, is something in the soul, it seems impossible for the active intellect to be also something in our soul.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the Philosopher (De Anima iii, 5) states that the active intellect is a "substance in actual being." However, nothing can be both potential and actual concerning the same thing. Therefore, if the passive intellect, which is potential for all intelligible things, exists in the soul, it seems impossible for the active intellect to also exist in our soul.

Obj. 5: Further, if the active intellect is something in the soul, it must be a power. For it is neither a passion nor a habit; since habits and passions are not in the nature of agents in regard to the passivity of the soul; but rather passion is the very action of the passive power; while habit is something which results from acts. But every power flows from the essence of the soul. It would therefore follow that the active intellect flows from the essence of the soul. And thus it would not be in the soul by way of participation from some higher intellect: which is unfitting. Therefore the active intellect is not something in our soul.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, if the active intellect is something in the soul, it must be a power. It is neither a feeling nor a habit, since habits and feelings are not part of the nature of agents concerning the passivity of the soul; rather, a feeling is the very action of the passive power, while a habit is something that comes from actions. However, every power derives from the essence of the soul. Therefore, it would follow that the active intellect derives from the essence of the soul. Thus, it would not be in the soul by way of participation from some higher intellect, which is inappropriate. Therefore, the active intellect is not something in our soul.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 5), that "it is necessary for these differences," namely, the passive and active intellect, "to be in the soul."

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 5), that "it is necessary for these differences," namely, the passive and active intellect, "to be in the soul."

I answer that, The active intellect, of which the Philosopher speaks, is something in the soul. In order to make this evident, we must observe that above the intellectual soul of man we must needs suppose a superior intellect, from which the soul acquires the power of understanding. For what is such by participation, and what is mobile, and what is imperfect always requires the pre-existence of something essentially such, immovable and perfect. Now the human soul is called intellectual by reason of a participation in intellectual power; a sign of which is that it is not wholly intellectual but only in part. Moreover it reaches to the understanding of truth by arguing, with a certain amount of reasoning and movement. Again it has an imperfect understanding; both because it does not understand everything, and because, in those things which it does understand, it passes from potentiality to act. Therefore there must needs be some higher intellect, by which the soul is helped to understand.

I answer that, the active intellect that the Philosopher refers to exists within the soul. To clarify this, we must recognize that above the intellectual soul of humans, we must assume a higher intellect, from which the soul gains its ability to understand. Anything that exists through participation, that is transient, and imperfect, always needs the prior existence of something that is essentially such, unchanging, and perfect. The human soul is considered intellectual because it participates in intellectual power; a sign of this is that it is not entirely intellectual, but only in part. Furthermore, it grasps the understanding of truth through reasoning and some degree of movement. Additionally, it has an incomplete understanding, both because it doesn't comprehend everything, and because, in those things it does understand, it transitions from potentiality to actuality. Therefore, there must be a higher intellect that assists the soul in its understanding.

Wherefore some held that this intellect, substantially separate, is the active intellect, which by lighting up the phantasms as it were, makes them to be actually intelligible. But, even supposing the existence of such a separate active intellect, it would still be necessary to assign to the human soul some power participating in that superior intellect, by which power the human soul makes things actually intelligible. Just as in other perfect natural things, besides the universal active causes, each one is endowed with its proper powers derived from those universal causes: for the sun alone does not generate man; but in man is the power of begetting man: and in like manner with other perfect animals. Now among these lower things nothing is more perfect than the human soul. Wherefore we must say that in the soul is some power derived from a higher intellect, whereby it is able to light up the phantasms. And we know this by experience, since we perceive that we abstract universal forms from their particular conditions, which is to make them actually intelligible. Now no action belongs to anything except through some principle formally inherent therein; as we have said above of the passive intellect (Q. 76, A. 1). Therefore the power which is the principle of this action must be something in the soul. For this reason Aristotle (De Anima iii, 5) compared the active intellect to light, which is something received into the air: while Plato compared the separate intellect impressing the soul to the sun, as Themistius says in his commentary on De Anima iii. But the separate intellect, according to the teaching of our faith, is God Himself, Who is the soul's Creator, and only beatitude; as will be shown later on (Q. 90, A. 3; I-II, Q. 3, A. 7). Wherefore the human soul derives its intellectual light from Him, according to Ps. 4:7, "The light of Thy countenance, O Lord, is signed upon us."

Some believed that this intellect, which is essentially separate, is the active intellect that, by illuminating the images, makes them truly understandable. However, even if such a separate active intellect exists, we still need to attribute some power to the human soul that connects it to that higher intellect, allowing the human soul to render things understandable. Just like in other perfect natural beings, in addition to universal active causes, each has its own powers derived from those universal causes: the sun alone doesn’t create man; rather, in man lies the power to generate man; the same applies to other perfect animals. Among all lower beings, nothing is more perfect than the human soul. Thus, we must say that the soul has some power coming from a higher intellect, which enables it to illuminate the images. We know this from experience, as we notice that we abstract universal forms from their specific conditions, which makes them truly understandable. No action belongs to anything unless there is some principle fundamentally present within it, as we previously said about the passive intellect (Q. 76, A. 1). Therefore, the power that is the principle of this action must be something within the soul. For this reason, Aristotle (De Anima iii, 5) compared the active intellect to light, which is something that gets received into the air; whereas Plato likened the separate intellect influencing the soul to the sun, as Themistius mentions in his commentary on De Anima iii. But according to our faith, the separate intellect is God Himself, who is the Creator of the soul and the only source of beatitude, as will be explained later (Q. 90, A. 3; I-II, Q. 3, A. 7). Thus, the human soul obtains its intellectual light from Him, as stated in Ps. 4:7, "The light of Thy countenance, O Lord, is signed upon us."

Reply Obj. 1: That true light enlightens as a universal cause, from which the human soul derives a particular power, as we have explained.

Reply Obj. 1: That true light serves as a universal source of enlightenment, from which the human soul gains a unique strength, as we have discussed.

Reply Obj. 2: The Philosopher says those words not of the active intellect, but of the intellect in act: of which he had already said: "Knowledge in act is the same as the thing." Or, if we refer those words to the active intellect, then they are said because it is not owing to the active intellect that sometimes we do, and sometimes we do not understand, but to the intellect which is in potentiality.

Reply Obj. 2: The Philosopher says those words not about the active intellect, but about the intellect in action: of which he had already stated: "Knowledge in action is the same as the thing." Or, if we consider those words in relation to the active intellect, then they are indicating that it’s not due to the active intellect that we sometimes understand and sometimes do not, but rather due to the intellect that is in potentiality.

Reply Obj. 3: If the relation of the active intellect to the passive were that of the active object to a power, as, for instance, of the visible in act to the sight; it would follow that we could understand all things instantly, since the active intellect is that which makes all things (in act). But now the active intellect is not an object, rather is it that whereby the objects are made to be in act: for which, besides the presence of the active intellect, we require the presence of phantasms, the good disposition of the sensitive powers, and practice in this sort of operation; since through one thing understood, other things come to be understood, as from terms are made propositions, and from first principles, conclusions. From this point of view it matters not whether the active intellect is something belonging to the soul, or something separate from the soul.

Reply Obj. 3: If the relationship between the active intellect and the passive intellect was the same as that of an active object to a power, like the visible in action to sight, then we would be able to understand everything instantly, since the active intellect is what brings all things into existence. However, the active intellect is not an object; rather, it is what enables objects to be realized. In addition to the presence of the active intellect, we also need the presence of mental images, a good condition of the sensitive powers, and practice in this kind of operation. This is because understanding one thing leads to the understanding of other things, just as propositions are formed from terms, and conclusions come from first principles. From this perspective, it doesn’t really matter whether the active intellect belongs to the soul or exists separately from it.

Reply Obj. 4: The intellectual soul is indeed actually immaterial, but it is in potentiality to determinate species. On the contrary, phantasms are actual images of certain species, but are immaterial in potentiality. Wherefore nothing prevents one and the same soul, inasmuch as it is actually immaterial, having one power by which it makes things actually immaterial, by abstraction from the conditions of individual matter: which power is called the "active intellect"; and another power, receptive of such species, which is called the "passive intellect" by reason of its being in potentiality to such species.

Reply Obj. 4: The intellectual soul is indeed immaterial in nature, but it has the potential to take on specific forms. In contrast, phantasms are actual images of certain forms but are only potentially immaterial. Therefore, there's nothing to stop one and the same soul, since it is actually immaterial, from having one ability that allows it to create things that are actually immaterial, by separating them from the characteristics of individual matter; this ability is called the "active intellect." It also has another ability, which is receptive to such forms, referred to as the "passive intellect" because it is in potentiality to those forms.

Reply Obj. 5: Since the essence of the soul is immaterial, created by the supreme intellect, nothing prevents that power which it derives from the supreme intellect, and whereby it abstracts from matter, flowing from the essence of the soul, in the same way as its other powers. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: Since the nature of the soul is non-physical and created by the highest intellect, there’s nothing stopping that ability which it gets from the highest intellect, and through which it separates itself from matter, from coming from the essence of the soul, just like its other abilities.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 5]

Whether the Active Intellect Is One in All?

Whether the Active Intellect Is One in Everyone?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is one active intellect in all. For what is separate from the body is not multiplied according to the number of bodies. But the active intellect is "separate," as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 5). Therefore it is not multiplied in the many human bodies, but is one for all men.

Objection 1: It seems that there is one active intellect for everyone. What is separate from the body isn’t counted separately for each body. But the active intellect is "separate," as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 5). Therefore, it isn’t multiplied across many human bodies, but exists as one for all people.

Obj. 2: Further, the active intellect is the cause of the universal, which is one in many. But that which is the cause of unity is still more itself one. Therefore the active intellect is the same in all.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the active mind is the source of the universal, which exists as one in many. However, what causes unity is even more singular. Therefore, the active mind is the same in all.

Obj. 3: Further, all men agree in the first intellectual concepts. But to these they assent by the active intellect. Therefore all agree in one active intellect.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, everyone agrees on the initial intellectual concepts. They come to this agreement through the active intellect. Therefore, all of them agree on one active intellect.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 5) that the active intellect is as a light. But light is not the same in the various things enlightened. Therefore the same active intellect is not in various men.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 5) that the active intellect is like light. But light is not the same in different things it illuminates. Therefore, the same active intellect is not present in different people.

I answer that, The truth about this question depends on what we have already said (A. 4). For if the active intellect were not something belonging to the soul, but were some separate substance, there would be one active intellect for all men. And this is what they mean who hold that there is one active intellect for all. But if the active intellect is something belonging to the soul, as one of its powers, we are bound to say that there are as many active intellects as there are souls, which are multiplied according to the number of men, as we have said above (Q. 76, A. 2). For it is impossible that one same power belong to various substances.

I respond that, The answer to this question depends on what we’ve already discussed (A. 4). If the active intellect were not part of the soul, but instead a separate substance, there would be one active intellect shared by all people. This is what those who believe in a single active intellect for everyone mean. However, if the active intellect is part of the soul as one of its functions, we must conclude that there are as many active intellects as there are souls, increasing in number with each person, as we noted earlier (Q. 76, A. 2). It's impossible for one power to belong to multiple substances.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher proves that the active intellect is separate, by the fact that the passive intellect is separate: because, as he says (De Anima iii, 5), "the agent is more noble than the patient." Now the passive intellect is said to be separate, because it is not the act of any corporeal organ. And in the same sense the active intellect is also called "separate"; but not as a separate substance.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher proves that the active intellect is separate by showing that the passive intellect is separate: because, as he states (De Anima iii, 5), "the agent is more noble than the patient." The passive intellect is considered separate because it isn't the function of any physical organ. In the same way, the active intellect is also referred to as "separate"; however, not as a separate substance.

Reply Obj. 2: The active intellect is the cause of the universal, by abstracting it from matter. But for this purpose it need not be the same intellect in all intelligent beings; but it must be one in its relationship to all those things from which it abstracts the universal, with respect to which things the universal is one. And this befits the active intellect inasmuch as it is immaterial.

Reply Obj. 2: The active intellect is responsible for the universal by separating it from matter. However, it doesn't have to be the same intellect in all intelligent beings; instead, it should be unified in its connection to all the things from which it abstracts the universal, for which those things are considered one. This aligns with the active intellect because it is immaterial.

Reply Obj. 3: All things which are of one species enjoy in common the action which accompanies the nature of the species, and consequently the power which is the principle of such action; but not so as that power be identical in all. Now to know the first intelligible principles is the action belonging to the human species. Wherefore all men enjoy in common the power which is the principle of this action: and this power is the active intellect. But there is no need for it to be identical in all. Yet it must be derived by all from one principle. And thus the possession by all men in common of the first principles proves the unity of the separate intellect, which Plato compares to the sun; but not the unity of the active intellect, which Aristotle compares to light. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: All things of the same kind share the actions that come with that kind, and therefore the ability that drives those actions; however, this ability doesn’t have to be the same for everyone. Knowing the fundamental principles is the action that belongs to the human species. Thus, all people share the ability that drives this action: and that ability is the active intellect. But it doesn't have to be identical for everyone. Still, it should all come from one source. Therefore, the shared understanding of these fundamental principles among all people demonstrates the unity of individual intellect, which Plato likens to the sun; but not the unity of the active intellect, which Aristotle likens to light.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 6]

Whether Memory Is in the Intellectual Part of the Soul?

Whether Memory Is in the Intellectual Part of the Soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that memory is not in the intellectual part of the soul. For Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 2,3,8) that to the higher part of the soul belongs those things which are not "common to man and beast." But memory is common to man and beast, for he says (De Trin. xii, 2, 3, 8) that "beasts can sense corporeal things through the senses of the body, and commit them to memory." Therefore memory does not belong to the intellectual part of the soul.

Objection 1: It seems that memory is not part of the intellectual aspect of the soul. Augustine notes (De Trin. xii, 2,3,8) that the higher part of the soul includes things that are not "common to humans and animals." However, memory is shared between humans and animals, as he states (De Trin. xii, 2, 3, 8) that "animals can perceive physical things through their senses and remember them." Therefore, memory does not belong to the intellectual part of the soul.

Obj. 2: Further, memory is of the past. But the past is said of something with regard to a fixed time. Memory, therefore, knows a thing under a condition of a fixed time; which involves knowledge under the conditions of "here" and "now." But this is not the province of the intellect, but of the sense. Therefore memory is not in the intellectual part, but only in the sensitive.

Obj. 2: Additionally, memory relates to the past. However, the past is defined in relation to a specific time. Therefore, memory understands something within the context of a fixed time, which implies knowledge rooted in "here" and "now." But this does not belong to the intellect; it belongs to the senses. Thus, memory is not part of the intellectual aspect but rather only part of the sensory.

Obj. 3: Further, in the memory are preserved the species of those things of which we are not actually thinking. But this cannot happen in the intellect, because the intellect is reduced to act by the fact that the intelligible species are received into it. Now the intellect in act implies understanding in act; and therefore the intellect actually understands all things of which it has the species. Therefore the memory is not in the intellectual part.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the memory holds onto the forms of things we aren't currently thinking about. However, this can't occur in the intellect, because the intellect comes into play when it receives these intelligible forms. The active intellect means that there’s an active understanding, and as a result, the intellect actually understands everything of which it has the forms. Therefore, memory isn't part of the intellectual faculty.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. x, 11) that "memory, understanding, and will are one mind."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. x, 11) that "memory, understanding, and will are one mind."

I answer that, Since it is of the nature of the memory to preserve the species of those things which are not actually apprehended, we must first of all consider whether the intelligible species can thus be preserved in the intellect: because Avicenna held that this was impossible. For he admitted that this could happen in the sensitive part, as to some powers, inasmuch as they are acts of corporeal organs, in which certain species may be preserved apart from actual apprehension. But in the intellect, which has no corporeal organ, nothing but what is intelligible exists. Wherefore every thing of which the likeness exists in the intellect must be actually understood. Thus, therefore, according to him, as soon as we cease to understand something actually, the species of that thing ceases to be in our intellect, and if we wish to understand that thing anew, we must turn to the active intellect, which he held to be a separate substance, in order that the intelligible species may thence flow again into our passive intellect. And from the practice and habit of turning to the active intellect there is formed, according to him, a certain aptitude in the passive intellect for turning to the active intellect; which aptitude he calls the habit of knowledge. According, therefore, to this supposition, nothing is preserved in the intellectual part that is not actually understood: wherefore it would not be possible to admit memory in the intellectual part.

I answer that, Since memory naturally retains the essence of things that are not currently being perceived, we must first consider whether these understood essences can be stored in the intellect: because Avicenna believed this was impossible. He acknowledged that this could happen in the sensitive part, regarding some abilities, since they are functions of physical organs, where certain essences may be retained even without current perception. However, in the intellect, which lacks a physical organ, only intelligible content exists. Therefore, anything that has a likeness in the intellect must be fully understood. So, according to him, as soon as we stop actively understanding something, the essence of that thing disappears from our intellect, and if we want to understand it again, we must rely on the active intellect, which he considered a separate substance, so that the intelligible essence can flow back into our passive intellect. From the practice and habit of turning to the active intellect, a certain readiness develops in the passive intellect to engage with the active intellect; he refers to this readiness as the habit of knowledge. Therefore, based on this assumption, nothing is stored in the intellectual part that isn't currently understood: so, it wouldn't be possible to have memory in the intellectual part.

But this opinion is clearly opposed to the teaching of Aristotle. For he says (De Anima iii, 4) that, when the passive intellect "is identified with each thing as knowing it, it is said to be in act," and that "this happens when it can operate of itself. And, even then, it is in potentiality, but not in the same way as before learning and discovering." Now, the passive intellect is said to be each thing, inasmuch as it receives the intelligible species of each thing. To the fact, therefore, that it receives the species of intelligible things it owes its being able to operate when it wills, but not so that it be always operating: for even then is it in potentiality in a certain sense, though otherwise than before the act of understanding—namely, in the sense that whoever has habitual knowledge is in potentiality to actual consideration.

But this view clearly contradicts Aristotle's teaching. He states (De Anima iii, 4) that when the passive intellect "is identified with each thing as knowing it, it is said to be in act," and that "this occurs when it can operate on its own. Even then, it is in potentiality, but not in the same way as before learning and discovering." The passive intellect is said to be each thing because it receives the intelligible form of each thing. Therefore, to the fact that it receives the forms of intelligible things, it owes its ability to operate when it chooses, but not in a way that it is always operating: because even then it is in potentiality in a certain sense, though differently than before the act of understanding—specifically, in the sense that anyone with habitual knowledge is in potentiality for actual consideration.

The foregoing opinion is also opposed to reason. For what is received into something is received according to the conditions of the recipient. But the intellect is of a more stable nature, and is more immovable than corporeal nature. If, therefore, corporeal matter holds the forms which it receives, not only while it actually does something through them, but also after ceasing to act through them, much more cogent reason is there for the intellect to receive the species unchangeably and lastingly, whether it receive them from things sensible, or derive them from some superior intellect. Thus, therefore, if we take memory only for the power of retaining species, we must say that it is in the intellectual part. But if in the notion of memory we include its object as something past, then the memory is not in the intellectual, but only in the sensitive part, which apprehends individual things. For past, as past, since it signifies being under a condition of fixed time, is something individual.

The opinion mentioned above is also against reason. What is accepted into something is accepted based on the characteristics of the receiver. However, the intellect is more stable and less changeable than physical nature. Therefore, if physical matter can hold onto the forms it receives, not only while actively using them but also after it stops using them, then it makes even more sense for the intellect to receive ideas in a stable and lasting way, whether those ideas come from sensory experiences or from a higher intellect. Thus, if we consider memory only as the ability to hold onto ideas, we must conclude that it exists in the intellectual part. But if we think of memory as including what it refers to as something from the past, then memory isn't in the intellectual part but only in the sensitive part, which understands individual things. The past, by its nature, points to something conditioned by fixed time, which is inherently individual.

Reply Obj. 1: Memory, if considered as retentive of species, is not common to us and other animals. For species are not retained in the sensitive part of the soul only, but rather in the body and soul united: since the memorative power is the act of some organ. But the intellect in itself is retentive of species, without the association of any corporeal organ. Wherefore the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 4) that "the soul is the seat of the species, not the whole soul, but the intellect."

Reply Obj. 1: Memory, when viewed as the ability to hold onto information, is not something we share with other animals. This is because information isn't just kept in the sensitive part of the soul; it involves both the body and the soul working together, since the ability to remember relies on some physical organ. However, the intellect itself is capable of retaining information without needing to connect to any physical organ. Therefore, the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 4) that "the soul is the seat of information, not the whole soul, but the intellect."

Reply Obj. 2: The condition of past may be referred to two things—namely, to the object which is known, and to the act of knowledge. These two are found together in the sensitive part, which apprehends something from the fact of its being immuted by a present sensible: wherefore at the same time an animal remembers to have sensed before in the past, and to have sensed some past sensible thing. But as concerns the intellectual part, the past is accidental, and is not in itself a part of the object of the intellect. For the intellect understands man, as man: and to man, as man, it is accidental that he exist in the present, past, or future. But on the part of the act, the condition of past, even as such, may be understood to be in the intellect, as well as in the senses. Because our soul's act of understanding is an individual act, existing in this or that time, inasmuch as a man is said to understand now, or yesterday, or tomorrow. And this is not incompatible with the intellectual nature: for such an act of understanding, though something individual, is yet an immaterial act, as we have said above of the intellect (Q. 76, A. 1); and therefore, as the intellect understands itself, though it be itself an individual intellect, so also it understands its act of understanding, which is an individual act, in the past, present, or future. In this way, then, the notion of memory, in as far as it regards past events, is preserved in the intellect, forasmuch as it understands that it previously understood: but not in the sense that it understands the past as something "here" and "now."

Reply Obj. 2: The state of the past can relate to two things—specifically, the object that is known and the act of knowing. These two are found together in the sensory part, which perceives something through its interaction with a current sense experience: therefore, an animal simultaneously remembers having sensed something in the past and having sensed a previous sensory object. However, regarding the intellectual part, the past is incidental and is not inherently a part of the object of the intellect. The intellect understands a person as a person, and for a person, it is incidental that they exist in the present, past, or future. On the side of the act, the condition of the past can be recognized in the intellect, just like in the senses. This is because the act of understanding in our soul is an individual act that occurs at a specific time, as a person can be said to understand now, or yesterday, or tomorrow. This doesn't conflict with the nature of the intellect; for such an act of understanding, although specific, is still an immaterial act, as we mentioned earlier regarding the intellect (Q. 76, A. 1). Therefore, just as the intellect understands itself, even though it is an individual intellect, it also understands its own act of understanding, which is an individual act that can refer to the past, present, or future. In this way, the concept of memory, as it relates to past events, is retained in the intellect because it recognizes that it previously understood; but not in the sense that it perceives the past as something "here" and "now."

Reply Obj. 3: The intelligible species is sometimes in the intellect only in potentiality, and then the intellect is said to be in potentiality. Sometimes the intelligible species is in the intellect as regards the ultimate completion of the act, and then it understands in act. And sometimes the intelligible species is in a middle state, between potentiality and act: and then we have habitual knowledge. In this way the intellect retains the species, even when it does not understand in act. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The intelligible species can sometimes be in the intellect only in a potential state, and at that point, we say the intellect is in potentiality. Sometimes the intelligible species is in the intellect when the act is fully completed, and then it understands actively. And sometimes the intelligible species is in a middle state, between potentiality and act: this is what we call habitual knowledge. In this way, the intellect holds onto the species, even when it does not actively understand.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 7]

Whether the Intellectual Memory Is a Power Distinct from the Intellect?

Whether the Intellectual Memory Is a Power Distinct from the Intellect?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellectual memory is distinct from the intellect. For Augustine (De Trin. x, 11) assigns to the soul memory, understanding, and will. But it is clear that the memory is a distinct power from the will. Therefore it is also distinct from the intellect.

Objection 1: It seems that intellectual memory is different from the intellect. For Augustine (De Trin. x, 11) attributes memory, understanding, and will to the soul. However, it is clear that memory is a separate power from will. Therefore, it must also be distinct from the intellect.

Obj. 2: Further, the reason of distinction among the powers in the sensitive part is the same as in the intellectual part. But memory in the sensitive part is distinct from sense, as we have said (Q. 78, A. 4). Therefore memory in the intellectual part is distinct from the intellect.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the reason for the distinction among the powers in the sensitive part is the same as in the intellectual part. However, memory in the sensitive part is different from sense, as we have stated (Q. 78, A. 4). Therefore, memory in the intellectual part is different from the intellect.

Obj. 3: Further, according to Augustine (De Trin. x, 11; xi, 7), memory, understanding, and will are equal to one another, and one flows from the other. But this could not be if memory and intellect were the same power. Therefore they are not the same power.

Obj. 3: Additionally, as Augustine states (De Trin. x, 11; xi, 7), memory, understanding, and will are equal to each other, with each one coming from the other. However, this wouldn't be the case if memory and intellect were the same ability. Therefore, they are not the same ability.

On the contrary, From its nature the memory is the treasury or storehouse of species. But the Philosopher (De Anima iii) attributes this to the intellect, as we have said (A. 6, ad 1). Therefore the memory is not another power from the intellect.

On the contrary, Memory is essentially a treasury or storehouse of mental impressions. However, the Philosopher (De Anima iii) assigns this function to the intellect, as we have mentioned (A. 6, ad 1). Therefore, memory is not a separate ability from the intellect.

I answer that, As has been said above (Q. 77, A. 3), the powers of the soul are distinguished by the different formal aspects of their objects: since each power is defined in reference to that thing to which it is directed and which is its object. It has also been said above (Q. 59, A. 4) that if any power by its nature be directed to an object according to the common ratio of the object, that power will not be differentiated according to the individual differences of that object: just as the power of sight, which regards its object under the common ratio of color, is not differentiated by differences of black and white. Now, the intellect regards its object under the common ratio of being: since the passive intellect is that "in which all are in potentiality." Wherefore the passive intellect is not differentiated by any difference of being. Nevertheless there is a distinction between the power of the active intellect and of the passive intellect: because as regards the same object, the active power which makes the object to be in act must be distinct from the passive power, which is moved by the object existing in act. Thus the active power is compared to its object as a being in act is to a being in potentiality; whereas the passive power, on the contrary, is compared to its object as being in potentiality is to a being in act. Therefore there can be no other difference of powers in the intellect, but that of passive and active. Wherefore it is clear that memory is not a distinct power from the intellect: for it belongs to the nature of a passive power to retain as well as to receive.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (Q. 77, A. 3), the functions of the soul are identified by the different formal aspects of their objects: each function is defined in relation to the thing it focuses on, which is its object. It has also been stated above (Q. 59, A. 4) that if any function is naturally directed toward an object based on its common characteristics, that function will not be distinguished by the individual differences of that object; for example, the function of sight, which perceives its object in terms of the common characteristic of color, is not distinguished by the differences between black and white. Now, the intellect regards its object under the common characteristic of being: since the passive intellect is that "in which all are in potentiality." Therefore, the passive intellect is not differentiated by any differences of being. However, there is a distinction between the function of the active intellect and that of the passive intellect: because regarding the same object, the active power that brings the object into reality must be separate from the passive power, which is influenced by the object that already exists. Thus, the active power is related to its object as a being that is real is to a being that is potential; while the passive power, in contrast, is related to its object as a being that is potential is to a being that is real. Therefore, there can be no other difference of powers in the intellect, other than that of passive and active. This makes it clear that memory is not a separate function from the intellect: for it is inherent to the nature of a passive power to retain as well as to receive.

Reply Obj. 1: Although it is said (3 Sent. D, 1) that memory, intellect, and will are three powers, this is not in accordance with the meaning of Augustine, who says expressly (De Trin. xiv) that "if we take memory, intelligence, and will as always present in the soul, whether we actually attend to them or not, they seem to pertain to the memory only. And by intelligence I mean that by which we understand when actually thinking; and by will I mean that love or affection which unites the child and its parent." Wherefore it is clear that Augustine does not take the above three for three powers; but by memory he understands the soul's habit of retention; by intelligence, the act of the intellect; and by will, the act of the will.

Reply Obj. 1: While it's mentioned (3 Sent. D, 1) that memory, intellect, and will are three separate powers, this doesn't align with Augustine's view. He clearly states (De Trin. xiv) that "if we consider memory, understanding, and will as always present in the soul, regardless of whether we focus on them or not, they seem to belong only to memory. By understanding, I mean that which allows us to comprehend while actually thinking; and by will, I refer to the love or affection that bonds a child to its parent." Therefore, it's evident that Augustine does not regard these three as distinct powers; instead, he views memory as the soul's ability to retain, understanding as the function of the intellect, and will as the function of the will.

Reply Obj. 2: Past and present may differentiate the sensitive powers, but not the intellectual powers, for the reason give above.

Reply Obj. 2: The past and present may distinguish the sensitive powers, but not the intellectual powers, for the reason given above.

Reply Obj. 3: Intelligence arises from memory, as act from habit; and in this way it is equal to it, but not as a power to a power. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Intelligence comes from memory, just like actions come from habits; in this way, they are equal, but not in terms of power to power.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 8]

Whether the Reason Is Distinct from the Intellect?

Whether Reason is Different from Intellect?

Objection 1: It would seem that the reason is a distinct power from the intellect. For it is stated in De Spiritu et Anima that "when we wish to rise from lower things to higher, first the sense comes to our aid, then imagination, then reason, then the intellect." Therefore the reason is distinct from the intellect, as imagination is from sense.

Objection 1: It seems that reason is a separate ability from the intellect. As stated in De Spiritu et Anima, "when we want to move from lower things to higher, first we use our senses, then imagination, then reason, and finally the intellect." Therefore, reason is distinct from the intellect, just as imagination is from the senses.

Obj. 2: Further, Boethius says (De Consol. iv, 6), that intellect is compared to reason, as eternity to time. But it does not belong to the same power to be in eternity and to be in time. Therefore reason and intellect are not the same power.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Boethius states (De Consol. iv, 6) that intellect is to reason as eternity is to time. However, it is not within the same ability to exist in eternity and to exist in time. Therefore, reason and intellect are not the same ability.

Obj. 3: Further, man has intellect in common with the angels, and sense in common with the brutes. But reason, which is proper to man, whence he is called a rational animal, is a power distinct from sense. Therefore is it equally true to say that it is distinct from the intellect, which properly belongs to the angel: whence they are called intellectual.

Obj. 3: Additionally, humans share intellect with angels and senses with animals. However, reason, which is unique to humans—making us known as rational beings—is a faculty separate from the senses. Therefore, it is also accurate to say that reason is different from intellect, which is exclusive to angels, leading them to be referred to as intellectual.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iii, 20) that "that in which man excels irrational animals is reason, or mind, or intelligence or whatever appropriate name we like to give it." Therefore, reason, intellect and mind are one power.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iii, 20) that "what distinguishes humans from irrational animals is reason, or mind, or intelligence, or whatever fitting name we choose to use." Therefore, reason, intellect, and mind are one capability.

I answer that, Reason and intellect in man cannot be distinct powers. We shall understand this clearly if we consider their respective actions. For to understand is simply to apprehend intelligible truth: and to reason is to advance from one thing understood to another, so as to know an intelligible truth. And therefore angels, who according to their nature, possess perfect knowledge of intelligible truth, have no need to advance from one thing to another; but apprehend the truth simply and without mental discussion, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii). But man arrives at the knowledge of intelligible truth by advancing from one thing to another; and therefore he is called rational. Reasoning, therefore, is compared to understanding, as movement is to rest, or acquisition to possession; of which one belongs to the perfect, the other to the imperfect. And since movement always proceeds from something immovable, and ends in something at rest; hence it is that human reasoning, by way of inquiry and discovery, advances from certain things simply understood—namely, the first principles; and, again, by way of judgment returns by analysis to first principles, in the light of which it examines what it has found. Now it is clear that rest and movement are not to be referred to different powers, but to one and the same, even in natural things: since by the same nature a thing is moved towards a certain place, and rests in that place. Much more, therefore, by the same power do we understand and reason: and so it is clear that in man reason and intellect are the same power.

I answer that, Reason and intellect in humans can't be separate powers. We’ll understand this better if we consider what each does. To understand is simply to grasp intelligible truth, and to reason means to move from one understood concept to another in order to know an intelligible truth. Therefore, angels, who naturally possess perfect knowledge of intelligible truth, don’t need to move from one idea to another; they grasp the truth directly and without mental debate, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. vii). However, humans acquire knowledge of intelligible truth by moving from one idea to another, which is why we are called rational. Reasoning, then, is related to understanding like movement is to rest, or acquisition to possession; one belongs to the perfect, and the other to the imperfect. Since movement always starts from something unmoving and ends somewhere at rest, human reasoning advances through inquiry and discovery from basic understood principles; and likewise, through judgment, it returns through analysis to those fundamental principles, using them as a guide to assess what it has discovered. It’s clear that rest and movement shouldn’t be seen as different powers, but as one and the same, even in nature: because a thing is moved towards a certain place and rests there through the same nature. Thus, even more so, through the same power, we understand and reason; and it’s evident that in humans, reason and intellect are the same power.

Reply Obj. 1: That enumeration is made according to the order of actions, not according to the distinction of powers. Moreover, that book is not of great authority.

Reply Obj. 1: That list is organized by the order of actions, not by the distinction of powers. Additionally, that book isn't very authoritative.

Reply Obj. 2: The answer is clear from what we have said. For eternity is compared to time as immovable to movable. And thus Boethius compared the intellect to eternity, and reason to time.

Reply Obj. 2: The answer is clear from what we've said. Eternity is compared to time as something unchanging is to something that changes. So, Boethius compared the intellect to eternity and reason to time.

Reply Obj. 3: Other animals are so much lower than man that they cannot attain to the knowledge of truth, which reason seeks. But man attains, although imperfectly, to the knowledge of intelligible truth, which angels know. Therefore in the angels the power of knowledge is not of a different genus from that which is in the human reason, but is compared to it as the perfect to the imperfect. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Other animals are so much less advanced than humans that they can’t reach the knowledge of truth that reason seeks. However, humans can achieve, albeit imperfectly, an understanding of intelligible truth, which angels possess. Therefore, the ability to know in angels isn’t fundamentally different from that in human reason; it’s more like comparing the perfect to the imperfect.

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 9]

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 9]

Whether the Higher and Lower Reason Are Distinct Powers?

Whether Higher and Lower Reason Are Separate Abilities?

Objection 1: It would seem that the higher and lower reason are distinct powers. For Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 4,7), that the image of the Trinity is in the higher part of the reason, and not in the lower. But the parts of the soul are its powers. Therefore the higher and lower reason are two powers.

Objection 1: It seems that the higher and lower reason are separate faculties. For Augustine states (De Trin. xii, 4,7) that the image of the Trinity is found in the higher part of reason, not in the lower. But the parts of the soul are its faculties. Therefore, the higher and lower reason are two distinct powers.

Obj. 2: Further, nothing flows from itself. Now, the lower reason flows from the higher, and is ruled and directed by it. Therefore the higher reason is another power from the lower.

Obj. 2: Additionally, nothing comes from itself. The lower reason comes from the higher and is governed and guided by it. Thus, the higher reason is a different power from the lower.

Obj. 3: Further, the Philosopher says (Ethic. vi, 1) that "the scientific part" of the soul, by which the soul knows necessary things, is another principle, and another part from the "opinionative" and "reasoning" part by which it knows contingent things. And he proves this from the principle that for those things which are "generically different, generically different parts of the soul are ordained." Now contingent and necessary are generically different, as corruptible and incorruptible. Since, therefore, necessary is the same as eternal, and temporal the same as contingent, it seems that what the Philosopher calls the "scientific" part must be the same as the higher reason, which, according to Augustine (De Trin. xii, 7) "is intent on the consideration and consultation of things eternal"; and that what the Philosopher calls the "reasoning" or "opinionative" part is the same as the lower reason, which, according to Augustine, "is intent on the disposal of temporal things." Therefore the higher reason is another power than the lower.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the Philosopher states (Ethic. vi, 1) that "the scientific part" of the soul, through which the soul understands necessary things, is a distinct principle and differs from the "opinionative" and "reasoning" part that comprehends contingent things. He supports this by the idea that for things that are "generically different, there are different parts of the soul assigned." Now, contingent and necessary are generically different, just like corruptible and incorruptible. Therefore, since necessary is equivalent to eternal and temporal is equivalent to contingent, it appears that the "scientific" part referred to by the Philosopher must align with the higher reason, which, according to Augustine (De Trin. xii, 7), "focuses on the contemplation and consideration of eternal things"; and that the "reasoning" or "opinionative" part mentioned by the Philosopher corresponds to the lower reason, which, as Augustine notes, "focuses on the management of temporal things." Thus, the higher reason represents a different power than the lower.

Obj. 4: Further, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii) that "opinion rises from the imagination: then the mind by judging of the truth or error of the opinion discovers the truth: whence mens (mind) is derived from metiendo (measuring). And therefore the intellect regards those things which are already subject to judgment and true decision." Therefore the opinionative power, which is the lower reason, is distinct from the mind and the intellect, by which we may understand the higher reason.

Obj. 4: Additionally, Damascene states (De Fide Orth. ii) that "opinion comes from the imagination; then the mind, by judging the truth or falsehood of the opinion, uncovers the truth; hence mens (mind) comes from metiendo (measuring). Therefore, the intellect considers those things that are already subject to judgment and true decision." Thus, the opinionative power, which is the lower reason, is separate from the mind and the intellect, through which we can grasp the higher reason.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 4) that "the higher and lower reason are only distinct by their functions." Therefore they are not two powers.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 4) that "the higher and lower reason are only different in their functions." Therefore, they are not two separate powers.

I answer that, The higher and lower reason, as they are understood by Augustine, can in no way be two powers of the soul. For he says that "the higher reason is that which is intent on the contemplation and consultation of things eternal": forasmuch as in contemplation it sees them in themselves, and in consultation it takes its rules of action from them. But he calls the lower reason that which "is intent on the disposal of temporal things." Now these two—namely, eternal and temporal—are related to our knowledge in this way, that one of them is the means of knowing the other. For by way of discovery, we come through knowledge of temporal things to that of things eternal, according to the words of the Apostle (Rom. 1:20), "The invisible things of God are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made": while by way of judgment, from eternal things already known, we judge of temporal things, and according to laws of things eternal we dispose of temporal things.

I answer that, The higher and lower reason, as Augustine understands them, cannot be two separate powers of the soul. He states that "the higher reason is focused on the contemplation and consideration of eternal things": because in contemplation, it perceives them as they truly are, and in consideration, it derives its rules of action from them. He refers to the lower reason as that which "is focused on managing temporal things." These two—eternal and temporal—are connected to our knowledge in such a way that one serves as a means to understand the other. Through exploring the knowledge of temporal things, we come to know eternal things, in line with the Apostle's words (Rom. 1:20), "The invisible things of God are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made"; while by evaluating eternal things that we already know, we can make judgments about temporal things, and according to the principles of eternal things, we manage temporal matters.

But it may happen that the medium and what is attained thereby belong to different habits: as the first indemonstrable principles belong to the habit of the intellect; whereas the conclusions which we draw from them belong to the habit of science. And so it happens that from the principles of geometry we draw a conclusion in another science—for example, perspective. But the power of the reason is such that both medium and term belong to it. For the act of the reason is, as it were, a movement from one thing to another. But the same movable thing passes through the medium and reaches the end. Wherefore the higher and lower reasons are one and the same power. But according to Augustine they are distinguished by the functions of their actions, and according to their various habits: for wisdom is attributed to the higher reason, science to the lower.

But it can happen that the method and the results achieved from it belong to different habits: the initial undeniable principles belong to the habit of the intellect, while the conclusions we draw from them belong to the habit of science. Thus, we can take principles from geometry and apply them in another field—like perspective. However, reason is powerful enough that both the method and conclusion are part of it. The act of reasoning is, in a way, a transition from one thing to another. The same dynamic element goes through the method and reaches the conclusion. Therefore, both higher and lower reasoning share the same capability. According to Augustine, they are distinguished by the functions they serve and their differing habits: wisdom is associated with higher reasoning, while science is linked to lower reasoning.

Reply Obj. 1: We speak of parts, in whatever way a thing is divided. And so far as reason is divided according to its various acts, the higher and lower reason are called parts; but not because they are different powers.

Reply Obj. 1: We talk about parts in whatever way something is divided. In terms of how reason is divided based on its different functions, higher and lower reason are referred to as parts; but not because they are distinct abilities.

Reply Obj. 2: The lower reason is said to flow from the higher, or to be ruled by it, as far as the principles made use of by the lower reason are drawn from and directed by the principles of the higher reason.

Reply Obj. 2: The lower reasoning is said to come from the higher reasoning, or to be governed by it, because the principles used by the lower reasoning are derived from and guided by the principles of the higher reasoning.

Reply Obj. 3: The "scientific" part, of which the Philosopher speaks, is not the same as the higher reason: for necessary truths are found even among temporal things, of which natural science and mathematics treat. And the "opinionative" and "ratiocinative" part is more limited than the lower reason; for it regards only things contingent. Neither must we say, without any qualification, that a power, by which the intellect knows necessary things, is distinct from a power by which it knows contingent things: because it knows both under the same objective aspect—namely, under the aspect of being and truth. Wherefore it perfectly knows necessary things which have perfect being in truth; since it penetrates to their very essence, from which it demonstrates their proper accidents. On the other hand, it knows contingent things, but imperfectly; forasmuch as they have but imperfect being and truth. Now perfect and imperfect in the action do not vary the power, but they vary the actions as to the mode of acting, and consequently the principles of the actions and the habits themselves. And therefore the Philosopher postulates two lesser parts of the soul—namely, the "scientific" and the "ratiocinative," not because they are two powers, but because they are distinct according to a different aptitude for receiving various habits, concerning the variety of which he inquires. For contingent and necessary, though differing according to their proper genera, nevertheless agree in the common aspect of being, which the intellect considers, and to which they are variously compared as perfect and imperfect.

Reply Obj. 3: The "scientific" part that the Philosopher refers to is different from higher reasoning; necessary truths can even be found in temporary things, which are the focus of natural science and mathematics. The "opinionative" and "ratiocinative" parts are more limited than lower reasoning, as they only deal with contingent matters. We shouldn't straightforwardly say that the ability to know necessary things is separate from the ability to know contingent ones because both are understood under the same aspect of being and truth. Therefore, it knows necessary things perfectly, as they have a complete essence from which it can demonstrate their specific properties. In contrast, it knows contingent things imperfectly since those only have an imperfect form of being and truth. The difference between perfect and imperfect actions doesn’t change the ability itself but alters how those actions are carried out, which in turn affects their principles and the habits involved. Thus, the Philosopher identifies two lesser parts of the soul—namely, the "scientific" and the "ratiocinative," not because they are two different powers, but because they have distinct capabilities to receive various habits, which is what he examines. Even though contingent and necessary matters differ in their fundamental nature, they still share a common aspect of being that the intellect considers, relating to them in terms of being perfect or imperfect.

Reply Obj. 4: That distinction given by Damascene is according to the variety of acts, not according to the variety of powers. For "opinion" signifies an act of the intellect which leans to one side of a contradiction, whilst in fear of the other. While to "judge" or "measure" [mensurare] is an act of the intellect, applying certain principles to examine propositions. From this is taken the word "mens" [mind]. Lastly, to "understand" is to adhere to the formed judgment with approval. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The distinction made by Damascene is based on the different types of actions, not the different types of powers. For "opinion" means an action of the intellect that favors one side of a contradiction while being wary of the other. On the other hand, to "judge" or "measure" is an action of the intellect that applies certain principles to evaluate propositions. This is where the word "mens" [mind] comes from. Finally, to "understand" means to agree with the formed judgment.

TENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 10]

TENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 10]

Whether Intelligence Is a Power Distinct from Intellect?

Whether Intelligence Is a Power Separate from Intellect?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intelligence is another power than the intellect. For we read in De Spiritu et Anima that "when we wish to rise from lower to higher things, first the sense comes to our aid, then imagination, then reason, then intellect, and afterwards intelligence." But imagination and sense are distinct powers. Therefore also intellect and intelligence are distinct.

Objection 1: It seems that intelligence is a different ability than intellect. For we read in De Spiritu et Anima that "when we want to move from lower to higher things, first the senses help us, then imagination, then reason, then intellect, and finally intelligence." But imagination and senses are separate abilities. Therefore, intellect and intelligence must also be separate.

Obj. 2: Further, Boethius says (De Consol. v, 4) that "sense considers man in one way, imagination in another, reason in another, intelligence in another." But intellect is the same power as reason. Therefore, seemingly, intelligence is a distinct power from intellect, as reason is a distinct power from imagination or sense.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Boethius states (De Consol. v, 4) that "the senses view man one way, imagination in another, reason in another, and intelligence in yet another." However, intellect is the same ability as reason. Therefore, it seems that intelligence is a separate ability from intellect, just as reason is a separate ability from imagination or the senses.

Obj. 3: Further, "actions came before powers," as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 4). But intelligence is an act separate from others attributed to the intellect. For Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii) that "the first movement is called intelligence; but that intelligence which is about a certain thing is called intention; that which remains and conforms the soul to that which is understood is called invention, and invention when it remains in the same man, examining and judging of itself, is called phronesis (that is, wisdom), and phronesis if dilated makes thought, that is, orderly internal speech; from which, they say, comes speech expressed by the tongue." Therefore it seems that intelligence is some special power.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, "actions came before powers," as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 4). However, intelligence is an act distinct from the other functions of the intellect. Damascene states (De Fide Orth. ii) that "the first movement is called intelligence; but the intelligence related to a specific subject is referred to as intention; that which lingers and aligns the soul with what is understood is called invention, and when invention remains with the same person, reflecting and evaluating itself, it is called phronesis (which means wisdom), and if phronesis expands, it creates thought, that is, organized internal dialogue; from this, it is said, comes speech articulated by the tongue." Therefore, it appears that intelligence is a unique power.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 6) that "intelligence is of indivisible things in which there is nothing false." But the knowledge of these things belongs to the intellect. Therefore intelligence is not another power than the intellect.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 6) that "intelligence deals with indivisible things that contain no falsehoods." But the understanding of these things is tied to the intellect. Therefore, intelligence is not a separate ability from the intellect.

I answer that, This word "intelligence" properly signifies the intellect's very act, which is to understand. However, in some works translated from the Arabic, the separate substances which we call angels are called "intelligences," and perhaps for this reason, that such substances are always actually understanding. But in works translated from the Greek, they are called "intellects" or "minds." Thus intelligence is not distinct from intellect, as power is from power; but as act is from power. And such a division is recognized even by the philosophers. For sometimes they assign four intellects—namely, the "active" and "passive" intellects, the intellect "in habit," and the "actual" intellect. Of which four the active and passive intellects are different powers; just as in all things the active power is distinct from the passive. But three of these are distinct, as three states of the passive intellect, which is sometimes in potentiality only, and thus it is called passive; sometimes it is in the first act, which is knowledge, and thus it is called intellect in habit; and sometimes it is in the second act, which is to consider, and thus it is called intellect in act, or actual intellect.

I respond that, The term "intelligence" primarily refers to the act of understanding performed by the intellect. However, in some texts translated from Arabic, the separate beings we refer to as angels are called "intelligences," possibly because these beings are always actively understanding. In works translated from Greek, they are referred to as "intellects" or "minds." Therefore, intelligence is not separate from intellect, as power is from power; instead, it is like the relationship between act and power. This division is acknowledged even by philosophers. They sometimes identify four types of intellects—namely, the "active" and "passive" intellects, the intellect "in habit," and the "actual" intellect. Among these four, the active and passive intellects are different powers; similar to how in all things, active power is separate from passive power. However, three of these are distinct as three conditions of the passive intellect, which can sometimes exist only in potentiality, thus being referred to as passive; at other times, it is in the first act, which is knowledge, hence being called intellect in habit; and sometimes it is in the second act, which is to contemplate, identifying it as intellect in act, or actual intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: If this authority is accepted, intelligence there means the act of the intellect. And thus it is divided against intellect as act against power.

Reply Obj. 1: If we accept this authority, "intelligence" refers to the action of the intellect. Therefore, it is set against intellect as action is set against potential.

Reply Obj. 2: Boethius takes intelligence as meaning that act of the intellect which transcends the act of the reason. Wherefore he also says that reason alone belongs to the human race, as intelligence alone belongs to God, for it belongs to God to understand all things without any investigation.

Reply Obj. 2: Boethius considers intelligence to be the act of the intellect that goes beyond just reasoning. He also states that reason is unique to humans, while intelligence is unique to God, since God has the ability to understand everything without needing to investigate.

Reply Obj. 3: All those acts which Damascene enumerates belong to one power—namely, the intellectual power. For this power first of all only apprehends something; and this act is called "intelligence." Secondly, it directs what it apprehends to the knowledge of something else, or to some operation; and this is called "intention." And when it goes on in search of what it "intends," it is called "invention." When, by reference to something known for certain, it examines what it has found, it is said to know or to be wise, which belongs to "phronesis" or "wisdom"; for "it belongs to the wise man to judge," as the Philosopher says (Metaph. i, 2). And when once it has obtained something for certain, as being fully examined, it thinks about the means of making it known to others; and this is the ordering of "interior speech," from which proceeds "external speech." For every difference of acts does not make the powers vary, but only what cannot be reduced to the one same principle, as we have said above (Q. 78, A. 4). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: All the actions that Damascene lists belong to one capability—specifically, the intellectual capability. This capability first just understands something, and this action is called "intelligence." Secondly, it directs what it understands towards the knowledge of something else, or towards some action; and this is called "intention." When it then seeks out what it "intends," it's referred to as "invention." When it examines what it has discovered by comparing it to something known for sure, it is considered to know or to be wise, which relates to "phronesis" or "wisdom"; because "it is up to the wise person to judge," as the Philosopher states (Metaph. i, 2). Once it has confirmed something for certain, as thoroughly examined, it considers how to communicate it to others; and this is the organization of "interior speech," which leads to "external speech." The differences in actions do not change the powers, but only what cannot be traced back to the same principle, as mentioned above (Q. 78, A. 4).

ELEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 11]

ELEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 11]

Whether the Speculative and Practical Intellects Are Distinct Powers?

Whether the Speculative and Practical Intellects Are Separate Abilities?

Objection 1: It would seem that the speculative and practical intellects are distinct powers. For the apprehensive and motive are different kinds of powers, as is clear from De Anima ii, 3. But the speculative intellect is merely an apprehensive power; while the practical intellect is a motive power. Therefore they are distinct powers.

Objection 1: It seems that the speculative and practical intellects are different abilities. The apprehensive and motive aspects are different types of powers, as is clear from De Anima ii, 3. The speculative intellect is just an apprehensive ability, while the practical intellect is a motive ability. Therefore, they are different powers.

Obj. 2: Further, the different nature of the object differentiates the power. But the object of the speculative intellect is truth, and of the practical is good; which differ in nature. Therefore the speculative and practical intellect are distinct powers.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the different nature of the object distinguishes the power. However, the object of the speculative intellect is truth, while that of the practical intellect is good; these differ in nature. Therefore, the speculative and practical intellect are separate powers.

Obj. 3: Further, in the intellectual part, the practical intellect is compared to the speculative, as the estimative is to the imaginative power in the sensitive part. But the estimative differs from the imaginative, as power form power, as we have said above (Q. 78, A. 4). Therefore also the speculative intellect differs from the practical.

Obj. 3: In addition, in the intellectual aspect, the practical intellect is compared to the speculative one, just as the estimative is compared to the imaginative power in the sensitive aspect. However, the estimative differs from the imaginative in the same way that one power differs from another, as stated earlier (Q. 78, A. 4). Therefore, the speculative intellect also differs from the practical one.

On the contrary, The speculative intellect by extension becomes practical (De Anima iii, 10). But one power is not changed into another. Therefore the speculative and practical intellects are not distinct powers.

On the contrary, the speculative intellect, in turn, becomes practical (De Anima iii, 10). But one ability doesn't become another. Therefore, the speculative and practical intellects are not separate abilities.

I answer that, The speculative and practical intellects are not distinct powers. The reason of which is that, as we have said above (Q. 77, A. 3), what is accidental to the nature of the object of a power, does not differentiate that power; for it is accidental to a thing colored to be man, or to be great or small; hence all such things are apprehended by the same power of sight. Now, to a thing apprehended by the intellect, it is accidental whether it be directed to operation or not, and according to this the speculative and practical intellects differ. For it is the speculative intellect which directs what it apprehends, not to operation, but to the consideration of truth; while the practical intellect is that which directs what it apprehends to operation. And this is what the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 10); that "the speculative differs from the practical in its end." Whence each is named from its end: the one speculative, the other practical—i.e. operative.

I answer that, the speculative and practical intellects are not separate abilities. The reason for this is that, as we mentioned earlier (Q. 77, A. 3), what is incidental to the nature of an object's ability does not distinguish that ability; for it is incidental for a colored thing to be human or to be large or small; thus, all such characteristics are perceived by the same ability of sight. Now, for an idea perceived by the intellect, it is incidental whether it leads to action or not, and based on this, the speculative and practical intellects differ. The speculative intellect directs what it understands not toward action, but toward contemplating truth; while the practical intellect directs what it understands toward action. This is what the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 10); that "the speculative differs from the practical in its purpose." Therefore, each is named based on its purpose: one is speculative, the other practical— i.e., operative.

Reply Obj. 1: The practical intellect is a motive power, not as executing movement, but as directing towards it; and this belongs to it according to its mode of apprehension.

Reply Obj. 1: The practical intellect is a driving force, not by executing actions, but by guiding them; and this is what it does according to how it understands things.

Reply Obj. 2: Truth and good include one another; for truth is something good, otherwise it would not be desirable; and good is something true, otherwise it would not be intelligible. Therefore as the object of the appetite may be something true, as having the aspect of good, for example, when some one desires to know the truth; so the object of the practical intellect is good directed to the operation, and under the aspect of truth. For the practical intellect knows truth, just as the speculative, but it directs the known truth to operation.

Reply Obj. 2: Truth and goodness are interconnected; truth is something good, or else it wouldn’t be desirable, and goodness is something true, or else it wouldn’t make sense. So, just as the object of desire can be something true when it appears good—like when someone seeks to know the truth—the object of practical thinking is good directed toward action, and seen as truth. The practical intellect understands truth, just like the speculative intellect, but it applies that known truth to action.

Reply Obj. 3: Many differences differentiate the sensitive powers, which do not differentiate the intellectual powers, as we have said above (A. 7, ad 2; Q. 77, A. 3, ad 4). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: There are many differences that set apart the sensitive powers, which do not distinguish the intellectual powers, as we mentioned earlier (A. 7, ad 2; Q. 77, A. 3, ad 4).

TWELFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 12]

TWELFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 12]

Whether Synderesis Is a Special Power of the Soul Distinct from the
Others?

Whether Synderesis Is a Unique Ability of the Soul Separate from the
Others?

Objection 1: It would seem that "synderesis" is a special power, distinct from the others. For those things which fall under one division, seem to be of the same genus. But in the gloss of Jerome on Ezech. 1:6, "synderesis" is divided against the irascible, the concupiscible, and the rational, which are powers. Therefore "synderesis" is a power.

Objection 1: It seems that "synderesis" is a unique ability, different from the others. Things that belong to one category appear to be of the same kind. However, in Jerome's commentary on Ezekiel 1:6, "synderesis" is contrasted with the irascible, the concupiscible, and the rational, which are all abilities. Therefore, "synderesis" is an ability.

Obj. 2: Further, opposite things are of the same genus. But "synderesis" and sensuality seem to be opposed to one another because "synderesis" always incites to good; while sensuality always incites to evil: whence it is signified by the serpent, as is clear from Augustine (De Trin. xii, 12,13). It seems, therefore, that "synderesis" is a power just as sensuality is.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, opposing things belong to the same category. However, "synderesis" and sensuality appear to be opposites because "synderesis" always urges towards good, while sensuality always urges towards evil. This is symbolized by the serpent, as evident in Augustine (De Trin. xii, 12,13). Therefore, it seems that "synderesis" is a power just like sensuality.

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine says (De Lib. Arb. ii, 10) that in the natural power of judgment there are certain "rules and seeds of virtue, both true and unchangeable." And this is what we call synderesis. Since, therefore, the unchangeable rules which guide our judgment belong to the reason as to its higher part, as Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 2), it seems that "synderesis" is the same as reason: and thus it is a power.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Augustine states (De Lib. Arb. ii, 10) that within our natural judgment, there are certain "rules and seeds of virtue, both true and unchangeable." This is what we refer to as synderesis. Therefore, since the unchangeable rules that guide our judgment belong to the higher part of reason, as Augustine mentions (De Trin. xii, 2), it appears that "synderesis" and reason are the same thing; thus, it is a capability.

On the contrary, According to the Philosopher (Metaph. viii, 2), "rational powers regard opposite things." But "synderesis" does not regard opposites, but inclines to good only. Therefore "synderesis" is not a power. For if it were a power it would be a rational power, since it is not found in brute animals.

On the contrary, According to the Philosopher (Metaph. viii, 2), "rational powers consider opposing things." But "synderesis" does not consider opposites; it only leans toward what is good. Therefore, "synderesis" is not a power. If it were a power, it would be a rational power, since it is not found in non-rational animals.

I answer that, "Synderesis" is not a power but a habit; though some held that it is a power higher than reason; while others [*Cf. Alexander of Hales, Sum. Theol. II, Q. 73] said that it is reason itself, not as reason, but as a nature. In order to make this clear we must observe that, as we have said above (A. 8), man's act of reasoning, since it is a kind of movement, proceeds from the understanding of certain things—namely, those which are naturally known without any investigation on the part of reason, as from an immovable principle—and ends also at the understanding, inasmuch as by means of those principles naturally known, we judge of those things which we have discovered by reasoning. Now it is clear that, as the speculative reason argues about speculative things, so that practical reason argues about practical things. Therefore we must have, bestowed on us by nature, not only speculative principles, but also practical principles. Now the first speculative principles bestowed on us by nature do not belong to a special power, but to a special habit, which is called "the understanding of principles," as the Philosopher explains (Ethic. vi, 6). Wherefore the first practical principles, bestowed on us by nature, do not belong to a special power, but to a special natural habit, which we call "synderesis." Whence "synderesis" is said to incite to good, and to murmur at evil, inasmuch as through first principles we proceed to discover, and judge of what we have discovered. It is therefore clear that "synderesis" is not a power, but a natural habit.

I answer that, "Synderesis" is not a power but a habit; some believe it is a power that surpasses reason, while others [*Cf. Alexander of Hales, Sum. Theol. II, Q. 73] argue that it is reason itself, not in the way of reason, but as a natural aspect. To clarify this, we need to observe that, as mentioned earlier (A. 8), the act of reasoning in humans, being a type of movement, comes from the understanding of certain things—specifically those that are inherently known without any reasoning needed, functioning as an unchangeable principle—and also concludes with understanding, since we use those naturally known principles to judge things we uncover through reasoning. Now, it’s clear that just as speculative reason discusses theoretical things, practical reason discusses practical matters. Therefore, we should be endowed by nature with not just speculative principles but also practical ones. The first speculative principles given to us by nature do not belong to a distinct power but to a particular habit, which is referred to as "the understanding of principles," as the Philosopher explains (Ethic. vi, 6). Thus, the first practical principles granted to us by nature also do not belong to a specific power but to a unique natural habit, which we call "synderesis." Hence, "synderesis" is said to encourage good actions and to resent evil, as through these first principles we move towards discovering and judging what we have found. It is, therefore, evident that "synderesis" is not a power, but a natural habit.

Reply Obj. 1: The division given by Jerome is taken from the variety of acts, and not from the variety of powers; and various acts can belong to one power.

Reply Obj. 1: The division provided by Jerome is based on the variety of actions, not on the variety of abilities; and different actions can belong to one ability.

Reply Obj. 2: In like manner, the opposition of sensuality to "syneresis" is an opposition of acts, and not of the different species of one genus.

Reply Obj. 2: Similarly, the conflict between sensuality and "syneresis" is a conflict of actions, not of the different types within one category.

Reply Obj. 3: Those unchangeable notions are the first practical principles, concerning which no one errs; and they are attributed to reason as to a power, and to "synderesis" as to a habit. Wherefore we judge naturally both by our reason and by "synderesis." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Those fixed ideas are the fundamental practical principles, which no one gets wrong; they are linked to reason as a capability and to "synderesis" as a habit. Therefore, we naturally make judgments through both our reason and "synderesis."

THIRTEENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 13]

THIRTEENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 79, Art. 13]

Whether Conscience Be a Power?

Is Conscience a Force?

Objection 1: It would seem that conscience is a power; for Origen says [*Commentary on Rom. 2:15] that "conscience is a correcting and guiding spirit accompanying the soul, by which it is led away from evil and made to cling to good." But in the soul, spirit designates a power—either the mind itself, according to the text (Eph. 4:13), "Be ye renewed in the spirit of your mind"—or the imagination, whence imaginary vision is called spiritual, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 7,24). Therefore conscience is a power.

Objection 1: It seems that conscience is a power; for Origen says [*Commentary on Rom. 2:15] that "conscience is a correcting and guiding spirit that accompanies the soul, leading it away from evil and towards good." In the soul, the term spirit refers to a power—either the mind itself, as mentioned in the text (Eph. 4:13), "Be renewed in the spirit of your mind"—or the imagination, which is why imaginary vision is referred to as spiritual, as Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. xii, 7,24). Therefore, conscience is a power.

Obj. 2: Further, nothing is a subject of sin, except a power of the soul. But conscience is a subject of sin; for it is said of some that "their mind and conscience are defiled" (Titus 1:15). Therefore it seems that conscience is a power.

Obj. 2: Additionally, nothing can be considered sinful except for a function of the soul. However, conscience can be a subject of sin; as it is stated that "their mind and conscience are defiled" (Titus 1:15). Hence, it appears that conscience is a function.

Obj. 3: Further, conscience must of necessity be either an act, a habit, or a power. But it is not an act; for thus it would not always exist in man. Nor is it a habit; for conscience is not one thing but many, since we are directed in our actions by many habits of knowledge. Therefore conscience is a power.

Obj. 3: Additionally, conscience must necessarily be an act, a habit, or a power. But it isn't an act; otherwise, it wouldn't always exist in a person. Nor is it a habit; because conscience consists of many aspects, as we are influenced in our actions by various habits of knowledge. Therefore, conscience is a power.

On the contrary, Conscience can be laid aside. But a power cannot be laid aside. Therefore conscience is not a power.

On the contrary, Conscience can be ignored. But a power cannot be ignored. Therefore, conscience is not a power.

I answer that, Properly speaking, conscience is not a power, but an act. This is evident both from the very name and from those things which in the common way of speaking are attributed to conscience. For conscience, according to the very nature of the word, implies the relation of knowledge to something: for conscience may be resolved into "cum alio scientia," i.e. knowledge applied to an individual case. But the application of knowledge to something is done by some act. Wherefore from this explanation of the name it is clear that conscience is an act.

I answer that, Conscience is not a power; it's an action. This is clear both from the term itself and from how people typically refer to conscience. The word conscience suggests a connection between knowledge and something specific; it can be broken down into "cum alio scientia," which means knowledge applied to a particular situation. However, applying knowledge to something involves an action. Therefore, based on this definition, it's evident that conscience is an action.

The same is manifest from those things which are attributed to conscience. For conscience is said to witness, to bind, or incite, and also to accuse, torment, or rebuke. And all these follow the application of knowledge or science to what we do: which application is made in three ways. One way in so far as we recognize that we have done or not done something; "Thy conscience knoweth that thou hast often spoken evil of others" (Eccles. 7:23), and according to this, conscience is said to witness. In another way, so far as through the conscience we judge that something should be done or not done; and in this sense, conscience is said to incite or to bind. In the third way, so far as by conscience we judge that something done is well done or ill done, and in this sense conscience is said to excuse, accuse, or torment. Now, it is clear that all these things follow the actual application of knowledge to what we do. Wherefore, properly speaking, conscience denominates an act. But since habit is a principle of act, sometimes the name conscience is given to the first natural habit—namely, "synderesis": thus Jerome calls "synderesis" conscience (Gloss. Ezech. 1:6); Basil [*Hom. in princ. Proverb.], the "natural power of judgment," and Damascene [*De Fide Orth. iv. 22] says that it is the "law of our intellect." For it is customary for causes and effects to be called after one another.

The same is evident from the things associated with conscience. Conscience is said to witness, bind, incite, and also to accuse, torment, or rebuke. All of this comes from applying knowledge or understanding to our actions, which can be done in three ways. First, we recognize whether we have done something or not; "Your conscience knows that you have often spoken ill of others" (Eccles. 7:23), and in this context, conscience is said to witness. Second, through conscience, we judge whether something should be done or not; in this sense, conscience is seen as inciting or binding. Third, we judge whether an action is good or bad, and here conscience is described as excusing, accusing, or tormenting. It's clear that all of these follow the actual application of knowledge to our actions. Therefore, properly speaking, conscience refers to an act. However, since habit is a principle of action, sometimes the term conscience is used to refer to the first natural habit—namely, "synderesis": for instance, Jerome calls "synderesis" conscience (Gloss. Ezech. 1:6); Basil [*Hom. in princ. Proverb.] describes it as the "natural power of judgment," and Damascene [*De Fide Orth. iv. 22] states that it is the "law of our intellect." It's common for causes and effects to be named after one another.

Reply Obj. 1: Conscience is called a spirit, so far as spirit is the same as mind; because conscience is a certain pronouncement of the mind.

Reply Obj. 1: Conscience is referred to as a spirit, as spirit is synonymous with mind; because conscience is a specific judgment of the mind.

Reply Obj. 2: The conscience is said to be defiled, not as a subject, but as the thing known is in knowledge; so far as someone knows he is defiled.

Reply Obj. 2: The conscience is considered defiled, not as a subject, but as the thing known is understood; to the extent that a person is aware he is defiled.

Reply Obj. 3: Although an act does not always remain in itself, yet it always remains in its cause, which is power and habit. Now all the habits by which conscience is formed, although many, nevertheless have their efficacy from one first habit, the habit of first principles, which is called "synderesis." And for this special reason, this habit is sometimes called conscience, as we have said above. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: While an act may not always stay the same, it always connects back to its cause, which is power and habit. All the habits that shape conscience, although numerous, draw their effectiveness from a foundational habit, the habit of first principles, known as "synderesis." For this reason, this habit is sometimes referred to as conscience, as mentioned earlier.

QUESTION 80

OF THE APPETITIVE POWERS IN GENERAL
(In Two Articles)

OF THE APPETITIVE POWERS IN GENERAL
(In Two Articles)

Next we consider the appetitive powers, concerning which there are four heads of consideration: first, the appetitive powers in general; second, sensuality; third, the will; fourth, the free-will. Under the first there are two points of inquiry:

Next, we look at the appetitive powers, which we can break down into four areas of focus: first, the appetitive powers in general; second, sensuality; third, the will; and fourth, free will. Under the first category, there are two points to explore:

(1) Whether the appetite should be considered a special power of the soul?

(1) Should we think of appetite as a unique ability of the soul?

(2) Whether the appetite should be divided into intellectual and sensitive as distinct powers? _______________________

(2) Should our desires be split into intellectual and emotional as separate abilities? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 80, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 80, Art. 1]

Whether the Appetite Is a Special Power of the Soul?

Whether the appetite is a special power of the soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that the appetite is not a special power of the soul. For no power of the soul is to be assigned for those things which are common to animate and to inanimate things. But appetite is common to animate and inanimate things: since "all desire good," as the Philosopher says (Ethic. i, 1). Therefore the appetite is not a special power of the soul.

Objection 1: It seems that appetite isn’t a unique power of the soul. No power of the soul can be attributed to things that are common to both living and non-living entities. But appetite is something that applies to both living and non-living things, as "all desire good," as the Philosopher states (Ethic. i, 1). Therefore, appetite isn’t a special power of the soul.

Obj. 2: Further, powers are differentiated by their objects. But what we desire is the same as what we know. Therefore the appetitive power is not distinct from the apprehensive power.

Obj. 2: Additionally, powers are defined by their objects. But what we want is the same as what we understand. Therefore, the desire-based power is not separate from the understanding-based power.

Obj. 3: Further, the common is not divided from the proper. But each power of the soul desires some particular desirable thing—namely its own suitable object. Therefore, with regard to this object which is the desirable in general, we should not assign some particular power distinct from the others, called the appetitive power.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the common isn't separate from the specific. Each aspect of the soul seeks a certain desirable thing—specifically, its own appropriate object. Therefore, concerning this object which is desirable in general, we shouldn’t designate a specific power that is distinct from the others, called the appetitive power.

On the contrary, The Philosopher distinguishes (De Anima ii, 3) the appetitive from the other powers. Damascene also (De Fide Orth. ii, 22) distinguishes the appetitive from the cognitive powers.

On the contrary, The Philosopher differentiates (De Anima ii, 3) the appetitive from the other faculties. Damascene also (De Fide Orth. ii, 22) distinguishes the appetitive from the cognitive faculties.

I answer that, It is necessary to assign an appetitive power to the soul. To make this evident, we must observe that some inclination follows every form: for example, fire, by its form, is inclined to rise, and to generate its like. Now, the form is found to have a more perfect existence in those things which participate knowledge than in those which lack knowledge. For in those which lack knowledge, the form is found to determine each thing only to its own being—that is, to its nature. Therefore this natural form is followed by a natural inclination, which is called the natural appetite. But in those things which have knowledge, each one is determined to its own natural being by its natural form, in such a manner that it is nevertheless receptive of the species of other things: for example, sense receives the species of all things sensible, and the intellect, of all things intelligible, so that the soul of man is, in a way, all things by sense and intellect: and thereby, those things that have knowledge, in a way, approach to a likeness to God, "in Whom all things pre-exist," as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. v).

I answer that, it is necessary to assign a desire-driven aspect to the soul. To clarify this, we should notice that every form carries an inclination: for instance, fire, by its very nature, tends to rise and produce more fire. Now, forms exist more fully in beings that possess knowledge than in those that do not. In beings without knowledge, the form only compels each to exist as itself—that is, to fulfill its nature. Thus, this natural form is accompanied by a natural inclination, known as the natural appetite. However, in beings with knowledge, each one is determined to exist naturally by its form, yet is also capable of receiving the essence of other things: for example, the senses take in the essence of all sensory objects, and the intellect understands all intelligible things. This means that the human soul, in a sense, encompasses all things through sensation and intellect; and as a result, those beings with knowledge come closer to resembling God, "in Whom all things pre-exist," as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. v).

Therefore, as forms exist in those things that have knowledge in a higher manner and above the manner of natural forms; so must there be in them an inclination surpassing the natural inclination, which is called the natural appetite. And this superior inclination belongs to the appetitive power of the soul, through which the animal is able to desire what it apprehends, and not only that to which it is inclined by its natural form. And so it is necessary to assign an appetitive power to the soul.

Therefore, just as there are forms in things that possess knowledge in a greater way than natural forms, there must also be an inclination that exceeds the natural inclination, which is referred to as the natural appetite. This higher inclination belongs to the appetitive power of the soul, allowing the creature to desire what it perceives, not just what it is naturally inclined to. Thus, it's essential to attribute an appetitive power to the soul.

Reply Obj. 1: Appetite is found in things which have knowledge, above the common manner in which it is found in all things, as we have said above. Therefore it is necessary to assign to the soul a particular power.

Reply Obj. 1: Desire exists in beings that possess knowledge, beyond the usual way it appears in all things, as we mentioned earlier. Therefore, we need to attribute a specific capability to the soul.

Reply Obj. 2: What is apprehended and what is desired are the same in reality, but differ in aspect: for a thing is apprehended as something sensible or intelligible, whereas it is desired as suitable or good. Now, it is diversity of aspect in the objects, and not material diversity, which demands a diversity of powers.

Reply Obj. 2: What we perceive and what we want are essentially the same, but they appear different: we perceive something as either sensible or understandable, while we desire it because it seems appropriate or good. It’s the different perspectives on the objects that require different abilities, not a difference in their material nature.

Reply Obj. 3: Each power of the soul is a form or nature, and has a natural inclination to something. Wherefore each power desires by the natural appetite that object which is suitable to itself. Above which natural appetite is the animal appetite, which follows the apprehension, and by which something is desired not as suitable to this or that power, such as sight for seeing, or sound for hearing; but simply as suitable to the animal. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Each ability of the soul is a form or nature and has a natural tendency towards something. Therefore, each ability desires, through its natural appetite, what is appropriate for it. Above this natural appetite is the animal appetite, which follows perception, and by which something is desired not just as suitable for one ability or another, like sight for seeing or sound for hearing; but simply as appropriate for the animal itself.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 80, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 80, Art. 2]

Whether the Sensitive and Intellectual Appetites Are Distinct Powers?

Whether the Sensitive and Intellectual Appetites Are Separate Abilities?

Objection 1: It would seem that the sensitive and intellectual appetites are not distinct powers. For powers are not differentiated by accidental differences, as we have seen above (Q. 77, A. 3). But it is accidental to the appetible object whether it be apprehended by the sense or by the intellect. Therefore the sensitive and intellectual appetites are not distinct powers.

Objection 1: It seems that the emotional and intellectual desires are not separate functions. Functions aren't differentiated by accidental differences, as we've seen above (Q. 77, A. 3). But it is accidental to the object of desire whether it is understood by the senses or by the mind. Therefore, the emotional and intellectual desires are not separate functions.

Obj. 2: Further, intellectual knowledge is of universals; and so it is distinct from sensitive knowledge, which is of individual things. But there is no place for this distinction in the appetitive part: for since the appetite is a movement of the soul to individual things, seemingly every act of the appetite regards an individual thing. Therefore the intellectual appetite is not distinguished from the sensitive.

Obj. 2: Additionally, intellectual knowledge is about general concepts, so it’s different from sensitive knowledge, which focuses on specific things. However, this distinction doesn’t apply to the part of the soul that deals with desires: since desire is a movement of the soul toward specific things, it seems that every act of desire concerns a particular thing. Therefore, the intellectual desire is not separate from the sensitive one.

Obj. 3: Further, as under the apprehensive power, the appetitive is subordinate as a lower power, so also is the motive power. But the motive power which in man follows the intellect is not distinct from the motive power which in animals follows sense. Therefore, for a like reason, neither is there distinction in the appetitive part.

Obj. 3: Additionally, just as the appetitive power is subordinate to the apprehensive power as a lower power, the same applies to the motive power. However, the motive power in humans that follows intellect is not separate from the motive power in animals that follows their senses. Therefore, for similar reasons, there is also no distinction in the appetitive part.

On the contrary, The Philosopher (De Anima iii, 9) distinguishes a double appetite, and says (De Anima iii, 11) that the higher appetite moves the lower.

On the contrary, The Philosopher (De Anima iii, 9) distinguishes a double desire and states (De Anima iii, 11) that the higher desire influences the lower.

I answer that, We must needs say that the intellectual appetite is a distinct power from the sensitive appetite. For the appetitive power is a passive power, which is naturally moved by the thing apprehended: wherefore the apprehended appetible is a mover which is not moved, while the appetite is a mover moved, as the Philosopher says in De Anima iii, 10 and Metaph. xii (Did. xi, 7). Now things passive and movable are differentiated according to the distinction of the corresponding active and motive principles; because the motive must be proportionate to the movable, and the active to the passive: indeed, the passive power itself has its very nature from its relation to its active principle. Therefore, since what is apprehended by the intellect and what is apprehended by sense are generically different; consequently, the intellectual appetite is distinct from the sensitive.

I answer that, we must say that the intellectual desire is a different power from the sensory desire. The appetitive power is a passive power, which is naturally influenced by the thing perceived: thus, the perceived appetible is a mover that is not moved, whereas the appetite is a mover that is moved, as the Philosopher says in De Anima iii, 10 and Metaph. xii (Did. xi, 7). Now, passive and movable things are distinguished according to the distinction of the corresponding active and motivating principles; because the motive must be appropriate to the movable, and the active to the passive: indeed, the passive power itself derives its very nature from its relationship to its active principle. Therefore, since what is understood by the intellect and what is perceived by the senses are generically different; consequently, the intellectual appetite is distinct from the sensory.

Reply Obj. 1: It is not accidental to the thing desired to be apprehended by the sense or the intellect; on the contrary, this belongs to it by its nature; for the appetible does not move the appetite except as it is apprehended. Wherefore differences in the thing apprehended are of themselves differences of the appetible. And so the appetitive powers are distinct according to the distinction of the things apprehended, as their proper objects.

Reply Obj. 1: It is not random that the thing we want to understand is perceived by the senses or the mind; actually, this is inherent to its nature. The desire does not activate the appetite unless it is understood. Therefore, variations in what is perceived are inherently variations in what can be desired. Thus, the powers of desire are distinct according to the differences in the things that are perceived, as these are their specific objects.

Reply Obj. 2: The intellectual appetite, though it tends to individual things which exist outside the soul, yet tends to them as standing under the universal; as when it desires something because it is good. Wherefore the Philosopher says (Rhetoric. ii, 4) that hatred can regard a universal, as when "we hate every kind of thief." In the same way by the intellectual appetite we may desire the immaterial good, which is not apprehended by sense, such as knowledge, virtue, and suchlike. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The intellectual appetite, while it usually focuses on specific things that exist outside the mind, does so in relation to the universal; for example, it desires something because it is good. This is why the Philosopher says (Rhetoric. ii, 4) that hatred can consider a universal, as when "we hate every kind of thief." Similarly, through the intellectual appetite, we can desire the immaterial good, which cannot be sensed, such as knowledge, virtue, and similar concepts.

QUESTION 81

OF THE POWER OF SENSUALITY
(In Three Articles)

OF THE POWER OF SENSUALITY
(In Three Articles)

Next we have to consider the power of sensuality, concerning which there are three points of inquiry:

Next, we need to think about the power of sensuality, which leads us to three key questions:

(1) Whether sensuality is only an appetitive power?

(1) Is sensuality just a desire-driven instinct?

(2) Whether it is divided into irascible and concupiscible as distinct powers?

(2) Is it divided into anger and desire as separate powers?

(3) Whether the irascible and concupiscible powers obey reason? _______________________

(3) Do the angry and longing desires follow reason? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 81, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 81, Art. 1]

Whether Sensuality Is Only Appetitive?

Is Sensuality Just About Desire?

Objection 1: It would seem that sensuality is not only appetitive, but also cognitive. For Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 12) that "the sensual movement of the soul which is directed to the bodily senses is common to us and beasts." But the bodily senses belong to the apprehensive powers. Therefore sensuality is a cognitive power.

Objection 1: It seems that sensuality is not just about desire, but also about understanding. Augustine states (De Trin. xii, 12) that "the sensual movement of the soul, which relates to the bodily senses, is shared between us and animals." Since the bodily senses are part of our ability to perceive, sensuality must be a cognitive power.

Obj. 2: Further, things which come under one division seem to be of one genus. But Augustine (De Trin. xii, 12) divides sensuality against the higher and lower reason, which belong to knowledge. Therefore sensuality also is apprehensive.

Obj. 2: Additionally, things that fall under one category appear to be of the same kind. However, Augustine (De Trin. xii, 12) distinguishes between higher and lower reason in relation to knowledge. Therefore, sensuality is also a form of understanding.

Obj. 3: Further, in man's temptations sensuality stands in the place of the "serpent." But in the temptation of our first parents, the serpent presented himself as one giving information and proposing sin, which belong to the cognitive power. Therefore sensuality is a cognitive power.

Obj. 3: Additionally, in human temptations, sensuality takes the role of the "serpent." In the temptation of our first parents, the serpent appeared as someone offering knowledge and suggesting sin, which is related to the cognitive ability. Therefore, sensuality is a cognitive ability.

On the contrary, Sensuality is defined as "the appetite of things belonging to the body."

On the contrary, Sensuality is defined as "the desire for things related to the body."

I answer that, The name sensuality seems to be taken from the sensual movement, of which Augustine speaks (De Trin. xii, 12, 13), just as the name of a power is taken from its act; for instance, sight from seeing. Now the sensual movement is an appetite following sensitive apprehension. For the act of the apprehensive power is not so properly called a movement as the act of the appetite: since the operation of the apprehensive power is completed in the very fact that the thing apprehended is in the one that apprehends: while the operation of the appetitive power is completed in the fact that he who desires is borne towards the thing desirable. Therefore the operation of the apprehensive power is likened to rest: whereas the operation of the appetitive power is rather likened to movement. Wherefore by sensual movement we understand the operation of the appetitive power: so that sensuality is the name of the sensitive appetite.

I answer that, The term sensuality seems to come from the sensual movement that Augustine talks about (De Trin. xii, 12, 13), just as the name of a power is derived from its action; for example, sight comes from seeing. The sensual movement is an appetite that follows sensory perception. The action of the perceiving ability is not as accurately described as a movement as the action of the appetite is: the operation of the perceiving ability is complete the moment what is perceived is present to the one perceiving, while the operation of the appetitive ability is complete when the person who desires is drawn toward what they find desirable. Thus, the operation of the perceiving ability is similar to rest, while the operation of the appetitive ability is more like movement. Therefore, by sensual movement, we mean the action of the appetitive ability, so sensuality is the name of the sensitive appetite.

Reply Obj. 1: By saying that the sensual movement of the soul is directed to the bodily senses, Augustine does not give us to understand that the bodily senses are included in sensuality, but rather that the movement of sensuality is a certain inclination to the bodily senses, since we desire things which are apprehended through the bodily senses. And thus the bodily senses appertain to sensuality as a preamble.

Reply Obj. 1: When Augustine says that the sensual movement of the soul is directed toward the bodily senses, he's not saying that the bodily senses are part of sensuality. Instead, he means that the movement of sensuality is an inclination toward the bodily senses because we desire things we perceive through them. So, the bodily senses relate to sensuality as a sort of introduction.

Reply Obj. 2: Sensuality is divided against higher and lower reason, as having in common with them the act of movement: for the apprehensive power, to which belong the higher and lower reason, is a motive power; as is appetite, to which appertains sensuality.

Reply Obj. 2: Sensuality is divided between higher and lower reason because they both share the capacity for movement. The understanding power, which includes both higher and lower reason, acts as a driving force, just like appetite, which is associated with sensuality.

Reply Obj. 3: The serpent not only showed and proposed sin, but also incited to the commission of sin. And in this, sensuality is signified by the serpent. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The serpent not only revealed and suggested sin but also encouraged the act of sin. In this, sensuality is represented by the serpent.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 81, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 81, Art. 2]

Whether the Sensitive Appetite Is Divided into the Irascible and
Concupiscible As Distinct Powers?

Whether the Sensitive Appetite Is Divided into the Irritable and
Desire as Distinct Powers?

Objection 1: It would seem that the sensitive appetite is not divided into the irascible and concupiscible as distinct powers. For the same power of the soul regards both sides of a contrariety, as sight regards both black and white, according to the Philosopher (De Anima ii, 11). But suitable and harmful are contraries. Since, then, the concupiscible power regards what is suitable, while the irascible is concerned with what is harmful, it seems that irascible and concupiscible are the same power in the soul.

Objection 1: It seems that the sensitive appetite isn't divided into the irascible and concupiscible as separate powers. The same power of the soul considers both sides of a contradiction, just as sight perceives both black and white, according to the Philosopher (De Anima ii, 11). However, suitable and harmful are opposites. Since the concupiscible power focuses on what is suitable, while the irascible deals with what is harmful, it seems that the irascible and concupiscible are actually the same power within the soul.

Obj. 2: Further, the sensitive appetite regards only what is suitable according to the senses. But such is the object of the concupiscible power. Therefore there is no sensitive appetite differing from the concupiscible.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the sensitive appetite only concerns what is appealing based on the senses. This is precisely the focus of the concupiscible power. Therefore, there is no sensitive appetite that is different from the concupiscible.

Obj. 3: Further, hatred is in the irascible part: for Jerome says on Matt. 13:33: "We ought to have the hatred of vice in the irascible power." But hatred is contrary to love, and is in the concupiscible part. Therefore the concupiscible and irascible are the same powers.

Obj. 3: Additionally, hatred is in the passionate part: for Jerome says on Matt. 13:33: "We should have a hatred for vice in the passionate power." But hatred is the opposite of love, which is in the desirous part. Therefore, the desirous and passionate powers are the same.

On the contrary, Gregory of Nyssa (Nemesius, De Natura Hominis) and Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii, 12) assign two parts to the sensitive appetite, the irascible and the concupiscible.

On the contrary, Gregory of Nyssa (Nemesius, De Natura Hominis) and Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii, 12) divide the sensitive appetite into two parts: the irascible and the concupiscible.

I answer that, The sensitive appetite is one generic power, and is called sensuality; but it is divided into two powers, which are species of the sensitive appetite—the irascible and the concupiscible. In order to make this clear, we must observe that in natural corruptible things there is needed an inclination not only to the acquisition of what is suitable and to the avoiding of what is harmful, but also to resistance against corruptive and contrary agencies which are a hindrance to the acquisition of what is suitable, and are productive of harm. For example, fire has a natural inclination, not only to rise from a lower position, which is unsuitable to it, towards a higher position which is suitable, but also to resist whatever destroys or hinders its action. Therefore, since the sensitive appetite is an inclination following sensitive apprehension, as natural appetite is an inclination following the natural form, there must needs be in the sensitive part two appetitive powers—one through which the soul is simply inclined to seek what is suitable, according to the senses, and to fly from what is hurtful, and this is called the concupiscible: and another, whereby an animal resists these attacks that hinder what is suitable, and inflict harm, and this is called the irascible. Whence we say that its object is something arduous, because its tendency is to overcome and rise above obstacles. Now these two are not to be reduced to one principle: for sometimes the soul busies itself with unpleasant things, against the inclination of the concupiscible appetite, in order that, following the impulse of the irascible appetite, it may fight against obstacles. Wherefore also the passions of the irascible appetite counteract the passions of the concupiscible appetite: since the concupiscence, on being aroused, diminishes anger; and anger being roused, diminishes concupiscence in many cases. This is clear also from the fact that the irascible is, as it were, the champion and defender of the concupiscible when it rises up against what hinders the acquisition of the suitable things which the concupiscible desires, or against what inflicts harm, from which the concupiscible flies. And for this reason all the passions of the irascible appetite rise from the passions of the concupiscible appetite and terminate in them; for instance, anger rises from sadness, and having wrought vengeance, terminates in joy. For this reason also the quarrels of animals are about things concupiscible—namely, food and sex, as the Philosopher says [*De Animal. Histor. viii.].

I respond that the sensitive appetite is one general power, known as sensuality; however, it is divided into two powers that are types of the sensitive appetite—the irascible and the concupiscible. To clarify this, we must recognize that in naturally corruptible things, there is a need for an inclination not only to seek out what is beneficial and to avoid what is harmful, but also to resist destructive and opposing forces that obstruct the acquisition of what is beneficial and cause harm. For example, fire naturally wants to rise from a lower position, which is not suitable for it, to a higher position that is suitable, and it also resists anything that destroys or impedes its movement. Thus, since the sensitive appetite inclines following sensory perception, just as the natural appetite follows the natural form, there must be two appetitive powers within the sensitive part—one by which the soul is simply inclined to seek what is suitable according to the senses and to avoid what is harmful, known as the concupiscible; and another by which an animal resists challenges that hinder suitable outcomes and inflict harm, known as the irascible. Therefore, we say that its object is something difficult, because its aim is to overcome and rise above obstacles. These two powers cannot be reduced to a single principle: sometimes the soul engages with unpleasant things, going against the inclination of the concupiscible appetite, so that it can, driven by the irascible appetite, fight against obstacles. Hence, the passions of the irascible appetite counteract the passions of the concupiscible appetite; for when concupiscence is heightened, it diminishes anger, and when anger rises, it can reduce concupiscence. This is evident since the irascible acts as a defender of the concupiscible when it confronts forces that obstruct the desirable things the concupiscible seeks or against what causes harm, which the concupiscible tries to avoid. For this reason, all the passions of the irascible appetite originate from the passions of the concupiscible appetite and lead back to them; for instance, anger arises from sadness, and after achieving vengeance, it concludes in joy. Consequently, the conflicts among animals revolve around concupiscible matters—specifically, food and sex, as the Philosopher states [*De Animal. Histor. viii.].

Reply Obj. 1: The concupiscible power regards both what is suitable and what is unsuitable. But the object of the irascible power is to resist the onslaught of the unsuitable.

Reply Obj. 1: The desire for pleasure concerns both what’s desirable and what’s not. However, the purpose of the power to resist is to fight against what is undesirable.

Reply Obj. 2: As in the apprehensive powers of the sensitive part there is an estimative power, which perceives those things which do not impress the senses, as we have said above (Q. 78, A. 2); so also in the sensitive appetite there is a certain appetitive power which regards something as suitable, not because it pleases the senses, but because it is useful to the animal for self-defense: and this is the irascible power.

Reply Obj. 2: Just like the sensitive part has an evaluative ability that perceives things not captured by the senses, as mentioned earlier (Q. 78, A. 2), the sensitive appetite also has a certain desire that sees something as fitting, not because it appeals to the senses, but because it is beneficial for the animal's self-defense: and this is the irascible ability.

Reply Obj. 3: Hatred belongs simply to the concupiscible appetite: but by reason of the strife which arises from hatred, it may belong to the irascible appetite. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Hatred is primarily a part of the desire for things we want; however, because of the conflict that comes from hatred, it can also be connected to the desire related to anger.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 81, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 81, Art. 3]

Whether the irascible and concupiscible appetites obey reason?

Do the hot-tempered and lustful desires follow reason?

Objection 1: It would seem that the irascible and concupiscible appetites do not obey reason. For irascible and concupiscible are parts of sensuality. But sensuality does not obey reason, wherefore it is signified by the serpent, as Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 12,13). Therefore the irascible and concupiscible appetites do not obey reason.

Objection 1: It seems that the irascible and concupiscible appetites don't follow reason. The irascible and concupiscible are aspects of sensuality. However, sensuality doesn't follow reason, as indicated by the serpent, according to Augustine (De Trin. xii, 12,13). Therefore, the irascible and concupiscible appetites don't obey reason.

Obj. 2: Further, what obeys a certain thing does not resist it. But the irascible and concupiscible appetites resist reason: according to the Apostle (Rom. 7:23): "I see another law in my members fighting against the law of my mind." Therefore the irascible and concupiscible appetites do not obey reason.

Obj. 2: Moreover, whatever follows something does not oppose it. However, the irascible and concupiscible appetites push back against reason: as the Apostle states (Rom. 7:23): "I see another law in my members fighting against the law of my mind." Therefore, the irascible and concupiscible appetites do not follow reason.

Obj. 3: Further, as the appetitive power is inferior to the rational part of the soul, so also is the sensitive power. But the sensitive part of the soul does not obey reason: for we neither hear nor see just when we wish. Therefore, in like manner, neither do the powers of the sensitive appetite, the irascible and concupiscible, obey reason.

Obj. 3: Additionally, since the appetitive aspect is lower than the rational part of the soul, the sensitive aspect is also lower. However, the sensitive part of the soul does not follow reason: we can't hear or see just because we want to. Similarly, the powers of the sensitive appetite, both the irascible and concupiscible, do not follow reason either.

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 12) that "the part of the soul which is obedient and amenable to reason is divided into concupiscence and anger."

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 12) that "the part of the soul that listens to reason is divided into desire and anger."

I answer that, In two ways the irascible and concupiscible powers obey the higher part, in which are the intellect or reason, and the will; first, as to reason, secondly as to the will. They obey the reason in their own acts, because in other animals the sensitive appetite is naturally moved by the estimative power; for instance, a sheep, esteeming the wolf as an enemy, is afraid. In man the estimative power, as we have said above (Q. 78, A. 4), is replaced by the cogitative power, which is called by some "the particular reason," because it compares individual intentions. Wherefore in man the sensitive appetite is naturally moved by this particular reason. But this same particular reason is naturally guided and moved according to the universal reason: wherefore in syllogistic matters particular conclusions are drawn from universal propositions. Therefore it is clear that the universal reason directs the sensitive appetite, which is divided into concupiscible and irascible; and this appetite obeys it. But because to draw particular conclusions from universal principles is not the work of the intellect, as such, but of the reason: hence it is that the irascible and concupiscible are said to obey the reason rather than to obey the intellect. Anyone can experience this in himself: for by applying certain universal considerations, anger or fear or the like may be modified or excited.

I answer that, The irascible and concupiscible powers follow the higher part of the mind, which includes intellect or reason, and will; first, in terms of reason, then in terms of will. They follow reason in their own actions because, in other animals, the sensitive appetite is naturally influenced by the estimative power; for example, a sheep perceives the wolf as a threat and becomes afraid. In humans, the estimative power, as mentioned earlier (Q. 78, A. 4), is replaced by the cogitative power, often referred to as "particular reason," since it evaluates individual intentions. Therefore, in humans, the sensitive appetite is naturally influenced by this particular reason. However, this same particular reason is naturally directed and influenced by the universal reason; thus, in logical matters, specific conclusions are drawn from general propositions. Consequently, it is clear that universal reason guides the sensitive appetite, which is split into concupiscible and irascible parts; and this appetite follows it. But since developing specific conclusions from universal principles is not solely the role of intellect but of reason: it is why the irascible and concupiscible powers are said to obey reason more than they obey intellect. Anyone can observe this in themselves: by applying certain universal ideas, emotions like anger or fear can be altered or incited.

To the will also is the sensitive appetite subject in execution, which is accomplished by the motive power. For in other animals movement follows at once the concupiscible and irascible appetites: for instance, the sheep, fearing the wolf, flees at once, because it has no superior counteracting appetite. On the contrary, man is not moved at once, according to the irascible and concupiscible appetites: but he awaits the command of the will, which is the superior appetite. For wherever there is order among a number of motive powers, the second only moves by virtue of the first: wherefore the lower appetite is not sufficient to cause movement, unless the higher appetite consents. And this is what the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 11), that "the higher appetite moves the lower appetite, as the higher sphere moves the lower." In this way, therefore, the irascible and concupiscible are subject to reason.

The will is also influenced by the sensitive appetite when it comes to action, which is driven by motivating forces. In other animals, movement occurs immediately in response to their basic desires and emotional reactions; for example, a sheep runs away from a wolf right away because it lacks a stronger opposing desire. In contrast, humans don't react immediately based on their emotional and basic desires; instead, they follow the will's direction, which acts as the dominant desire. When there’s a hierarchy among different motivating forces, the second only acts because of the first. Thus, a lower appetite can’t trigger movement unless the higher appetite agrees. This aligns with what the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 11), that "the higher appetite influences the lower appetite, just as a higher sphere affects a lower one." Therefore, the irascible and concupiscible appetites are subject to reason.

Reply Obj. 1: Sensuality is signified by the serpent, in what is proper to it as a sensitive power. But the irascible and concupiscible powers denominate the sensitive appetite rather on the part of the act, to which they are led by the reason, as we have said.

Reply Obj. 1: Sensuality is represented by the serpent, in what is specific to it as a sensitive power. However, the irascible and concupiscible powers refer to the sensitive appetite more in terms of the action, which they follow based on reason, as we have stated.

Reply Obj. 2: As the Philosopher says (Polit. i, 2): "We observe in an animal a despotic and a politic principle: for the soul dominates the body by a despotic power; but the intellect dominates the appetite by a politic and royal power." For a power is called despotic whereby a man rules his slaves, who have not the right to resist in any way the orders of the one that commands them, since they have nothing of their own. But that power is called politic and royal by which a man rules over free subjects, who, though subject to the government of the ruler, have nevertheless something of their own, by reason of which they can resist the orders of him who commands. And so, the soul is said to rule the body by a despotic power, because the members of the body cannot in any way resist the sway of the soul, but at the soul's command both hand and foot, and whatever member is naturally moved by voluntary movement, are moved at once. But the intellect or reason is said to rule the irascible and concupiscible by a politic power: because the sensitive appetite has something of its own, by virtue whereof it can resist the commands of reason. For the sensitive appetite is naturally moved, not only by the estimative power in other animals, and in man by the cogitative power which the universal reason guides, but also by the imagination and sense. Whence it is that we experience that the irascible and concupiscible powers do resist reason, inasmuch as we sense or imagine something pleasant, which reason forbids, or unpleasant, which reason commands. And so from the fact that the irascible and concupiscible resist reason in something, we must not conclude that they do not obey.

Reply Obj. 2: As the Philosopher says (Polit. i, 2): "We see that an animal has both a despotic and a political principle: the soul rules the body with a despotic authority; but the intellect controls the desires with a political and royal authority." A power is called despotic when one person directs their slaves, who have no right to oppose the orders of their master, since they own nothing of their own. In contrast, a power is called political and royal when someone governs free subjects, who, despite being under the ruler's authority, possess something of their own that allows them to resist the commands given. Thus, the soul is said to control the body with a despotic power because the body’s parts cannot resist the soul’s influence at all; when the soul commands, both hands and feet, as well as any part able to move voluntarily, respond immediately. On the other hand, the intellect or reason is said to govern the emotions and desires with a political power, since the sensitive appetite has something of its own that enables it to resist the dictates of reason. The sensitive appetite is naturally driven not just by the evaluative capability found in other animals, and in humans by the cognitive ability guided by universal reason, but also by imagination and senses. This is why we notice that the emotional and desire-driven powers often resist reason when we sense or imagine something pleasurable that reason forbids or something unpleasant that reason commands. Therefore, even though the emotional and desire-driven powers may resist reason in certain situations, we shouldn’t conclude that they do not obey.

Reply Obj. 3: The exterior senses require for action exterior sensible things, whereby they are affected, and the presence of which is not ruled by reason. But the interior powers, both appetitive and apprehensive, do not require exterior things. Therefore they are subject to the command of reason, which can not only incite or modify the affections of the appetitive power, but can also form the phantasms of the imagination. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The external senses need outside things to work, which affect them, and these aren't controlled by reason. However, the internal powers, both desire and understanding, don’t need outside things. So, they are under the control of reason, which can not only inspire or change feelings of desire but can also shape the images in the imagination.

QUESTION 82

OF THE WILL
(In Five Articles)

OF THE WILL
(In 5 Articles)

We next consider the will. Under this head there are five points of inquiry:

We’ll now look at the will. In this section, there are five areas we need to explore:

(1) Whether the will desires something of necessity?

(1) Does the will actually want something out of necessity?

(2) Whether it desires everything of necessity?

Does it really want everything?

(3) Whether it is a higher power than the intellect?

(3) Is there a higher power than the intellect?

(4) Whether the will moves the intellect?

(4) Does the will influence the intellect?

(5) Whether the will is divided into irascible and concupiscible? _______________________

(5) Is the will divided into irritable and appetitive? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 82, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 82, Art. 1]

Whether the Will Desires Something of Necessity?

Whether the will wants something out of necessity?

Objection 1: It would seem that the will desires nothing of necessity. For Augustine says (De Civ. Dei v, 10) that it anything is necessary, it is not voluntary. But whatever the will desires is voluntary. Therefore nothing that the will desires is desired of necessity.

Objection 1: It seems that the will doesn’t really desire anything out of necessity. Augustine states (De Civ. Dei v, 10) that if something is necessary, it isn’t voluntary. However, everything the will desires is voluntary. Therefore, nothing that the will desires is desired out of necessity.

Obj. 2: Further, the rational powers, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. viii, 2), extend to opposite things. But the will is a rational power, because, as he says (De Anima iii, 9), "the will is in the reason." Therefore the will extends to opposite things, and therefore it is determined to nothing of necessity.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the rational capabilities, according to the Philosopher (Metaph. viii, 2), reach out to opposites. The will is a rational capability because, as he states (De Anima iii, 9), "the will is part of reason." Therefore, the will encompasses opposites, which means it is not determined to anything necessarily.

Obj. 3: Further, by the will we are masters of our own actions. But we are not masters of that which is of necessity. Therefore the act of the will cannot be necessitated.

Obj. 3: Also, through our will, we control our own actions. However, we don't control what is necessary. Therefore, the act of will cannot be forced.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xiii, 4) that "all desire happiness with one will." Now if this were not necessary, but contingent, there would at least be a few exceptions. Therefore the will desires something of necessity.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xiii, 4) that "everyone desires happiness with a single will." If this weren’t necessary but instead just a possibility, there would have to be at least a few exceptions. So, the will must desire something necessarily.

I answer that, The word "necessity" is employed in many ways. For that which must be is necessary. Now that a thing must be may belong to it by an intrinsic principle—either material, as when we say that everything composed of contraries is of necessity corruptible—or formal, as when we say that it is necessary for the three angles of a triangle to be equal to two right angles. And this is "natural" and "absolute necessity." In another way, that a thing must be, belongs to it by reason of something extrinsic, which is either the end or the agent. On the part of the end, as when without it the end is not to be attained or so well attained: for instance, food is said to be necessary for life, and a horse is necessary for a journey. This is called "necessity of end," and sometimes also "utility." On the part of the agent, a thing must be, when someone is forced by some agent, so that he is not able to do the contrary. This is called "necessity of coercion."

I answer that, The word "necessity" is used in many ways. What must happen is necessary. Now, something must occur due to an intrinsic principle—either material, like when we say that everything made of opposites is necessarily corruptible—or formal, as when we say that it is necessary for the three angles of a triangle to equal two right angles. This is called "natural" or "absolute necessity." In another sense, something must happen because of something external, which can be either the goal or the agent. From the perspective of the goal, a thing is necessary when, without it, the goal cannot be achieved or is not achieved as well: for example, food is said to be necessary for life, and a horse is necessary for a journey. This is referred to as "necessity of end," and sometimes also "utility." From the perspective of the agent, something must happen when someone is compelled by some external force, making it impossible for them to do otherwise. This is called "necessity of coercion."

Now this necessity of coercion is altogether repugnant to the will. For we call that violent which is against the inclination of a thing. But the very movement of the will is an inclination to something. Therefore, as a thing is called natural because it is according to the inclination of nature, so a thing is called voluntary because it is according to the inclination of the will. Therefore, just as it is impossible for a thing to be at the same time violent and natural, so it is impossible for a thing to be absolutely coerced or violent, and voluntary.

Now, the need for coercion is completely opposed to the will. We refer to something as violent when it goes against what something naturally wants. However, the very act of willing involves a desire for something. So, just as we call something natural because it aligns with the natural inclination, we call something voluntary because it aligns with the inclination of the will. Therefore, just as it's impossible for something to be both violent and natural at the same time, it's also impossible for something to be completely coerced or violent and still be voluntary.

But necessity of end is not repugnant to the will, when the end cannot be attained except in one way: thus from the will to cross the sea, arises in the will the necessity to wish for a ship.

But the necessity of the end doesn't conflict with the will when the end can only be achieved in one way: therefore, from the desire to cross the sea, there comes the need to wish for a ship.

In like manner neither is natural necessity repugnant to the will. Indeed, more than this, for as the intellect of necessity adheres to the first principles, the will must of necessity adhere to the last end, which is happiness: since the end is in practical matters what the principle is in speculative matters. For what befits a thing naturally and immovably must be the root and principle of all else appertaining thereto, since the nature of a thing is the first in everything, and every movement arises from something immovable.

Similarly, natural necessity isn't against the will. In fact, it's more than that, because just as the intellect of necessity is connected to the first principles, the will must necessarily connect to the final goal, which is happiness. The final goal in practical matters is like the principle in theoretical matters. What is naturally and unchangingly fitting for a thing must be the foundation and principle of everything related to it, since the nature of a thing is the primary aspect in all things, and every action comes from something unchanging.

Reply Obj. 1: The words of Augustine are to be understood of the necessity of coercion. But natural necessity "does not take away the liberty of the will," as he says himself (De Civ. Dei v, 10).

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine's words refer to the need for coercion. However, natural necessity "does not take away the liberty of the will," as he himself states (De Civ. Dei v, 10).

Reply Obj. 2: The will, so far as it desires a thing naturally, corresponds rather to the intellect as regards natural principles than to the reason, which extends to opposite things. Wherefore in this respect it is rather an intellectual than a rational power.

Reply Obj. 2: The will, when it naturally desires something, aligns more with the intellect regarding natural principles than with reason, which encompasses opposing things. Therefore, in this context, it is more of an intellectual power than a rational one.

Reply Obj. 3: We are masters of our own actions by reason of our being able to choose this or that. But choice regards not the end, but "the means to the end," as the Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 9). Wherefore the desire of the ultimate end does not regard those actions of which we are masters. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: We have control over our own actions because we can choose one option over another. But choice is about "the means to the end," not the end itself, as the Philosopher states (Ethic. iii, 9). Therefore, the desire for the ultimate end doesn't take into account those actions we control.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 82, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 82, Art. 2]

Whether the Will Desires of Necessity, Whatever It Desires?

Whether the Will desires out of necessity, whatever it desires?

Objection 1: It would seem that the will desires all things of necessity, whatever it desires. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "evil is outside the scope of the will." Therefore the will tends of necessity to the good which is proposed to it.

Objection 1: It appears that the will inevitably desires everything it wants. For Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv) that "evil is beyond the reach of the will." Therefore, the will inevitably aims for the good that is presented to it.

Obj. 2: Further, the object of the will is compared to the will as the mover to the thing movable. But the movement of the movable necessarily follows the mover. Therefore it seems that the will's object moves it of necessity.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the object of the will is compared to the will in the same way that a mover is related to a movable thing. Just as the movement of the movable thing inevitably follows the mover, it seems that the object's presence inevitably drives the will.

Obj. 3: Further, as the thing apprehended by sense is the object of the sensitive appetite, so the thing apprehended by the intellect is the object of the intellectual appetite, which is called the will. But what is apprehended by the sense moves the sensitive appetite of necessity: for Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ix, 14) that "animals are moved by things seen." Therefore it seems that whatever is apprehended by the intellect moves the will of necessity.

Obj. 3: Similarly, just as what is perceived by the senses is the object of the sensitive desire, what is understood by the mind is the object of the intellectual desire, which is known as the will. However, what is perceived through the senses inevitably triggers the sensitive desire; Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. ix, 14) that "animals are driven by what they see." Therefore, it appears that whatever is understood by the intellect inevitably influences the will.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Retract. i, 9) that "it is the will by which we sin and live well," and so the will extends to opposite things. Therefore it does not desire of necessity all things whatsoever it desires.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Retract. i, 9) that "it is the will by which we sin and live well," and so the will can desire different things. Therefore, it doesn’t necessarily want everything that it desires.

I answer that, The will does not desire of necessity whatsoever it desires. In order to make this evident we must observe that as the intellect naturally and of necessity adheres to the first principles, so the will adheres to the last end, as we have said already (A. 1). Now there are some things intelligible which have not a necessary connection with the first principles; such as contingent propositions, the denial of which does not involve a denial of the first principles. And to such the intellect does not assent of necessity. But there are some propositions which have a necessary connection with the first principles: such as demonstrable conclusions, a denial of which involves a denial of the first principles. And to these the intellect assents of necessity, when once it is aware of the necessary connection of these conclusions with the principles; but it does not assent of necessity until through the demonstration it recognizes the necessity of such connection. It is the same with the will. For there are certain individual goods which have not a necessary connection with happiness, because without them a man can be happy: and to such the will does not adhere of necessity. But there are some things which have a necessary connection with happiness, by means of which things man adheres to God, in Whom alone true happiness consists. Nevertheless, until through the certitude of the Divine Vision the necessity of such connection be shown, the will does not adhere to God of necessity, nor to those things which are of God. But the will of the man who sees God in His essence of necessity adheres to God, just as now we desire of necessity to be happy. It is therefore clear that the will does not desire of necessity whatever it desires.

I answer that, The will does not necessarily desire everything it desires. To make this clear, we need to see that just as the intellect naturally and necessarily holds onto first principles, the will holds onto the ultimate goal, as we've already mentioned (A. 1). Some intelligible things don’t have a necessary link to the first principles; for instance, contingent propositions, which can be denied without denying the first principles. The intellect does not necessarily agree with those. However, there are some propositions that are necessarily connected to the first principles; for example, demonstrable conclusions, where denying them would mean denying the first principles. The intellect necessarily agrees with these once it recognizes their necessary connection to the principles, though it won't agree necessarily until it sees that connection through demonstration. The same goes for the will. There are particular individual goods that do not have a necessary connection to happiness because a person can be happy without them; thus, the will does not necessarily cling to them. But some things are necessarily connected to happiness, through which a person connects to God, in Whom true happiness is found. However, unless the necessity of that connection is shown through the certainty of the Divine Vision, the will does not necessarily cling to God or things of God. But the will of someone who sees God in His essence necessarily clings to God, just as we now necessarily desire to be happy. Therefore, it’s clear that the will does not necessarily desire everything it desires.

Reply Obj. 1: The will can tend to nothing except under the aspect of good. But because good is of many kinds, for this reason the will is not of necessity determined to one.

Reply Obj. 1: The will can only aim for something if it appears to be good. However, since there are many types of good, the will is not necessarily limited to just one.

Reply Obj. 2: The mover, then, of necessity causes movement in the thing movable, when the power of the mover exceeds the thing movable, so that its entire capacity is subject to the mover. But as the capacity of the will regards the universal and perfect good, its capacity is not subjected to any individual good. And therefore it is not of necessity moved by it.

Reply Obj. 2: The mover necessarily causes movement in the thing being moved when the power of the mover is greater than that of the thing being moved, so that its entire ability is under the mover's control. However, since the capacity of the will pertains to the universal and perfect good, it is not limited to any particular good. Therefore, it is not necessarily influenced by it.

Reply Obj. 3: The sensitive power does not compare different things with each other, as reason does: but it simply apprehends some one thing. Therefore, according to that one thing, it moves the sensitive appetite in a determinate way. But the reason is a power that compares several things together: therefore from several things the intellectual appetite—that is, the will—may be moved; but not of necessity from one thing. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The sensitive power doesn’t compare different things like reason does; it just grasps one thing at a time. So, based on that one thing, it directs the sensitive appetite in a specific manner. On the other hand, reason is a power that compares multiple things together; therefore, the intellectual appetite—that is, the will—can be influenced by several things, but not necessarily by just one.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 82, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 82, Art. 3]

Whether the Will Is a Higher Power Than the Intellect?

Whether the Will Is a Higher Power Than the Intellect?

Objection 1: It would seem that the will is a higher power than the intellect. For the object of the will is good and the end. But the end is the first and highest cause. Therefore the will is the first and highest power.

Objection 1: It seems that the will is a greater power than the intellect. The goal of the will is good and the ultimate purpose. But the ultimate purpose is the primary and highest cause. Therefore, the will is the primary and highest power.

Obj. 2: Further, in the order of natural things we observe a progress from imperfect things to perfect. And this also appears in the powers of the soul: for sense precedes the intellect, which is more noble. Now the act of the will, in the natural order, follows the act of the intellect. Therefore the will is a more noble and perfect power than the intellect.

Obj. 2: Additionally, in the natural order of things, we see a progression from imperfect to perfect. This also shows in the functions of the soul: since the senses come before the intellect, which is more refined. The will's action, in the natural order, follows the intellect's action. Therefore, the will is a more refined and superior power than the intellect.

Obj. 3: Further, habits are proportioned to their powers, as perfections to what they make perfect. But the habit which perfects the will—namely, charity—is more noble than the habits which perfect the intellect: for it is written (1 Cor. 13:2): "If I should know all mysteries, and if I should have all faith, and have not charity, I am nothing." Therefore the will is a higher power than the intellect.

Obj. 3: Additionally, habits are in proportion to their strengths, just as perfections relate to what they perfect. However, the habit that enhances the will—specifically, charity—is more noble than the habits that enhance the intellect. For it is written (1 Cor. 13:2): "If I understand all mysteries, and if I have all faith, but do not have charity, I am nothing." Therefore, the will is a superior power compared to the intellect.

On the contrary, The Philosopher holds the intellect to be the higher power than the intellect.

On the contrary, The Philosopher believes that the intellect is a higher power than reason.

I answer that, The superiority of one thing over another can be considered in two ways: "absolutely" and "relatively." Now a thing is considered to be such absolutely which is considered such in itself: but relatively as it is such with regard to something else. If therefore the intellect and will be considered with regard to themselves, then the intellect is the higher power. And this is clear if we compare their respective objects to one another. For the object of the intellect is more simple and more absolute than the object of the will; since the object of the intellect is the very idea of appetible good; and the appetible good, the idea of which is in the intellect, is the object of the will. Now the more simple and the more abstract a thing is, the nobler and higher it is in itself; and therefore the object of the intellect is higher than the object of the will. Therefore, since the proper nature of a power is in its order to its object, it follows that the intellect in itself and absolutely is higher and nobler than the will. But relatively and by comparison with something else, we find that the will is sometimes higher than the intellect, from the fact that the object of the will occurs in something higher than that in which occurs the object of the intellect. Thus, for instance, I might say that hearing is relatively nobler than sight, inasmuch as something in which there is sound is nobler than something in which there is color, though color is nobler and simpler than sound. For as we have said above (Q. 16, A. 1; Q. 27, A. 4), the action of the intellect consists in this—that the idea of the thing understood is in the one who understands; while the act of the will consists in this—that the will is inclined to the thing itself as existing in itself. And therefore the Philosopher says in Metaph. vi (Did. v, 2) that "good and evil," which are objects of the will, "are in things," but "truth and error," which are objects of the intellect, "are in the mind." When, therefore, the thing in which there is good is nobler than the soul itself, in which is the idea understood; by comparison with such a thing, the will is higher than the intellect. But when the thing which is good is less noble than the soul, then even in comparison with that thing the intellect is higher than the will. Wherefore the love of God is better than the knowledge of God; but, on the contrary, the knowledge of corporeal things is better than the love thereof. Absolutely, however, the intellect is nobler than the will.

I answer that, The superiority of one thing over another can be viewed in two ways: "absolutely" and "relatively." A thing is considered to be such absolutely when it is what it is in itself, but relatively when it is viewed in relation to something else. Therefore, if we consider the intellect and will in terms of themselves, the intellect is the higher power. This is evident when we compare their respective objects. The object of the intellect is simpler and more absolute than the object of the will; the intellect deals with the very concept of desirable good, while the desirable good, which is conceived by the intellect, is the object of the will. The simpler and more abstract a thing is, the nobler and higher it is in itself; thus, the object of the intellect is higher than the object of the will. So, since the true nature of a power is determined by its relation to its object, it follows that the intellect, in itself and absolutely, is higher and nobler than the will. However, relatively and in comparison to something else, we can find situations where the will is sometimes higher than the intellect, because the object of the will can relate to something greater than what the intellect deals with. For example, I could argue that hearing is relatively nobler than sight since a source of sound is more significant than a source of color, although color is more refined and simpler than sound. As previously mentioned (Q. 16, A. 1; Q. 27, A. 4), the action of the intellect involves having the understood idea within the person who comprehends it, while the act of the will consists of the will being drawn toward the thing as it exists in itself. Therefore, the Philosopher states in Metaph. vi (Did. v, 2) that "good and evil," which are objects of the will, "are in things," but "truth and error," which are objects of the intellect, "are in the mind." Hence, when the thing that holds goodness is more noble than the soul itself, in which the idea is understood; in comparison to such a thing, the will ranks higher than the intellect. Yet, when the good thing is less noble than the soul, even in relation to that thing, the intellect remains higher than the will. Therefore, the love of God is greater than the knowledge of God; conversely, the knowledge of physical things is greater than the love of those things. However, absolutely speaking, the intellect is nobler than the will.

Reply Obj. 1: The aspect of causality is perceived by comparing one thing to another, and in such a comparison the idea of good is found to be nobler: but truth signifies something more absolute, and extends to the idea of good itself: wherefore even good is something true. But, again, truth is something good: forasmuch as the intellect is a thing, and truth its end. And among other ends this is the most excellent: as also is the intellect among the other powers.

Reply Obj. 1: Causality is understood by comparing one thing to another, and in that comparison, the concept of good appears to be higher. However, truth refers to something more fundamental and relates to the concept of good itself; therefore, good is also a type of truth. On the other hand, truth is a form of good because the intellect is a thing, and truth is its purpose. Among various purposes, this is the highest, just as the intellect is the most important among the other faculties.

Reply Obj. 2: What precedes in order of generation and time is less perfect: for in one and in the same thing potentiality precedes act, and imperfection precedes perfection. But what precedes absolutely and in the order of nature is more perfect: for thus act precedes potentiality. And in this way the intellect precedes the will, as the motive power precedes the thing movable, and as the active precedes the passive; for good which is understood moves the will.

Reply Obj. 2: What comes first in terms of generation and time is less perfect: in any given thing, potentiality comes before act, and imperfection comes before perfection. However, what comes first absolutely and in the natural order is more perfect: in this sense, act comes before potentiality. In this way, the intellect comes before the will, just as the motive power comes before the thing being moved, and as the active comes before the passive; for the good that is understood motivates the will.

Reply Obj. 3: This reason is verified of the will as compared with what is above the soul. For charity is the virtue by which we love God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: This reason is supported by the will in relation to what is beyond the soul. Charity is the virtue that enables us to love God.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 82, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 82, Art. 4]

Whether the Will Moves the Intellect?

Whether the Will Moves the Mind?

Objection 1: It would seem that the will does not move the intellect. For what moves excels and precedes what is moved, because what moves is an agent, and "the agent is nobler than the patient," as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 16), and the Philosopher (De Anima iii, 5). But the intellect excels and precedes the will, as we have said above (A. 3). Therefore the will does not move the intellect.

Objection 1: It seems that the will does not influence the intellect. What causes motion is greater and comes before what is moved, since the mover is an agent, and "the agent is nobler than the patient," as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 16), and the Philosopher (De Anima iii, 5). However, the intellect is superior and comes before the will, as previously discussed (A. 3). Therefore, the will does not move the intellect.

Obj. 2: Further, what moves is not moved by what is moved, except perhaps accidentally. But the intellect moves the will, because the good apprehended by the intellect moves without being moved; whereas the appetite moves and is moved. Therefore the intellect is not moved by the will.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, what moves isn't moved by what is moved, unless it happens by chance. However, the intellect influences the will, since the good understood by the intellect acts without being acted upon; whereas the appetite both moves and is moved. Therefore, the intellect is not influenced by the will.

Obj. 3: Further, we can will nothing but what we understand. If, therefore, in order to understand, the will moves by willing to understand, that act of the will must be preceded by another act of the intellect, and this act of the intellect by another act of the will, and so on indefinitely, which is impossible. Therefore the will does not move the intellect.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, we can only will what we understand. If, therefore, to understand, the will acts by wanting to understand, that act of will must be preceded by another act of the intellect, and this act of intellect by another act of will, and so on indefinitely, which is impossible. Therefore, the will does not influence the intellect.

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 26): "It is in our power to learn an art or not, as we list." But a thing is in our power by the will, and we learn art by the intellect. Therefore the will moves the intellect.

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 26): "We have the ability to choose whether or not to learn an art." But something is within our control through our will, and we learn skills through our intellect. So, the will guides the intellect.

I answer that, A thing is said to move in two ways: First, as an end; for instance, when we say that the end moves the agent. In this way the intellect moves the will, because the good understood is the object of the will, and moves it as an end. Secondly, a thing is said to move as an agent, as what alters moves what is altered, and what impels moves what is impelled. In this way the will moves the intellect and all the powers of the soul, as Anselm says (Eadmer, De Similitudinibus). The reason is, because wherever we have order among a number of active powers, that power which regards the universal end moves the powers which regard particular ends. And we may observe this both in nature and in things politic. For the heaven, which aims at the universal preservation of things subject to generation and corruption, moves all inferior bodies, each of which aims at the preservation of its own species or of the individual. The king also, who aims at the common good of the whole kingdom, by his rule moves all the governors of cities, each of whom rules over his own particular city. Now the object of the will is good and the end in general, and each power is directed to some suitable good proper to it, as sight is directed to the perception of color, and the intellect to the knowledge of truth. Therefore the will as agent moves all the powers of the soul to their respective acts, except the natural powers of the vegetative part, which are not subject to our will.

I respond that, a thing is said to move in two ways: First, as an end; for example, when we say that the end motivates the agent. In this way, the intellect motivates the will, because the understood good is what the will aims for, moving it as an end. Secondly, a thing is said to move as an agent, like how something that changes impacts what it changes, and how something that pushes affects what it pushes. In this case, the will moves the intellect and all the faculties of the soul, as Anselm notes (Eadmer, De Similitudinibus). This is because whenever we have a hierarchy among several active powers, the power that focuses on the universal end directs the powers that focus on specific ends. We can see this both in nature and in politics. For instance, the heavens, which aim for the overall preservation of things subject to birth and decay, move all lower bodies, each of which aims to preserve its own species or individual. The king, who targets the common good of the entire kingdom, influences all the city governors, each of whom oversees their specific city. Now, the object of the will is good and the end in general, and each power is directed toward some appropriate good specific to it, as sight is directed toward perceiving color and the intellect toward knowing truth. Therefore, the will as an agent directs all the powers of the soul to their respective actions, except for the natural powers of the vegetative part, which are not under our control.

Reply Obj. 1: The intellect may be considered in two ways: as apprehensive of universal being and truth, and as a thing and a particular power having a determinate act. In like manner also the will may be considered in two ways: according to the common nature of its object—that is to say, as appetitive of universal good—and as a determinate power of the soul having a determinate act. If, therefore, the intellect and the will be compared with one another according to the universality of their respective objects, then, as we have said above (A. 3), the intellect is simply higher and nobler than the will. If, however, we take the intellect as regards the common nature of its object and the will as a determinate power, then again the intellect is higher and nobler than the will, because under the notion of being and truth is contained both the will itself, and its act, and its object. Wherefore the intellect understands the will, and its act, and its object, just as it understands other species of things, as stone or wood, which are contained in the common notion of being and truth. But if we consider the will as regards the common nature of its object, which is good, and the intellect as a thing and a special power; then the intellect itself, and its act, and its object, which is truth, each of which is some species of good, are contained under the common notion of good. And in this way the will is higher than the intellect, and can move it. From this we can easily understand why these powers include one another in their acts, because the intellect understands that the will wills, and the will wills the intellect to understand. In the same way good is contained in truth, inasmuch as it is an understood truth, and truth in good, inasmuch as it is a desired good.

Reply Obj. 1: The intellect can be seen in two ways: as grasping universal existence and truth, and as a specific capability that has a focused action. Similarly, the will can also be viewed in two ways: regarding the general nature of its object—which means it desires universal good—and as a specific power of the soul with a focused action. When comparing the intellect and the will based on the universality of their respective objects, as mentioned earlier (A. 3), the intellect is ultimately higher and more noble than the will. On the other hand, if we consider the intellect in terms of the general nature of its object and the will as a specific power, the intellect is still considered higher and more noble than the will because the concepts of being and truth encompass both the will itself, its action, and its object. Thus, the intellect comprehends the will, its action, and its object just like it understands other types of things, such as stone or wood, which fall under the general idea of being and truth. However, if we consider the will in relation to the general nature of its object, which is good, and the intellect as a specific capability; then the intellect, its action, and its object, which is truth—all of which are types of good—fall under the general idea of good. In this sense, the will is higher than the intellect and can influence it. This helps clarify why these powers involve each other in their actions, as the intellect understands that the will desires and the will desires for the intellect to understand. Similarly, good is included in truth since it is understood truth, and truth is included in good as it is a good that is desired.

Reply Obj. 2: The intellect moves the will in one sense, and the will moves the intellect in another, as we have said above.

Reply Obj. 2: The mind influences the will in one way, and the will influences the mind in another, as we mentioned earlier.

Reply Obj. 3: There is no need to go on indefinitely, but we must stop at the intellect as preceding all the rest. For every movement of the will must be preceded by apprehension, whereas every apprehension is not preceded by an act of the will; but the principle of counselling and understanding is an intellectual principle higher than our intellect—namely, God—as also Aristotle says (Eth. Eudemic. vii, 14), and in this way he explains that there is no need to proceed indefinitely. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: We don’t need to keep going on forever, but we should recognize that the intellect comes first. Every choice we make has to be based on understanding, while not every understanding comes from a choice; the foundation of advice and comprehension is actually a higher intellectual principle—namely, God—as Aristotle mentions (Eth. Eudemic. vii, 14), and in this way, he clarifies that there's no reason to continue endlessly.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 82, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 82, Art. 5]

Whether We Should Distinguish Irascible and Concupiscible Parts in the Superior Appetite?

Whether We Should Distinguish Between Irascible and Concupiscible Parts in the Superior Appetite?

Objection 1: It would seem that we ought to distinguish irascible and concupiscible parts in the superior appetite, which is the will. For the concupiscible power is so called from "concupiscere" (to desire), and the irascible part from "irasci" (to be angry). But there is a concupiscence which cannot belong to the sensitive appetite, but only to the intellectual, which is the will; as the concupiscence of wisdom, of which it is said (Wis. 6:21): "The concupiscence of wisdom bringeth to the eternal kingdom." There is also a certain anger which cannot belong to the sensitive appetite, but only to the intellectual; as when our anger is directed against vice. Wherefore Jerome commenting on Matt. 13:33 warns us "to have the hatred of vice in the irascible part." Therefore we should distinguish irascible and concupiscible parts of the intellectual soul as well as in the sensitive.

Objection 1: It seems that we should differentiate between the irascible and concupiscible aspects within the higher appetite, which is the will. The concupiscible aspect comes from "concupiscere" (to desire), while the irascible aspect comes from "irasci" (to be angry). However, there is a desire that cannot be attributed to the sensitive appetite, but only to the intellectual, which is the will; such as the desire for wisdom, of which it is said (Wis. 6:21): "The desire for wisdom leads to the eternal kingdom." There’s also a type of anger that cannot pertain to the sensitive appetite, but only to the intellectual; like when our anger is directed at vice. Therefore, Jerome, commenting on Matt. 13:33, warns us "to have a hatred for vice in the irascible part." Thus, we should make a distinction between the irascible and concupiscible parts of the intellectual soul, just as we do in the sensitive.

Obj. 2: Further, as is commonly said, charity is in the concupiscible, and hope in the irascible part. But they cannot be in the sensitive appetite, because their objects are not sensible, but intellectual. Therefore we must assign an irascible and concupiscible power to the intellectual part.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, as people often say, charity is linked to desire, and hope to anger. But these cannot be part of the sensitive appetite because their objects are not based on sensation, but on intellect. Therefore, we need to attribute a capability for anger and desire to the intellectual part.

Obj. 3: Further, it is said (De Spiritu et Anima) that "the soul has these powers"—namely, the irascible, concupiscible, and rational—"before it is united to the body." But no power of the sensitive part belongs to the soul alone, but to the soul and body united, as we have said above (Q. 78, AA. 5, 8). Therefore the irascible and concupiscible powers are in the will, which is the intellectual appetite.

Obj. 3: Additionally, it is noted (De Spiritu et Anima) that "the soul has these powers"—specifically, the irascible, concupiscible, and rational—"before it is united to the body." However, no power of the sensitive part belongs solely to the soul; it belongs to both the soul and body together, as mentioned earlier (Q. 78, AA. 5, 8). Therefore, the irascible and concupiscible powers are part of the will, which is the intellectual appetite.

On the contrary, Gregory of Nyssa (Nemesius, De Nat. Hom.) says that the irrational part of the soul is divided into the desiderative and irascible, and Damascene says the same (De Fide Orth. ii, 12). And the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 9) "that the will is in reason, while in the irrational part of the soul are concupiscence and anger," or "desire and animus."

On the contrary, Gregory of Nyssa (Nemesius, De Nat. Hom.) states that the irrational part of the soul is split into the desire-driven and the anger-driven, and Damascene agrees (De Fide Orth. ii, 12). Additionally, the Philosopher mentions (De Anima iii, 9) "that the will is connected to reason, while the irrational part of the soul contains desire and anger," or "wish and spirit."

I answer that, The irascible and concupiscible are not parts of the intellectual appetite, which is called the will. Because, as was said above (Q. 59, A. 4; Q. 79, A. 7), a power which is directed to an object according to some common notion is not differentiated by special differences which are contained under that common notion. For instance, because sight regards the visible thing under the common notion of something colored, the visual power is not multiplied according to the different kinds of color: but if there were a power regarding white as white, and not as something colored, it would be distinct from a power regarding black as black.

I answer that, The irritable and desirous parts are not aspects of the intellectual appetite, known as the will. As mentioned earlier (Q. 59, A. 4; Q. 79, A. 7), a power that is focused on an object based on a common idea is not divided by specific differences that fall under that common idea. For example, since sight considers visible objects through the shared notion of being colored, the visual ability is not divided based on the different types of color; however, if there were a power that regarded white specifically as white, and not just as something colored, it would be distinct from a power that regards black specifically as black.

Now the sensitive appetite does not consider the common notion of good, because neither do the senses apprehend the universal. And therefore the parts of the sensitive appetite are differentiated by the different notions of particular good: for the concupiscible regards as proper to it the notion of good, as something pleasant to the senses and suitable to nature: whereas the irascible regards the notion of good as something that wards off and repels what is hurtful. But the will regards good according to the common notion of good, and therefore in the will, which is the intellectual appetite, there is no differentiation of appetitive powers, so that there be in the intellectual appetite an irascible power distinct from a concupiscible power: just as neither on the part of the intellect are the apprehensive powers multiplied, although they are on the part of the senses.

Now, the sensitive appetite doesn’t consider the common idea of good because the senses don’t grasp the universal. Therefore, the parts of the sensitive appetite are defined by different ideas of particular good: the concupiscible appetite sees good as something enjoyable and natural, while the irascible appetite views good as something that protects against and drives away what is harmful. However, the will understands good according to the common idea of good, and so in the will, which is the intellectual appetite, there is no distinction among appetitive powers, meaning that in the intellectual appetite there isn’t a separate irascible power from a concupiscible power, just as there isn’t a multiplication of apprehensive powers in the intellect, even though there is in the senses.

Reply Obj. 1: Love, concupiscence, and the like can be understood in two ways. Sometimes they are taken as passions—arising, that is, with a certain commotion of the soul. And thus they are commonly understood, and in this sense they are only in the sensitive appetite. They may, however, be taken in another way, as far as they are simple affections without passion or commotion of the soul, and thus they are acts of the will. And in this sense, too, they are attributed to the angels and to God. But if taken in this sense, they do not belong to different powers, but only to one power, which is called the will.

Reply Obj. 1: Love, desire, and similar emotions can be understood in two ways. Sometimes they’re seen as passions—emerging from a certain turmoil in the soul. Thus, they are usually understood this way, and in this sense, they only exist in the sensitive appetite. However, they can also be understood another way, as simple feelings without passion or turmoil in the soul, and in this sense, they are acts of the will. Moreover, in this understanding, they are also attributed to angels and to God. But when viewed this way, they don’t belong to different powers; instead, they all relate to one power, which is called the will.

Reply Obj. 2: The will itself may be said to [be] irascible, as far as it wills to repel evil, not from any sudden movement of a passion, but from a judgment of the reason. And in the same way the will may be said to be concupiscible on account of its desire for good. And thus in the irascible and concupiscible are charity and hope—that is, in the will as ordered to such acts. And in this way, too, we may understand the words quoted (De Spiritu et Anima); that the irascible and concupiscible powers are in the soul before it is united to the body (as long as we understand priority of nature, and not of time), although there is no need to have faith in what that book says. Whence the answer to the third objection is clear. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The will can be considered irascible in the sense that it strives to reject evil, not due to a sudden emotional impulse, but through a reasoned judgment. Similarly, the will can be seen as concupiscible because of its desire for good. Therefore, within the irascible and concupiscible aspects are charity and hope—that is, within the will as directed toward those actions. This helps us understand the referenced words (De Spiritu et Anima); that the irascible and concupiscible powers exist in the soul before it connects with the body (as long as we interpret this as a priority of nature, not time), even though there's no requirement to believe what that book states. Thus, the response to the third objection is clear.

QUESTION 83

OF FREE-WILL
(In Four Articles)

OF FREE WILL
(In Four Articles)

We now inquire concerning free-will. Under this head there are four points of inquiry:

We now look into free will. In this area, there are four points of inquiry:

(1) Whether man has free-will?

Does man have free will?

(2) What is free-will—a power, an act, or a habit?

(2) What is free will—a capability, an action, or a tendency?

(3) If it is a power, is it appetitive or cognitive?

(3) If it's a power, is it related to desire or understanding?

(4) If it is appetitive, is it the same power as the will, or distinct? _______________________

(4) If it’s about desire, is it the same ability as the will, or is it different? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 83, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 83, Art. 1]

Whether Man Has Free-Will?

Does man have free will?

Objection 1: It would seem that man has not free-will. For whoever has free-will does what he wills. But man does not what he wills; for it is written (Rom. 7:19): "For the good which I will I do not, but the evil which I will not, that I do." Therefore man has not free-will.

Objection 1: It seems that people don’t have free will. Whoever has free will does what they want. But people don’t always do what they want; as it says in Romans 7:19: "For the good that I want to do, I don’t do, but the evil that I don’t want to do, that’s what I do." Therefore, people don’t have free will.

Obj. 2: Further, whoever has free-will has in his power to will or not to will, to do or not to do. But this is not in man's power: for it is written (Rom. 9:16): "It is not of him that willeth"—namely, to will—"nor of him that runneth"—namely, to run. Therefore man has not free-will.

Obj. 2: Moreover, anyone with free will has the ability to choose whether or not to will something, to act or not to act. But this is not within human control: as it is stated (Rom. 9:16): "It is not about the one who wishes"—meaning to will—"nor about the one who strives"—meaning to act. Therefore, humans lack free will.

Obj. 3: Further, what is "free is cause of itself," as the Philosopher says (Metaph. i, 2). Therefore what is moved by another is not free. But God moves the will, for it is written (Prov. 21:1): "The heart of the king is in the hand of the Lord; whithersoever He will He shall turn it" and (Phil. 2:13): "It is God Who worketh in you both to will and to accomplish." Therefore man has not free-will.

Obj. 3: Additionally, what is "free is the cause of itself," as the Philosopher states (Metaph. i, 2). Therefore, what is moved by something else is not free. But God influences the will, because it is written (Prov. 21:1): "The heart of the king is in the hand of the Lord; He will turn it wherever He wants," and (Phil. 2:13): "It is God who works in you both to will and to do." Therefore, man does not have free will.

Obj. 4: Further, whoever has free-will is master of his own actions. But man is not master of his own actions: for it is written (Jer. 10:23): "The way of a man is not his: neither is it in a man to walk." Therefore man has not free-will.

Obj. 4: Additionally, whoever has free will is in control of their own actions. However, people are not in control of their own actions: as it is stated (Jer. 10:23): "A man's way is not his own; it is not in a man to direct his steps." Therefore, people do not have free will.

Obj. 5: Further, the Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 5): "According as each one is, such does the end seem to him." But it is not in our power to be of one quality or another; for this comes to us from nature. Therefore it is natural to us to follow some particular end, and therefore we are not free in so doing.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, the Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 5): "Each person perceives the end according to their own nature." However, we can't control whether we have one quality or another; that comes from our nature. So, it's inherent in us to pursue a specific end, and because of this, we aren't truly free in our choices.

On the contrary, It is written (Ecclus. 15:14): "God made man from the beginning, and left him in the hand of his own counsel"; and the gloss adds: "That is of his free-will."

On the contrary, It is written (Ecclus. 15:14): "God created man from the start and gave him control over his own choices"; and the gloss adds: "That is of his free will."

I answer that, Man has free-will: otherwise counsels, exhortations, commands, prohibitions, rewards, and punishments would be in vain. In order to make this evident, we must observe that some things act without judgment; as a stone moves downwards; and in like manner all things which lack knowledge. And some act from judgment, but not a free judgment; as brute animals. For the sheep, seeing the wolf, judges it a thing to be shunned, from a natural and not a free judgment, because it judges, not from reason, but from natural instinct. And the same thing is to be said of any judgment of brute animals. But man acts from judgment, because by his apprehensive power he judges that something should be avoided or sought. But because this judgment, in the case of some particular act, is not from a natural instinct, but from some act of comparison in the reason, therefore he acts from free judgment and retains the power of being inclined to various things. For reason in contingent matters may follow opposite courses, as we see in dialectic syllogisms and rhetorical arguments. Now particular operations are contingent, and therefore in such matters the judgment of reason may follow opposite courses, and is not determinate to one. And forasmuch as man is rational is it necessary that man have a free-will.

I answer that, humans have free will; otherwise, advice, encouragement, commands, prohibitions, rewards, and punishments would be pointless. To make this clear, we need to note that some things act without reasoning; like a stone falling downward, and similarly, anything lacking knowledge. Some act based on judgment, but not free judgment; like animals. For instance, a sheep sees a wolf and instinctively knows to avoid it—not through reasoning, but through natural instinct. The same applies to judgments made by animals. However, humans act based on judgment because they can assess that something should be pursued or avoided. Since this judgment doesn't stem from instinct but from reasoning and comparison, humans exercise free judgment and maintain the ability to be inclined toward different options. Reasoning in uncertain situations can lead to different conclusions, as seen in logical arguments and debates. Specific actions are uncertain, so in those cases, reasoning can take opposite paths and isn't limited to one outcome. Because humans are rational, it is essential for them to have free will.

Reply Obj. 1: As we have said above (Q. 81, A. 3, ad 2), the sensitive appetite, though it obeys the reason, yet in a given case can resist by desiring what the reason forbids. This is therefore the good which man does not when he wishes—namely, "not to desire against reason," as Augustine says.

Reply Obj. 1: As we mentioned earlier (Q. 81, A. 3, ad 2), the sensitive appetite, while it follows reason, can still push back by wanting what reason advises against. This is the good that a person fails to achieve when they choose—specifically, "not to desire against reason," as Augustine states.

Reply Obj. 2: Those words of the Apostle are not to be taken as though man does not wish or does not run of his free-will, but because the free-will is not sufficient thereto unless it be moved and helped by God.

Reply Obj. 2: The Apostle's words shouldn't be interpreted to mean that a person doesn't desire or act from their free will, but rather that free will alone isn't enough unless it's inspired and supported by God.

Reply Obj. 3: Free-will is the cause of its own movement, because by his free-will man moves himself to act. But it does not of necessity belong to liberty that what is free should be the first cause of itself, as neither for one thing to be cause of another need it be the first cause. God, therefore, is the first cause, Who moves causes both natural and voluntary. And just as by moving natural causes He does not prevent their acts being natural, so by moving voluntary causes He does not deprive their actions of being voluntary: but rather is He the cause of this very thing in them; for He operates in each thing according to its own nature.

Reply Obj. 3: Free will is the reason for its own action, because a person uses their free will to decide to act. However, it’s not necessary for something that is free to be its own first cause, just as one thing doesn’t have to be the cause of another. Therefore, God is the first cause, who influences both natural and voluntary causes. Just as God moving natural causes doesn’t stop their actions from being natural, His influence on voluntary causes doesn’t take away the voluntary nature of their actions; instead, He is the reason for that very aspect in them, as He works within each thing according to its own nature.

Reply Obj. 4: "Man's way" is said "not to be his" in the execution of his choice, wherein he may be impeded, whether he will or not. The choice itself, however, is in us, but presupposes the help of God.

Reply Obj. 4: "A person's path" is considered "not to be theirs" in how they make their choices, as they may be blocked from doing so, whether they want to be or not. The choice itself, however, is within us, but it depends on God's assistance.

Reply Obj. 5: Quality in man is of two kinds: natural and adventitious. Now the natural quality may be in the intellectual part, or in the body and its powers. From the very fact, therefore, that man is such by virtue of a natural quality which is in the intellectual part, he naturally desires his last end, which is happiness. Which desire, indeed, is a natural desire, and is not subject to free-will, as is clear from what we have said above (Q. 82, AA. 1, 2). But on the part of the body and its powers man may be such by virtue of a natural quality, inasmuch as he is of such a temperament or disposition due to any impression whatever produced by corporeal causes, which cannot affect the intellectual part, since it is not the act of a corporeal organ. And such as a man is by virtue of a corporeal quality, such also does his end seem to him, because from such a disposition a man is inclined to choose or reject something. But these inclinations are subject to the judgment of reason, which the lower appetite obeys, as we have said (Q. 81, A. 3). Wherefore this is in no way prejudicial to free-will.

Reply Obj. 5: There are two types of quality in humans: natural and acquired. The natural quality can exist in the mind or in the body and its abilities. Because humans possess a natural quality that resides in the intellectual part, they inherently seek their ultimate goal, which is happiness. This desire is, in fact, a natural one and is not influenced by free will, as we've discussed earlier (Q. 82, AA. 1, 2). However, in terms of the body and its abilities, a person can also have a natural quality derived from their temperament or disposition, which is shaped by any physical causes, as these do not affect the intellect since they don't involve a physical organ. A person's understanding of their goals reflects this corporeal quality because such a disposition influences their choices. Nonetheless, these inclinations are still governed by the judgment of reason, which the lower appetite follows, as we have mentioned (Q. 81, A. 3). Therefore, this does not harm free will in any way.

The adventitious qualities are habits and passions, by virtue of which a man is inclined to one thing rather than to another. And yet even these inclinations are subject to the judgment of reason. Such qualities, too, are subject to reason, as it is in our power either to acquire them, whether by causing them or disposing ourselves to them, or to reject them. And so there is nothing in this that is repugnant to free-will. _______________________

The accidental qualities are habits and passions that lead a person to prefer one thing over another. However, even these preferences are still judged by reason. These qualities are also subject to reason, as we have the ability to either develop them, whether by fostering them or preparing ourselves for them, or to dismiss them. Therefore, there is nothing here that contradicts free will.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 83, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 83, Art. 2]

Whether Free-Will Is a Power?

Is free will a power?

Objection 1: It would seem that free-will is not a power. For free-will is nothing but a free judgment. But judgment denominates an act, not a power. Therefore free-will is not a power.

Objection 1: It seems that free will is not a power. Free will is just a free judgment. But judgment refers to an action, not a power. Therefore, free will is not a power.

Obj. 2: Further, free-will is defined as "the faculty of the will and reason." But faculty denominates a facility of power, which is due to a habit. Therefore free-will is a habit. Moreover Bernard says (De Gratia et Lib. Arb. 1,2) that free-will is "the soul's habit of disposing of itself." Therefore it is not a power.

Obj. 2: Additionally, free will is defined as "the capability of the will and reason." However, capability suggests a natural ability that comes from a habit. So, free will is a habit. Furthermore, Bernard states (De Gratia et Lib. Arb. 1,2) that free will is "the soul's habit of self-disposition." Therefore, it is not a power.

Obj. 3: Further, no natural power is forfeited through sin. But free-will is forfeited through sin; for Augustine says that "man, by abusing free-will, loses both it and himself." Therefore free-will is not a power.

Obj. 3: Additionally, no natural power is lost because of sin. However, free will is lost due to sin; Augustine says that "when a person abuses their free will, they lose both it and themselves." Therefore, free will is not a power.

On the contrary, Nothing but a power, seemingly, is the subject of a habit. But free-will is the subject of grace, by the help of which it chooses what is good. Therefore free-will is a power.

On the contrary, The subject of a habit seems to be nothing but a power. However, free will is the subject of grace, which helps it choose what is good. Therefore, free will is a power.

I answer that, Although free-will [*Liberum arbitrium—i.e. free judgment] in its strict sense denotes an act, in the common manner of speaking we call free-will, that which is the principle of the act by which man judges freely. Now in us the principle of an act is both power and habit; for we say that we know something both by knowledge and by the intellectual power. Therefore free-will must be either a power or a habit, or a power with a habit. That it is neither a habit nor a power together with a habit, can be clearly proved in two ways. First of all, because, if it is a habit, it must be a natural habit; for it is natural to man to have a free-will. But there is not natural habit in us with respect to those things which come under free-will: for we are naturally inclined to those things of which we have natural habits—for instance, to assent to first principles: while those things to which we are naturally inclined are not subject to free-will, as we have said of the desire of happiness (Q. 82, AA. 1, 2). Wherefore it is against the very notion of free-will that it should be a natural habit. And that it should be a non-natural habit is against its nature. Therefore in no sense is it a habit.

I answer that, While free will in its strict sense refers to an action, we commonly use the term to describe the principle behind the action that allows a person to make judgments freely. In us, this principle of action is both a power and a habit; we acknowledge that we understand something through both knowledge and intellectual capability. Therefore, free will must be either a power, a habit, or a power combined with a habit. It can be clearly established that it is neither a habit nor a combination of a power and a habit in two ways. First, if it were a habit, it would have to be a natural habit, since having free will is natural to humans. However, there is no natural habit concerning the things that fall under free will: we are naturally inclined towards those things for which we have natural habits, such as accepting first principles, while those things we are naturally drawn to are not subject to free will, as we previously discussed regarding the desire for happiness (Q. 82, AA. 1, 2). Thus, it contradicts the very idea of free will for it to be a natural habit. Moreover, for it to be a non-natural habit contradicts its essence. Therefore, in no sense can it be considered a habit.

Secondly, this is clear because habits are defined as that "by reason of which we are well or ill disposed with regard to actions and passions" (Ethic. ii, 5); for by temperance we are well-disposed as regards concupiscences, and by intemperance ill-disposed: and by knowledge we are well-disposed to the act of the intellect when we know the truth, and by the contrary ill-disposed. But the free-will is indifferent to good and evil choice: wherefore it is impossible for free-will to be a habit. Therefore it is a power.

Secondly, it's clear because habits are defined as that "by reason of which we are well or ill disposed with regard to actions and passions" (Ethic. ii, 5); through temperance, we are positively inclined towards desires, and through intemperance, negatively inclined. Likewise, with knowledge, we are positively inclined to the act of understanding when we grasp the truth, and negatively inclined otherwise. However, free will is neutral towards good and bad choices; therefore, it can't be considered a habit. So, it is a power.

Reply Obj. 1: It is not unusual for a power to be named from its act. And so from this act, which is a free judgment, is named the power which is the principle of this act. Otherwise, if free-will denominated an act, it would not always remain in man.

Reply Obj. 1: It’s common for a power to be named after its action. Therefore, the power that is the source of this action, which is a free judgment, gets its name from this act. If free will were simply defined by an act, it wouldn’t always stay with a person.

Reply Obj. 2: Faculty sometimes denominates a power ready for operation, and in this sense faculty is used in the definition of free-will. But Bernard takes habit, not as divided against power, but as signifying a certain aptitude by which a man has some sort of relation to an act. And this may be both by a power and by a habit: for by a power man is, as it were, empowered to do the action, and by the habit he is apt to act well or ill.

Reply Obj. 2: Faculty sometimes refers to a power that is ready to be used, and in this sense, faculty is included in the definition of free will. However, Bernard views habit not as opposing power but as indicating a certain ability that connects a person to an action. This connection can come from both a power and a habit: with power, a person is, in a way, enabled to perform the action, and with habit, they are inclined to act either well or poorly.

Reply Obj. 3: Man is said to have lost free-will by falling into sin, not as to natural liberty, which is freedom from coercion, but as regards freedom from fault and unhappiness. Of this we shall treat later in the treatise on Morals in the second part of this work (I-II, Q. 85, seqq.; Q. 109). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: People are said to have lost free will by falling into sin, not in terms of natural liberty, which is freedom from coercion, but in terms of freedom from fault and suffering. We will discuss this later in the treatise on Morals in the second part of this work (I-II, Q. 85, seqq.; Q. 109).

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 83, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 83, Art. 3]

Whether Free-will Is an Appetitive Power?

Whether free will is a desire-driven ability?

Objection 1: It would seem that free-will is not an appetitive, but a cognitive power. For Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii, 27) says that "free-will straightway accompanies the rational nature." But reason is a cognitive power. Therefore free-will is a cognitive power.

Objection 1: It seems that free will is not an appetitive power, but a cognitive one. For Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii, 27) states that "free will immediately accompanies rational nature." But reason is a cognitive power. Therefore, free will is a cognitive power.

Obj. 2: Further, free-will is so called as though it were a free judgment. But to judge is an act of a cognitive power. Therefore free-will is a cognitive power.

Obj. 2: Also, free will is referred to as if it were a free decision. But to make a decision is an act of a thinking ability. Therefore, free will is a thinking ability.

Obj. 3: Further, the principal function of free-will is to choose. But choice seems to belong to knowledge, because it implies a certain comparison of one thing to another, which belongs to the cognitive power. Therefore free-will is a cognitive power.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the main role of free will is to make choices. However, choice appears to be linked to knowledge, as it involves comparing one thing to another, which is a cognitive ability. Therefore, free will is a cognitive ability.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 3) that choice is "the desire of those things which are in us." But desire is an act of the appetitive power: therefore choice is also. But free-will is that by which we choose. Therefore free-will is an appetitive power.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 3) that choice is "the desire for those things that are within us." But desire is an action of the appetitive power; therefore, choice is too. Free will is what allows us to choose. Therefore, free will is an appetitive power.

I answer that, The proper act of free-will is choice: for we say that we have a free-will because we can take one thing while refusing another; and this is to choose. Therefore we must consider the nature of free-will, by considering the nature of choice. Now two things concur in choice: one on the part of the cognitive power, the other on the part of the appetitive power. On the part of the cognitive power, counsel is required, by which we judge one thing to be preferred to another: and on the part of the appetitive power, it is required that the appetite should accept the judgment of counsel. Therefore Aristotle (Ethic. vi, 2) leaves it in doubt whether choice belongs principally to the appetitive or the cognitive power: since he says that choice is either "an appetitive intellect or an intellectual appetite." But (Ethic. iii, 3) he inclines to its being an intellectual appetite when he describes choice as "a desire proceeding from counsel." And the reason of this is because the proper object of choice is the means to the end: and this, as such, is in the nature of that good which is called useful: wherefore since good, as such, is the object of the appetite, it follows that choice is principally an act of the appetitive power. And thus free-will is an appetitive power.

I answer that, Free will is all about making choices. We say we have free will because we can choose one option while rejecting another, and that’s what it means to choose. So, we need to understand free will by looking at the nature of choice. Two elements are involved in making a choice: one from our ability to think, and the other from our desires. From the thinking side, we need to evaluate and decide which option is better than the other. From the desire side, our wants must agree with the decision we make. Therefore, Aristotle (Ethic. vi, 2) is uncertain whether choice primarily comes from our desires or our thinking, noting that it can be an “appetitive intellect or an intellectual appetite.” However, he leans towards it being an intellectual appetite when he defines choice as “a desire coming from counsel” (Ethic. iii, 3). This is because the main focus of choice is on the means to achieve our goals, which relates to what we consider good and useful. Since good is inherently what our desires aim for, it follows that choice is mainly about our desires. So, free will is fundamentally a function of our appetites.

Reply Obj. 1: The appetitive powers accompany the apprehensive, and in this sense Damascene says that free-will straightway accompanies the rational power.

Reply Obj. 1: The appetitive powers go hand in hand with the apprehensive, and in this way, Damascene states that free will is immediately linked with rational power.

Reply Obj. 2: Judgment, as it were, concludes and terminates counsel. Now counsel is terminated, first, by the judgment of reason; secondly, by the acceptation of the appetite: whence the Philosopher (Ethic. iii, 3) says that, "having formed a judgment by counsel, we desire in accordance with that counsel." And in this sense choice itself is a judgment from which free-will takes its name.

Reply Obj. 2: Judgment concludes and ends counsel. Now counsel is ended, first, by the judgment of reason; second, by the acceptance of desire; hence the Philosopher (Ethic. iii, 3) states that "after forming a judgment through counsel, we desire according to that counsel." In this way, choice itself is a judgment from which free will gets its name.

Reply Obj. 3: This comparison which is implied in the choice belongs to the preceding counsel, which is an act of reason. For though the appetite does not make comparisons, yet forasmuch as it is moved by the apprehensive power which does compare, it has some likeness of comparison by choosing one in preference to another. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: This comparison implied in the choice relates to the previous reasoning, which is a rational act. While the appetite itself doesn’t make comparisons, it is influenced by the cognitive ability that does compare, giving it some resemblance to comparison by selecting one option over another.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 83, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 83, Art. 4]

Whether Free-will Is a Power Distinct from the Will?

Whether free will is a power separate from the will?

Objection 1: It would seem that free-will is a power distinct from the will. For Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 22) that thelesis is one thing and boulesis another. But thelesis is the will, while boulesis seems to be the free-will, because boulesis, according to him, is will as concerning an object by way of comparison between two things. Therefore it seems that free-will is a distinct power from the will.

Objection 1: It seems that free will is a separate power from the will. Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 22) that thelesis is one thing and boulesis is another. Here, thelesis refers to the will, while boulesis appears to represent free will, because boulesis, according to him, is the will as it relates to an object by comparing two things. Therefore, it seems that free will is a distinct power from the will.

Obj. 2: Further, powers are known by their acts. But choice, which is the act of free-will, is distinct from the act of willing, because "the act of the will regards the end, whereas choice regards the means to the end" (Ethic. iii, 2). Therefore free-will is a distinct power from the will.

Obj. 2: Moreover, powers are recognized by their actions. However, choice, which is the act of free will, is different from the act of willing because "the act of the will focuses on the end, while choice focuses on the means to that end" (Ethic. iii, 2). Therefore, free will is a separate power from the will.

Obj. 3: Further, the will is the intellectual appetite. But in the intellect there are two powers—the active and the passive. Therefore, also on the part of the intellectual appetite, there must be another power besides the will. And this, seemingly, can only be free-will. Therefore free-will is a distinct power from the will.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the will is the intellectual desire. In the intellect, there are two abilities—the active and the passive. Therefore, in relation to the intellectual desire, there must be another ability apart from the will. This, it seems, can only be free will. Thus, free will is a separate ability from the will.

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. iii, 14) free-will is nothing else than the will.

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. iii, 14) free will is simply the will.

I answer that, The appetitive powers must be proportionate to the apprehensive powers, as we have said above (Q. 64, A. 2). Now, as on the part of the intellectual apprehension we have intellect and reason, so on the part of the intellectual appetite we have will, and free-will which is nothing else but the power of choice. And this is clear from their relations to their respective objects and acts. For the act of understanding implies the simple acceptation of something; whence we say that we understand first principles, which are known of themselves without any comparison. But to reason, properly speaking, is to come from one thing to the knowledge of another: wherefore, properly speaking, we reason about conclusions, which are known from the principles. In like manner on the part of the appetite to "will" implies the simple appetite for something: wherefore the will is said to regard the end, which is desired for itself. But to "choose" is to desire something for the sake of obtaining something else: wherefore, properly speaking, it regards the means to the end. Now, in matters of knowledge, the principles are related to the conclusion to which we assent on account of the principles: just as, in appetitive matters, the end is related to the means, which is desired on account of the end. Wherefore it is evident that as the intellect is to reason, so is the will to the power of choice, which is free-will. But it has been shown above (Q. 79, A. 8) that it belongs to the same power both to understand and to reason, even as it belongs to the same power to be at rest and to be in movement. Wherefore it belongs also to the same power to will and to choose: and on this account the will and the free-will are not two powers, but one.

I answer that, The appetitive powers need to match the apprehensive powers, as we noted earlier (Q. 64, A. 2). Just as we have intellect and reason for intellectual apprehension, we have will and free will for intellectual appetite, which is essentially the power of choice. This is evident from how they relate to their respective objects and actions. The act of understanding involves simply accepting something; hence, we say we understand first principles, which are known on their own without needing comparison. To reason, in the proper sense, is to move from one thing to the understanding of another; thus, we properly reason about conclusions, which are understood from the principles. Similarly, in terms of appetite, to "will" means to have a simple desire for something; therefore, the will is focused on the end that is desired for its own sake. However, to "choose" means to desire something for the sake of obtaining something else; thus, it specifically regards the means to the end. In knowledge, the principles relate to the conclusion we accept because of those principles, just as, in desires, the end relates to the means, which is sought for the sake of the end. Thus, it’s clear that just as intellect relates to reason, will relates to the power of choice, which is free will. Additionally, it was shown earlier (Q. 79, A. 8) that it pertains to the same power to both understand and reason, just as it pertains to the same power to be at rest and to be in motion. Therefore, it also pertains to the same power to will and to choose; for this reason, will and free will are not two distinct powers, but one.

Reply Obj. 1: Boulesis is distinct from thelesis on account of a distinction, not of powers, but of acts.

Reply Obj. 1: Boulesis is different from thelesis because of a distinction in actions, not in powers.

Reply Obj. 2: Choice and will—that is, the act of willing—are different acts: yet they belong to the same power, as also to understand and to reason, as we have said.

Reply Obj. 2: Choice and will—that is, the act of willing—are different actions; however, they are part of the same ability, just like understanding and reasoning, as we have mentioned.

Reply Obj. 3: The intellect is compared to the will as moving the will. And therefore there is no need to distinguish in the will an active and a passive will. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The intellect is compared to the will in how it influences the will. So, there’s no need to differentiate between an active and a passive will.

QUESTION 84

HOW THE SOUL WHILE UNITED TO THE BODY UNDERSTANDS CORPOREAL THINGS
BENEATH IT
(In Eight Articles)

HOW THE SOUL, WHILE CONNECTED TO THE BODY, UNDERSTANDS PHYSICAL THINGS
BENEATH IT
(In Eight Articles)

We now have to consider the acts of the soul in regard to the intellectual and the appetitive powers: for the other powers of the soul do not come directly under the consideration of the theologian. Furthermore, the acts of the appetitive part of the soul come under the consideration of the science of morals; wherefore we shall treat of them in the second part of this work, to which the consideration of moral matters belongs. But of the acts of the intellectual part we shall treat now.

We now need to look at the actions of the soul concerning the intellectual and appetitive powers, since the other powers of the soul aren’t the main focus for theologians. Additionally, the actions of the appetitive part of the soul fall under the study of ethics, so we will address them in the second part of this work, where moral issues are discussed. For now, we will focus on the actions of the intellectual part.

In treating of these acts we shall proceed in the following order: First, we shall inquire how the soul understands when united to the body; secondly, how it understands when separated therefrom.

In discussing these actions, we will follow this order: First, we will look at how the soul understands when it is connected to the body; second, how it understands when it is separate from it.

The former of these inquiries will be threefold:

The first of these questions will have three parts:

(1) How the soul understands bodies which are beneath it;

(1) How the soul comprehends the bodies beneath it;

(2) How it understands itself and things contained in itself;

(2) How it perceives itself and everything within it;

(3) How it understands immaterial substances, which are above it.

(3) How it understands non-physical substances that are beyond it.

In treating of the knowledge of corporeal things there are three points to be considered:

In discussing the knowledge of physical things, there are three points to consider:

(1) Through what does the soul know them?

(1) How does the soul understand them?

(2) How and in what order does it know them?

(2) How does it know them and in what order?

(3) What does it know in them?

(3) What does it understand about them?

Under the first head there are eight points of inquiry:

Under the first topic, there are eight questions to consider:

(1) Whether the soul knows bodies through the intellect?

(1) Does the soul understand bodies through the mind?

(2) Whether it understands them through its essence, or through any species?

(2) Does it understand them through its essence, or through any type?

(3) If through some species, whether the species of all things intelligible are naturally innate in the soul?

(3) Are the forms of all understandable things naturally present in the soul?

(4) Whether these species are derived by the soul from certain separate immaterial forms?

(4) Are these species produced by the soul from specific separate immaterial forms?

(5) Whether our soul sees in the eternal ideas all that it understands?

(5) Does our soul see everything it understands in the eternal ideas?

(6) Whether it acquires intellectual knowledge from the senses?

(6) Does it gain knowledge through the senses?

(7) Whether the intellect can, through the species of which it is possessed, actually understand, without turning to the phantasms?

(7) Can the mind truly understand through its ideas, without having to rely on images?

(8) Whether the judgment of the intellect is hindered by an obstacle in the sensitive powers? _______________________

(8) Is the judgment of the mind obstructed by a barrier in the senses? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 1]

Whether the Soul Knows Bodies Through the Intellect?

Whether the Soul Understands Bodies Through the Mind?

Objection 1: It would seem that the soul does not know bodies through the intellect. For Augustine says (Soliloq. ii, 4) that "bodies cannot be understood by the intellect; nor indeed anything corporeal unless it can be perceived by the senses." He says also (Gen. ad lit. xii, 24) that intellectual vision is of those things that are in the soul by their essence. But such are not bodies. Therefore the soul cannot know bodies through the intellect.

Objection 1: It seems that the soul doesn't know bodies through the intellect. Augustine says (Soliloq. ii, 4) that "bodies cannot be understood by the intellect; nor can anything physical unless it can be perceived by the senses." He also states (Gen. ad lit. xii, 24) that intellectual understanding is about those things that exist in the soul by their essence. But bodies are not like that. Therefore, the soul cannot know bodies through the intellect.

Obj. 2: Further, as sense is to the intelligible, so is the intellect to the sensible. But the soul can by no means, through the senses, understand spiritual things, which are intelligible. Therefore by no means can it, through the intellect, know bodies, which are sensible.

Obj. 2: Similarly, just as the senses relate to the intelligible, the intellect relates to the sensible. However, the soul cannot understand spiritual things, which are intelligible, through the senses. Therefore, it cannot know bodies, which are sensible, through the intellect.

Obj. 3: Further, the intellect is concerned with things that are necessary and unchangeable. But all bodies are mobile and changeable. Therefore the soul cannot know bodies through the intellect.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the intellect deals with things that are necessary and unchanging. However, all bodies are mobile and changeable. Therefore, the soul cannot understand bodies through the intellect.

On the contrary, Science is in the intellect. If, therefore, the intellect does not know bodies, it follows that there is no science of bodies; and thus perishes natural science, which treats of mobile bodies.

On the contrary, Science exists in the mind. Therefore, if the mind doesn’t understand physical objects, it means there is no science of physical objects; and as a result, natural science, which deals with moving objects, ceases to exist.

I answer that, It should be said in order to elucidate this question, that the early philosophers, who inquired into the natures of things, thought there was nothing in the world save bodies. And because they observed that all bodies are mobile, and considered them to be ever in a state of flux, they were of opinion that we can have no certain knowledge of the true nature of things. For what is in a continual state of flux, cannot be grasped with any degree of certitude, for it passes away ere the mind can form a judgment thereon: according to the saying of Heraclitus, that "it is not possible twice to touch a drop of water in a passing torrent," as the Philosopher relates (Metaph. iv, Did. iii, 5).

I answer that, To clarify this question, it's important to note that early philosophers who explored the nature of things believed that nothing existed in the world except for physical bodies. They noticed that all bodies are in motion and viewed them as constantly changing, leading them to conclude that we cannot have any definite knowledge of the true nature of things. Anything that is constantly changing can't be understood with certainty, as it disappears before we can form a judgment about it; as Heraclitus said, "you cannot touch the same drop of water in a flowing river twice," as the Philosopher mentions (Metaph. iv, Did. iii, 5).

After these came Plato, who, wishing to save the certitude of our knowledge of truth through the intellect, maintained that, besides these things corporeal, there is another genus of beings, separate from matter and movement, which beings he called species or "ideas," by participation of which each one of these singular and sensible things is said to be either a man, or a horse, or the like. Wherefore he said that sciences and definitions, and whatever appertains to the act of the intellect, are not referred to these sensible bodies, but to those beings immaterial and separate: so that according to this the soul does not understand these corporeal things, but the separate species thereof.

After these came Plato, who, wanting to ensure that our understanding of truth through the mind is certain, argued that beyond physical things, there exists another category of beings, separate from matter and movement. He referred to these beings as species or "ideas," and by participating in these, each individual sensible thing can be identified as either a man, a horse, or something similar. Therefore, he claimed that sciences, definitions, and everything related to the intellectual process do not pertain to these physical bodies, but to those immaterial and separate beings. Thus, according to this view, the soul does not comprehend these physical things, but rather their separate forms.

Now this may be shown to be false for two reasons. First, because, since those species are immaterial and immovable, knowledge of movement and matter would be excluded from science (which knowledge is proper to natural science), and likewise all demonstration through moving and material causes. Secondly, because it seems ridiculous, when we seek for knowledge of things which are to us manifest, to introduce other beings, which cannot be the substance of those others, since they differ from them essentially: so that granted that we have a knowledge of those separate substances, we cannot for that reason claim to form a judgment concerning these sensible things.

This can be proven false for two reasons. First, because those species are immaterial and unchanging, knowledge of movement and matter would be excluded from science (which is specific to natural science), as would all explanations involving moving and material causes. Second, it seems illogical that when we seek knowledge of things that are clear to us, we would introduce other beings that cannot be the essence of those things, since they differ from them in fundamental ways. Therefore, even if we have knowledge of those separate substances, we still cannot claim to make a judgment about these tangible things.

Now it seems that Plato strayed from the truth because, having observed that all knowledge takes place through some kind of similitude, he thought that the form of the thing known must of necessity be in the knower in the same manner as in the thing known. Then he observed that the form of the thing understood is in the intellect under conditions of universality, immateriality, and immobility: which is apparent from the very operation of the intellect, whose act of understanding has a universal extension, and is subject to a certain amount of necessity: for the mode of action corresponds to the mode of the agent's form. Wherefore he concluded that the things which we understand must have in themselves an existence under the same conditions of immateriality and immobility.

Now it seems that Plato missed the mark because, having noticed that all knowledge comes through some form of similarity, he believed that the essence of what we know must exist in the knower in the same way it exists in the thing known. Then he realized that the essence of what we understand exists in the mind in a way that is universal, immaterial, and unchanging: this is clear from the very function of the mind, whose act of understanding has a universal reach and follows certain necessities. The way we act corresponds to the nature of what our mind embodies. Therefore, he concluded that the things we understand must have an existence within themselves that also aligns with these characteristics of being immaterial and unchanging.

But there is no necessity for this. For even in sensible things it is to be observed that the form is otherwise in one sensible than in another: for instance, whiteness may be of great intensity in one, and of a less intensity in another: in one we find whiteness with sweetness, in another without sweetness. In the same way the sensible form is conditioned differently in the thing which is external to the soul, and in the senses which receive the forms of sensible things without receiving matter, such as the color of gold without receiving gold. So also the intellect, according to its own mode, receives under conditions of immateriality and immobility, the species of material and mobile bodies: for the received is in the receiver according to the mode of the receiver. We must conclude, therefore, that through the intellect the soul knows bodies by a knowledge which is immaterial, universal, and necessary.

But this isn't necessary. Even in sensible things, the form varies from one thing to another: for example, whiteness can be very intense in one object and less intense in another; in some cases, we find whiteness combined with sweetness, and in others, we see it without sweetness. Similarly, the sensible form is differently conditioned in external objects and in the senses that perceive these forms without taking in their matter, like seeing the color of gold without having the actual gold. Likewise, the intellect receives the forms of material and changing bodies in its own way, under conditions of immateriality and stability: what is perceived exists in the perceiver according to the nature of the perceiver. Therefore, we can conclude that through the intellect, the soul understands bodies in a way that is immaterial, universal, and necessary.

Reply Obj. 1: These words of Augustine are to be understood as referring to the medium of intellectual knowledge, and not to its object. For the intellect knows bodies by understanding them, not indeed through bodies, nor through material and corporeal species; but through immaterial and intelligible species, which can be in the soul by their own essence.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine's words should be understood as referring to the way intellectual knowledge works, not to what it focuses on. The intellect understands physical objects by grasping their concepts, not through the objects themselves or their material forms; rather, it understands them through abstract and intelligible concepts, which can exist in the soul by their very nature.

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xxii, 29), it is not correct to say that as the sense knows only bodies so the intellect knows only spiritual things; for it follows that God and the angels would not know corporeal things. The reason of this diversity is that the lower power does not extend to those things that belong to the higher power; whereas the higher power operates in a more excellent manner those things which belong to the lower power.

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xxii, 29), it's not accurate to claim that just as the senses recognize only physical objects, the intellect understands only spiritual matters; because this would imply that God and the angels have no knowledge of physical things. The reason for this difference is that the lower capacity doesn't reach what pertains to the higher capacity; while the higher capacity engages with those things relevant to the lower capacity in a superior way.

Reply Obj. 3: Every movement presupposes something immovable: for when a change of quality occurs, the substance remains unmoved; and when there is a change of substantial form, matter remains unmoved. Moreover the various conditions of mutable things are themselves immovable; for instance, though Socrates be not always sitting, yet it is an immovable truth that whenever he does sit he remains in one place. For this reason there is nothing to hinder our having an immovable science of movable things. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Every movement assumes something that remains still: because when a change in quality happens, the substance stays the same; and when there is a change in substantial form, the matter remains unchanged. Additionally, the different conditions of changing things are themselves unchanging; for example, even though Socrates isn’t always sitting, it’s a steady truth that whenever he does sit, he stays in one spot. For this reason, there’s nothing stopping us from having a stable science of changing things.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 2]

Whether the Soul Understands Corporeal Things Through Its Essence?

Whether the Soul Understands Physical Things Through Its Essence?

Objection 1: It would seem that the soul understands corporeal things through its essence. For Augustine says (De Trin. x, 5) that the soul "collects and lays hold of the images of bodies which are formed in the soul and of the soul: for in forming them it gives them something of its own substance." But the soul understands bodies by images of bodies. Therefore the soul knows bodies through its essence, which it employs for the formation of such images, and from which it forms them.

Objection 1: It seems that the soul understands physical things through its own essence. Augustine states (De Trin. x, 5) that the soul "gathers and grasps the images of bodies that are created in the soul and of the soul itself: for in creating them, it imparts something of its own substance." However, the soul understands bodies through images of those bodies. Therefore, the soul knows bodies through its essence, which it uses to create these images and from which it forms them.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 8) that "the soul, after a fashion, is everything." Since, therefore, like is known by like, it seems that the soul knows corporeal things through itself.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 8) that "the soul, in a way, is everything." Since, then, like knows like, it appears that the soul understands physical things through itself.

Obj. 3: Further, the soul is superior to corporeal creatures. Now lower things are in higher things in a more eminent way than in themselves, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. xii). Therefore all corporeal creatures exist in a more excellent way in the soul than in themselves. Therefore the soul can know corporeal creatures through its essence.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the soul is superior to physical beings. Now, lower things exist within higher things in a more significant way than they do within themselves, as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. xii). Therefore, all physical beings exist in a more excellent way within the soul than they do on their own. This means the soul can understand physical beings through its essence.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. ix, 3) that "the mind gathers knowledge of corporeal things through the bodily senses." But the soul itself cannot be known through the bodily senses. Therefore it does not know corporeal things through itself.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. ix, 3) that "the mind gathers knowledge of physical things through the body's senses." But the soul itself can't be recognized through these bodily senses. Therefore, it doesn't comprehend physical things through itself.

I answer that, The ancient philosophers held that the soul knows bodies through its essence. For it was universally admitted that "like is known by like." But they thought that the form of the thing known is in the knower in the same mode as in the thing known. The Platonists however were of a contrary opinion. For Plato, having observed that the intellectual soul has an immaterial nature, and an immaterial mode of knowledge, held that the forms of things known subsist immaterially. While the earlier natural philosophers, observing that things known are corporeal and material, held that things known must exist materially even in the soul that knows them. And therefore, in order to ascribe to the soul a knowledge of all things, they held that it has the same nature in common with all. And because the nature of a result is determined by its principles, they ascribed to the soul the nature of a principle; so that those who thought fire to be the principle of all, held that the soul had the nature of fire; and in like manner as to air and water. Lastly, Empedocles, who held the existence of our four material elements and two principles of movement, said that the soul was composed of these. Consequently, since they held that things exist in the soul materially, they maintained that all the soul's knowledge is material, thus failing to discern intellect from sense.

I respond that, ancient philosophers believed that the soul understands bodies through its essence. It was widely accepted that "like knows like." However, they thought that the form of what is known exists in the knower in the same way as it exists in the known thing. The Platonists, on the other hand, had a different view. Plato, having noticed that the intellectual soul has an immaterial nature and a non-physical way of knowing, believed that the forms of known things exist in an immaterial way. Meanwhile, earlier natural philosophers, observing that known things are physical and material, argued that known things must exist materially even within the soul that knows them. Therefore, to explain how the soul can know everything, they believed it shares a common nature with all things. Since the nature of a result is determined by its principles, they attributed the nature of a principle to the soul; thus, those who considered fire to be the principle of all things believed that the soul had the nature of fire, and similarly for air and water. Finally, Empedocles, who recognized the four material elements and two principles of movement, stated that the soul was made up of these. As a result, since they believed that things exist in the soul materially, they maintained that all of the soul's knowledge is material, failing to distinguish intellect from sense.

But this opinion will not hold. First, because in the material principle of which they spoke, the various results do not exist save in potentiality. But a thing is not known according as it is in potentiality, but only according as it is in act, as is shown Metaph. ix (Did. viii, 9): wherefore neither is a power known except through its act. It is therefore insufficient to ascribe to the soul the nature of the principles in order to explain the fact that it knows all, unless we further admit in the soul natures and forms of each individual result, for instance, of bone, flesh, and the like; thus does Aristotle argue against Empedocles (De Anima i, 5). Secondly, because if it were necessary for the thing known to exist materially in the knower, there would be no reason why things which have a material existence outside the soul should be devoid of knowledge; why, for instance, if by fire the soul knows fire, that fire also which is outside the soul should not have knowledge of fire.

But this view won't hold up. First, because in the material principle they discussed, the various results exist only in potential. However, something is not known as it is in potential, but only as it is in action, as shown in Metaph. ix (Did. viii, 9): therefore, a power is not known except through its action. So, it's not enough to attribute the nature of principles to the soul to explain how it knows everything unless we also accept that the soul contains the natures and forms of each individual result, like bone, flesh, and so on; this is how Aristotle argues against Empedocles (De Anima i, 5). Secondly, if it were necessary for the known thing to exist materially in the knower, there would be no reason why things that exist materially outside the soul should lack knowledge; for instance, if the soul knows fire through fire, why should the fire that exists outside the soul not also have knowledge of fire?

We must conclude, therefore, that material things known must needs exist in the knower, not materially, but immaterially. The reason of this is, because the act of knowledge extends to things outside the knower: for we know things even that are external to us. Now by matter the form of a thing is determined to some one thing. Wherefore it is clear that knowledge is in inverse ratio of materiality. And consequently things that are not receptive of forms save materially, have no power of knowledge whatever—such as plants, as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 12). But the more immaterially a thing receives the form of the thing known, the more perfect is its knowledge. Therefore the intellect which abstracts the species not only from matter, but also from the individuating conditions of matter, has more perfect knowledge than the senses, which receive the form of the thing known, without matter indeed, but subject to material conditions. Moreover, among the senses, sight has the most perfect knowledge, because it is the least material, as we have remarked above (Q. 78, A. 3): while among intellects the more perfect is the more immaterial.

We can conclude that material things we know must exist in the knower, not in a physical way, but in an immaterial way. This is because knowing involves things outside of us: we can understand things that are beyond our physical selves. Matter gives shape to a thing, which is why knowledge is less material in nature. Therefore, things that can't take in forms except in a physical way, like plants, lack any ability to know, as the Philosopher points out (De Anima ii, 12). The more immaterially a thing can take on the form of what it knows, the better its understanding. Consequently, the intellect that abstracts the essence not just from matter but also from the individual characteristics of matter has a better grasp of knowledge than the senses, which take in the form of the known thing without matter, but still under material conditions. Furthermore, among the senses, sight provides the clearest understanding because it is the least tied to material things, as we've noted before (Q. 78, A. 3); and among intellects, the more refined one is, the less material it is.

It is therefore clear from the foregoing, that if there be an intellect which knows all things by its essence, then its essence must needs have all things in itself immaterially; thus the early philosophers held that the essence of the soul, that it may know all things, must be actually composed of the principles of all material things. Now this is proper to God, that His Essence comprise all things immaterially as effects pre-exist virtually in their cause. God alone, therefore, understands all things through His Essence: but neither the human soul nor the angels can do so.

It's clear from what we've discussed that if there exists an intellect that knows everything by its essence, then that essence must contain everything immaterially within itself. This is why early philosophers believed that for the essence of the soul to comprehend all things, it must actually be made up of the principles of all material things. This is something unique to God, whose essence holds all things immaterially as effects that are virtually present in their cause. Thus, only God understands everything through His essence; neither the human soul nor angels can accomplish this.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine in that passage is speaking of an imaginary vision, which takes place through the image of bodies. To the formation of such images the soul gives part of its substance, just as a subject is given in order to be informed by some form. In this way the soul makes such images from itself; not that the soul or some part of the soul be turned into this or that image; but just as we say that a body is made into something colored because of its being informed with color. That this is the sense, is clear from what follows. For he says that the soul "keeps something"—namely, not informed with such image—"which is able freely to judge of the species of these images": and that this is the "mind" or "intellect." And he says that the part which is informed with these images—namely, the imagination—is "common to us and beasts."

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine in that passage is talking about an imaginary vision, which happens through the image of bodies. To create these images, the soul gives part of its substance, just like a subject is needed to be shaped by some form. In this way, the soul creates these images from itself; not that the soul or any part of it becomes this or that image; but just like we say a body is made to appear colored because it is filled with color. This meaning is clear from what follows. For he states that the soul "keeps something"—namely, not shaped by such an image—"that can freely judge the types of these images": and this is referred to as the "mind" or "intellect." He also mentions that the part filled with these images—namely, the imagination—is "common to us and animals."

Reply Obj. 2: Aristotle did not hold that the soul is actually composed of all things, as did the earlier philosophers; he said that the soul is all things, "after a fashion," forasmuch as it is in potentiality to all—through the senses, to all things sensible—through the intellect, to all things intelligible.

Reply Obj. 2: Aristotle did not believe that the soul is literally made up of all things, like the earlier philosophers did; he said that the soul is all things, "in a way," because it has the potential to experience everything—through the senses, it relates to all sensible things—and through the intellect, it relates to all intelligible things.

Reply Obj. 3: Every creature has a finite and determinate essence. Wherefore although the essence of the higher creature has a certain likeness to the lower creature, forasmuch as they have something in common generically, yet it has not a complete likeness thereof, because it is determined to a certain species other than the species of the lower creature. But the Divine Essence is a perfect likeness of all, whatsoever may be found to exist in things created, being the universal principle of all. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Every creature has a finite and specific essence. Therefore, while the essence of a higher creature resembles that of a lower creature because they share common traits generically, it doesn't completely resemble it because it is defined by a specific species that is different from the species of the lower creature. However, the Divine Essence perfectly embodies all that exists in created things, serving as the universal principle of everything.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 3]

Whether the Soul Understands All Things Through Innate Species?

Whether the Soul Understands Everything Through Innate Concepts?

Objection 1: It would seem that the soul understands all things through innate species. For Gregory says, in a homily for the Ascension (xxix in Ev.), that "man has understanding in common with the angels." But angels understand all things through innate species: wherefore in the book De Causis it is said that "every intelligence is full of forms." Therefore the soul also has innate species of things, by means of which it understands corporeal things.

Objection 1: It seems that the soul understands everything through innate ideas. For Gregory states in a homily for the Ascension (xxix in Ev.) that "man shares understanding with the angels." But angels understand everything through innate ideas; therefore, in the book De Causis, it is said that "every intelligence is filled with forms." Consequently, the soul also possesses innate ideas of things, through which it comprehends physical things.

Obj. 2: Further, the intellectual soul is more excellent than corporeal primary matter. But primary matter was created by God under the forms to which it has potentiality. Therefore much more is the intellectual soul created by God under intelligible species. And so the soul understands corporeal things through innate species.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the intellectual soul is superior to physical matter. However, physical matter was created by God with the potential to take on various forms. Therefore, the intellectual soul is even more so created by God with intelligible forms. Thus, the soul comprehends physical things through inherent concepts.

Obj. 3: Further, no one can answer the truth except concerning what he knows. But even a person untaught and devoid of acquired knowledge, answers the truth to every question if put to him in orderly fashion, as we find related in the Meno (xv seqq.) of Plato, concerning a certain individual. Therefore we have some knowledge of things even before we acquire knowledge; which would not be the case unless we had innate species. Therefore the soul understands corporeal things through innate species.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, no one can speak the truth except about what they know. However, even someone who is uneducated and lacks learned knowledge can still answer the truth to any question if asked in a systematic way, as discussed in the Meno (xv seqq.) of Plato, regarding a certain individual. Therefore, we possess some knowledge of things even before we learn; this wouldn’t be true unless we had innate forms. Hence, the soul understands physical things through innate forms.

On the contrary, The Philosopher, speaking of the intellect, says (De Anima iii, 4) that it is like "a tablet on which nothing is written."

On the contrary, The Philosopher, discussing the intellect, states (De Anima iii, 4) that it is like "a blank slate."

I answer that, Since form is the principle of action, a thing must be related to the form which is the principle of an action, as it is to that action: for instance, if upward motion is from lightness, then that which only potentially moves upwards must needs be only potentially light, but that which actually moves upwards must needs be actually light. Now we observe that man sometimes is only a potential knower, both as to sense and as to intellect. And he is reduced from such potentiality to act—through the action of sensible objects on his senses, to the act of sensation—by instruction or discovery, to the act of understanding. Wherefore we must say that the cognitive soul is in potentiality both to the images which are the principles of sensing, and to those which are the principles of understanding. For this reason Aristotle (De Anima iii, 4) held that the intellect by which the soul understands has no innate species, but is at first in potentiality to all such species.

I answer that, since form is the principle of action, a thing must be related to the form that is the basis of an action, just as it is to that action: for example, if upward movement comes from lightness, then something that is only potentially capable of moving upwards must only be potentially light, while something that actually moves upwards must actually be light. We see that a person can sometimes be just a potential knower, in both senses and intellect. He transitions from that potentiality to action—through the influence of tangible objects on his senses, leading to the act of sensation—by means of instruction or discovery, to the act of understanding. Therefore, we must say that the cognitive soul is potentially connected to the images that are the basis of sensing, as well as to those that are the basis of understanding. For this reason, Aristotle (De Anima iii, 4) believed that the intellect through which the soul understands has no inherent species but is initially in potentiality to all such species.

But since that which has a form actually, is sometimes unable to act according to that form on account of some hindrance, as a light thing may be hindered from moving upwards; for this reason did Plato hold that naturally man's intellect is filled with all intelligible species, but that, by being united to the body, it is hindered from the realization of its act. But this seems to be unreasonable. First, because, if the soul has a natural knowledge of all things, it seems impossible for the soul so far to forget the existence of such knowledge as not to know itself to be possessed thereof: for no man forgets what he knows naturally; that, for instance, the whole is larger than the part, and such like. And especially unreasonable does this seem if we suppose that it is natural to the soul to be united to the body, as we have established above ([Q. 76] , A. 1): for it is unreasonable that the natural operation of a thing be totally hindered by that which belongs to it naturally. Secondly, the falseness of this opinion is clearly proved from the fact that if a sense be wanting, the knowledge of what is apprehended through that sense is wanting also: for instance, a man who is born blind can have no knowledge of colors. This would not be the case if the soul had innate images of all intelligible things. We must therefore conclude that the soul does not know corporeal things through innate species.

But since something that has a form can sometimes be unable to act according to that form due to some obstacle, like a light object being prevented from moving upwards; for this reason, Plato believed that naturally, a person's intellect is filled with all understandable concepts, but being connected to the body hinders it from realizing its potential. However, this seems unreasonable. First, if the soul has innate knowledge of everything, it seems impossible for it to forget that knowledge to the point of not recognizing that it possesses it: no one forgets what they inherently know, like the fact that a whole is larger than a part, and so on. This seems especially unreasonable if we assume that it's natural for the soul to be connected to the body, as we established above ([Q. 76], A. 1): it doesn't make sense for the natural operation of something to be completely hindered by that which is naturally part of it. Secondly, the falsehood of this opinion is clearly demonstrated by the fact that if a sense is missing, the knowledge of what is perceived through that sense is also absent: for instance, a person who is born blind cannot have any knowledge of colors. This wouldn't be the case if the soul had innate images of all understandable things. Therefore, we must conclude that the soul does not know physical things through innate concepts.

Reply Obj. 1: Man indeed has intelligence in common with the angels, but not in the same degree of perfection: just as the lower grades of bodies, which merely exist, according to Gregory (Homily on Ascension, xxix In Ev.), have not the same degree of perfection as the higher bodies. For the matter of the lower bodies is not totally completed by its form, but is in potentiality to forms which it has not: whereas the matter of heavenly bodies is totally completed by its form, so that it is not in potentiality to any other form, as we have said above (Q. 66, A. 2). In the same way the angelic intellect is perfected by intelligible species, in accordance with its nature; whereas the human intellect is in potentiality to such species.

Reply Obj. 1: Humans do share intelligence with angels, but not to the same level of perfection. Similar to how lower forms of matter, which simply exist, as Gregory mentions (Homily on Ascension, xxix In Ev.), do not have the same level of perfection as higher forms of matter. The matter of lower forms isn't fully realized by its form and is still potential for forms it hasn't achieved; on the other hand, the matter of heavenly forms is completely realized by its form, so it isn't potential for any other form, as previously stated (Q. 66, A. 2). Similarly, the angelic intellect is fulfilled by intelligible forms according to its nature, whereas the human intellect has the potential to achieve such forms.

Reply Obj. 2: Primary matter has substantial being through its form, consequently it had need to be created under some form: else it would not be in act. But when once it exists under one form it is in potentiality to others. On the other hand, the intellect does not receive substantial being through the intelligible species; and therefore there is no comparison.

Reply Obj. 2: Primary matter has real existence because of its form, so it must be created in some form; otherwise, it wouldn't exist in reality. However, once it exists in one form, it has the potential to take on others. On the other hand, the intellect doesn't gain real existence through the intelligible species, so there's no comparison.

Reply Obj. 3: If questions be put in an orderly fashion they proceed from universal self-evident principles to what is particular. Now by such a process knowledge is produced in the mind of the learner. Wherefore when he answers the truth to a subsequent question, this is not because he had knowledge previously, but because he thus learns for the first time. For it matters not whether the teacher proceed from universal principles to conclusions by questioning or by asserting; for in either case the mind of the listener is assured of what follows by that which preceded. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: When questions are asked in order, they move from general, obvious principles to specific cases. This process creates knowledge in the learner's mind. Therefore, when the learner answers a later question correctly, it's not because they had prior knowledge, but because they are learning it for the first time. It doesn’t matter if the teacher moves from general principles to conclusions by asking questions or by making statements; in either situation, the listener’s mind is guided by what came before.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 4]

Whether the Intelligible Species Are Derived by the Soul from Certain
Separate Forms?

Whether the Intelligible Species Come from the Soul's Distinct Forms?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intelligible species are derived by the soul from some separate forms. For whatever is such by participation is caused by what is such essentially; for instance, that which is on fire is reduced to fire as the cause thereof. But the intellectual soul forasmuch as it is actually understanding, participates the thing understood: for, in a way, the intellect in act is the thing understood in act. Therefore what in itself and in its essence is understood in act, is the cause that the intellectual soul actually understands. Now that which in its essence is actually understood is a form existing without matter. Therefore the intelligible species, by which the soul understands, are caused by some separate forms.

Objection 1: It seems that the intelligible concepts are derived by the soul from some separate forms. Anything that has a quality by participation is brought about by something that has that quality essentially; for example, something that is on fire is reduced to fire as its cause. The intellectual soul, when it is actually understanding, participates in the thing being understood: in a way, the active intellect is the thing understood in an active state. Therefore, what is understood in its essence is what enables the intellectual soul to actually understand. Now, that which is essentially understood exists as a form without matter. So, the intelligible concepts, through which the soul understands, are caused by some separate forms.

Obj. 2: Further, the intelligible is to the intellect, as the sensible is to the sense. But the sensible species which are in the senses, and by which we sense, are caused by the sensible object which exists actually outside the soul. Therefore the intelligible species, by which our intellect understands, are caused by some things actually intelligible, existing outside the soul. But these can be nothing else than forms separate from matter. Therefore the intelligible forms of our intellect are derived from some separate substances.

Obj. 2: Similarly, the intelligible relates to the intellect like the sensible relates to the senses. The sensible images that are present in our senses, through which we perceive, are created by the actual sensible objects that exist outside our minds. Therefore, the intelligible representations that our intellect uses to understand are produced by actual intelligible things that exist outside our minds. However, these must be forms that exist independently of matter. Thus, the intelligible forms in our intellect come from some separate substances.

Obj. 3: Further, whatever is in potentiality is reduced to act by something actual. If, therefore, our intellect, previously in potentiality, afterwards actually understands, this must needs be caused by some intellect which is always in act. But this is a separate intellect. Therefore the intelligible species, by which we actually understand, are caused by some separate substances.

Obj. 3: Additionally, anything that exists in potential must be brought into reality by something that is already actual. So, if our intellect, which was previously potential, later actually understands, this must be caused by some intellect that is always actual. This indicates a separate intellect. Therefore, the concepts we use to actually understand are caused by some separate substances.

On the contrary, If this were true we should not need the senses in order to understand. And this is proved to be false especially from the fact that if a man be wanting in a sense, he cannot have any knowledge of the sensibles corresponding to that sense.

On the contrary, if this were true, we wouldn’t need our senses to understand things. This is clearly false, especially since if someone lacks a sense, they can't have any knowledge of the things that relate to that sense.

I answer that, Some have held that the intelligible species of our intellect are derived from certain separate forms or substances. And this in two ways. For Plato, as we have said (A. 1), held that the forms of sensible things subsist by themselves without matter; for instance, the form of a man which he called per se man, and the form or idea of a horse which is called per se horse, and so forth. He said therefore that these forms are participated both by our soul and by corporeal matter; by our soul, to the effect of knowledge thereof, and by corporeal matter to the effect of existence: so that, just as corporeal matter by participating the idea of a stone, becomes an individuating stone, so our intellect, by participating the idea of a stone, is made to understand a stone. Now participation of an idea takes place by some image of the idea in the participator, just as a model is participated by a copy. So just as he held that the sensible forms, which are in corporeal matter, are derived from the ideas as certain images thereof: so he held that the intelligible species of our intellect are images of the ideas, derived therefrom. And for this reason, as we have said above (A. 1), he referred sciences and definitions to those ideas.

I respond that, Some have argued that the intelligible concepts in our intellect come from certain separate forms or substances. This is understood in two ways. Plato, as we mentioned earlier (A. 1), believed that the forms of sensible things exist independently of matter; for example, the form of a man, which he referred to as per se man, and the form or idea of a horse, called per se horse, and so on. He claimed that these forms are shared by both our soul and physical matter; by our soul for the purpose of knowledge and by physical matter for the purpose of existence: so that, just as physical matter, by sharing the idea of a stone, becomes an individual stone, our intellect, by sharing the idea of a stone, is able to understand a stone. The sharing of an idea happens through some image of the idea in the participant, much like a model is represented by a copy. Therefore, just as he believed that the sensible forms found in physical matter are derived from the ideas as certain images of them, he also believed that the intelligible concepts in our intellect are images of the ideas, derived from them. For this reason, as we've stated before (A. 1), he connected sciences and definitions to those ideas.

But since it is contrary to the nature of sensible things that their forms should subsist without matter, as Aristotle proves in many ways (Metaph. vi), Avicenna (De Anima v) setting this opinion aside, held that the intelligible species of all sensible things, instead of subsisting in themselves without matter, pre-exist immaterially in the separate intellects: from the first of which, said he, such species are derived by a second, and so on to the last separate intellect which he called the "active intelligence," from which, according to him, intelligible species flow into our souls, and sensible species into corporeal matter. And so Avicenna agrees with Plato in this, that the intelligible species of our intellect are derived from certain separate forms; but these Plato held to subsist of themselves, while Avicenna placed them in the "active intelligence." They differ, too, in this respect, that Avicenna held that the intelligible species do not remain in our intellect after it has ceased actually to understand, and that it needs to turn (to the active intellect) in order to receive them anew. Consequently he does not hold that the soul has innate knowledge, as Plato, who held that the participated ideas remain immovably in the soul.

But since it goes against the nature of sensible things for their forms to exist without matter, as Aristotle proves in many ways (Metaph. vi), Avicenna, setting aside this opinion, believed that the intelligible forms of all sensible things exist immaterially in separate intellects rather than existing on their own without matter. He argued that these forms are derived from the first separate intellect, which he called the "active intelligence," and this process continues down to the last separate intellect. According to him, intelligible forms flow into our souls, while sensible forms flow into physical matter. Thus, Avicenna agrees with Plato in that the intelligible forms in our intellect come from certain separate forms; however, Plato believed these forms could exist independently, while Avicenna positioned them within the "active intelligence." They also differ in that Avicenna claimed that intelligible forms do not stay in our intellect after it stops actively understanding and that our intellect needs to connect with the active intellect to receive them again. Therefore, he does not believe that the soul has innate knowledge, which contrasts with Plato, who believed that the participated ideas remain fixed in the soul.

But in this opinion no sufficient reason can be assigned for the soul being united to the body. For it cannot be said that the intellectual soul is united to the body for the sake of the body: for neither is form for the sake of matter, nor is the mover for the sake of the moved, but rather the reverse. Especially does the body seem necessary to the intellectual soul, for the latter's proper operation which is to understand: since as to its being the soul does not depend on the body. But if the soul by its very nature had an inborn aptitude for receiving intelligible species through the influence of only certain separate principles, and were not to receive them from the senses, it would not need the body in order to understand: wherefore to no purpose would it be united to the body.

But in this view, there’s no good reason to say that the soul is connected to the body. You can't argue that the intellectual soul is linked to the body for the body’s sake; just as form isn't for the sake of matter, and the mover isn't for the sake of the moved, it’s actually the other way around. The body seems especially necessary for the intellectual soul, because its primary function is to understand. The soul doesn’t depend on the body for its existence. However, if the soul naturally had the ability to receive intelligible ideas just through influence from certain separate principles, without needing input from the senses, it wouldn’t need the body to understand; therefore, there would be no point in its union with the body.

But if it be said that our soul needs the senses in order to understand, through being in some way awakened by them to the consideration of those things, the intelligible species of which it receives from the separate principles: even this seems an insufficient explanation. For this awakening does not seem necessary to the soul, except in as far as it is overcome by sluggishness, as the Platonists expressed it, and by forgetfulness, through its union with the body: and thus the senses would be of no use to the intellectual soul except for the purpose of removing the obstacle which the soul encounters through its union with the body. Consequently the reason of the union of the soul with the body still remains to be sought.

But if it’s said that our soul needs the senses to understand, as they somehow awaken it to consider things whose intelligible forms it gets from separate principles, even this explanation seems insufficient. This awakening doesn’t seem necessary for the soul, unless it’s overwhelmed by sluggishness, as the Platonists put it, and forgetfulness because of its connection to the body. Therefore, the senses would only help the intellectual soul by removing the obstacles the soul faces because of its connection to the body. So, the reason for the soul's union with the body still needs to be explored.

And if it be said with Avicenna, that the senses are necessary to the soul, because by them it is aroused to turn to the "active intelligence" from which it receives the species: neither is this a sufficient explanation. Because if it is natural for the soul to understand through species derived from the "active intelligence," it follows that at times the soul of an individual wanting in one of the senses can turn to the active intelligence, either from the inclination of its very nature, or through being roused by another sense, to the effect of receiving the intelligible species of which the corresponding sensible species are wanting. And thus a man born blind could have knowledge of colors; which is clearly untrue. We must therefore conclude that the intelligible species, by which our soul understands, are not derived from separate forms.

And if we say, like Avicenna, that the senses are essential to the soul because they motivate it to engage with the "active intelligence" from which it gets its concepts, this explanation isn't sufficient. If it's natural for the soul to understand through concepts that come from the "active intelligence," it means that sometimes a person who is missing a sense can still connect with the active intelligence, either by the nature of their being or by stimulation from another sense, allowing them to grasp concepts that are missing the corresponding sensory experience. So, a blind person could theoretically understand colors, which is clearly not true. Therefore, we must conclude that the concepts through which our soul understands do not come from separate forms.

Reply Obj. 1: The intelligible species which are participated by our intellect are reduced, as to their first cause, to a first principle which is by its essence intelligible—namely, God. But they proceed from that principle by means of the sensible forms and material things, from which we gather knowledge, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii).

Reply Obj. 1: The concepts that our intellect engages with ultimately trace back to a fundamental principle that is inherently intelligible—specifically, God. However, they originate from this principle through the physical forms and material objects that provide us with knowledge, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. vii).

Reply Obj. 2: Material things, as to the being which they have outside the soul, may be actually sensible, but not actually intelligible. Wherefore there is no comparison between sense and intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: Physical things, in terms of their existence outside the soul, can be perceived through the senses, but they cannot be fully understood. Therefore, there is no comparison between what we sense and what we comprehend.

Reply Obj. 3: Our passive intellect is reduced from potentiality to act by some being in act, that is, by the active intellect, which is a power of the soul, as we have said (Q. 79, A. 4); and not by a separate intelligence, as proximate cause, although perchance as remote cause. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Our passive intellect is transformed from potential to actual by an active being, specifically the active intellect, which is a function of the soul, as we mentioned (Q. 79, A. 4); and not by a separate intelligence, although it may serve as a distant cause.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 5]

Whether the Intellectual Soul Knows Material Things in the Eternal
Types?

Whether the Intellectual Soul Understands Material Things in the Eternal
Types?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellectual soul does not know material things in the eternal types. For that in which anything is known must itself be known more and previously. But the intellectual soul of man, in the present state of life, does not know the eternal types: for it does not know God in Whom the eternal types exist, but is "united to God as to the unknown," as Dionysius says (Myst. Theolog. i). Therefore the soul does not know all in the eternal types.

Objection 1: It seems that the intellectual soul doesn't understand material things in the eternal forms. For anything that is known must itself be known beforehand. However, the intellectual soul of a person, in its current state of life, doesn't know the eternal forms; it doesn't know God, in whom the eternal forms exist, but is "connected to God as to the unknown," as Dionysius says (Myst. Theolog. i). Therefore, the soul does not know everything in the eternal forms.

Obj. 2: Further, it is written (Rom. 1:20) that "the invisible things of God are clearly seen . . . by the things that are made." But among the invisible things of God are the eternal types. Therefore the eternal types are known through creatures and not the converse.

Obj. 2: Additionally, it is stated (Rom. 1:20) that "the invisible things of God are clearly seen . . . by the things that are made." However, among the invisible things of God are the eternal types. Therefore, the eternal types are understood through creations and not the other way around.

Obj. 3: Further, the eternal types are nothing else but ideas, for Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 46) that "ideas are permanent types existing in the Divine mind." If therefore we say that the intellectual soul knows all things in the eternal types, we come back to the opinion of Plato who said that all knowledge is derived from them.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the eternal types are simply ideas, as Augustine states (QQ. 83, qu. 46) that "ideas are permanent types existing in the Divine mind." Therefore, if we assert that the intellectual soul knows everything through the eternal types, we return to Plato's view that all knowledge comes from them.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Confess. xii, 25): "If we both see that what you say is true, and if we both see that what I say is true, where do we see this, I pray? Neither do I see it in you, nor do you see it in me: but we both see it in the unchangeable truth which is above our minds." Now the unchangeable truth is contained in the eternal types. Therefore the intellectual soul knows all true things in the eternal types.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Confess. xii, 25): "If we both recognize that what you say is true, and if we both recognize that what I say is true, where do we see this, I ask? I don’t see it in you, and you don’t see it in me: but we both see it in the unchangeable truth that exists beyond our minds." Now, the unchangeable truth is found in the eternal ideas. Therefore, the intellectual soul understands all true things through these eternal ideas.

I answer that, As Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. ii, 11): "If those who are called philosophers said by chance anything that was true and consistent with our faith, we must claim it from them as from unjust possessors. For some of the doctrines of the heathens are spurious imitations or superstitious inventions, which we must be careful to avoid when we renounce the society of the heathens." Consequently whenever Augustine, who was imbued with the doctrines of the Platonists, found in their teaching anything consistent with faith, he adopted it: and those thing which he found contrary to faith he amended. Now Plato held, as we have said above (A. 4), that the forms of things subsist of themselves apart from matter; and these he called ideas, by participation of which he said that our intellect knows all things: so that just as corporeal matter by participating the idea of a stone becomes a stone, so our intellect, by participating the same idea, has knowledge of a stone. But since it seems contrary to faith that forms of things themselves, outside the things themselves and apart from matter, as the Platonists held, asserting that per se life or per se wisdom are creative substances, as Dionysius relates (Div. Nom. xi); therefore Augustine (QQ. 83, qu. 46), for the ideas defended by Plato, substituted the types of all creatures existing in the Divine mind, according to which types all things are made in themselves, and are known to the human soul.

I answer that, As Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. ii, 11): "If those who are called philosophers happen to say anything that is true and aligns with our faith, we must claim it from them as though they are unjust possessors. Some of the teachings of the heathens are just imitations or superstitious inventions, which we must be careful to avoid when we reject the company of the heathens." So, whenever Augustine, who was influenced by the teachings of the Platonists, found something in their beliefs that matched his faith, he accepted it; and those things that contradicted his faith, he corrected. Now, Plato believed, as we mentioned earlier (A. 4), that the forms of things exist independently from matter; he called these ideas, claiming that our intellect understands everything by participating in them: just as physical matter becomes a stone by participating in the idea of a stone, our intellect gains knowledge of a stone through the same idea. But since it seems to contradict faith that the forms of things exist separately from the things themselves and apart from matter, as the Platonists believed, asserting that per se life or per se wisdom are creative substances, as Dionysius mentions (Div. Nom. xi); therefore Augustine (QQ. 83, qu. 46) replaced the ideas defended by Plato with the types of all creatures that exist in the Divine mind, according to which types all things are made and are known to the human soul.

When, therefore, the question is asked: Does the human soul know all things in the eternal types? we must reply that one thing is said to be known in another in two ways. First, as in an object itself known; as one may see in a mirror the images of things reflected therein. In this way the soul, in the present state of life, cannot see all things in the eternal types; but the blessed who see God, and all things in Him, thus know all things in the eternal types. Secondly, one thing is said to be known in another as in a principle of knowledge: thus we might say that we see in the sun what we see by the sun. And thus we must needs say that the human soul knows all things in the eternal types, since by participation of these types we know all things. For the intellectual light itself which is in us, is nothing else than a participated likeness of the uncreated light, in which are contained the eternal types. Whence it is written (Ps. 4:6, 7), "Many say: Who showeth us good things?" which question the Psalmist answers, "The light of Thy countenance, O Lord, is signed upon us," as though he were to say: By the seal of the Divine light in us, all things are made known to us.

When the question is asked: Does the human soul know everything in the eternal forms? we need to respond that one thing can be known in another in two ways. First, as in an object itself that is known; just like one can see the reflections of things in a mirror. In this way, the soul, in its current state of life, cannot see everything in the eternal forms; but the blessed who see God and everything in Him know all things in the eternal forms. Secondly, one thing is said to be known in another as in a source of knowledge: we could say that we see in the sun what we can see by the sun. Hence, we must say that the human soul knows all things in the eternal forms, since through the participation in these forms we understand everything. The intellectual light within us is nothing more than a shared reflection of the uncreated light, which contains the eternal forms. This is supported by the statement (Ps. 4:6, 7), "Many say: Who shows us good things?" to which the Psalmist replies, "The light of Your face, O Lord, shines upon us," suggesting that through the seal of Divine light within us, all things are made known to us.

But since besides the intellectual light which is in us, intelligible species, which are derived from things, are required in order for us to have knowledge of material things; therefore this same knowledge is not due merely to a participation of the eternal types, as the Platonists held, maintaining that the mere participation of ideas sufficed for knowledge. Wherefore Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 16): "Although the philosophers prove by convincing arguments that all things occur in time according to the eternal types, were they able to see in the eternal types, or to find out from them how many kinds of animals there are and the origin of each? Did they not seek for this information from the story of times and places?"

But since, in addition to the intellectual insight within us, we need intelligible concepts derived from things to gain knowledge of material objects, this knowledge doesn't come solely from a participation in eternal forms, as the Platonists believed, claiming that merely participating in ideas is enough for knowledge. Augustine states (De Trin. iv, 16): "Even though philosophers convincingly argue that everything happens in time according to eternal forms, could they really see in those eternal forms, or discover from them, how many kinds of animals exist and where each comes from? Didn't they seek this information from the stories of times and places?"

But that Augustine did not understand all things to be known in their "eternal types" or in the "unchangeable truth," as though the eternal types themselves were seen, is clear from what he says (QQ. 83, qu. 46)—viz. that "not each and every rational soul can be said to be worthy of that vision," namely, of the eternal types, "but only those that are holy and pure," such as the souls of the blessed.

But it's clear that Augustine did not think of all things as being known in their "eternal types" or in "unchangeable truth," as if the eternal types themselves were directly seen. He states (QQ. 83, qu. 46) that "not every rational soul can be said to be worthy of that vision," referring to the eternal types, "but only those that are holy and pure," like the souls of the blessed.

From what has been said the objections are easily solved. _______________________

From what has been mentioned, the objections can be easily resolved.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 6]

Whether Intellectual Knowledge Is Derived from Sensible Things?

Whether intellectual knowledge comes from sensible things?

Objection 1: It would seem that intellectual knowledge is not derived from sensible things. For Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 9) that "we cannot expect to learn the fulness of truth from the senses of the body." This he proves in two ways. First, because "whatever the bodily senses reach, is continually being changed; and what is never the same cannot be perceived." Secondly, because, "whatever we perceive by the body, even when not present to the senses, may be present to the imagination, as when we are asleep or angry: yet we cannot discern by the senses, whether what we perceive be the sensible object or the deceptive image thereof. Now nothing can be perceived which cannot be distinguished from its counterfeit." And so he concludes that we cannot expect to learn the truth from the senses. But intellectual knowledge apprehends the truth. Therefore intellectual knowledge cannot be conveyed by the senses.

Objection 1: It seems that intellectual knowledge doesn’t come from sensory experiences. Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 9) that "we cannot expect to learn the fullness of truth from the senses of the body." He supports this in two ways. First, because "whatever the bodily senses can access is constantly changing; and what is never the same cannot be perceived." Second, because "whatever we perceive through our body, even when it’s not in front of our senses, can still exist in our imagination, like when we are asleep or angry: yet we cannot tell by our senses whether what we perceive is the actual object or a misleading image of it. Now, nothing can be perceived that cannot be distinguished from its fake counterpart." Therefore, he concludes that we can’t expect to learn the truth from the senses. But intellectual knowledge understands the truth. So, intellectual knowledge cannot be conveyed through the senses.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 16): "We must not think that the body can make any impression on the spirit, as though the spirit were to supply the place of matter in regard to the body's action; for that which acts is in every way more excellent than that which it acts on." Whence he concludes that "the body does not cause its image in the spirit, but the spirit causes it in itself." Therefore intellectual knowledge is not derived from sensible things.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 16): "We shouldn't believe that the body can have any effect on the spirit, as if the spirit were taking the place of matter in relation to the body's actions; because what acts is always superior to what it acts upon." From this, he concludes that "the body doesn’t create its image in the spirit, but the spirit creates it within itself." Therefore, intellectual knowledge isn’t derived from physical things.

Obj. 3: Further, an effect does not surpass the power of its cause.
But intellectual knowledge extends beyond sensible things: for we
understand some things which cannot be perceived by the senses.
Therefore intellectual knowledge is not derived from sensible things.

Obj. 3: Moreover, an effect does not exceed the capability of its cause.
However, intellectual knowledge goes beyond things we can sense: because we
comprehend certain things that cannot be perceived through our senses.
Thus, intellectual knowledge is not based on things we can sense.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Metaph. i, 1; Poster. ii, 15) that the principle of knowledge is in the senses.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Metaph. i, 1; Poster. ii, 15) that the basis of knowledge comes from the senses.

I answer that, On this point the philosophers held three opinions. For Democritus held that "all knowledge is caused by images issuing from the bodies we think of and entering into our souls," as Augustine says in his letter to Dioscorus (cxviii, 4). And Aristotle says (De Somn. et Vigil.) that Democritus held that knowledge is caused by a "discharge of images." And the reason for this opinion was that both Democritus and the other early philosophers did not distinguish between intellect and sense, as Aristotle relates (De Anima iii, 3). Consequently, since the sense is affected by the sensible, they thought that all our knowledge is affected by this mere impression brought about by sensible things. Which impression Democritus held to be caused by a discharge of images.

I answer that, on this point, the philosophers had three opinions. Democritus believed that "all knowledge comes from images emitted by the things we think about and entering our souls," as Augustine mentions in his letter to Dioscorus (cxviii, 4). Aristotle states (De Somn. et Vigil.) that Democritus thought knowledge is caused by a "release of images." The reason behind this view is that both Democritus and other early philosophers did not separate intellect from sense, as Aristotle explains (De Anima iii, 3). Therefore, since the senses are influenced by tangible objects, they believed that all our knowledge is impacted by this simple impression caused by sensible things. Democritus argued that this impression was brought about by a release of images.

Plato, on the other hand, held that the intellect is distinct from the senses: and that it is an immaterial power not making use of a corporeal organ for its action. And since the incorporeal cannot be affected by the corporeal, he held that intellectual knowledge is not brought about by sensible things affecting the intellect, but by separate intelligible forms being participated by the intellect, as we have said above (AA. 4 ,5). Moreover he held that sense is a power operating of itself. Consequently neither is sense, since it is a spiritual power, affected by the sensible: but the sensible organs are affected by the sensible, the result being that the soul is in a way roused to form within itself the species of the sensible. Augustine seems to touch on this opinion (Gen. ad lit. xii, 24) where he says that the "body feels not, but the soul through the body, which it makes use of as a kind of messenger, for reproducing within itself what is announced from without." Thus according to Plato, neither does intellectual knowledge proceed from sensible knowledge, nor sensible knowledge exclusively from sensible things; but these rouse the sensible soul to the sentient act, while the senses rouse the intellect to the act of understanding.

Plato, on the other hand, believed that the intellect is separate from the senses and that it is a non-physical power that doesn’t rely on a physical organ to function. Since the non-physical cannot be influenced by the physical, he argued that intellectual knowledge does not come from sensory experiences affecting the intellect. Instead, it comes from separate intelligible forms that the intellect engages with, as we mentioned earlier (AA. 4,5). Additionally, he believed that the senses operate on their own. Therefore, the senses, being a spiritual power, are not impacted by the physical; rather, the physical organs are influenced by sensory experiences, leading the soul to internally form representations of those experiences. Augustine seems to reference this idea (Gen. ad lit. xii, 24) when he says that the "body doesn’t feel, but the soul, through the body, which it uses as a kind of messenger, reproduces within itself what it perceives from outside." Thus, according to Plato, intellectual knowledge does not originate solely from sensory knowledge, nor does sensory knowledge come exclusively from physical things. Instead, sensory experiences stimulate the sensitive soul to act, while the senses inspire the intellect to understand.

Aristotle chose a middle course. For with Plato he agreed that intellect and sense are different. But he held that the sense has not its proper operation without the cooperation of the body; so that to feel is not an act of the soul alone, but of the "composite." And he held the same in regard to all the operations of the sensitive part. Since, therefore, it is not unreasonable that the sensible objects which are outside the soul should produce some effect in the "composite," Aristotle agreed with Democritus in this, that the operations of the sensitive part are caused by the impression of the sensible on the sense: not by a discharge, as Democritus said, but by some kind of operation. For Democritus maintained that every operation is by way of a discharge of atoms, as we gather from De Gener. i, 8. But Aristotle held that the intellect has an operation which is independent of the body's cooperation. Now nothing corporeal can make an impression on the incorporeal. And therefore in order to cause the intellectual operation according to Aristotle, the impression caused by the sensible does not suffice, but something more noble is required, for "the agent is more noble than the patient," as he says (De Gener. i, 5). Not, indeed, in the sense that the intellectual operation is effected in us by the mere impression of some superior beings, as Plato held; but that the higher and more noble agent which he calls the active intellect, of which we have spoken above (Q. 79, AA. 3, 4) causes the phantasms received from the senses to be actually intelligible, by a process of abstraction.

Aristotle took a middle ground. He agreed with Plato that the intellect and the senses are different. However, he believed that the senses can’t function properly without the body’s help; thus, feeling is not just an act of the soul but of the "composite." He thought this was true for all the functions of the sensitive part. Therefore, Aristotle aligned with Democritus in that the operations of the sensitive part are triggered by the impact of the sensible on the sense—not by a discharge, as Democritus suggested, but by some kind of action. Democritus argued that every action occurs through the discharge of atoms, as noted in De Gener. i, 8. But Aristotle claimed that the intellect operates independently of the body. Nothing physical can impact something non-physical. Hence, to induce intellectual operations according to Aristotle, the impression made by the sensible is not enough; something greater is needed, for "the agent is more noble than the patient," as he puts it (De Gener. i, 5). This doesn’t mean that the intellectual operation occurs in us through a mere impression from superior beings, as Plato believed; rather, the higher and more noble agent he refers to as the active intellect, which we discussed earlier (Q. 79, AA. 3, 4), enables us to make the phantasms we receive from our senses actually intelligible through a process of abstraction.

According to this opinion, then, on the part of the phantasms, intellectual knowledge is caused by the senses. But since the phantasms cannot of themselves affect the passive intellect, and require to be made actually intelligible by the active intellect, it cannot be said that sensible knowledge is the total and perfect cause of intellectual knowledge, but rather that it is in a way the material cause.

According to this view, the phantasms cause intellectual knowledge through the senses. However, since phantasms cannot directly influence the passive intellect and need to be made truly understandable by the active intellect, it can't be claimed that sensory knowledge is the complete and perfect cause of intellectual knowledge; instead, it's more like a material cause.

Reply Obj. 1: Those words of Augustine mean that we must not expect the entire truth from the senses. For the light of the active intellect is needed, through which we achieve the unchangeable truth of changeable things, and discern things themselves from their likeness.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine’s words mean that we shouldn’t expect to get the whole truth from our senses. We need the light of the active intellect to grasp the unchanging truth of changing things and to distinguish things themselves from their appearances.

Reply Obj. 2: In this passage Augustine speaks not of intellectual but of imaginary knowledge. And since, according to the opinion of Plato, the imagination has an operation which belongs to the soul only, Augustine, in order to show that corporeal images are impressed on the imagination, not by bodies but by the soul, uses the same argument as Aristotle does in proving that the active intellect must be separate, namely, because "the agent is more noble than the patient." And without doubt, according to the above opinion, in the imagination there must needs be not only a passive but also an active power. But if we hold, according to the opinion of Aristotle, that the action of the imagination is an action of the "composite," there is no difficulty; because the sensible body is more noble than the organ of the animal, in so far as it is compared to it as a being in act to a being in potentiality; even as the object actually colored is compared to the pupil which is potentially colored. It may, however, be said, although the first impression of the imagination is through the agency of the sensible, since "fancy is movement produced in accordance with sensation" (De Anima iii, 3), that nevertheless there is in man an operation which by synthesis and analysis forms images of various things, even of things not perceived by the senses. And Augustine's words may be taken in this sense.

Reply Obj. 2: In this passage, Augustine is referring to imaginative knowledge rather than intellectual knowledge. According to Plato, imagination operates in a way that involves only the soul. To illustrate that physical images are imprinted on the imagination not by external bodies but by the soul, Augustine uses the same argument as Aristotle in showing that the active intellect must be distinct, namely, because "the agent is more noble than the patient." It's clear that, based on this view, the imagination must contain both a passive and an active power. However, if we follow Aristotle's view that imagination acts through the "composite," then there's no issue, because the physical body is considered more noble than the animal's organ when comparing being in actuality to being in potentiality; much like how an actually colored object is compared to a pupil that is only potentially colored. It can also be argued that although the initial impression in the imagination occurs through sensory input, since "fancy is movement produced in accordance with sensation" (De Anima iii, 3), there exists in humans an operation that synthesizes and analyzes to create images of different things, even those not perceived by the senses. Augustine's words can be understood in this context.

Reply Obj. 3: Sensitive knowledge is not the entire cause of intellectual knowledge. And therefore it is not strange that intellectual knowledge should extend further than sensitive knowledge. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Sensory knowledge is not the only source of intellectual knowledge. So, it’s not surprising that intellectual knowledge can go beyond sensory knowledge.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 7]

Whether the Intellect Can Actually Understand Through the Intelligible Species of Which It Is Possessed, Without Turning to the Phantasms?

Whether the intellect can actually understand through the intelligible concepts it has, without referring to the mental images?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellect can actually understand through the intelligible species of which it is possessed, without turning to the phantasms. For the intellect is made actual by the intelligible species by which it is informed. But if the intellect is in act, it understands. Therefore the intelligible species suffices for the intellect to understand actually, without turning to the phantasms.

Objection 1: It seems that the intellect can understand through the intelligible concepts it possesses, without needing to refer to the mental images. The intellect is activated by the intelligible concepts it contains. If the intellect is in action, it understands. Therefore, the intelligible concepts are enough for the intellect to understand in the moment, without referring to the mental images.

Obj. 2: Further, the imagination is more dependent on the senses than the intellect on the imagination. But the imagination can actually imagine in the absence of the sensible. Therefore much more can the intellect understand without turning to the phantasms.

Obj. 2: Additionally, imagination relies more on the senses than intellect does on imagination. However, imagination can still create images without the sensory input. Therefore, the intellect can understand much more without relying on mental images.

Obj. 3: There are no phantasms of incorporeal things: for the imagination does not transcend time and space. If, therefore, our intellect cannot understand anything actually without turning to the phantasms, it follows that it cannot understand anything incorporeal. Which is clearly false: for we understand truth, and God, and the angels.

Obj. 3: There are no images of non-physical things: because the imagination can't go beyond time and space. So, if our intellect can't grasp anything real without referring to images, it means we can't understand anything non-physical. This is clearly incorrect: because we comprehend truth, God, and angels.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 7) that "the soul understands nothing without a phantasm."

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 7) that "the soul understands nothing without a mental image."

I answer that, In the present state of life in which the soul is united to a passible body, it is impossible for our intellect to understand anything actually, except by turning to the phantasms. First of all because the intellect, being a power that does not make use of a corporeal organ, would in no way be hindered in its act through the lesion of a corporeal organ, if for its act there were not required the act of some power that does make use of a corporeal organ. Now sense, imagination and the other powers belonging to the sensitive part, make use of a corporeal organ. Wherefore it is clear that for the intellect to understand actually, not only when it acquires fresh knowledge, but also when it applies knowledge already acquired, there is need for the act of the imagination and of the other powers. For when the act of the imagination is hindered by a lesion of the corporeal organ, for instance in a case of frenzy; or when the act of the memory is hindered, as in the case of lethargy, we see that a man is hindered from actually understanding things of which he had a previous knowledge. Secondly, anyone can experience this of himself, that when he tries to understand something, he forms certain phantasms to serve him by way of examples, in which as it were he examines what he is desirous of understanding. For this reason it is that when we wish to help someone to understand something, we lay examples before him, from which he forms phantasms for the purpose of understanding.

I answer that, In the current state of life where the soul is connected to a physical body, it's impossible for our intellect to truly understand anything without referring to mental images. First of all, the intellect, being a power that doesn't rely on a physical organ, wouldn’t be obstructed in its function by an injury to a physical organ, if its operation didn’t require the involvement of some power that does rely on a physical organ. Now, the senses, imagination, and other powers related to the sensory part do depend on a physical organ. Therefore, it’s clear that for the intellect to actually understand—not only when it acquires new knowledge but also when it applies knowledge it already has—it needs the engagement of the imagination and other powers. For example, when the imagination’s function is impaired by an injury to the body, as in cases of madness; or when memory is affected, like in lethargy, we see that a person struggles to understand things they previously knew. Secondly, anyone can notice that when trying to understand something, they create certain mental images as examples, through which they explore what they want to comprehend. That’s why when we want to help someone understand something, we present examples for them to create mental images that facilitate understanding.

Now the reason of this is that the power of knowledge is proportioned to the thing known. Wherefore the proper object of the angelic intellect, which is entirely separate from a body, is an intelligible substance separate from a body. Whereas the proper object of the human intellect, which is united to a body, is a quiddity or nature existing in corporeal matter; and through such natures of visible things it rises to a certain knowledge of things invisible. Now it belongs to such a nature to exist in an individual, and this cannot be apart from corporeal matter: for instance, it belongs to the nature of a stone to be in an individual stone, and to the nature of a horse to be in an individual horse, and so forth. Wherefore the nature of a stone or any material thing cannot be known completely and truly, except in as much as it is known as existing in the individual. Now we apprehend the individual through the senses and the imagination. And, therefore, for the intellect to understand actually its proper object, it must of necessity turn to the phantasms in order to perceive the universal nature existing in the individual. But if the proper object of our intellect were a separate form; or if, as the Platonists say, the natures of sensible things subsisted apart from the individual; there would be no need for the intellect to turn to the phantasms whenever it understands.

The reason for this is that the power of knowledge corresponds to what is known. Therefore, the proper focus of the angelic intellect, which is completely separate from the body, is an intelligible substance that is also separate from a body. In contrast, the proper focus of the human intellect, which is connected to a body, is the essence or nature that exists in physical matter; through such natures of visible things, it reaches a certain understanding of invisible things. It is inherent to such a nature to exist within an individual, which cannot be separate from physical matter: for example, it is part of the nature of a stone to be in a specific stone, and for a horse to be in a specific horse, and so on. Therefore, the nature of a stone or any material thing cannot be fully and accurately known unless it is understood as existing within the individual. We grasp the individual through our senses and imagination. Thus, for the intellect to truly comprehend its proper object, it must necessarily refer to the mental images to perceive the universal nature existing in the individual. However, if the proper focus of our intellect were a separate form; or if, as the Platonists say, the essences of tangible things existed independently from the individual, there would be no need for the intellect to refer to mental images when it understands.

Reply Obj. 1: The species preserved in the passive intellect exist there habitually when it does not understand them actually, as we have said above (Q. 79, A. 6). Wherefore for us to understand actually, the fact that the species are preserved does not suffice; we need further to make use of them in a manner befitting the things of which they are the species, which things are natures existing in individuals.

Reply Obj. 1: The concepts stored in the passive intellect are there regularly even when it doesn’t actually understand them, as mentioned earlier (Q. 79, A. 6). Therefore, for us to truly understand, simply having these concepts stored isn’t enough; we also need to apply them in a way that fits the actual things they represent, which are natures that exist in individuals.

Reply Obj. 2: Even the phantasm is the likeness of an individual thing; wherefore the imagination does not need any further likeness of the individual, whereas the intellect does.

Reply Obj. 2: Even the illusion is a representation of a specific thing; therefore, the imagination doesn't require any additional representation of the individual, while the intellect does.

Reply Obj. 3: Incorporeal things, of which there are no phantasms, are known to us by comparison with sensible bodies of which there are phantasms. Thus we understand truth by considering a thing of which we possess the truth; and God, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. i), we know as cause, by way of excess and by way of remotion. Other incorporeal substances we know, in the present state of life, only by way of remotion or by some comparison to corporeal things. And, therefore, when we understand something about these things, we need to turn to phantasms of bodies, although there are no phantasms of the things themselves. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: We recognize incorporeal things, which have no physical representations, by comparing them to tangible objects that do have representations. This is how we grasp the concept of truth by reflecting on something we already know to be true; and as Dionysius mentions (Div. Nom. i), we understand God as the ultimate cause through a concept of excess and by removing attributes. In our current state of life, we only understand other incorporeal substances through removal or by making comparisons to physical things. Therefore, when we try to comprehend these concepts, we must refer to the representations of physical bodies, even though the incorporeal things themselves do not have any representations.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 84, Art. 8]

Whether the Judgment of the Intellect Is Hindered Through Suspension of the Sensitive Powers?

Whether the Judgment of the Intellect Is Hindered Through Suspension of the Sensitive Powers?

Objection 1: It would seem that the judgment of the intellect is not hindered by suspension of the sensitive powers. For the superior does not depend on the inferior. But the judgment of the intellect is higher than the senses. Therefore the judgment of the intellect is not hindered through suspension of the senses.

Objection 1: It appears that the intellect's judgment isn't affected by the suspension of the senses. The higher functions do not rely on the lower ones. Since the intellect's judgment is superior to the senses, it follows that the intellect's judgment is not obstructed by the suspension of the senses.

Obj. 2: Further, to syllogize is an act of the intellect. But during sleep the senses are suspended, as is said in De Somn. et Vigil. i and yet it sometimes happens to us to syllogize while asleep. Therefore the judgment of the intellect is not hindered through suspension of the senses.

Obj. 2: Additionally, reasoning is an act of the mind. However, during sleep, the senses are dormant, as stated in De Somn. et Vigil. i, and yet we sometimes find ourselves reasoning in our sleep. Therefore, the mind's judgment is not obstructed by the suspension of the senses.

On the contrary, What a man does while asleep, against the moral law, is not imputed to him as a sin; as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 15). But this would not be the case if man, while asleep, had free use of his reason and intellect. Therefore the judgment of the intellect is hindered by suspension of the senses.

On the contrary, What someone does while asleep, in violation of the moral law, is not considered a sin; as Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. xii, 15). However, this wouldn’t be true if a person, while asleep, had full use of their reason and intellect. Therefore, the judgment of the intellect is obstructed by the suspension of the senses.

I answer that, As we have said above (A. 7), our intellect's proper and proportionate object is the nature of a sensible thing. Now a perfect judgment concerning anything cannot be formed, unless all that pertains to that thing's nature be known; especially if that be ignored which is the term and end of judgment. Now the Philosopher says (De Coel. iii), that "as the end of a practical science is action, so the end of natural science is that which is perceived principally through the senses"; for the smith does not seek knowledge of a knife except for the purpose of action, in order that he may produce a certain individual knife; and in like manner the natural philosopher does not seek to know the nature of a stone and of a horse, save for the purpose of knowing the essential properties of those things which he perceives with his senses. Now it is clear that a smith cannot judge perfectly of a knife unless he knows the action of the knife: and in like manner the natural philosopher cannot judge perfectly of natural things, unless he knows sensible things. But in the present state of life whatever we understand, we know by comparison to natural sensible things. Consequently it is not possible for our intellect to form a perfect judgment, while the senses are suspended, through which sensible things are known to us.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (A. 7), the main focus of our intellect is understanding the nature of physical things. A perfect judgment about anything can't be made unless all aspects of that thing's nature are known, especially what is essential to the judgment itself. The Philosopher states (De Coel. iii) that "just as the goal of a practical science is action, the goal of natural science is that which we primarily perceive through our senses"; for a blacksmith seeks knowledge about a knife only to be able to create a specific knife. Similarly, a natural philosopher seeks to understand the nature of a stone or a horse solely to know the essential properties of those things that he perceives with his senses. It’s clear that a blacksmith can’t make a perfect judgment about a knife without understanding how it functions, and likewise, the natural philosopher can’t perfectly judge natural things without knowing physical things. However, in our current state of existence, everything we comprehend is understood in relation to natural, perceivable things. Therefore, it’s impossible for our intellect to form a perfect judgment while our senses are inactive, because it’s through those senses that we come to know physical things.

Reply Obj. 1: Although the intellect is superior to the senses, nevertheless in a manner it receives from the senses, and its first and principal objects are founded in sensible things. And therefore suspension of the senses necessarily involves a hindrance to the judgment of the intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though the intellect is greater than the senses, it still relies on the senses, and its primary and most important objects are based on tangible things. Therefore, if the senses are suspended, it inevitably impairs the judgment of the intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: The senses are suspended in the sleeper through certain evaporations and the escape of certain exhalations, as we read in De Somn. et Vigil. iii. And, therefore, according to the amount of such evaporation, the senses are more or less suspended. For when the amount is considerable, not only are the senses suspended, but also the imagination, so that there are no phantasms; thus does it happen, especially when a man falls asleep after eating and drinking copiously. If, however, the evaporation be somewhat less, phantasms appear, but distorted and without sequence; thus it happens in a case of fever. And if the evaporation be still more attenuated, the phantasms will have a certain sequence: thus especially does it happen towards the end of sleep in sober men and those who are gifted with a strong imagination. If the evaporation be very slight, not only does the imagination retain its freedom, but also the common sense is partly freed; so that sometimes while asleep a man may judge that what he sees is a dream, discerning, as it were, between things, and their images. Nevertheless, the common sense remains partly suspended; and therefore, although it discriminates some images from the reality, yet is it always deceived in some particular. Therefore, while man is asleep, according as sense and imagination are free, so is the judgment of his intellect unfettered, though not entirely. Consequently, if a man syllogizes while asleep, when he wakes up he invariably recognizes a flaw in some respect. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The senses are put on hold in a sleeper due to certain vapor releases and the escape of certain exhalations, as mentioned in De Somn. et Vigil. iii. Therefore, the degree of such vapor release affects how much the senses are suspended. When the amount is significant, not only are the senses inactive, but the imagination is also suppressed, resulting in an absence of mental images; this commonly occurs when a person falls asleep after eating and drinking a lot. However, if the evaporation is somewhat less, mental images emerge, but they are distorted and lack coherence; this is often seen in cases of fever. If the evaporation is even less, the mental images will follow a certain order: this particularly happens towards the end of sleep for sober individuals or those with strong imaginations. If the evaporation is minimal, not only does the imagination remain free, but common sense is also partially liberated; so that sometimes while asleep, a person may realize that what they see is a dream, distinguishing between actual things and their images. Nevertheless, common sense remains partially suspended; thus, while it can differentiate some images from reality, it is always misled in some way. Therefore, while a person sleeps, the degree to which their senses and imagination are free determines how unfettered their intellect's judgment is, though not completely. Consequently, if someone reasons while asleep, upon waking, they will usually recognize some flaw in their reasoning.

QUESTION 85

OF THE MODE AND ORDER OF UNDERSTANDING
(In Eight Articles)

OF THE MODE AND ORDER OF UNDERSTANDING
(In Eight Articles)

We come now to consider the mode and order of understanding. Under this head there are eight points of inquiry:

We now turn our attention to how we understand things. In this regard, there are eight questions to explore:

(1) Whether our intellect understands by abstracting the species from the phantasms?

(1) Does our mind understand by taking the general ideas from the images?

(2) Whether the intelligible species abstracted from the phantasms are what our intellect understands, or that whereby it understands?

(2) Are the intelligible concepts we derive from our mental images what our intellect comprehends, or are they what allows it to comprehend?

(3) Whether our intellect naturally first understands the more universal?

(3) Does our intellect naturally first grasp the more universal?

(4) Whether our intellect can know many things at the same time?

(4) Can our mind know many things at once?

(5) Whether our intellect understands by the process of composition and division?

(5) Does our intellect understand through the process of composing and dividing?

(6) Whether the intellect can err?

(6) Can the intellect make mistakes?

(7) Whether one intellect can understand better than another?

(7) Can one mind understand things better than another?

(8) Whether our intellect understands the indivisible before the divisible? _______________________

(8) Does our mind comprehend the whole before the parts? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 1]

Whether Our Intellect Understands Corporeal and Material Things by
Abstraction from Phantasms?

Whether our intellect comprehends physical and material things by
abstracting from images?

Objection 1: It would seem that our intellect does not understand corporeal and material things by abstraction from the phantasms. For the intellect is false if it understands an object otherwise than as it really is. Now the forms of material things do not exist as abstracted from the particular things represented by the phantasms. Therefore, if we understand material things by abstraction of the species from the phantasm, there will be error in the intellect.

Objection 1: It seems that our intellect can't understand physical and material things by separating them from our mental images. The intellect would be mistaken if it understands an object differently than how it actually is. The forms of material things don’t exist apart from the specific things represented by these mental images. Therefore, if we understand material things by separating their essence from the mental image, our intellect will be in error.

Obj. 2: Further, material things are those natural things which include matter in their definition. But nothing can be understood apart from that which enters into its definition. Therefore material things cannot be understood apart from matter. Now matter is the principle of individualization. Therefore material things cannot be understood by abstraction of the universal from the particular, which is the process whereby the intelligible species is abstracted from the phantasm.

Obj. 2: Additionally, material things are natural items that include matter in their definition. But nothing can be understood separately from what is included in its definition. Therefore, material things can't be understood without matter. Now, matter is the principle of individualization. So, material things can't be understood by separating the universal from the particular, which is the process of abstracting the intelligible form from the mental image.

Obj. 3: Further, the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 7) that the phantasm is to the intellectual soul what color is to the sight. But seeing is not caused by abstraction of species from color, but by color impressing itself on the sight. Therefore neither does the act of understanding take place by abstraction of something from the phantasm, but by the phantasm impressing itself on the intellect.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 7) that the phantasm is to the intellectual soul what color is to sight. However, seeing isn't caused by pulling abstract ideas from color; rather, it's because color makes an impression on sight. Similarly, the process of understanding doesn't happen by abstracting something from the phantasm, but rather by the phantasm making an impression on the intellect.

Obj. 4: Further, the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 5) there are two things in the intellectual soul—the passive intellect and the active intellect. But it does not belong to the passive intellect to abstract the intelligible species from the phantasm, but to receive them when abstracted. Neither does it seem to be the function of the active intellect, which is related to the phantasm, as light is to color; since light does not abstract anything from color, but rather streams on to it. Therefore in no way do we understand by abstraction from phantasms.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 5) that there are two components in the intellectual soul—the passive intellect and the active intellect. The passive intellect doesn't abstract the intelligible forms from the mental images; instead, it receives them once they have been abstracted. It also doesn't seem to be the role of the active intellect, which relates to the mental images just like light relates to color; because light doesn't abstract anything from color, but instead shines onto it. Therefore, we cannot understand through abstraction from mental images.

Obj. 5: Further, the Philosopher (De Anima iii, 7) says that "the intellect understands the species in the phantasm"; and not, therefore, by abstraction.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, the Philosopher (De Anima iii, 7) states that "the intellect understands the essence in the image"; and not, therefore, by abstraction.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 4) that "things are intelligible in proportion as they are separate from matter." Therefore material things must needs be understood according as they are abstracted from matter and from material images, namely, phantasms.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 4) that "things are understandable to the extent that they are separate from matter." Therefore, material things must be understood based on how they are abstracted from matter and from material images, namely, phantasms.

I answer that, As stated above (Q. 84, A. 7), the object of knowledge is proportionate to the power of knowledge. Now there are three grades of the cognitive powers. For one cognitive power, namely, the sense, is the act of a corporeal organ. And therefore the object of every sensitive power is a form as existing in corporeal matter. And since such matter is the principle of individuality, therefore every power of the sensitive part can only have knowledge of the individual. There is another grade of cognitive power which is neither the act of a corporeal organ, nor in any way connected with corporeal matter; such is the angelic intellect, the object of whose cognitive power is therefore a form existing apart from matter: for though angels know material things, yet they do not know them save in something immaterial, namely, either in themselves or in God. But the human intellect holds a middle place: for it is not the act of an organ; yet it is a power of the soul which is the form of the body, as is clear from what we have said above (Q. 76, A. 1). And therefore it is proper to it to know a form existing individually in corporeal matter, but not as existing in this individual matter. But to know what is in individual matter, not as existing in such matter, is to abstract the form from individual matter which is represented by the phantasms. Therefore we must needs say that our intellect understands material things by abstracting from the phantasms; and through material things thus considered we acquire some knowledge of immaterial things, just as, on the contrary, angels know material things through the immaterial.

I respond that, As mentioned earlier (Q. 84, A. 7), the object of knowledge corresponds to the capacity of knowledge. There are three levels of cognitive ability. One level, specifically the senses, involves a physical organ. Therefore, each sensory ability has as its object a form that exists in physical matter. Since this matter is what gives rise to individuality, every sensory power can only comprehend individual entities. Another level of cognitive ability is not tied to a physical organ or any physical matter; this is the intellect of angels, which understands forms that exist independently of matter: although angels can know material things, they only understand them through something immaterial, either within themselves or through God. The human intellect occupies a middle ground: it is not tied to an organ, but it is a power of the soul, which is the form of the body, as we have explained before (Q. 76, A. 1). Thus, it is natural for it to know a form that exists individually in physical matter, but not as it exists in that specific matter. Recognizing what is in individual matter, not as it exists in that matter, means abstracting the form from the individual matter represented by phantasms. Therefore, we must conclude that our intellect comprehends material things by abstracting from the phantasms; and through these material things, we gain some understanding of immaterial things, just as angels perceive material things through the immaterial.

But Plato, considering only the immateriality of the human intellect, and not its being in a way united to the body, held that the objects of the intellect are separate ideas; and that we understand not by abstraction, but by participating things abstract, as stated above (Q. 84, A. 1).

But Plato, focusing solely on the immaterial nature of the human mind and not its connection to the body, believed that the objects of the mind are distinct ideas; and that we understand not through abstraction, but by engaging with abstract things, as stated above (Q. 84, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 1: Abstraction may occur in two ways: First, by way of composition and division; thus we may understand that one thing does not exist in some other, or that it is separate therefrom. Secondly, by way of simple and absolute consideration; thus we understand one thing without considering the other. Thus for the intellect to abstract one from another things which are not really abstract from one another, does, in the first mode of abstraction, imply falsehood. But, in the second mode of abstraction, for the intellect to abstract things which are not really abstract from one another, does not involve falsehood, as clearly appears in the case of the senses. For if we understood or said that color is not in a colored body, or that it is separate from it, there would be error in this opinion or assertion. But if we consider color and its properties, without reference to the apple which is colored; or if we express in word what we thus understand, there is no error in such an opinion or assertion, because an apple is not essential to color, and therefore color can be understood independently of the apple. Likewise, the things which belong to the species of a material thing, such as a stone, or a man, or a horse, can be thought of apart from the individualizing principles which do not belong to the notion of the species. This is what we mean by abstracting the universal from the particular, or the intelligible species from the phantasm; that is, by considering the nature of the species apart from its individual qualities represented by the phantasms. If, therefore, the intellect is said to be false when it understands a thing otherwise than as it is, that is so, if the word "otherwise" refers to the thing understood; for the intellect is false when it understands a thing otherwise than as it is; and so the intellect would be false if it abstracted the species of a stone from its matter in such a way as to regard the species as not existing in matter, as Plato held. But it is not so, if the word "otherwise" be taken as referring to the one who understands. For it is quite true that the mode of understanding, in one who understands, is not the same as the mode of a thing in existing: since the thing understood is immaterially in the one who understands, according to the mode of the intellect, and not materially, according to the mode of a material thing.

Reply Obj. 1: Abstraction can happen in two ways: First, through composition and division; in this way, we can understand that one thing doesn't exist in something else or that it is separate from it. Secondly, through simple and absolute consideration; here, we understand one thing without considering the other. Therefore, for the intellect to abstract one thing from another when they are not really separate does imply falsehood in the first mode of abstraction. However, in the second mode of abstraction, for the intellect to treat things that aren’t really separate as if they were doesn’t involve falsehood, as is clear with the senses. For example, if we were to say that color is not in a colored object, or that it is separate from it, that would be incorrect. But if we think about color and its properties without referencing the colored apple, or if we put into words what we understand, there’s no error in that viewpoint since the essence of color doesn’t rely on the apple, allowing us to grasp color independently. Similarly, the aspects that belong to the category of a physical thing, like a stone, a person, or a horse, can be considered apart from the specific traits that don’t pertain to the concept of the category. This is what we mean by abstracting the universal from the particular, or the intelligible category from the mental image; that is, by examining the nature of the category without its individual characteristics represented by mental images. If, therefore, we say that the intellect is false when it perceives something differently than it actually is, that holds true if "differently" relates to the thing being understood; because the intellect is mistaken when it understands something other than it is, making it false if it abstracts the essence of a stone from its substance in a way that denies the essence's existence within that substance, as Plato suggested. But this is not the case if "differently" refers to the person understanding; because it’s entirely accurate that the way someone understands something is not the same as the way that thing exists: since the understood thing exists in an immaterial way in the mind of the understander, fitting to the way of the intellect, and not materially, as a physical thing does.

Reply Obj. 2: Some have thought that the species of a natural thing is a form only, and that matter is not part of the species. If that were so, matter would not enter into the definition of natural things. Therefore it must be said otherwise, that matter is twofold, common, and "signate" or individual; common, such as flesh and bone; and individual, as this flesh and these bones. The intellect therefore abstracts the species of a natural thing from the individual sensible matter, but not from the common sensible matter; for example, it abstracts the species of man from "this flesh and these bones," which do not belong to the species as such, but to the individual (Metaph. vii, Did. vi, 10), and need not be considered in the species: whereas the species of man cannot be abstracted by the intellect from "flesh and bones."

Reply Obj. 2: Some believe that the essence of a natural thing is just a form, and that matter isn’t part of that essence. If that were the case, matter wouldn’t be included in the definition of natural things. So, it must be said differently: matter has two types, common and "signate" or individual; common, like flesh and bone; and individual, like this particular flesh and these specific bones. The intellect abstracts the essence of a natural thing from individual, sensible matter, but not from common sensible matter; for instance, it abstracts the essence of a human from "this flesh and these bones," which don’t belong to the essence itself, but to the individual (Metaph. vii, Did. vi, 10), and don’t need to be considered in the essence: whereas the essence of a human cannot be separated by the intellect from "flesh and bones."

Mathematical species, however, can be abstracted by the intellect from sensible matter, not only from individual, but also from common matter; not from common intelligible matter, but only from individual matter. For sensible matter is corporeal matter as subject to sensible qualities, such as being cold or hot, hard or soft, and the like: while intelligible matter is substance as subject to quantity. Now it is manifest that quantity is in substance before other sensible qualities are. Hence quantities, such as number, dimension, and figures, which are the terminations of quantity, can be considered apart from sensible qualities; and this is to abstract them from sensible matter; but they cannot be considered without understanding the substance which is subject to the quantity; for that would be to abstract them from common intelligible matter. Yet they can be considered apart from this or that substance; for that is to abstract them from individual intelligible matter. But some things can be abstracted even from common intelligible matter, such as "being," "unity," "power," "act," and the like; all these can exist without matter, as is plain regarding immaterial things. Because Plato failed to consider the twofold kind of abstraction, as above explained (ad 1), he held that all those things which we have stated to be abstracted by the intellect, are abstract in reality.

Mathematical concepts can be understood by the mind from physical matter, not just from individual instances, but also from general categories; not from general abstract concepts, but only from specific cases. Physical matter is tangible matter that has physical qualities like being cold or hot, hard or soft, and so on, while abstract concepts refer to substance in terms of quantity. It's clear that quantity exists in substance before other physical qualities do. Therefore, quantities like numbers, dimensions, and shapes, which are the results of quantity, can be thought of separately from physical qualities; this is what it means to abstract them from physical matter. However, they can't be understood without considering the substance that's related to the quantity, as that would mean abstracting them from general abstract concepts. Still, they can be considered separately from any specific substance; that is to abstract them from individual abstract concepts. However, some concepts can be abstracted even from general abstract ideas, such as "being," "unity," "power," "act," and similar notions; all of these can exist without matter, as seen in the case of immaterial entities. Because Plato did not take into account the two types of abstraction mentioned earlier, he believed that everything we claim can be abstracted by the mind is inherently abstract.

Reply Obj. 3: Colors, as being in individual corporeal matter, have the same mode of existence as the power of sight: therefore they can impress their own image on the eye. But phantasms, since they are images of individuals, and exist in corporeal organs, have not the same mode of existence as the human intellect, and therefore have not the power of themselves to make an impression on the passive intellect. This is done by the power of the active intellect which by turning towards the phantasm produces in the passive intellect a certain likeness which represents, as to its specific conditions only, the thing reflected in the phantasm. It is thus that the intelligible species is said to be abstracted from the phantasm; not that the identical form which previously was in the phantasm is subsequently in the passive intellect, as a body transferred from one place to another.

Reply Obj. 3: Colors, being part of physical matter, exist in the same way as the ability to see; therefore, they can create their own image in the eye. However, phantasms, as images of specific individuals and existing in physical organs, do not exist in the same way as the human intellect, and thus they cannot directly impress the passive intellect. This is accomplished by the active intellect, which, by focusing on the phantasm, produces a certain likeness in the passive intellect that reflects, in specific ways, the thing represented in the phantasm. This is how the intelligible species is said to be abstracted from the phantasm; it doesn’t mean that the identical form that was originally in the phantasm is later found in the passive intellect, like a body moved from one place to another.

Reply Obj. 4: Not only does the active intellect throw light on the phantasm: it does more; by its own power it abstracts the intelligible species from the phantasm. It throws light on the phantasm, because, just as the sensitive part acquires a greater power by its conjunction with the intellectual part, so by the power of the active intellect the phantasms are made more fit for the abstraction therefrom of intelligible intentions. Furthermore, the active intellect abstracts the intelligible species from the phantasm, forasmuch as by the power of the active intellect we are able to disregard the conditions of individuality, and to take into our consideration the specific nature, the image of which informs the passive intellect.

Reply Obj. 4: The active intellect not only sheds light on the phantasm; it does even more. It uses its own power to abstract the intelligible forms from the phantasm. It illuminates the phantasm because, just as the sensitive part gains more strength when combined with the intellectual part, the active intellect enhances the phantasms, making them better suited for abstracting intelligible concepts. Moreover, the active intellect pulls the intelligible forms from the phantasm, as it allows us to overlook individual characteristics and focus on the specific nature, the image of which informs the passive intellect.

Reply Obj. 5: Our intellect both abstracts the intelligible species from the phantasms, inasmuch as it considers the natures of things in universal, and, nevertheless, understands these natures in the phantasms since it cannot understand even the things of which it abstracts the species, without turning to the phantasms, as we have said above (Q. 84, A. 7). _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: Our intellect abstracts the concepts from our mental images by examining the nature of things in general. However, it also understands these natures through those mental images, since it cannot grasp even the things from which it abstracts concepts without referring back to the mental images, as we mentioned earlier (Q. 84, A. 7).

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 2]

Whether the Intelligible Species Abstracted from the Phantasm Is
Related to Our Intellect As That Which Is Understood?

Whether the Intelligible Species Abstracted from the Phantasm Is
Related to Our Intellect As That Which Is Understood?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intelligible species abstracted from the phantasm is related to our intellect as that which is understood. For the understood in act is in the one who understands: since the understood in act is the intellect itself in act. But nothing of what is understood is in the intellect actually understanding, save the abstracted intelligible species. Therefore this species is what is actually understood.

Objection 1: It seems that the intelligible form taken from the imagination is connected to our intellect as what is understood. The understanding that is present in the act is within the person who understands: since the understanding in the act is the intellect itself in action. However, nothing that is understood is actually within the intellect that is understanding, except for the abstracted intelligible form. Therefore, this form is what is actually understood.

Obj. 2: Further, what is actually understood must be in something; else it would be nothing. But it is not in something outside the soul: for, since what is outside the soul is material, nothing therein can be actually understood. Therefore what is actually understood is in the intellect. Consequently it can be nothing else than the aforesaid intelligible species.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, what is truly understood must reside in something; otherwise, it would be nothing. However, it does not reside in something outside the soul, because anything outside the soul is material, and nothing material can be truly understood. Therefore, what is actually understood exists within the intellect. As a result, it can only be the mentioned intelligible species.

Obj. 3: Further, the Philosopher says (1 Peri Herm. i) that "words are signs of the passions in the soul." But words signify the things understood, for we express by word what we understand. Therefore these passions of the soul—viz. the intelligible species, are what is actually understood.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the Philosopher states (1 Peri Herm. i) that "words are signs of the emotions in the soul." But words represent the concepts we grasp, as we express in words what we comprehend. Therefore, these emotions of the soul—specifically, the intelligible ideas—are what is truly understood.

On the contrary, The intelligible species is to the intellect what the sensible image is to the sense. But the sensible image is not what is perceived, but rather that by which sense perceives. Therefore the intelligible species is not what is actually understood, but that by which the intellect understands.

On the contrary, The intelligible species is to the intellect what the sensible image is to the senses. But the sensible image is not what is perceived; it’s actually the means by which the senses perceive. Therefore, the intelligible species is not what is actually understood, but rather the means by which the intellect understands.

I answer that, Some have asserted that our intellectual faculties know only the impression made on them; as, for example, that sense is cognizant only of the impression made on its own organ. According to this theory, the intellect understands only its own impression, namely, the intelligible species which it has received, so that this species is what is understood.

I answer that, Some people have claimed that our mental abilities only recognize the impressions they receive; for instance, that our senses are aware only of the impact made on their own receptors. Based on this idea, the intellect only comprehends its own impression, which is the understandable concept it has received, meaning that this concept is what is understood.

This is, however, manifestly false for two reasons. First, because the things we understand are the objects of science; therefore if what we understand is merely the intelligible species in the soul, it would follow that every science would not be concerned with objects outside the soul, but only with the intelligible species within the soul; thus, according to the teaching of the Platonists all science is about ideas, which they held to be actually understood [*Q. 84, A. 1]]. Secondly, it is untrue, because it would lead to the opinion of the ancients who maintained that "whatever seems, is true" [*Aristotle, Metaph. iii. 5, and that consequently contradictories are true simultaneously. For if the faculty knows its own impression only, it can judge of that only. Now a thing seems according to the impression made on the cognitive faculty. Consequently the cognitive faculty will always judge of its own impression as such; and so every judgment will be true: for instance, if taste perceived only its own impression, when anyone with a healthy taste perceives that honey is sweet, he would judge truly; and if anyone with a corrupt taste perceives that honey is bitter, this would be equally true; for each would judge according to the impression on his taste. Thus every opinion would be equally true; in fact, every sort of apprehension.

This is clearly false for two reasons. First, the things we understand are the objects of science; therefore, if what we understand is just the mental images in our minds, it would mean that every science is only about things inside the mind, not about objects outside of it. This aligns with the Platonists, who believed that all science is about ideas that they thought were truly understood [*Q. 84, A. 1]. Secondly, it’s incorrect because it would support the old belief that "whatever seems, is true" [*Aristotle, Metaph. iii. 5], which would mean that contradictory statements could both be true at the same time. If the mind only knows its own impressions, it can only judge those impressions. A thing seems true based on the impression it makes on the mind. Therefore, the mind would always judge its own impressions as true, meaning every judgment would be true. For example, if someone with a healthy sense of taste finds honey sweet, that judgment is true; and if someone with a poor sense of taste finds honey bitter, that judgment is also true, because each is judging based on their own impressions. So, every opinion would be equally valid; in fact, every form of understanding would be.

Therefore it must be said that the intelligible species is related to the intellect as that by which it understands: which is proved thus. There is a twofold action (Metaph. ix, Did. viii, 8), one which remains in the agent; for instance, to see and to understand; and another which passes into an external object; for instance, to heat and to cut; and each of these actions proceeds in virtue of some form. And as the form from which proceeds an act tending to something external is the likeness of the object of the action, as heat in the heater is a likeness of the thing heated; so the form from which proceeds an action remaining in the agent is the likeness of the object. Hence that by which the sight sees is the likeness of the visible thing; and the likeness of the thing understood, that is, the intelligible species, is the form by which the intellect understands. But since the intellect reflects upon itself, by such reflection it understands both its own act of intelligence, and the species by which it understands. Thus the intelligible species is that which is understood secondarily; but that which is primarily understood is the object, of which the species is the likeness. This also appears from the opinion of the ancient philosophers, who said that "like is known by like." For they said that the soul knows the earth outside itself, by the earth within itself; and so of the rest. If, therefore, we take the species of the earth instead of the earth, according to Aristotle (De Anima iii, 8), who says "that a stone is not in the soul, but only the likeness of the stone"; it follows that the soul knows external things by means of its intelligible species.

Therefore, it must be said that the intelligible species is related to the intellect as that which it uses to understand: this can be demonstrated as follows. There are two types of actions (Metaph. ix, Did. viii, 8), one that remains within the agent, such as seeing and understanding, and another that affects an external object, like heating and cutting; each of these actions stems from a certain form. The form that generates an act directed towards an external object is a reflection of the object involved in the action, just as the heat in a heater reflects the thing being heated. Similarly, the form that generates an action remaining within the agent is a representation of the object. Therefore, what enables sight to see is the likeness of the visible object, and the likeness of the thing understood, which is the intelligible species, is the form through which the intellect comprehends. Since the intellect can also reflect on itself, through this reflection it understands both its own act of intelligence and the species through which it understands. Thus, the intelligible species is the secondary understanding; the primary understanding pertains to the object, of which the species is a likeness. This aligns with the views of the ancient philosophers who stated that "like is known by like." They claimed the soul knows the external earth through the earth that exists within it, and the same goes for other objects. Therefore, if we consider the species of the earth rather than the earth itself, according to Aristotle (De Anima iii, 8), who stated that "a stone is not in the soul, but only the likeness of the stone," it follows that the soul recognizes external things through its intelligible species.

Reply Obj. 1: The thing understood is in the intellect by its own likeness; and it is in this sense that we say that the thing actually understood is the intellect in act, because the likeness of the thing understood is the form of the intellect, as the likeness of a sensible thing is the form of the sense in act. Hence it does not follow that the intelligible species abstracted is what is actually understood; but rather that it is the likeness thereof.

Reply Obj. 1: The concept understood exists in the mind as its own representation; and in this way, we say that the concept actually understood is the mind in action, because the representation of the concept understood is the form of the mind, just as the representation of a physical object is the form of the senses in action. Therefore, it doesn’t mean that the abstracted idea is what is actually understood; rather, it is the representation of that idea.

Reply Obj. 2: In these words "the thing actually understood" there is a double implication—the thing which is understood, and the fact that it is understood. In like manner the words "abstract universal" imply two things, the nature of a thing and its abstraction or universality. Therefore the nature itself to which it occurs to be understood, abstracted or considered as universal is only in individuals; but that it is understood, abstracted or considered as universal is in the intellect. We see something similar to this is in the senses. For the sight sees the color of the apple apart from its smell. If therefore it be asked where is the color which is seen apart from the smell, it is quite clear that the color which is seen is only in the apple: but that it be perceived apart from the smell, this is owing to the sight, forasmuch as the faculty of sight receives the likeness of color and not of smell. In like manner humanity understood is only in this or that man; but that humanity be apprehended without conditions of individuality, that is, that it be abstracted and consequently considered as universal, occurs to humanity inasmuch as it is brought under the consideration of the intellect, in which there is a likeness of the specific nature, but not of the principles of individuality.

Reply Obj. 2: In the phrase "the thing actually understood," there are two meanings—the thing that's understood and the fact that it is understood. Similarly, the words "abstract universal" suggest two ideas: the essence of something and its abstraction or universality. Thus, the essence that is understood, abstracted, or thought of as universal exists only in individual instances; however, the understanding, abstraction, or consideration of it as universal occurs in the intellect. We can observe something similar in the senses. For instance, sight perceives the color of an apple separately from its smell. So, if we ask where the color seen apart from the smell is, it’s clear that the color exists only in the apple; but perceiving it separately from the smell is due to sight, as the sight only takes in the likeness of color, not smell. Likewise, humanity understood exists only in this or that person; yet understanding humanity without the specifics of individuality—meaning abstracted and thus viewed as universal—occurs in humanity as it is considered by the intellect, where there is a reflection of the specific nature, but not of the individual principles.

Reply Obj. 3: There are two operations in the sensitive part. One, in regard of impression only, and thus the operation of the senses takes place by the senses being impressed by the sensible. The other is formation, inasmuch as the imagination forms for itself an image of an absent thing, or even of something never seen. Both of these operations are found in the intellect. For in the first place there is the passion of the passive intellect as informed by the intelligible species; and then the passive intellect thus informed forms a definition, or a division, or a composition, expressed by a word. Wherefore the concept conveyed by a word is its definition; and a proposition conveys the intellect's division or composition. Words do not therefore signify the intelligible species themselves; but that which the intellect forms for itself for the purpose of judging of external things. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: There are two functions in the sensitive part. One relates to impression only, which means the operation of the senses occurs as the senses are influenced by what they perceive. The other is formation, as the imagination creates an image of something that is absent or even something never encountered. Both of these functions are present in the intellect. First, there is the activity of the passive intellect, which is shaped by the intelligible forms; and then the passive intellect, once informed, creates a definition, division, or composition that is expressed through a word. Consequently, the concept communicated by a word is its definition; and a statement conveys the intellect's division or composition. Therefore, words do not directly represent the intelligible forms themselves, but rather what the intellect constructs to evaluate external realities.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 3]

Whether the More Universal Is First in Our Intellectual Cognition?

Whether the More Universal Comes First in Our Understanding?

Objection 1: It would seem that the more universal is not first in our intellectual cognition. For what is first and more known in its own nature, is secondarily and less known in relation to ourselves. But universals come first as regards their nature, because "that is first which does not involve the existence of its correlative" (Categor. ix). Therefore the universals are secondarily known as regards our intellect.

Objection 1: It seems that what's universal isn't first in our understanding. What is first and more familiar in its own nature is secondarily and less familiar to us. However, universals come first in terms of their nature because "what is first does not depend on the existence of its counterpart" (Categor. ix). Therefore, universals are known secondarily in relation to our intellect.

Obj. 2: Further, the composition precedes the simple in relation to us. But universals are the more simple. Therefore they are known secondarily by us.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the composition comes before the simple in relation to us. But universals are more simple. Therefore, we know them secondarily.

Obj. 3: Further, the Philosopher says (Phys. i, 1), that the object defined comes in our knowledge before the parts of its definition. But the more universal is part of the definition of the less universal, as "animal" is part of the definition of "man." Therefore the universals are secondarily known by us.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the Philosopher states (Phys. i, 1) that we understand the defined object before we grasp its defining parts. However, the more universal concept is part of the definition of the less universal, just as "animal" is part of the definition of "man." Therefore, we come to know universal concepts secondarily.

Obj. 4: Further, we know causes and principles by their effects. But universals are principles. Therefore universals are secondarily known by us.

Obj. 4: Also, we understand causes and principles through their effects. But universals are principles. So, we come to know universals in a secondary way.

On the contrary, "We must proceed from the universal to the singular and individual" (Phys. i, 1)

On the contrary, "We must move from the general to the specific and personal" (Phys. i, 1)

I answer that, In our knowledge there are two things to be considered. First, that intellectual knowledge in some degree arises from sensible knowledge: and, because sense has singular and individual things for its object, and intellect has the universal for its object, it follows that our knowledge of the former comes before our knowledge of the latter. Secondly, we must consider that our intellect proceeds from a state of potentiality to a state of actuality; and every power thus proceeding from potentiality to actuality comes first to an incomplete act, which is the medium between potentiality and actuality, before accomplishing the perfect act. The perfect act of the intellect is complete knowledge, when the object is distinctly and determinately known; whereas the incomplete act is imperfect knowledge, when the object is known indistinctly, and as it were confusedly. A thing thus imperfectly known, is known partly in act and partly in potentiality, and hence the Philosopher says (Phys. i, 1), that "what is manifest and certain is known to us at first confusedly; afterwards we know it by distinguishing its principles and elements." Now it is evident that to know an object that comprises many things, without proper knowledge of each thing contained in it, is to know that thing confusedly. In this way we can have knowledge not only of the universal whole, which contains parts potentially, but also of the integral whole; for each whole can be known confusedly, without its parts being known. But to know distinctly what is contained in the universal whole is to know the less common, as to "animal" indistinctly is to know it as "animal"; whereas to know "animal" distinctly is know it as "rational" or "irrational animal," that is, to know a man or a lion: therefore our intellect knows "animal" before it knows man; and the same reason holds in comparing any more universal idea with the less universal.

I respond that, in our understanding, there are two aspects to consider. First, intellectual knowledge partially arises from sensory knowledge: since our senses deal with specific and individual things, while our intellect focuses on the universal, it follows that our understanding of the former comes before our understanding of the latter. Secondly, we must recognize that our intellect moves from a state of potentiality to one of actuality; and every ability that transitions from potentiality to actuality initially experiences an incomplete state, which serves as a bridge between potentiality and actuality, before achieving the complete state. The complete state of the intellect is full knowledge, where the object is clearly and precisely understood; while the incomplete state is imperfect knowledge, where the object is known unclearly and somewhat confusedly. An imperfectly known thing is understood partially in act and partially in potentiality, which is why the Philosopher says (Phys. i, 1) that "what is clear and certain is initially known to us in a confused way; later, we understand it by distinguishing its principles and elements." It’s clear that knowing an object that includes many things, without a proper understanding of each part, is to have a confused knowledge of that object. In this way, we can know not only the universal whole, which potentially contains parts, but also the complete whole; for each whole can be understood confusedly, even if its parts are not individually known. However, to distinctly know what is included in the universal whole is to understand the less common; for example, to know "animal" unclearly means knowing it simply as "animal"; whereas knowing "animal" distinctly means understanding it as "rational" or "irrational" animal, that is, knowing a human or a lion. Therefore, our intellect knows "animal" before it knows man; and the same reasoning applies when comparing any more universal concept with a less universal one.

Moreover, as sense, like the intellect, proceeds from potentiality to act, the same order of knowledge appears in the senses. For by sense we judge of the more common before the less common, in reference both to place and time; in reference to place, when a thing is seen afar off it is seen to be a body before it is seen to be an animal; and to be an animal before it is seen to be a man, and to be a man before it seen to be Socrates or Plato; and the same is true as regards time, for a child can distinguish man from not man before he distinguishes this man from that, and therefore "children at first call men fathers, and later on distinguish each one from the others" (Phys. i, 1). The reason of this is clear: because he who knows a thing indistinctly is in a state of potentiality as regards its principle of distinction; as he who knows genus is in a state of potentiality as regards "difference." Thus it is evident that indistinct knowledge is midway between potentiality and act.

Moreover, just like the intellect, the senses move from potential to actual knowledge in the same way. We first understand the more common things before the less common, in terms of both space and time. In terms of space, when something is seen from a distance, it is recognized as a body before it is identified as an animal; then as an animal before it is seen as a man, and then as a man before it is recognized as Socrates or Plato. The same applies to time; a child can tell the difference between a man and something that isn't a man before they can distinguish one man from another. That’s why "children at first call men fathers, and later on distinguish each one from the others" (Phys. i, 1). The reason for this is clear: someone who knows something vaguely is in a potential state regarding its distinguishing features; just like someone who knows a general category is in a potential state regarding "differences." So, it's evident that unclear knowledge sits between potentiality and actual knowledge.

We must therefore conclude that knowledge of the singular and individual is prior, as regards us, to the knowledge of the universal; as sensible knowledge is prior to intellectual knowledge. But in both sense and intellect the knowledge of the more common precedes the knowledge of the less common.

We have to conclude that our understanding of the unique and individual comes before understanding the universal; just like sensory knowledge comes before intellectual knowledge. In both sense and intellect, the knowledge of what is more common comes before the knowledge of what is less common.

Reply Obj. 1: The universal can be considered in two ways. First, the universal nature may be considered together with the intention of universality. And since the intention of universality—viz. the relation of one and the same to many—is due to intellectual abstraction, the universal thus considered is a secondary consideration. Hence it is said (De Anima i, 1) that the "universal animal is either nothing or something secondary." But according to Plato, who held that universals are subsistent, the universal considered thus would be prior to the particular, for the latter, according to him, are mere participations of the subsistent universals which he called ideas.

Reply Obj. 1: The universal can be understood in two ways. First, the nature of the universal can be looked at alongside the intention of universality. Since the intention of universality—meaning the relationship of one and the same to many—comes from intellectual abstraction, the universal viewed in this way is a secondary thought. Therefore, it is stated (De Anima i, 1) that the "universal animal is either nothing or something secondary." However, according to Plato, who believed that universals exist independently, the universal considered in this way would come before the particular, because, for him, the particulars are simply representations of the independent universals that he referred to as ideas.

Secondly, the universal can be considered in the nature itself—for instance, animality or humanity as existing in the individual. And thus we must distinguish two orders of nature: one, by way of generation and time; and thus the imperfect and the potential come first. In this way the more common comes first in the order of nature; as appears clearly in the generation of man and animal; for "the animal is generated before man," as the Philosopher says (De Gener. Animal ii, 3). The other order is the order of perfection or of the intention of nature: for instance, act considered absolutely is naturally prior to potentiality, and the perfect to the imperfect: thus the less common comes naturally before the more common; as man comes before animal. For the intention of nature does not stop at the generation of animal but goes on to the generation of man.

Secondly, we can think about the universal in nature itself—for example, animality or humanity as they exist in individuals. So, we need to differentiate between two orders of nature: one based on generation and time, where the imperfect and the potential come first. In this way, the more common appears first in the natural order; this is clear in the generation of humans and animals, since "the animal is generated before man," as the Philosopher states (De Gener. Animal ii, 3). The other order is the order of perfection or the intention of nature: for instance, being in action is naturally prior to being potential, and the perfect comes before the imperfect; thus the less common comes naturally before the more common, just as humans come before animals. The intention of nature doesn't stop at the generation of animals but continues on to the generation of humans.

Reply Obj. 2: The more common universal may be compared to the less common, as the whole, and as the part. As the whole, considering that in the more universal is potentially contained not only the less universal, but also other things, as in "animal" is contained not only "man" but also "horse." As part, considering that the less common contains in its idea not only the more common, but also more; as "man" contains not only "animal" but also "rational." Therefore "animal" in itself comes into our knowledge before "man"; but "man" comes before "animal" considered as part of the same idea.

Reply Obj. 2: The more general concept can be compared to the more specific one, both as a whole and as parts. As a whole, the more general includes not only the more specific but also other things; for example, "animal" includes not just "man" but also "horse." As a part, the more specific includes in its definition not just the more general, but also additional details; for instance, "man" includes not only "animal" but also "rational." Therefore, "animal" is understood before "man," but "man" is understood before "animal" when they are considered as parts of the same concept.

Reply Obj. 3: A part can be known in two ways. First, absolutely considered in itself; and thus nothing prevents the parts being known before the whole, as stones are known before a house is known. Secondly as belonging to a certain whole; and thus we must needs know the whole before its parts. For we know a house vaguely before we know its different parts. So likewise principles of definition are known before the thing defined is known; otherwise the thing defined would not be known at all. But as parts of the definition they are known after. For we know man vaguely as man before we know how to distinguish all that belongs to human nature.

Reply Obj. 3: A part can be understood in two ways. First, it can be considered on its own; in this way, nothing stops us from knowing the parts before the whole, just like we can recognize the stones before we see a house. Second, it can be understood as part of a specific whole; in this case, we need to know the whole before we understand its parts. We have a general idea of a house before we identify its various parts. Similarly, the principles of definition are understood before we grasp the thing being defined; otherwise, the thing being defined wouldn’t be recognizable at all. However, as components of the definition, they are understood afterward. We recognize a person generally as a person before we figure out what defines human nature.

Reply Obj. 4: The universal, as understood with the intention of universality, is, indeed, in a way, a principle of knowledge, in so far as the intention of universality results from the mode of understanding by way of abstraction. But what is a principle of knowledge is not of necessity a principle of existence, as Plato thought: since at times we know a cause through its effect, and substance through accidents. Wherefore the universal thus considered, according to the opinion of Aristotle, is neither a principle of existence, nor a substance, as he makes clear (Metaph. vii, Did. vi, 13). But if we consider the generic or specific nature itself as existing in the singular, thus in a way it is in the nature of a formal principle in regard to the singulars: for the singular is the result of matter, while the idea of species is from the form. But the generic nature is compared to the specific nature rather after the fashion of a material principle, because the generic nature is taken from that which is material in a thing, while the idea of species is taken from that which is formal: thus the notion of animal is taken from the sensitive part, whereas the notion of man is taken from the intellectual part. Thus it is that the ultimate intention of nature is to the species and not to the individual, or the genus: because the form is the end of generation, while matter is for the sake of the form. Neither is it necessary that, as regards us, knowledge of any cause or principle should be secondary: since at times through sensible causes we become acquainted with unknown effects, and sometimes conversely. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The concept of universality, as intended for understanding, is indeed a sort of principle of knowledge, since the goal of universality comes from our way of grasping things through abstraction. However, just because something is a principle of knowledge doesn’t mean it's a principle of existence, as Plato believed. Sometimes we understand a cause by observing its effect, and we recognize substance through its accidents. Therefore, the universal, in this sense, is neither a principle of existence nor a substance, as Aristotle clarified (Metaph. vii, Did. vi, 13). When we think about the generic or specific nature as existing in the individual, it can serve as a formal principle regarding specifics, since the individual arises from matter while the idea of a species comes from form. The generic nature is viewed as a sort of material principle in relation to the specific nature because it is derived from the material aspect, whereas the idea of a species comes from the formal aspect: the concept of an animal comes from its sensitive qualities, while the concept of a human comes from its intellectual qualities. Thus, the ultimate goal of nature is directed toward species rather than individuals or genera, as form is the end purpose of generation while matter exists for the sake of form. It's also not necessary that, in our case, knowledge of any cause or principle should be secondary; we can sometimes understand unknown effects through observable causes, and other times the opposite occurs.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 4]

Whether We Can Understand Many Things at the Same Time?

Whether We Can Understand Many Things at the Same Time?

Objection 1: It would seem that we can understand many things at the same time. For intellect is above time, whereas the succession of before and after belongs to time. Therefore the intellect does not understand different things in succession, but at the same time.

Objection 1: It seems that we can understand many things at once. The intellect is beyond time, while the sequence of before and after is tied to time. Therefore, the intellect does not grasp different things one after another, but all at the same time.

Obj. 2: Further, there is nothing to prevent different forms not opposed to each other from actually being in the same subject, as, for instance, color and smell are in the apple. But intelligible species are not opposed to each other. Therefore there is nothing to prevent the same intellect being in act as regards different intelligible species, and thus it can understand many things at the same time.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, there’s nothing stopping different forms that don’t contradict each other from existing in the same subject, like how color and smell can be found in an apple. However, intelligible species do not contradict each other. Therefore, there’s nothing stopping the same intellect from being actively engaged with different intelligible species, allowing it to understand multiple things at the same time.

Obj. 3: Further, the intellect understands a whole at the same time, such as a man or a house. But a whole contains many parts. Therefore the intellect understands many things at the same time.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the intellect comprehends a whole at once, like a person or a house. However, a whole consists of many parts. Therefore, the intellect understands many things simultaneously.

Obj. 4: Further, we cannot know the difference between two things unless we know both at the same time (De Anima iii, 2), and the same is to be said of any other comparison. But our intellect knows the difference and comparison between one thing and another. Therefore it knows many things at the same time.

Obj. 4: Additionally, we can't understand the difference between two things unless we understand both at the same time (De Anima iii, 2), and the same applies to any other comparison. However, our intellect is aware of the differences and comparisons between one thing and another. Therefore, it perceives many things simultaneously.

On the contrary, It is said (Topic. ii, 10) that "understanding is of one thing only, knowledge is of many."

On the contrary, It is said (Topic. ii, 10) that "understanding is about one thing only, while knowledge is about many."

I answer that, The intellect can, indeed, understand many things as one, but not as many: that is to say by one but not by many intelligible species. For the mode of every action follows the form which is the principle of that action. Therefore whatever things the intellect can understand under one species, it can understand at the same time: hence it is that God sees all things at the same time, because He sees all in one, that is, in His Essence. But whatever things the intellect understands under different species, it does not understand at the same time. The reason of this is that it is impossible for one and the same subject to be perfected at the same time by many forms of one genus and diverse species, just as it is impossible for one and the same body at the same time to have different colors or different shapes. Now all intelligible species belong to one genus, because they are the perfections of one intellectual faculty: although the things which the species represent belong to different genera. Therefore it is impossible for one and the same intellect to be perfected at the same time by different intelligible species so as actually to understand different things.

I answer that, the mind can understand many things as one, but not as many; that is, it understands by one but not by many concepts. Every action is determined by the form that is its guiding principle. Therefore, whatever the mind can grasp under one concept, it can comprehend at the same time. This is why God sees everything at once—because He sees all things in unity, that is, in His Essence. However, when the mind understands things under different concepts, it cannot grasp them simultaneously. The reason for this is that it’s not possible for one subject to be fully realized at the same time by multiple forms of the same category but different concepts, just like it’s impossible for one body to exhibit different colors or shapes at once. All intelligible concepts belong to one category since they are the qualities of one intellectual faculty, even though the things those concepts represent belong to different categories. Therefore, it’s impossible for one mind to be fully engaged at the same time by different intelligible concepts to actually understand different things.

Reply Obj. 1: The intellect is above that time, which is the measure of the movement of corporeal things. But the multitude itself of intelligible species causes a certain vicissitude of intelligible operations, according as one operation succeeds another. And this vicissitude is called time by Augustine, who says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 20, 22), that "God moves the spiritual creature through time."

Reply Obj. 1: The intellect exists beyond time, which measures the movement of physical things. However, the variety of intelligible forms leads to a certain change in intelligible actions, as one action follows another. Augustine refers to this change as time, stating (Gen. ad lit. viii, 20, 22) that "God moves the spiritual creature through time."

Reply Obj. 2: Not only is it impossible for opposite forms to exist at the same time in the same subject, but neither can any forms belonging to the same genus, although they be not opposed to one another, as is clear from the examples of colors and shapes.

Reply Obj. 2: Not only is it impossible for opposing forms to exist at the same time in the same subject, but no forms within the same category can coexist either, even if they aren't opposing, as is evident from the examples of colors and shapes.

Reply Obj. 3: Parts can be understood in two ways. First, in a confused way, as existing in the whole, and thus they are known through the one form of the whole, and so are known together. In another way they are known distinctly: thus each is known by its species; and so they are not understood at the same time.

Reply Obj. 3: Parts can be understood in two ways. First, in a confused way, as existing within the whole, and they are known through the one form of the whole, which means they are known collectively. In another way, they are known individually: each is recognized by its species; therefore, they are not understood simultaneously.

Reply Obj. 4: If the intellect sees the difference or comparison between one thing and another, it knows both in relation to their difference or comparison; just, as we have said above (ad 3), as it knows the parts in the whole. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: If the intellect recognizes the difference or comparison between one thing and another, it understands both in relation to their difference or comparison; just as we mentioned earlier (ad 3), as it understands the parts within the whole.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 5]

Whether Our Intellect Understands by Composition and Division?

Whether Our Intellect Understands Through Combination and Separation?

Objection 1: It would seem that our intellect does not understand by composition and division. For composition and division are only of many; whereas the intellect cannot understand many things at the same time. Therefore it cannot understand by composition and division.

Objection 1: It seems that our intellect doesn't understand through composition and division. Composition and division only apply to multiple things; however, the intellect cannot grasp many things simultaneously. Therefore, it cannot understand through composition and division.

Obj. 2: Further, every composition and division implies past, present, or future time. But the intellect abstracts from time, as also from other individual conditions. Therefore the intellect does not understand by composition and division.

Obj. 2: Also, every composition and division involves past, present, or future time. However, the mind abstracts from time, as well as from other individual circumstances. Therefore, the mind does not understand through composition and division.

Obj. 3: Further, the intellect understands things by a process of assimilation to them. But composition and division are not in things, for nothing is in things but what is signified by the predicate and the subject, and which is one and the same, provided that the composition be true, for "man" is truly what "animal" is. Therefore the intellect does not act by composition and division.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the intellect understands things through a process of assimilation to them. However, composition and division aren’t actually in things themselves, because nothing exists in things except what is represented by the predicate and the subject, which are one and the same, as long as the composition is true, since "man" is truly what "animal" is. Therefore, the intellect does not operate through composition and division.

On the contrary, Words signify the conceptions of the intellect, as the Philosopher says (Peri Herm. i). But in words we find composition and division, as appears in affirmative and negative propositions. Therefore the intellect acts by composition and division.

On the contrary, Words represent the ideas of the mind, as the Philosopher states (Peri Herm. i). But in words, we see both composition and division, which is evident in affirmative and negative statements. Therefore, the intellect operates through composition and division.

I answer that, The human intellect must of necessity understand by composition and division. For since the intellect passes from potentiality to act, it has a likeness to things which are generated, which do not attain to perfection all at once but acquire it by degrees: so likewise the human intellect does not acquire perfect knowledge by the first act of apprehension; but it first apprehends something about its object, such as its quiddity, and this is its first and proper object; and then it understands the properties, accidents, and the various relations of the essence. Thus it necessarily compares one thing with another by composition or division; and from one composition and division it proceeds to another, which is the process of reasoning.

I answer that, The human mind necessarily understands things through combining and separating concepts. Since the mind moves from potential to actual understanding, it resembles things that are created, which don't reach their full form all at once but develop gradually: similarly, the human mind doesn't achieve complete knowledge from the first moment of understanding; instead, it first grasps something about its subject, like its essence, which is its primary focus; then it comprehends the characteristics, attributes, and various relationships of that essence. Therefore, it inevitably compares one thing to another through combining or separating ideas, and from one combination or separation, it moves on to another, which constitutes the process of reasoning.

But the angelic and the Divine intellect, like all incorruptible things, have their perfection at once from the beginning. Hence the angelic and the Divine intellect have the entire knowledge of a thing at once and perfectly; and hence also in knowing the quiddity of a thing they know at once whatever we can know by composition, division, and reasoning. Therefore the human intellect knows by composition, division and reasoning. But the Divine intellect and the angelic intellect know, indeed, composition, division, and reasoning, not by the process itself, but by understanding the simple essence.

But the angelic and Divine intellect, like all incorruptible things, have their perfection from the very start. Therefore, the angelic and Divine intellect possess complete knowledge of a thing all at once and perfectly; and in understanding the essence of a thing, they know everything we can know through composition, division, and reasoning. In contrast, the human intellect learns through composition, division, and reasoning. However, the Divine intellect and the angelic intellect understand composition, division, and reasoning not through the process itself, but by grasping the simple essence.

Reply Obj. 1: Composition and division of the intellect are made by differentiating and comparing. Hence the intellect knows many things by composition and division, as by knowing the difference and comparison of things.

Reply Obj. 1: The intellect understands through differentiation and comparison. Therefore, it knows many things by analyzing and distinguishing them, as it learns the differences and relationships between things.

Reply Obj. 2: Although the intellect abstracts from the phantasms, it does not understand actually without turning to the phantasms, as we have said (A. 1; Q. 84, A. 7). And forasmuch as it turns to the phantasms, composition and division of the intellect involve time.

Reply Obj. 2: Even though the intellect separates from the images, it doesn’t truly understand without referencing those images, as we mentioned (A. 1; Q. 84, A. 7). Because it relies on these images, the process of combining and separating ideas takes time.

Reply Obj. 3: The likeness of a thing is received into the intellect according to the mode of the intellect, not according to the mode of the thing. Wherefore something on the part of the thing corresponds to the composition and division of the intellect; but it does not exist in the same way in the intellect and in the thing. For the proper object of the human intellect is the quiddity of a material thing, which comes under the action of the senses and the imagination. Now in a material thing there is a twofold composition. First, there is the composition of form with matter; and to this corresponds that composition of the intellect whereby the universal whole is predicated of its part: for the genus is derived from common matter, while the difference that completes the species is derived from the form, and the particular from individual matter. The second comparison is of accident with subject: and to this real composition corresponds that composition of the intellect, whereby accident is predicated of subject, as when we say "the man is white." Nevertheless composition of the intellect differs from composition of things; for in the latter the things are diverse, whereas composition of the intellect is a sign of the identity of the components. For the above composition of the intellect does not imply that "man" and "whiteness" are identical, but the assertion, "the man is white," means that "the man is something having whiteness": and the subject, which is a man, is identified with a subject having whiteness. It is the same with the composition of form and matter: for animal signifies that which has a sensitive nature; rational, that which has an intellectual nature; man, that which has both; and Socrates that which has all these things together with individual matter; and according to this kind of identity our intellect predicates the composition of one thing with another. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The representation of something is understood by the intellect based on how the intellect operates, not how the thing itself operates. Therefore, there is something about the thing that relates to the way the intellect organizes and categorizes, but it doesn't exist the same way in the intellect as it does in the thing. The primary focus of the human intellect is the essence of a material thing, which is perceived through the senses and imagination. In a material thing, there is a twofold composition. First, there is the composition of form with matter; this corresponds to the way the intellect categorizes the whole as it relates to its parts: the genus comes from shared matter, while the difference that defines the species comes from the form, and the particular from individual matter. The second comparison is between accidents and the subject; this real composition mirrors the way the intellect relates an accident to the subject, as in saying "the man is white." However, the composition in the intellect is different from the composition of things; in the latter, the things are distinct, while the composition in the intellect signifies the sameness of the components. Thus, the composition in the intellect doesn’t suggest that "man" and "whiteness" are the same, but the statement "the man is white" indicates that "the man is someone who has whiteness": and the subject, which is a man, is recognized as a subject who possesses whiteness. The same applies to the composition of form and matter: for 'animal' denotes something with a sensitive nature; 'rational' denotes something with an intellectual nature; 'man' denotes something that has both; and 'Socrates' denotes something that has all these qualities along with individual matter; and based on this type of identity, our intellect asserts the composition of one thing with another.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 6]

Whether the Intellect Can Be False?

Whether the Intellect Can Be False?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellect can be false; for the Philosopher says (Metaph. vi, Did. v, 4) that "truth and falsehood are in the mind." But the mind and intellect are the same, as is shown above (Q. 79, A. 1). Therefore falsehood may be in the mind.

Objection 1: It might seem that the intellect can be wrong; because the Philosopher says (Metaph. vi, Did. v, 4) that "truth and falsehood are in the mind." But the mind and intellect are the same, as explained above (Q. 79, A. 1). Therefore, falsehood can exist in the mind.

Obj. 2: Further, opinion and reasoning belong to the intellect. But falsehood exists in both. Therefore falsehood can be in the intellect.

Obj. 2: Additionally, opinion and reasoning are part of the intellect. However, falsehood exists in both. Therefore, falsehood can be present in the intellect.

Obj. 3: Further, sin is in the intellectual faculty. But sin involves falsehood: for "those err that work evil" (Prov. 14:22). Therefore falsehood can be in the intellect.

Obj. 3: Additionally, sin exists in the thinking part of our mind. But sin involves deceit, as "those who do evil go astray" (Prov. 14:22). Therefore, deceit can be present in our intellect.

On the contrary, Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 32), that "everyone who is deceived, does not rightly understand that wherein he is deceived." And the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 10), that "the intellect is always true."

On the contrary, Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 32), that "everyone who is deceived does not properly understand what they are deceived about." And the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 10) that "the intellect is always accurate."

I answer that, The Philosopher (De Anima iii, 6) compares intellect with sense on this point. For sense is not deceived in its proper object, as sight in regard to color; [unless] accidentally through some hindrance occurring to the sensile organ—for example, the taste of a fever-stricken person judges a sweet thing to be bitter, through his tongue being vitiated by ill humors. Sense, however, may be deceived as regards common sensible objects, as size or figure; when, for example, it judges the sun to be only a foot in diameter, whereas in reality it exceeds the earth in size. Much more is sense deceived concerning accidental sensible objects, as when it judges that vinegar is honey by reason of the color being the same. The reason of this is evident; for every faculty, as such, is per se directed to its proper object; and things of this kind are always the same. Hence, as long as the faculty exists, its judgment concerning its own proper object does not fail. Now the proper object of the intellect is the "quiddity" of a material thing; and hence, properly speaking, the intellect is not at fault concerning this quiddity; whereas it may go astray as regards the surroundings of the thing in its essence or quiddity, in referring one thing to another, as regards composition or division, or also in the process of reasoning. Therefore, also in regard to those propositions, which are understood, the intellect cannot err, as in the case of first principles from which arises infallible truth in the certitude of scientific conclusions.

I answer that, The Philosopher (De Anima iii, 6) compares intellect with sense in this context. Sense is not misled about its specific object, like sight when it comes to color; [unless] there’s an accidental issue with the sensory organ—like how a person with a fever might perceive something sweet as bitter because their taste buds are affected by illness. However, sense can be easily deceived regarding common sensible objects, such as size or shape; for instance, it might judge the sun to be just a foot wide when, in reality, it’s much larger than the earth. Much more so can sense be mistaken about accidental sensible objects; for example, it might mistake vinegar for honey because they are the same color. This happens for a clear reason: every faculty, by its nature, is per se directed toward its proper object, and those things are always consistent. Therefore, as long as the faculty exists, its judgment about its proper object remains accurate. Now, the proper object of intellect is the "essence" of a material thing; thus, the intellect is not wrong about this essence. However, it can make errors regarding the contextual aspects of the thing concerning its essence, such as in relating one thing to another, in processes of combination or separation, or also in reasoning. Hence, concerning those propositions that are understood, the intellect cannot err, particularly in the case of first principles, which lead to undeniable truth in the certainty of scientific conclusions.

The intellect, however, may be accidentally deceived in the quiddity of composite things, not by the defect of its organ, for the intellect is a faculty that is independent of an organ; but on the part of the composition affecting the definition, when, for instance, the definition of a thing is false in relation to something else, as the definition of a circle applied to a triangle; or when a definition is false in itself as involving the composition of things incompatible; as, for instance, to describe anything as "a rational winged animal." Hence as regards simple objects not subject to composite definitions we cannot be deceived unless, indeed, we understand nothing whatever about them, as is said Metaph. ix, Did. viii, 10.

The intellect can be mistakenly misled about the nature of complex things, not because of any flaw in its capability—since intellect functions independently of any physical organ—but due to issues with the way the definitions are composed. For example, the definition of a circle applied to a triangle is false because it doesn't relate correctly to something else; or a definition may be inherently false because it tries to combine incompatible elements, like describing something as "a rational winged animal." So, when it comes to simple objects that aren’t defined by complex terms, we can't be misled unless we truly know nothing about them, as mentioned in Metaph. ix, Did. viii, 10.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher says that falsehood is in the intellect in regard to composition and division. The same answer applies to the Second Objection concerning opinion and reasoning, and to the Third Objection, concerning the error of the sinner, who errs in the practical judgment of the appetible object. But in the absolute consideration of the quiddity of a thing, and of those things which are known thereby, the intellect is never deceived. In this sense are to be understood the authorities quoted in proof of the opposite conclusion. _______________________

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher states that falsehood exists in the mind when it comes to understanding composition and division. The same response applies to the Second Objection regarding opinion and reasoning, as well as to the Third Objection about the mistake of the sinner, who makes errors in practical judgments about desirable objects. However, when it comes to the true nature of a thing and what is known through it, the intellect is never misled. This is the meaning behind the authorities cited to support the opposing conclusion.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 7]

Whether One Person Can Understand One and the Same Thing Better Than
Another Can?

Whether one person can understand the same thing better than
another can?

Objection 1: It would seem that one person cannot understand one and the same thing better than another can. For Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 32), "Whoever understands a thing otherwise than as it is, does not understand it at all. Hence it is clear that there is a perfect understanding, than which none other is more perfect: and therefore there are not infinite degrees of understanding a thing: nor can one person understand a thing better than another can."

Objection 1: It seems that one person can't understand the same thing better than another. Augustine states (QQ. 83, qu. 32), "Anyone who understands something differently than it actually is, doesn't understand it at all. This makes it clear that there is a perfect understanding, beyond which there isn't a more perfect one; therefore, there aren’t infinite levels of understanding a thing, and one person can't understand something better than another."

Obj. 2: Further, the intellect is true in its act of understanding. But truth, being a certain equality between thought and thing, is not subject to more or less; for a thing cannot be said to be more or less equal. Therefore a thing cannot be more or less understood.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the intellect is accurate in its understanding. However, truth, which is a certain equality between thought and reality, cannot be measured in degrees; a thing cannot be considered to be more or less equal. Therefore, a thing cannot be understood to a greater or lesser extent.

Obj. 3: Further, the intellect is the most formal of all that is in man. But different forms cause different species. Therefore if one man understands better than another, it would seem that they do not belong to the same species.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the intellect is the most distinct part of being human. However, different distinctions lead to different categories. Therefore, if one person understands things better than another, it would seem they do not belong to the same category.

On the contrary, Experience shows that some understand more profoundly than do others; as one who carries a conclusion to its first principles and ultimate causes understands it better than the one who reduces it only to its proximate causes.

On the contrary, Experience shows that some people understand more deeply than others; someone who traces a conclusion back to its fundamental principles and ultimate causes has a better understanding than someone who only looks at its immediate causes.

I answer that, A thing being understood more by one than by another may be taken in two senses. First, so that the word "more" be taken as determining the act of understanding as regards the thing understood; and thus, one cannot understand the same thing more than another, because to understand it otherwise than as it is, either better or worse, would entail being deceived, and such a one would not understand it, as Augustine argues (QQ. 83, qu. 32). In another sense the word "more" can be taken as determining the act of understanding on the part of him who understands; and so one may understand the same thing better than someone else, through having a greater power of understanding: just as a man may see a thing better with his bodily sight, whose power is greater, and whose sight is more perfect. The same applies to the intellect in two ways. First, as regards the intellect itself, which is more perfect. For it is plain that the better the disposition of a body, the better the soul allotted to it; which clearly appears in things of different species: and the reason thereof is that act and form are received into matter according to matter's capacity: thus because some men have bodies of better disposition, their souls have a greater power of understanding, wherefore it is said (De Anima ii, 9), that "it is to be observed that those who have soft flesh are of apt mind." Secondly, this occurs in regard to the lower powers of which the intellect has need in its operation: for those in whom the imaginative, cogitative, and memorative powers are of better disposition, are better disposed to understand.

I answer that, understanding something can vary between individuals in two ways. First, if we interpret "more" as referring to the act of understanding the thing itself; in this case, one cannot understand the same thing more than another because understanding it differently, whether better or worse, would mean being misled, which means one wouldn't truly understand, as Augustine points out (QQ. 83, qu. 32). Alternatively, "more" can refer to the individual's capacity to understand; thus, one person can grasp the same idea better than another due to having a greater capacity for understanding, just like a person may see something better if their eyesight is stronger and clearer. This idea applies to intellectual capacity in two ways. First, it relates to the intellect itself being more developed. It's evident that the better the physical condition of a body, the more capable the soul assigned to it; this is noticeable in different species. This is because actions and forms are received in matter according to its capacity: therefore, since some individuals have better physical forms, their minds have greater understanding abilities, which is why it is noted (De Anima ii, 9) that "it is to be observed that those who have soft flesh are of apt mind." Second, it relates to the lower mental faculties that the intellect relies on during its function: those with better-developed imaginative, cognitive, and memory skills are more prepared to understand.

The reply to the First Objection is clear from the above; likewise the reply to the Second, for the truth of the intellect consists in the intellect understanding a thing as it is.

The response to the First Objection is clear from the above; similarly, the response to the Second is also evident, since the truth of the intellect lies in its understanding of a thing as it really is.

Reply Obj. 3: The difference of form which is due only to the different disposition of matter, causes not a specific but only a numerical difference: for different individuals have different forms, diversified according to the difference of matter. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The difference in form that comes solely from the different arrangement of matter leads to not a specific but just a numerical difference: different individuals have different forms, varied according to the difference in matter.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 85, Art. 8]

Whether the Intellect Understands the Indivisible Before the
Divisible?

Whether the Mind Comprehends the Indivisible Before the
Divisible?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellect understands the indivisible before the divisible. For the Philosopher says (Phys. i, 1) that "we understand and know from the knowledge of principles and elements." But principles are indivisible, and elements are of divisible things. Therefore the indivisible is known to us before the divisible.

Objection 1: It seems that the mind understands the indivisible before the divisible. The Philosopher says (Phys. i, 1) that "we understand and know from the knowledge of principles and elements." But principles are indivisible, while elements are parts of divisible things. Therefore, we know the indivisible before the divisible.

Obj. 2: Further, the definition of a thing contains what is known previously, for a definition "proceeds from the first and more known," as is said Topic. vi, 4. But the indivisible is part of the definition of the divisible; as a point comes into the definition of a line; for as Euclid says, "a line is length without breadth, the extremities of which are points"; also unity comes into the definition of number, for "number is multitude measured by one," as is said Metaph. x, Did. ix, 6. Therefore our intellect understands the indivisible before the divisible.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the definition of a thing includes what is already known, because a definition "starts from what is primary and better known," as stated in Topic. vi, 4. However, the indivisible is part of the definition of the divisible; just like a point is included in the definition of a line; for as Euclid says, "a line is length without width, the ends of which are points"; similarly, unity is part of the definition of number, because "number is multitude measured by one," as mentioned in Metaph. x, Did. ix, 6. Therefore, our intellect understands the indivisible before the divisible.

Obj. 3: Further, "Like is known by like." But the indivisible is more like to the intellect than is the divisible; because "the intellect is simple" (De Anima iii, 4). Therefore our intellect first knows the indivisible.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, "Like is recognized by like." However, the indivisible is more similar to the intellect than the divisible is; because "the intellect is simple" (De Anima iii, 4). Therefore, our intellect first understands the indivisible.

On the contrary, It is said (De Anima iii, 6) that "the indivisible is expressed as a privation." But privation is known secondarily. Therefore likewise is the indivisible.

On the contrary, It is said (De Anima iii, 6) that "the indivisible is described as a lack." But lack is understood in a secondary way. Therefore, the same goes for the indivisible.

I answer that, The object of our intellect in its present state is the quiddity of a material thing, which it abstracts from the phantasms, as above stated (Q. 84, A. 7). And since that which is known first and of itself by our cognitive power is its proper object, we must consider its relationship to that quiddity in order to discover in what order the indivisible is known. Now the indivisible is threefold, as is said De Anima iii, 6. First, the continuous is indivisible, since actually it is undivided, although potentially divisible: and this indivisible is known to us before its division, which is a division into parts: because confused knowledge is prior to distinct knowledge, as we have said above (A. 3). Secondly, the indivisible is so called in relation to species, as man's reason is something indivisible. This way, also, the indivisible is understood before its division into logical parts, as we have said above (De Anima iii, 6); and again before the intellect disposes and divides by affirmation and negation. The reason of this is that both these kinds of indivisible are understood by the intellect of itself, as being its proper object. The third kind of indivisible is what is altogether indivisible, as a point and unity, which cannot be divided either actually or potentially. And this indivisible is known secondarily, through the privation of divisibility. Wherefore a point is defined by way of privation "as that which has no parts"; and in like manner the notion of "one" is that is "indivisible," as stated in Metaph. x, Did. ix, 1. And the reason of this is that this indivisible has a certain opposition to a corporeal being, the quiddity of which is the primary and proper object of the intellect.

I answer that, The focus of our intellect in its current state is the essence of a material thing, which it separates from the images, as mentioned earlier (Q. 84, A. 7). And since what is known first and inherently by our understanding is its proper object, we need to explore its relationship to that essence in order to determine how the indivisible is recognized. Now, the indivisible has three types, as noted in De Anima iii, 6. First, the continuous is indivisible because it is actually undivided, even though it can be potentially divided: this indivisible is understood by us before it is divided into parts; confused knowledge comes before clear knowledge, as we discussed earlier (A. 3). Second, the indivisible relates to species, as human reason is something indivisible. In this sense, the indivisible is comprehended before it is divided into logical parts, as we stated above (De Anima iii, 6); and also before the mind organizes and divides through affirmations and negations. The reason for this is that both of these kinds of indivisible are understood by the intellect on its own, as being its proper object. The third kind of indivisible is what cannot be divided at all, such as a point and unity, which cannot be divided either actually or potentially. This indivisible is understood secondarily, through the absence of divisibility. Thus, a point is defined by absence "as that which has no parts"; similarly, the idea of "one" is understood as "indivisible," as stated in Metaph. x, Did. ix, 1. The reason for this is that this indivisible stands in opposition to a physical being, the essence of which is the primary and proper object of the intellect.

But if our intellect understood by participation of certain separate indivisible (forms), as the Platonists maintained, it would follow that a like indivisible is understood primarily; for according to the Platonists what is first is first participated by things.

But if our intellect understood through the participation of certain separate indivisible forms, as the Platonists argued, it would mean that a similar indivisible is understood primarily; because, according to the Platonists, what is first is first participated in by things.

Reply Obj. 1: In the acquisition of knowledge, principles and elements are not always (known) first: for sometimes from sensible effects we arrive at the knowledge of principles and intelligible causes. But in perfect knowledge, the knowledge of effects always depends on the knowledge of principles and elements: for as the Philosopher says in the same passage: "Then do we consider that we know, when we can resolve principles into their causes."

Reply Obj. 1: When it comes to gaining knowledge, we don’t always start with principles and elements; sometimes we learn about principles and causes through observable effects. However, in complete understanding, knowing the effects relies on knowing the principles and elements first. As the Philosopher states in the same section: "We know we truly understand when we can break down principles into their causes."

Reply Obj. 2: A point is not included in the definition of a line in general: for it is manifest that in a line of indefinite length, and in a circular line, there is no point, save potentially. Euclid defines a finite straight line: and therefore he mentions a point in the definition, as the limit in the definition of that which is limited. Unity is the measure of number: wherefore it is included in the definition of a measured number. But it is not included in the definition of the divisible, but rather conversely.

Reply Obj. 2: A point isn't included in the general definition of a line: it's clear that in a line of infinite length, and in a circular line, there is no actual point, only a potential one. Euclid defines a finite straight line, and that's why he mentions a point in the definition, as the endpoint in the definition of something that is limited. Unity is the measure of numbers; that's why it's included in the definition of a measured number. However, it’s not included in the definition of the divisible; rather, it's the other way around.

Reply Obj. 3: The likeness through which we understand is the species of the known in the knower; therefore a thing is known first, not on account of its natural likeness to the cognitive power, but on account of the power's aptitude for the object: otherwise sight would perceive hearing rather than color. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The image we use to understand something is the representation of the known in the one who knows; therefore, a thing is understood first, not because of its natural resemblance to the ability to know, but because of the ability's suitability for the object: otherwise, sight would perceive sound instead of color.

QUESTION 86

WHAT OUR INTELLECT KNOWS IN MATERIAL THINGS
(In Four Articles)

WHAT OUR INTELLECT KNOWS ABOUT MATERIAL THINGS
(In Four Articles)

We now have to consider what our intellect knows in material things.
Under this head there are four points of inquiry:

We now need to think about what our minds understand in physical matters.
In this regard, there are four areas we should explore:

(1) Whether it knows singulars?

Does it know singulars?

(2) Whether it knows the infinite?

(2) Does it understand the infinite?

(3) Whether it knows contingent things?

(3) Does it understand things that are uncertain?

(4) Whether it knows future things? _______________________

(4) Does it know about future events? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 86, Art. 4]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 86, Art. 4]

Whether Our Intellect Knows Singulars?

Does our intellect understand specifics?

Objection 1: It would seem that our intellect knows singulars. For whoever knows composition, knows the terms of composition. But our intellect knows this composition; "Socrates is a man": for it belongs to the intellect to form a proposition. Therefore our intellect knows this singular, Socrates.

Objection 1: It seems that our intellect understands individual things. For anyone who understands composition knows the components of that composition. But our intellect does understand this composition; "Socrates is a man": because it's the role of the intellect to create a proposition. Therefore, our intellect knows this individual, Socrates.

Obj. 2: Further, the practical intellect directs to action. But action has relation to singular things. Therefore the intellect knows the singular.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the practical intellect guides us toward action. However, action is connected to specific things. Therefore, the intellect understands the specific.

Obj. 3: Further, our intellect understands itself. But in itself it is a singular, otherwise it would have no action of its own; for actions belong to singulars. Therefore our intellect knows singulars.

Obj. 3: Additionally, our intellect is aware of itself. However, by nature, it is singular; otherwise, it wouldn't have its own actions, since actions belong to singulars. Therefore, our intellect understands singulars.

Obj. 4: Further, a superior power can do whatever is done by an inferior power. But sense knows the singular. Much more, therefore, can the intellect know it.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, a higher power can do anything an inferior power can do. However, the senses only perceive the individual. Therefore, the intellect can understand it to an even greater extent.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Phys. i, 5), that "the universal is known by reason; and the singular is known by sense."

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (Phys. i, 5), that "we understand the universal through reason; and we perceive the singular through our senses."

I answer that, Our intellect cannot know the singular in material things directly and primarily. The reason of this is that the principle of singularity in material things is individual matter, whereas our intellect, as have said above (Q. 85, A. 1), understands by abstracting the intelligible species from such matter. Now what is abstracted from individual matter is the universal. Hence our intellect knows directly the universal only. But indirectly, and as it were by a kind of reflection, it can know the singular, because, as we have said above (Q. 85, A. 7), even after abstracting the intelligible species, the intellect, in order to understand, needs to turn to the phantasms in which it understands the species, as is said De Anima iii, 7. Therefore it understands the universal directly through the intelligible species, and indirectly the singular represented by the phantasm. And thus it forms the proposition "Socrates is a man." Wherefore the reply to the first objection is clear.

I respond that, Our intellect cannot directly and primarily know the individual in material things. The reason for this is that the principle of individuality in material objects is individual matter, while our intellect, as mentioned earlier (Q. 85, A. 1), understands by abstracting the intelligible form from that matter. What is abstracted from individual matter is the universal. Therefore, our intellect directly knows only the universal. However, it can indirectly know the individual, as if by a sort of reflection, because, as noted earlier (Q. 85, A. 7), even after abstracting the intelligible form, the intellect needs to refer back to the mental images in which it understands the form, as stated in De Anima iii, 7. Thus, it comprehends the universal directly through the intelligible form and the individual represented by the mental image indirectly. Consequently, it constructs the proposition "Socrates is a man." Hence, the response to the first objection is evident.

Reply Obj. 2: The choice of a particular thing to be done is as the conclusion of a syllogism formed by the practical intellect, as is said Ethic. vii, 3. But a singular proposition cannot be directly concluded from a universal proposition, except through the medium of a singular proposition. Therefore the universal principle of the practical intellect does not move save through the medium of the particular apprehension of the sensitive part, as is said De Anima iii, 11.

Reply Obj. 2: The decision to do something specific is like the conclusion of a logical argument made by the practical mind, as mentioned in Ethic. vii, 3. However, you can't directly derive a specific statement from a general one without going through a specific statement first. So, the general principle of the practical mind only acts through the specific understanding of the sensory part, as discussed in De Anima iii, 11.

Reply Obj. 3: Intelligibility is incompatible with the singular not as such, but as material, for nothing can be understood otherwise than immaterially. Therefore if there be an immaterial singular such as the intellect, there is no reason why it should not be intelligible.

Reply Obj. 3: Understanding is not compatible with the singular as it is material, because nothing can be comprehended except in an immaterial way. Therefore, if there exists an immaterial singular like the intellect, there’s no reason it shouldn’t be understandable.

Reply Obj. 4: The higher power can do what the lower power can, but in a more eminent way. Wherefore what the sense knows materially and concretely, which is to know the singular directly, the intellect knows immaterially and in the abstract, which is to know the universal. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The higher power can perform the same actions as the lower power, but in a superior manner. Therefore, what the senses understand in a material and concrete way—knowing the specific directly—the intellect understands in an immaterial and abstract way—knowing the universal.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 86, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 86, Art. 2]

Whether Our Intellect Can Know the Infinite?

Whether Our Intellect Can Know the Infinite?

Objection 1: It would seem that our intellect can know the infinite. For God excels all infinite things. But our intellect can know God, as we have said above (Q. 12, A. 1). Much more, therefore, can our intellect know all other infinite things.

Objection 1: It seems that our intellect can understand the infinite. God surpasses all infinite things. Since our intellect can understand God, as we stated earlier (Q. 12, A. 1), it follows that our intellect can understand all other infinite things even more.

Obj. 2: Further, our intellect can naturally know genera and species. But there is an infinity of species in some genera, as in number, proportion, and figure. Therefore our intellect can know the infinite.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, our intellect can naturally understand types and categories. However, there are countless types within some categories, in terms of quantity, proportion, and shape. Therefore, our intellect can comprehend the infinite.

Obj. 3: Further, if one body can coexist with another in the same place, there is nothing to prevent an infinite number of bodies being in one place. But one intelligible species can exist with another in the same intellect, for many things can be habitually known at the same time. Therefore our intellect can have an habitual knowledge of an infinite number of things.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if one body can exist alongside another in the same location, then there’s nothing stopping an infinite number of bodies from being in one place. However, one understandable idea can coexist with another in the same mind, as many things can be known at the same time. Therefore, our mind can have an ongoing knowledge of an infinite number of things.

Obj. 4: Further, as the intellect is not a corporeal faculty, as we have said (Q. 76, A. 1), it appears to be an infinite power. But an infinite power has a capacity for an infinite object. Therefore our intellect can know the infinite.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, since the intellect is not a physical ability, as we mentioned (Q. 76, A. 1), it seems to possess an infinite power. An infinite power has the capacity for an infinite object. Therefore, our intellect can understand the infinite.

On the contrary, It is said (Phys. i, 4) that "the infinite, considered as such, is unknown."

On the contrary, It is said (Phys. i, 4) that "the infinite, viewed as it is, remains unknown."

I answer that, Since a faculty and its object are proportional to each other, the intellect must be related to the infinite, as is its object, which is the quiddity of a material thing. Now in material things the infinite does not exist actually, but only potentially, in the sense of one succeeding another, as is said Phys. iii, 6. Therefore infinity is potentially in our mind through its considering successively one thing after another: because never does our intellect understand so many things, that it cannot understand more.

I answer that, Since a faculty and its object are proportional to each other, the intellect must relate to the infinite, just as its object does, which is the essence of a material thing. In material things, the infinite doesn't actually exist, but only potentially, in the sense of one following another, as stated in Phys. iii, 6. Therefore, infinity is potentially in our mind as it considers one thing after another; our intellect never understands so many things that it cannot understand more.

On the other hand, our intellect cannot understand the infinite either actually or habitually. Not actually, for our intellect cannot know actually at the same time, except what it knows through one species. But the infinite is not represented by one species, for if it were it would be something whole and complete. Consequently it cannot be understood except by a successive consideration of one part after another, as is clear from its definition (Phys. iii, 6): for the infinite is that "from which, however much we may take, there always remains something to be taken." Thus the infinite could not be known actually, unless all its parts were counted: which is impossible.

On the other hand, our intellect can’t truly grasp the infinite, either in reality or habitually. Not in reality, because our intellect can only know one aspect at a time. But the infinite can’t be represented by just one aspect, because if it could, it would be a whole and complete thing. Therefore, it can only be understood by looking at one part after another, as explained in its definition (Phys. iii, 6): the infinite is something "from which, no matter how much we take, there always remains more to take." So, the infinite can’t be known in practice unless all its parts are counted, which is impossible.

For the same reason we cannot have habitual knowledge of the infinite: because in us habitual knowledge results from actual consideration: since by understanding we acquire knowledge, as is said Ethic. ii, 1. Wherefore it would not be possible for us to have a habit of an infinity of things distinctly known, unless we had already considered the entire infinity thereof, counting them according to the succession of our knowledge: which is impossible. And therefore neither actually nor habitually can our intellect know the infinite, but only potentially as explained above.

For the same reason, we can't have a habitual understanding of the infinite: because our habitual knowledge comes from actual consideration. We gain knowledge through understanding, as mentioned in Ethic. ii, 1. So, it wouldn’t be possible for us to have a habit of distinctly knowing an infinity of things unless we had already considered the entire infinity of them, organizing them by the sequence of our understanding—which is impossible. Therefore, our intellect cannot know the infinite, either actually or habitually, but only potentially, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 1: As we have said above (Q. 7, A. 1), God is called infinite, because He is a form unlimited by matter; whereas in material things, the term "infinite" is applied to that which is deprived of any formal term. And form being known in itself, whereas matter cannot be known without form, it follows that the material infinite is in itself unknowable. But the formal infinite, God, is of Himself known; but He is unknown to us by reason of our feeble intellect, which in its present state has a natural aptitude for material objects only. Therefore we cannot know God in our present life except through material effects. In the future life this defect of intellect will be removed by the state of glory, when we shall be able to see the Essence of God Himself, but without being able to comprehend Him.

Reply Obj. 1: As we mentioned earlier (Q. 7, A. 1), God is called infinite because He is a form that is not limited by matter; meanwhile, in material things, the term "infinite" refers to something that lacks any definitive form. Since form can be recognized on its own, but matter cannot be understood without form, it follows that the material infinite is ultimately unknowable. However, the formal infinite, which is God, is known in and of Himself; yet, He remains unknown to us due to our limited intellect, which currently is naturally inclined only toward material objects. Therefore, we can only know God in this life through material effects. In the afterlife, this limitation of intellect will be overcome by the state of glory, when we will be able to see God’s Essence directly, though we will not be able to fully comprehend Him.

Reply Obj. 2: The nature of our mind is to know species abstracted from phantasms; therefore it cannot know actually or habitually species of numbers or figures that are not in the imagination, except in a general way and in their universal principles; and this is to know them potentially and confusedly.

Reply Obj. 2: The nature of our mind is to understand concepts taken from images; therefore it cannot truly or consistently grasp concepts of numbers or shapes that are not in the imagination, except in a general sense and regarding their universal principles; and this is to know them in a potential and unclear way.

Reply Obj. 3: If two or more bodies were in the same place, there would be no need for them to occupy the place successively, in order for the things placed to be counted according to this succession of occupation. On the other hand, the intelligible species enter into our intellect successively; since many things cannot be actually understood at the same time: and therefore there must be a definite and not an infinite number of species in our intellect.

Reply Obj. 3: If two or more objects were in the same location, they wouldn't need to take turns occupying that space for us to count them based on that order of occupancy. On the flip side, the ideas we understand enter our minds one after the other since we can't truly comprehend multiple things at once. Therefore, there must be a specific, not an endless, number of ideas in our minds.

Reply Obj. 4: As our intellect is infinite in power, so does it know the infinite. For its power is indeed infinite inasmuch as it is not terminated by corporeal matter. Moreover it can know the universal, which is abstracted from individual matter, and which consequently is not limited to one individual, but, considered in itself, extends to an infinite number of individuals. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: As our intellect has unlimited power, it also understands the infinite. Its power is truly limitless because it isn't constrained by physical matter. Furthermore, it can grasp the universal, which is separated from individual matter, and thus isn't restricted to just one individual, but when considered on its own, relates to an infinite number of individuals.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 86, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 86, Art. 3]

Whether Our Intellect Can Know Contingent Things?

Whether Our Intellect Can Understand Contingent Things?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellect cannot know contingent things: because, as the Philosopher says (Ethic. vi, 6), the objects of understanding, wisdom and knowledge are not contingent, but necessary things.

Objection 1: It appears that the intellect cannot know contingent things because, as the Philosopher states (Ethic. vi, 6), the subjects of understanding, wisdom, and knowledge are not contingent, but necessary things.

Obj. 2: Further, as stated in Phys. iv, 12, "what sometimes is and sometimes is not, is measured by time." Now the intellect abstracts from time, and from other material conditions. Therefore, as it is proper to a contingent thing sometime to be and sometime not to be, it seems that contingent things are not known by the intellect.

Obj. 2: Additionally, as mentioned in Phys. iv, 12, "what sometimes exists and sometimes does not exist is measured by time." Now the intellect separates from time and other material conditions. Therefore, since it's characteristic of something contingent to exist at times and not exist at others, it appears that contingent things are not understood by the intellect.

On the contrary, All knowledge is in the intellect. But some sciences are of the contingent things, as the moral sciences, the objects of which are human actions subject to free-will; and again, the natural sciences in as far as they relate to things generated and corruptible. Therefore the intellect knows contingent things.

On the contrary, all knowledge resides in the intellect. However, some sciences deal with contingent matters, like the moral sciences, which focus on human actions that are influenced by free will; and also the natural sciences, as they pertain to things that are generated and subject to decay. Thus, the intellect understands contingent things.

I answer that, Contingent things can be considered in two ways; either as contingent, or as containing some element of necessity, since every contingent thing has in it something necessary: for example, that Socrates runs, is in itself contingent; but the relation of running to motion is necessary, for it is necessary that Socrates move if he runs. Now contingency arises from matter, for contingency is a potentiality to be or not to be, and potentiality belongs to matter; whereas necessity results from form, because whatever is consequent on form is of necessity in the subject. But matter is the individualizing principle: whereas the universal comes from the abstraction of the form from the particular matter. Moreover it was laid down above (A. 1) that the intellect of itself and directly has the universal for its object; while the object of sense is the singular, which in a certain way is the indirect object of the intellect, as we have said above (A. 1). Therefore the contingent, considered as such, is known directly by sense and indirectly by the intellect; while the universal and necessary principles of contingent things are known only by the intellect. Hence if we consider the objects of science in their universal principles, then all science is of necessary things. But if we consider the things themselves, thus some sciences are of necessary things, some of contingent things.

I respond that, contingent things can be viewed in two ways: either as contingent or as having some element of necessity, since every contingent thing contains something necessary. For instance, Socrates running is, in itself, contingent; but the connection between running and motion is necessary, because if Socrates runs, he must be moving. Contingency comes from matter, as contingency is a potentiality to exist or not exist, and potentiality is related to matter. On the other hand, necessity arises from form, because anything that follows from form is necessarily present in the subject. However, matter is the principle that individualizes; while the universal emerges from the abstraction of the form from specific matter. Additionally, it has been established earlier (A. 1) that the intellect, on its own, has the universal as its object, while the object of the senses is the singular, which is somewhat the indirect object of the intellect, as previously noted (A. 1). Therefore, the contingent, considered in this way, is known directly through the senses and indirectly through the intellect; while the universal and necessary principles of contingent things are only understood by the intellect. Thus, if we consider the objects of science in their universal principles, then all science pertains to necessary things. However, if we focus on the things themselves, some sciences deal with necessary things while others focus on contingent things.

From which the replies to the objections are clear. _______________________

From which the responses to the objections are clear.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 86, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 86, Art. 4]

Whether Our Intellect Can Know the Future?

Whether Our Intellect Can Know the Future?

Objection 1: It would seem that our intellect knows the future. For our intellect knows by means of intelligible species abstracted from the "here" and "now," and related indifferently to all time. But it can know the present. Therefore it can know the future.

Objection 1: It seems that our intellect knows the future. Our intellect understands through concepts that are separate from the "here" and "now," and that are relevant to all times equally. Since it can understand the present, it follows that it can also understand the future.

Obj. 2: Further, man, while his senses are in suspense, can know some future things, as in sleep, and in frenzy. But the intellect is freer and more vigorous when removed from sense. Therefore the intellect of its own nature can know the future.

Obj. 2: Additionally, when a person’s senses are on hold, they can gain insight into some future events, like during sleep or in a frenzy. However, the mind is more open and active when it's detached from the senses. So, the intellect can naturally understand the future.

Obj. 3: The intellectual knowledge of man is superior to any knowledge of brutes. But some animals know the future; thus crows by their frequent cawing foretell rain. Therefore much more can the intellect know the future.

Obj. 3: Human intellectual knowledge is greater than any knowledge that animals possess. However, some animals can predict the future; for example, crows often caw to indicate that rain is coming. Therefore, humans can understand the future to an even greater extent.

On the contrary, It is written (Eccles. 8:6, 7), "There is a great affliction for man, because he is ignorant of things past; and things to come he cannot know by any messenger."

On the contrary, It is written (Eccles. 8:6, 7), "There is a great suffering for people because they are unaware of what has happened before, and they can't know what is coming from any messenger."

I answer that, We must apply the same distinction to future things, as we applied above (A. 3) to contingent things. For future things considered as subject to time are singular, and the human intellect knows them by reflection only, as stated above (A. 1). But the principles of future things may be universal; and thus they may enter the domain of the intellect and become the objects of science.

I respond that, We need to use the same distinction for future events as we did earlier (A. 3) for contingent events. Future events, when viewed in relation to time, are unique, and our human understanding knows them only through reflection, as mentioned before (A. 1). However, the principles governing future events can be universal, allowing them to be understood by the intellect and become subjects of study.

Speaking, however, of the knowledge of the future in a general way, we must observe that the future may be known in two ways: either in itself, or in its cause. The future cannot be known in itself save by God alone; to Whom even that is present which in the course of events is future, forasmuch as from eternity His glance embraces the whole course of time, as we have said above when treating of God's knowledge (Q. 14, A. 13). But forasmuch as it exists in its cause, the future can be known by us also. And if, indeed, the cause be such as to have a necessary connection with its future result, then the future is known with scientific certitude, just as the astronomer foresees the future eclipse. If, however, the cause be such as to produce a certain result more frequently than not, then can the future be known more or less conjecturally, according as its cause is more or less inclined to produce the effect.

Speaking about the knowledge of the future in general, we should note that the future can be known in two ways: either by itself or by its cause. The future cannot be known by itself except by God alone; to Him, even what is future in the unfolding of events is present, since He sees the entire span of time from eternity, as we mentioned earlier when discussing God's knowledge (Q. 14, A. 13). However, since it exists through its cause, we can also know the future. If the cause has a necessary connection to its future outcome, then we can know the future with scientific certainty, just like an astronomer predicts a future eclipse. If the cause tends to produce a certain result more often than not, then we can know the future somewhat conjecturally, depending on how strongly the cause tends to produce the effect.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument considers that knowledge which is drawn from universal causal principles; from these the future may be known, according to the order of the effects to the cause.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument takes into account knowledge that is based on universal causal principles; from these, the future can be predicted according to the sequence of effects resulting from their causes.

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine says (Confess. xii [*Gen. ad lit. xii. 13]), the soul has a certain power of forecasting, so that by its very nature it can know the future; hence when withdrawn from corporeal sense, and, as it were, concentrated on itself, it shares in the knowledge of the future. Such an opinion would be reasonable if we were to admit that the soul receives knowledge by participating the ideas as the Platonists maintained, because in that case the soul by its nature would know the universal causes of all effects, and would only be impeded in its knowledge by the body, and hence when withdrawn from the corporeal senses it would know the future.

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine states (Confess. xii [*Gen. ad lit. xii. 13]), the soul has a unique ability to predict, which allows it to genuinely know the future by its very nature. Therefore, when it's detached from physical senses and focused inwardly, it can access knowledge about what is to come. This idea would make sense if we accepted that the soul gains knowledge by engaging with ideas, as the Platonists argued. In that case, the soul, by its nature, would understand the universal causes behind all effects and would be limited in its understanding only by the body. Consequently, when it steps away from physical senses, it would be able to know the future.

But since it is connatural to our intellect to know things, not thus, but by receiving its knowledge from the senses; it is not natural for the soul to know the future when withdrawn from the senses: rather does it know the future by the impression of superior spiritual and corporeal causes; of spiritual causes, when by Divine power the human intellect is enlightened through the ministry of angels, and the phantasms are directed to the knowledge of future events; or, by the influence of demons, when the imagination is moved regarding the future known to the demons, as explained above (Q. 57, A. 3). The soul is naturally more inclined to receive these impressions of spiritual causes when it is withdrawn from the senses, as it is then nearer to the spiritual world, and freer from external distractions. The same may also come from superior corporeal causes. For it is clear that superior bodies influence inferior bodies. Hence, in consequence of the sensitive faculties being acts of corporeal organs, the influence of the heavenly bodies causes the imagination to be affected, and so, as the heavenly bodies cause many future events, the imagination receives certain images of some such events. These images are perceived more at night and while we sleep than in the daytime and while we are awake, because, as stated in De Somn. et Vigil. ii [*De Divinat. per somn. ii], "impressions made by day are evanescent. The night air is calmer, when silence reigns, hence bodily impressions are made in sleep, when slight internal movements are felt more than in wakefulness, and such movements produce in the imagination images from which the future may be foreseen."

But since it’s natural for our intellect to understand things, not just that way, but by receiving knowledge through our senses; it’s not natural for the soul to know the future when it's disconnected from the senses: instead, it knows the future through the influence of higher spiritual and physical causes; through spiritual causes, when, by Divine power, the human intellect is enlightened with the help of angels, and the mental images are directed toward understanding future events; or through the influence of demons, when the imagination is stirred regarding the future already known to them, as explained above (Q. 57, A. 3). The soul is naturally more open to receiving these influences from spiritual causes when it is detached from the senses, as it is then closer to the spiritual realm and free from outside distractions. The same can also happen from higher physical causes. It is evident that higher bodies affect lower ones. Thus, since the sensitive faculties are functions of physical organs, the influence of celestial bodies affects the imagination. And so, as these celestial bodies trigger many future events, the imagination receives specific images of some such events. These images are more easily noticed at night and during sleep than in the daytime and while we are awake, because, as mentioned in De Somn. et Vigil. ii [*De Divinat. per somn. ii], "impressions made by day are fleeting. The night air is calmer, with silence prevailing, therefore bodily impressions are made during sleep, when minor internal movements are felt more than when awake, and such movements create images in the imagination from which the future can be anticipated."

Reply Obj. 3: Brute animals have no power above the imagination wherewith to regulate it, as man has his reason, and therefore their imagination follows entirely the influence of the heavenly bodies. Thus from such animals' movements some future things, such as rain and the like, may be known rather than from human movements directed by reason. Hence the Philosopher says (De Somn. et Vig.), that "some who are most imprudent are most far-seeing; for their intelligence is not burdened with cares, but is as it were barren and bare of all anxiety moving at the caprice of whatever is brought to bear on it." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Animals don’t have the ability to control their imagination like humans do with reason, so their imagination is completely influenced by the heavenly bodies. Therefore, we can predict some future events, like rain, based on the movements of these animals rather than human actions that are guided by reason. This is why the Philosopher states (De Somn. et Vig.) that "some who are the most reckless are the most perceptive; their minds are not weighed down by worries and are, in a sense, free and untroubled, reacting only to whatever comes their way."

QUESTION 87

HOW THE INTELLECTUAL SOUL KNOWS ITSELF AND ALL WITHIN ITSELF
(In Four Articles)

HOW THE INTELLECTUAL SOUL KNOWS ITSELF AND ALL WITHIN ITSELF
(In Four Articles)

We have now to consider how the intellectual soul knows itself and all within itself. Under this head there are four points of inquiry:

We need to think about how the intellectual soul understands itself and everything within it. There are four key questions to explore regarding this:

(1) Whether the soul knows itself by its own essence?

(1) Does the soul understand itself by its own nature?

(2) Whether it knows its own habits?

(2) Does it know its own habits?

(3) How does the intellect know its own act?

(3) How does the mind recognize its own action?

(4) How does it know the act of the will? _______________________

(4) How does it know what the will chooses? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 87, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 87, Art. 1]

Whether the Intellectual Soul Knows Itself by Its Essence?

Whether the Intellectual Soul Recognizes Itself by Its Essence?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellectual soul knows itself by its own essence. For Augustine says (De Trin. ix, 3), that "the mind knows itself, because it is incorporeal."

Objection 1: It seems that the intellectual soul understands itself through its own essence. For Augustine states (De Trin. ix, 3), that "the mind knows itself because it is non-physical."

Obj. 2: Further, both angels and human souls belong to the genus of intellectual substance. But an angel understands itself by its own essence. Therefore likewise does the human soul.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, both angels and human souls are part of the category of intellectual substances. An angel understands itself through its own essence. The same is true for the human soul.

Obj. 3: Further, "in things void of matter, the intellect and that which is understood are the same" (De Anima iii, 4). But the human mind is void of matter, not being the act of a body as stated above (Q. 76, A. 1). Therefore the intellect and its object are the same in the human mind; and therefore the human mind understands itself by its own essence.

Obj. 3: Moreover, "in things that lack substance, the mind and what is understood are the same" (De Anima iii, 4). However, the human mind is immaterial, not being a function of the body as mentioned earlier (Q. 76, A. 1). Thus, the intellect and its object are identical in the human mind; therefore, the human mind comprehends itself through its own essence.

On the contrary, It is said (De Anima iii, 4) that "the intellect understands itself in the same way as it understands other things." But it understands other things, not by their essence, but by their similitudes. Therefore it does not understand itself by its own essence.

On the contrary, It is said (De Anima iii, 4) that "the intellect understands itself the same way it understands other things." But it understands other things, not by their essence, but by their similarities. Therefore, it does not understand itself by its own essence.

I answer that, Everything is knowable so far as it is in act, and not, so far as it is in potentiality (Metaph. ix, Did. viii, 9): for a thing is a being, and is true, and therefore knowable, according as it is actual. This is quite clear as regards sensible things, for the eye does not see what is potentially, but what is actually colored. In like manner it is clear that the intellect, so far as it knows material things, does not know save what is in act: and hence it does not know primary matter except as proportionate to form, as is stated Phys. i, 7. Consequently immaterial substances are intelligible by their own essence according as each one is actual by its own essence.

I answer that, Everything is knowable as long as it exists in a state of being, not when it's just a possibility (Metaph. ix, Did. viii, 9): because something exists, is true, and therefore can be known, based on its actual state. This is clear when it comes to physical things, as the eye can only see what is actually colored, not what is merely potentially so. Similarly, the intellect, in knowing material things, can only know what is in an actual state: therefore, it cannot grasp primary matter except in relation to its form, as stated in Phys. i, 7. Thus, immaterial substances can be understood through their essence based on each one being actual in its essence.

Therefore it is that the Essence of God, the pure and perfect act, is simply and perfectly in itself intelligible; and hence God by His own Essence knows Himself, and all other things also. The angelic essence belongs, indeed, to the genus of intelligible things as act, but not as a pure act, nor as a complete act, and hence the angel's act of intelligence is not completed by his essence. For although an angel understands himself by his own essence, still he cannot understand all other things by his own essence; for he knows things other than himself by their likenesses. Now the human intellect is only a potentiality in the genus of intelligible beings, just as primary matter is a potentiality as regards sensible beings; and hence it is called "possible" [*Possibilis—elsewhere in this translation rendered "passive"—Ed.]. Therefore in its essence the human mind is potentially understanding. Hence it has in itself the power to understand, but not to be understood, except as it is made actual. For even the Platonists asserted that an order of intelligible beings existed above the order of intellects, forasmuch as the intellect understands only by participation of the intelligible; for they said that the participator is below what it participates. If, therefore, the human intellect, as the Platonists held, became actual by participating separate intelligible forms, it would understand itself by such participation of incorporeal beings. But as in this life our intellect has material and sensible things for its proper natural object, as stated above (Q. 84, A. 7), it understands itself according as it is made actual by the species abstracted from sensible things, through the light of the active intellect, which not only actuates the intelligible things themselves, but also, by their instrumentality, actuates the passive intellect. Therefore the intellect knows itself not by its essence, but by its act. This happens in two ways: In the first place, singularly, as when Socrates or Plato perceives that he has an intellectual soul because he perceives that he understands. In the second place, universally, as when we consider the nature of the human mind from knowledge of the intellectual act. It is true, however, that the judgment and force of this knowledge, whereby we know the nature of the soul, comes to us according to the derivation of our intellectual light from the Divine Truth which contains the types of all things as above stated (Q. 84, A. 5). Hence Augustine says (De Trin. ix, 6): "We gaze on the inviolable truth whence we can as perfectly as possible define, not what each man's mind is, but what it ought to be in the light of the eternal types." There is, however, a difference between these two kinds of knowledge, and it consists in this, that the mere presence of the mind suffices for the first; the mind itself being the principle of action whereby it perceives itself, and hence it is said to know itself by its own presence. But as regards the second kind of knowledge, the mere presence of the mind does not suffice, and there is further required a careful and subtle inquiry. Hence many are ignorant of the soul's nature, and many have erred about it. So Augustine says (De Trin. x, 9), concerning such mental inquiry: "Let the mind strive not to see itself as if it were absent, but to discern itself as present"—i.e. to know how it differs from other things; which is to know its essence and nature.

Therefore, the essence of God, which is pure and perfect, is completely intelligible in itself. This means that God, through His own essence, knows Himself and everything else. The essence of angels is part of the category of intelligible things as an act, but not as a pure act or a complete act, meaning that an angel's understanding isn’t fully defined by its essence. While an angel understands itself through its essence, it cannot fully comprehend other things solely through that essence; it understands external things by their similarities. The human intellect, on the other hand, is merely a potentiality within the group of intelligible beings, similar to how primary matter is a potentiality relating to sensible beings, and that’s why it’s referred to as "possible" [*Possibilis—elsewhere in this translation rendered "passive"—Ed.]. Thus, in its essence, the human mind has the potential for understanding. It has the capability to understand but cannot be fully understood until it becomes actualized. Even the Platonists believed that there is a hierarchy of intelligible beings above the level of intellects, since intellects understand only through participation in the intelligible; they claimed that the participator is below what it participates in. Therefore, if, as the Platonists suggested, the human intellect becomes actual through participating in separate intelligible forms, it would know itself through that participation with incorporeal beings. However, since our intellect is focused on material and sensible things in this life, it understands itself as it becomes actualized through the concepts abstracted from those sensory things, with the help of the active intellect, which not only activates the intelligible things but also, through them, activates the passive intellect. Consequently, the intellect understands itself not through its essence, but through its act. This occurs in two ways: first, individually, when someone like Socrates or Plato realizes they have an intellectual soul because they recognize that they understand; and second, universally, when we analyze the nature of the human mind based on our understanding of the intellectual act. However, it’s important to note that the validity and strength of this knowledge, through which we comprehend the nature of the soul, comes to us because our intellectual light derives from the Divine Truth, which contains the archetypes of all things as previously mentioned (Q. 84, A. 5). Augustine remarks (De Trin. ix, 6): "We look upon the unblemished truth from which we can define, as clearly as possible, not what each person's mind is, but what it ought to be in light of the eternal types." There is, however, a distinction between these two types of knowledge: the first type only requires the presence of the mind, which acts as the principle through which it perceives itself; thus, it is said to know itself through its own presence. In contrast, the second type of knowledge demands more than just the mind's presence; it requires careful and thorough inquiry. Consequently, many people are unaware of the nature of the soul, and many have been mistaken about it. Augustine also states (De Trin. x, 9) about this mental inquiry: "Let the mind strive not to see itself as if it were absent, but to discern itself as present"—which means to understand how it differs from other things; this is essential for knowing its essence and nature.

Reply Obj. 1: The mind knows itself by means of itself, because at length it acquires knowledge of itself, though led thereto by its own act: because it is itself that it knows, since it loves itself, as he says in the same passage. For a thing can be called self-evident in two ways, either because we can know it by nothing else except itself, as first principles are called self-evident; or because it is not accidentally knowable, as color is visible of itself, whereas substance is visible by its accident.

Reply Obj. 1: The mind understands itself through its own process, eventually gaining awareness of itself, even though it is guided by its own actions. It is the very nature of the mind to know itself, as it loves itself, as mentioned in the same passage. A thing can be considered self-evident in two ways: either because we can only know it through itself, like first principles that are called self-evident, or because it can be known directly, like color that is visible on its own, whereas substance is known through its properties.

Reply Obj. 2: The essence of an angel is an act in the genus of intelligible things, and therefore it is both intellect and the thing understood. Hence an angel apprehends his own essence through itself: not so the human mind, which is either altogether in potentiality to intelligible things—as is the passive intellect—or is the act of intelligible things abstracted from the phantasms—as is the active intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: The nature of an angel is an act of understanding, so it encompasses both intellect and the object of understanding. Therefore, an angel perceives its own essence directly. This is not the case for the human mind, which is either completely potential with respect to intelligible things—like the passive intellect—or is the active engagement with intelligible things separated from the mental images—like the active intellect.

Reply Obj. 3: This saying of the Philosopher is universally true in every kind of intellect. For as sense in act is the sensible in act, by reason of the sensible likeness which is the form of sense in act, so likewise the intellect in act is the object understood in act, by reason of the likeness of the thing understood, which is the form of the intellect in act. So the human intellect, which becomes actual by the species of the object understood, is itself understood by the same species as by its own form. Now to say that in "things without matter the intellect and what is understood are the same," is equal to saying that "as regards things actually understood the intellect and what is understood are the same." For a thing is actually understood in that it is immaterial. But a distinction must be drawn: since the essences of some things are immaterial—as the separate substances called angels, each of which is understood and understands, whereas there are other things whose essences are not wholly immaterial, but only the abstract likenesses thereof. Hence the Commentator says (De Anima iii) that the proposition quoted is true only of separate substances; because in a sense it is verified in their regard, and not in regard of other substances, as already stated (Reply Obj. 2). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: This statement by the Philosopher is universally true across all types of intellect. Just as sensing something in action involves the perception of that thing, due to the likeness that represents the form of sensing in action, the intellect in action is also about understanding something in an active way because of the likeness of what is understood, which represents the form of the intellect in action. Therefore, the human intellect becomes active through the essence of what is understood and understands itself through that same essence as its own form. To claim that in "immaterial things the intellect and what is understood are the same" means that "regarding things that are actually understood, the intellect and what is understood are identical." This is because something is actually understood when it is immaterial. However, a distinction needs to be made: some essences are immaterial—like the separate entities known as angels, each of which understands and is understood—while there are other things whose essences are not entirely immaterial but rather only their abstract representations. This is why the Commentator states (De Anima iii) that the quoted proposition is only true for separate substances; it holds true in their case and not in relation to other substances, as previously mentioned (Reply Obj. 2).

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 87, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 87, Art. 2]

Whether Our Intellect Knows the Habits of the Soul by Their Essence?

Whether our intellect understands the habits of the soul by their essence?

Objection 1: It would seem that our intellect knows the habits of the soul by their essence. For Augustine says (De Trin. xiii, 1): "Faith is not seen in the heart wherein it abides, as the soul of a man may be seen by another from the movement of the body; but we know most certainly that it is there, and conscience proclaims its existence"; and the same principle applies to the other habits of the soul. Therefore the habits of the soul are not known by their acts, but by themselves.

Objection 1: It seems that our intellect understands the traits of the soul by their essence. For Augustine states (De Trin. xiii, 1): "Faith isn't visible in the heart where it resides, just as a person's soul can be observed by another through the body's movements; yet we are certainly aware that it exists, and our conscience confirms its presence"; and the same idea applies to other traits of the soul. Therefore, the traits of the soul are known not through their actions, but by their very nature.

Obj. 2: Further, material things outside the soul are known by their likeness being present in the soul, and are said therefore to be known by their likenesses. But the soul's habits are present by their essence in the soul. Therefore the habits of the soul are known by their essence.

Obj. 2: Moreover, material things outside the soul are recognized by their likeness being present in the soul, and so they are said to be known by their likenesses. But the soul's habits are present by their essence in the soul. Therefore, the habits of the soul are known by their essence.

Obj. 3: Further, "whatever is the cause of a thing being such is still more so." But habits and intelligible species cause things to be known by the soul. Therefore they are still more known by the soul in themselves.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, "whatever causes something to be a certain way is even more so." However, habits and understandable concepts enable the soul to know things. Therefore, they are even more known by the soul in their own right.

On the contrary, Habits like powers are the principles of acts. But as is said (De Anima ii, 4), "acts and operations are logically prior to powers." Therefore in the same way they are prior to habits; and thus habits, like the powers, are known by their acts.

On the contrary, Habits, like powers, are the principles of actions. But as stated (De Anima ii, 4), "actions and operations come before powers in a logical sense." Therefore, in the same way, they come before habits; and so habits, like powers, are recognized by their actions.

I answer that, A habit is a kind of medium between mere power and mere act. Now, it has been said (A. 1) that nothing is known but as it is actual: therefore so far as a habit fails in being a perfect act, it falls short in being of itself knowable, and can be known only by its act; thus, for example, anyone knows he has a habit from the fact that he can produce the act proper to that habit; or he may inquire into the nature and idea of the habit by considering the act. The first kind of knowledge of the habit arises from its being present, for the very fact of its presence causes the act whereby it is known. The second kind of knowledge of the habit arises from a careful inquiry, as is explained above of the mind (A. 1).

I answer that, A habit is a kind of link between just having the ability and actually doing something. It has been pointed out (A. 1) that nothing is truly known unless it is actual: therefore, to the extent that a habit isn't a perfect act, it can’t be fully known on its own and can only be understood through its actions. For instance, someone knows they have a habit because they can perform the action associated with that habit; or they might explore the nature and concept of the habit by reflecting on the act. The first way of knowing the habit comes from it being present, since its presence generates the action that makes it known. The second way of understanding the habit comes from a thorough investigation, as explained above about the mind (A. 1).

Reply Obj. 1: Although faith is not known by external movement of the body, it is perceived by the subject wherein it resides, by the interior act of the heart. For no one knows that he has faith unless he knows that he believes.

Reply Obj. 1: While faith isn't recognized through physical actions, it is felt by the person who holds it, through the internal workings of the heart. No one truly knows they have faith unless they are aware that they believe.

Reply Obj. 2: Habits are present in our intellect, not as its object since, in the present state of life, our intellect's object is the nature of a material thing as stated above (Q. 84, A. 7), but as that by which it understands.

Reply Obj. 2: Habits exist in our intellect, not as its object, since, in our current state of life, the object of our intellect is the nature of a material thing as mentioned above (Q. 84, A. 7), but rather as what helps it to understand.

Reply Obj. 3: The axiom, "whatever is the cause of a thing being such, is still more so," is true of things that are of the same order, for instance, of the same kind of cause; for example, we may say that health is desirable on account of life, and therefore life is more desirable still. But if we take things of different orders the axiom is not true: for we may say that health is caused by medicine, but it does not follow that medicine is more desirable than health, for health belongs to the order of final causes, whereas medicine belongs to the order of efficient causes. So of two things belonging essentially to the order of the objects of knowledge, the one which is the cause of the other being known, is the more known, as principles are more known than conclusions. But habit as such does not belong to the order of objects of knowledge; nor are things known on account of the habit, as on account of an object known, but as on account of a disposition or form whereby the subject knows: and therefore the argument does not prove. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The saying, "whatever causes something to be as it is, is even more so," holds true for things that are of the same type, such as those with the same kind of cause. For example, we can say that health is desirable because of life, and therefore life is even more desirable. However, if we consider things from different types, the saying doesn't apply: for instance, we can say that health is caused by medicine, but it doesn't mean that medicine is more desirable than health, because health is related to final causes, while medicine is related to efficient causes. Among two things that are fundamentally part of the knowledge objects, the one that causes the other to be known is the more known—just like principles are more known than conclusions. Yet, habit itself isn't part of the knowledge objects, and things aren't known because of the habit, as they are about an object known, but rather because of a disposition or form through which the subject understands: and so the argument doesn't hold.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 87, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 87, Art. 3]

Whether Our Intellect Knows Its Own Act?

Whether Our Understanding Recognizes Its Own Actions?

Objection 1: It would seem that our intellect does not know its own act. For what is known is the object of the knowing faculty. But the act differs from the object. Therefore the intellect does not know its own act.

Objection 1: It seems that our intellect doesn’t know its own action. The object of knowledge is what is known. But the action is different from the object. Therefore, the intellect doesn’t know its own action.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is known is known by some act. If, then, the intellect knows its own act, it knows it by some act, and again it knows that act by some other act; this is to proceed indefinitely, which seems impossible.

Obj. 2: Additionally, everything that is known is known through some action. If the intellect understands its own action, it understands it through another action, and then it understands that action through yet another action; this leads to an endless loop, which seems impossible.

Obj. 3: Further, the intellect has the same relation to its act as sense has to its act. But the proper sense does not feel its own act, for this belongs to the common sense, as stated De Anima iii, 2. Therefore neither does the intellect understand its own act.

Obj. 3: Moreover, the intellect is related to its act in the same way that sense is to its act. However, the specific sense does not perceive its own act, as this is the role of the common sense, as stated in De Anima iii, 2. Therefore, the intellect also does not comprehend its own act.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. x, 11), "I understand that I understand."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. x, 11), "I know that I know."

I answer that, As stated above (AA. 1, 2) a thing is intelligible according as it is in act. Now the ultimate perfection of the intellect consists in its own operation: for this is not an act tending to something else in which lies the perfection of the work accomplished, as building is the perfection of the thing built; but it remains in the agent as its perfection and act, as is said Metaph. ix, Did. viii, 8. Therefore the first thing understood of the intellect is its own act of understanding. This occurs in different ways with different intellects. For there is an intellect, namely, the Divine, which is Its own act of intelligence, so that in God the understanding of His intelligence, and the understanding of His Essence, are one and the same act, because His Essence is His act of understanding. But there is another intellect, the angelic, which is not its own act of understanding, as we have said above (Q. 79, A. 1), and yet the first object of that act is the angelic essence. Wherefore although there is a logical distinction between the act whereby he understands that he understands, and that whereby he understands his essence, yet he understands both by one and the same act; because to understand his own essence is the proper perfection of his essence, and by one and the same act is a thing, together with its perfection, understood. And there is yet another, namely, the human intellect, which neither is its own act of understanding, nor is its own essence the first object of its act of understanding, for this object is the nature of a material thing. And therefore that which is first known by the human intellect is an object of this kind, and that which is known secondarily is the act by which that object is known; and through the act the intellect itself is known, the perfection of which is this act of understanding. For this reason did the Philosopher assert that objects are known before acts, and acts before powers (De Anima ii, 4).

I respond that, As mentioned earlier (AA. 1, 2), something is understandable based on its actual existence. The highest level of perfection for the intellect lies in its own function: this isn't an act aimed at something else, where perfection is found in the completed work, like building is for the structure built; instead, it exists within the agent as its perfection and action, as noted in Metaph. ix, Did. viii, 8. Thus, the first thing the intellect grasps is its own act of understanding. This varies among different intellects. For instance, the Divine intellect is its own act of intelligence, meaning that in God, understanding His intelligence and comprehending His Essence are the same action because His Essence is His act of understanding. On the other hand, the angelic intellect does not operate in the same way, as we discussed earlier (Q. 79, A. 1), yet its primary object is the angelic essence. While there is a logical distinction between the act of realizing one understands and the act of understanding one's essence, both are comprehended by a single act; understanding one's essence is the true perfection of that essence, and a thing, along with its perfection, is understood through that same act. Additionally, there's the human intellect, which is neither its own act of understanding nor does its own essence serve as the first object of understanding—rather, that object is found in the nature of a material thing. Therefore, the first thing known by the human intellect is an object of this kind, while the second involves the act through which that object is understood; through this act, the intellect itself is known, and its perfection lies in this act of understanding. For this reason, the Philosopher claimed that objects are known before acts, and acts before powers (De Anima ii, 4).

Reply Obj. 1: The object of the intellect is something universal, namely, being and the true, in which the act also of understanding is comprised. Wherefore the intellect can understand its own act. But not primarily, since the first object of our intellect, in this state of life, is not every being and everything true, but being and true, as considered in material things, as we have said above (Q. 84, A. 7), from which it acquires knowledge of all other things.

Reply Obj. 1: The focus of the intellect is something universal, specifically, being and the true, which includes the act of understanding. Thus, the intellect is able to grasp its own act. However, this understanding isn’t the primary focus, because the first thing our intellect engages with, in this life, isn’t every possible being or every truth, but rather being and true, as it relates to material things, as we mentioned earlier (Q. 84, A. 7), from which it gathers knowledge about everything else.

Reply Obj. 2: The intelligent act of the human intellect is not the act and perfection of the material nature understood, as if the nature of the material thing and intelligent act could be understood by one act; just as a thing and its perfection are understood by one act. Hence the act whereby the intellect understands a stone is distinct from the act whereby it understands that it understands a stone; and so on. Nor is there any difficulty in the intellect being thus potentially infinite, as explained above (Q. 86, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 2: The thoughtful action of the human mind isn’t the same as the understanding and perfection of material nature, as if both the nature of a material thing and the mental act could be grasped by a single action; similar to how a thing and its perfection are understood through one action. Thus, the action through which the mind comprehends a stone is different from the action through which it understands that it understands a stone, and so forth. There’s also no issue with the mind being potentially infinite in this way, as explained earlier (Q. 86, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 3: The proper sense feels by reason of the immutation in the material organ caused by the external sensible. A material object, however, cannot immute itself; but one is immuted by another, and therefore the act of the proper sense is perceived by the common sense. The intellect, on the contrary, does not perform the act of understanding by the material immutation of an organ; and so there is no comparison. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The proper sense engages due to the change in the material organ brought about by the external stimulus. However, a material object cannot change itself; instead, one object is changed by another, and that's why the action of the proper sense is recognized by the common sense. In contrast, the intellect doesn’t understand through the material alteration of an organ, so there’s no comparison.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 87, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 87, Art. 4]

Whether the Intellect Understands the Act of the Will?

Whether the Mind Understands the Action of the Will?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellect does not understand the act of the will. For nothing is known by the intellect, unless it be in some way present in the intellect. But the act of the will is not in the intellect; since the will and the intellect are distinct. Therefore the act of the will is not known by the intellect.

Objection 1: It seems that the intellect doesn't grasp the act of the will. The intellect only knows something if it’s somehow present within it. However, the act of the will isn’t inside the intellect, because the will and the intellect are separate. Therefore, the intellect doesn’t know the act of the will.

Obj. 2: Further, the act is specified by the object. But the object of the will is not the same as the object of the intellect. Therefore the act of the will is specifically distinct from the object of the intellect, and therefore the act of the will is not known by the intellect.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the action is defined by its object. However, the object of the will is not the same as the object of the intellect. So, the act of the will is specifically different from the object of the intellect, which means the act of the will is not understood by the intellect.

Obj. 3: Augustine (Confess. x, 17) says of the soul's affections that "they are known neither by images as bodies are known; nor by their presence, like the arts; but by certain notions." Now it does not seem that there can be in the soul any other notions of things but either the essences of things known or the likenesses thereof. Therefore it seems impossible for the intellect to known such affections of the soul as the acts of the will.

Obj. 3: Augustine (Confess. x, 17) says of the soul's feelings that "they are not understood through images as bodies are known; nor by their presence, like the arts; but by certain ideas." It seems that there can’t be any other ideas of things in the soul except for either the essences of known things or their likenesses. Therefore, it appears impossible for the intellect to know such feelings of the soul as the actions of the will.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. x, 11), "I understand that I will."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. x, 11), "I get that I will."

I answer that, As stated above (Q. 59, A. 1), the act of the will is nothing but an inclination consequent on the form understood; just as the natural appetite is an inclination consequent on the natural form. Now the inclination of a thing resides in it according to its mode of existence; and hence the natural inclination resides in a natural thing naturally, and the inclination called the sensible appetite is in the sensible thing sensibly; and likewise the intelligible inclination, which is the act of the will, is in the intelligent subject intelligibly as in its principle and proper subject. Hence the Philosopher expresses himself thus (De Anima iii, 9)—that "the will is in the reason." Now whatever is intelligibly in an intelligent subject, is understood by that subject. Therefore the act of the will is understood by the intellect, both inasmuch as one knows that one wills; and inasmuch as one knows the nature of this act, and consequently, the nature of its principle which is the habit or power.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (Q. 59, A. 1), the action of the will is simply a tendency that follows from the understanding of a form; just as a natural desire follows from the natural form. The tendency of something exists within it according to how it exists; therefore, a natural tendency exists in a natural thing in a natural way, and the tendency referred to as the sensible appetite exists in a sensible thing in a sensible way; similarly, the intelligible tendency, which is the action of the will, exists in an intelligent subject in an intelligible way as its principle and proper subject. Thus, the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 9)—that "the will is in the reason." Now, whatever is intelligible to an intelligent subject is understood by that subject. Therefore, the action of the will is understood by the intellect, both insofar as one is aware of one’s own will and as one understands the nature of this action, and consequently, the nature of its principle, which is the habit or power.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument would hold good if the will and the intellect were in different subjects, as they are distinct powers; for then whatever was in the will would not be in the intellect. But as both are rooted in the same substance of the soul, and since one is in a certain way the principle of the other, consequently what is in the will is, in a certain way, also in the intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument would be valid if the will and the intellect were separate entities, as they are different faculties; because then whatever is in the will wouldn't be in the intellect. However, since both are grounded in the same essence of the soul, and since one is essentially the foundation of the other, what exists in the will is, in a certain sense, also present in the intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: The "good" and the "true" which are the objects of the will and of the intellect, differ logically, but one is contained in the other, as we have said above (Q. 82, A. 4, ad 1; Q. 16, A. 4, ad 1); for the true is good and the good is true. Therefore the objects of the will fall under the intellect, and those of the intellect can fall under the will.

Reply Obj. 2: The "good" and the "true," which are the targets of the will and the intellect, are logically different, but one is included in the other, as mentioned earlier (Q. 82, A. 4, ad 1; Q. 16, A. 4, ad 1); because the true is good and the good is true. So, the objects of the will are encompassed by the intellect, and the objects of the intellect can be encompassed by the will.

Reply Obj. 3: The affections of the soul are in the intellect not by similitude only, like bodies; nor by being present in their subject, as the arts; but as the thing caused is in its principle, which contains some notion of the thing caused. And so Augustine says that the soul's affections are in the memory by certain notions. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The feelings of the soul exist in the intellect not just by resemblance, like physical objects; nor by being present in their source, like the arts; but in the way that the effect exists within its cause, which holds some idea of the effect. This is why Augustine states that the soul's feelings are in the memory through certain concepts.

QUESTION 88

HOW THE HUMAN SOUL KNOWS WHAT IS ABOVE ITSELF
(In Three Articles)

HOW THE HUMAN SOUL KNOWS WHAT IS ABOVE ITSELF
(In Three Articles)

We must now consider how the human soul knows what is above itself, viz. immaterial substances. Under this head there are three points of inquiry:

We need to think about how the human soul understands what is beyond itself, namely, immaterial substances. There are three main points to investigate under this topic:

(1) Whether the human soul in the present state of life can understand the immaterial substances called angels, in themselves?

(1) Can the human soul, in its current state of existence, comprehend the immaterial beings known as angels, on their own?

(2) Whether it can arrive at the knowledge thereof by the knowledge of material things?

(2) Can it gain knowledge of that through the understanding of physical things?

(3) Whether God is the first object of our knowledge? _______________________

(3) Is God the first thing we know? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 88, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 88, Art. 1]

Whether the Human Soul in the Present State of Life Can Understand
Immaterial Substances in Themselves?

Whether the human soul in its current state of existence can comprehend
immaterial substances on their own?

Objection 1: It would seem that the human soul in the present state of life can understand immaterial substances in themselves. For Augustine (De Trin. ix, 3) says: "As the mind itself acquires the knowledge of corporeal things by means of the corporeal senses, so it gains from itself the knowledge of incorporeal things." But these are the immaterial substances. Therefore the human mind understands immaterial substances.

Objection 1: It seems that the human soul can understand immaterial substances in its current state of life. Augustine (De Trin. ix, 3) states, "Just as the mind gains knowledge of physical things through the physical senses, it also obtains knowledge of non-physical things from itself." These are the immaterial substances. Therefore, the human mind understands immaterial substances.

Obj. 2: Further, like is known by like. But the human mind is more akin to immaterial than to material things; since its own nature is immaterial, as is clear from what we have said above (Q. 76, A. 1). Since then our mind understands material things, much more is it able to understand immaterial things.

Obj. 2: Additionally, similar things are recognized by similar things. However, the human mind is more similar to immaterial things than to material ones; this is evident from what we've discussed earlier (Q. 76, A. 1). Since our mind comprehends material things, it can understand immaterial things even better.

Obj. 3: Further, the fact that objects which are in themselves most sensible are not most felt by us, comes from sense being corrupted by their very excellence. But the intellect is not subject to such a corrupting influence from its object, as is stated De Anima iii, 4. Therefore things which are in themselves in the highest degree of intelligibility, are likewise to us most intelligible. As material things, however, are intelligible only so far as we make them actually so by abstracting them from material conditions, it is clear that those substances are more intelligible in themselves whose nature is immaterial. Therefore they are much more known to us than are material things.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the reason that things which are inherently the most appealing are not the ones we feel most strongly stems from our senses being overwhelmed by their very excellence. However, the intellect is not affected by this corrupting influence from its objects, as mentioned in De Anima iii, 4. Therefore, things that are extremely understandable in themselves are also the most comprehensible to us. Since physical objects are only understandable to the extent that we can separate them from their physical conditions, it's clear that those substances whose nature is non-physical are inherently more understandable. Thus, they are known to us much better than physical things.

Obj. 4: Further, the Commentator says (Metaph. ii) that "nature would be frustrated in its end" were we unable to understand abstract substances, "because it would have made what in itself is naturally intelligible not to be understood at all." But in nature nothing is idle or purposeless. Therefore immaterial substances can be understood by us.

Obj. 4: Moreover, the Commentator states (Metaph. ii) that "nature would be frustrated in its purpose" if we couldn't comprehend abstract substances, "because it would have created something that is naturally intelligible to be completely misunderstood." But in nature, nothing is idle or without purpose. Therefore, we can understand immaterial substances.

Obj. 5: Further, as sense is to the sensible, so is intellect to the intelligible. But our sight can see all things corporeal, whether superior and incorruptible; or lower and corruptible. Therefore our intellect can understand all intelligible substances, even the superior and immaterial.

Obj. 5: Similarly, just as our senses relate to what can be perceived, our intellect relates to what can be understood. Our sight can perceive all physical things, whether they are higher and unchanging, or lower and changing. Therefore, our intellect can comprehend all things that can be understood, including the higher and non-physical.

On the contrary, It is written (Wis. 9:16): "The things that are in heaven, who shall search out?" But these substances are said to be in heaven, according to Matt. 18:10, "Their angels in heaven," etc. Therefore immaterial substances cannot be known by human investigation.

On the contrary, It is written (Wis. 9:16): "Who can explore the things that are in heaven?" But these substances are said to be in heaven, according to Matt. 18:10, "Their angels in heaven," etc. Therefore, immaterial substances cannot be understood through human investigation.

I answer that, In the opinion of Plato, immaterial substances are not only understood by us, but are the objects we understand first of all. For Plato taught that immaterial subsisting forms, which he called "Ideas," are the proper objects of our intellect, and thus first and per se understood by us; and, further, that material objects are known by the soul inasmuch as phantasy and sense are mixed up with the mind. Hence the purer the intellect is, so much the more clearly does it perceive the intelligible truth of immaterial things.

I answer that, According to Plato, non-physical substances are not only comprehensible to us, but they are actually what we understand first and foremost. Plato taught that the immaterial forms, which he referred to as "Ideas," are the true objects of our intellect, and therefore they are understood by us first and per se; additionally, material objects are known by the soul because imagination and perception are intertwined with the mind. Consequently, the purer the intellect is, the more clearly it grasps the intelligible truth of non-physical things.

But in Aristotle's opinion, which experience corroborates, our intellect in its present state of life has a natural relationship to the natures of material things; and therefore it can only understand by turning to the phantasms, as we have said above (Q. 84, A. 7). Thus it clearly appears that immaterial substances which do not fall under sense and imagination, cannot first and per se be known by us, according to the mode of knowledge which experience proves us to have.

But according to Aristotle, as experience supports, our intellect in its current state has a natural connection to the nature of physical things; therefore, it can only understand by referring to the mental images, as we mentioned earlier (Q. 84, A. 7). This shows that immaterial substances, which we can't perceive through our senses or imagination, cannot first and per se be known by us based on the way knowledge is evidenced by our experience.

Nevertheless Averroes (Comment. De Anima iii) teaches that in this present life man can in the end arrive at the knowledge of separate substances by being coupled or united to some separate substance, which he calls the "active intellect," and which, being a separate substance itself, can naturally understand separate substances. Hence, when it is perfectly united to us so that by its means we are able to understand perfectly, we also shall be able to understand separate substances, as in the present life through the medium of the passive intellect united to us, we can understand material things. Now he said that the active intellect is united to us, thus. For since we understand by means of both the active intellect and intelligible objects, as, for instance, we understand conclusions by principles understood; it is clear that the active intellect must be compared to the objects understood, either as the principal agent is to the instrument, or as form to matter. For an action is ascribed to two principles in one of these two ways; to a principal agent and to an instrument, as cutting to the workman and the saw; to a form and its subject, as heating to heat and fire. In both these ways the active intellect can be compared to the intelligible object as perfection is to the perfectible, and as act is to potentiality. Now a subject is made perfect and receives its perfection at one and the same time, as the reception of what is actually visible synchronizes with the reception of light in the eye. Therefore the passive intellect receives the intelligible object and the active intellect together; and the more numerous the intelligible objects received, so much the nearer do we come to the point of perfect union between ourselves and the active intellect; so much so that when we understand all the intelligible objects, the active intellect becomes one with us, and by its instrumentality we can understand all things material and immaterial. In this he makes the ultimate happiness of man to consist. Nor, as regards the present inquiry, does it matter whether the passive intellect in that state of happiness understands separate substances by the instrumentality of the active intellect, as he himself maintains, or whether (as he says Alexander holds) the passive intellect can never understand separate substances (because according to him it is corruptible), but man understands separate substances by means of the active intellect.

However, Averroes (Comment. De Anima iii) teaches that in this life, a person can eventually gain knowledge of separate substances by connecting or uniting with a separate substance he calls the "active intellect." This active intellect, being a separate substance itself, can naturally comprehend separate substances. Thus, when it is perfectly united with us, allowing us to understand things fully, we will also be able to grasp separate substances. Just as in this life we can understand material things through the passive intellect that is united with us. He explains that the active intellect connects with us in this way. Since we understand through both the active intellect and intelligible objects, like when we derive conclusions from principles we grasp, it’s clear that the active intellect relates to the understood objects either as the main agent relates to the tool, or as form relates to matter. An action is attributed to two principles in one of these two ways: to a principal agent and an instrument, as in cutting relates to the worker and the saw; or to a form and its subject, as heating relates to heat and fire. In both cases, the active intellect can be compared to the intelligible object as perfection to the thing that can be perfected, and as act to potentiality. A subject achieves perfection and receives that perfection at the same time, just like the ability to see something coincides with the reception of light in the eye. Therefore, the passive intellect receives both the intelligible object and the active intellect together; and the more intelligible objects we take in, the closer we get to a perfect union between ourselves and the active intellect, to the point that when we understand all intelligible objects, the active intellect becomes one with us, and through its mediation, we can understand all material and immaterial things. This, he suggests, constitutes the ultimate happiness of a person. Additionally, regarding this inquiry, it does not matter whether the passive intellect, in that state of happiness, understands separate substances through the mediation of the active intellect, as he argues, or whether (as he claims Alexander believes) the passive intellect can never understand separate substances (since, according to him, it is corruptible), but rather that a person understands separate substances through the active intellect.

This opinion, however, is untrue. First, because, supposing the active intellect to be a separate substance, we could not formally understand by its instrumentality, for the medium of an agent's formal action consists in its form and act, since every agent acts according to its actuality, as was said of the passive intellect (Q. 70, A. 1). Secondly, this opinion is untrue, because in the above explanation, the active intellect, supposing it to be a separate substance, would not be joined to us in its substance, but only in its light, as participated in things understood; and would not extend to the other acts of the active intellect so as to enable us to understand immaterial substances; just as when we see colors set off by the sun, we are not united to the substance of the sun so as to act like the sun, but its light only is united to us, that we may see the colors. Thirdly, this opinion is untrue, because granted that, as above explained, the active intellect were united to us in substance, still it is not said that it is wholly so united in regard to one intelligible object, or two; but rather in regard to all intelligible objects. But all such objects together do not equal the force of the active intellect, as it is a much greater thing to understand separate substances than to understand all material things. Hence it clearly follows that the knowledge of all material things would not make the active intellect to be so united to us as to enable us by its instrumentality to understand separate substances.

This idea, however, is incorrect. First, if we assume the active intellect is a distinct substance, we couldn't truly understand through its influence, because the way an agent acts is based on its form and activity; every agent operates according to its reality, as previously discussed regarding the passive intellect (Q. 70, A. 1). Secondly, this idea is wrong because, in that explanation, even if the active intellect were a separate substance, it wouldn't be connected to us in substance, only in the way its light is shared in the things we comprehend; it wouldn't extend to the other functions of the active intellect that allow us to understand immaterial substances. Just like when we see colors illuminated by the sun, we aren't connected to the substance of the sun to act like it; rather, only its light connects with us so we can see those colors. Thirdly, this idea is incorrect because even if, as explained above, the active intellect were connected to us in substance, it wouldn't mean that it is completely united with us concerning one intelligible object or two; instead, it relates to all intelligible objects. However, all those objects together do not equate to the power of the active intellect, since understanding separate substances is a much greater feat than understanding all material things. Therefore, it follows clearly that knowing all material things would not result in the active intellect being so connected to us that we could use it to understand separate substances.

Fourthly, this opinion is untrue, because it is hardly possible for anyone in this world to understand all material things: and thus no one, or very few, could reach to perfect felicity; which is against what the Philosopher says (Ethic. i, 9), that happiness is a "kind of common good, communicable to all capable of virtue." Further, it is unreasonable that only the few of any species attain to the end of the species.

Fourthly, this view is incorrect because it's nearly impossible for anyone in this world to understand all material things, so very few, if any, could achieve perfect happiness; this contradicts what the Philosopher states (Ethic. i, 9), that happiness is a "kind of common good, available to all who are capable of virtue." Moreover, it's unreasonable for only a few members of any species to reach the purpose of that species.

Fifthly, the Philosopher expressly says (Ethic. i, 10), that happiness is "an operation according to perfect virtue"; and after enumerating many virtues in the tenth book, he concludes (Ethic. i, 7) that ultimate happiness consisting in the knowledge of the highest things intelligible is attained through the virtue of wisdom, which in the sixth chapter he had named as the chief of speculative sciences. Hence Aristotle clearly places the ultimate felicity of man in the knowledge of separate substances, obtainable by speculative science; and not by being united to the active intellect as some imagined.

Fifthly, the Philosopher clearly states (Ethic. i, 10) that happiness is "an action according to perfect virtue"; and after listing various virtues in the tenth book, he concludes (Ethic. i, 7) that true happiness, which comes from understanding the highest intelligible concepts, is achieved through the virtue of wisdom, which he identified in the sixth chapter as the primary of speculative sciences. Therefore, Aristotle clearly asserts that the ultimate happiness of a person lies in the knowledge of separate substances, which can be obtained through speculative science, not by being united with the active intellect as some have thought.

Sixthly, as was shown above (Q. 79, A. 4), the active intellect is not a separate substance; but a faculty of the soul, extending itself actively to the same objects to which the passive intellect extends receptively; because, as is stated (De Anima iii, 5), the passive intellect is "all things potentially," and the active intellect is "all things in act." Therefore both intellects, according to the present state of life, extend to material things only, which are made actually intelligible by the active intellect, and are received in the passive intellect. Hence in the present state of life we cannot understand separate immaterial substances in themselves, either by the passive or by the active intellect.

Sixth, as mentioned earlier (Q. 79, A. 4), the active intellect isn't a separate entity; rather, it's a part of the soul that actively engages with the same objects that the passive intellect engages with in a receptive way. As stated (De Anima iii, 5), the passive intellect contains "all things potentially," while the active intellect contains "all things in act." Therefore, both types of intellect, in our current state of existence, deal only with material things, which the active intellect makes understandable and the passive intellect receives. Thus, in our current state of life, we cannot comprehend separate immaterial substances on their own, whether through the passive or the active intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine may be taken to mean that the knowledge of incorporeal things in the mind can be gained by the mind itself. This is so true that philosophers also say that the knowledge concerning the soul is a principle for the knowledge of separate substances. For by knowing itself, it attains to some knowledge of incorporeal substances, such as is within its compass; not that the knowledge of itself gives it a perfect and absolute knowledge of them.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine might mean that the mind can gain knowledge of incorporeal things on its own. This is so true that philosophers also say that understanding the soul is fundamental to understanding separate substances. By knowing itself, it gains some knowledge of incorporeal substances that it can grasp, but this self-knowledge doesn’t provide a complete and perfect understanding of them.

Reply Obj. 2: The likeness of nature is not a sufficient cause of knowledge; otherwise what Empedocles said would be true—that the soul needs to have the nature of all in order to know all. But knowledge requires that the likeness of the thing known be in the knower, as a kind of form thereof. Now our passive intellect, in the present state of life, is such that it can be informed with similitudes abstracted from phantasms: and therefore it knows material things rather than immaterial substances.

Reply Obj. 2: The similarity of nature isn't enough to cause knowledge; otherwise what Empedocles said would be true—that the soul must possess the nature of everything in order to know everything. But knowledge requires that the likeness of what is known exists in the knower, as a sort of form of that thing. Our passive intellect, in this current state of life, is such that it can be influenced by similarities derived from perceptions: and therefore it understands material things more than immaterial substances.

Reply Obj. 3: There must needs be some proportion between the object and the faculty of knowledge; such as of the active to the passive, and of perfection to the perfectible. Hence that sensible objects of great power are not grasped by the senses, is due not merely to the fact that they corrupt the organ, but also to their being improportionate to the sensitive power. And thus it is that immaterial substances are improportionate to our intellect, in our present state of life, so that it cannot understand them.

Reply Obj. 3: There has to be some kind of proportion between the object and the ability to know it; like how the active relates to the passive, and how perfection relates to what can be perfected. Therefore, the fact that extremely powerful sensory objects can't be perceived by our senses is not just because they damage the organs, but also because they don’t match the capacity of our senses. Similarly, immaterial substances don’t match our intellect in our current state of life, which means we can't understand them.

Reply Obj. 4: This argument of the Commentator fails in several ways. First, because if separate substances are not understood by us, it does not follow that they are not understood by any intellect; for they are understood by themselves, and by one another.

Reply Obj. 4: This argument from the Commentator fails in several ways. First, just because we don't understand separate substances doesn't mean that no intellect understands them; they are understood by themselves and by each other.

Secondly, to be understood by us is not the end of separate substances: while only that is vain and purposeless, which fails to attain its end. It does not follow, therefore, that immaterial substances are purposeless, even if they are not understood by us at all.

Secondly, just because we don't understand something doesn't mean it's the end of separate substances; only what fails to achieve its purpose is pointless. So, it doesn't mean that immaterial substances lack purpose, even if we don't understand them at all.

Reply Obj. 5: Sense knows bodies, whether superior or inferior, in the same way, that is, by the sensible acting on the organ. But we do not understand material and immaterial substances in the same way. The former we understand by a process of abstraction, which is impossible in the case of the latter, for there are no phantasms of what is immaterial. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: Our senses recognize physical bodies, whether they're higher or lower, in the same way, meaning that they interact with our sensory organs. However, we don't comprehend material and immaterial substances in the same manner. We grasp the former through a process of abstraction, which cannot occur with the latter, since there are no mental images of what is immaterial.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 88, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 88, Art. 2]

Whether Our Intellect Can Understand Immaterial Substances Through Its
Knowledge of Material Things?

Whether our intellect can understand immaterial substances through its
knowledge of material things?

Objection 1: It would seem that our intellect can know immaterial substances through the knowledge of material things. For Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. i) that "the human mind cannot be raised up to immaterial contemplation of the heavenly hierarchies, unless it is led thereto by material guidance according to its own nature." Therefore we can be led by material things to know immaterial substances.

Objection 1: It seems that our intellect can understand immaterial substances by knowing material things. Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. i) that "the human mind cannot be elevated to the immaterial contemplation of the heavenly hierarchies unless it is guided by material things in line with its own nature." Therefore, we can be guided by material things to understand immaterial substances.

Obj. 2: Further, science resides in the intellect. But there are sciences and definitions of immaterial substances; for Damascene defines an angel (De Fide Orth. ii, 3); and we find angels treated of both in theology and philosophy. Therefore immaterial substances can be understood by us.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, science exists in the mind. There are sciences and definitions of non-physical substances; for Damascene defines an angel (De Fide Orth. ii, 3); and we see angels discussed in both theology and philosophy. Therefore, we can understand non-physical substances.

Obj. 3: Further, the human soul belongs to the genus of immaterial substances. But it can be understood by us through its act by which it understands material things. Therefore also other material substances can be understood by us, through their material effects.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the human soul is part of the category of immaterial substances. However, we can comprehend it through its ability to understand material things. Therefore, other material substances can also be understood by us through their material effects.

Obj. 4: Further, the only cause which cannot be comprehended through its effects is that which is infinitely distant from them, and this belongs to God alone. Therefore other created immaterial substances can be understood by us through material things.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the only cause that cannot be understood through its effects is the one that is infinitely distant from them, and this applies only to God. Therefore, we can understand other created immaterial substances through material things.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. i) that "intelligible things cannot be understood through sensible things, nor composite things through simple, nor incorporeal through corporeal."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. i) that "things we can understand can't be grasped through things we can sense, nor can complex things be understood through simple ones, nor can non-physical things be understood through physical ones."

I answer that, Averroes says (De Anima iii) that a philosopher named Avempace [*Ibn-Badja, Arabian Philosopher; ob. 1183] taught that by the understanding of natural substances we can be led, according to true philosophical principles, to the knowledge of immaterial substances. For since the nature of our intellect is to abstract the quiddity of material things from matter, anything material residing in that abstracted quiddity can again be made subject to abstraction; and as the process of abstraction cannot go on forever, it must arrive at length at some immaterial quiddity, absolutely without matter; and this would be the understanding of immaterial substance.

I answer that, Averroes states (De Anima iii) that a philosopher named Avempace [*Ibn-Badja, Arabian Philosopher; ob. 1183] taught that through understanding natural substances, we can, following true philosophical principles, come to know immaterial substances. Since our intellect's nature is to abstract the essence of material things from matter, anything material included in that abstracted essence can also be subject to abstraction. And since the process of abstraction can't continue indefinitely, it must eventually reach some immaterial essence that is completely free of matter; this would be the understanding of immaterial substance.

Now this opinion would be true, were immaterial substances the forms and species of these material things; as the Platonists supposed. But supposing, on the contrary, that immaterial substances differ altogether from the quiddity of material things, it follows that however much our intellect abstract the quiddity of material things from matter, it could never arrive at anything akin to immaterial substance. Therefore we are not able perfectly to understand immaterial substances through material substances.

Now, this view would be correct if immaterial substances were the shapes and types of these material things, like the Platonists thought. But if we assume instead that immaterial substances are completely different from the essence of material things, then no matter how much our intellect separates the essence of material things from matter, it could never reach anything similar to immaterial substance. Therefore, we can't fully understand immaterial substances through material substances.

Reply Obj. 1: From material things we can rise to some kind of knowledge of immaterial things, but not to the perfect knowledge thereof; for there is no proper and adequate proportion between material and immaterial things, and the likenesses drawn from material things for the understanding of immaterial things are very dissimilar therefrom, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. ii).

Reply Obj. 1: We can gain some understanding of immaterial things from material things, but we can’t achieve complete understanding; there’s no exact correspondance between material and immaterial things, and the comparisons we make using material things to grasp immaterial concepts are quite different, as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. ii).

Reply Obj. 2: Science treats of higher things principally by way of negation. Thus Aristotle (De Coel. i, 3) explains the heavenly bodies by denying to them inferior corporeal properties. Hence it follows that much less can immaterial substances be known by us in such a way as to make us know their quiddity; but we may have a scientific knowledge of them by way of negation and by their relation to material things.

Reply Obj. 2: Science addresses higher things mainly through negation. Aristotle (De Coel. i, 3) explains the heavenly bodies by denying them inferior physical properties. Therefore, it follows that we can know much less about immaterial substances in a way that reveals their essence; however, we can have scientific knowledge of them through negation and their relationship to material things.

Reply Obj. 3: The human soul understands itself through its own act of understanding, which is proper to it, showing perfectly its power and nature. But the power and nature of immaterial substances cannot be perfectly known through such act, nor through any other material thing, because there is no proportion between the latter and the power of the former.

Reply Obj. 3: The human soul understands itself through its own act of understanding, which is unique to it, clearly revealing its abilities and essence. However, the abilities and essence of immaterial substances cannot be fully understood through such acts or through any material thing, because there is no comparison between the two.

Reply Obj. 4: Created immaterial substances are not in the same natural genus as material substances, for they do not agree in power or in matter; but they belong to the same logical genus, because even immaterial substances are in the predicament of substance, as their essence is distinct from their existence. But God has no connection with material things, as regards either natural genus or logical genus; because God is in no genus, as stated above (Q. 3, A. 5). Hence through the likeness derived from material things we can know something positive concerning the angels, according to some common notion, though not according to the specific nature; whereas we cannot acquire any such knowledge at all about God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Created immaterial substances are not in the same natural category as material substances because they don't share the same power or matter; however, they do fall under the same logical category since even immaterial substances are considered substances, with their essence being different from their existence. But God has no relation to material things in terms of either natural or logical categories because God does not fit into any category, as mentioned earlier (Q. 3, A. 5). Therefore, through the similarities we see in material things, we can understand something about angels based on some general concept, but not about their specific nature; meanwhile, we can't gain any understanding of God in this way.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 88, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 88, Art. 3]

Whether God Is the First Object Known by the Human Mind?

Whether God Is the First Thing Known by the Human Mind?

Objection 1: It would seem that God is the first object known by the human mind. For that object in which all others are known, and by which we judge others, is the first thing known to us; as light is to the eye, and first principles to the intellect. But we know all things in the light of the first truth, and thereby judge of all things, as Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 2; De Vera Relig. xxxi); [*Confess. xii, 25]. Therefore God is the first object known to us.

Objection 1: It seems that God is the first thing known by the human mind. The object through which we understand everything else and by which we make judgments about other things is the very first thing we come to know; just like light is to the eye and fundamental principles are to the intellect. We perceive everything in the light of the ultimate truth and use that to evaluate all things, as Augustine mentions (De Trin. xii, 2; De Vera Relig. xxxi); [*Confess. xii, 25]. Therefore, God is the first thing we come to know.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever causes a thing to be such is more so. But
God is the cause of all our knowledge; for He is "the true light
which enlighteneth every man that cometh into this world" (John 1:9).
Therefore God is our first and most known object.

Obj. 2: Additionally, whatever causes something to exist is more so. But
God is the source of all our knowledge; for He is "the true light
that enlightens every person who comes into this world" (John 1:9).
Therefore, God is our first and most recognized object.

Obj. 3: Further, what is first known in the image is the exemplar to which it is made. But in our mind is the image of God, as Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 4,7). Therefore God is the first object known to our mind.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, what we first recognize in an image is the original that it's based on. But in our minds is the image of God, as Augustine states (De Trin. xii, 4,7). Therefore, God is the first thing we understand in our minds.

On the contrary, "No man hath seen God at any time" (John 1:18).

On the contrary, "No one has ever seen God" (John 1:18).

I answer that, Since the human intellect in the present state of life cannot understand even immaterial created substances (A. 1), much less can it understand the essence of the uncreated substance. Hence it must be said simply that God is not the first object of our knowledge. Rather do we know God through creatures, according to the Apostle (Rom. 1:20), "the invisible things of God are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made": while the first object of our knowledge in this life is the "quiddity of a material thing," which is the proper object of our intellect, as appears above in many passages (Q. 84, A. 7; Q. 85, A. 8; Q. 87, A. 2, ad 2)

I respond that, since the human mind, in its current state, cannot even grasp immaterial created substances (A. 1), it certainly cannot comprehend the essence of the uncreated substance. Therefore, it must be said that God is not the primary object of our knowledge. Instead, we come to know God through His creations, as noted by the Apostle (Rom. 1:20), "the invisible things of God are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made": while the primary object of our knowledge in this life is the "nature

Reply Obj. 1: We see and judge of all things in the light of the first truth, forasmuch as the light itself of our mind, whether natural or gratuitous, is nothing else than the impression of the first truth upon it, as stated above (Q. 12, A. 2). Hence, as the light itself of our intellect is not the object it understands, much less can it be said that God is the first object known by our intellect.

Reply Obj. 1: We understand and evaluate everything based on the first truth, because the light of our mind, whether it’s natural or given to us, is simply the impression of the first truth on it, as mentioned earlier (Q. 12, A. 2). Therefore, since the light of our intellect isn’t the same as the object it comprehends, it’s even less accurate to say that God is the first thing known by our intellect.

Reply Obj. 2: The axiom, "Whatever causes a thing to be such is more so," must be understood of things belonging to one and the same order, as explained above (Q. 81, A. 2, ad 3). Other things than God are known because of God; not as if He were the first known object, but because He is the first cause of our faculty of knowledge.

Reply Obj. 2: The principle, "Whatever causes a thing to be such is more so," needs to be understood in relation to things that are in the same category, as explained above (Q. 81, A. 2, ad 3). Other things besides God are known because of God; not that He is the first thing we come to know, but because He is the primary source of our ability to know.

Reply Obj. 3: If there existed in our souls a perfect image of God, as the Son is the perfect image of the Father, our mind would know God at once. But the image in our mind is imperfect; hence the argument does not prove. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: If there were a perfect image of God in our souls, like the Son is the perfect image of the Father, we would instantly understand God. However, the image in our minds is imperfect; therefore, the argument doesn’t hold.

QUESTION 89

OF THE KNOWLEDGE OF THE SEPARATED SOUL
(In Eight Articles)

OF THE KNOWLEDGE OF THE SEPARATED SOUL
(In Eight Articles)

We must now consider the knowledge of the separated soul. Under this head there are eight points of inquiry:

We now need to think about what the separated soul knows. In this regard, there are eight points for discussion:

(1) Whether the soul separated from the body can understand?

(1) Can the soul, when separated from the body, understand anything?

(2) Whether it understands separate substances?

(2) Does it understand separate substances?

(3) Whether it understands all natural things?

(3) Does it understand all natural things?

(4) Whether it understands individuals and singulars?

(4) Does it understand individuals and singular things?

(5) Whether the habits of knowledge acquired in this life remain?

(5) Do the knowledge habits we develop in this life stick with us?

(6) Whether the soul can use the habit of knowledge here acquired?

(6) Can the soul make use of the knowledge gained here?

(7) Whether local distance impedes the separated soul's knowledge?

(7) Does being far away prevent the separated soul from gaining knowledge?

(8) Whether souls separated from the body know what happens here? _______________________

(8) Do souls that have separated from the body know what happens here? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 1]

Whether the Separated Soul Can Understand Anything?

Whether the Separated Soul Can Understand Anything?

Objection 1: It would seem that the soul separated from the body can understand nothing at all. For the Philosopher says (De Anima i, 4) that "the understanding is corrupted together with its interior principle." But by death all human interior principles are corrupted. Therefore also the intellect itself is corrupted.

Objection 1: It seems that the soul, once separated from the body, cannot understand anything at all. For the Philosopher states (De Anima i, 4) that "understanding is corrupted along with its internal principle." However, with death, all human internal principles are corrupted. Therefore, the intellect itself is also corrupted.

Obj. 2: Further, the human soul is hindered from understanding when the senses are tied, and by a distracted imagination, as explained above (Q. 84, AA. 7,8). But death destroys the senses and imagination, as we have shown above (Q. 77, A. 8). Therefore after death the soul understands nothing.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the human soul struggles to understand when the senses are restricted and the imagination is distracted, as mentioned earlier (Q. 84, AA. 7,8). However, death eliminates the senses and imagination, as we have indicated previously (Q. 77, A. 8). Therefore, after death, the soul comprehends nothing.

Obj. 3: Further, if the separated soul can understand, this must be by means of some species. But it does not understand by means of innate species, because it has none such; being at first "like a tablet on which nothing is written": nor does it understand by species abstracted from things, for it does not then possess organs of sense and imagination which are necessary for the abstraction of species: nor does it understand by means of species, formerly abstracted and retained in the soul; for if that were so, a child's soul would have no means of understanding at all: nor does it understand by means of intelligible species divinely infused, for such knowledge would not be natural, such as we treat of now, but the effect of grace. Therefore the soul apart from the body understands nothing.

Obj. 3: Moreover, if the separated soul can understand, it must do so through some type of concept. However, it does not understand through innate concepts, because it has none; it starts out "like a blank slate." Nor does it understand through concepts abstracted from things, since it doesn’t have the senses and imagination needed for that abstraction. It also doesn’t understand through concepts that were previously abstracted and stored in the soul; if that were true, a child’s soul wouldn’t have any way to understand at all. Additionally, it doesn’t understand through intelligible concepts that are divinely given, because such knowledge wouldn’t be natural, like what we’re discussing now, but rather a result of grace. Therefore, the soul, separate from the body, understands nothing.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima i, 1), "If the soul had no proper operation, it could not be separated from the body." But the soul is separated from the body; therefore it has a proper operation and above all, that which consists in intelligence. Therefore the soul can understand when it is apart from the body.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Anima i, 1), "If the soul had no specific function, it couldn't be separated from the body." But the soul is separated from the body; therefore it has a specific function, mainly, the one that involves intelligence. Thus, the soul can understand even when it is apart from the body.

I answer that, The difficulty in solving this question arises from the fact that the soul united to the body can understand only by turning to the phantasms, as experience shows. Did this not proceed from the soul's very nature, but accidentally through its being bound up with the body, as the Platonists said, the difficulty would vanish; for in that case when the body was once removed, the soul would at once return to its own nature, and would understand intelligible things simply, without turning to the phantasms, as is exemplified in the case of other separate substances. In that case, however, the union of soul and body would not be for the soul's good, for evidently it would understand worse in the body than out of it; but for the good of the body, which would be unreasonable, since matter exists on account of the form, and not the form for the sake of matter. But if we admit that the nature of the soul requires it to understand by turning to the phantasms, it will seem, since death does not change its nature, that it can then naturally understand nothing; as the phantasms are wanting to which it may turn.

I respond that, The challenge in addressing this question comes from the fact that the soul, when connected to the body, can only comprehend by relying on images, as experience shows. If this were not due to the very nature of the soul, but rather accidentally because it is tied to the body, as the Platonists suggested, the issue would disappear; because in that case, once the body was removed, the soul would immediately return to its true nature and understand intelligible things directly, without needing to rely on images, as seen in other separate substances. However, in that scenario, the union of soul and body would not benefit the soul, since it would clearly understand less while in the body than outside of it; this would only serve the body, which would be illogical, since matter exists for the sake of form, not the other way around. But if we accept that the soul's nature requires it to understand through images, it would seem that, since death does not alter its nature, it would then be unable to understand anything naturally; as it would lack the images to which it could turn.

To solve this difficulty we must consider that as nothing acts except so far as it is actual, the mode of action in every agent follows from its mode of existence. Now the soul has one mode of being when in the body, and another when apart from it, its nature remaining always the same; but this does not mean that its union with the body is an accidental thing, for, on the contrary, such union belongs to its very nature, just as the nature of a light object is not changed, when it is in its proper place, which is natural to it, and outside its proper place, which is beside its nature. The soul, therefore, when united to the body, consistently with that mode of existence, has a mode of understanding, by turning to corporeal phantasms, which are in corporeal organs; but when it is separated from the body, it has a mode of understanding, by turning to simply intelligible objects, as is proper to other separate substances. Hence it is as natural for the soul to understand by turning to the phantasms as it is for it to be joined to the body; but to be separated from the body is not in accordance with its nature, and likewise to understand without turning to the phantasms is not natural to it; and hence it is united to the body in order that it may have an existence and an operation suitable to its nature. But here again a difficulty arises. For since nature is always ordered to what is best, and since it is better to understand by turning to simply intelligible objects than by turning to the phantasms; God should have ordered the soul's nature so that the nobler way of understanding would have been natural to it, and it would not have needed the body for that purpose.

To solve this issue, we need to recognize that nothing acts unless it is real, so the way each agent acts comes from how it exists. The soul has one way of being while in the body and another when it is apart from it, though its essence remains unchanged. However, this doesn't mean its connection with the body is accidental; rather, this connection is essential to its nature, just like a light object's nature doesn't change whether it's in its natural place or out of it. Therefore, when the soul is joined to the body, it has a way of understanding that engages with physical images located in physical organs. But when it is separate from the body, it understands by focusing on purely intelligible objects, as is appropriate for other separate entities. Thus, it's as natural for the soul to understand through images as it is for it to be connected to the body; however, being apart from the body isn't aligned with its nature, and neither is understanding without referring to images. That’s why it is joined to the body, to have an existence and function suited to its nature. Yet, this raises another question. Since nature always aims for what is best and understanding through purely intelligible objects is preferable to understanding through images, God should have designed the soul in such a way that the nobler method of understanding would be its natural state, making the body unnecessary for that purpose.

In order to resolve this difficulty we must consider that while it is true that it is nobler in itself to understand by turning to something higher than to understand by turning to phantasms, nevertheless such a mode of understanding was not so perfect as regards what was possible to the soul. This will appear if we consider that every intellectual substance possesses intellective power by the influence of the Divine light, which is one and simple in its first principle, and the farther off intellectual creatures are from the first principle so much the more is the light divided and diversified, as is the case with lines radiating from the centre of a circle. Hence it is that God by His one Essence understands all things; while the superior intellectual substances understand by means of a number of species, which nevertheless are fewer and more universal and bestow a deeper comprehension of things, because of the efficaciousness of the intellectual power of such natures: whereas the inferior intellectual natures possess a greater number of species, which are less universal, and bestow a lower degree of comprehension, in proportion as they recede from the intellectual power of the higher natures. If, therefore, the inferior substances received species in the same degree of universality as the superior substances, since they are not so strong in understanding, the knowledge which they would derive through them would be imperfect, and of a general and confused nature. We can see this to a certain extent in man, for those who are of weaker intellect fail to acquire perfect knowledge through the universal conceptions of those who have a better understanding, unless things are explained to them singly and in detail. Now it is clear that in the natural order human souls hold the lowest place among intellectual substances. But the perfection of the universe required various grades of being. If, therefore, God had willed souls to understand in the same way as separate substances, it would follow that human knowledge, so far from being perfect, would be confused and general. Therefore to make it possible for human souls to possess perfect and proper knowledge, they were so made that their nature required them to be joined to bodies, and thus to receive the proper and adequate knowledge of sensible things from the sensible things themselves; thus we see in the case of uneducated men that they have to be taught by sensible examples.

To solve this challenge, we need to recognize that while it is indeed more noble to gain understanding by looking toward something greater rather than relying on illusions, this way of understanding isn't as complete when it comes to what is possible for the soul. This becomes clear when we realize that every intellectual being has the ability to understand through the influence of Divine light, which is unified and simple at its core. The farther intellectual beings are from this primary source, the more the light becomes divided and varied, similar to lines emanating from the center of a circle. Therefore, God understands everything through His singular Essence, while higher intellectual beings grasp concepts through various forms, which are still fewer and more universal, allowing for a deeper comprehension, thanks to their powerful intellect. On the other hand, lower intellectual natures deal with a greater number of forms that are less universal and provide a lesser degree of understanding, as they move further away from the intellectual power of the higher beings. If, then, these lower beings received forms with the same level of universality as higher beings, their limited capacity for understanding would result in knowledge that is imprecise and general. We can see this to some degree in humans, where those with weaker intellects struggle to achieve clear understanding through the universal ideas presented by those who comprehend better, unless they receive explanations that are more specific and detailed. It is evident that, in the natural order, human souls occupy the lowest rank among intellectual beings. However, the perfection of the universe necessitated different levels of existence. If God had intended for souls to comprehend things in the same way as separate beings, it would mean that human knowledge, rather than being complete, would be unclear and vague. Thus, to enable human souls to attain perfect and appropriate knowledge, they were designed to be connected to bodies, which allows them to gain proper and adequate knowledge of tangible things from those very things themselves; this is why we observe that uneducated people need to learn through tangible examples.

It is clear then that it was for the soul's good that it was united to a body, and that it understands by turning to the phantasms. Nevertheless it is possible for it to exist apart from the body, and also to understand in another way.

It’s clear that it was for the soul’s benefit that it was connected to a body, and it comprehends by focusing on images. However, it can also exist separately from the body, and it can understand in a different way.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher's words carefully examined will show that he said this on the previous supposition that understanding is a movement of body and soul as united, just as sensation is, for he had not as yet explained the difference between intellect and sense. We may also say that he is referring to the way of understanding by turning to phantasms. This is also the meaning of the second objection.

Reply Obj. 1: If we closely look at the Philosopher's words, we'll see that he said this based on the assumption that understanding involves both body and soul working together, just like sensation does, since he hadn't yet clarified the difference between intellect and sense. We can also interpret that he is talking about understanding through the use of mental images. This aligns with the point made in the second objection.

Reply Obj. 3: The separated soul does not understand by way of innate species, nor by species abstracted then, nor only by species retained, and this the objection proves; but the soul in that state understands by means of participated species arising from the influence of the Divine light, shared by the soul as by other separate substances; though in a lesser degree. Hence as soon as it ceases to act by turning to corporeal (phantasms), the soul turns at once to the superior things; nor is this way of knowledge unnatural, for God is the author of the influx of both of the light of grace and of the light of nature. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The separated soul doesn’t understand through inherent qualities, or through abstracted qualities, nor only through retained qualities, and this is what the objection proves; but in that state, the soul understands through shared qualities that come from the influence of divine light, which is shared by the soul like other separate substances, though to a lesser extent. Therefore, as soon as it stops engaging with physical forms (phantasms), the soul immediately turns to higher things; this way of knowing isn't unnatural, since God is the source of both the flow of grace and the flow of nature.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 2]

Whether the Separated Soul Understands Separate Substances?

Whether the Separated Soul Understands Separate Substances?

Objection 1: It would seem that the separated soul does not understand separate substances. For the soul is more perfect when joined to the body than when existing apart from it, being an essential part of human nature; and every part of a whole is more perfect when it exists in that whole. But the soul in the body does not understand separate substances as shown above (Q. 88, A. 1). Therefore much less is it able to do so when apart from the body.

Objection 1: It might seem that the soul, when separated, doesn’t understand separate substances. The soul is more complete when connected to the body than when it exists on its own, as it is a vital part of human nature; and every part of a whole is more complete when it is within that whole. However, the soul within the body does not understand separate substances as demonstrated above (Q. 88, A. 1). Therefore, it can understand them even less when it is apart from the body.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever is known is known either by its presence or by its species. But separate substances cannot be known to the soul by their presence, for God alone can enter into the soul; nor by means of species abstracted by the soul from an angel, for an angel is more simple than a soul. Therefore the separated soul cannot at all understand separate substances.

Obj. 2: Additionally, anything that is known is recognized either through its presence or by its kind. However, separate substances cannot be known to the soul through their presence, as only God can enter the soul; nor can they be known through the types abstracted by the soul from an angel, since an angel is simpler than a soul. Therefore, the separated soul cannot understand separate substances at all.

Obj. 3: Further, some philosophers said that the ultimate happiness of man consists in the knowledge of separate substances. If, therefore, the separated soul can understand separate substances, its happiness would be secured by its separation alone; which cannot be reasonably be said.

Obj. 3: Additionally, some philosophers argue that a person's ultimate happiness comes from understanding separate substances. So, if the separated soul can comprehend separate substances, its happiness would be guaranteed just by being separated; which cannot be reasonably claimed.

On the contrary, Souls apart from the body know other separated souls; as we see in the case of the rich man in hell, who saw Lazarus and Abraham (Luke 16:23). Therefore separated souls see the devils and the angels.

Conversely, souls outside of the body are aware of other separated souls; as illustrated by the rich man in hell, who saw Lazarus and Abraham (Luke 16:23). Therefore, separated souls can see both devils and angels.

I answer that, Augustine says (De Trin. ix, 3), "our mind acquires the knowledge of incorporeal things by itself"—i.e. by knowing itself (Q. 88, A. 1, ad 1). Therefore from the knowledge which the separated soul has of itself, we can judge how it knows other separate things. Now it was said above (A. 1), that as long as it is united to the body the soul understands by turning to phantasms, and therefore it does not understand itself save through becoming actually intelligent by means of ideas abstracted from phantasms; for thus it understands itself through its own act, as shown above (Q. 87, A. 1). When, however, it is separated from the body, it understands no longer by turning to phantasms, but by turning to simply intelligible objects; hence in that state it understands itself through itself. Now, every separate substance "understands what is above itself and what is below itself, according to the mode of its substance" (De Causis viii): for a thing is understood according as it is in the one who understands; while one thing is in another according to the nature of that in which it is. And the mode of existence of a separated soul is inferior to that of an angel, but is the same as that of other separated souls. Therefore the soul apart from the body has perfect knowledge of other separated souls, but it has an imperfect and defective knowledge of the angels so far as its natural knowledge is concerned. But the knowledge of glory is otherwise.

I respond that, Augustine states (De Trin. ix, 3), "our mind gains the knowledge of incorporeal things on its own"—meaning it knows itself (Q. 88, A. 1, ad 1). Thus, from the knowledge that the separated soul has of itself, we can determine how it understands other separate entities. It was mentioned earlier (A. 1) that as long as the soul is connected to the body, it understands by turning to images, and therefore it does not grasp itself except by becoming truly aware through ideas derived from those images; in this way, it comprehends itself through its own actions, as explained above (Q. 87, A. 1). However, when it is separated from the body, it no longer understands by relying on those images but by focusing on purely intelligible objects; thus, in that state, it comprehends itself through itself. Every separate substance "understands what is above it and what is below it, according to its nature" (De Causis viii): because something is understood based on how it exists in the one who understands it; and one thing exists in another according to the nature of what contains it. The mode of existence of a separated soul is lower than that of an angel but is the same as that of other separated souls. Therefore, the soul, when apart from the body, has perfect knowledge of other separated souls, but it has an incomplete and limited understanding of angels, regarding its natural knowledge. However, the knowledge of glory is different.

Reply Obj. 1: The separated soul is, indeed, less perfect considering its nature in which it communicates with the nature of the body: but it has a greater freedom of intelligence, since the weight and care of the body is a clog upon the clearness of its intelligence in the present life.

Reply Obj. 1: The separated soul is, in fact, less perfect given its nature in which it interacts with the body’s nature. However, it has greater freedom of thought, as the burdens and concerns of the body hinder the clarity of its intelligence in this life.

Reply Obj. 2: The separated soul understands the angels by means of divinely impressed ideas; which, however, fail to give perfect knowledge of them, forasmuch as the nature of the soul is inferior to that of an angel.

Reply Obj. 2: The separated soul understands the angels through divinely inspired ideas; however, these do not provide complete knowledge of them, since the nature of the soul is lower than that of an angel.

Reply Obj. 3: Man's ultimate happiness consists not in the knowledge of any separate substances; but in the knowledge of God, Who is seen only by grace. The knowledge of other separate substances if perfectly understood gives great happiness—not final and ultimate happiness. But the separated soul does not understand them perfectly, as was shown above in this article. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: A person's ultimate happiness doesn’t come from knowing any individual substances, but rather from knowing God, who can only be seen through grace. While a perfect understanding of other individual substances can bring significant happiness, it isn’t the final and ultimate happiness. However, the separated soul doesn't fully comprehend them, as explained earlier in this article.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 3]

Whether the Separated Soul Knows All Natural Things?

Whether the Separated Soul Knows All Natural Things?

Objection 1: It would seem that the separated soul knows all natural things. For the types of all natural things exist in separate substances. Therefore, as separated souls know separate substances, they also know all natural things.

Objection 1: It seems that the separated soul knows all natural things. This is because the types of all natural things exist in separate substances. Therefore, just as separated souls know separate substances, they also know all natural things.

Obj. 2: Further, whoever understands the greater intelligible, will be able much more to understand the lesser intelligible. But the separated soul understands immaterial substances, which are in the highest degree of intelligibility. Therefore much more can it understand all natural things which are in a lower degree of intelligibility.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, anyone who grasps the greater understanding will be able to understand the lesser understanding much better. The separated soul comprehends immaterial substances, which are at the highest level of understanding. Therefore, it can understand all natural things that are at a lower level of understanding even more.

On the contrary, The devils have greater natural knowledge than the separated soul; yet they do not know all natural things, but have to learn many things by long experience, as Isidore says (De Summo Bono i). Therefore neither can the separated soul know all natural things.

On the contrary, the devils have more natural knowledge than a separated soul; however, they don't know everything about nature and have to learn a lot through lengthy experience, as Isidore says (De Summo Bono i). So, the separated soul also can't know all natural things.

I answer that, As stated above (A. 1), the separated soul, like the angels, understands by means of species, received from the influence of the Divine light. Nevertheless, as the soul by nature is inferior to an angel, to whom this kind of knowledge is natural, the soul apart from the body through such species does not receive perfect knowledge, but only a general and confused kind of knowledge. Separated souls, therefore, have the same relation through such species to imperfect and confused knowledge of natural things as the angels have to the perfect knowledge thereof. Now angels through such species know all natural things perfectly; because all that God has produced in the respective natures of natural things has been produced by Him in the angelic intelligence, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ii, 8). Hence it follows that separated souls know all natural things not with a certain and proper knowledge, but in a general and confused manner.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (A. 1), the separated soul, similar to the angels, understands through forms received from the influence of Divine light. However, since the soul is naturally lower than an angel, which possesses this type of knowledge inherently, the soul, when separated from the body, does not gain perfect knowledge through these forms, but rather only a general and unclear understanding. Thus, separated souls relate to the imperfect and vague knowledge of natural things in the same way that angels relate to the perfect knowledge of them. Angels, through these forms, have a complete understanding of all natural things because everything that God has created in the nature of natural things has also been infused into angelic intelligence, as Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. ii, 8). Therefore, it follows that separated souls know all natural things not with precise and specific knowledge, but in a general and vague manner.

Reply Obj. 1: Even an angel does not understand all natural things through his substance, but through certain species, as stated above (Q. 87, A. 1). So it does not follow that the soul knows all natural things because it knows separate substances after a fashion.

Reply Obj. 1: Even an angel doesn’t understand all natural things through its essence, but through specific kinds, as mentioned above (Q. 87, A. 1). So, it doesn’t mean that the soul knows all natural things just because it understands separate substances in some way.

Reply Obj. 2: As the soul separated from the body does not perfectly understand separate substances, so neither does it know all natural things perfectly; but it knows them confusedly, as above explained in this article.

Reply Obj. 2: Just as the soul, when it is separated from the body, doesn’t fully understand separate substances, it also doesn’t completely understand all natural things; rather, it knows them in a vague way, as explained earlier in this article.

Reply Obj. 3: Isidore speaks of the knowledge of the future which neither angels, nor demons, nor separated souls, know except so far as future things pre-exist in their causes or are known by Divine revelation. But we are here treating of the knowledge of natural things.

Reply Obj. 3: Isidore talks about future knowledge that angels, demons, and separated souls can’t access, except to the extent that future events are present in their causes or revealed by God. However, we are discussing the knowledge of natural things here.

Reply Obj. 4: Knowledge acquired here by study is proper and perfect; the knowledge of which we speak is confused. Hence it does not follow that to study in order to learn is useless. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Knowledge gained through studying is accurate and complete; the knowledge we're talking about is unclear. Therefore, it doesn't mean that studying to learn is pointless.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 4]

Whether the Separated Soul Knows Singulars?

Whether the Separated Soul Knows Individuals?

Objection 1: It would seem that the separated soul does not know singulars. For no cognitive power besides the intellect remains in the separated soul, as is clear from what has been said above (Q. 77, A. 8). But the intellect cannot know singulars, as we have shown (Q. 86, A. 1). Therefore the separated soul cannot know singulars.

Objection 1: It seems that the separated soul does not know individual things. This is because no cognitive ability other than the intellect remains in the separated soul, as explained earlier (Q. 77, A. 8). However, the intellect cannot know individual things, as we have demonstrated (Q. 86, A. 1). Therefore, the separated soul cannot know individual things.

Obj. 2: Further, the knowledge of the singular is more determinate than knowledge of the universal. But the separated soul has no determinate knowledge of the species of natural things, therefore much less can it know singulars.

Obj. 2: Additionally, knowledge of the specific is more precise than knowledge of the general. However, the separated soul does not have precise knowledge of the categories of natural things, so it certainly cannot know specifics.

Obj. 3: Further, if it knew the singulars, yet not by sense, for the same reason it would know all singulars. But it does not know all singulars. Therefore it knows none.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if it understood the individual things, yet not through the senses, for the same reason it would understand all individual things. But it does not understand all individual things. Therefore, it understands none.

On the contrary, The rich man in hell said: "I have five brethren" (Luke 16:28).

On the contrary, the rich man in hell said: "I have five brothers" (Luke 16:28).

I answer that, Separated souls know some singulars, but not all, not even all present singulars. To understand this, we must consider that there is a twofold way of knowing things, one by means of abstraction from phantasms, and in this way singulars cannot be directly known by the intellect, but only indirectly, as stated above (Q. 86, A. 1). The other way of understanding is by the infusion of species by God, and in that way it is possible for the intellect to know singulars. For as God knows all things, universal and singular, by His Essence, as the cause of universal and individual principles (Q. 14, A. 2), so likewise separate substances can know singulars by species which are a kind of participated similitude of the Divine Essence. There is a difference, however, between angels and separated souls in the fact that through these species the angels have a perfect and proper knowledge of things; whereas separated souls have only a confused knowledge. Hence the angels, by reason of their perfect intellect, through these species, know not only the specific natures of things, but also the singulars contained in those species; whereas separated souls by these species know only those singulars to which they are determined by former knowledge in this life, or by some affection, or by natural aptitude, or by the disposition of the Divine order; because whatever is received into anything is conditioned according to the mode of the recipient.

I answer that, separated souls understand some specific things, but not all of them, and not even all the things that are present. To get this, we need to recognize that there are two ways of knowing things: one is through abstraction from mental images, and in this way, specific things can't be directly known by the mind, only indirectly, as mentioned earlier (Q. 86, A. 1). The other way of understanding is through the direct infusion of knowledge from God, which allows the mind to know specific things. Just as God knows everything, both universal and specific, through His Essence as the source of universal and individual principles (Q. 14, A. 2), separated substances can know specific things through concepts that reflect the Divine Essence. However, there is a difference between angels and separated souls—angels have a complete and clear understanding of things through these concepts, while separated souls have only a vague understanding. As a result, angels, due to their perfect intellect, can understand not only the specific natures of things but also the specific instances contained in those concepts. In contrast, separated souls only recognize those specific things that they were familiar with during their life, or through some emotional connection, or through natural inclination, or according to the order set by the Divine; because everything received is shaped by how it is received.

Reply Obj. 1: The intellect does not know the singular by way of abstraction; neither does the separated soul know it thus; but as explained above.

Reply Obj. 1: The intellect does not understand the individual through abstraction; nor does the separate soul understand it that way; but as explained above.

Reply Obj. 2: The knowledge of the separated soul is confined to those species or individuals to which the soul has some kind of determinate relation, as we have said.

Reply Obj. 2: The knowledge of the separated soul is limited to those species or individuals that the soul has a specific relationship with, as we have mentioned.

Reply Obj. 3: The separated soul has not the same relation to all singulars, but one relation to some, and another to others. Therefore there is not the same reason why it should know all singulars. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The separated soul doesn’t have the same connection to all individuals, but one connection to some and a different one to others. Therefore, there’s no reason for it to know all individuals.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 5]

Whether the Habit of Knowledge Here Acquired Remains in the Separated
Soul?

Whether the knowledge gained here stays with the separated
soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that the habit of knowledge acquired in this life does not remain in the soul separated from the body: for the Apostle says: "Knowledge shall be destroyed" (1 Cor. 13:8).

Objection 1: It seems that the knowledge we gain in this life doesn't stay with the soul after it is separate from the body, because the Apostle says, "Knowledge will be destroyed" (1 Cor. 13:8).

Obj. 2: Further, some in this world who are less good enjoy knowledge denied to others who are better. If, therefore, the habit of knowledge remained in the soul after death, it would follow that some who are less good would, even in the future life, excel some who are better; which seems unreasonable.

Obj. 2: Additionally, there are some people in this world who are not as good but have knowledge that is denied to those who are better. So, if the ability to know remained in the soul after death, it would mean that some who are less good would, even in the afterlife, surpass some who are better; which seems unreasonable.

Obj. 3: Further, separated souls will possess knowledge by influence of the Divine light. Supposing, therefore, that knowledge here acquired remained in the separated soul, it would follow that two forms of the same species would co-exist in the same subject which cannot be.

Obj. 3: Additionally, separated souls will gain knowledge through the influence of divine light. If we assume that the knowledge acquired here remains with the separated soul, it would imply that two forms of the same species exist in the same subject, which is impossible.

Obj. 4: Further, the Philosopher says (Praedic. vi, 4, 5), that "a habit is a quality hard to remove: yet sometimes knowledge is destroyed by sickness or the like." But in this life there is no change so thorough as death. Therefore it seems that the habit of knowledge is destroyed by death.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the Philosopher states (Praedic. vi, 4, 5) that "a habit is a quality that's hard to get rid of; however, sometimes knowledge is lost due to illness or similar reasons." But in this life, there’s no change as complete as death. Therefore, it seems that the habit of knowledge is lost through death.

On the contrary, Jerome says (Ep. liii, ad Paulinum), "Let us learn on earth that kind of knowledge which will remain with us in heaven."

On the contrary, Jerome says (Ep. liii, ad Paulinum), "Let us learn on earth the kind of knowledge that will stay with us in heaven."

I answer that, Some say that the habit of knowledge resides not in the intellect itself, but in the sensitive powers, namely, the imaginative, cogitative, and memorative, and that the intelligible species are not kept in the passive intellect. If this were true, it would follow that when the body is destroyed by death, knowledge here acquired would also be entirely destroyed.

I answer that, Some argue that the ability to know doesn't lie in the intellect itself, but in our sensitive powers, specifically the imaginative, cognitive, and memory functions, and that the intellectual concepts are not stored in the passive intellect. If this were true, it would mean that when the body dies, any knowledge gained during life would also completely vanish.

But, since knowledge resides in the intellect, which is "the abode of species," as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 4), the habit of knowledge here acquired must be partly in the aforesaid sensitive powers and partly in the intellect. This can be seen by considering the very actions from which knowledge arises. For "habits are like the actions whereby they are acquired" (Ethic. ii, 1). Now the actions of the intellect, by which knowledge is here acquired, are performed by the mind turning to the phantasms in the aforesaid sensitive powers. Hence through such acts the passive intellect acquires a certain facility in considering the species received: and the aforesaid sensitive powers acquire a certain aptitude in seconding the action of the intellect when it turns to them to consider the intelligible object. But as the intellectual act resides chiefly and formally in the intellect itself, whilst it resides materially and dispositively in the inferior powers, the same distinction is to be applied to habit.

But since knowledge exists in the intellect, which is "the home of ideas," as the Philosopher puts it (De Anima iii, 4), the habit of knowledge that we acquire here must be partly in those sensitive powers and partly in the intellect. This is clear when we look at the actions that lead to knowledge. For "habits are like the actions through which they are developed" (Ethic. ii, 1). The actions of the intellect, through which knowledge is gained, involve the mind focusing on the images produced by those sensitive powers. Therefore, through these actions, the passive intellect gains a certain ease in considering the ideas it receives, and the sensitive powers develop an ability to support the action of the intellect when it looks to them to contemplate the intelligible object. However, since the intellectual act mainly and formally exists in the intellect itself, while it materially and dispositionally exists in the lower powers, the same distinction applies to habit.

Knowledge, therefore, acquired in the present life does not remain in the separated soul, as regards what belongs to the sensitive powers; but as regards what belongs to the intellect itself, it must remain; because, as the Philosopher says (De Long. et Brev. Vitae ii), a form may be corrupted in two ways; first, directly, when corrupted by its contrary, as heat, by cold; and secondly, indirectly, when its subject is corrupted. Now it is evident that human knowledge is not corrupted through corruption of the subject, for the intellect is an incorruptible faculty, as above stated (Q. 79, A. 2, ad 2). Neither can the intelligible species in the passive intellect be corrupted by their contrary; for there is no contrary to intelligible "intentions," above all as regards simple intelligence of "what a thing is." But contrariety may exist in the intellect as regards mental composition and division, or also reasoning; so far as what is false in statement or argument is contrary to truth. And thus knowledge may be corrupted by its contrary when a false argument seduces anyone from the knowledge of truth. For this reason the Philosopher in the above work mentions two ways in which knowledge is corrupted directly: namely, "forgetfulness" on the part of the memorative power, and "deception" on the part of a false argument. But these have no place in the separated soul. Therefore we must conclude that the habit of knowledge, so far as it is in the intellect, remains in the separated soul.

Knowledge gained in this life doesn't stay with the separated soul when it comes to the senses; however, in terms of the intellect, it does remain. As the Philosopher states (De Long. et Brev. Vitae ii), a form can be corrupted in two ways: directly by its opposite, like heat being replaced by cold, or indirectly when the subject itself is corrupted. It's clear that human knowledge isn't lost due to corruption of the subject because the intellect is an incorruptible ability, as previously mentioned (Q. 79, A. 2, ad 2). The intelligible species in the passive intellect also can't be corrupted by their opposite since there's no opposite to intelligible "intentions," especially concerning a straightforward understanding of "what a thing is." However, there can be opposition in the intellect regarding mental composition and division, or reasoning, where false statements or arguments contradict the truth. Therefore, knowledge can be corrupted by its opposite when a misleading argument diverts someone from knowing the truth. For this reason, the Philosopher in the mentioned work identifies two direct ways knowledge can be corrupted: "forgetfulness" in the memory and "deception" through a false argument. But these don't occur in the separated soul. Thus, we can conclude that the habit of knowledge, as it exists in the intellect, persists in the separated soul.

Reply Obj. 1: The Apostle is not speaking of knowledge as a habit, but as to the act of knowing; and hence he says, in proof of the assertion quoted, "Now, I know in part."

Reply Obj. 1: The Apostle is not talking about knowledge as a trait, but rather about the act of knowing; and that's why he says, to support his point, "Now, I know in part."

Reply Obj. 2: As a less good man may exceed a better man in bodily stature, so the same kind of man may have a habit of knowledge in the future life which a better man may not have. Such knowledge, however, cannot be compared with the other prerogatives enjoyed by the better man.

Reply Obj. 2: Just as a less virtuous person can be taller than a more virtuous person, a similar individual might possess a type of knowledge in the afterlife that a better person lacks. However, this kind of knowledge pales in comparison to the other advantages that the better person has.

Reply Obj. 3: These two kinds of knowledge are not of the same species, so there is no impossibility.

Reply Obj. 3: These two types of knowledge aren't the same, so there's no contradiction.

Reply Obj. 4: This objection considers the corruption of knowledge on the part of the sensitive powers. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: This objection addresses the distortion of knowledge by the sensory powers.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 6]

Whether the Act of Knowledge Acquired Here Remains in the Separated
Soul?

Whether the knowledge gained here stays with the separated
soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that the act of knowledge here acquired does not remain in the separated soul. For the Philosopher says (De Anima i, 4), that when the body is corrupted, "the soul neither remembers nor loves." But to consider what is previously known is an act of memory. Therefore the separated soul cannot retain an act of knowledge here acquired.

Objection 1: It seems that the knowledge gained here doesn't stay with the separated soul. The Philosopher states (De Anima i, 4) that when the body dies, "the soul neither remembers nor loves." But reflecting on what is already known is an act of memory. Therefore, the separated soul cannot hold onto the knowledge acquired here.

Obj. 2: Further, intelligible species cannot have greater power in the separated soul than they have in the soul united to the body. But in this life we cannot understand by intelligible species without turning to phantasms, as shown above (Q. 84, A. 7). Therefore the separated soul cannot do so, and thus it cannot understand at all by intelligible species acquired in this life.

Obj. 2: Moreover, intelligible concepts cannot have more power in the separated soul than they do in the soul connected to the body. However, in this life, we cannot grasp intelligible concepts without referring to images, as explained above (Q. 84, A. 7). Therefore, the separated soul cannot do this, and thus it cannot understand at all through intelligible concepts learned in this life.

Obj. 3: Further, the Philosopher says (Ethic. ii, 1), that "habits produce acts similar to those whereby they are acquired." But the habit of knowledge is acquired here by acts of the intellect turning to phantasms: therefore it cannot produce any other acts. These acts, however, are not adapted to the separated soul. Therefore the soul in the state of separation cannot produce any act of knowledge acquired in this life.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the Philosopher states (Ethic. ii, 1) that "habits produce actions similar to those through which they were formed." However, the habit of knowledge is formed through acts of the intellect engaging with mental images; therefore, it cannot produce different actions. These actions, however, are not suited for the separated soul. Thus, the soul in a state of separation cannot perform any acts of knowledge acquired during this life.

On the contrary, It was said to Dives in hell (Luke 16:25): "Remember thou didst receive good things in thy lifetime."

On the contrary, It was said to Dives in hell (Luke 16:25): "Remember, you received good things during your lifetime."

I answer that, Action offers two things for our consideration—its species and its mode. Its species comes from the object, whereto the faculty of knowledge is directed by the (intelligible) species, which is the object's similitude; whereas the mode is gathered from the power of the agent. Thus that a person see a stone is due to the species of the stone in his eye; but that he see it clearly, is due to the eye's visual power. Therefore as the intelligible species remain in the separated soul, as stated above (A. 5), and since the state of the separated soul is not the same as it is in this life, it follows that through the intelligible species acquired in this life the soul apart from the body can understand what it understood formerly, but in a different way; not by turning to phantasms, but by a mode suited to a soul existing apart from the body. Thus the act of knowledge here acquired remains in the separated soul, but in a different way.

I answer that, Action involves two things for us to think about—its type and its manner. Its type comes from the object, which the faculty of knowledge focuses on through the (intelligible) type, which is the object's likeness; while the manner is derived from the capability of the agent. So when a person sees a stone, it's because the type of the stone is present in their eye; but seeing it clearly is due to the eye's ability to see. Therefore, since the intelligible types remain in the separated soul, as noted earlier (A. 5), and since the condition of the separated soul is different from how it is in this life, it follows that through the intelligible types learned in this life, the soul apart from the body can understand what it previously understood, but in a different way; not by relying on images, but through a manner appropriate for a soul existing separately from the body. Thus, the act of knowledge acquired here remains in the separated soul, but in a different form.

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher speaks of remembrance, according as memory belongs to the sensitive part, but not as belonging in a way to the intellect, as explained above (Q. 79, A. 6).

Reply Obj. 1: The Philosopher talks about remembering, as memory is part of our senses, but it's not tied to the intellect in the same way, as explained earlier (Q. 79, A. 6).

Reply Obj. 2: The different mode of intelligence is produced by the different state of the intelligent soul; not by diversity of species.

Reply Obj. 2: The different ways of understanding are caused by the different condition of the intelligent soul, not by different types of species.

Reply Obj. 3: The acts which produce a habit are like the acts caused by that habit, in species, but not in mode. For example, to do just things, but not justly, that is, pleasurably, causes the habit of political justice, whereby we act pleasurably. (Cf. Aristotle, Ethic. v, 8: Magn. Moral. i, 34). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The actions that create a habit are similar to the actions that result from that habit in type, but not in the way they are performed. For instance, doing just things, but not doing them justly, meaning not in a pleasurable way, leads to the habit of political justice, through which we act in a pleasurable manner. (Cf. Aristotle, Ethic. v, 8: Magn. Moral. i, 34).

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 7]

Whether Local Distance Impedes the Knowledge in the Separated Soul?

Whether local distance hinders knowledge in the isolated soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that local distance impedes the separated soul's knowledge. For Augustine says (De Cura pro Mort. xiii), that "the souls of the dead are where they cannot know what is done here." But they know what is done among themselves. Therefore local distance impedes the knowledge in the separated soul.

Objection 1: It seems that physical distance prevents the separated soul from gaining knowledge. Augustine states (De Cura pro Mort. xiii) that "the souls of the dead are where they cannot know what is done here." However, they are aware of what happens among themselves. Therefore, physical distance hinders the knowledge of the separated soul.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Divin. Daemon. iii), that "the demons' rapidity of movement enables them to tell things unknown to us." But agility of movement would be useless in that respect unless their knowledge was impeded by local distance; which, therefore, is a much greater hindrance to the knowledge of the separated soul, whose nature is inferior to the demon's.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (De Divin. Daemon. iii) that "the demons' ability to move quickly allows them to know things that are unknown to us." However, this quick movement would only be useful if their knowledge were limited by physical distance; therefore, this distance is a much greater barrier to the knowledge of a separated soul, whose nature is lower than that of a demon.

Obj. 3: Further, as there is distance of place, so is there distance of time. But distance of time impedes knowledge in the separated soul, for the soul is ignorant of the future. Therefore it seems that distance of place also impedes its knowledge.

Obj. 3: Moreover, just as there is physical distance, there is also a distance of time. However, this distance in time hinders the knowledge of the separated soul, since the soul is unaware of the future. Therefore, it appears that physical distance also hampers its knowledge.

On the contrary, It is written (Luke 16:23), that Dives, "lifting up his eyes when he was in torment, saw Abraham afar off." Therefore local distance does not impede knowledge in the separated soul.

On the contrary, It is written (Luke 16:23) that Dives, "lifting up his eyes when he was in torment, saw Abraham far away." Therefore, physical distance does not prevent knowledge in the separated soul.

I answer that, Some have held that the separated soul knows the singular by abstraction from the sensible. If that were so, it might be that local distance would impede its knowledge; for either the sensible would need to act upon the soul, or the soul upon the sensible, and in either case a determinate distance would be necessary. This is, however, impossible because abstraction of the species from the sensible is done through the senses and other sensible faculties which do not remain actually in the soul apart from the body. But the soul when separated understands singulars by species derived from the Divine light, which is indifferent to what is near or distant. Hence knowledge in the separated soul is not hindered by local distance.

I respond that some people believe that the separated soul understands the individual by abstracting from the sensory world. If that were true, it might mean that physical distance would prevent it from knowing, because either the senses would need to influence the soul, or the soul would need to influence the senses, and in either case, a specific distance would be required. However, this is impossible because the process of abstracting the essence from the sensory experience is done through the senses and other sensory faculties, which do not actually remain in the soul when it is separate from the body. Yet, when the soul is separated, it comprehends individual things through essences derived from Divine light, which doesn't depend on whether things are near or far. Therefore, the knowledge of the separated soul is not affected by physical distance.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine says that the souls of the departed cannot see what is done here, not because they are "there," as if impeded by local distance; but for some other cause, as we shall explain (A. 8).

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine states that the souls of the departed cannot see what happens here, not because they are "there," as if limited by physical distance; but for some other reason, which we will explain (A. 8).

Reply Obj. 2: Augustine speaks there in accordance with the opinion that demons have bodies naturally united to them, and so have sensitive powers, which require local distance. In the same book he expressly sets down this opinion, though apparently rather by way of narration than of assertion, as we may gather from De Civ. Dei xxi, 10.

Reply Obj. 2: Augustine discusses the view that demons have bodies that are naturally connected to them, giving them sensory abilities that need physical space. In the same book, he clearly states this view, though it seems more like he's recounting information rather than asserting it, as we can gather from De Civ. Dei xxi, 10.

Reply Obj. 3: The future, which is distant in time, does not actually exist, and therefore is not knowable in itself, because so far as a thing falls short of being, so far does it fall short of being knowable. But what is locally distant exists actually, and is knowable in itself. Hence we cannot argue from distance of time to distance of place. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The future, which is far away in time, doesn't really exist, and so it's not knowable in itself, because the less a thing exists, the less it can be known. However, what is physically distant does actually exist and can be known in itself. Therefore, we can't conclude that distance in time means the same as distance in space.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 89, Art. 8]

Whether Separated Souls Know What Takes Place on Earth?

Whether Separated Souls Know What Happens on Earth?

Objection 1: It would seem that separated souls know what takes place on earth; for otherwise they would have no care for it, as they have, according to what Dives said (Luke 16:27, 28), "I have five brethren . . . he may testify unto them, lest they also come into the place of torments." Therefore separated souls know what passes on earth.

Objection 1: It seems that separated souls are aware of what happens on earth; otherwise, they wouldn’t care about it, as shown by what Dives said (Luke 16:27, 28), "I have five brothers . . . he may testify to them, so they don’t end up in this place of torment." Therefore, separated souls are aware of what occurs on earth.

Obj. 2: Further, the dead often appear to the living, asleep or awake, and tell them of what takes place there; as Samuel appeared to Saul (1 Kings 28:11). But this could not be unless they knew what takes place here. Therefore they know what takes place on earth.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the dead often show up to the living, whether they’re asleep or awake, and inform them about what’s happening there; just like Samuel appeared to Saul (1 Kings 28:11). But this wouldn’t be possible unless they were aware of what occurs here. So, they know what happens on earth.

Obj. 3: Further, separated souls know what happens among themselves. If, therefore, they do not know what takes place among us, it must be by reason of local distance; which has been shown to be false (A. 7).

Obj. 3: Furthermore, separated souls are aware of what happens among themselves. If they don't know what's going on with us, it must be due to physical distance; however, this has been proven to be false (A. 7).

On the contrary, It is written (Job 14:21): "He will not understand whether his children come to honor or dishonor."

On the contrary, It is written (Job 14:21): "He will not understand whether his children gain honor or face disgrace."

I answer that, By natural knowledge, of which we are treating now, the souls of the dead do not know what passes on earth. This follows from what has been laid down (A. 4), since the separated soul has knowledge of singulars, by being in a way determined to them, either by some vestige of previous knowledge or affection, or by the Divine order. Now the souls departed are in a state of separation from the living, both by Divine order and by their mode of existence, whilst they are joined to the world of incorporeal spiritual substances; and hence they are ignorant of what goes on among us. Whereof Gregory gives the reason thus: "The dead do not know how the living act, for the life of the spirit is far from the life of the flesh; and so, as corporeal things differ from incorporeal in genus, so they are distinct in knowledge" (Moral. xii). Augustine seems to say the same (De Cura pro Mort. xiii), when he asserts that, "the souls of the dead have no concern in the affairs of the living."

I answer that, Regarding natural knowledge, which we are discussing now, the souls of the dead do not know what happens on earth. This is based on what has been stated (A. 4), since the separated soul has knowledge of specific things, being somewhat connected to them, either through some remnant of previous knowledge or affection, or by Divine order. The departed souls exist separately from the living, both by Divine order and their mode of existence, as they are connected to the realm of incorporeal spiritual substances; therefore, they are unaware of what occurs among us. Gregory explains it this way: "The dead do not know how the living act, for the life of the spirit is very different from the life of the flesh; just as corporeal things differ from incorporeal in nature, they also differ in knowledge" (Moral. xii). Augustine seems to convey a similar idea (De Cura pro Mort. xiii), when he says that "the souls of the dead have no involvement in the affairs of the living."

Gregory and Augustine, however, seem to be divided in opinion as regards the souls of the blessed in heaven, for Gregory continues the passage above quoted: "The case of the holy souls is different, for since they see the light of Almighty God, we cannot believe that external things are unknown to them." But Augustine (De Cura pro Mort. xiii) expressly says: "The dead, even the saints do not know what is done by the living or by their own children," as a gloss quotes on the text, "Abraham hath not known us" (Isa. 63:16). He confirms this opinion by saying that he was not visited, nor consoled in sorrow by his mother, as when she was alive; and he could not think it possible that she was less kind when in a happier state; and again by the fact that the Lord promised to king Josias that he should die, lest he should see his people's afflictions (4 Kings 22:20). Yet Augustine says this in doubt; and premises, "Let every one take, as he pleases, what I say." Gregory, on the other hand, is positive, since he says, "We cannot believe." His opinion, indeed, seems to be the more probable one—that the souls of the blessed who see God do know all that passes here. For they are equal to the angels, of whom Augustine says that they know what happens among those living on earth. But as the souls of the blessed are most perfectly united to Divine justice, they do not suffer from sorrow, nor do they interfere in mundane affairs, except in accordance with Divine justice.

Gregory and Augustine, however, seem to disagree about the souls of the blessed in heaven. Gregory continues the previous passage, stating, "The situation of the holy souls is different because, since they see the light of Almighty God, we cannot believe that external things are unknown to them." But Augustine (De Cura pro Mort. xiii) clearly says, "The dead, even the saints, do not know what the living or their own children are doing," as a commentary references the text, "Abraham hath not known us" (Isa. 63:16). He supports this view by mentioning that he wasn't visited or comforted in sorrow by his mother, as when she was alive; he could not believe she would be less caring in a happier state. He also points out that the Lord promised King Josias that he would die so he wouldn't witness his people's suffering (4 Kings 22:20). Yet, Augustine expresses doubt and states, "Let everyone take, as he pleases, what I say." In contrast, Gregory is more assertive, saying, "We cannot believe." His viewpoint seems more likely—that the souls of the blessed who see God are aware of everything happening here. They are equal to the angels, of whom Augustine writes that they know what happens among the living on earth. However, since the souls of the blessed are perfectly united with Divine justice, they do not experience sorrow nor interfere in worldly matters, except in line with Divine justice.

Reply Obj. 1: The souls of the departed may care for the living, even if ignorant of their state; just as we care for the dead by pouring forth prayer on their behalf, though we are ignorant of their state. Moreover, the affairs of the living can be made known to them not immediately, but the souls who pass hence thither, or by angels and demons, or even by "the revelation of the Holy Ghost," as Augustine says in the same book.

Reply Obj. 1: The souls of those who have passed away can look after the living, even if they don’t know what’s going on with them; just like we pray for the dead without knowing their situation. Additionally, the living's concerns can be communicated to them, not directly, but through the souls that have moved on, or by angels and demons, or even through "the revelation of the Holy Spirit," as Augustine mentions in the same book.

Reply Obj. 2: That the dead appear to the living in any way whatever is either by the special dispensation of God; in order that the souls of the dead may interfere in affairs of the living—and this is to be accounted as miraculous. Or else such apparitions occur through the instrumentality of bad or good angels, without the knowledge of the departed; as may likewise happen when the living appear, without their own knowledge, to others living, as Augustine says in the same book. And so it may be said of Samuel that he appeared through Divine revelation; according to Ecclus. 46:23, "he slept, and told the king the end of his life." Or, again, this apparition was procured by the demons; unless, indeed, the authority of Ecclesiasticus be set aside through not being received by the Jews as canonical Scripture.

Reply Obj. 2: When the dead appear to the living in any way, it's either by a special act of God, so that the souls of the dead can engage in the affairs of the living—this is considered miraculous. Or these appearances happen through the involvement of good or bad angels, without the deceased being aware of it; this can also occur when the living appear to others, without their own knowledge, as Augustine mentions in the same book. Thus, it can be said that Samuel appeared through Divine revelation; according to Ecclus. 46:23, "he slept, and told the king the end of his life." Alternatively, this apparition could have been caused by demons; unless, of course, the authority of Ecclesiasticus is dismissed because the Jews don't accept it as canonical Scripture.

Reply Obj. 3: This kind of ignorance does not proceed from the obstacle of local distance, but from the cause mentioned above. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: This type of ignorance doesn't come from being far away, but from the reason mentioned earlier.

QUESTION 90

OF THE FIRST PRODUCTION OF MAN'S SOUL
(In Four Articles)

OF THE FIRST PRODUCTION OF MAN'S SOUL
(In Four Articles)

After the foregoing we must consider the first production of man, concerning which there are four subjects of treatment:

After what we've discussed, we need to think about the first appearance of humans, which involves four topics.

(1) the production of man himself;

(1) the creation of humanity itself;

(2) the end of this production;

(2) the end of this production;

(3) the state and condition of the first man;

(3) the status and situation of the first man;

(4) the place of his abode.

(4) the place where he lives.

Concerning the production of man, there are three things to be considered:

Concerning the production of man, there are three things to consider:

(1) the production of man's soul;

(1) the creation of a person's soul;

(2) the production of man's body;

(2) the creation of the human body;

(3) the production of the woman.

(3) the creation of the woman.

Under the first head there are four points of inquiry:

Under the first section, there are four points of discussion:

(1) Whether man's soul was something made, or was of the Divine substance?

(1) Was the human soul created, or is it part of the Divine substance?

(2) Whether, if made, it was created?

(2) Whether, if it was made, it actually exists?

(3) Whether it was made by angelic instrumentality?

(3) Was it created with the help of angels?

(4) Whether it was made before the body? _______________________

(4) Was it made before the body? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 90, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 90, Art. 1]

Whether the Soul Was Made or Was of God's Substance?

Whether the Soul Was Created or Was Made of God's Substance?

Objection 1: It would seem that the soul was not made, but was God's substance. For it is written (Gen. 2:7): "God formed man of the slime of the earth, and breathed into his face the breath of life, and man was made a living soul." But he who breathes sends forth something of himself. Therefore the soul, whereby man lives, is of the Divine substance.

Objection 1: It seems that the soul was not created, but is a part of God's essence. For it's written (Gen. 2:7): "God formed man from the dust of the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and man became a living soul." But when someone breathes, they give off something of themselves. Therefore, the soul that gives life to a person is part of the Divine essence.

Obj. 2: Further, as above explained (Q. 75, A. 5), the soul is a simple form. But a form is an act. Therefore the soul is a pure act; which applies to God alone. Therefore the soul is of God's substance.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, as explained above (Q. 75, A. 5), the soul is a simple form. But a form is an act. Therefore, the soul is a pure act; this applies only to God. Hence, the soul is of God's substance.

Obj. 3: Further, things that exist and do [not] differ are the same. But God and the mind exist, and in no way differ, for they could only be differentiated by certain differences, and thus would be composite. Therefore God and the human mind are the same.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, things that exist and do not differ are identical. But God and the mind exist and do not differ in any way, as they could only be distinguished by specific differences, which would make them composite. Therefore, God and the human mind are the same.

On the contrary, Augustine (De Orig. Animae iii, 15) mentions certain opinions which he calls "exceedingly and evidently perverse, and contrary to the Catholic Faith," among which the first is the opinion that "God made the soul not out of nothing, but from Himself."

On the contrary, Augustine (De Orig. Animae iii, 15) mentions certain opinions that he describes as "extremely and obviously wrong, and against the Catholic Faith," the first being the belief that "God created the soul not from nothing, but from Himself."

I answer that, To say that the soul is of the Divine substance involves a manifest improbability. For, as is clear from what has been said (Q. 77, A. 2; Q. 79, A. 2; Q. 84, A. 6), the human soul is sometimes in a state of potentiality to the act of intelligence —acquires its knowledge somehow from things—and thus has various powers; all of which are incompatible with the Divine Nature, Which is a pure act—receives nothing from any other—and admits of no variety in itself, as we have proved (Q. 3, AA. 1, 7; Q. 9, A. 1).

I answer that, claiming that the soul is made of Divine substance is clearly unlikely. As we've discussed (Q. 77, A. 2; Q. 79, A. 2; Q. 84, A. 6), the human soul can sometimes be in a state of potentiality regarding intelligence—it gains knowledge from experiences—and therefore has different abilities; all of which conflict with the Divine Nature, which is pure act—receives nothing from anything else—and does not allow for any variety within itself, as we have demonstrated (Q. 3, AA. 1, 7; Q. 9, A. 1).

This error seems to have originated from two statements of the ancients. For those who first began to observe the nature of things, being unable to rise above their imagination, supposed that nothing but bodies existed. Therefore they said that God was a body, which they considered to be the principle of other bodies. And since they held that the soul was of the same nature as that body which they regarded as the first principle, as is stated De Anima i, 2, it followed that the soul was of the nature of God Himself. According to this supposition, also, the Manichaeans, thinking that God was corporeal light, held that the soul was part of that light bound up with the body.

This error seems to have come from two ideas of the ancients. Those who first began to explore the nature of things, unable to move beyond their imagination, believed that only physical objects existed. Therefore, they claimed that God was a physical being, which they viewed as the source of other physical objects. Since they believed that the soul was of the same nature as the body they considered the first principle, as mentioned in De Anima i, 2, it followed that the soul was of the same essence as God Himself. Based on this assumption, the Manichaeans, thinking that God was physical light, believed that the soul was a part of that light, connected to the body.

Then a further step in advance was made, and some surmised the existence of something incorporeal, not apart from the body, but the form of a body; so that Varro said, "God is a soul governing the world by movement and reason," as Augustine relates (De Civ. Dei vii, 6 [*The words as quoted are to be found iv. 31.]). So some supposed man's soul to be part of that one soul, as man is a part of the whole world; for they were unable to go so far as to understand the different degrees of spiritual substance, except according to the distinction of bodies.

Then a further step was taken, and some speculated about the existence of something non-physical, not separate from the body, but in the form of a body. Varro stated, "God is a soul that governs the world through movement and reason," as Augustine mentions (De Civ. Dei vii, 6 [*The words as quoted are to be found iv. 31.]). Some believed that the human soul is part of that one soul, just as man is part of the whole world; they couldn’t grasp the different levels of spiritual substance, except by distinguishing between bodies.

But, all these theories are impossible, as proved above (Q. 3, AA. 1, 8; and Q. 75, A. 1), wherefore it is evidently false that the soul is of the substance of God.

But all these theories are impossible, as proven above (Q. 3, AA. 1, 8; and Q. 75, A. 1), so it is clearly false that the soul is made of God's substance.

Reply Obj. 1: The term "breathe" is not to be taken in the material sense; but as regards the act of God, to breathe (spirare), is the same as to make a spirit. Moreover, in the material sense, man by breathing does not send forth anything of his own substance, but an extraneous thing.

Reply Obj. 1: The word "breathe" shouldn't be understood in a physical sense; instead, in relation to God's action, to breathe (spirare) means to create a spirit. Additionally, when it comes to the physical aspect, when a person breathes, they are not releasing anything from their own substance, but rather something external.

Reply Obj. 2: Although the soul is a simple form in its essence, yet it is not its own existence, but is a being by participation, as above explained (Q. 75, A. 5, ad 4). Therefore it is not a pure act like God.

Reply Obj. 2: Even though the soul is a simple form in its essence, it doesn't have its own existence; instead, it exists through participation, as explained above (Q. 75, A. 5, ad 4). So, it isn't a pure act like God.

Reply Obj. 3: That which differs, properly speaking, differs in something; wherefore we seek for difference where we find also resemblance. For this reason things which differ must in some way be compound; since they differ in something, and in something resemble each other. In this sense, although all that differ are diverse, yet all things that are diverse do not differ. For simple things are diverse; yet do not differ from one another by differences which enter into their composition. For instance, a man and a horse differ by the difference of rational and irrational; but we cannot say that these again differ by some further difference. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Things that are different, in a proper sense, differ in some way; therefore, we look for differences where we also see similarities. For this reason, things that are different must be composed of some elements, since they differ in one aspect and resemble each other in another. In this understanding, while everything that is different is diverse, not all diverse things are different. Simple things can be diverse but do not differ from one another based on differences that affect their composition. For example, a man and a horse differ in that one is rational and the other is irrational; however, we cannot claim that they differ based on another distinct difference.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 90, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 90, Art. 2]

Whether the Soul Was Produced by Creation?

Whether the Soul Was Produced by Creation?

Objection 1: It would seem that the soul was not produced by creation. For that which has in itself something material is produced from matter. But the soul is in part material, since it is not a pure act. Therefore the soul was made of matter; and hence it was not created.

Objection 1: It seems that the soul was not created. Whatever has something material in it is made from matter. But the soul is partly material, since it is not a pure act. Therefore, the soul was made from matter; and so it was not created.

Obj. 2: Further, every actuality of matter is educed from the potentiality of that matter; for since matter is in potentiality to act, any act pre-exists in matter potentially. But the soul is the act of corporeal matter, as is clear from its definition. Therefore the soul is educed from the potentiality of matter.

Obj. 2: Additionally, every reality of matter comes from the potential of that matter; since matter has the potential to act, any action is already potentially present in matter. However, the soul is the actualization of physical matter, as is evident from its definition. Therefore, the soul emerges from the potential of matter.

Obj. 3: Further, the soul is a form. Therefore, if the soul is created, all other forms also are created. Thus no forms would come into existence by generation; which is not true.

Obj. 3: Also, the soul is a form. So, if the soul is created, then all other forms are created too. This means no forms would exist through generation, which isn’t accurate.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:27): "God created man to His own image." But man is like to God in his soul. Therefore the soul was created.

On the contrary, It's written (Gen. 1:27): "God created man in His own image." But man is similar to God in his soul. Therefore, the soul was created.

I answer that, The rational soul can be made only by creation; which, however, is not true of other forms. The reason is because, since to be made is the way to existence, a thing must be made in such a way as is suitable to its mode of existence. Now that properly exists which itself has existence; as it were, subsisting in its own existence. Wherefore only substances are properly and truly called beings; whereas an accident has not existence, but something is (modified) by it, and so far is it called a being; for instance, whiteness is called a being, because by it something is white. Hence it is said Metaph. vii, Did. vi, 1 that an accident should be described as "of something rather than as something." The same is to be said of all non-subsistent forms. Therefore, properly speaking, it does not belong to any non-existing form to be made; but such are said to be made through the composite substances being made. On the other hand, the rational soul is a subsistent form, as above explained (Q. 75, A. 2). Wherefore it is competent to be and to be made. And since it cannot be made of pre-existing matter—whether corporeal, which would render it a corporeal being—or spiritual, which would involve the transmutation of one spiritual substance into another, we must conclude that it cannot exist except by creation.

I answer that, the rational soul can only be created; this isn't true for other forms. The reason is that since being made is how something comes into existence, it must be created in a way that fits its mode of existence. What truly exists is that which has its own existence; in other words, it subsists on its own. Therefore, only substances are accurately and truly called beings; whereas an accident doesn’t have its own existence, but something is (modified) by it, and thus it is referred to as a being; for example, whiteness is called a being because it makes something white. Hence it is said Metaph. vii, Did. vi, 1 that an accident should be described as "of something rather than as something." The same applies to all non-subsistent forms. Therefore, properly speaking, it does not belong to any non-existing form to be made; however, such forms are said to be made through the creation of composite substances. On the other hand, the rational soul is a subsistent form, as explained above (Q. 75, A. 2). Therefore, it can exist and can be made. And since it cannot be made from pre-existing matter—whether physical, which would make it a physical being—or spiritual, which would mean transforming one spiritual substance into another, we must conclude that it can only exist through creation.

Reply Obj. 1: The soul's simple essence is as the material element, while its participated existence is its formal element; which participated existence necessarily co-exists with the soul's essence, because existence naturally follows the form. The same reason holds if the soul is supposed to be composed of some spiritual matter, as some maintain; because the said matter is not in potentiality to another form, as neither is the matter of a celestial body; otherwise the soul would be corruptible. Wherefore the soul cannot in any way be made of pre-existent matter.

Reply Obj. 1: The soul's fundamental nature is like the material element, while its existence is its formal element; this existence must coexist with the soul's essence because existence naturally follows form. The same reasoning applies if we think the soul is made up of some kind of spiritual matter, as some believe; because this matter isn’t in a state of potentiality for another form, just like the matter of a celestial body; otherwise, the soul would be able to be corrupted. Therefore, the soul cannot be made from pre-existing matter in any way.

Reply Obj. 2: The production of act from the potentiality of matter is nothing else but something becoming actually that previously was in potentiality. But since the rational soul does not depend in its existence on corporeal matter, and is subsistent, and exceeds the capacity of corporeal matter, as we have seen (Q. 75, A. 2), it is not educed from the potentiality of matter.

Reply Obj. 2: The production of action from the potential of matter is simply something becoming actual that was previously in potential. However, since the rational soul does not rely on physical matter for its existence, and is independent, and surpasses the limits of physical matter, as we have seen (Q. 75, A. 2), it is not derived from the potentiality of matter.

Reply Obj. 3: As we have said, there is no comparison between the rational soul and other forms. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: As we mentioned, there’s no comparison between the rational soul and other forms.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 90, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 90, Art. 3]

Whether the Rational Soul Is Produced by God Immediately?

Whether the Rational Soul is Created Directly by God?

Objection 1: It would seem that the rational soul is not immediately made by God, but by the instrumentality of the angels. For spiritual things have more order than corporeal things. But inferior bodies are produced by means of the superior, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv). Therefore also the inferior spirits, who are the rational souls, are produced by means of the superior spirits, the angels.

Objection 1: It seems that the rational soul is not created directly by God, but through the agency of angels. Spiritual beings are more orderly than physical beings. Since lower bodies are created through higher ones, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv), it follows that the lower spirits, which are the rational souls, are created through the higher spirits, the angels.

Obj. 2: Further, the end corresponds to the beginning of things; for God is the beginning and end of all. Therefore the issue of things from their beginning corresponds to the forwarding of them to their end. But "inferior things are forwarded by the higher," as Dionysius says (Eccl. Hier. v); therefore also the inferior are produced into existence by the higher, and souls by angels.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the end matches the beginning of everything; since God is both the start and the finish of all things. Thus, the emergence of things from their beginning corresponds to their progression toward their end. However, "lower things are guided by the higher," as Dionysius states (Eccl. Hier. v); therefore, the lower things are also brought into existence by the higher, with souls being created by angels.

Obj. 3: Further, "perfect is that which can produce its like," as is stated Metaph. v. But spiritual substances are much more perfect than corporeal. Therefore, since bodies produce their like in their own species, much more are angels able to produce something specifically inferior to themselves; and such is the rational soul.

Obj. 3: Also, "the perfect is that which can create something similar," as stated in Metaph. v. However, spiritual beings are far more perfect than physical ones. Therefore, since physical bodies can produce their own kind, it's even more so that angels can create something specifically lower than themselves; and that would be the rational soul.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:7) that God Himself "breathed into the face of man the breath of life."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:7) that God Himself "breathed into the face of man the breath of life."

I answer that, Some have held that angels, acting by the power of God, produce rational souls. But this is quite impossible, and is against faith. For it has been proved that the rational soul cannot be produced except by creation. Now, God alone can create; for the first agent alone can act without presupposing the existence of anything; while the second cause always presupposes something derived from the first cause, as above explained (Q. 75, A. 3): and every agent, that presupposes something to its act, acts by making a change therein. Therefore everything else acts by producing a change, whereas God alone acts by creation. Since, therefore, the rational soul cannot be produced by a change in matter, it cannot be produced, save immediately by God.

I answer that, Some people have claimed that angels, using the power of God, can create rational souls. However, this is not possible and goes against faith. It has been established that a rational soul can only be created through direct creation. Only God has the ability to create, as the first agent can act without needing anything to already exist; whereas a second cause always relies on something that comes from the first cause, as explained above (Q. 75, A. 3). Every agent that relies on something to act creates a change in that thing. Therefore, everything else acts by bringing about a change, but only God acts through creation. Since the rational soul cannot come about by changing matter, it can only be created directly by God.

Thus the replies to the objections are clear. For that bodies produce their like or something inferior to themselves, and that the higher things lead forward the inferior—all these things are effected through a certain transmutation. _______________________

Thus the responses to the objections are clear. Bodies produce their own kind or something lesser than themselves, and higher entities advance the lower ones—all of this happens through a certain transformation.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 90, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 90, Art. 4]

Whether the Human Soul Was Produced Before the Body?

Whether the human soul was created before the body?

Objection 1: It would seem that the human soul was made before the body. For the work of creation preceded the work of distinction and adornment, as shown above (Q. 66, A. 1; Q. 70, A. 1). But the soul was made by creation; whereas the body was made at the end of the work of adornment. Therefore the soul of man was made before the body.

Objection 1: It seems that the human soul was created before the body. The act of creation came before the act of distinction and decoration, as mentioned above (Q. 66, A. 1; Q. 70, A. 1). The soul was created first, while the body was formed at the end of the decoration process. Therefore, the soul of man was created before the body.

Obj. 2: Further, the rational soul has more in common with the angels than with the brute animals. But angels were created before bodies, or at least, at the beginning with corporeal matter; whereas the body of man was formed on the sixth day, when also the animals were made. Therefore the soul of man was created before the body.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the rational soul has more in common with angels than with animals. However, angels were created before physical bodies, or at least at the beginning along with material bodies; whereas the human body was formed on the sixth day, the same day that animals were created. Therefore, the soul of man was created before the body.

Obj. 3: Further, the end is proportionate to the beginning. But in the end the soul outlasts the body. Therefore in the beginning it was created before the body.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the conclusion is in line with the beginning. However, in the end, the soul survives the body. Therefore, it was created before the body in the beginning.

On the contrary, The proper act is produced in its proper potentiality. Therefore since the soul is the proper act of the body, the soul was produced in the body.

On the contrary, The correct action happens within its rightful potential. Therefore, since the soul is the rightful action of the body, the soul was created within the body.

I answer that, Origen (Peri Archon i, 7,8) held that not only the soul of the first man, but also the souls of all men were created at the same time as the angels, before their bodies: because he thought that all spiritual substances, whether souls or angels, are equal in their natural condition, and differ only by merit; so that some of them—namely, the souls of men or of heavenly bodies—are united to bodies while others remain in their different orders entirely free from matter. Of this opinion we have already spoken (Q. 47, A. 2); and so we need say nothing about it here.

I answer that, Origen (Peri Archon i, 7,8) believed that not only the soul of the first human but also the souls of all humans were created at the same time as the angels, before their physical bodies. He thought that all spiritual beings, whether souls or angels, are equal in their natural state and differ only by their merits. Therefore, some of them—the souls of humans or celestial beings—are connected to bodies, while others remain entirely free from matter in their own distinct orders. We have already discussed this view (Q. 47, A. 2), so there's no need to go into it further here.

Augustine, however (Gen. ad lit. vii, 24), says that the soul of the first man was created at the same time as the angels, before the body, for another reason; because he supposes that the body of man, during the work of the six days, was produced, not actually, but only as to some "causal virtues"; which cannot be said of the soul, because neither was it made of any pre-existing corporeal or spiritual matter, nor could it be produced from any created virtue. Therefore it seems that the soul itself, during the work of the six days, when all things were made, was created, together with the angels; and that afterwards, by its own will, was joined to the service of the body. But he does not say this by way of assertion; as his words prove. For he says (Gen. ad lit. vii, 29): "We may believe, if neither Scripture nor reason forbid, that man was made on the sixth day, in the sense that his body was created as to its causal virtue in the elements of the world, but that the soul was already created."

Augustine, however (Gen. ad lit. vii, 24), states that the soul of the first man was created at the same time as the angels, before the body, for a different reason; because he believes that the body of man, during the six days of creation, was produced not in a complete sense but only concerning some "causal virtues"; which cannot be said about the soul, since it wasn’t made from any existing physical or spiritual matter, nor could it come from any created virtue. Therefore, it seems that the soul itself, during the six days when everything was created, was made alongside the angels; and then, by its own free will, it joined the service of the body. But he does not assert this definitively, as his words show. For he states (Gen. ad lit. vii, 29): "We may believe, if neither Scripture nor reason forbid, that man was made on the sixth day, in the sense that his body was created concerning its causal virtue in the elements of the world, but that the soul was already created."

Now this could be upheld by those who hold that the soul has of itself a complete species and nature, and that it is not united to the body as its form, but as its administrator. But if the soul is united to the body as its form, and is naturally a part of human nature, the above supposition is quite impossible. For it is clear that God made the first things in their perfect natural state, as their species required. Now the soul, as a part of human nature, has its natural perfection only as united to the body. Therefore it would have been unfitting for the soul to be created without the body.

Now, this could be supported by those who believe that the soul has its own complete essence and nature, and that it is connected to the body not as its form, but as its manager. However, if the soul is connected to the body as its form and is naturally a part of human nature, then the previous assumption doesn't hold. It's clear that God created the original things in their perfect natural state, according to their essence. The soul, being a part of human nature, achieves its natural perfection only when united with the body. Therefore, it wouldn't make sense for the soul to be created without the body.

Therefore, if we admit the opinion of Augustine about the work of the six days (Q. 74, A. 2), we may say that the human soul preceded in the work of the six days by a certain generic similitude, so far as it has intellectual nature in common with the angels; but was itself created at the same time as the body. According to the other saints, both the body and soul of the first man were produced in the work of the six days.

Therefore, if we accept Augustine’s view on the work of the six days (Q. 74, A. 2), we can say that the human soul existed in a certain generic resemblance before the work of the six days, as it shares intellectual nature with the angels; however, it was created at the same time as the body. According to other saints, both the body and soul of the first man were created during the work of the six days.

Reply Obj. 1: If the soul by its nature were a complete species, so that it might be created as to itself, this reason would prove that the soul was created by itself in the beginning. But as the soul is naturally the form of the body, it was necessarily created, not separately, but in the body.

Reply Obj. 1: If the soul were a complete type by its nature, meaning it could exist independently, then this argument would show that the soul created itself at the beginning. However, since the soul is naturally the form of the body, it had to be created, not separately, but within the body.

Reply Obj. 2: The same observation applies to the second objection. For if the soul had a species of itself it would have something still more in common with the angels. But, as the form of the body, it belongs to the animal genus, as a formal principle.

Reply Obj. 2: The same observation applies to the second objection. If the soul had its own unique kind, it would have even more in common with the angels. However, since it serves as the form of the body, it is part of the animal genus as a formal principle.

Reply Obj. 3: That the soul remains after the body, is due to a defect of the body, namely, death. Which defect was not due when the soul was first created. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The soul continues to exist after the body due to a flaw in the body, specifically death. This flaw was not present when the soul was originally created.

QUESTION 91
THE PRODUCTION OF THE FIRST MAN'S BODY (FOUR ARTICLES)

We have now to consider the production of the first man's body. Under this head there are four points of inquiry:

We now need to look at how the first man's body was created. In this regard, there are four points to explore:

(1) The matter from which it was produced;

(1) The material it came from;

(2) The author by whom it was produced;

(2) The author who created it;

(3) The disposition it received in its production;

(3) The way it was arranged during its production;

(4) The mode and order of its production. _______________________

(4) The way and sequence of its production. _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 91, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 91, Art. 1]

Whether the Body of the First Man Was Made of the Slime of the Earth?

Whether the Body of the First Man Was Made of the Slimy Earth?

Objection 1: It would seem that the body of the first man was not made of the slime of the earth. For it is an act of greater power to make something out of nothing than out of something; because "not being" is farther off from actual existence than "being in potentiality." But since man is the most honorable of God's lower creatures, it was fitting that in the production of man's body, the power of God should be most clearly shown. Therefore it should not have been made of the slime of the earth, but out of nothing.

Objection 1: It seems that the first man’s body wasn’t created from the earth’s slime. It takes more power to create something from nothing than from something else, because "not existing" is much further from actual existence than "potential existence." Since humans are the highest of God's earthly creatures, it makes sense that God’s power would be most clearly displayed in the creation of the human body. Therefore, it shouldn't have been made from the earth's slime, but rather from nothing.

Obj. 2: Further, the heavenly bodies are nobler than earthly bodies. But the human body has the greatest nobility; since it is perfected by the noblest form, which is the rational soul. Therefore it should not be made of an earthly body, but of a heavenly body.

Obj. 2: Moreover, heavenly bodies are more noble than earthly ones. But the human body holds the highest nobility because it is perfected by the noblest form, which is the rational soul. Therefore, it should not be made of an earthly body, but of a heavenly body.

Obj. 3: Further, fire and air are nobler than earth and water, as is clear from their subtlety. Therefore, since the human body is most noble, it should rather have been made of fire and air than of the slime of the earth.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, fire and air are more refined than earth and water, which is evident from their delicacy. Therefore, since the human body is the highest form of being, it should have been created from fire and air rather than from the mud of the earth.

Obj. 4: Further, the human body is composed of the four elements. Therefore it was not made of the slime of the earth, but of the four elements.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the human body is made up of the four elements. So, it wasn’t created from the earth's mud, but from the four elements.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:7): "God made man of the slime of the earth."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:7): "God made man from the dust of the ground."

I answer that, As God is perfect in His works, He bestowed perfection on all of them according to their capacity: "God's works are perfect" (Deut. 32:4). He Himself is simply perfect by the fact that "all things are pre-contained" in Him, not as component parts, but as "united in one simple whole," as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. v); in the same way as various effects pre-exist in their cause, according to its one virtue. This perfection is bestowed on the angels, inasmuch as all things which are produced by God in nature through various forms come under their knowledge. But on man this perfection is bestowed in an inferior way. For he does not possess a natural knowledge of all natural things, but is in a manner composed of all things, since he has in himself a rational soul of the genus of spiritual substances, and in likeness to the heavenly bodies he is removed from contraries by an equable temperament. As to the elements, he has them in their very substance, yet in such a way that the higher elements, fire and air, predominate in him by their power; for life is mostly found where there is heat, which is from fire; and where there is humor, which is of the air. But the inferior elements abound in man by their substance; otherwise the mingling of elements would not be evenly balanced, unless the inferior elements, which have the less power, predominated in quantity. Therefore the body of man is said to have been formed from the slime of the earth; because earth and water mingled are called slime, and for this reason man is called "a little world," because all creatures of the world are in a way to be found in him.

I answer that, As God is perfect in His creations, He granted perfection to all of them according to their capabilities: "God's works are perfect" (Deut. 32:4). He Himself is completely perfect because "all things are contained" in Him, not as separate parts, but as "united in one simple whole," as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. v); similar to how various effects exist in their cause, according to its single virtue. This perfection is given to angels because all things produced by God in nature through different forms fall under their knowledge. However, this perfection is given to humans in a lesser way. They do not have natural knowledge of all natural things, but are, in a sense, composed of everything, since they possess a rational soul that belongs to the category of spiritual substances. Like heavenly bodies, they are balanced by an even temperament, which keeps them free from extremes. Regarding the elements, they have them in their basic substance, yet in such a way that the higher elements, fire and air, dominate within them by their power; life is mainly found where there is heat from fire and moisture from air. The lower elements are abundant in humans because, without their presence, the mixture of elements would not be balanced, unless the lower elements, which have less power, were predominant in quantity. Therefore, it is said that the body of man was made from the dust of the earth; because when earth and water mix, they create slime, and for this reason, man is called "a little world," because all creatures of the world can in some way be found in him.

Reply Obj. 1: The power of the Divine Creator was manifested in man's body when its matter was produced by creation. But it was fitting that the human body should be made of the four elements, that man might have something in common with the inferior bodies, as being something between spiritual and corporeal substances.

Reply Obj. 1: The power of the Divine Creator was shown in the human body when its material was formed through creation. However, it made sense for the human body to be made of the four elements, so that humans would have something in common with lower forms of matter, as they exist between spiritual and physical substances.

Reply Obj. 2: Although the heavenly body is in itself nobler than the earthly body, yet for the acts of the rational soul the heavenly body is less adapted. For the rational soul receives the knowledge of truth in a certain way through the senses, the organs of which cannot be formed of a heavenly body which is impassible. Nor is it true that something of the fifth essence enters materially into the composition of the human body, as some say, who suppose that the soul is united to the body by means of light. For, first of all, what they say is false—that light is a body. Secondly, it is impossible for something to be taken from the fifth essence, or from a heavenly body, and to be mingled with the elements, since a heavenly body is impassible; wherefore it does not enter into the composition of mixed bodies, except as in the effects of its power.

Reply Obj. 2: While a heavenly body is more noble than an earthly body, it's less suitable for the actions of the rational soul. The rational soul gains knowledge of truth in a specific way through the senses, which cannot be made of a heavenly body that is impassable. It's also incorrect to claim that some fifth essence physically contributes to the human body, as some suggest, believing that the soul connects to the body through light. First, what they claim is wrong—light is not a body. Secondly, it's impossible for something to be taken from the fifth essence or from a heavenly body and mixed with the elements, since a heavenly body is impassable and does not contribute to the makeup of mixed bodies, except through its powers' effects.

Reply Obj. 3: If fire and air, whose action is of greater power, predominated also in quantity in the human body, they would entirely draw the rest into themselves, and there would be no equality in the mingling, such as is required in the composition of man, for the sense of touch, which is the foundation of the other senses. For the organ of any particular sense must not actually have the contraries of which that sense has the perception, but only potentially; either in such a way that it is entirely void of the whole genus of such contraries—thus, for instance, the pupil of the eye is without color, so as to be in potentiality as regards all colors; which is not possible in the organ of touch, since it is composed of the very elements, the qualities of which are perceived by that sense—or so that the organ is a medium between two contraries, as much needs be the case with regard to touch; for the medium is in potentiality to the extremes.

Reply Obj. 3: If fire and air, which are more powerful, also existed in greater amounts in the human body, they would completely absorb everything else, and there wouldn't be a balance in the mix, which is necessary for the makeup of a human, especially for the sense of touch, the basis of all other senses. The organ for a specific sense shouldn’t actually contain the opposites that the sense perceives, only potentially; either in a way that it lacks the entire category of those opposites—like how the pupil of the eye is colorless, allowing it to potentially perceive all colors—or in a way that the organ acts as a bridge between two opposites, which is essential for touch; because the medium holds potential for both extremes.

Reply Obj. 4: In the slime of the earth are earth, and water binding the earth together. Of the other elements, Scripture makes no mention, because they are less in quantity in the human body, as we have said; and because also in the account of the Creation no mention is made of fire and air, which are not perceived by senses of uncultured men such as those to whom the Scripture was immediately addressed. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: In the earth's mud are earth and water holding it all together. The other elements aren’t mentioned in Scripture because they are present in smaller amounts in the human body, as we have discussed; and also because fire and air are not mentioned in the Creation account, since they can't be perceived by the senses of unrefined people, like those to whom Scripture was originally directed.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 91, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 91, Art. 2]

Whether the Human Body Was Immediately Produced by God?

Whether the Human Body Was Immediately Created by God?

Objection 1: It would seem that the human body was not produced by God immediately. For Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4), that "corporeal things are disposed by God through the angels." But the human body was made of corporeal matter, as stated above (A. 1). Therefore it was produced by the instrumentality of the angels, and not immediately by God.

Objection 1: It seems that the human body was not created directly by God. Augustine states (De Trin. iii, 4) that "corporal things are organized by God through the angels." However, since the human body was made from physical matter, as mentioned earlier (A. 1), it must have been created through the angels, rather than directly by God.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever can be made by a created power, is not necessarily produced immediately by God. But the human body can be produced by the created power of a heavenly body; for even certain animals are produced from putrefaction by the active power of a heavenly body; and Albumazar says that man is not generated where heat and cold are extreme, but only in temperate regions. Therefore the human body was not necessarily produced immediately by God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, anything that can be created by a created power isn’t necessarily made directly by God. The human body can be generated by the natural power of a celestial body; for even some animals come from decay through the active force of a celestial body; and Albumazar notes that humans aren’t born where temperatures are extreme, but only in temperate areas. Thus, the human body wasn’t necessarily created directly by God.

Obj. 3: Further, nothing is made of corporeal matter except by some material change. But all corporeal change is caused by a movement of a heavenly body, which is the first movement. Therefore, since the human body was produced from corporeal matter, it seems that a heavenly body had part in its production.

Obj. 3: Also, nothing is created from physical matter without some kind of material change. However, all physical change is caused by the movement of a heavenly body, which is the initial movement. Therefore, since the human body came from physical matter, it seems that a heavenly body played a role in its creation.

Obj. 4: Further, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. vii, 24) that man's body was made during the work of the six days, according to the causal virtues which God inserted in corporeal creatures; and that afterwards it was actually produced. But what pre-exists in the corporeal creature by reason of causal virtues can be produced by some corporeal body. Therefore the human body was produced by some created power, and not immediately by God.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. vii, 24) that man's body was created during the six days of work, based on the causal qualities that God placed in physical beings; and that afterward, it was actually formed. However, what exists in a physical being due to causal qualities can be brought into existence by some physical body. Therefore, the human body was formed by some created power, and not directly by God.

On the contrary, It is written (Ecclus. 17:1): "God created man out of the earth."

On the contrary, it is written (Ecclus. 17:1): "God made man from the earth."

I answer that, The first formation of the human body could not be by the instrumentality of any created power, but was immediately from God. Some, indeed, supposed that the forms which are in corporeal matter are derived from some immaterial forms; but the Philosopher refutes this opinion (Metaph. vii), for the reason that forms cannot be made in themselves, but only in the composite, as we have explained (Q. 65, A. 4); and because the agent must be like its effect, it is not fitting that a pure form, not existing in matter, should produce a form which is in matter, and which form is only made by the fact that the composite is made. So a form which is in matter can only be the cause of another form that is in matter, according as composite is made by composite. Now God, though He is absolutely immaterial, can alone by His own power produce matter by creation: wherefore He alone can produce a form in matter, without the aid of any preceding material form. For this reason the angels cannot transform a body except by making use of something in the nature of a seed, as Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 19). Therefore as no pre-existing body has been formed whereby another body of the same species could be generated, the first human body was of necessity made immediately by God.

I respond that the first creation of the human body couldn't have happened through any created power, but was directly from God. Some people think that the forms in physical matter come from some immaterial forms; however, the Philosopher disproves this idea (Metaph. vii) because forms can't exist on their own, but only within the composite, as we explained (Q. 65, A. 4). Additionally, because the cause must resemble its effect, it wouldn't make sense for a pure form, which doesn't exist in matter, to create a form that does exist in matter, since that form is only produced through the creation of the composite. Thus, a form that exists in matter can only cause another form that also exists in matter, since composite comes from composite. Now, although God is completely immaterial, He alone has the power to create matter: therefore, He alone can produce a form in matter without relying on any prior material form. For this reason, angels can only change a body by using something resembling a seed, as Augustine mentions (De Trin. iii, 19). Therefore, since no existing body has been created from which another body of the same kind could arise, the first human body had to be created directly by God.

Reply Obj. 1: Although the angels are the ministers of God, as regards what He does in bodies, yet God does something in bodies beyond the angels' power, as, for instance, raising the dead, or giving sight to the blind: and by this power He formed the body of the first man from the slime of the earth. Nevertheless the angels could act as ministers in the formation of the body of the first man, in the same way as they will do at the last resurrection by collecting the dust.

Reply Obj. 1: Even though angels serve as God's messengers when it comes to what He does with physical bodies, God can do things with bodies that are beyond the angels' abilities, like raising the dead or giving sight to the blind. With this power, He created the first man's body from the dust of the earth. Still, the angels could assist as ministers in forming the first man's body, just as they will at the final resurrection by gathering the dust.

Reply Obj. 2: Perfect animals, produced from seed, cannot be made by the sole power of a heavenly body, as Avicenna imagined; although the power of a heavenly body may assist by co-operation in the work of natural generation, as the Philosopher says (Phys. ii, 26), "man and the sun beget man from matter." For this reason, a place of moderate temperature is required for the production of man and other animals. But the power of heavenly bodies suffices for the production of some imperfect animals from properly disposed matter: for it is clear that more conditions are required to produce a perfect than an imperfect thing.

Reply Obj. 2: Perfect animals, created from seed, can't be produced solely by the power of a heavenly body, as Avicenna thought; although the influence of a heavenly body can help with natural generation, as the Philosopher states (Phys. ii, 26), "man and the sun create man from matter." Therefore, a place with a moderate temperature is needed for the creation of humans and other animals. However, the influence of heavenly bodies is enough to produce some imperfect animals from properly prepared material: it’s evident that more conditions are needed to create a perfect being than an imperfect one.

Reply Obj. 3: The movement of the heavens causes natural changes; but not changes that surpass the order of nature, and are caused by the Divine Power alone, as for the dead to be raised to life, or the blind to see: like to which also is the making of man from the slime of the earth.

Reply Obj. 3: The movement of the heavens causes natural changes, but not changes that go beyond the natural order and are caused solely by Divine Power, such as bringing the dead back to life or giving sight to the blind. This is similar to creating man from the dust of the earth.

Reply Obj. 4: An effect may be said to pre-exist in the causal virtues of creatures, in two ways. First, both in active and in passive potentiality, so that not only can it be produced out of pre-existing matter, but also that some pre-existing creature can produce it. Secondly, in passive potentiality only; that is, that out of pre-existing matter it can be produced by God. In this sense, according to Augustine, the human body pre-existed in the previous work in their causal virtues. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: An effect can be said to pre-exist in the causal powers of creatures in two ways. First, in both active and passive potential, meaning that it can not only be created from pre-existing matter but also that some existing creature can bring it about. Second, in passive potential only; that is, it can be produced by God from pre-existing matter. In this sense, according to Augustine, the human body pre-existed in the previous creation through their causal powers.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 91, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 91, Art. 3]

Whether the Body of Man Was Given an Apt Disposition?

Whether the Human Body Was Designed with an Appropriate Structure?

Objection 1: It would seem that the body of man was not given an apt disposition. For since man is the noblest of animals, his body ought to be the best disposed in what is proper to an animal, that is, in sense and movement. But some animals have sharper senses and quicker movement than man; thus dogs have a keener smell, and birds a swifter flight. Therefore man's body was not aptly disposed.

Objection 1: It seems that the human body wasn’t designed well. Since humans are the most noble of animals, their bodies should be the best suited for what is typical of an animal, like sensing and movement. However, some animals have sharper senses and faster movements than humans; for instance, dogs have a better sense of smell, and birds can fly more quickly. Therefore, it could be argued that the human body was not designed properly.

Obj. 2: Further, perfect is what lacks nothing. But the human body lacks more than the body of other animals, for these are provided with covering and natural arms of defense, in which man is lacking. Therefore the human body is very imperfectly disposed.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, perfection is defined as lacking nothing. However, the human body lacks more than the bodies of other animals, which have natural coverings and built-in defenses, whereas humans do not. Therefore, the human body is arranged in a very imperfect way.

Obj. 3: Further, man is more distant from plants than he is from the brutes. But plants are erect in stature, while brutes are prone in stature. Therefore man should not be of erect stature.

Obj. 3: Also, humans are further away from plants than they are from animals. But plants stand upright, while animals are generally on all fours. So, humans shouldn't be upright.

On the contrary, It is written (Eccles. 7:30): "God made man right."

On the contrary, It is written (Eccles. 7:30): "God made man upright."

I answer that, All natural things were produced by the Divine art, and so may be called God's works of art. Now every artist intends to give to his work the best disposition; not absolutely the best, but the best as regards the proposed end; and even if this entails some defect, the artist cares not: thus, for instance, when man makes himself a saw for the purpose of cutting, he makes it of iron, which is suitable for the object in view; and he does not prefer to make it of glass, though this be a more beautiful material, because this very beauty would be an obstacle to the end he has in view. Therefore God gave to each natural being the best disposition; not absolutely so, but in the view of its proper end. This is what the Philosopher says (Phys. ii, 7): "And because it is better so, not absolutely, but for each one's substance."

I answer that, All natural things were created by Divine artistry, and can be called God's works of art. Every artist aims to give their work the best arrangement; not the absolute best, but the best in relation to the intended purpose. Even if this involves some flaws, the artist isn't concerned: for example, when a person makes a saw for cutting, they use iron, which is suitable for the task; they wouldn’t choose glass, even though it's a more beautiful material, because that beauty would hinder its purpose. Therefore, God provided each natural being with the best arrangement; not in an absolute sense, but in relation to its specific purpose. This aligns with what the Philosopher states (Phys. ii, 7): "And because it is better so, not absolutely, but for each one's substance."

Now the proximate end of the human body is the rational soul and its operations; since matter is for the sake of the form, and instruments are for the action of the agent. I say, therefore, that God fashioned the human body in that disposition which was best, as most suited to such a form and to such operations. If defect exists in the disposition of the human body, it is well to observe that such defect arises as a necessary result of the matter, from the conditions required in the body, in order to make it suitably proportioned to the soul and its operations.

Now, the main purpose of the human body is its rational soul and what it does; matter exists for the sake of form, and tools are meant for the actions of the agent. So, I assert that God created the human body in the best way possible, as it is most suitable for this form and its functions. If there are flaws in how the human body is arranged, it's important to note that these flaws result from the nature of matter, due to the conditions needed in the body to make it appropriately balanced with the soul and its activities.

Reply Obj. 1: The sense of touch, which is the foundation of the other senses, is more perfect in man than in any other animal; and for this reason man must have the most equable temperament of all animals. Moreover man excels all other animals in the interior sensitive powers, as is clear from what we have said above (Q. 78, A. 4). But by a kind of necessity, man falls short of the other animals in some of the exterior senses; thus of all animals he has the least sense of smell. For man needs the largest brain as compared to the body; both for his greater freedom of action in the interior powers required for the intellectual operations, as we have seen above (Q. 84, A. 7); and in order that the low temperature of the brain may modify the heat of the heart, which has to be considerable in man for him to be able to stand erect. So that size of the brain, by reason of its humidity, is an impediment to the smell, which requires dryness. In the same way, we may suggest a reason why some animals have a keener sight, and a more acute hearing than man; namely, on account of a hindrance to his senses arising necessarily from the perfect equability of his temperament. The same reason suffices to explain why some animals are more rapid in movement than man, since this excellence of speed is inconsistent with the equability of the human temperament.

Reply Obj. 1: The sense of touch, which forms the basis for the other senses, is more refined in humans than in any other animal; for this reason, humans must have the most balanced temperament among all animals. Additionally, humans outperform all other animals in terms of internal sensitive powers, as we've mentioned earlier (Q. 78, A. 4). However, due to certain necessities, humans fall short compared to other animals in some external senses; for example, of all animals, humans have the weakest sense of smell. This is because humans require a larger brain relative to their body, both for greater freedom of action related to the internal powers necessary for intellectual functions, as noted before (Q. 84, A. 7), and to ensure that the cooler temperature of the brain can regulate the heat of the heart, which needs to be significant for humans to maintain an upright posture. Therefore, the size of the brain, due to its humidity, acts as an obstacle to the sense of smell, which requires dryness. Similarly, we can propose a reason why some animals have better eyesight and sharper hearing than humans; this is due to a limitation on their senses that arises from the perfect balance of the human temperament. The same reasoning helps explain why some animals are faster in movement than humans, as this heightened speed contradicts the balance of the human temperament.

Reply Obj. 2: Horns and claws, which are the weapons of some animals, and toughness of hide and quantity of hair or feathers, which are the clothing of animals, are signs of an abundance of the earthly element; which does not agree with the equability and softness of the human temperament. Therefore such things do not suit the nature of man. Instead of these, he has reason and hands whereby he can make himself arms and clothes, and other necessaries of life, of infinite variety. Wherefore the hand is called by Aristotle (De Anima iii, 8), "the organ of organs." Moreover this was more becoming to the rational nature, which is capable of conceiving an infinite number of things, so as to make for itself an infinite number of instruments.

Reply Obj. 2: Horns and claws, which some animals use as weapons, along with tough skin and the amount of hair or feathers that serve as their coverings, indicate a surplus of earthly elements; these are not in line with the balance and gentleness of human nature. So, these features are not fitting for humans. Instead, humans have reason and hands that allow them to create their own weapons, clothing, and other necessities of life in countless varieties. That's why Aristotle refers to the hand as "the organ of organs" (De Anima iii, 8). Furthermore, this aligns more appropriately with a rational nature, which can conceptualize an infinite number of things and, in turn, create countless tools.

Reply Obj. 3: An upright stature was becoming to man for four reasons. First, because the senses are given to man, not only for the purpose of procuring the necessaries of life, which they are bestowed on other animals, but also for the purpose of knowledge. Hence, whereas the other animals take delight in the objects of the senses only as ordered to food and sex, man alone takes pleasure in the beauty of sensible objects for its own sake. Therefore, as the senses are situated chiefly in the face, other animals have the face turned to the ground, as it were for the purpose of seeking food and procuring a livelihood; whereas man has his face erect, in order that by the senses, and chiefly by sight, which is more subtle and penetrates further into the differences of things, he may freely survey the sensible objects around him, both heavenly and earthly, so as to gather intelligible truth from all things. Secondly, for the greater freedom of the acts of the interior powers; the brain, wherein these actions are, in a way, performed, not being low down, but lifted up above other parts of the body. Thirdly, because if man's stature were prone to the ground he would need to use his hands as fore-feet; and thus their utility for other purposes would cease. Fourthly, because if man's stature were prone to the ground, and he used his hands as fore-feet, he would be obliged to take hold of his food with his mouth. Thus he would have a protruding mouth, with thick and hard lips, and also a hard tongue, so as to keep it from being hurt by exterior things; as we see in other animals. Moreover, such an attitude would quite hinder speech, which is reason's proper operation.

Reply Obj. 3: An upright posture suits humans for four reasons. First, because our senses are given to us not only to obtain the necessities of life, which they also serve for other animals, but also for the sake of knowledge. While other animals enjoy sensory experiences mainly for food and reproduction, humans take pleasure in the beauty of sensory objects for their own sake. Because the senses are primarily located in the face, other animals keep their faces oriented downwards to search for food and survive, whereas humans have an upright face, allowing them to explore the world around them—both heavenly and earthly—through their senses, especially sight, which is more refined and capable of discerning details. This helps them gather meaningful truths from their surroundings. Secondly, being upright allows for greater freedom in the actions of the mind; the brain, where these actions take place, is elevated rather than positioned low in the body. Thirdly, if humans were bent low, they would have to rely on their hands as forelimbs, making them less useful for other tasks. Fourthly, if humans were inclined toward the ground and used their hands as forelimbs, they would have to grasp food with their mouths, resulting in a protruding mouth, thick and tough lips, and a hard tongue to protect it from injury, like seen in other animals. Also, such a posture would severely impede speech, which is a core function of reason.

Nevertheless, though of erect stature, man is far above plants. For man's superior part, his head, is turned towards the superior part of the world, and his inferior part is turned towards the inferior world; and therefore he is perfectly disposed as to the general situation of his body. Plants have the superior part turned towards the lower world, since their roots correspond to the mouth; and their inferior part towards the upper world. But brute animals have a middle disposition, for the superior part of the animal is that by which it takes food, and the inferior part that by which it rids itself of the surplus. _______________________

Nevertheless, even though humans are tall, they are much higher in status than plants. This is because the highest part of a human, the head, is oriented towards the upper part of the world, while the lower part is directed towards the lower world; thus, the overall position of their body is perfectly balanced. Plants, on the other hand, have their upper part facing downwards towards the ground, as their roots are equivalent to their mouths, while their lower part is directed upwards towards the sky. In contrast, animals have a middle position: the upper part is what they use to eat, and the lower part is for eliminating waste.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 91, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 91, Art. 4]

Whether the Production of the Human Body Is Fittingly Described in
Scripture?

Whether the Creation of the Human Body is Appropriately Described in
Scripture?

Objection 1: It would seem that the production of the human body is not fittingly described in Scripture. For, as the human body was made by God, so also were the other works of the six days. But in the other works it is written, "God said; Let it be made, and it was made." Therefore the same should have been said of man.

Objection 1: It seems that the creation of the human body is not accurately described in Scripture. Just as the human body was created by God, so were the other works of the six days. However, in the account of the other works, it is stated, "God said, 'Let it be made,' and it was made." Therefore, the same should have been said about man.

Obj. 2: Further, the human body was made by God immediately, as explained above (A. 2). Therefore it was not fittingly said, "Let us make man."

Obj. 2: Also, the human body was created by God directly, as explained above (A. 2). So it wasn't appropriate to say, "Let us make man."

Obj. 3: Further, the form of the human body is the soul itself which is the breath of life. Therefore, having said, "God made man of the slime of the earth," he should not have added: "And He breathed into him the breath of life."

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the shape of the human body is the soul itself, which is the breath of life. Therefore, when it is said, "God made man from the dust of the earth," it should not have been added: "And He breathed into him the breath of life."

Obj. 4: Further, the soul, which is the breath of life, is in the whole body, and chiefly in the heart. Therefore it was not fittingly said: "He breathed into his face the breath of life."

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the soul, which is the breath of life, exists throughout the entire body, primarily in the heart. Therefore, it was not accurately stated: "He breathed into his face the breath of life."

Obj. 5: Further, the male and female sex belong to the body, while the image of God belongs to the soul. But the soul, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. vii, 24), was made before the body. Therefore having said: "To His image He made them," he should not have added, "male and female He created them."

Obj. 5: Additionally, male and female are aspects of the body, while the image of God pertains to the soul. However, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. vii, 24), the soul was created before the body. Therefore, when he stated, "To His image He made them," he shouldn't have added, "male and female He created them."

On the contrary, Is the authority of Scripture.

On the contrary, it is the authority of Scripture.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine observes (Gen. ad lit. vi, 12), man surpasses other things, not in the fact that God Himself made man, as though He did not make other things; since it is written (Ps. 101:26), "The work of Thy hands is the heaven," and elsewhere (Ps. 94:5), "His hands laid down the dry land"; but in this, that man is made to God's image. Yet in describing man's production, Scripture uses a special way of speaking, to show that other things were made for man's sake. For we are accustomed to do with more deliberation and care what we have chiefly in mind.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine points out (Gen. ad lit. vi, 12), humans are superior to other creations, not because God made humans and not other things; it's written (Ps. 101:26), "The work of Your hands is the heavens," and again (Ps. 94:5), "His hands formed the dry land"; rather, it's because humans are created in God's image. However, when Scripture talks about the creation of humans, it uses special language to indicate that other things were created for the benefit of humans. We tend to engage with more thought and care regarding what we prioritize.

Reply Obj. 2: We must not imagine that when God said "Let us make
man," He spoke to the angels, as some were perverse enough to think.
But by these words is signified the plurality of the Divine Person,
Whose image is more clearly expressed in man.

Reply Obj. 2: We shouldn't think that when God said "Let us make
man," He was talking to the angels, as some misguided people believe.
Instead, these words indicate the plurality of the Divine Person,
whose image is more clearly reflected in man.

Reply Obj. 3: Some have thought that man's body was formed first in priority of time, and that afterwards the soul was infused into the formed body. But it is inconsistent with the perfection of the production of things, that God should have made either the body without the soul, or the soul without the body, since each is a part of human nature. This is especially unfitting as regards the body, for the body depends on the soul, and not the soul on the body.

Reply Obj. 3: Some people believe that the body was created first in time, and then the soul was added to it. However, this idea doesn’t align with the perfection of how things are made, as it's not appropriate for God to create either the body without the soul or the soul without the body, since both are essential components of human nature. This is especially true for the body, which relies on the soul, rather than the soul relying on the body.

To remove the difficulty some have said that the words, "God made man," must be understood of the production of the body with the soul; and that the subsequent words, "and He breathed into his face the breath of life," should be understood of the Holy Ghost; as the Lord breathed on His Apostles, saying, "Receive ye the Holy Ghost" (John 20:22). But this explanation, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiii, 24), is excluded by the very words of Scripture. For we read farther on, "And man was made a living soul"; which words the Apostle (1 Cor. 15:45) refers not to spiritual life, but to animal life. Therefore, by breath of life we must understand the soul, so that the words, "He breathed into his face the breath of life," are a sort of exposition of what goes before; for the soul is the form of the body.

To clear up the confusion, some have suggested that the phrase "God made man" refers to the creation of the body alongside the soul, and that the following phrase, "and He breathed into his face the breath of life," should be interpreted as the Holy Spirit; similar to when the Lord breathed on His Apostles, saying, "Receive the Holy Spirit" (John 20:22). However, as Augustine points out (De Civ. Dei xiii, 24), this interpretation is contradicted by the text of Scripture itself. For it is written later, "And man was made a living soul"; and the Apostle (1 Cor. 15:45) discusses this in relation to animal life rather than spiritual life. Therefore, when we talk about the breath of life, we should understand it as the soul, meaning that the phrase "He breathed into his face the breath of life" serves as an explanation of what was stated before; since the soul is the form of the body.

Reply Obj. 4: Since vital operations are more clearly seen in man's face, on account of the senses which are there expressed; therefore Scripture says that the breath of life was breathed into man's face.

Reply Obj. 4: Since vital functions are more obvious in a person's face, because the senses are expressed there; that's why Scripture says that the breath of life was breathed into man's face.

Reply Obj. 5: According to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 34), the works of the six days were done all at one time; wherefore according to him man's soul, which he holds to have been made with the angels, was not made before the sixth day; but on the sixth day both the soul of the first man was made actually, and his body in its causal elements. But other doctors hold that on the sixth day both body and soul of man were actually made. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: According to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iv, 34), the works of the six days were done all at once; therefore, according to him, man's soul, which he believes was created alongside the angels, was not created before the sixth day; but on the sixth day, both the soul of the first man was actually created, and his body in its basic elements. However, other scholars argue that on the sixth day, both the body and soul of man were actually created.

QUESTION 92

THE PRODUCTION OF THE WOMAN
(In Four Articles)

THE PRODUCTION OF THE WOMAN
(In Four Articles)

We must next consider the production of the woman. Under this head there are four points of inquiry:

We must next look at the role of women. In this regard, there are four points to explore:

(1) Whether the woman should have been made in that first production of things?

(1) Should the woman have been created in that first production of things?

(2) Whether the woman should have been made from man?

(2) Should the woman have been created from man?

(3) Whether of man's rib?

Did it come from man's rib?

(4) Whether the woman was made immediately by God? _______________________

(4) Was the woman created directly by God? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 92, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 92, Art. 1]

Whether the Woman Should Have Been Made in the First Production of
Things?

Whether the Woman Should Have Been Created in the First Production of
Things?

Objection 1: It would seem that the woman should not have been made in the first production of things. For the Philosopher says (De Gener. ii, 3), that "the female is a misbegotten male." But nothing misbegotten or defective should have been in the first production of things. Therefore woman should not have been made at that first production.

Objection 1: It seems that women shouldn’t have been created in the first place. The Philosopher states (De Gener. ii, 3) that "the female is a failed male." But nothing flawed or defective should have existed in the initial creation. Therefore, women shouldn’t have been made in that first creation.

Obj. 2: Further, subjection and limitation were a result of sin, for to the woman was it said after sin (Gen. 3:16): "Thou shalt be under the man's power"; and Gregory says that, "Where there is no sin, there is no inequality." But woman is naturally of less strength and dignity than man; "for the agent is always more honorable than the patient," as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 16). Therefore woman should not have been made in the first production of things before sin.

Obj. 2: Moreover, subjection and limitation came as a consequence of sin, because it was said to the woman after sin (Gen. 3:16): "You will be under the man's authority"; and Gregory states that, "Where there is no sin, there is no inequality." However, woman is naturally less strong and less dignified than man; "for the one who acts is always more honorable than the one who is acted upon," as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 16). Therefore, woman should not have been created in the initial creation of things before sin.

Obj. 3: Further, occasions of sin should be cut off. But God foresaw that the woman would be an occasion of sin to man. Therefore He should not have made woman.

Obj. 3: Moreover, situations that lead to sin should be eliminated. But God knew that the woman would be a source of temptation for man. Therefore, He should not have created woman.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:18): "It is not good for man to be alone; let us make him a helper like to himself."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:18): "It’s not good for man to be alone; let’s make him a helper just like him."

I answer that, It was necessary for woman to be made, as the Scripture says, as a helper to man; not, indeed, as a helpmate in other works, as some say, since man can be more efficiently helped by another man in other works; but as a helper in the work of generation. This can be made clear if we observe the mode of generation carried out in various living things. Some living things do not possess in themselves the power of generation, but are generated by some other specific agent, such as some plants and animals by the influence of the heavenly bodies, from some fitting matter and not from seed: others possess the active and passive generative power together; as we see in plants which are generated from seed; for the noblest vital function in plants is generation. Wherefore we observe that in these the active power of generation invariably accompanies the passive power. Among perfect animals the active power of generation belongs to the male sex, and the passive power to the female. And as among animals there is a vital operation nobler than generation, to which their life is principally directed; therefore the male sex is not found in continual union with the female in perfect animals, but only at the time of coition; so that we may consider that by this means the male and female are one, as in plants they are always united; although in some cases one of them preponderates, and in some the other. But man is yet further ordered to a still nobler vital action, and that is intellectual operation. Therefore there was greater reason for the distinction of these two forces in man; so that the female should be produced separately from the male; although they are carnally united for generation. Therefore directly after the formation of woman, it was said: "And they shall be two in one flesh" (Gen. 2:24).

I answer that, it was necessary for woman to be created, as the Scripture says, as a helper to man; not, in fact, as a partner in other tasks, as some suggest, since man can be more effectively helped by another man in those tasks; but as a helper in the process of reproduction. This can be understood if we look at how reproduction happens in different living things. Some living things don’t have the ability to reproduce on their own but are created by other specific agents, like some plants and animals that are influenced by celestial bodies, using suitable materials rather than seeds. Others have both active and passive reproductive powers; as seen in plants that reproduce from seeds; since the most essential life function in plants is reproduction. Therefore, we see that in these cases, the active power of reproduction always accompanies the passive power. Among perfect animals, the active reproduction power belongs to the male, and the passive power to the female. And since there is a life function in animals that is more noble than reproduction, to which their life is primarily directed; the male sex is not found in constant association with the female in perfect animals, but only during mating; so we can think that through this means the male and female become one, as they are always united in plants; although sometimes one may be more dominant than the other. But humans are directed towards an even more noble life function, which is intellectual activity. Therefore, there was a stronger reason for distinguishing these two forces in humans; so that the female should be created separately from the male; even though they come together physically for reproduction. Thus, right after woman was formed, it was stated: "And they shall be two in one flesh" (Gen. 2:24).

Reply Obj. 1: As regards the individual nature, woman is defective and misbegotten, for the active force in the male seed tends to the production of a perfect likeness in the masculine sex; while the production of woman comes from defect in the active force or from some material indisposition, or even from some external influence; such as that of a south wind, which is moist, as the Philosopher observes (De Gener. Animal. iv, 2). On the other hand, as regards human nature in general, woman is not misbegotten, but is included in nature's intention as directed to the work of generation. Now the general intention of nature depends on God, Who is the universal Author of nature. Therefore, in producing nature, God formed not only the male but also the female.

Reply Obj. 1: When it comes to individual nature, woman is considered flawed and not fully formed, because the active force in male sperm aims to create a perfect representation in the male gender. In contrast, the creation of women results from a deficiency in that active force, or from some physical limitation, or even from external factors like a moist south wind, as noted by the Philosopher (De Gener. Animal. iv, 2). However, in terms of human nature as a whole, woman is not seen as flawed; she is part of nature's plan for reproduction. The overall intention of nature comes from God, who is the universal Creator of nature. Thus, when creating nature, God made not just males but also females.

Reply Obj. 2: Subjection is twofold. One is servile, by virtue of which a superior makes use of a subject for his own benefit; and this kind of subjection began after sin. There is another kind of subjection which is called economic or civil, whereby the superior makes use of his subjects for their own benefit and good; and this kind of subjection existed even before sin. For good order would have been wanting in the human family if some were not governed by others wiser than themselves. So by such a kind of subjection woman is naturally subject to man, because in man the discretion of reason predominates. Nor is inequality among men excluded by the state of innocence, as we shall prove (Q. 96, A. 3).

Reply Obj. 2: There are two types of subjection. One is servile, where a superior uses a subordinate for their own advantage; this kind of subjection started after sin. The other type is called economic or civil, where a superior uses their subordinates for their benefit and well-being; this type existed even before sin. Good order in human society would be lacking if some weren't governed by those wiser than themselves. So, in this type of subjection, a woman is naturally subject to a man because a man's rational judgment is more prominent. Additionally, inequality among men isn't excluded even in a state of innocence, as we will demonstrate (Q. 96, A. 3).

Reply Obj. 3: If God had deprived the world of all those things which proved an occasion of sin, the universe would have been imperfect. Nor was it fitting for the common good to be destroyed in order that individual evil might be avoided; especially as God is so powerful that He can direct any evil to a good end. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: If God had taken away everything that led to sin, the world would be imperfect. It also wouldn’t be right to sacrifice the common good just to prevent individual wrongdoing, especially since God is so powerful that He can turn any evil into a good outcome.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 92, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 92, Art. 2]

Whether Woman Should Have Been Made from Man?

Whether Woman Should Have Been Made from Man?

Objection 1: It would seem that woman should not have been made from man. For sex belongs both to man and animals. But in the other animals the female was not made from the male. Therefore neither should it have been so with man.

Objection 1: It seems that woman should not have been created from man. After all, sex is something that applies to both humans and animals. However, in other animals, the female was not created from the male. So, it shouldn't have been the same for humans either.

Obj. 2: Further, things of the same species are of the same matter. But male and female are of the same species. Therefore, as man was made of the slime of the earth, so woman should have been made of the same, and not from man.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, things of the same kind share the same material. But male and female belong to the same kind. Therefore, just as man was made from the earth's clay, woman should have been made from the same, and not from man.

Obj. 3: Further, woman was made to be a helpmate to man in the work of generation. But close relationship makes a person unfit for that office; hence near relations are debarred from intermarriage, as is written (Lev. 18:6). Therefore woman should not have been made from man.

Obj. 3: Additionally, women were created to be a companion to men in the process of reproduction. However, a close relationship makes someone unsuitable for that role; therefore, close relatives are prohibited from marrying each other, as stated (Lev. 18:6). Thus, women should not have been made from men.

On the contrary, It is written (Ecclus. 17:5): "He created of him," that is, out of man, "a helpmate like to himself," that is, woman.

On the contrary, It is written (Ecclus. 17:5): "He created from him," that is, from man, "a helper similar to himself," that is, woman.

I answer that, When all things were first formed, it was more suitable for the woman to be made from man than (for the female to be from the male) in other animals. First, in order thus to give the first man a certain dignity consisting in this, that as God is the principle of the whole universe, so the first man, in likeness to God, was the principle of the whole human race. Wherefore Paul says that "God made the whole human race from one" (Acts 17:26). Secondly, that man might love woman all the more, and cleave to her more closely, knowing her to be fashioned from himself. Hence it is written (Gen. 2:23, 24): "She was taken out of man, wherefore a man shall leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife." This was most necessary as regards the human race, in which the male and female live together for life; which is not the case with other animals. Thirdly, because, as the Philosopher says (Ethic. viii, 12), the human male and female are united, not only for generation, as with other animals, but also for the purpose of domestic life, in which each has his or her particular duty, and in which the man is the head of the woman. Wherefore it was suitable for the woman to be made out of man, as out of her principle. Fourthly, there is a sacramental reason for this. For by this is signified that the Church takes her origin from Christ. Wherefore the Apostle says (Eph. 5:32): "This is a great sacrament; but I speak in Christ and in the Church."

I answer that, When everything was first created, it was more fitting for woman to be made from man than for female creatures to come from males in other animals. First, this gave the first man a certain dignity, because just as God is the source of the entire universe, so the first man, in resembling God, was the source of all humanity. Therefore, Paul states that "God made the whole human race from one" (Acts 17:26). Secondly, it allowed man to love woman more deeply and bond with her more closely, knowing she was made from himself. That's why it is written (Gen. 2:23, 24): "She was taken out of man; therefore, a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife." This was especially important for humanity, where males and females live together for life, unlike some other animals. Thirdly, as the Philosopher says (Ethic. viii, 12), human males and females are united not just for reproduction, as seen in other animals, but also for domestic life, where each has specific roles, and the man is the head of the woman. Thus, it was appropriate for woman to be created from man, as from her source. Lastly, there is a sacramental aspect to this. It signifies that the Church originates from Christ. Therefore, the Apostle says (Eph. 5:32): "This is a great sacrament; but I speak in Christ and in the Church."

Reply Obj. 1 is clear from the foregoing.

Reply Obj. 1 is clear from the previous discussion.

Reply Obj. 2: Matter is that from which something is made. Now created nature has a determinate principle; and since it is determined to one thing, it has also a determinate mode of proceeding. Wherefore from determinate matter it produces something in a determinate species. On the other hand, the Divine Power, being infinite, can produce things of the same species out of any matter, such as a man from the slime of the earth, and a woman from out of man.

Reply Obj. 2: Matter is what something is made of. Now, created nature has a specific principle; and since it is fixed on one thing, it also has a specific way of operating. Therefore, from defined matter, it produces something in a specific kind. On the other hand, Divine Power, being limitless, can create things of the same kind from any matter, like a man from the earth's slime, and a woman from a man.

Reply Obj. 3: A certain affinity arises from natural generation, and this is an impediment to matrimony. Woman, however, was not produced from man by natural generation, but by the Divine Power alone. Wherefore Eve is not called the daughter of Adam; and so this argument does not prove. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: A certain connection comes from natural generation, and this is a barrier to marriage. However, woman was not created from man through natural generation, but by Divine Power alone. Therefore, Eve is not referred to as the daughter of Adam; so this argument does not hold.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 92, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 92, Art. 3]

Whether the Woman Was Fittingly Made from the Rib of Man?

Whether the Woman Was Properly Made from the Rib of Man?

Objection 1: It would seem that the woman should not have been formed from the rib of man. For the rib was much smaller than the woman's body. Now from a smaller thing a larger thing can be made only—either by addition (and then the woman ought to have been described as made out of that which was added, rather than out of the rib itself)—or by rarefaction, because, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. x): "A body cannot increase in bulk except by rarefaction." But the woman's body is not more rarefied than man's—at least, not in the proportion of a rib to Eve's body. Therefore Eve was not formed from a rib of Adam.

Objection 1: It seems that the woman should not have been created from the rib of man. The rib is much smaller than the woman's body. A larger thing can only be made from a smaller one either by adding onto it (in which case the woman should be described as made from what was added, rather than from the rib itself) or by rarefaction, because, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. x): "A body cannot increase in size except by rarefaction." However, the woman's body is not more rarefied than the man's—at least, not in the proportion of a rib to Eve's body. Therefore, Eve was not formed from Adam's rib.

Obj. 2: Further, in those things which were first created there was nothing superfluous. Therefore a rib of Adam belonged to the integrity of his body. So, if a rib was removed, his body remained imperfect; which is unreasonable to suppose.

Obj. 2: Moreover, in the things that were created first, nothing was unnecessary. Therefore, a rib from Adam was essential to the completeness of his body. So, if a rib was taken away, his body would be incomplete, which is unreasonable to believe.

Obj. 3: Further, a rib cannot be removed from man without pain. But there was no pain before sin. Therefore it was not right for a rib to be taken from the man, that Eve might be made from it.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, you can't take a rib from a man without causing pain. However, there was no pain before sin. So, it wasn't right to take a rib from the man to create Eve from it.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:22): "God built the rib, which He took from Adam, into a woman."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:22): "God made the rib, which He took from Adam, into a woman."

I answer that, It was right for the woman to be made from a rib of man. First, to signify the social union of man and woman, for the woman should neither "use authority over man," and so she was not made from his head; nor was it right for her to be subject to man's contempt as his slave, and so she was not made from his feet. Secondly, for the sacramental signification; for from the side of Christ sleeping on the Cross the Sacraments flowed—namely, blood and water—on which the Church was established.

I answer that, it was appropriate for the woman to be created from a rib of man. First, to represent the social bond between man and woman, since the woman should not "exercise authority over man," so she was not made from his head; nor should she be made to endure man's disrespect as his servant, which is why she was not made from his feet. Secondly, for the symbolic meaning; from the side of Christ while he was sleeping on the Cross, the Sacraments flowed—namely, blood and water—through which the Church was founded.

Reply Obj. 1: Some say that the woman's body was formed by a material increase, without anything being added; in the same way as our Lord multiplied the five loaves. But this is quite impossible. For such an increase of matter would either be by a change of the very substance of the matter itself, or by a change of its dimensions. Not by change of the substance of the matter, both because matter, considered in itself, is quite unchangeable, since it has a potential existence, and has nothing but the nature of a subject, and because quantity and size are extraneous to the essence of matter itself. Wherefore multiplication of matter is quite unintelligible, as long as the matter itself remains the same without anything added to it; unless it receives greater dimensions. This implies rarefaction, which is for the same matter to receive greater dimensions, as the Philosopher says (Phys. iv). To say, therefore, that the same matter is enlarged, without being rarefied, is to combine contradictories—viz. the definition with the absence of the thing defined.

Reply Obj. 1: Some argue that the woman's body was formed through a material increase, without anything being added; similarly to how our Lord multiplied the five loaves. However, this is completely impossible. Such an increase in matter would either involve a change in the very substance of that matter or a change in its dimensions. It can't be a change in the substance of the matter itself because matter, by its nature, is unchangeable since it has potential existence and is merely a subject, and because quantity and size are not fundamental to the essence of matter itself. Therefore, the multiplication of matter is entirely incomprehensible as long as the matter itself stays the same without anything being added to it, unless it expands in size. This implies rarefaction, which means that the same matter expands to take up more space, as the Philosopher states (Phys. iv). Thus, to claim that the same matter can grow larger without being rarefied is to mix contradictory ideas—namely, the definition with the absence of the thing being defined.

Wherefore, as no rarefaction is apparent in such multiplication of matter, we must admit an addition of matter: either by creation, or which is more probable, by conversion. Hence Augustine says (Tract. xxiv in Joan.) that "Christ filled five thousand men with five loaves, in the same way as from a few seeds He produces the harvest of corn"—that is, by transformation of the nourishment. Nevertheless, we say that the crowds were fed with five loaves, or that woman was made from the rib, because an addition was made to the already existing matter of the loaves and of the rib.

Since there's no apparent thinning out of matter with this multiplication, we must acknowledge an increase in matter: either through creation or, more likely, through transformation. Augustine mentions (Tract. xxiv in Joan.) that "Christ fed five thousand men with five loaves, just as He produces the harvest of corn from a few seeds"—that is, through the transformation of the food. Nonetheless, we say that the crowds were fed with five loaves, or that woman was made from the rib, because additional matter was added to the already existing matter of the loaves and the rib.

Reply Obj. 2: The rib belonged to the integral perfection of Adam, not as an individual, but as the principle of the human race; just as the semen belongs to the perfection of the begetter, and is released by a natural and pleasurable operation. Much more, therefore, was it possible that by the Divine power the body of the woman should be produced from the man's rib.

Reply Obj. 2: The rib was part of Adam's complete perfection, not just as a person, but as the foundation of humanity; similar to how semen is a part of the perfection of the father and is released through a natural and enjoyable process. Therefore, it was even more possible for God to create the woman's body from the man's rib.

From this it is clear how to answer the third objection. _______________________

From this, it's clear how to respond to the third objection.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 92, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 92, Art. 4]

Whether the Woman Was Formed Immediately by God?

Whether the Woman Was Created Directly by God?

Objection 1: It would seem that the woman was not formed immediately by God. For no individual is produced immediately by God from another individual alike in species. But the woman was made from a man who is of the same species. Therefore she was not made immediately by God.

Objection 1: It seems that the woman was not created directly by God. No individual is produced directly by God from another individual of the same species. However, the woman was made from a man who is of the same species. Therefore, she was not made directly by God.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine (De Trin. iii, 4) says that corporeal things are governed by God through the angels. But the woman's body was formed from corporeal matter. Therefore it was made through the ministry of the angels, and not immediately by God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine (De Trin. iii, 4) states that physical things are overseen by God through the angels. However, the woman's body was created from physical matter. Therefore, it was made through the work of the angels, not directly by God.

Obj. 3: Further, those things which pre-exist in creatures as to their causal virtues are produced by the power of some creature, and not immediately by God. But the woman's body was produced in its causal virtues among the first created works, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ix, 15). Therefore it was not produced immediately by God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the qualities that exist in creatures due to their inherent powers are brought about by the abilities of some creature, not directly by God. However, the woman's body was formed with its essential qualities among the first created things, as Augustine notes (Gen. ad lit. ix, 15). Therefore, it was not created directly by God.

On the contrary, Augustine says, in the same work: "God alone, to Whom all nature owes its existence, could form or build up the woman from the man's rib."

On the contrary, Augustine says, in the same work: "Only God, to whom all of nature owes its existence, could create or shape woman from man's rib."

I answer that, As was said above (A. 2, ad 2), the natural generation of every species is from some determinate matter. Now the matter whence man is naturally begotten is the human semen of man or woman. Wherefore from any other matter an individual of the human species cannot naturally be generated. Now God alone, the Author of nature, can produce an effect into existence outside the ordinary course of nature. Therefore God alone could produce either a man from the slime of the earth, or a woman from the rib of man.

I respond that, as mentioned earlier (A. 2, ad 2), the natural creation of every species comes from specific material. Now, the material from which a human is naturally conceived is human semen from a man or a woman. Therefore, an individual of the human species cannot be naturally created from any other material. Only God, the Creator of nature, can bring something into existence outside the usual processes of nature. Thus, only God could create either a man from the earth's clay or a woman from a man's rib.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument is verified when an individual is begotten, by natural generation, from that which is like it in the same species.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument is confirmed when a person is born, through natural reproduction, from something that is similar to them within the same species.

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ix, 15), we do not know whether the angels were employed by God in the formation of the woman; but it is certain that, as the body of man was not formed by the angels from the slime of the earth, so neither was the body of the woman formed by them from the man's rib.

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ix, 15), we don’t know if God used angels in creating the woman; however, it’s clear that just as the body of man wasn’t made by the angels from the dust of the earth, the body of the woman wasn’t formed by them from the man’s rib either.

Reply Obj. 3: As Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ix, 18): "The first creation of things did not demand that woman should be made thus; it made it possible for her to be thus made." Therefore the body of the woman did indeed pre-exist in these causal virtues, in the things first created; not as regards active potentiality, but as regards a potentiality passive in relation to the active potentiality of the Creator. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: As Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. ix, 18): "The initial creation of things didn't require that woman should be made this way; it allowed for her to be made this way." Therefore, the woman's body did indeed exist in these causal virtues, in the things that were first created; not in terms of active potential, but in terms of a passive potential in relation to the active potential of the Creator.

QUESTION 93

THE END OR TERM OF THE PRODUCTION OF MAN
(In Nine Articles)

THE END OR TERM OF THE PRODUCTION OF MAN
(In Nine Articles)

We now treat of the end or term of man's production, inasmuch as he is said to be made "to the image and likeness of God." There are under this head nine points of inquiry:

We now discuss the purpose or goal of human creation, since it's said that humans are made "in the image and likeness of God." There are nine areas of inquiry under this topic:

(1) Whether the image of God is in man?

(1) Is the image of God present in humans?

(2) Whether the image of God is in irrational creatures?

(2) Is the image of God present in non-rational beings?

(3) Whether the image of God is in the angels more than in man?

(3) Is the image of God more present in angels than in humans?

(4) Whether the image of God is in every man?

(4) Is the image of God present in every person?

(5) Whether the image of God is in man by comparison with the Essence, or with all the Divine Persons, or with one of them?

(5) Is the image of God in humans when compared to the Essence, all the Divine Persons, or just one of them?

(6) Whether the image of God is in man, as to his mind only?

(6) Is the image of God in man, just in his mind?

(7) Whether the image of God is in man's power or in his habits and acts?

(7) Is the image of God determined by man's choices or by his habits and actions?

(8) Whether the image of God is in man by comparison with every object?

(8) Is the image of God in humans when compared to everything else?

(9) Of the difference between "image" and "likeness." _______________________

(9) Of the difference between "image" and "likeness."

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 1]

Whether the Image of God Is in Man?

Whether the Image of God is in Man?

Objection 1: It would seem that the image of God is not in man. For it is written (Isa. 40:18): "To whom have you likened God? or what image will you make for Him?"

Objection 1: It seems that the image of God is not found in humans. For it is written (Isa. 40:18): "To whom have you compared God? Or what image will you create for Him?"

Obj. 2: Further, to be the image of God is the property of the
First-Begotten, of Whom the Apostle says (Col. 1:15): "Who is the
image of the invisible God, the First-Born of every creature."
Therefore the image of God is not to be found in man.

Obj. 2: Additionally, being the image of God belongs to the
First-Begotten, of whom the Apostle says (Col. 1:15): "Who is the
image of the invisible God, the First-Born of every creature."
Therefore, the image of God cannot be found in man.

Obj. 3: Further, Hilary says (De Synod [*Super i can]. Synod. Ancyr.) that "an image is of the same species as that which it represents"; and he also says that "an image is the undivided and united likeness of one thing adequately representing another." But there is no species common to both God and man; nor can there be a comparison of equality between God and man. Therefore there can be no image of God in man.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, Hilary states (De Synod [*Super i can]. Synod. Ancyr.) that "an image is of the same kind as that which it represents"; and he also claims that "an image is the complete and unified likeness of one thing adequately representing another." However, there is no common kind that applies to both God and man; nor can there be a comparison of equality between God and man. Therefore, there cannot be an image of God in man.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:26): "Let Us make man to Our own image and likeness."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:26): "Let Us create humanity in Our own image and likeness."

I answer that, As Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 74): "Where an image exists, there forthwith is likeness; but where there is likeness, there is not necessarily an image." Hence it is clear that likeness is essential to an image; and that an image adds something to likeness—namely, that it is copied from something else. For an "image" is so called because it is produced as an imitation of something else; wherefore, for instance, an egg, however much like and equal to another egg, is not called an image of the other egg, because it is not copied from it.

I answer that, As Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 74): "Where there is an image, there is immediately a likeness; but where there is likeness, there isn't necessarily an image." Therefore, it's clear that likeness is essential for an image, and that an image adds something to likeness—specifically, that it is created as a reproduction of something else. An "image" is named so because it is made as a copy of something; for example, an egg, no matter how similar it is to another egg, isn't called an image of the other egg, because it isn't copied from it.

But equality does not belong to the essence of an image; for as Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 74): "Where there is an image there is not necessarily equality," as we see in a person's image reflected in a glass. Yet this is of the essence of a perfect image; for in a perfect image nothing is wanting that is to be found in that of which it is a copy. Now it is manifest that in man there is some likeness to God, copied from God as from an exemplar; yet this likeness is not one of equality, for such an exemplar infinitely excels its copy. Therefore there is in man a likeness to God; not, indeed, a perfect likeness, but imperfect. And Scripture implies the same when it says that man was made "to" God's likeness; for the preposition "to" signifies a certain approach, as of something at a distance.

But equality isn't part of what an image is; as Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 74): "Where there is an image, there isn't necessarily equality," like we see with a person's reflection in a mirror. However, this is essential for a perfect image; in a perfect image, nothing is missing that is found in the original. It's clear that humans have some resemblance to God, as if copied from God as an example; yet this resemblance isn't one of equality, since an example infinitely surpasses its copy. Therefore, humans share a likeness to God; not a perfect likeness, but an imperfect one. Scripture supports this when it says that man was made "to" God's likeness; for the preposition "to" indicates a certain approach, as if something is at a distance.

Reply Obj. 1: The Prophet speaks of bodily images made by man.
Therefore he says pointedly: "What image will you make for Him?" But
God made a spiritual image to Himself in man.

Reply Obj. 1: The Prophet talks about physical representations created by people.
So he clearly asks, "What image will you create for Him?" But
God created a spiritual likeness of Himself in humanity.

Reply Obj. 2: The First-Born of creatures is the perfect Image of God, reflecting perfectly that of which He is the Image, and so He is said to be the "Image," and never "to the image." But man is said to be both "image" by reason of the likeness; and "to the image" by reason of the imperfect likeness. And since the perfect likeness to God cannot be except in an identical nature, the Image of God exists in His first-born Son; as the image of the king is in his son, who is of the same nature as himself: whereas it exists in man as in an alien nature, as the image of the king is in a silver coin, as Augustine says explains in De decem Chordis (Serm. ix, al, xcvi, De Tempore).

Reply Obj. 2: The First-Born of all creatures is the perfect Image of God, fully reflecting what He is the Image of, and that's why He is called the "Image," not "to the image." However, man is referred to as both "image" because of the resemblance and "to the image" due to the imperfect resemblance. Since a perfect resemblance to God can only exist in an identical nature, the Image of God is found in His first-born Son; similar to how the image of a king is in his son, who shares his nature. In contrast, in man, it exists as an alien nature, much like the image of a king appears on a silver coin, as Augustine explains in De decem Chordis (Serm. ix, al, xcvi, De Tempore).

Reply Obj. 3: As unity means absence of division, a species is said to be the same as far as it is one. Now a thing is said to be one not only numerically, specifically, or generically, but also according to a certain analogy or proportion. In this sense a creature is one with God, or like to Him; but when Hilary says "of a thing which adequately represents another," this is to be understood of a perfect image. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Unity means having no divisions, so a species is considered the same as long as it is one. A thing can be one not just in a numerical, specific, or generic sense, but also in terms of a certain analogy or proportion. In this way, a creature is one with God or similar to Him; however, when Hilary mentions "of a thing which adequately represents another," this refers to a perfect image.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 2]

Whether the Image of God Is to Be Found in Irrational Creatures?

Whether the Image of God Can Be Found in Non-Rational Creatures?

Objection 1: It would seem that the image of God is to be found in irrational creatures. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ii): "Effects are contingent images of their causes." But God is the cause not only of rational, but also of irrational creatures. Therefore the image of God is to be found in irrational creatures.

Objection 1: It seems that the image of God can be found in non-rational beings. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. ii): "Effects are contingent images of their causes." But God is the cause of both rational and non-rational creatures. Therefore, the image of God can be found in non-rational beings.

Obj. 2: Further, the more distinct a likeness is, the nearer it approaches to the nature of an image. But Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "the solar ray has a very great similitude to the Divine goodness." Therefore it is made to the image of God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the clearer a likeness is, the closer it gets to being an image. But Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv) that "the solar ray has a strong resemblance to the Divine goodness." Therefore, it is made in the image of God.

Obj. 3: Further, the more perfect anything is in goodness, the more it is like God. But the whole universe is more perfect in goodness than man; for though each individual thing is good, all things together are called "very good" (Gen. 1:31). Therefore the whole universe is to the image of God, and not only man.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the more perfect something is in goodness, the more it resembles God. However, the entire universe is more perfect in goodness than humans; for even though each individual thing is good, all things combined are referred to as "very good" (Gen. 1:31). Therefore, the whole universe reflects the image of God, not just humanity.

Obj. 4: Further, Boethius (De Consol. iii) says of God: "Holding the world in His mind, and forming it into His image." Therefore the whole world is to the image of God, and not only the rational creature.

Obj. 4: Additionally, Boethius (De Consol. iii) states about God: "Holding the world in His mind and shaping it in His image." Therefore, the entire world reflects the image of God, and not just rational beings.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. vi, 12): "Man's excellence consists in the fact that God made him to His own image by giving him an intellectual soul, which raises him above the beasts of the field." Therefore things without intellect are not made to God's image.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. vi, 12): "Human greatness lies in the fact that God created him in His own image by giving him an intellectual soul, which elevates him above the animals of the field." So, beings without intellect are not made in God's image.

I answer that, Not every likeness, not even what is copied from something else, is sufficient to make an image; for if the likeness be only generic, or existing by virtue of some common accident, this does not suffice for one thing to be the image of another. For instance, a worm, though from man it may originate, cannot be called man's image, merely because of the generic likeness. Nor, if anything is made white like something else, can we say that it is the image of that thing; for whiteness is an accident belonging to many species. But the nature of an image requires likeness in species; thus the image of the king exists in his son: or, at least, in some specific accident, and chiefly in the shape; thus, we speak of a man's image in copper. Whence Hilary says pointedly that "an image is of the same species."

I answer that, Not every resemblance, not even what is copied from something else, is enough to make an image; because if the resemblance is only general, or exists due to some common accident, this isn't enough for one thing to be an image of another. For example, a worm, even though it may come from a human, cannot be called a human's image just because it looks somewhat similar. Similarly, if something is made white like something else, we cannot say it is the image of that thing; whiteness is an accident that many species can share. However, the essence of an image requires similarity in species; thus, the image of a king is found in his son, or at least in some specific detail, primarily in its form; hence, we refer to a man's image in copper. That's why Hilary points out that "an image is of the same species."

Now it is manifest that specific likeness follows the ultimate difference. But some things are like to God first and most commonly because they exist; secondly, because they live; and thirdly because they know or understand; and these last, as Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 51) "approach so near to God in likeness, that among all creatures nothing comes nearer to Him." It is clear, therefore, that intellectual creatures alone, properly speaking, are made to God's image.

Now it’s clear that specific similarities arise from the ultimate difference. Some things resemble God primarily and most obviously because they exist; secondly, because they are alive; and thirdly, because they have knowledge or understanding. As Augustine states (QQ. 83, qu. 51), “they come so close to God in likeness that nothing else in creation is closer to Him.” Therefore, it is evident that only intellectual creatures, strictly speaking, are made in God’s image.

Reply Obj. 1: Everything imperfect is a participation of what is perfect. Therefore even what falls short of the nature of an image, so far as it possesses any sort of likeness to God, participates in some degree the nature of an image. So Dionysius says that effects are "contingent images of their causes"; that is, as much as they happen (contingit) to be so, but not absolutely.

Reply Obj. 1: Everything imperfect shares in what is perfect. Therefore, even things that do not fully reflect the nature of an image, as long as they have some resemblance to God, share to some extent in the nature of an image. Dionysius also states that effects are "conditional images of their causes"; meaning they are that way only to the extent that they happen to be, but not absolutely.

Reply Obj. 2: Dionysius compares the solar ray to Divine goodness, as regards its causality; not as regards its natural dignity which is involved in the idea of an image.

Reply Obj. 2: Dionysius compares the sunlight to Divine goodness in terms of its ability to cause things; not in terms of its natural worth, which relates to the concept of an image.

Reply Obj. 3: The universe is more perfect in goodness than the intellectual creature as regards extension and diffusion; but intensively and collectively the likeness to the Divine goodness is found rather in the intellectual creature, which has a capacity for the highest good. Or else we may say that a part is not rightly divided against the whole, but only against another part. Wherefore, when we say that the intellectual nature alone is to the image of God, we do not mean that the universe in any part is not to God's image, but that the other parts are excluded.

Reply Obj. 3: The universe is more perfect in goodness than intellectual beings when it comes to size and spread; however, in terms of depth and unity, the resemblance to Divine goodness is found more in intellectual beings, which have the ability to understand the highest good. Alternatively, we can say that a part is not properly compared to the whole, but only to another part. Therefore, when we say that only intellectual nature is made in the image of God, we don’t mean that any part of the universe is not made in God's image, but that the other parts are not included in the same way.

Reply Obj. 4: Boethius here uses the word "image" to express the likeness which the product of an art bears to the artistic species in the mind of the artist. Thus every creature is an image of the exemplar type thereof in the Divine mind. We are not, however, using the word "image" in this sense; but as it implies a likeness in nature, that is, inasmuch as all things, as being, are like to the First Being; as living, like to the First Life; and as intelligent, like to the Supreme Wisdom. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Boethius uses the term "image" here to refer to the resemblance that an artwork has to the concept in the artist's mind. Therefore, every creature is an image of its ideal form in the Divine mind. However, we're not using "image" in that sense; rather, it signifies a similarity in nature — that is, in that all things, as beings, resemble the First Being; as living things, they resemble the First Life; and as intelligent beings, they resemble the Supreme Wisdom.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 3]

Whether the Angels Are More to the Image of God Than Man Is?

Whether Angels Are Closer to the Image of God Than Humans Are?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels are not more to the image of God than man is. For Augustine says in a sermon de Imagine xliii (de verbis Apost. xxvii) that God granted to no other creature besides man to be to His image. Therefore it is not true to say that the angels are more than man to the image of God.

Objection 1: It seems that angels are not more like the image of God than humans are. Augustine states in a sermon de Imagine xliii (de verbis Apost. xxvii) that God has given no other creature, aside from humans, the status of being His image. Therefore, it isn't accurate to claim that angels reflect the image of God more than humans do.

Obj. 2: Further, according to Augustine (QQ. 83, qu. 51), "man is so much to God's image that God did not make any creature to be between Him and man: and therefore nothing is more akin to Him." But a creature is called God's image so far as it is akin to God. Therefore the angels are not more to the image of God than man.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, according to Augustine (QQ. 83, qu. 51), "man reflects God's image so closely that God didn't create any creature to be between Him and man; therefore, nothing is more similar to Him." A creature is considered to be God's image to the extent that it resembles God. So, the angels are not more in the image of God than man is.

Obj. 3: Further, a creature is said to be to God's image so far as it is of an intellectual nature. But the intellectual nature does not admit of intensity or remissness; for it is not an accidental thing, since it is a substance. Therefore the angels are not more to the image of God than man.

Obj. 3: Additionally, a being is considered to be in God's image to the extent that it possesses intellect. However, intelligence does not allow for varying degrees; it is not a contingent property, as it is a substance. Therefore, angels are not more in God's image than humans.

On the contrary, Gregory says (Hom. in Evang. xxxiv): "The angel is called a "seal of resemblance" (Ezech. 28:12) because in him the resemblance of the Divine image is wrought with greater expression.

On the contrary, Gregory says (Hom. in Evang. xxxiv): "The angel is called a 'seal of resemblance' (Ezech. 28:12) because in him the likeness of the Divine image is expressed more fully."

I answer that, We may speak of God's image in two ways. First, we may consider in it that in which the image chiefly consists, that is, the intellectual nature. Thus the image of God is more perfect in the angels than in man, because their intellectual nature is more perfect, as is clear from what has been said (Q. 58, A. 3; Q. 79, A. 8). Secondly, we may consider the image of God in man as regards its accidental qualities, so far as to observe in man a certain imitation of God, consisting in the fact that man proceeds from man, as God from God; and also in the fact that the whole human soul is in the whole body, and again, in every part, as God is in regard to the whole world. In these and the like things the image of God is more perfect in man than it is in the angels. But these do not of themselves belong to the nature of the Divine image in man, unless we presuppose the first likeness, which is in the intellectual nature; otherwise even brute animals would be to God's image. Therefore, as in their intellectual nature, the angels are more to the image of God than man is, we must grant that, absolutely speaking, the angels are more to the image of God than man is, but that in some respects man is more like to God.

I answer that, We can discuss God's image in two ways. First, we can look at what the image primarily consists of, which is the intellectual nature. In this sense, the image of God is more perfect in angels than in humans, because their intellectual nature is more refined, as has been clarified in previous discussions (Q. 58, A. 3; Q. 79, A. 8). Secondly, we can consider the image of God in humans regarding its accidental qualities, noting that humans imitate God in the way that man comes from man, just as God comes from God; and also in how the entire human soul exists in the whole body, and in every part, just as God relates to the entire world. In these areas and similar aspects, the image of God is more perfect in humans than in angels. However, these aspects do not inherently belong to the nature of the Divine image in humans unless we first acknowledge the primary resemblance, which lies in the intellectual nature; otherwise, even animals would be considered as part of God's image. Therefore, while angels are more aligned with the image of God in their intellectual nature, we must acknowledge that, in a broader sense, angels reflect God's image more than humans do, although in some ways, humans are more similar to God.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine excludes the inferior creatures bereft of reason from the image of God; but not the angels.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine excludes the lower creatures lacking reason from the image of God, but not the angels.

Reply Obj. 2: As fire is said to be specifically the most subtle of bodies, while, nevertheless, one kind of fire is more subtle than another; so we say that nothing is more like to God than the human soul in its generic and intellectual nature, because as Augustine had said previously, "things which have knowledge, are so near to Him in likeness that of all creatures none are nearer." Wherefore this does not mean that the angels are not more to God's image.

Reply Obj. 2: Just as fire is considered to be the most subtle of substances, and some types of fire are more subtle than others, we say that nothing is more similar to God than the human soul in its general and intellectual essence. As Augustine previously stated, "things that have knowledge are so close to Him in likeness that none of all creatures are closer." Therefore, this does not imply that angels are not more reflective of God's image.

Reply Obj. 3: When we say that substance does not admit of more or less, we do not mean that one species of substance is not more perfect than another; but that one and the same individual does not participate in its specific nature at one time more than at another; nor do we mean that a species of substance is shared among different individuals in a greater or lesser degree. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: When we say that substance doesn’t allow for more or less, we’re not saying that one type of substance isn’t more perfect than another; rather, we mean that a single individual doesn’t express its specific nature more at one time than at another; nor do we mean that a type of substance is distributed among different individuals in a greater or lesser degree.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 4]

Whether the Image of God Is Found in Every Man?

Whether the Image of God Is Found in Every Person?

Objection 1: It would seem that the image of God is not found in every man. For the Apostle says that "man is the image of God, but woman is the image [Vulg. glory] of man" (1 Cor. 11:7). Therefore, as woman is an individual of the human species, it is clear that every individual is not an image of God.

Objection 1: It seems that the image of God isn’t present in everyone. The Apostle says that "man is the image of God, but woman is the image [Vulg. glory] of man" (1 Cor. 11:7). Therefore, since woman is a member of the human species, it’s clear that not every individual is an image of God.

Obj. 2: Further, the Apostle says (Rom. 8:29): "Whom God foreknew, He also predestined to be made conformable to the image of His Son." But all men are not predestined. Therefore all men have not the conformity of image.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Apostle says (Rom. 8:29): "Those whom God foreknew, He also predestined to be made like the image of His Son." But not all people are predestined. Therefore, not all people have this likeness.

Obj. 3: Further, likeness belongs to the nature of the image, as above explained (A. 1). But by sin man becomes unlike God. Therefore he loses the image of God.

Obj. 3: Also, similarity is part of what defines an image, as explained above (A. 1). But through sin, a person becomes unlike God. Therefore, they lose the image of God.

On the contrary, It is written (Ps. 38:7): "Surely man passeth as an image."

On the contrary, It is written (Ps. 38:7): "Surely man passes like an image."

I answer that, Since man is said to be the image of God by reason of his intellectual nature, he is the most perfectly like God according to that in which he can best imitate God in his intellectual nature. Now the intellectual nature imitates God chiefly in this, that God understands and loves Himself. Wherefore we see that the image of God is in man in three ways. First, inasmuch as man possesses a natural aptitude for understanding and loving God; and this aptitude consists in the very nature of the mind, which is common to all men. Secondly, inasmuch as man actually and habitually knows and loves God, though imperfectly; and this image consists in the conformity of grace. Thirdly, inasmuch as man knows and loves God perfectly; and this image consists in the likeness of glory. Wherefore on the words, "The light of Thy countenance, O Lord, is signed upon us" (Ps. 4:7), the gloss distinguishes a threefold image of "creation," of "re-creation," and of "likeness." The first is found in all men, the second only in the just, the third only in the blessed.

I answer that, Since humans are said to be the image of God because of their intellectual nature, they resemble God most closely in the aspects where they can best imitate Him in that nature. The intellectual nature mirrors God primarily in the way that God understands and loves Himself. Therefore, we see that the image of God exists in humans in three ways. First, because humans have a natural ability to understand and love God; this ability is inherent in the mind, which is shared by all people. Second, because humans actually and consistently know and love God, albeit imperfectly; this image reflects their alignment with grace. Third, because humans know and love God perfectly; this image reflects the likeness of glory. Thus, regarding the phrase, "The light of Thy countenance, O Lord, is signed upon us" (Ps. 4:7), the commentary identifies three forms of image: "creation," "re-creation," and "likeness." The first is found in all people, the second only in the righteous, and the third only in the blessed.

Reply Obj. 1: The image of God, in its principal signification, namely the intellectual nature, is found both in man and in woman. Hence after the words, "To the image of God He created him," it is added, "Male and female He created them" (Gen. 1:27). Moreover it is said "them" in the plural, as Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iii, 22) remarks, lest it should be thought that both sexes were united in one individual. But in a secondary sense the image of God is found in man, and not in woman: for man is the beginning and end of woman; as God is the beginning and end of every creature. So when the Apostle had said that "man is the image and glory of God, but woman is the glory of man," he adds his reason for saying this: "For man is not of woman, but woman of man; and man was not created for woman, but woman for man."

Reply Obj. 1: The image of God, in its main sense, which is the intellectual nature, is present in both men and women. Therefore, after the phrase, "In His image, He created him," it adds, "Male and female, He created them" (Gen. 1:27). Additionally, it refers to "them" in the plural, as Augustine (Gen. ad lit. iii, 22) points out, to clarify that both sexes were not combined into one individual. However, in a secondary sense, the image of God is present in man and not in woman: for man is the beginning and end of woman, just as God is the beginning and end of all creatures. So, when the Apostle stated that "man is the image and glory of God, but woman is the glory of man," he provides his reasoning: "For man is not from woman, but woman is from man; and man was not created for woman, but woman for man."

Reply Obj. 2 and 3: These reasons refer to the image consisting in the conformity of grace and glory. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2 and 3: These reasons relate to the idea of grace and glory being in harmony.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 5]

Whether the Image of God Is in Man According to the Trinity of
Persons?

Whether the Image of God Is in Man According to the Trinity of
Persons?

Objection 1: It would seem that the image of God does not exist in man as to the Trinity of Persons. For Augustine says (Fulgentius De Fide ad Petrum i): "One in essence is the Godhead of the Holy Trinity; and one is the image to which man was made." And Hilary (De Trin. v) says: "Man is made to the image of that which is common in the Trinity." Therefore the image of God in man is of the Divine Essence, and not of the Trinity of Persons.

Objection 1: It seems that the image of God does not exist in humans in relation to the Trinity of Persons. Augustine states (Fulgentius De Fide ad Petrum i): "The Godhead of the Holy Trinity is one in essence; and one is the image to which humans were created." Hilary adds (De Trin. v): "Humans are made in the image of what is common in the Trinity." Therefore, the image of God in humans reflects the Divine Essence, not the Trinity of Persons.

Obj. 2: Further, it is said (De Eccl. Dogmat.) that the image of God in man is to be referred to eternity. Damascene also says (De Fide Orth. ii, 12) that the image of God in man belongs to him as "an intelligent being endowed with free-will and self-movement." Gregory of Nyssa (De Homin. Opificio xvi) also asserts that, when Scripture says that "man was made to the image of God, it means that human nature was made a participator of all good: for the Godhead is the fulness of goodness." Now all these things belong more to the unity of the Essence than to the distinction of the Persons. Therefore the image of God in man regards, not the Trinity of Persons, but the unity of the Essence.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, it is stated (De Eccl. Dogmat.) that the image of God in humans relates to eternity. Damascene also mentions (De Fide Orth. ii, 12) that the image of God in humans is defined as "an intelligent being with free will and self-movement." Gregory of Nyssa (De Homin. Opificio xvi) also emphasizes that when Scripture says "man was made in the image of God," it signifies that human nature is a participant in all that is good, as the Godhead represents the fullness of goodness. All of these aspects pertain more to the unity of the Essence than to the distinction of the Persons. Therefore, the image of God in humans concerns the unity of the Essence, not the Trinity of Persons.

Obj. 3: Further, an image leads to the knowledge of that of which it is the image. Therefore, if there is in man the image of God as to the Trinity of Persons; since man can know himself by his natural reason, it follows that by his natural knowledge man could know the Trinity of the Divine Persons; which is untrue, as was shown above (Q. 32, A. 1).

Obj. 3: Also, an image helps us understand what it represents. So, if humans carry the image of God in terms of the Trinity of Persons, and since people can know themselves through their natural reasoning, it would imply that through this natural knowledge, humans could understand the Trinity of the Divine Persons. However, this is not true, as demonstrated earlier (Q. 32, A. 1).

Obj. 4: Further, the name of Image is not applicable to any of the Three Persons, but only to the Son; for Augustine says (De Trin. vi, 2) that "the Son alone is the image of the Father." Therefore, if in man there were an image of God as regards the Person, this would not be an image of the Trinity, but only of the Son.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the term "Image" applies to none of the Three Persons except for the Son; as Augustine states (De Trin. vi, 2) that "the Son alone is the image of the Father." Therefore, if there were an image of God in man relating to the Person, it would not be an image of the Trinity, but only of the Son.

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. iv): "The plurality of the Divine Persons is proved from the fact that man is said to have been made to the image of God."

On the contrary, Hilary says (De Trin. iv): "The existence of multiple Divine Persons is demonstrated by the fact that man is said to have been created in the image of God."

I answer that, as we have seen (Q. 40, A. 2), the distinction of the Divine Persons is only according to origin, or, rather, relations of origin. Now the mode of origin is not the same in all things, but in each thing is adapted to the nature thereof; animated things being produced in one way, and inanimate in another; animals in one way, and plants in another. Wherefore it is manifest that the distinction of the Divine Persons is suitable to the Divine Nature; and therefore to be to the image of God by imitation of the Divine Nature does not exclude being to the same image by the representation of the Divine Persons: but rather one follows from the other. We must, therefore, say that in man there exists the image of God, both as regards the Divine Nature and as regards the Trinity of Persons; for also in God Himself there is one Nature in Three Persons.

I answer that, as we've seen (Q. 40, A. 2), the distinction of the Divine Persons is only based on their origin, or rather, their relationships of origin. The way something originates is not the same for everything; it's adapted to the nature of each thing—living things are produced one way, while non-living things are produced another; animals in one way, and plants in another. Therefore, it’s clear that the distinction of the Divine Persons is fitting to the Divine Nature; and so, being made in the image of God by reflecting the Divine Nature doesn't exclude being made in the same image by representing the Divine Persons; in fact, one leads to the other. We must, therefore, affirm that in humans, there exists the image of God, both regarding the Divine Nature and regarding the Trinity of Persons; for in God Himself, there is one Nature in Three Persons.

Thus it is clear how to solve the first two objections.

So it's clear how to address the first two objections.

Reply Obj. 3: This argument would avail if the image of God in man represented God in a perfect manner. But, as Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 6), there is a great difference between the trinity within ourselves and the Divine Trinity. Therefore, as he there says: "We see, rather than believe, the trinity which is in ourselves; whereas we believe rather than see that God is Trinity."

Reply Obj. 3: This argument would hold if the image of God in humans represented God perfectly. But, as Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 6), there is a significant difference between the trinity within us and the Divine Trinity. Therefore, as he states there: "We see, rather than believe, the trinity that exists in ourselves; while we believe rather than see that God is Trinity."

Reply Obj. 4: Some have said that in man there is an image of the Son only. Augustine rejects this opinion (De Trin. xii, 5,6). First, because as the Son is like to the Father by a likeness of essence, it would follow of necessity if man were made in likeness to the Son, that he is made to the likeness of the Father. Secondly, because if man were made only to the image of the Son, the Father would not have said, "Let Us make man to Our own image and likeness"; but "to Thy image." When, therefore, it is written, "He made him to the image of God," the sense is not that the Father made man to the image of the Son only, Who is God, as some explained it, but that the Divine Trinity made man to Its image, that is, of the whole Trinity. When it is said that God "made man to His image," this can be understood in two ways: first, so that this preposition "to" points to the term of the making, and then the sense is, "Let Us make man in such a way that Our image may be in him." Secondly, this preposition 'to' may point to the exemplar cause, as when we say, "This book is made (like) to that one." Thus the image of God is the very Essence of God, Which is incorrectly called an image forasmuch as image is put for the exemplar. Or, as some say, the Divine Essence is called an image because thereby one Person imitates another. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Some people have claimed that in humanity there is only an image of the Son. Augustine dismisses this view (De Trin. xii, 5,6). First, because just as the Son is similar to the Father in essence, if a person were made in the likeness of the Son, it would necessarily mean that they are also made in the likeness of the Father. Secondly, if humanity were made only in the image of the Son, the Father would not have said, "Let Us make man in Our own image and likeness"; instead, it would have been "to Your image." Therefore, when it is written, "He made him in the image of God," it doesn’t mean that the Father made humanity only in the image of the Son, Who is God, as some have interpreted it. Rather, it indicates that the Divine Trinity made humanity in Its image, meaning the image of the whole Trinity. When it is said that God "made man in His image," this can be understood in two ways: first, the preposition "in" refers to the result of the creation, meaning "Let Us make man so that Our image may be in him." Second, this preposition "in" can indicate the model or example, as when we say, "This book is made to resemble that one." Thus, the image of God represents the very Essence of God, which is incorrectly referred to as an image because "image" is used to denote the example. Or, as some say, the Divine Essence is called an image because one Person reflects another.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 6]

Whether the Image of God Is in Man As Regards the Mind Only?

Whether the Image of God Is in Man Regarding the Mind Only?

Objection 1: It would seem that the image of God is not only in man's mind. For the Apostle says (1 Cor. 11:7) that "the man is the image . . . of God." But man is not only mind. Therefore the image of God is to be observed not only in his mind.

Objection 1: It seems that the image of God is not just in man's mind. The Apostle says (1 Cor. 11:7) that "the man is the image . . . of God." But man isn't just mind. Therefore, the image of God should be seen not only in his mind.

Obj. 2: Further, it is written (Gen. 1:27): "God created man to His own image; to the image of God He created him; male and female He created them." But the distinction of male and female is in the body. Therefore the image of God is also in the body, and not only in the mind.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, it is stated (Gen. 1:27): "God created man in His own image; in the image of God, He created him; male and female, He created them." However, the distinction between male and female is physical. Therefore, the image of God is also found in the body, not just in the mind.

Obj. 3: Further, an image seems to apply principally to the shape of a thing. But shape belongs to the body. Therefore the image of God is to be seen in man's body also, and not in his mind.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, an image mainly relates to the shape of something. Since shape is a characteristic of the body, the image of God should be reflected in man's body as well, not just in his mind.

Obj. 4: Further, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. xii, 7,24) there is a threefold vision in us, "corporeal," "spiritual," or imaginary, and "intellectual." Therefore, if in the intellectual vision that belongs to the mind there exists in us a trinity by reason of which we are made to the image of God, for the like reason there must be another trinity in the others.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, according to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. xii, 7,24), we have three types of vision: "corporeal," "spiritual" or imaginary, and "intellectual." Therefore, if there exists a trinity in our intellectual vision, which relates to the mind and reflects the image of God, then there must be another trinity in the other types as well.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Eph. 4:23,24): "Be renewed in the spirit of your mind, and put on the new man." Whence we are given to understand that our renewal which consists in putting on the new man, belongs to the mind. Now, he says (Col. 3:10): "Putting on the new" man; "him who is renewed unto knowledge" of God, "according to the image of Him that created him," where the renewal which consists in putting on the new man is ascribed to the image of God. Therefore to be to the image of God belongs to the mind only.

On the contrary, the Apostle says (Eph. 4:23,24): "Be renewed in the spirit of your mind, and put on the new self." This tells us that our renewal, which involves putting on the new self, is connected to our mindset. He also states (Col. 3:10): "Putting on the new self; the one who is renewed in knowledge" of God, "according to the image of Him who created him," indicating that this renewal associated with putting on the new self relates to the image of God. Therefore, being made in the image of God pertains only to the mind.

I answer that, While in all creatures there is some kind of likeness to God, in the rational creature alone we find a likeness of "image" as we have explained above (AA. 1,2); whereas in other creatures we find a likeness by way of a "trace." Now the intellect or mind is that whereby the rational creature excels other creatures; wherefore this image of God is not found even in the rational creature except in the mind; while in the other parts, which the rational creature may happen to possess, we find the likeness of a "trace," as in other creatures to which, in reference to such parts, the rational creature can be likened. We may easily understand the reason of this if we consider the way in which a "trace," and the way in which an "image," represents anything. An "image" represents something by likeness in species, as we have said; while a "trace" represents something by way of an effect, which represents the cause in such a way as not to attain to the likeness of species. For imprints which are left by the movements of animals are called "traces": so also ashes are a trace of fire, and desolation of the land a trace of a hostile army.

I answer that, While all creatures share some similarity to God, only rational beings reflect an "image" as we discussed earlier (AA. 1,2); in other creatures, we only see a resemblance as a "trace." The intellect or mind is what allows rational beings to surpass other creatures; therefore, this image of God exists only in the mind of the rational creature. In other aspects that a rational being may have, we find only a resemblance of a "trace," similar to other creatures when it comes to those aspects. We can easily grasp the reason for this when we think about how a "trace" and an "image" represent something. An "image" represents something by likeness in kind, as we have mentioned, whereas a "trace" shows something through its effects, indicating the cause but not achieving the likeness in kind. For example, imprints left by animal movements are called "traces"; similarly, ashes are a trace of fire, and a barren landscape is a trace of an invading army.

Therefore we may observe this difference between rational creatures and others, both as to the representation of the likeness of the Divine Nature in creatures, and as to the representation in them of the uncreated Trinity. For as to the likeness of the Divine Nature, rational creatures seem to attain, after a fashion, to the representation of the species, inasmuch as they imitate God, not only in being and life, but also in intelligence, as above explained (A. 2); whereas other creatures do not understand, although we observe in them a certain trace of the Intellect that created them, if we consider their disposition. Likewise as the uncreated Trinity is distinguished by the procession of the Word from the Speaker, and of Love from both of these, as we have seen (Q. 28, A. 3); so we may say that in rational creatures wherein we find a procession of the word in the intellect, and a procession of the love in the will, there exists an image of the uncreated Trinity, by a certain representation of the species. In other creatures, however, we do not find the principle of the word, and the word and love; but we do see in them a certain trace of the existence of these in the Cause that produced them. For in the fact that a creature has a modified and finite nature, proves that it proceeds from a principle; while its species points to the (mental) word of the maker, just as the shape of a house points to the idea of the architect; and order points to the maker's love by reason of which he directs the effect to a good end; as also the use of the house points to the will of the architect. So we find in man a likeness to God by way of an "image" in his mind; but in the other parts of his being by way of a "trace."

So, we can see this difference between rational beings and others in how they represent the Divine Nature and the uncreated Trinity. Rational beings seem to achieve some level of representation of God's likeness since they mimic Him not only in existence and life but also in intelligence, as explained above (A. 2). In contrast, other beings don’t understand, although we can discern a hint of the Intellect that created them when we look at their arrangement. Similarly, the uncreated Trinity is defined by the Word's procession from the Speaker and Love's procession from both, as previously discussed (Q. 28, A. 3). In rational beings, we find a procession of the word in the intellect and a procession of love in the will, which reflects an image of the uncreated Trinity in a certain way. However, in other creatures, we don’t find the principle of the word or the idea of love; we only see some indication of their existence in the Cause that brought them into being. The fact that a creature has a limited and modified nature indicates it comes from a principle, while its species reflects the creator's (mental) word, just like the shape of a house reflects the architect's idea. The order of things points to the creator's love, which guides the outcome towards a good purpose, while the use of the house shows the architect's intention. Therefore, in humans, we find a likeness to God as an "image" in our minds, while the other aspects of our being only show a "trace."

Reply Obj. 1: Man is called to the image of God; not that he is essentially an image; but that the image of God is impressed on his mind; as a coin is an image of the king, as having the image of the king. Wherefore there is no need to consider the image of God as existing in every part of man.

Reply Obj. 1: Humanity is called to reflect the image of God; not that we are essentially that image, but that God's image is imprinted on our minds, similar to how a coin bears the image of the king. Therefore, there's no need to think of the image of God as being present in every part of a person.

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 5), some have thought that the image of God was not in man individually, but severally. They held that "the man represents the Person of the Father; those born of man denote the person of the Son; and that the woman is a third person in likeness to the Holy Ghost, since she so proceeded from man as not to be his son or daughter." All of this is manifestly absurd; first, because it would follow that the Holy Ghost is the principle of the Son, as the woman is the principle of the man's offspring; secondly, because one man would be only the image of one Person; thirdly, because in that case Scripture should not have mentioned the image of God in man until after the birth of the offspring. Therefore we must understand that when Scripture had said, "to the image of God He created him," it added, "male and female He created them," not to imply that the image of God came through the distinction of sex, but that the image of God belongs to both sexes, since it is in the mind, wherein there is no sexual distinction. Wherefore the Apostle (Col. 3:10), after saying, "According to the image of Him that created him," added, "Where there is neither male nor female" [*these words are in reality from Gal. 3:28] (Vulg. "neither Gentile nor Jew").

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 5), some people have believed that the image of God was not in each individual but rather among people collectively. They argued that "the man represents the Father; those born of man signify the Son; and the woman is a third figure resembling the Holy Spirit, since she comes from man but is neither his son nor his daughter." This is clearly absurd; first, because it would mean that the Holy Spirit is the source of the Son, just as the woman is the source of man's children; second, because one man would only represent one Person; third, because Scripture shouldn't have referred to the image of God in man until after the birth of offspring. Therefore, we should understand that when Scripture states, "to the image of God He created him," it also says, "male and female He created them," not to suggest that the image of God arises from gender distinction, but to show that the image of God applies to both sexes since it exists in the mind, where there is no gender distinction. Thus, the Apostle (Col. 3:10), after saying, "According to the image of Him that created him," added, "Where there is neither male nor female" [*these words are actually from Gal. 3:28] (Vulg. "neither Gentile nor Jew").

Reply Obj. 3: Although the image of God in man is not to be found in his bodily shape, yet because "the body of man alone among terrestrial animals is not inclined prone to the ground, but is adapted to look upward to heaven, for this reason we may rightly say that it is made to God's image and likeness, rather than the bodies of other animals," as Augustine remarks (QQ. 83, qu. 51). But this is not to be understood as though the image of God were in man's body; but in the sense that the very shape of the human body represents the image of God in the soul by way of a trace.

Reply Obj. 3: Even though the image of God in humans is not found in our physical form, we can say that "the human body, unlike other animals, is not bent down to the ground but is designed to look up to heaven. This is why we can accurately state that it reflects God's image and likeness more than the bodies of other animals," as Augustine points out (QQ. 83, qu. 51). However, this shouldn’t be understood as if the image of God is in the human body itself; rather, it means that the shape of the human body symbolizes the image of God in the soul as a kind of reflection.

Reply Obj. 4: Both in the corporeal and in the imaginary vision we may find a trinity, as Augustine says (De Trin. xi, 2). For in corporeal vision there is first the species of the exterior body; secondly, the act of vision, which occurs by the impression on the sight of a certain likeness of the said species; thirdly, the intention of the will applying the sight to see, and to rest on what is seen.

Reply Obj. 4: In both physical and imagined vision, we can find a trinity, as Augustine says (De Trin. xi, 2). In physical vision, there is first the image of the outside body; second, the act of seeing, which happens through the impression on the eye of a likeness of that image; third, the will's intention to focus the sight on what is being seen and to linger on it.

Likewise, in the imaginary vision we find first the species kept in the memory; secondly, the vision itself, which is caused by the penetrative power of the soul, that is, the faculty of imagination, informed by the species; and thirdly, we find the intention of the will joining both together. But each of these trinities falls short of the Divine image. For the species of the external body is extrinsic to the essence of the soul; while the species in the memory, though not extrinsic to the soul, is adventitious to it; and thus in both cases the species falls short of representing the connaturality and co-eternity of the Divine Persons. The corporeal vision, too, does not proceed only from the species of the external body, but from this, and at the same time from the sense of the seer; in like manner imaginary vision is not from the species only which is preserved in the memory, but also from the imagination. For these reasons the procession of the Son from the Father alone is not suitably represented. Lastly the intention of the will joining the two together, does not proceed from them either in corporeal or spiritual vision. Wherefore the procession of the Holy Ghost from the Father and the Son is not thus properly represented. _______________________

In the imaginary vision, we first find the ideas stored in memory; second, the vision itself, which is created by the penetrating power of the soul, that is, the imagination, shaped by these ideas; and third, we see the will's intention that connects the two. However, each of these three aspects falls short of the Divine image. The idea of the external body is separate from the essence of the soul; while the idea in memory, although not separate from the soul, is additional to it; and so, in both instances, the idea fails to truly represent the natural connection and eternal relationship of the Divine Persons. Similarly, physical vision does not come solely from the idea of the external body, but also from the observer's senses; in the same way, imaginary vision does not arise only from the idea kept in memory, but also from the imagination. For these reasons, the Son's procession from the Father alone isn't adequately represented. Lastly, the will's intention that unites the two doesn't originate from them, whether in physical or spiritual vision. Thus, the procession of the Holy Ghost from the Father and the Son isn't properly represented either.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 7]

Whether the Image of God Is to Be Found in the Acts of the Soul?

Whether the Image of God Can Be Found in the Actions of the Soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that the image of God is not found in the acts of the soul. For Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 26), that "man was made to God's image, inasmuch as we exist and know that we exist, and love this existence and knowledge." But to exist does not signify an act. Therefore the image of God is not to be found in the soul's acts.

Objection 1: It seems that the image of God is not present in the actions of the soul. Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xi, 26) that "man was made in God's image, in that we exist, know that we exist, and love this existence and knowledge." However, existing does not imply an action. Therefore, the image of God is not found in the soul's actions.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine (De Trin. ix, 4) assigns God's image in the soul to these three things—mind, knowledge, and love. But mind does not signify an act, but rather the power or the essence of the intellectual soul. Therefore the image of God does not extend to the acts of the soul.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Augustine (De Trin. ix, 4) attributes God's image in the soul to three aspects—mind, knowledge, and love. However, mind doesn't refer to an action but to the capability or fundamental nature of the intellectual soul. Thus, the image of God doesn't relate to the actions of the soul.

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine (De Trin. x, 11) assigns the image of the Trinity in the soul to "memory, understanding, and will." But these three are "natural powers of the soul," as the Master of the Sentences says (1 Sent. D iii). Therefore the image of God is in the powers, and does not extend to the acts of the soul.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Augustine (De Trin. x, 11) attributes the image of the Trinity in the soul to "memory, understanding, and will." However, these three are "natural powers of the soul," as the Master of the Sentences notes (1 Sent. D iii). Thus, the image of God exists in the powers and does not apply to the acts of the soul.

Obj. 4: Further, the image of the Trinity always remains in the soul. But an act does not always remain. Therefore the image of God does not extend to the acts.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the image of the Trinity always stays in the soul. But an action doesn’t always last. Therefore, the image of God does not apply to the actions.

On the contrary, Augustine (De Trin. xi, 2 seqq.) assigns the trinity in the lower part of the soul, in relation to the actual vision, whether sensible or imaginative. Therefore, also, the trinity in the mind, by reason of which man is like to God's image, must be referred to actual vision.

On the contrary, Augustine (De Trin. xi, 2 seqq.) places the trinity in the lower part of the soul, in relation to actual vision, whether that’s sensory or imaginative. Therefore, the trinity in the mind, which is why humans are similar to God's image, must also relate to actual vision.

I answer that, As above explained (A. 2), a certain representation of the species belongs to the nature of an image. Hence, if the image of the Divine Trinity is to be found in the soul, we must look for it where the soul approaches the nearest to a representation of the species of the Divine Persons. Now the Divine Persons are distinct from each other by reason of the procession of the Word from the Speaker, and the procession of Love connecting Both. But in our soul word "cannot exist without actual thought," as Augustine says (De Trin. xiv, 7). Therefore, first and chiefly, the image of the Trinity is to be found in the acts of the soul, that is, inasmuch as from the knowledge which we possess, by actual thought we form an internal word; and thence break forth into love. But, since the principles of acts are the habits and powers, and everything exists virtually in its principle, therefore, secondarily and consequently, the image of the Trinity may be considered as existing in the powers, and still more in the habits, forasmuch as the acts virtually exist therein.

I respond that, as previously explained (A. 2), a certain representation of the essence is part of what makes an image. So, if the image of the Divine Trinity exists in the soul, we need to search for it where the soul comes closest to representing the essence of the Divine Persons. The Divine Persons are distinct from one another because of the Word's procession from the Speaker and the Love that connects Them both. However, in our soul, the word "cannot exist without actual thought," as Augustine states (De Trin. xiv, 7). Therefore, primarily, the image of the Trinity can be found in the acts of the soul; that is, from the knowledge we have, through actual thought, we form an internal word, which then expresses itself as love. Since the principles of actions are habits and powers, and everything exists in its principle in a virtual manner, the image of the Trinity can also be seen as existing in the powers and even more in the habits, since the acts essentially exist within them.

Reply Obj. 1: Our being bears the image of God so far as it is proper to us, and excels that of the other animals, that is to say, in so far as we are endowed with a mind. Therefore, this trinity is the same as that which Augustine mentions (De Trin. ix, 4), and which consists in mind, knowledge, and love.

Reply Obj. 1: Our existence reflects the image of God to the extent that it suits us and surpasses that of other animals, specifically because we have a mind. Therefore, this trinity is the same as the one Augustine refers to (De Trin. ix, 4), which consists of mind, knowledge, and love.

Reply Obj. 2: Augustine observed this trinity, first, as existing in the mind. But because the mind, though it knows itself entirely in a certain degree, yet also in a way does not know itself—namely, as being distinct from others (and thus also it searches itself, as Augustine subsequently proves—De Trin. x, 3,4); therefore, as though knowledge were not in equal proportion to mind, he takes three things in the soul which are proper to the mind, namely, memory, understanding, and will; which everyone is conscious of possessing; and assigns the image of the Trinity pre-eminently to these three, as though the first assignation were in part deficient.

Reply Obj. 2: Augustine saw this trinity, first, as something that exists in the mind. However, while the mind knows itself to some extent, it also doesn’t fully know itself—specifically, as being separate from others (which is why it searches within itself, as Augustine later explains—De Trin. x, 3,4); therefore, as if knowledge isn’t perfectly aligned with the mind, he identifies three aspects of the soul that pertain to the mind: memory, understanding, and will. Everyone is aware that they have these, and he primarily associates the image of the Trinity with these three, suggesting that the initial assignment is somewhat lacking.

Reply Obj. 3: As Augustine proves (De Trin. xiv, 7), we may be said to understand, will, and to love certain things, both when we actually consider them, and when we do not think of them. When they are not under our actual consideration, they are objects of our memory only, which, in his opinion, is nothing else than habitual retention of knowledge and love [*Cf. Q. 79, A. 7, ad 1]. "But since," as he says, "a word cannot be there without actual thought (for we think everything that we say, even if we speak with that interior word belonging to no nation's tongue), this image chiefly consists in these three things, memory, understanding, and will. And by understanding I mean here that whereby we understand with actual thought; and by will, love, or dilection I mean that which unites this child with its parent." From which it is clear that he places the image of the Divine Trinity more in actual understanding and will, than in these as existing in the habitual retention of the memory; although even thus the image of the Trinity exists in the soul in a certain degree, as he says in the same place. Thus it is clear that memory, understanding, and will are not three powers as stated in the Sentences.

Reply Obj. 3: As Augustine demonstrates (De Trin. xiv, 7), we can be said to understand, will, and love certain things both when we actively think about them and when we don't. When they are not actively on our minds, they exist only in our memory, which, in his view, is simply the habitual retention of knowledge and love [*Cf. Q. 79, A. 7, ad 1]. "But since," as he says, "a word cannot exist without actual thought (because we think everything we say, even if it’s in that internal word unique to no nation), this image primarily consists of three things: memory, understanding, and will. By understanding, I mean that which allows us to comprehend with active thought, and by will, love, or dilection, I refer to that which connects a child with its parent." From this, it is clear that he places the image of the Divine Trinity more in actual understanding and will than in their presence within the habitual retention of memory; although, even then, the image of the Trinity still exists in the soul to some extent, as he notes in the same context. Thus, it is clear that memory, understanding, and will are not three separate powers as stated in the Sentences.

Reply Obj. 4: Someone might answer by referring to Augustine's statement (De Trin. xiv, 6), that "the mind ever remembers itself, ever understands itself, ever loves itself"; which some take to mean that the soul ever actually understands, and loves itself. But he excludes this interpretation by adding that "it does not always think of itself as actually distinct from other things." Thus it is clear that the soul always understands and loves itself, not actually but habitually; though we might say that by perceiving its own act, it understands itself whenever it understands anything. But since it is not always actually understanding, as in the case of sleep, we must say that these acts, although not always actually existing, yet ever exist in their principles, the habits and powers. Wherefore, Augustine says (De Trin. xiv, 4): "If the rational soul is made to the image of God in the sense that it can make use of reason and intellect to understand and consider God, then the image of God was in the soul from the beginning of its existence." _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Someone might respond by pointing to Augustine's statement (De Trin. xiv, 6), that "the mind always remembers itself, always understands itself, always loves itself"; which some interpret to mean that the soul always actually understands and loves itself. However, he clarifies this interpretation by adding that "it does not always think of itself as actually distinct from other things." Thus, it’s clear that the soul always understands and loves itself, not in a direct way but as a habit; although we might say that by recognizing its own actions, it understands itself whenever it understands anything else. Since it does not always actively understand, such as during sleep, we must conclude that these acts, while not always actually present, still exist in their basic forms—the habits and abilities. Therefore, Augustine states (De Trin. xiv, 4): "If the rational soul is made in the image of God in the sense that it can use reason and intellect to comprehend and reflect on God, then the image of God was in the soul from the very beginning of its existence."

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 8]

Whether the Image of the Divine Trinity Is in the Soul Only by
Comparison with God As Its Object?

Whether the image of the Divine Trinity exists in the soul only by
comparison with God as its object?

Objection 1: It would seem that the image of the Divine Trinity is in the soul not only by comparison with God as its object. For the image of the Divine Trinity is to be found in the soul, as shown above (A. 7), according as the word in us proceeds from the speaker; and love from both. But this is to be found in us as regards any object. Therefore the image of the Divine Trinity is in our mind as regards any object.

Objection 1: It seems that the image of the Divine Trinity exists in the soul not just in relation to God as its object. The image of the Divine Trinity is present in the soul, as mentioned earlier (A. 7), in the way that the word in us comes from the speaker, and love emanates from both. However, this can be observed in relation to any object. Therefore, the image of the Divine Trinity exists in our mind concerning any object.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 4) that "when we seek trinity in the soul, we seek it in the whole of the soul, without separating the process of reasoning in temporal matters from the consideration of things eternal." Therefore the image of the Trinity is to be found in the soul, even as regards temporal objects.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine says (De Trin. xii, 4) that "when we look for the trinity in the soul, we look for it in the entirety of the soul, without separating the thinking process about temporary matters from the contemplation of eternal things." Therefore, the image of the Trinity can be found in the soul, even when it comes to temporary objects.

Obj. 3: Further, it is by grace that we can know and love God. If, therefore, the image of the Trinity is found in the soul by reason of the memory, understanding, and will or love of God, this image is not in man by nature but by grace, and thus is not common to all.

Obj. 3: Additionally, it's through grace that we can know and love God. If the image of the Trinity exists in the soul because of memory, understanding, and the will or love of God, then this image is not inherent to humanity but comes from grace, making it not universal to everyone.

Obj. 4: Further, the saints in heaven are most perfectly conformed to the image of God by the beatific vision; wherefore it is written (2 Cor. 3:18): "We . . . are transformed into the same image from glory to glory." But temporal things are known by the beatific vision. Therefore the image of God exists in us even according to temporal things.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the saints in heaven are fully aligned with the image of God through the beatific vision; as it says (2 Cor. 3:18): "We . . . are transformed into the same image from glory to glory." But temporary things are understood through the beatific vision. Therefore, the image of God is present in us even in relation to temporary things.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xiv, 12): "The image of God exists in the mind, not because it has a remembrance of itself, loves itself, and understands itself; but because it can also remember, understand, and love God by Whom it was made." Much less, therefore, is the image of God in the soul, in respect of other objects.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. xiv, 12): "The image of God exists in the mind, not because it remembers itself, loves itself, and understands itself; but because it can also remember, understand, and love God by Whom it was made." Therefore, the image of God in the soul is even less significant in relation to other objects.

I answer that, As above explained (AA. 2, 7), image means a likeness which in some degree, however small, attains to a representation of the species. Wherefore we need to seek in the image of the Divine Trinity in the soul some kind of representation of species of the Divine Persons, so far as this is possible to a creature. Now the Divine Persons, as above stated (AA. 6, 7), are distinguished from each other according to the procession of the word from the speaker, and the procession of love from both. Moreover the Word of God is born of God by the knowledge of Himself; and Love proceeds from God according as He loves Himself. But it is clear that diversity of objects diversifies the species of word and love; for in the human mind the species of a stone is specifically different from that of a horse, which also the love regarding each of them is specifically different. Hence we refer the Divine image in man to the verbal concept born of the knowledge of God, and to the love derived therefrom. Thus the image of God is found in the soul according as the soul turns to God, or possesses a nature that enables it to turn to God. Now the mind may turn towards an object in two ways: directly and immediately, or indirectly and mediately; as, for instance, when anyone sees a man reflected in a looking-glass he may be said to be turned towards that man. So Augustine says (De Trin. xiv, 8), that "the mind remembers itself, understands itself, and loves itself. If we perceive this, we perceive a trinity, not, indeed, God, but, nevertheless, rightly called the image of God." But this is due to the fact, not that the mind reflects on itself absolutely, but that thereby it can furthermore turn to God, as appears from the authority quoted above (Arg. On the contrary).

I answer that, As previously explained (AA. 2, 7), an image refers to a likeness that, to some extent, represents the essence. Therefore, we should look for some kind of representation of the Divine Trinity in the soul, as far as it is possible for a creature. The Divine Persons, as mentioned earlier (AA. 6, 7), are distinct from one another based on the process of the word from the speaker and the process of love from both. Additionally, the Word of God is generated by God through His self-knowledge, and Love comes from God as He loves Himself. It is evident that different objects create different types of word and love; for instance, in the human mind, the concept of a stone is distinctly different from that of a horse, and the love for each of them is also specifically different. Therefore, we connect the Divine image in humans to the verbal concept that arises from the knowledge of God and the love that follows. Thus, the image of God exists in the soul based on how the soul turns to God or has the nature that allows it to turn to God. The mind can be directed toward an object in two ways: directly and immediately, or indirectly and mediately; for example, when someone sees a person reflected in a mirror, we say they are turned toward that person. Augustine states (De Trin. xiv, 8) that "the mind remembers itself, understands itself, and loves itself. If we recognize this, we see a trinity, not God, but still rightly considered the image of God." However, this occurs not because the mind reflects on itself in an absolute sense, but because it allows the mind to further turn to God, as indicated by the authority referenced above (Arg. On the contrary).

Reply Obj. 1: For the notion of an image it is not enough that something proceed from another, but it is also necessary to observe what proceeds and whence it proceeds; namely, that what is Word of God proceeds from knowledge of God.

Reply Obj. 1: For the idea of an image, it’s not enough for something to come from another; it’s also essential to consider what comes from it and where it comes from. Specifically, what is the Word of God comes from the knowledge of God.

Reply Obj. 2: In all the soul we may see a kind of trinity, not, however, as though besides the action of temporal things and the contemplation of eternal things, "any third thing should be required to make up the trinity," as he adds in the same passage. But in that part of the reason which is concerned with temporal things, "although a trinity may be found; yet the image of God is not to be seen there," as he says farther on; forasmuch as this knowledge of temporal things is adventitious to the soul. Moreover even the habits whereby temporal things are known are not always present; but sometimes they are actually present, and sometimes present only in memory even after they begin to exist in the soul. Such is clearly the case with faith, which comes to us temporally for this present life; while in the future life faith will no longer exist, but only the remembrance of faith.

Reply Obj. 2: In the soul, we can see a sort of trinity, but it's not as if we need "any third thing to complete the trinity," as he mentions later in the same passage. In the part of reason that deals with temporary things, "even though a trinity can be found, the image of God is not present there," as he goes on to say, because this knowledge of temporary things is something external to the soul. Furthermore, even the habits that allow us to know temporary things aren't always present; sometimes they are actually present, and sometimes they exist only in memory, even after they begin to exist in the soul. This is clearly true for faith, which comes to us in this present life; while in the next life, faith will no longer exist, just the memory of faith.

Reply Obj. 3: The meritorious knowledge and love of God can be in us only by grace. Yet there is a certain natural knowledge and love as seen above (Q. 12, A. 12; Q. 56, A. 3; Q. 60, A. 5). This, too, is natural that the mind, in order to understand God, can make use of reason, in which sense we have already said that the image of God abides ever in the soul; "whether this image of God be so obsolete," as it were clouded, "as almost to amount to nothing," as in those who have not the use of reason; "or obscured and disfigured," as in sinners; or "clear and beautiful," as in the just; as Augustine says (De Trin. xiv, 6).

Reply Obj. 3: Genuine knowledge and love of God can only exist in us through grace. However, there is also a certain natural knowledge and love, as mentioned earlier (Q. 12, A. 12; Q. 56, A. 3; Q. 60, A. 5). It is also natural for the mind, in order to understand God, to use reason. In this sense, we have previously stated that the image of God always remains in the soul; "whether this image of God be so obsolete," almost completely diminished, "as in those who lack reason; "or obscured and disfigured," as found in sinners; or "clear and beautiful," as seen in the righteous, as Augustine remarks (De Trin. xiv, 6).

Reply Obj. 4: By the vision of glory temporal things will be seen in God Himself; and such a vision of things temporal will belong to the image of God. This is what Augustine means (De Trin. xiv, 6), when he says that "in that nature to which the mind will blissfully adhere, whatever it sees it will see as unchangeable"; for in the Uncreated Word are the types of all creatures. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Through the vision of glory, we will see earthly things in God Himself; and this perspective on temporal things will reflect God's image. This is what Augustine means (De Trin. xiv, 6) when he says that "in that nature to which the mind will joyfully cling, whatever it sees will be seen as unchangeable"; for in the Uncreated Word are the archetypes of all creatures.

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 9]

NINTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 93, Art. 9]

Whether "Likeness" Is Properly Distinguished from "Image"?

Whether "Likeness" Is Properly Distinguished from "Image"?

Objection 1: It would seem that "likeness" is not properly distinguished from "image." For genus is not properly distinguished from species. Now, "likeness" is to "image" as genus to species: because, "where there is image, forthwith there is likeness, but not conversely" as Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 74). Therefore "likeness" is not properly to be distinguished from "image."

Objection 1: It seems that "likeness" is not clearly separated from "image." For genus is not properly differentiated from species. Now, "likeness" relates to "image" the same way genus relates to species: because, "where there is an image, there is immediately a likeness, but not the other way around," as Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 74). Therefore, "likeness" should not be distinctly separated from "image."

Obj. 2: Further, the nature of the image consists not only in the representation of the Divine Persons, but also in the representation of the Divine Essence, to which representation belong immortality and indivisibility. So it is not true to say that the "likeness is in the essence because it is immortal and indivisible; whereas the image is in other things" (Sent. ii, D, xvi).

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the nature of the image involves not just the representation of the Divine Persons but also the representation of the Divine Essence, which includes immortality and indivisibility. So it's not accurate to claim that the "likeness is in the essence because it is immortal and indivisible; while the image is in other things" (Sent. ii, D, xvi).

Obj. 3: Further, the image of God in man is threefold—the image of nature, of grace, and of glory, as above explained (A. 4). But innocence and righteousness belong to grace. Therefore it is incorrectly said (Sent. ii, D, xvi) "that the image is taken from the memory, the understanding and the will, while the likeness is from innocence and righteousness."

Obj. 3: Additionally, the image of God in humans is threefold—the image of nature, grace, and glory, as explained above (A. 4). However, innocence and righteousness relate to grace. Therefore, it is inaccurately stated (Sent. ii, D, xvi) "that the image comes from memory, understanding, and will, while the likeness comes from innocence and righteousness."

Obj. 4: Further, knowledge of truth belongs to the intellect, and love of virtue to the will; which two things are parts of the image. Therefore it is incorrect to say (Sent. ii, D, xvi) that "the image consists in the knowledge of truth, and the likeness in the love of virtue."

Obj. 4: Furthermore, understanding of truth is associated with the intellect, while the appreciation of virtue relates to the will; these two aspects are parts of the image. Thus, it is incorrect to claim (Sent. ii, D, xvi) that "the image consists of the understanding of truth, and the likeness is in the appreciation of virtue."

On the contrary, Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 51): "Some consider that these two were mentioned not without reason, namely "image" and "likeness," since, if they meant the same, one would have sufficed."

On the contrary, Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 51): "Some believe that these two were mentioned for a reason, namely 'image' and 'likeness,' because if they meant the same thing, one would have been enough."

I answer that, Likeness is a kind of unity, for oneness in quality causes likeness, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. v, Did. iv, 15). Now, since "one" is a transcendental, it is both common to all, and adapted to each single thing, just as the good and the true. Wherefore, as the good can be compared to each individual thing both as its preamble, and as subsequent to it, as signifying some perfection in it, so also in the same way there exists a kind of comparison between "likeness" and "image." For the good is a preamble to man, inasmuch as man is an individual good; and, again, the good is subsequent to man, inasmuch as we may say of a certain man that he is good, by reason of his perfect virtue. In like manner, likeness may be considered in the light of a preamble to image, inasmuch as it is something more general than image, as we have said above (A. 1): and, again, it may be considered as subsequent to image, inasmuch as it signifies a certain perfection of image. For we say that an image is like or unlike what it represents, according as the representation is perfect or imperfect. Thus likeness may be distinguished from image in two ways: first as its preamble and existing in more things, and in this sense likeness regards things which are more common than the intellectual properties, wherein the image is properly to be seen. In this sense it is stated (QQ. 83, qu. 51) that "the spirit" (namely, the mind) without doubt was made to the image of God. "But the other parts of man," belonging to the soul's inferior faculties, or even to the body, "are in the opinion of some made to God's likeness." In this sense he says (De Quant. Animae ii) that the likeness of God is found in the soul's incorruptibility; for corruptible and incorruptible are differences of universal beings. But likeness may be considered in another way, as signifying the expression and perfection of the image. In this sense Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 12) that the image implies "an intelligent being, endowed with free-will and self-movement, whereas likeness implies a likeness of power, as far as this may be possible in man." In the same sense "likeness" is said to belong to "the love of virtue": for there is no virtue without love of virtue.

I respond that, Likeness represents a type of unity, because similarity in quality leads to likeness, as the Philosopher suggests (Metaph. v, Did. iv, 15). Since "one" is a transcendental concept, it is universally applicable while also relating to individual entities, similar to how the good and the true work. Therefore, just as the good can be compared to each individual thing both as a foundation and as a consequence of it—indicating a form of perfection in it—likeness can also be compared to image in similar ways. The good serves as a foundation for humans since man is an individual good; and the good also follows man, since we can describe a certain man as good because of his complete virtue. Similarly, likeness can be viewed as a foundation for image, as it is a broader concept than image, as we mentioned earlier (A. 1). Additionally, it can also be seen as subsequent to image, since it signifies a certain perfection of image. We say an image is like or unlike what it represents based on the quality of that representation, whether perfect or imperfect. Thus, likeness can be differentiated from image in two ways: first, as its foundation and applicable to more things; in this way, likeness pertains to aspects which are more general than the intellectual properties, where the image is specifically recognized. In this context, it is stated (QQ. 83, qu. 51) that "the spirit" (meaning the mind) was undoubtedly created in the image of God. "However, the other aspects of man," linked to the lower faculties of the soul, or even to the body, "are considered by some to be made in God's likeness." In this context, he notes (De Quant. Animae ii) that the likeness of God is evident in the incorruptibility of the soul; since corruptible and incorruptible are distinctions of universal beings. But likeness can also be seen in another light, denoting the expression and perfection of the image. In this sense, Damascene states (De Fide Orth. ii, 12) that the image indicates "an intelligent being endowed with free will and self-movement, while likeness implies a similarity of power, as far as this is possible in man." In this same regard, "likeness" is said to be associated with "the love of virtue," because no virtue exists without a love for virtue.

Reply Obj. 1: "Likeness" is not distinct from "image" in the general notion of "likeness" (for thus it is included in "image"); but so far as any "likeness" falls short of "image," or again, as it perfects the idea of "image."

Reply Obj. 1: "Likeness" isn't different from "image" in the general sense of "likeness" (because it's included in "image"); but to the extent that any "likeness" doesn't fully reach "image," or conversely, as it enhances the idea of "image."

Reply Obj. 2: The soul's essence belongs to the "image," as representing the Divine Essence in those things which belong to the intellectual nature; but not in those conditions subsequent to general notions of being, such as simplicity and indissolubility.

Reply Obj. 2: The essence of the soul is associated with the "image," as it reflects the Divine Essence in aspects that pertain to the intellectual nature; however, this does not apply to conditions that come after general concepts of being, such as simplicity and indissolubility.

Reply Obj. 3: Even certain virtues are natural to the soul, at least, in their seeds, by reason of which we may say that a natural "likeness" exists in the soul. Nor it is unfitting to us the term "image" from one point of view and from another the term "likeness."

Reply Obj. 3: Some virtues are naturally present in the soul, at least in their potential, which allows us to say that there is a natural "likeness" in the soul. It's appropriate to use the term "image" from one perspective and the term "likeness" from another.

Reply Obj. 4: Love of the word, which is knowledge loved, belongs to the nature of "image"; but love of virtue belongs to "likeness," as virtue itself belongs to likeness. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Love of the word, which is knowledge that is cherished, is part of the nature of "image"; however, love of virtue relates to "likeness," just as virtue itself is connected to likeness.

QUESTION 94

OF THE STATE AND CONDITION OF THE FIRST MAN AS REGARDS HIS INTELLECT
(In Four Articles)

OF THE STATE AND CONDITION OF THE FIRST MAN REGARDING HIS INTELLECT
(In Four Articles)

We next consider the state or condition of the first man; first, as regards his soul; secondly, as regards his body. Concerning the first there are two things to be considered:

We will now look at the state or condition of the first man; first, regarding his soul; second, regarding his body. For the first, there are two things to consider:

(1) The condition of man as to his intellect;

(1) The state of a person's intellect;

(2) the condition of man as to his will.

(2) the state of a person regarding their will.

Under the first head there are four points of inquiry:

Under the first category, there are four points to consider:

(1) Whether the first man saw the Essence of God?

(1) Did the first man see the Essence of God?

(2) Whether he could see the separate substances, that is, the angels?

(2) Could he see the individual beings, the angels?

(3) Whether he possessed all knowledge?

(3) Did he have all the knowledge?

(4) Whether he could err or be deceived? _______________________

(4) Could he make a mistake or be misled?

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 94, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 94, Art. 1]

Whether the First Man Saw God Through His Essence?

Whether the First Man Saw God Through His Essence?

Objection 1: It would seem that the first man saw God through His Essence. For man's happiness consists in the vision of the Divine Essence. But the first man, "while established in paradise, led a life of happiness in the enjoyment of all things," as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 11). And Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 10): "If man was gifted with the same tastes as now, how happy must he have been in paradise, that place of ineffable happiness!" Therefore the first man in paradise saw God through His Essence.

Objection 1: It seems that the first man perceived God directly through His Essence. Since a person’s happiness comes from seeing the Divine Essence, and the first man "enjoyed a happy life surrounded by everything in paradise," as Damascene mentions (De Fide Orth. ii, 11). Augustine also states (De Civ. Dei xiv, 10): "If man had the same desires as we do now, just imagine how blissful he must have been in paradise, that place of indescribable joy!" Therefore, the first man in paradise saw God through His Essence.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, loc. cit.) that "the first man lacked nothing which his good-will might obtain." But our good-will can obtain nothing better than the vision of the Divine Essence. Therefore man saw God through His Essence.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xiv, loc. cit.) that "the first man lacked nothing that his good-will could achieve." However, our good-will can’t achieve anything better than the vision of the Divine Essence. Therefore, man perceived God through His Essence.

Obj. 3: Further, the vision of God in His Essence is whereby God is seen without a medium or enigma. But man in the state of innocence "saw God immediately," as the Master of the Sentences asserts (Sent. iv, D, i). He also saw without an enigma, for an enigma implies obscurity, as Augustine says (De Trin. xv, 9). Now, obscurity resulted from sin. Therefore man in the primitive state saw God through His Essence.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the vision of God in His Essence means that God is seen directly, without any barrier or mystery. However, in a state of innocence, man "saw God directly," as the Master of the Sentences states (Sent. iv, D, i). He also saw without a mystery, since a mystery suggests confusion, as Augustine mentions (De Trin. xv, 9). Now, confusion came about due to sin. Therefore, man in the original state saw God through His Essence.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (1 Cor. 15:46): "That was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural." But to see God through His Essence is most spiritual. Therefore the first man in the primitive state of his natural life did not see God through His Essence.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (1 Cor. 15:46): "What came first was not spiritual, but natural." But to see God in His Essence is the most spiritual experience. Therefore, the first man in the original state of his natural life did not see God in His Essence.

I answer that, The first man did not see God through His Essence if we consider the ordinary state of that life; unless, perhaps, it be said that he saw God in a vision, when "God cast a deep sleep upon Adam" (Gen. 2:21). The reason is because, since in the Divine Essence is beatitude itself, the intellect of a man who sees the Divine Essence has the same relation to God as a man has to beatitude. Now it is clear that man cannot willingly be turned away from beatitude, since naturally and necessarily he desires it, and shuns unhappiness. Wherefore no one who sees the Essence of God can willingly turn away from God, which means to sin. Hence all who see God through His Essence are so firmly established in the love of God, that for eternity they can never sin. Therefore, as Adam did sin, it is clear that he did not see God through His Essence.

I respond that, the first man did not see God in His Essence if we look at the ordinary state of that life; unless, perhaps, we say he saw God in a vision when "God put Adam into a deep sleep" (Gen. 2:21). The reason is that, since the Divine Essence is happiness itself, the understanding of a man who sees the Divine Essence has the same relation to God as a man has to happiness. It’s clear that a person cannot willingly turn away from happiness, since they naturally and necessarily desire it and avoid unhappiness. Therefore, no one who sees the Essence of God can willingly turn away from God, which is to sin. As a result, all who see God in His Essence are so firmly rooted in the love of God that they can never sin for all eternity. Thus, since Adam did sin, it’s obvious that he did not see God in His Essence.

Nevertheless he knew God with a more perfect knowledge than we do now. Thus in a sense his knowledge was midway between our knowledge in the present state, and the knowledge we shall have in heaven, when we see God through His Essence. To make this clear, we must consider that the vision of God through His Essence is contradistinguished from the vision of God through His creatures. Now the higher the creature is, and the more like it is to God, the more clearly is God seen in it; for instance, a man is seen more clearly through a mirror in which his image is the more clearly expressed. Thus God is seen in a much more perfect manner through His intelligible effects than through those which are only sensible or corporeal. But in his present state man is impeded as regards the full and clear consideration of intelligible creatures, because he is distracted by and occupied with sensible things. Now, it is written (Eccles. 7:30): "God made man right." And man was made right by God in this sense, that in him the lower powers were subjected to the higher, and the higher nature was made so as not to be impeded by the lower. Wherefore the first man was not impeded by exterior things from a clear and steady contemplation of the intelligible effects which he perceived by the radiation of the first truth, whether by a natural or by a gratuitous knowledge. Hence Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xi, 33) that, "perhaps God used to speak to the first man as He speaks to the angels; by shedding on his mind a ray of the unchangeable truth, yet without bestowing on him the experience of which the angels are capable in the participation of the Divine Essence." Therefore, through these intelligible effects of God, man knew God then more clearly than we know Him now.

Nevertheless, he knew God more fully than we do now. In a way, his understanding was between our current knowledge and the knowledge we will have in heaven when we see God in His true essence. To clarify this, we need to recognize that seeing God in His essence is different from seeing Him through His creations. The higher the creation is and the more it reflects God, the clearer we see God in it; for example, a person is more clearly reflected in a mirror that accurately shows their image. Therefore, God is seen in a much more perfect way through His intelligible creations than through those that are merely physical. However, in his current state, a person struggles to fully and clearly understand intelligible creations because they are distracted and focused on physical things. It is written (Eccles. 7:30): "God made man right." Man was made right by God in the sense that his lower faculties were placed under his higher ones, and his higher nature was designed not to be hindered by the lower. Thus, the first man was not obstructed by external things from a clear and steady contemplation of the intelligible effects he perceived through the light of the ultimate truth, whether by natural knowledge or by grace. Therefore, Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. xi, 33) that, "perhaps God used to speak to the first man as He speaks to the angels, by shining a ray of unchangeable truth on his mind, but without giving him the full experience that angels have in participating in the Divine Essence." Consequently, through these intelligible effects of God, man recognized God more clearly back then than we do now.

Reply Obj. 1: Man was happy in paradise, but not with that perfect happiness to which he was destined, which consists in the vision of the Divine Essence. He was, however, endowed with "a life of happiness in a certain measure," as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xi, 18), so far as he was gifted with natural integrity and perfection.

Reply Obj. 1: Man was happy in paradise, but not with the perfect happiness he was meant to have, which is found in the vision of the Divine Essence. However, he did experience "a life of happiness to some extent," as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xi, 18), because he was blessed with natural integrity and perfection.

Reply Obj. 2: A good will is a well-ordered will; but the will of the first man would have been ill-ordered had he wished to have, while in the state of merit, what had been promised to him as a reward.

Reply Obj. 2: A good will is a well-organized will; however, the will of the first man would have been disorganized if he had wanted to have, while in the state of merit, what had been promised to him as a reward.

Reply Obj. 3: A medium (of knowledge) is twofold; one through which, and, at the same time, in which, something is seen, as, for example, a man is seen through a mirror, and is seen with the mirror: another kind of medium is that whereby we attain to the knowledge of something unknown; such as the medium in a demonstration. God was seen without this second kind of medium, but not without the first kind. For there was no need for the first man to attain to the knowledge of God by demonstration drawn from an effect, such as we need; since he knew God simultaneously in His effects, especially in the intelligible effects, according to His capacity. Again, we must remark that the obscurity which is implied in the word enigma may be of two kinds: first, so far as every creature is something obscure when compared with the immensity of the Divine light; and thus Adam saw God in an enigma, because he saw Him in a created effect: secondly, we may take obscurity as an effect of sin, so far as man is impeded in the consideration of intelligible things by being preoccupied with sensible things; in which sense Adam did not see God in an enigma. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: A medium (of knowledge) has two forms; one is a medium through which, and at the same time, in which, something is observed, like how a man is seen through a mirror and with the mirror. The other type of medium helps us gain knowledge of something unknown, like the medium used in a demonstration. God was seen without needing this second type of medium, but not without the first. The first man didn't need to understand God through a demonstration based on an effect, like we do, because he knew God directly through His effects, especially the intelligible ones, according to his understanding. Additionally, we should note that the obscurity implied in the word "enigma" can come in two forms: first, every creature is somewhat obscure compared to the vastness of Divine light; thus, Adam saw God in an enigma because he observed Him through a created effect. Second, we can view obscurity as a result of sin, where a person is hindered in understanding intelligible things due to being distracted by sensible things; in this sense, Adam did not see God in an enigma. _______________________

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 94, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 94, Art. 2]

Whether Adam in the State of Innocence Saw the Angels Through Their
Essence?

Whether Adam in the State of Innocence Saw the Angels Through Their
Essence?

Objection 1: It would seem that Adam, in the state of innocence, saw the angels through their essence. For Gregory says (Dialog. iv, 1): "In paradise man was accustomed to enjoy the words of God; and by purity of heart and loftiness of vision to have the company of the good angels."

Objection 1: It seems that Adam, in a state of innocence, could see the angels in their true form. For Gregory says (Dialog. iv, 1): "In paradise, man was used to hearing the words of God and, through a pure heart and elevated perspective, was in the presence of the good angels."

Obj. 2: Further, the soul in the present state is impeded from the knowledge of separate substances by union with a corruptible body which "is a load upon the soul," as is written Wis. 9:15. Wherefore the separate soul can see separate substances, as above explained (Q. 89, A. 2). But the body of the first man was not a load upon his soul; for the latter was not corruptible. Therefore he was able to see separate substances.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the soul in its current state is hindered from knowing separate substances because it is united with a corruptible body, which "weighs down the soul," as stated in Wis. 9:15. Therefore, the separate soul can perceive separate substances, as explained above (Q. 89, A. 2). However, the body of the first man did not weigh down his soul since it was not corruptible. As a result, he was able to see separate substances.

Obj. 3: Further, one separate substance knows another separate substance, by knowing itself (De Causis xiii). But the soul of the first man knew itself. Therefore it knew separate substances.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, one distinct substance is aware of another distinct substance by being aware of itself (De Causis xiii). But the soul of the first man was aware of itself. Therefore, it was aware of distinct substances.

On the contrary, The soul of Adam was of the same nature as ours. But our souls cannot now understand separate substances. Therefore neither could Adam's soul.

On the contrary, Adam's soul was the same as ours. But our souls can't understand separate substances anymore. So neither could Adam's soul.

I answer that, The state of the human soul may be distinguished in two ways. First, from a diversity of mode in its natural existence; and in this point the state of the separate soul is distinguished from the state of the soul joined to the body. Secondly, the state of the soul is distinguished in relation to integrity and corruption, the state of natural existence remaining the same: and thus the state of innocence is distinct from the state of man after sin. For man's soul, in the state of innocence, was adapted to perfect and govern the body; wherefore the first man is said to have been made into a "living soul"; that is, a soul giving life to the body—namely animal life. But he was endowed with integrity as to this life, in that the body was entirely subject to the soul, hindering it in no way, as we have said above (A. 1). Now it is clear from what has been already said (Q. 84, A. 7; Q. 85, A. 1; Q. 89, A. 1) that since the soul is adapted to perfect and govern the body, as regards animal life, it is fitting that it should have that mode of understanding which is by turning to phantasms. Wherefore this mode of understanding was becoming to the soul of the first man also.

I respond that, the condition of the human soul can be understood in two ways. First, by the different ways it exists naturally; in this regard, the condition of the separate soul is different from that of the soul connected to the body. Second, the state of the soul can be identified concerning completeness and decay, while its natural existence remains unchanged: thus, the state of innocence is separate from the state of humanity after sin. In the state of innocence, a person's soul was designed to perfectly control the body; hence, the first man is said to have been created a "living soul," meaning a soul that gives life to the body—specifically, animal life. However, he was equipped with integrity regarding this life, as the body was completely under the soul's control, not interfering in any way, as noted previously (A. 1). It is evident from earlier discussions (Q. 84, A. 7; Q. 85, A. 1; Q. 89, A. 1) that since the soul is designed to perfect and govern the body concerning animal life, it is appropriate for it to have a mode of understanding that involves turning to mental images. Therefore, this approach to understanding was also fitting for the soul of the first man.

Now, in virtue of this mode of understanding, there are three degrees of movement in the soul, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv). The first is by the soul "passing from exterior things to concentrate its powers on itself"; the second is by the soul ascending "so as to be associated with the united superior powers," namely the angels; the third is when the soul is "led on" yet further "to the supreme good," that is, to God.

Now, because of this way of understanding, there are three levels of movement in the soul, as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv). The first is when the soul "moves from external things to focus its energy on itself"; the second is when the soul rises "to be connected with the united higher powers," which are the angels; the third is when the soul is "guided" even further "to the ultimate good," meaning, to God.

In virtue of the first movement of the soul from exterior things to itself, the soul's knowledge is perfected. This is because the intellectual operation of the soul has a natural order to external things, as we have said above (Q. 87, A. 3): and so by the knowledge thereof, our intellectual operation can be known perfectly, as an act through its object. And through the intellectual operation itself, the human intellect can be known perfectly, as a power through its proper act. But in the second movement we do not find perfect knowledge. Because, since the angel does not understand by turning to phantasms, but by a far more excellent process, as we have said above (Q. 55, A. 2); the above-mentioned mode of knowledge, by which the soul knows itself, is not sufficient to lead it to the knowledge of an angel. Much less does the third movement lead to perfect knowledge: for even the angels themselves, by the fact that they know themselves, are not able to arrive at the knowledge of the Divine Substance, by reason of its surpassing excellence. Therefore the soul of the first man could not see the angels in their essence. Nevertheless he had a more excellent mode of knowledge regarding the angels than we possess, because his knowledge of intelligible things within him was more certain and fixed than our knowledge. And it was on account of this excellence of knowledge that Gregory says that "he enjoyed the company of the angelic spirits."

Through the initial movement of the soul from external things to itself, the soul's understanding is perfected. This is because the soul's intellectual activity naturally relates to external things, as we mentioned before (Q. 87, A. 3). Thus, through that knowledge, our intellectual activity can be fully understood as an action through its object. Additionally, through the intellectual activity itself, the human intellect can be fully recognized as a power through its specific action. However, in the second movement, we don't achieve complete knowledge. Since angels understand not by referring to phantasms but through a much higher process, as noted earlier (Q. 55, A. 2), the method of knowledge by which the soul knows itself isn't adequate for attaining knowledge of an angel. The third movement yields even less complete knowledge; even angels, by knowing themselves, cannot reach the knowledge of the Divine Substance because of its overwhelming greatness. Therefore, the soul of the first man could not perceive angels in their essence. Nonetheless, he had a superior way of knowing about angels compared to us, as his understanding of intelligible things was more certain and stable than ours. It is due to this superior knowledge that Gregory states he "enjoyed the company of the angelic spirits."

This makes clear the reply to the first objection.

This clearly answers the first objection.

Reply Obj. 2: That the soul of the first man fell short of the knowledge regarding separate substances, was not owing to the fact that the body was a load upon it; but to the fact that its connatural object fell short of the excellence of separate substances. We, in our present state, fall short on account of both these reasons.

Reply Obj. 2: The reason the first man's soul lacked knowledge of separate substances wasn't because the body was a burden; it was because its natural object didn’t measure up to the excellence of separate substances. In our current state, we fall short for both of these reasons.

Reply Obj. 3: The soul of the first man was not able to arrive at knowledge of separate substances by means of its self-knowledge, as we have shown above; for even each separate substance knows others in its own measure. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The soul of the first man couldn't gain knowledge of separate substances through self-awareness, as we’ve demonstrated earlier; because even each separate substance understands others to a certain extent.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 94, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 94, Art. 3]

Whether the First Man Knew All Things?

Whether the First Man Knew Everything?

Objection 1: It would seem that the first man did not know all things. For if he had such knowledge it would be either by acquired species, or by connatural species, or by infused species. Not, however, by acquired species; for this kind of knowledge is acquired by experience, as stated in Metaph. i, 1; and the first man had not then gained experience of all things. Nor through connatural species, because he was of the same nature as we are; and our soul, as Aristotle says (De Anima iii, 4), is "like a clean tablet on which nothing is written." And if his knowledge came by infused species, it would have been of a different kind from ours, which we acquire from things themselves.

Objection 1: It seems that the first man didn’t know everything. If he did have such knowledge, it would be through either acquired knowledge, natural knowledge, or infused knowledge. It can’t be through acquired knowledge because this type is gained through experience, as stated in Metaph. i, 1; and the first man hadn’t experienced everything yet. It also can’t be through natural knowledge because he shared our human nature, and our soul, as Aristotle says (De Anima iii, 4), is "like a clean tablet on which nothing is written." If he had infused knowledge, it would have been different from ours, which we get from direct experience with things.

Obj. 2: Further, individuals of the same species have the same way of arriving at perfection. Now other men have not, from the beginning, knowledge of all things, but they acquire it in the course of time according to their capacity. Therefore neither did Adam know all things when he was first created.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, people of the same species follow the same path to achieving perfection. Other people don’t have complete knowledge of everything from the start; instead, they gain it over time based on their abilities. Therefore, Adam also did not know everything when he was initially created.

Obj. 3: Further, the present state of life is given to man in order that his soul may advance in knowledge and merit; indeed, the soul seems to be united to the body for that purpose. Now man would have advanced in merit in that state of life; therefore also in knowledge. Therefore he was not endowed with knowledge of all things.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the current state of life is granted to humans so that their souls can grow in knowledge and virtue; in fact, the soul appears to be connected to the body for that reason. Now, humans would have made progress in virtue during this state of life; therefore, they would have made progress in knowledge as well. As a result, they were not given knowledge of everything.

On the contrary, Man named the animals (Gen. 2:20). But names should be adapted to the nature of things. Therefore Adam knew the animals' natures; and in like manner he was possessed of the knowledge of all other things.

On the contrary, Man named the animals (Gen. 2:20). But names should fit the nature of things. So, Adam understood the animals' natures; and similarly, he had knowledge of everything else as well.

I answer that, In the natural order, perfection comes before imperfection, as act precedes potentiality; for whatever is in potentiality is made actual only by something actual. And since God created things not only for their own existence, but also that they might be the principles of other things; so creatures were produced in their perfect state to be the principles as regards others. Now man can be the principle of another man, not only by generation of the body, but also by instruction and government. Hence, as the first man was produced in his perfect state, as regards his body, for the work of generation, so also was his soul established in a perfect state to instruct and govern others.

I respond that, in the natural order, perfection comes before imperfection, just as action comes before potential; because anything that is potential only becomes actual through something that is already actual. Since God created things not only for their own existence but also to serve as foundations for other things, creatures were made in their perfect state to be the basis for others. A person can be the foundation for another person, not just through physical generation, but also through teaching and leadership. Therefore, just as the first man was created in his perfect state concerning his body for the purpose of reproduction, his soul was also established in a perfect state to teach and lead others.

Now no one can instruct others unless he has knowledge, and so the first man was established by God in such a manner as to have knowledge of all those things for which man has a natural aptitude. And such are whatever are virtually contained in the first self-evident principles, that is, whatever truths man is naturally able to know. Moreover, in order to direct his own life and that of others, man needs to know not only those things which can be naturally known, but also things surpassing natural knowledge; because the life of man is directed to a supernatural end: just as it is necessary for us to know the truths of faith in order to direct our own lives. Wherefore the first man was endowed with such a knowledge of these supernatural truths as was necessary for the direction of human life in that state. But those things which cannot be known by merely human effort, and which are not necessary for the direction of human life, were not known by the first man; such as the thoughts of men, future contingent events, and some individual facts, as for instance the number of pebbles in a stream; and the like.

Now, no one can teach others unless they have knowledge, and so the first man was created by God in a way that gave him knowledge of all the things for which humans have a natural ability. These include what is essentially contained in the first self-evident principles, meaning any truths that people can naturally understand. Furthermore, to guide his own life and that of others, a person needs to know not just what can be naturally understood, but also things beyond natural knowledge; because human life is aimed at a supernatural purpose: just as it’s necessary for us to understand the truths of faith to manage our own lives. Therefore, the first man was given a knowledge of these supernatural truths that was necessary for guiding human life in that state. However, things that cannot be known through human effort alone, and that are not necessary for directing human life, were not known by the first man; such as people's thoughts, future events, and some specific facts, like the number of pebbles in a stream; and similar things.

Reply Obj. 1: The first man had knowledge of all things by divinely infused species. Yet his knowledge was not different from ours; as the eyes which Christ gave to the man born blind were not different from those given by nature.

Reply Obj. 1: The first man had knowledge of everything through divinely infused ideas. However, his knowledge was not different from ours; just as the eyes that Christ gave to the man born blind were not different from those created by nature.

Reply Obj. 2: To Adam, as being the first man, was due a degree of perfection which was not due to other men, as is clear from what is above explained.

Reply Obj. 2: Adam, being the first man, was entitled to a level of perfection that other men did not have, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 3: Adam would have advanced in natural knowledge, not in the number of things known, but in the manner of knowing; because what he knew speculatively he would subsequently have known by experience. But as regards supernatural knowledge, he would also have advanced as regards the number of things known, by further revelation; as the angels advance by further enlightenment. Moreover there is no comparison between advance in knowledge and advance in merit; since one man cannot be a principle of merit to another, although he can be to another a principle of knowledge. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Adam would have progressed in natural knowledge, not in the number of things he knew, but in how he knew them; because what he understood theoretically he would later have learned through experience. However, in terms of supernatural knowledge, he would have also progressed in the number of things he knew, through additional revelation, just as the angels progress with further insight. Furthermore, there is no comparison between growth in knowledge and growth in merit, since one person cannot be a source of merit for another, although they can be a source of knowledge for someone else.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 94, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 94, Art. 4]

Whether Man in His First State Could Be Deceived?

Whether humans in their original state could be misled?

Objection 1: It would seem that man in his primitive state could have been deceived. For the Apostle says (1 Tim. 2:14) that "the woman being seduced was in the transgression."

Objection 1: It seems that humans in their primitive state could have been misled. The Apostle states (1 Tim. 2:14) that "the woman being deceived was in the transgression."

Obj. 2: Further, the Master says (Sent. ii, D, xxi) that, "the woman was not frightened at the serpent speaking, because she thought that he had received the faculty of speech from God." But this was untrue. Therefore before sin the woman was deceived.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Master says (Sent. ii, D, xxi) that, "the woman was not scared when the serpent spoke, because she believed that he had received the ability to speak from God." But this was not true. Therefore, before sin, the woman was misled.

Obj. 3: Further, it is natural that the farther off anything is from us, the smaller it seems to be. Now, the nature of the eyes is not changed by sin. Therefore this would have been the case in the state of innocence. Wherefore man would have been deceived in the size of what he saw, just as he is deceived now.

Obj. 3: Additionally, it's natural that the farther away something is from us, the smaller it appears. Now, the nature of the eyes hasn't changed because of sin. So, this would have been true in a state of innocence. Therefore, a person would have been misled about the size of what they saw, just like they are today.

Obj. 4: Further, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 2) that, in sleep the soul adheres to the images of things as if they were the things themselves. But in the state of innocence man would have eaten and consequently have slept and dreamed. Therefore he would have been deceived, adhering to images as to realities.

Obj. 4: Additionally, Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. xii, 2) that, during sleep, the soul clings to the images of things as if they were the actual things themselves. However, in a state of innocence, man would have eaten and then would have slept and dreamed. Thus, he would have been misled, clinging to images as if they were real.

Obj. 5: Further, the first man would have been ignorant of other men's thoughts, and of future contingent events, as stated above (A. 3). So if anyone had told him what was false about these things, he would have been deceived.

Obj. 5: Additionally, the first man would have been unaware of other people's thoughts and future events, as mentioned earlier (A. 3). So if someone had told him something false about these matters, he would have been misled.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Lib. Arb. iii, 18): "To regard what is true as false, is not natural to man as created; but is a punishment of man condemned."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Lib. Arb. iii, 18): "Seeing what is true as false is not natural for man as created; instead, it is a punishment for man who is condemned."

I answer that, in the opinion of some, deception may mean two things; namely, any slight surmise, in which one adheres to what is false, as though it were true, but without the assent of belief—or it may mean a firm belief. Thus before sin Adam could not be deceived in either of these ways as regards those things to which his knowledge extended; but as regards things to which his knowledge did not extend, he might have been deceived, if we take deception in the wide sense of the term for any surmise without assent of belief. This opinion was held with the idea that it is not derogatory to man to entertain a false opinion in such matters, and that provided he does not assent rashly, he is not to be blamed.

I respond that, according to some, deception can mean two things: it can refer to any slight suspicion where someone accepts what is false as if it were true, but without fully believing it—or it can refer to a strong belief. So, before sin, Adam couldn’t be deceived in either of these ways about things within his knowledge; however, regarding things outside his knowledge, he might have been deceived, if we define deception broadly as any suspicion without full belief. This view suggests that it's not degrading for a person to hold a false opinion in such cases, and as long as he doesn't agree too quickly, he shouldn't be blamed.

Such an opinion, however, is not fitting as regards the integrity of the primitive state of life; because, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 10), in that state of life "sin was avoided without struggle, and while it remained so, no evil could exist." Now it is clear that as truth is the good of the intellect, so falsehood is its evil, as the Philosopher says (Ethic. vi, 2). So that, as long as the state of innocence continued, it was impossible for the human intellect to assent to falsehood as if it were truth. For as some perfections, such as clarity, were lacking in the bodily members of the first man, though no evil could be therein; so there could be in his intellect the absence of some knowledge, but no false opinion.

Such a perspective, however, doesn't truly reflect the integrity of the original state of life. As Augustine notes (De Civ. Dei xiv, 10), in that state, "sin was avoided without struggle, and while it remained so, no evil could exist." It's clear that just as truth is the good of the intellect, falsehood is its evil, as the Philosopher explains (Ethic. vi, 2). Therefore, as long as the state of innocence lasted, it was impossible for the human intellect to accept falsehood as if it were truth. Just as some perfections, like clarity, were missing from the physical body of the first man, although no evil could exist there, his intellect could also lack some knowledge but harbor no false opinions.

This is clear also from the very rectitude of the primitive state, by virtue of which, while the soul remained subject to God, the lower faculties in man were subject to the higher, and were no impediment to their action. And from what has preceded (Q. 85, A. 6), it is clear that as regards its proper object the intellect is ever true; and hence it is never deceived of itself; but whatever deception occurs must be ascribed to some lower faculty, such as the imagination or the like. Hence we see that when the natural power of judgment is free we are not deceived by such images, but only when it is not free, as is the case in sleep. Therefore it is clear that the rectitude of the primitive state was incompatible with deception of the intellect.

This is also evident from the pure nature of the original state, where the soul was in submission to God, and the lower faculties in people were governed by the higher ones, posing no obstacle to their function. From what has already been stated (Q. 85, A. 6), it's clear that the intellect is always true concerning its intended purpose; therefore, it can never be self-deceived. Any deception that happens must be attributed to some lower faculty, like the imagination, or something similar. Thus, we can see that when our natural judgment is free, we are not misled by such images, but only when it is not free, as in the case of sleep. Therefore, it’s clear that the integrity of the original state did not allow for the intellect to be deceived.

Reply Obj. 1: Though the woman was deceived before she sinned in deed, still it was not till she had already sinned by interior pride. For Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xi, 30) that "the woman could not have believed the words of the serpent, had she not already acquiesced in the love of her own power, and in a presumption of self-conceit."

Reply Obj. 1: Although the woman was tricked before she actually sinned, she had already sinned through her inner pride. Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. xi, 30) that "the woman could not have believed the serpent's words if she hadn't already given in to her desire for power and a sense of self-importance."

Reply Obj. 2: The woman thought that the serpent had received this faculty, not as acting in accordance with nature, but by virtue of some supernatural operation. We need not, however, follow the Master of the Sentences in this point.

Reply Obj. 2: The woman believed that the serpent gained this ability, not by nature, but through some supernatural means. However, we don’t need to follow the Master of the Sentences on this point.

Reply Obj. 3: Were anything presented to the imagination or sense of the first man, not in accordance with the nature of things, he would not have been deceived, for his reason would have enabled him to judge the truth.

Reply Obj. 3: If anything had been presented to the imagination or senses of the first man that wasn’t in line with the nature of things, he wouldn’t have been deceived, because his reason would have allowed him to discern the truth.

Reply Obj. 4: A man is not accountable for what occurs during sleep; as he has not then the use of his reason, wherein consists man's proper action.

Reply Obj. 4: A person isn't responsible for what happens while they're asleep; during that time, they don't have the use of their reasoning, which is essential for human action.

Reply Obj. 5: If anyone had said something untrue as regards future contingencies, or as regards secret thoughts, man in the primitive state would not have believed it was so: but he might have believed that such a thing was possible; which would not have been to entertain a false opinion.

Reply Obj. 5: If someone had said something untrue about future events or secret thoughts, a person in a primitive state wouldn’t have accepted it as true; however, they might have believed that such a thing could happen, which wouldn’t have meant holding a false opinion.

It might also be said that he would have been divinely guided from above, so as not to be deceived in a matter to which his knowledge did not extend.

It could also be said that he would have been guided from above, so that he wouldn’t be misled in a situation beyond his understanding.

If any object, as some do, that he was not guided, when tempted, though he was then most in need of guidance, we reply that man had already sinned in his heart, and that he failed to have recourse to the Divine aid. _______________________

If anyone thinks, as some do, that he wasn't guided when tempted, even though he really needed guidance at that moment, we respond by saying that the person had already sinned in his heart, and he didn’t seek Divine help.

QUESTION 95

OF THINGS PERTAINING TO THE FIRST MAN'S WILL—NAMELY, GRACE AND
RIGHTEOUSNESS
(In Four Articles)

OF THINGS PERTAINING TO THE FIRST MAN'S WILL—NAMELY, GRACE AND
RIGHTEOUSNESS
(In Four Articles)

We next consider what belongs to the will of the first man; concerning which there are two points of treatment:

We will now look at what is part of the will of the first man, which involves two main points to discuss:

(1) the grace and righteousness of the first man;

(1) the grace and goodness of the first man;

(2) the use of righteousness as regards his dominion over other things.

(2) the use of righteousness in relation to his control over other things.

Under the first head there are four points of inquiry:

Under the first topic, there are four points to discuss:

(1) Whether the first man was created in grace?

(1) Was the first man created in grace?

(2) Whether in the state of innocence he had passions of the soul?

(2) Did he have any feelings of the soul while in a state of innocence?

(3) Whether he had all virtues?

(3) Did he have all the virtues?

(4) Whether what he did would have been as meritorious as now? _______________________

(4) Would what he did still be considered as commendable today? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 95, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 95, Art. 1]

Whether the First Man Was Created in Grace?

Whether the First Man Was Created in Grace?

Objection 1: It would seem that the first man was not created in grace. For the Apostle, distinguishing between Adam and Christ, says (1 Cor. 15:45): "The first Adam was made into a living soul; the last Adam into a quickening spirit." But the spirit is quickened by grace. Therefore Christ alone was made in grace.

Objection 1: It seems that the first man wasn’t created with grace. The Apostle, distinguishing between Adam and Christ, says (1 Cor. 15:45): "The first Adam was made into a living soul; the last Adam into a quickening spirit." But the spirit is made alive by grace. Therefore, only Christ was created in grace.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (QQ. Vet. et Nov. Test., qu. 123) [*Work of an anonymous author, among the supposititious works of St. Augustine] that "Adam did not possess the Holy Ghost." But whoever possesses grace has the Holy Ghost. Therefore Adam was not created in grace.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (QQ. Vet. et Nov. Test., qu. 123) [*Work of an anonymous author, among the supposed works of St. Augustine] that "Adam did not possess the Holy Spirit." But anyone who has grace has the Holy Spirit. Therefore, Adam was not created in grace.

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine says (De Correp. et Grat. x) that "God so ordered the life of the angels and men, as to show first what they could do by free-will, then what they could do by His grace, and by the discernment of righteousness." God thus first created men and angels in the state of natural free-will only; and afterwards bestowed grace on them.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Augustine states (De Correp. et Grat. x) that "God arranged the lives of angels and humans to first demonstrate what they could achieve through free will, and then what they could do through His grace and the understanding of righteousness." Therefore, God initially created humans and angels with natural free will only; and later granted them grace.

Obj. 4: Further, the Master says (Sent. ii, D, xxiv): "When man was created he was given sufficient help to stand, but not sufficient to advance." But whoever has grace can advance by merit. Therefore the first man was not created in grace.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the Master states (Sent. ii, D, xxiv): "When man was created, he was given enough support to stand, but not enough to progress." However, anyone with grace can move forward through merit. Therefore, the first man was not created in grace.

Obj. 5: Further, the reception of grace requires the consent of the recipient, since thereby a kind of spiritual marriage takes place between God and the soul. But consent presupposes existence. Therefore man did not receive grace in the first moment of his creation.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, receiving grace requires the recipient's consent because this creates a kind of spiritual union between God and the soul. However, consent assumes existence. Therefore, a person did not receive grace at the very moment of their creation.

Obj. 6: Further, nature is more distant from grace than grace is from glory, which is but grace consummated. But in man grace precedes glory. Therefore much more did nature precede grace.

Obj. 6: Furthermore, nature is farther from grace than grace is from glory, which is simply grace fully realized. But in humanity, grace comes before glory. Therefore, nature precedes grace by a much greater margin.

On the contrary, Man and angel are both ordained to grace. But the angels were created in grace, for Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xii, 9): "God at the same time fashioned their nature and endowed them with grace." Therefore man also was created in grace.

On the contrary, both humans and angels are destined for grace. However, angels were created with grace, because Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xii, 9): "God simultaneously shaped their nature and gave them grace." Therefore, humans were also created in grace.

I answer that, Some say that man was not created in grace; but that it was bestowed on him subsequently before sin: and many authorities of the Saints declare that man possessed grace in the state of innocence.

I answer that, Some people say that humans weren't created with grace; instead, it was given to them later, before they sinned. Many respected Saints claim that humans had grace while in a state of innocence.

But the very rectitude of the primitive state, wherewith man was endowed by God, seems to require that, as others say, he was created in grace, according to Eccles. 7:30, "God made man right." For this rectitude consisted in his reason being subject to God, the lower powers to reason, and the body to the soul: and the first subjection was the cause of both the second and the third; since while reason was subject to God, the lower powers remained subject to reason, as Augustine says [*Cf. De Civ. Dei xiii, 13; De Pecc. Merit. et Remiss. i, 16]. Now it is clear that such a subjection of the body to the soul and of the lower powers to reason, was not from nature; otherwise it would have remained after sin; since even in the demons the natural gifts remained after sin, as Dionysius declared (Div. Nom. iv). Hence it is clear that also the primitive subjection by virtue of which reason was subject to God, was not a merely natural gift, but a supernatural endowment of grace; for it is not possible that the effect should be of greater efficiency than the cause. Hence Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiii, 13) that, "as soon as they disobeyed the Divine command, and forfeited Divine grace, they were ashamed of their nakedness, for they felt the impulse of disobedience in the flesh, as though it were a punishment corresponding to their own disobedience." Hence if the loss of grace dissolved the obedience of the flesh to the soul, we may gather that the inferior powers were subjected to the soul through grace existing therein.

But the inherent righteousness of the original state, which man was given by God, suggests that, as others say, he was created in grace, according to Ecclesiastes 7:30, "God made man upright." This righteousness meant that his reason was under God's authority, the lower faculties were under reason, and the body was under the soul: and the first authority was the reason for both the second and the third; since as long as reason was under God's authority, the lower faculties stayed under reason, as Augustine mentions [*Cf. De Civ. Dei xiii, 13; De Pecc. Merit. et Remiss. i, 16]. Now it’s clear that such subordination of the body to the soul and of the lower faculties to reason was not natural; otherwise, it would have persisted after sin; since even demons retain their natural gifts after sin, as Dionysius stated (Div. Nom. iv). Thus, it’s evident that the original subjection, by which reason was under God, was not just a natural gift, but a supernatural grace; for it’s impossible for the effect to be more powerful than the cause. Hence Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xiii, 13) that "as soon as they disobeyed the Divine command and lost Divine grace, they felt ashamed of their nakedness, because they experienced the urge of disobedience in the flesh, as if it were a punishment corresponding to their own disobedience." Therefore, if the loss of grace ended the body’s obedience to the soul, we can conclude that the lower faculties were subject to the soul through the grace that was in it.

Reply Obj. 1: The Apostle in these words means to show that there is a spiritual body, if there is an animal body, inasmuch as the spiritual life of the body began in Christ, who is "the firstborn of the dead," as the body's animal life began in Adam. From the Apostle's words, therefore, we cannot gather that Adam had no spiritual life in his soul; but that he had not spiritual life as regards the body.

Reply Obj. 1: The Apostle is trying to explain that there is a spiritual body just like there is an animal body, since the spiritual life of the body started with Christ, who is "the firstborn of the dead," just as the body's animal life started with Adam. So, from the Apostle's words, we cannot conclude that Adam didn't have any spiritual life in his soul; rather, he just didn't have spiritual life in relation to his body.

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine says in the same passage, it is not disputed that Adam, like other just souls, was in some degree gifted with the Holy Ghost; but "he did not possess the Holy Ghost, as the faithful possess Him now," who are admitted to eternal happiness directly after death.

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine states in the same passage, it’s clear that Adam, like other righteous souls, had some level of the Holy Spirit; however, "he did not have the Holy Spirit in the same way that the faithful have Him now," who enter eternal happiness right after death.

Reply Obj. 3: This passage from Augustine does not assert that angels or men were created with natural free-will before they possessed grace; but that God shows first what their free-will could do before being confirmed in grace, and what they acquired afterwards by being so confirmed.

Reply Obj. 3: This passage from Augustine doesn't claim that angels or humans were created with natural free will before having grace; rather, it shows what their free will could do before being secured in grace, and what they gained afterwards through that confirmation.

Reply Obj. 4: The Master here speaks according to the opinion of those who held that man was not created in grace, but only in a state of nature. We may also say that, though man was created in grace, yet it was not by virtue of the nature wherein he was created that he could advance by merit, but by virtue of the grace which was added.

Reply Obj. 4: The Master here speaks according to the view of those who believed that man was created not in grace, but only in a natural state. We can also say that, even if man was created in grace, it wasn't because of the nature in which he was created that he could grow through merit, but rather because of the grace that was added.

Reply Obj. 5: As the motion of the will is not continuous there is nothing against the first man having consented to grace even in the first moment of his existence.

Reply Obj. 5: Since the will's motion isn't continuous, there's nothing preventing the first man from having accepted grace even in the very first moment of his existence.

Reply Obj. 6: We merit glory by an act of grace; but we do not merit grace by an act of nature; hence the comparison fails. _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: We earn glory through an act of grace; however, we do not earn grace through an act of nature; therefore, the comparison does not hold.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 95, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 95, Art. 2]

Whether Passions Existed in the Soul of the First Man?

Whether Passions Existed in the Soul of the First Man?

Objection 1: It would seem that the first man's soul had no passions.
For by the passions of the soul "the flesh lusteth against the spirit"
(Gal. 5:7). But this did not happen in the state of innocence.
Therefore in the state of innocence there were no passions of the
soul.

Objection 1: It seems that the first man's soul had no passions.
Because the passions of the soul "the flesh lusts against the spirit"
(Gal. 5:7). But this didn’t occur in the state of innocence.
So, in the state of innocence, there were no passions of the
soul.

Obj. 2: Further, Adam's soul was nobler than his body. But his body was impassible. Therefore no passions were in his soul.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Adam's soul was more noble than his body. However, his body was impervious to suffering. Therefore, there were no passions in his soul.

Obj. 3: Further, the passions of the soul are restrained by the moral virtues. But in Adam the moral virtues were perfect. Therefore the passions were entirely excluded from him.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the desires of the soul are controlled by moral virtues. However, in Adam, the moral virtues were flawless. Therefore, the desires were completely absent from him.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 10) that "in our first parents there was undisturbed love of God," and other passions of the soul.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 10) that "in our first parents there was an undisturbed love of God," along with other emotions of the soul.

I answer that, The passions of the soul are in the sensual appetite, the object of which is good and evil. Wherefore some passions of the soul are directed to what is good, as love and joy; others to what is evil, as fear and sorrow. And since in the primitive state, evil was neither present nor imminent, nor was any good wanting which a good-will could desire to have then, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 10), therefore Adam had no passion with evil as its object; such as fear, sorrow, and the like; neither had he passions in respect of good not possessed, but to be possessed then, as burning concupiscence. But those passions which regard present good, as joy and love; or which regard future good to be had at the proper time, as desire and hope that casteth not down, existed in the state of innocence; otherwise, however, than as they exist in ourselves. For our sensual appetite, wherein the passions reside, is not entirely subject to reason; hence at times our passions forestall and hinder reason's judgment; at other times they follow reason's judgment, accordingly as the sensual appetite obeys reason to some extent. But in the state of innocence the inferior appetite was wholly subject to reason: so that in that state the passions of the soul existed only as consequent upon the judgment of reason.

I answer that, The emotions of the soul relate to the desires of the senses, which focus on what is good and evil. Some emotions lead towards goodness, like love and joy, while others are directed towards evil, such as fear and sorrow. In the original state, evil was neither present nor imminent, nor was there any good lacking that a good-willed person could desire, as Augustine mentions (De Civ. Dei xiv, 10). Therefore, Adam did not experience emotions with evil as their focus, such as fear and sorrow; nor did he have emotions about good that he did not yet possess, like intense desires. However, emotions related to present good, such as joy and love, or those related to future good that would come at the right time, like desire and hope that uplifts, existed in a state of innocence, but in a different way than they do in us. Our sensual desires, where emotions reside, are not entirely under the control of reason; sometimes our emotions get ahead of and obstruct reason's judgment, while at other times they follow reason's judgment, depending on how much the sensual desires obey reason. But in the state of innocence, the lower desires were fully subject to reason, so that in that state, the emotions of the soul were only responses to the judgments of reason.

Reply Obj. 1: The flesh lusts against the spirit by the rebellion of the passions against reason; which could not occur in the state of innocence.

Reply Obj. 1: The flesh desires against the spirit because of the passions rebelling against reason; this couldn't happen in a state of innocence.

Reply Obj. 2: The human body was impassible in the state of innocence as regards the passions which alter the disposition of nature, as will be explained later on (Q. 97, A. 2); likewise the soul was impassible as regards the passions which impede the free use of reason.

Reply Obj. 2: The human body was unaffected in its state of innocence concerning the emotions that change the nature's balance, as will be explained later (Q. 97, A. 2); similarly, the soul was unaffected in relation to the emotions that hinder the free use of reason.

Reply Obj. 3: Perfection of moral virtue does not wholly take away the passions, but regulates them; for the temperate man desires as he ought to desire, and what he ought to desire, as stated in Ethic. iii, 11. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The perfection of moral virtue doesn’t completely eliminate passions, but it does manage them; the temperate person desires what they should desire and in the way they should desire it, as noted in Ethic. iii, 11.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 95, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 95, Art. 3]

Whether Adam Had All the Virtues?

Whether Adam Had All the Virtues?

Objection 1: It would seem that Adam had not all the virtues. For some virtues are directed to curb passions: thus immoderate concupiscence is restrained by temperance, and immoderate fear by fortitude. But in the state of innocence no immoderation existed in the passions. Therefore neither did these virtues then exist.

Objection 1: It seems that Adam didn't have all the virtues. Some virtues are meant to control passions: for example, excessive desire is managed by temperance, and excessive fear is managed by courage. However, in the state of innocence, there was no excess in the passions. Therefore, these virtues didn't exist at that time either.

Obj. 2: Further, some virtues are concerned with the passions which have evil as their object; as meekness with anger; fortitude with fear. But these passions did not exist in the state of innocence, as stated above (A. 2). Therefore neither did those virtues exist then.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, some virtues relate to the emotions that target evil, like meekness regarding anger and courage concerning fear. However, these emotions didn't exist in the state of innocence, as mentioned earlier (A. 2). Therefore, those virtues didn't exist either.

Obj. 3: Further, penance is a virtue that regards sin committed. Mercy, too, is a virtue concerned with unhappiness. But in the state of innocence neither sin nor unhappiness existed. Therefore neither did those virtues exist.

Obj. 3: Additionally, penance is a virtue that relates to the sin committed. Mercy, too, is a virtue that deals with suffering. However, in a state of innocence, neither sin nor suffering existed. Therefore, neither of those virtues existed.

Obj. 4: Further, perseverance is a virtue. But Adam possessed it not; as proved by his subsequent sin. Therefore he possessed not every virtue.

Obj. 4: Additionally, perseverance is a virtue. But Adam did not have it; as shown by his later sin. Therefore, he did not possess every virtue.

Obj. 5: Further, faith is a virtue. But it did not exist in the state of innocence; for it implies an obscurity of knowledge which seems to be incompatible with the perfection of the primitive state.

Obj. 5: Additionally, faith is a virtue. However, it didn't exist in the state of innocence; because it suggests a lack of clarity in knowledge that appears to be incompatible with the perfection of the original state.

On the contrary, Augustine says, in a homily (Serm. contra Judaeos): "The prince of sin overcame Adam who was made from the slime of the earth to the image of God, adorned with modesty, restrained by temperance, refulgent with brightness."

On the contrary, Augustine says in a homily (Serm. contra Judaeos): "The prince of sin defeated Adam, who was created from the earth's dust in the image of God, adorned with humility, guided by self-control, and shining with brilliance."

I answer that, in the state of innocence man in a certain sense possessed all the virtues; and this can be proved from what precedes. For it was shown above (A. 1) that such was the rectitude of the primitive state, that reason was subject to God, and the lower powers to reason. Now the virtues are nothing but those perfections whereby reason is directed to God, and the inferior powers regulated according to the dictate of reason, as will be explained in the Treatise on the Virtues (I-II, Q. 63, A. 2). Wherefore the rectitude of the primitive state required that man should in a sense possess every virtue.

I respond that, in the state of innocence, humans, in a way, possessed all the virtues; and this can be demonstrated based on what has been discussed earlier. For it was shown above (A. 1) that the original state was so upright that reason was subject to God, and the lower faculties were subject to reason. Now, the virtues are simply those qualities through which reason is directed towards God, and the lower faculties are regulated according to the guidance of reason, as will be discussed in the Treatise on the Virtues (I-II, Q. 63, A. 2). Therefore, the uprightness of the original state required that humanity should, in a sense, possess every virtue.

It must, however, be noted that some virtues of their very nature do not involve imperfection, such as charity and justice; and these virtues did exist in the primitive state absolutely, both in habit and in act. But other virtues are of such a nature as to imply imperfection either in their act, or on the part of the matter. If such imperfection be consistent with the perfection of the primitive state, such virtues necessarily existed in that state; as faith, which is of things not seen, and hope which is of things not yet possessed. For the perfection of that state did not extend to the vision of the Divine Essence, and the possession of God with the enjoyment of final beatitude. Hence faith and hope could exist in the primitive state, both as to habit and as to act. But any virtue which implies imperfection incompatible with the perfection of the primitive state, could exist in that state as a habit, but not as to the act; for instance, penance, which is sorrow for sin committed; and mercy, which is sorrow for others' unhappiness; because sorrow, guilt, and unhappiness are incompatible with the perfection of the primitive state. Wherefore such virtues existed as habits in the first man, but not as to their acts; for he was so disposed that he would repent, if there had been a sin to repent for; and had he seen unhappiness in his neighbor, he would have done his best to remedy it. This is in accordance with what the Philosopher says, "Shame, which regards what is ill done, may be found in a virtuous man, but only conditionally; as being so disposed that he would be ashamed if he did wrong" (Ethic. iv, 9).

It should be noted that some virtues, by their very nature, do not involve imperfection, like charity and justice; and these virtues existed in their pure form in the original state, both as habits and actions. However, other virtues imply imperfection either in their actions or in the underlying issues. If such imperfection aligns with the perfection of the original state, then those virtues must have existed there, like faith, which concerns things not seen, and hope, which is about things not yet obtained. The perfection of that state didn’t include the vision of the Divine Essence or the direct possession of God along with the enjoyment of ultimate happiness. Therefore, faith and hope could exist in the original state, both as habits and actions. But any virtue that suggests imperfection that contradicts the perfection of the original state could exist there as a habit but not as an action; for example, penance, which is regret for sins committed, and mercy, which is concern for others' suffering; because regret, guilt, and suffering do not fit into the perfection of the original state. Thus, such virtues existed as habits in the first man, but not in action; he would have been inclined to repent if there had been a sin to repent for, and had he seen suffering in his neighbor, he would have tried to help. This aligns with what the Philosopher says, "Shame, which concerns wrongdoing, can be found in a virtuous person, but only conditionally; as they are inclined to be ashamed if they do wrong" (Ethic. iv, 9).

Reply Obj. 1: It is accidental to temperance and fortitude to subdue superabundant passion, in so far as they are in a subject which happens to have superabundant passions, and yet those virtues are per se competent to moderate the passions.

Reply Obj. 1: It's incidental to temperance and courage to control excessive emotions, as they exist in someone who happens to have overwhelming feelings, and yet those virtues are inherently capable of managing those emotions.

Reply Obj. 2: Passions which have evil for their object were incompatible with the perfection of the primitive state, if that evil be in the one affected by the passion; such as fear and sorrow. But passions which relate to evil in another are not incompatible with the perfection of the primitive state; for in that state man could hate the demons' malice, as he could love God's goodness. Thus the virtues which relate to such passions could exist in the primitive state, in habit and in act. Virtues, however, relating to passions which regard evil in the same subject, if relating to such passions only, could not exist in the primitive state in act, but only in habit, as we have said above of penance and of mercy. But other virtues there are which have relation not to such passions only, but to others; such as temperance, which relates not only to sorrow, but also to joy; and fortitude, which relates not only to fear, but also to daring and hope. Thus the act of temperance could exist in the primitive state, so far as it moderates pleasure; and in like manner, fortitude, as moderating daring and hope, but not as moderating sorrow and fear.

Reply Obj. 2: Emotions that are directed towards something bad were not compatible with the perfection of the original state, especially if that bad thing affects the person experiencing the emotion, like fear and sadness. However, emotions concerning the evil of others are compatible with the perfection of the original state; in that state, a person could hate the malice of demons just as they could love the goodness of God. Therefore, the virtues connected to these emotions could exist in the original state, both in habit and in action. However, the virtues related to emotions that center on the same person's evil could not exist in the original state as actions, but only as habits, as we previously mentioned regarding penance and mercy. There are also other virtues that relate not only to those emotions but to others as well; for example, temperance relates not only to sadness but also to joy, and courage relates not only to fear but also to boldness and hope. Thus, the practice of temperance could exist in the original state as it moderates pleasure, and similarly, courage could exist as it moderates boldness and hope, but not in terms of moderating sadness and fear.

Reply Obj. 3: appears from what has been said above.

Reply Obj. 3: This is evident from what has been stated above.

Reply Obj. 4: Perseverance may be taken in two ways: in one sense as a particular virtue, signifying a habit whereby a man makes a choice of persevering in good; in that sense Adam possessed perseverance. In another sense it is taken as a circumstance of virtue; signifying a certain uninterrupted continuation of virtue; in which sense Adam did not possess perseverance.

Reply Obj. 4: Perseverance can be understood in two ways: first, as a specific virtue, meaning a habit where a person chooses to keep doing good; in this sense, Adam had perseverance. Second, it can be seen as a condition of virtue, meaning an ongoing and uninterrupted practice of virtue; in this sense, Adam did not have perseverance.

Reply Obj. 5: appears from what has been said above. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: seems to follow from what has been discussed above.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 95, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 95, Art. 4]

Whether the Actions of the First Man Were Less Meritorious Than Ours
Are?

Whether the actions of the first man were less commendable than ours
Are?

Objection 1: It would seem that the actions of the first man were less meritorious than ours are. For grace is given to us through the mercy of God, Who succors most those who are most in need. Now we are more in need of grace than was man in the state of innocence. Therefore grace is more copiously poured out upon us; and since grace is the source of merit, our actions are more meritorious.

Objection 1: It seems that the actions of the first man were less deserving than ours. Grace is given to us through God’s mercy, who helps those in greatest need. Now, we are more in need of grace than the first man was in his state of innocence. Therefore, grace is given more abundantly to us; and since grace is the source of merit, our actions are more deserving.

Obj. 2: Further, struggle and difficulty are required for merit; for it is written (2 Tim. 2:5): "He . . . is not crowned except he strive lawfully" and the Philosopher says (Ethic. ii, 3): "The object of virtue is the difficult and the good." But there is more strife and difficulty now. Therefore there is greater efficacy for merit.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, effort and challenges are necessary for merit; because as it is stated (2 Tim. 2:5): "He... is not crowned unless he competes according to the rules," and the Philosopher says (Ethic. ii, 3): "The aim of virtue is the difficult and the good." But there is more struggle and difficulty now. Therefore, there is greater potential for merit.

Obj. 3: Further, the Master says (Sent. ii., D, xxiv) that "man would not have merited in resisting temptation; whereas he does merit now, when he resists." Therefore our actions are more meritorious than in the primitive state.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the Master states (Sent. ii., D, xxiv) that "a person wouldn't have had merit in resisting temptation; whereas they do have merit now when they resist." Therefore, our actions have greater merit than they did in the original state.

On the contrary, if such were the case, man would be better off after sinning.

On the contrary, if that were true, a person would be better off after doing something wrong.

I answer that, Merit as regards degree may be gauged in two ways. First, in its root, which is grace and charity. Merit thus measured corresponds in degree to the essential reward, which consists in the enjoyment of God; for the greater the charity whence our actions proceed, the more perfectly shall we enjoy God. Secondly, the degree of merit is measured by the degree of the action itself. This degree is of two kinds, absolute and proportional. The widow who put two mites into the treasury performed a deed of absolutely less degree than the others who put great sums therein. But in proportionate degree the widow gave more, as Our Lord said; because she gave more in proportion to her means. In each of these cases the degree of merit corresponds to the accidental reward, which consists in rejoicing for created good.

I answer that, Merit can be evaluated in two ways regarding its degree. First, at its core, which is grace and charity. Merit measured this way corresponds in degree to the ultimate reward, which is the enjoyment of God; for the greater the charity from which our actions arise, the more fully we will enjoy God. Secondly, the degree of merit is determined by the degree of the action itself. This degree can be absolute or proportional. The widow who put two small coins into the treasury performed an act of absolutely lesser degree than those who contributed large sums. However, in proportional terms, the widow gave more, as Our Lord said, because she contributed more relative to her means. In both cases, the degree of merit relates to the incidental reward, which consists of rejoicing in created good.

We conclude therefore that in the state of innocence man's works were more meritorious than after sin was committed, if we consider the degree of merit on the part of grace, which would have been more copious as meeting with no obstacle in human nature: and in like manner, if we consider the absolute degree of the work done; because, as man would have had greater virtue, he would have performed greater works. But if we consider the proportionate degree, a greater reason for merit exists after sin, on account of man's weakness; because a small deed is more beyond the capacity of one who works with difficulty than a great deed is beyond one who performs it easily.

We conclude that in a state of innocence, a person’s actions were more deserving of merit than after they sinned. This is true when we look at the level of grace, which would have been more abundant without any obstacles from human nature. Similarly, if we consider the absolute value of the actions taken, a person would have demonstrated greater virtue and accomplished greater deeds. However, if we think about the relative level of merit, the case is different after sin because of human weakness. A small action means more when it’s done by someone facing difficulties than a large action does for someone who accomplishes it easily.

Reply Obj. 1: After sin man requires grace for more things than before sin; but he does not need grace more; forasmuch as man even before sin required grace to obtain eternal life, which is the chief reason for the need of grace. But after sin man required grace also for the remission of sin, and for the support of his weakness.

Reply Obj. 1: After sin, a person needs grace for more things than before, but they don't need grace more overall; even before sin, a person required grace to achieve eternal life, which is the main reason for needing grace. However, after sin, a person also needs grace for the forgiveness of sin and to help with their weaknesses.

Reply Obj. 2: Difficulty and struggle belong to the degree of merit according to the proportionate degree of the work done, as above explained. It is also a sign of the will's promptitude striving after what is difficult to itself: and the promptitude of the will is caused by the intensity of charity. Yet it may happen that a person performs an easy deed with as prompt a will as another performs an arduous deed; because he is ready to do even what may be difficult to him. But the actual difficulty, by its penal character, enables the deed to satisfy for sin.

Reply Obj. 2: Difficulty and struggle relate to the level of merit based on the proportionate degree of the work done, as explained above. It also shows the will’s eagerness to pursue what is challenging for it: and the eagerness of the will is driven by the strength of charity. However, it’s possible for someone to perform an easy task with the same eagerness as another performs a difficult one, because they are willing to take on what may be hard for them. But the actual difficulty, due to its penal aspect, allows the action to atone for sin.

Reply Obj. 3: The first man would not have gained merit in resisting temptation, according to the opinion of those who say that he did not possess grace; even as now there is no merit to those who have not grace. But in this point there is a difference, inasmuch as in the primitive state there was no interior impulse to evil, as in our present state. Hence man was more able then than now to resist temptation even without grace. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The first man wouldn't have earned merit for resisting temptation, according to those who believe he didn't have grace; just like today, there’s no merit for those who lack grace. However, there’s a difference here, because in the original state there wasn't an internal urge to do evil, as there is in our present state. Therefore, man was more capable of resisting temptation back then, even without grace.

QUESTION 96

OF THE MASTERSHIP BELONGING TO MAN IN THE STATE OF INNOCENCE
(In Four Articles)

OF THE MASTERSHIP BELONGING TO MAN IN THE STATE OF INNOCENCE
(In Four Articles)

We next consider the mastership which belonged to man in the state of innocence. Under this head there are four points of inquiry:

We will now look at the authority that belonged to humans in a state of innocence. There are four main areas to explore regarding this topic:

(1) Whether man in the state of innocence was master over the animals?

(1) Was man in a state of innocence the master of the animals?

(2) Whether he was master over all creatures?

(2) Was he in control of all creatures?

(3) Whether in the state of innocence all men were equal?

(3) Were all men equal in a state of innocence?

(4) Whether in that state man would have been master over men? _______________________

(4) In that state, would humans have had control over each other?

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 96, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 96, Art. 1]

Whether Adam in the State of Innocence Had Mastership Over the
Animals?

Whether Adam in the State of Innocence Had Mastery Over the
Animals?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the state of innocence Adam had no mastership over the animals. For Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ix, 14), that the animals were brought to Adam, under the direction of the angels, to receive their names from him. But the angels need not have intervened thus, if man himself were master over the animals. Therefore in the state of innocence man had no mastership of the animals.

Objection 1: It seems that in the state of innocence, Adam didn’t have authority over the animals. Augustine states (Gen. ad lit. ix, 14) that the animals were brought to Adam with the help of the angels so he could name them. But the angels wouldn’t have needed to be involved like this if humans were already in charge of the animals. Therefore, in the state of innocence, humans had no authority over the animals.

Obj. 2: Further, it is unfitting that elements hostile to one another should be brought under the mastership of one. But many animals are hostile to one another, as the sheep and the wolf. Therefore all animals were not brought under the mastership of man.

Obj. 2: Moreover, it's inappropriate for opposing elements to be controlled by a single authority. But many animals are adversarial to each other, like sheep and wolves. Therefore, not all animals were placed under the authority of humans.

Obj. 3: Further, Jerome says [*The words quoted are not in St. Jerome's works. St. Thomas may have had in mind Bede, Hexaem., as quoted in the Glossa ordinaria on Gen. 1:26]: "God gave man mastership over the animals, although before sin he had no need of them: for God foresaw that after sin animals would become useful to man." Therefore, at least before sin, it was unfitting for man to make use of his mastership.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Jerome states [*The words quoted are not found in St. Jerome's works. St. Thomas may have been referring to Bede, Hexaem., as mentioned in the Glossa ordinaria on Gen. 1:26]: "God gave man control over the animals, even though before sin, he had no need for them: for God anticipated that after sin, animals would become useful to man." Therefore, at least before sin, it was inappropriate for man to exercise his control.

Obj. 4: Further, it is proper to a master to command. But a command is not given rightly save to a rational being. Therefore man had no mastership over the irrational animals.

Obj. 4: Additionally, it is the role of a master to give commands. However, a command is only valid if given to a rational being. Therefore, humans do not have authority over irrational animals.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:26): "Let him have dominion over the fishes of the sea, and the birds of the air, and the beasts of the earth" [Vulg."and the whole earth"].

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:26): "Let him have authority over the fish in the sea, the birds in the air, and the animals on the land" [Vulg."and the whole earth"].

I answer that, As above stated (Q. 95, A. 1) for his disobedience to God, man was punished by the disobedience of those creatures which should be subject to him. Therefore in the state of innocence, before man had disobeyed, nothing disobeyed him that was naturally subject to him. Now all animals are naturally subject to man. This can be proved in three ways. First, from the order observed by nature; for just as in the generation of things we perceive a certain order of procession of the perfect from the imperfect (thus matter is for the sake of form; and the imperfect form, for the sake of the perfect), so also is there order in the use of natural things; thus the imperfect are for the use of the perfect; as the plants make use of the earth for their nourishment, and animals make use of plants, and man makes use of both plants and animals. Therefore it is in keeping with the order of nature, that man should be master over animals. Hence the Philosopher says (Polit. i, 5) that the hunting of wild animals is just and natural, because man thereby exercises a natural right. Secondly, this is proved by the order of Divine Providence which always governs inferior things by the superior. Wherefore, as man, being made to the image of God, is above other animals, these are rightly subject to his government. Thirdly, this is proved from a property of man and of other animals. For we see in the latter a certain participated prudence of natural instinct, in regard to certain particular acts; whereas man possesses a universal prudence as regards all practical matters. Now whatever is participated is subject to what is essential and universal. Therefore the subjection of other animals to man is proved to be natural.

I respond that, As previously mentioned (Q. 95, A. 1), because of his disobedience to God, man faced punishment through the disobedience of those creatures that should be under his authority. Thus, in a state of innocence, before man disobeyed, nothing that was naturally subject to him disobeyed him. All animals are naturally under man's authority. This can be demonstrated in three ways. First, by considering the order observed in nature; just as in the process of generation, we see a specific order where the perfect emerges from the imperfect (for example, matter exists for the sake of form, and the imperfect form exists for the perfect), there is also order in how natural things are utilized; the imperfect exists for the sake of the perfect—plants rely on the earth for nourishment, animals depend on plants, and man uses both plants and animals. Therefore, it aligns with the natural order that man should have authority over animals. Consequently, the Philosopher states (Polit. i, 5) that hunting wild animals is just and natural because it allows man to exercise a natural right. Secondly, this can be demonstrated by the order of Divine Providence, which governs lower beings through those that are higher. Therefore, since man is made in the image of God, he is above other animals, which should rightly be subject to his governance. Thirdly, this can be proven by examining a characteristic of man and other animals. In other animals, we observe a certain shared wisdom of natural instinct concerning specific actions, whereas man possesses a universal wisdom when it comes to all practical matters. Anything that is shared is subordinate to what is essential and universal. Hence, the subjection of other animals to man is naturally established.

Reply Obj. 1: A higher power can do many things that an inferior power cannot do to those which are subject to them. Now an angel is naturally higher than man. Therefore certain things in regard to animals could be done by angels, which could not be done by man; for instance, the rapid gathering together of all the animals.

Reply Obj. 1: A higher power can do many things that a lower power cannot do to those under its influence. Now, an angel is naturally above a human. Therefore, certain things regarding animals can be accomplished by angels that humans cannot do; for example, quickly gathering all the animals together.

Reply Obj. 2: In the opinion of some, those animals which now are fierce and kill others, would, in that state, have been tame, not only in regard to man, but also in regard to other animals. But this is quite unreasonable. For the nature of animals was not changed by man's sin, as if those whose nature now it is to devour the flesh of others, would then have lived on herbs, as the lion and falcon. Nor does Bede's gloss on Gen. 1:30, say that trees and herbs were given as food to all animals and birds, but to some. Thus there would have been a natural antipathy between some animals. They would not, however, on this account have been excepted from the mastership of man: as neither at present are they for that reason excepted from the mastership of God, Whose Providence has ordained all this. Of this Providence man would have been the executor, as appears even now in regard to domestic animals, since fowls are given by men as food to the trained falcon.

Reply Obj. 2: Some people believe that the animals we see today as fierce and predatory would have been domesticated, not just with respect to humans, but also among themselves. However, this idea doesn’t make sense. The nature of animals wasn’t changed by human sin; those that now eat the flesh of others wouldn’t have survived on plants, like lions and falcons do. Bede's commentary on Gen. 1:30 doesn’t state that trees and plants were food for all animals and birds, but only for some. Therefore, there would have been a natural aversion between certain animals. Nonetheless, this wouldn’t have excluded them from humanity's dominance, just as they aren’t currently excluded from God's authority, who has arranged everything accordingly. In this arrangement, humans would have acted as stewards, as we can see with domesticated animals, since people provide birds as food for trained falcons.

Reply Obj. 3: In the state of innocence man would not have had any bodily need of animals—neither for clothing, since then they were naked and not ashamed, there being no inordinate motions of concupiscence—nor for food, since they fed on the trees of paradise—nor to carry him about, his body being strong enough for that purpose. But man needed animals in order to have experimental knowledge of their natures. This is signified by the fact that God led the animals to man, that he might give them names expressive of their respective natures.

Reply Obj. 3: In a state of innocence, humans wouldn't have had any physical need for animals—neither for clothing, since they were naked and unashamed, with no excessive desires—nor for food, as they ate from the trees of paradise—nor for transportation, since their bodies were strong enough for that. However, humans needed animals to gain practical knowledge about their nature. This is indicated by the fact that God brought the animals to humans so they could name them according to their unique characteristics.

Reply Obj. 4: All animals by their natural instinct have a certain participation of prudence and reason: which accounts for the fact that cranes follow their leader, and bees obey their queen. So all animals would have obeyed man of their own accord, as in the present state some domestic animals obey him. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: All animals have a natural instinct that includes a level of prudence and reason. This explains why cranes follow their leader and bees obey their queen. Therefore, all animals would naturally obey humans, just like some domestic animals do in today’s world.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 96, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 96, Art. 2]

Whether Man Had Mastership Over All Other Creatures?

Whether Man Had Mastery Over All Other Creatures?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the state of innocence man would not have had mastership over all other creatures. For an angel naturally has a greater power than man. But, as Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8), "corporeal matter would not have obeyed even the holy angels." Much less therefore would it have obeyed man in the state of innocence.

Objection 1: It seems that in a state of innocence, humans wouldn’t have had control over all other creatures. An angel naturally has more power than a human. But, as Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8), "physical matter wouldn’t have even obeyed the holy angels." So, it would have been even less likely to obey humans in a state of innocence.

Obj. 2: Further, the only powers of the soul existing in plants are nutritive, augmentative, and generative. Now these do not naturally obey reason; as we can see in the case of any one man. Therefore, since it is by his reason that man is competent to have mastership, it seems that in the state of innocence man had no dominion over plants.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the only abilities of the soul found in plants are nutritive, growth-related, and reproductive. These powers do not naturally follow reason, as we can observe in any individual. Therefore, since it is through reason that a person is capable of having control, it appears that in the state of innocence, humans had no authority over plants.

Obj. 3: Further, whosoever is master of a thing, can change it. But man could not have changed the course of the heavenly bodies; for this belongs to God alone, as Dionysius says (Ep. ad Polycarp. vii). Therefore man had no dominion over them.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, whoever is in control of something can change it. However, humans cannot change the paths of the heavenly bodies; that power belongs to God alone, as Dionysius states (Ep. ad Polycarp. vii). Therefore, humans have no authority over them.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:26): "That he may have dominion over . . . every creature."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:26): "That he may have authority over . . . every creature."

I answer that, Man in a certain sense contains all things; and so according as he is master of what is within himself, in the same way he can have mastership over other things. Now we may consider four things in man: his reason, which makes him like to the angels; his sensitive powers, whereby he is like the animals; his natural forces, which liken him to the plants; and the body itself, wherein he is like to inanimate things. Now in man reason has the position of a master and not of a subject. Wherefore man had no mastership over the angels in the primitive state; so when we read "all creatures," we must understand the creatures which are not made to God's image. Over the sensitive powers, as the irascible and concupiscible, which obey reason in some degree, the soul has mastership by commanding. So in the state of innocence man had mastership over the animals by commanding them. But of the natural powers and the body itself man is master not by commanding, but by using them. Thus also in the state of innocence man's mastership over plants and inanimate things consisted not in commanding or in changing them, but in making use of them without hindrance.

I respond that, in a way, humans encompass everything; therefore, to the extent that a person masters their inner self, they can also gain mastery over external things. We can identify four aspects in humans: their reason, which makes them similar to angels; their sensitive abilities, which align them with animals; their natural powers, which connect them to plants; and the body itself, which relates them to inanimate objects. In humans, reason acts as the master rather than as a subordinate. Hence, in their original state, humans did not have authority over angels; so when we read "all creatures," we should interpret it as creatures not made in God's image. Humans have authority over their sensitive powers, like the irascible and concupiscible, as these follow reason to some extent, allowing the soul to command them. In the state of innocence, humans had authority over animals by commanding them. However, for the natural powers and the body itself, humans are masters not through commands, but through their use. Similarly, in the state of innocence, human mastery over plants and inanimate objects did not come from commanding or altering them, but rather from utilizing them freely.

The answers to the objections appear from the above. _______________________

The responses to the objections can be found above.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 96, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 96, Art. 3]

Whether Men Were Equal in the State of Innocence?

Whether Men Were Equal in the State of Innocence?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the state of innocence all would have been equal. For Gregory says (Moral. xxi): "Where there is no sin, there is no inequality." But in the state of innocence there was no sin. Therefore all were equal.

Objection 1: It seems that in a state of innocence, everyone would have been equal. Gregory states (Moral. xxi): "Where there is no sin, there is no inequality." But in the state of innocence, there was no sin. Therefore, everyone was equal.

Obj. 2: Further, likeness and equality are the basis of mutual love, according to Ecclus. 13:19, "Every beast loveth its like; so also every man him that is nearest to himself." Now in that state there was among men an abundance of love, which is the bond of peace. Therefore all were equal in the state of innocence.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, similarity and equality are the foundation of mutual love, as stated in Ecclus. 13:19, "Every animal loves its own kind; likewise, every person loves those who are closest to them." In that state, there was a wealth of love among people, which is the glue of peace. Thus, everyone was equal in the state of innocence.

Obj. 3: Further, the cause ceasing, the effect also ceases. But the cause of present inequality among men seems to arise, on the part of God, from the fact that He rewards some and punishes others; and on the part of nature, from the fact that some, through a defect of nature, are born weak and deficient, others strong and perfect, which would not have been the case in the primitive state. Therefore, etc.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, when the cause stops, the effect also stops. The current inequality among people appears to stem from God rewarding some and punishing others. From nature's side, it results from the fact that some are born weak and lacking due to natural defects, while others are strong and complete, which wouldn't have happened in the original state. Therefore, etc.

On the contrary, It is written (Rom. 13:1): "The things which are of God, are well ordered" [Vulg."Those that are, are ordained of God"]. But order chiefly consists in inequality; for Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xix, 13): "Order disposes things equal and unequal in their proper place." Therefore in the primitive state, which was most proper and orderly, inequality would have existed.

On the contrary, it is written (Rom. 13:1): "The things that are of God are well ordered." But order primarily consists of inequality; for Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xix, 13): "Order arranges both equal and unequal things in their proper place." Therefore, in the original state, which was the most proper and orderly, inequality would have existed.

I answer that, We must needs admit that in the primitive state there would have been some inequality, at least as regards sex, because generation depends upon diversity of sex: and likewise as regards age; for some would have been born of others; nor would sexual union have been sterile.

I answer that, We must acknowledge that in the early state there would have been some inequality, especially concerning gender, because reproduction relies on sexual variety: and similarly with age; since some individuals would have been born from others; nor would sexual union have been fruitless.

Moreover, as regards the soul, there would have been inequality as to righteousness and knowledge. For man worked not of necessity, but of his own free-will, by virtue of which man can apply himself, more or less, to action, desire, or knowledge; hence some would have made a greater advance in virtue and knowledge than others.

Moreover, when it comes to the soul, there would have been differences in righteousness and knowledge. People didn’t act out of necessity but out of their own free will, which means individuals could dedicate themselves, to varying degrees, to action, desire, or knowledge; as a result, some would have progressed further in virtue and knowledge than others.

There might also have been bodily disparity. For the human body was not entirely exempt from the laws of nature, so as not to receive from exterior sources more or less advantage and help: since indeed it was dependent on food wherewith to sustain life.

There might have also been physical differences. The human body wasn't completely exempt from the laws of nature, meaning it could receive varying levels of support and advantage from outside sources since it relied on food to sustain life.

So we may say that, according to the climate, or the movement of the stars, some would have been born more robust in body than others, and also greater, and more beautiful, and all ways better disposed; so that, however, in those who were thus surpassed, there would have been no defect or fault either in soul or body.

So we can say that, based on the climate or the movement of the stars, some people might have been born stronger, taller, more attractive, and generally better off than others. However, for those who didn't have those advantages, there would still be no flaw or deficiency in either their soul or body.

Reply Obj. 1: By those words Gregory means to exclude such inequality as exists between virtue and vice; the result of which is that some are placed in subjection to others as a penalty.

Reply Obj. 1: By those words, Gregory means to exclude the kind of inequality that exists between virtue and vice; the result of which is that some people are subjected to others as a punishment.

Reply Obj. 2: Equality is the cause of equality in mutual love. Yet between those who are unequal there can be a greater love than between equals; although there be not an equal response: for a father naturally loves his son more than a brother loves his brother; although the son does not love his father as much as he is loved by him.

Reply Obj. 2: Equality is the reason for equality in mutual love. However, between those who are not equal, there can be a greater love than between equals; even if the response is not equal: a father naturally loves his son more than a brother loves his brother, even though the son does not love his father as much as the father loves him.

Reply Obj. 3: The cause of inequality could be on the part of God; not indeed that He would punish some and reward others, but that He would exalt some above others; so that the beauty of order would the more shine forth among men. Inequality might also arise on the part of nature as above described, without any defect of nature. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The reason for inequality might come from God; not in the sense that He punishes some and rewards others, but that He elevates some over others, allowing the beauty of order to stand out more among people. Inequality could also come from nature, as described above, without any flaw in nature.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 96, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 96, Art. 4]

Whether in the State of Innocence Man Would Have Been Master Over Man?

Whether in the State of Innocence, would man have been in charge of man?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the state of innocence man would not have been master over man. For Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xix, 15): "God willed that man, who was endowed with reason and made to His image, should rule over none but irrational creatures; not over men, but over cattle."

Objection 1: It appears that in a state of innocence, humans would not be in control of one another. Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xix, 15): "God intended for man, who was given reason and made in His image, to rule only over irrational creatures; not over other humans, but over animals."

Obj. 2: Further, what came into the world as a penalty for sin would not have existed in the state of innocence. But man was made subject to man as a penalty; for after sin it was said to the woman (Gen. 3:16): "Thou shalt be under thy husband's power." Therefore in the state of innocence man would not have been subject to man.

Obj. 2: In addition, what entered the world as a consequence of sin wouldn’t have been present in a state of innocence. However, man became subject to man as a consequence; for after sin, it was said to the woman (Gen. 3:16): "You shall be under your husband's authority." Therefore, in a state of innocence, man would not have been subject to man.

Obj. 3: Further, subjection is opposed to liberty. But liberty is one of the chief blessings, and would not have been lacking in the state of innocence, "where nothing was wanting that man's good-will could desire," as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 10). Therefore man would not have been master over man in the state of innocence.

Obj. 3: Additionally, being controlled goes against freedom. But freedom is one of the greatest gifts and wouldn’t have been missing in a state of innocence, “where nothing was lacking that a person's goodwill could wish for,” as Augustine mentions (De Civ. Dei xiv, 10). Therefore, in the state of innocence, man would not have had power over man.

On the contrary, The condition of man in the state of innocence was not more exalted than the condition of the angels. But among the angels some rule over others; and so one order is called that of "Dominations." Therefore it was not beneath the dignity of the state of innocence that one man should be subject to another.

On the contrary, The condition of humans in a state of innocence was not any more elevated than that of the angels. However, among the angels, some have authority over others; thus, one group is referred to as "Dominations." Therefore, it was not beneath the dignity of the state of innocence for one person to be subject to another.

I answer that, Mastership has a twofold meaning. First, as opposed to slavery, in which sense a master means one to whom another is subject as a slave. In another sense mastership is referred in a general sense to any kind of subject; and in this sense even he who has the office of governing and directing free men, can be called a master. In the state of innocence man could have been a master of men, not in the former but in the latter sense. This distinction is founded on the reason that a slave differs from a free man in that the latter has the disposal of himself, as is stated in the beginning of the Metaphysics, whereas a slave is ordered to another. So that one man is master of another as his slave when he refers the one whose master he is, to his own—namely the master's use. And since every man's proper good is desirable to himself, and consequently it is a grievous matter to anyone to yield to another what ought to be one's own, therefore such dominion implies of necessity a pain inflicted on the subject; and consequently in the state of innocence such a mastership could not have existed between man and man.

I answer that, Mastery has two meanings. First, it refers to the relationship opposite to slavery, where a master is someone to whom another is subordinate as a slave. In another sense, mastery can refer more generally to any kind of authority; in this case, even someone who governs and directs free individuals can be called a master. In the state of innocence, a person could have been a master over others, not in the former sense but in the latter. This distinction is based on the fact that a slave is different from a free person, as the latter has control over their own life, as stated in the beginning of the Metaphysics, while a slave is directed towards another. Thus, one person is a master over another as their slave when they direct that person for their own benefit—the master's benefit. Since every person's own good is appealing to them, it is deeply troubling for anyone to surrender what rightfully belongs to them to another. Therefore, such domination necessarily involves pain for the subordinate; consequently, in a state of innocence, such mastery could not exist between individuals.

But a man is the master of a free subject, by directing him either towards his proper welfare, or to the common good. Such a kind of mastership would have existed in the state of innocence between man and man, for two reasons. First, because man is naturally a social being, and so in the state of innocence he would have led a social life. Now a social life cannot exist among a number of people unless under the presidency of one to look after the common good; for many, as such, seek many things, whereas one attends only to one. Wherefore the Philosopher says, in the beginning of the Politics, that wherever many things are directed to one, we shall always find one at the head directing them. Secondly, if one man surpassed another in knowledge and virtue, this would not have been fitting unless these gifts conduced to the benefit of others, according to 1 Pet. 4:10, "As every man hath received grace, ministering the same one to another." Wherefore Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xix, 14): "Just men command not by the love of domineering, but by the service of counsel": and (De Civ. Dei xix, 15): "The natural order of things requires this; and thus did God make man."

But a man is the leader of a free person by guiding them either toward their own well-being or the common good. This kind of leadership would have existed in a state of innocence among humans for two reasons. First, because humans are naturally social beings, and in a state of innocence, they would have lived socially. A social life can’t exist among many people unless there’s someone to look after the common good; many individuals pursue various interests, while one person focuses on just one. This is why the Philosopher states at the beginning of the Politics that whenever many things are directed towards one, there will always be one person at the helm guiding them. Second, if one person excelled over another in knowledge and virtue, this would only be fitting if those gifts benefited others, as mentioned in 1 Pet. 4:10, "As each has received a gift, use it to serve one another." Therefore, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xix, 14): "Just people do not command out of a love for power, but through the service of advice": and (De Civ. Dei xix, 15): "The natural order demands this; and this is how God made man."

From this appear the replies to the objections which are founded on the first-mentioned mode of mastership. _______________________

From this, we can see the responses to the objections based on the previously mentioned way of leadership.

QUESTION 97

OF THE PRESERVATION OF THE INDIVIDUAL IN THE PRIMITIVE STATE
(In Four Articles)

OF THE PRESERVATION OF THE INDIVIDUAL IN THE PRIMITIVE STATE
(In Four Articles)

We next consider what belongs to the bodily state of the first man: first, as regards the preservation of the individual; secondly, as regards the preservation of the species.

We will now look at what pertains to the physical condition of the first man: first, in terms of the survival of the individual; secondly, in terms of the survival of the species.

Under the first head there are four points of inquiry:

Under the first topic, there are four questions to consider:

(1) Whether man in the state of innocence was immortal?

(1) Was man immortal in a state of innocence?

(2) Whether he was impassible?

Was he unbothered?

(3) Whether he stood in need of food?

Did he need to eat?

(4) Whether he would have obtained immortality by the tree of life? _______________________

(4) Would he have gained immortality from the tree of life?

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 97, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 97, Art. 1]

Whether in the State of Innocence Man Would Have Been Immortal?

Whether in the State of Innocence Man Would Have Been Immortal?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the state of innocence man was not immortal. For the term "mortal" belongs to the definition of man. But if you take away the definition, you take away the thing defined. Therefore as long as man was man he could not be immortal.

Objection 1: It seems that in a state of innocence, humans were not immortal. The term "mortal" is part of what defines a human. But if you remove that definition, you lose the essence of what it means to be human. Therefore, as long as a person was a person, they could not be immortal.

Obj. 2: Further, corruptible and incorruptible are generically distinct, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. x, Did. ix, 10). But there can be no passing from one genus to another. Therefore if the first man was incorruptible, man could not be corruptible in the present state.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, corruptible and incorruptible are fundamentally different, as the Philosopher states (Metaph. x, Did. ix, 10). However, one cannot transition from one genus to another. Therefore, if the first man was incorruptible, then humans cannot be corruptible in their current state.

Obj. 3: Further, if man were immortal in the state of innocence, this would have been due either to nature or to grace. Not to nature, for since nature does not change within the same species, he would also have been immortal now. Likewise neither would this be owing to grace; for the first man recovered grace by repentance, according to Wis. 10:2: "He brought him out of his sins." Hence he would have regained his immortality; which is clearly not the case. Therefore man was not immortal in the state of innocence.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if humans were immortal in a state of innocence, it would have been due to either nature or grace. Not to nature, because since nature doesn't change within the same species, humans would also be immortal now. Similarly, it wouldn’t be because of grace; the first human regained grace through repentance, according to Wis. 10:2: "He brought him out of his sins." Therefore, he would have regained his immortality, which is clearly not the case. So, humans were not immortal in a state of innocence.

Obj. 4: Further, immortality is promised to man as a reward, according to Apoc. 21:4: "Death shall be no more." But man was not created in the state of reward, but that he might deserve the reward. Therefore man was not immortal in the state of innocence.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, immortality is promised to humanity as a reward, according to Revelation 21:4: "Death shall be no more." However, humans were not created in a state of reward; rather, they were created to earn that reward. Therefore, humans were not immortal in their original state of innocence.

On the contrary, It is written (Rom. 5:12): "By sin death came into the world." Therefore man was immortal before sin.

On the contrary, It is written (Rom. 5:12): "Through sin, death entered the world." Therefore, man was immortal before sin.

I answer that, A thing may be incorruptible in three ways. First, on the part of matter—that is to say, either because it possesses no matter, like an angel; or because it possesses matter that is in potentiality to one form only, like the heavenly bodies. Such things as these are incorruptible by their very nature. Secondly, a thing is incorruptible in its form, inasmuch as being by nature corruptible, yet it has an inherent disposition which preserves it wholly from corruption; and this is called incorruptibility of glory; because as Augustine says (Ep. ad Dioscor.): "God made man's soul of such a powerful nature, that from its fulness of beatitude, there redounds to the body a fulness of health, with the vigor of incorruption." Thirdly, a thing may be incorruptible on the part of its efficient cause; in this sense man was incorruptible and immortal in the state of innocence. For, as Augustine says (QQ. Vet. et Nov. Test. qu. 19 [*Work of an anonymous author], among the supposititious works of St. Augustine): "God made man immortal as long as he did not sin; so that he might achieve for himself life or death." For man's body was indissoluble not by reason of any intrinsic vigor of immortality, but by reason of a supernatural force given by God to the soul, whereby it was enabled to preserve the body from all corruption so long as it remained itself subject to God. This entirely agrees with reason; for since the rational soul surpasses the capacity of corporeal matter, as above explained (Q. 76, A. 1), it was most properly endowed at the beginning with the power of preserving the body in a manner surpassing the capacity of corporeal matter.

I answer that, A thing can be incorruptible in three ways. First, in terms of matter—that is, either because it has no matter, like an angel, or because it has matter that can only take on one form, like the heavenly bodies. Such things are incorruptible by their very nature. Second, a thing can be incorruptible in its form, meaning that although it is naturally corruptible, it has an inherent quality that completely protects it from corruption; this is called incorruptibility of glory. As Augustine says (Ep. ad Dioscor.): "God made man's soul of such a powerful nature that from its fullness of happiness, the body receives a fullness of health, with the strength of incorruption." Third, a thing may be incorruptible due to its efficient cause; in this sense, man was incorruptible and immortal in the state of innocence. For, as Augustine says (QQ. Vet. et Nov. Test. qu. 19 [*Work of an anonymous author], among the spurious works of St. Augustine): "God made man immortal as long as he did not sin; so that he could choose life or death for himself." For man's body was indissoluble not because of any inherent power of immortality, but because of a supernatural force given by God to the soul, which enabled it to preserve the body from all corruption as long as it remained subject to God. This aligns completely with reason; since the rational soul exceeds the capacity of physical matter, as explained earlier (Q. 76, A. 1), it was appropriately endowed at the beginning with the power to preserve the body in a way that transcends the limits of physical matter.

Reply Obj. 1 and 2: These objections are founded on natural incorruptibility and immortality.

Reply Obj. 1 and 2: These objections are based on the ideas of natural incorruptibility and immortality.

Reply Obj. 3: This power of preserving the body was not natural to the soul, but was the gift of grace. And though man recovered grace as regards remission of guilt and the merit of glory; yet he did not recover immortality, the loss of which was an effect of sin; for this was reserved for Christ to accomplish, by Whom the defect of nature was to be restored into something better, as we shall explain further on (III, Q. 14, A. 4, ad 1).

Reply Obj. 3: This ability to preserve the body wasn't something natural to the soul; it was a gift of grace. While humanity regained grace regarding the forgiveness of guilt and the merit of glory, they did not regain immortality, which was lost due to sin. This was something that Christ was meant to achieve, through whom the flaws of nature would be restored into something better, as we will explain further on (III, Q. 14, A. 4, ad 1).

Reply Obj. 4: The promised reward of the immortality of glory differs from the immortality which was bestowed on man in the state of innocence. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The promised reward of everlasting glory is different from the immortality that was given to humans in the state of innocence.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 97, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 97, Art. 2]

Whether in the State of Innocence Man Would Have Been Passible?

Whether in the State of Innocence Man Would Have Been Capable?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the state of innocence man was passible. For "sensation is a kind of passion." But in the state of innocence man would have been sensitive. Therefore he would have been passible.

Objection 1: It seems that in a state of innocence, man was capable of feeling. For "sensation is a kind of feeling." But in a state of innocence, man would have been sensitive. Therefore, he would have been capable of feeling.

Obj. 2: Further, sleep is a kind of passion. Now, man slept in the state of innocence, according to Gen. 2:21, "God cast a deep sleep upon Adam." Therefore he would have been passible.

Obj. 2: Additionally, sleep is a type of passion. Now, a person slept in a state of innocence, as stated in Gen. 2:21, "God put Adam into a deep sleep." Therefore, he would have been capable of feeling.

Obj. 3: Further, the same passage goes on to say that "He took a rib out of Adam." Therefore he was passible even to the degree of the cutting out of part of his body.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the same passage continues to state that "He took a rib out of Adam." This means He was capable of being affected even to the extent of having part of His body removed.

Obj. 4: Further, man's body was soft. But a soft body is naturally passible as regards a hard body; therefore if a hard body had come in contact with the soft body of the first man, the latter would have suffered from the impact. Therefore the first man was passible.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the human body was soft. But a soft body is naturally vulnerable to a hard body; therefore, if a hard body had come into contact with the soft body of the first man, he would have experienced suffering from the impact. Thus, the first man was vulnerable.

On the contrary, Had man been passible, he would have been also corruptible, because, as the Philosopher says (Top. vi, 3): "Excessive suffering wastes the very substance."

On the contrary, if man could be affected, he would also be able to be corrupted, because, as the Philosopher says (Top. vi, 3): "Excessive suffering wastes the very substance."

I answer that, "Passion" may be taken in two senses. First, in its proper sense, and thus a thing is said to suffer when changed from its natural disposition. For passion is the effect of action; and in nature contraries are mutually active or passive, according as one thing changes another from its natural disposition. Secondly, "passion" can be taken in a general sense for any kind of change, even if belonging to the perfecting process of nature. Thus understanding and sensation are said to be passions. In this second sense, man was passible in the state of innocence, and was passive both in soul and body. In the first sense, man was impassible, both in soul and body, as he was likewise immortal; for he could curb his passion, as he could avoid death, so long as he refrained from sin.

I respond that, "Passion" can be understood in two ways. First, in its specific sense, a thing is said to suffer when it changes from its natural state. Passion is the result of action; in nature, opposites are mutually active or passive, depending on whether one thing alters another from its natural state. Secondly, "passion" can be understood more generally as any kind of change, even if it relates to the process of perfecting nature. So, understanding and sensation are considered passions. In this broader sense, humans were capable of experiencing passion in a state of innocence, and they were passive both in mind and body. In the first sense, humans were not subject to passion, in either mind or body, just as they were immortal; they could control their passions, just like they could avoid death, as long as they stayed away from sin.

Thus it is clear how to reply to the first two objections; since sensation and sleep do not remove from man his natural disposition, but are ordered to his natural welfare.

It’s obvious how to address the first two objections; since sensation and sleep don’t take away a person’s natural tendencies, but actually contribute to their overall well-being.

Reply Obj. 3: As already explained (Q. 92, A. 3, ad 2), the rib was in Adam as the principle of the human race, as the semen in man, who is a principle through generation. Hence as man does not suffer any natural deterioration by seminal issue; so neither did he through the separation of the rib.

Reply Obj. 3: As previously explained (Q. 92, A. 3, ad 2), the rib was in Adam as the source of the human race, similar to how semen functions in a man, who is a source through reproduction. Just as a man doesn't experience any natural decline through seminal discharge, neither did Adam through the removal of the rib.

Reply Obj. 4: Man's body in the state of innocence could be preserved from suffering injury from a hard body; partly by the use of his reason, whereby he could avoid what was harmful; and partly also by Divine Providence, so preserving him, that nothing of a harmful nature could come upon him unawares. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: In a state of innocence, a person's body could be kept safe from injury from a hard object; partly through the use of their reason, which allowed them to avoid harm, and partly through Divine Providence, which protected them so that nothing harmful could catch them off guard.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 97, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 97, Art. 3]

Whether in the State of Innocence Man Had Need of Food?

Whether in the State of Innocence Man Needed Food?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the state of innocence man did not require food. For food is necessary for man to restore what he has lost. But Adam's body suffered no loss, as being incorruptible. Therefore he had no need of food.

Objection 1: It seems that in a state of innocence, humans did not need food. Food is necessary for people to replenish what they've lost. But Adam's body didn't experience any loss, since it was incorruptible. Therefore, he had no need for food.

Obj. 2: Further, food is needed for nourishment. But nourishment involves passibility. Since, then, man's body was impassible; it does not appear how food could be needful to him.

Obj. 2: Additionally, food is necessary for nourishment. However, nourishment requires the capacity to experience changes. Since man's body was unchangeable, it seems unclear how food could be essential for him.

Obj. 3: Further, we need food for the preservation of life. But Adam could preserve his life otherwise; for had he not sinned, he would not have died. Therefore he did not require food.

Obj. 3: Also, we need food to stay alive. But Adam could have preserved his life in other ways; if he hadn't sinned, he wouldn't have died. Therefore, he didn't need food.

Obj. 4: Further, the consumption of food involves voiding of the surplus, which seems unsuitable to the state of innocence. Therefore it seems that man did not take food in the primitive state.

Obj. 4: Additionally, eating food requires expelling excess, which appears incompatible with a state of innocence. Thus, it seems that humans did not consume food in the original state.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:16): "Of every tree in paradise ye shall [Vulg. 'thou shalt'] eat."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:16): "You may eat from any tree in the garden."

I answer that, In the state of innocence man had an animal life requiring food; but after the resurrection he will have a spiritual life needing no food. In order to make this clear, we must observe that the rational soul is both soul and spirit. It is called a soul by reason of what it possesses in common with other souls—that is, as giving life to the body; whence it is written (Gen. 2:7): "Man was made into a living soul"; that is, a soul giving life to the body. But the soul is called a spirit according to what properly belongs to itself, and not to other souls, as possessing an intellectual immaterial power.

I answer that, In the state of innocence, humans had an animal existence that needed food; but after the resurrection, they will have a spiritual existence that doesn’t need food. To clarify this, we must understand that the rational soul is both a soul and a spirit. It is called a soul because of what it shares with other souls—that is, its role in giving life to the body; hence, it is written (Gen. 2:7): "Man was made into a living soul"; meaning, a soul that gives life to the body. However, the soul is referred to as a spirit based on what is unique to it and not shared with other souls, as it possesses an intellectual immaterial power.

Thus in the primitive state, the rational soul communicated to the body what belonged to itself as a soul; and so the body was called "animal" [*From 'anima', a soul; Cf. 1 Cor. 15:44 seqq.], through having its life from the soul. Now the first principle of life in these inferior creatures as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 4) is the vegetative soul: the operations of which are the use of food, generation, and growth. Wherefore such operations befitted man in the state of innocence. But in the final state, after the resurrection, the soul will, to a certain extent, communicate to the body what properly belongs to itself as a spirit; immortality to everyone, impassibility, glory, and power to the good, whose bodies will be called "spiritual." So, after the resurrection, man will not require food; whereas he required it in the state of innocence.

In the early state, the rational soul shared with the body what was inherently its as a soul; that's why the body was called "animal" [*From 'anima', a soul; Cf. 1 Cor. 15:44 seqq.], deriving its life from the soul. The basic principle of life in these lower creatures, as the Philosopher states (De Anima ii, 4), is the vegetative soul, which is responsible for processes like eating, reproduction, and growth. Therefore, these functions were appropriate for humans in their innocent state. However, after the resurrection, the soul will, to some extent, impart to the body what truly belongs to it as a spirit; granting immortality to all, and for the good, bestowing invulnerability, glory, and power, resulting in their bodies being described as "spiritual." Thus, after the resurrection, humans will not need food, unlike in their innocent state.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says (QQ. Vet. et Nov. Test. qu. 19 [*Works of an anonymous author], among the supposititious works of St. Augustine): "How could man have an immortal body, which was sustained by food? Since an immortal being needs neither food nor drink." For we have explained (A. 1) that the immortality of the primitive state was based on a supernatural force in the soul, and not on any intrinsic disposition of the body: so that by the action of heat, the body might lose part of its humid qualities; and to prevent the entire consumption of the humor, man was obliged to take food.

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine points out (QQ. Vet. et Nov. Test. qu. 19 [*Works of an anonymous author], among the supposed works of St. Augustine): "How could a person have an immortal body that relied on food? An immortal being doesn't need food or drink." We explained (A. 1) that the immortality of the original state depended on a supernatural force in the soul, not on any inherent quality of the body: so that through the action of heat, the body could lose some of its moisture; and to prevent complete depletion of fluids, a person had to eat.

Reply Obj. 2: A certain passion and alteration attends nutriment, on the part of the food changed into the substance of the thing nourished. So we cannot thence conclude that man's body was passible, but that the food taken was passible; although this kind of passion conduced to the perfection of the nature.

Reply Obj. 2: There is a certain change and impact involved with nourishment, as the food turns into the body's substance. So, we can't conclude that a person's body is changeable, but rather that the food consumed is changeable; although this kind of impact contributes to the perfection of nature.

Reply Obj. 3: If man had not taken food he would have sinned; as he also sinned by taking the forbidden fruit. For he was told at the same time, to abstain from the tree of knowledge of good and evil, and to eat of every other tree of Paradise.

Reply Obj. 3: If man had not eaten, he would have sinned, just as he sinned by eating the forbidden fruit. He was told at the same time to avoid the tree of knowledge of good and evil and to eat from every other tree in Paradise.

Reply Obj. 4: Some say that in the state of innocence man would not have taken more than necessary food, so that there would have been nothing superfluous; which, however, is unreasonable to suppose, as implying that there would have been no faecal matter. Wherefore there was need for voiding the surplus, yet so disposed by God as to be decorous and suitable to the state. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Some argue that in a state of innocence, humans wouldn't have consumed more food than necessary, meaning there would be nothing excessive; however, this is unreasonable to think, as it implies there would be no waste. Therefore, there was a need to eliminate excess, but God arranged it in a way that was appropriate and fitting for the situation.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 97, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 97, Art. 4]

Whether in the State of Innocence Man Would Have Acquired Immortality by the Tree of Life?

Whether in the State of Innocence man would have gained immortality from the Tree of Life?

Objection 1: It would seem that the tree of life could not be the cause of immortality. For nothing can act beyond its own species; as an effect does not exceed its cause. But the tree of life was corruptible, otherwise it could not be taken as food; since food is changed into the substance of the thing nourished. Therefore the tree of life could not give incorruptibility or immortality.

Objection 1: It seems that the tree of life cannot be the source of immortality. For nothing can act beyond its own kind; as an effect does not go beyond its cause. But the tree of life was corruptible; otherwise, it couldn't be eaten, since food is transformed into the substance of what it nourishes. Therefore, the tree of life could not provide incorruptibility or immortality.

Obj. 2: Further, effects caused by the forces of plants and other natural agencies are natural. If therefore the tree of life caused immortality, this would have been natural immortality.

Obj. 2: Additionally, effects caused by the forces of plants and other natural agents are natural. If the tree of life caused immortality, then it would have been natural immortality.

Obj. 3: Further, this would seem to be reduced to the ancient fable, that the gods, by eating a certain food, became immortal; which the Philosopher ridicules (Metaph. iii, Did. ii, 4).

Obj. 3: Furthermore, this appears to be similar to the old myth that the gods became immortal by eating a specific food, which the Philosopher mocks (Metaph. iii, Did. ii, 4).

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 3:22): "Lest perhaps he put forth his hand, and take of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever." Further, Augustine says (QQ. Vet. et Nov. Test. qu. 19 [*Work of an anonymous author], among the supposititious works of St. Augustine): "A taste of the tree of life warded off corruption of the body; and even after sin man would have remained immortal, had he been allowed to eat of the tree of life."

On the contrary, it is written (Gen. 3:22): "Otherwise, he might reach out his hand, take from the tree of life, eat, and live forever." Additionally, Augustine states (QQ. Vet. et Nov. Test. qu. 19 [*Work of an anonymous author], among the supposed works of St. Augustine): "A taste of the tree of life prevented the corruption of the body; and even after sin, man would have remained immortal if he had been allowed to eat from the tree of life."

I answer that, The tree of life in a certain degree was the cause of immortality, but not absolutely. To understand this, we must observe that in the primitive state man possessed, for the preservation of life, two remedies, against two defects. One of these defects was the lost of humidity by the action of natural heat, which acts as the soul's instrument: as a remedy against such loss man was provided with food, taken from the other trees of paradise, as now we are provided with the food, which we take for the same purpose. The second defect, as the Philosopher says (De Gener. i, 5), arises from the fact that the humor which is caused from extraneous sources, being added to the humor already existing, lessens the specific active power: as water added to wine takes at first the taste of wine, then, as more water is added, the strength of the wine is diminished, till the wine becomes watery. In like manner, we may observe that at first the active force of the species is so strong that it is able to transform so much of the food as is required to replace the lost tissue, as well as what suffices for growth; later on, however, the assimilated food does not suffice for growth, but only replaces what is lost. Last of all, in old age, it does not suffice even for this purpose; whereupon the body declines, and finally dies from natural causes. Against this defect man was provided with a remedy in the tree of life; for its effect was to strengthen the force of the species against the weakness resulting from the admixture of extraneous nutriment. Wherefore Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 26): "Man had food to appease his hunger, drink to slake his thirst; and the tree of life to banish the breaking up of old age"; and (QQ. Vet. et Nov. Test. qu. 19 [*Work of an anonymous author], among the supposititious works of St. Augustine) "The tree of life, like a drug, warded off all bodily corruption."

I answer that, The tree of life was somewhat responsible for immortality, but not entirely. To understand this, we need to recognize that in the beginning, humans had two remedies for preserving life against two shortcomings. One of these shortcomings was the loss of moisture due to natural heat, which acts as the soul's instrument: as a solution for this loss, humans were given food from the other trees in paradise, just as we currently receive food for the same purpose. The second shortcoming, as the Philosopher notes (De Gener. i, 5), arises from the addition of external substances to the existing nutrients, which reduces the specific active power: adding water to wine initially takes on the taste of wine, but as more water is added, the strength of the wine diminishes until it becomes watery. Similarly, we see that initially, the active force of the species is strong enough to transform enough food to replace lost tissue and support growth; however, over time, the food absorbed is no longer sufficient for growth, only replacing what is lost. Finally, in old age, it doesn’t even suffice for that, leading to the body deteriorating and eventually dying from natural causes. To counter this issue, humans were given the tree of life; its effect was to enhance the force of the species against the weakness caused by the mixing of external nutrients. Thus, Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xiv, 26): "Man had food to satisfy his hunger, drink to quench his thirst; and the tree of life to prevent the degradation of old age"; and (QQ. Vet. et Nov. Test. qu. 19 [*Work of an anonymous author], among the supposed works of St. Augustine) "The tree of life, like a medicine, prevented all physical decay."

Yet it did not absolutely cause immortality; for neither was the soul's intrinsic power of preserving the body due to the tree of life, nor was it of such efficiency as to give the body a disposition to immortality, whereby it might become indissoluble; which is clear from the fact that every bodily power is finite; so the power of the tree of life could not go so far as to give the body the prerogative of living for an infinite time, but only for a definite time. For it is manifest that the greater a force is, the more durable is its effect; therefore, since the power of the tree of life was finite, man's life was to be preserved for a definite time by partaking of it once; and when that time had elapsed, man was to be either transferred to a spiritual life, or had need to eat once more of the tree of life.

Yet it did not guarantee immortality; neither was the soul's ability to keep the body alive due to the tree of life, nor was it effective enough to make the body immortal, allowing it to be unbreakable. This is clear because every bodily power has limits; therefore, the tree of life's power couldn't extend to giving the body the ability to live forever, but only for a certain period. It is evident that the stronger a force is, the longer its effects last; thus, since the tree of life had limited power, a person's life could only be maintained for a specific time by consuming from it once. When that time was up, a person would either need to transition to a spiritual life or eat from the tree of life again.

From this the replies to the objections clearly appear. For the first proves that the tree of life did not absolutely cause immortality; while the others show that it caused incorruption by warding off corruption, according to the explanation above given. _______________________

From this, the responses to the objections become clear. The first shows that the tree of life did not directly cause immortality, while the others demonstrate that it prevented decay by keeping corruption at bay, as explained above.

QUESTION 98

OF THE PRESERVATION OF THE SPECIES
(In Two Articles)

OF THE PRESERVATION OF THE SPECIES
(In Two Articles)

We next consider what belongs to the preservation of the species; and, first, of generation; secondly, of the state of the offspring. Under the first head there are two points of inquiry:

We will now look at what is necessary for the survival of the species; first, regarding reproduction; second, concerning the condition of the young. Under the first topic, there are two areas to investigate:

(1) Whether in the state of innocence there would have been generation?

(1) Would there have been any generation in a state of innocence?

(2) Whether generation would have been through coition? _______________________

(2) Would generation have happened through intercourse? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [Q. 98, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [Q. 98, Art. 1]

Whether in the State of Innocence Generation Existed?

Whether the State of Innocence Existed?

Objection 1: It would seem there would have been no generation in the state of innocence. For, as stated in Phys. v, 5, "corruption is contrary to generation." But contraries affect the same subject: also there would have been no corruption in the state of innocence. Therefore neither would there have been generation.

Objection 1: It seems there wouldn’t have been any generation in the state of innocence. As mentioned in Phys. v, 5, "corruption is the opposite of generation." But opposites affect the same subject; there also wouldn’t have been any corruption in the state of innocence. Therefore, there wouldn’t have been generation either.

Obj. 2: Further, the object of generation is the preservation in the species of that which is corruptible in the individual. Wherefore there is no generation in those individual things which last for ever. But in the state of innocence man would have lived for ever. Therefore in the state of innocence there would have been no generation.

Obj. 2: Moreover, the purpose of reproduction is to ensure the survival of what is perishable in individuals within the species. Therefore, there is no reproduction in those individual things that are eternal. However, in a state of innocence, humans would have lived forever. Thus, in that state of innocence, there would have been no reproduction.

Obj. 3: Further, by generation man is multiplied. But the multiplication of masters requires the division of property, to avoid confusion of mastership. Therefore, since man was made master of the animals, it would have been necessary to make a division of rights when the human race increased by generation. This is against the natural law, according to which all things are in common, as Isidore says (Etym. v, 4). Therefore there would have been no generation in the state of innocence.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, as people reproduce, the human population grows. However, with more masters, property needs to be divided to prevent confusion about who owns what. Therefore, since humans were made masters of animals, it would have been essential to establish divisions of rights as the human population increased through reproduction. This contradicts natural law, which states that all things are meant to be shared, as Isidore mentions (Etym. v, 4). Thus, in a state of innocence, there wouldn’t have been any reproduction.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:28): "Increase and multiply, and fill the earth." But this increase could not come about save by generation, since the original number of mankind was two only. Therefore there would have been generation in the state of innocence.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 1:28): "Be fruitful and multiply, and fill the earth." But this growth could only happen through reproduction, since the original number of humans was just two. Therefore, there would have been reproduction in the state of innocence.

I answer that, In the state of innocence there would have been generation of offspring for the multiplication of the human race; otherwise man's sin would have been very necessary, for such a great blessing to be its result. We must, therefore, observe that man, by his nature, is established, as it were, midway between corruptible and incorruptible creatures, his soul being naturally incorruptible, while his body is naturally corruptible. We must also observe that nature's purpose appears to be different as regards corruptible and incorruptible things. For that seems to be the direct purpose of nature, which is invariable and perpetual; while what is only for a time is seemingly not the chief purpose of nature, but as it were, subordinate to something else; otherwise, when it ceased to exist, nature's purpose would become void.

I respond that, in a state of innocence, there would have been the natural generation of offspring to increase the human race; otherwise, man's sin would have had to be very important to lead to such a significant blessing as its outcome. We should, therefore, note that man, by his very nature, is placed somewhere between corruptible and incorruptible beings, since his soul is naturally incorruptible, while his body is naturally corruptible. We should also recognize that nature's intent seems to differ regarding corruptible and incorruptible things. What appears to be nature's primary goal is constant and everlasting; whereas what exists only temporarily seems less important in nature's overall purpose, acting more like a secondary objective; otherwise, if it were to cease, the purpose of nature would also become meaningless.

Therefore, since in things corruptible none is everlasting and permanent except the species, it follows that the chief purpose of nature is the good of the species; for the preservation of which natural generation is ordained. On the other hand, incorruptible substances survive, not only in the species, but also in the individual; wherefore even the individuals are included in the chief purpose of nature.

Therefore, since nothing in the corruptible world lasts forever except for the species, it follows that the main goal of nature is the welfare of the species; for which natural reproduction is intended. On the other hand, incorruptible substances endure, not only in the species but also in the individual; thus, individuals are also part of the main purpose of nature.

Hence it belongs to man to beget offspring, on the part of the naturally corruptible body. But on the part of the soul, which is incorruptible, it is fitting that the multitude of individuals should be the direct purpose of nature, or rather of the Author of nature, Who alone is the Creator of the human soul. Wherefore, to provide for the multiplication of the human race, He established the begetting of offspring even in the state of innocence.

Therefore, it is human beings who create offspring through their naturally corruptible bodies. However, concerning the soul, which is incorruptible, it makes sense that nature's direct purpose, or rather the intention of the Creator of nature—who alone creates the human soul—is the existence of many individuals. Thus, to ensure the growth of the human race, He set up the process of having children even in a state of innocence.

Reply Obj. 1: In the state of innocence the human body was in itself corruptible, but it could be preserved from corruption by the soul. Therefore, since generation belongs to things corruptible, man was not to be deprived thereof.

Reply Obj. 1: In a state of innocence, the human body was naturally corruptible, but it could be safeguarded from decay by the soul. Thus, since reproduction is associated with corruptible beings, humans should not be deprived of it.

Reply Obj. 2: Although generation in the state of innocence might not have been required for the preservation of the species, yet it would have been required for the multiplication of the individual.

Reply Obj. 2: Although procreation in a state of innocence may not have been necessary for the survival of the species, it would have been essential for the increase of individuals.

Reply Obj. 3: In our present state a division of possessions is necessary on account of the multiplicity of masters, inasmuch as community of possession is a source of strife, as the Philosopher says (Politic. ii, 5). In the state of innocence, however, the will of men would have been so ordered that without any danger of strife they would have used in common, according to each one's need, those things of which they were masters—a state of things to be observed even now among many good men. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Right now, dividing possessions is necessary due to the presence of multiple owners, since sharing possessions often leads to conflict, as the philosopher states (Politic. ii, 5). However, in a state of innocence, people's wills would have been arranged so that they could share things according to their needs without the risk of conflict—a situation still seen today among many good people.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 98, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 98, Art. 2]

Whether in the State of Innocence There Would Have Been Generation by
Coition?

Whether in the State of Innocence There Would Have Been Generation by
Coition?

Objection 1: It would seem that generation by coition would not have existed in the state of innocence. For, as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 11; iv, 25), the first man in the terrestrial Paradise was "like an angel." But in the future state of the resurrection, when men will be like the angels, "they shall neither marry nor be married," as is written Matt. 22:30. Therefore neither in paradise would there have been generation by coition.

Objection 1: It seems that reproduction through intercourse wouldn't have happened in the state of innocence. As Damascene states (De Fide Orth. ii, 11; iv, 25), the first man in the earthly Paradise was "like an angel." However, in the future state of resurrection, when people will be like angels, "they will neither marry nor be given in marriage," as written in Matt. 22:30. Therefore, there wouldn't have been reproduction through intercourse in Paradise either.

Obj. 2: Further, our first parents were created at the age of perfect development. Therefore, if generation by coition had existed before sin, they would have had intercourse while still in paradise: which was not the case according to Scripture (Gen. 4:1).

Obj. 2: Additionally, our first parents were created fully mature. Therefore, if procreation through sexual intercourse had existed before sin, they would have engaged in it while still in paradise, which Scripture confirms was not the case (Gen. 4:1).

Obj. 3: Further, in carnal intercourse, more than at any other time, man becomes like the beasts, on account of the vehement delight which he takes therein; whence contingency is praiseworthy, whereby man refrains from such pleasures. But man is compared to beasts by reason of sin, according to Ps. 48:13: "Man, when he was in honor, did not understand; he is compared to senseless beasts, and is become like to them." Therefore, before sin, there would have been no such intercourse of man and woman.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, during sexual intercourse, more than at any other time, a person becomes like animals because of the intense pleasure they feel. Thus, it is commendable when a person chooses to abstain from such pleasures. However, a person is likened to animals due to sin, as stated in Ps. 48:13: "A person, when in honor, does not understand; they are compared to senseless animals and have become like them." Therefore, before sin, there would not have been such interactions between man and woman.

Obj. 4: Further, in the state of innocence there would have been no corruption. But virginal integrity is corrupted by intercourse. Therefore there would have been no such thing in the state of innocence.

Obj. 4: Additionally, in a state of innocence, there would have been no corruption. However, pure integrity is compromised by sexual intercourse. Therefore, such a thing would not exist in a state of innocence.

On the contrary, God made man and woman before sin (Gen. 1, 2). But nothing is void in God's works. Therefore, even if man had not sinned, there would have been such intercourse, to which the distinction of sex is ordained. Moreover, we are told that woman was made to be a help to man (Gen. 2:18, 20). But she is not fitted to help man except in generation, because another man would have proved a more effective help in anything else. Therefore there would have been such generation also in the state of innocence.

On the contrary, God created man and woman before sin (Gen. 1, 2). But nothing is without purpose in God's works. So, even if man had not sinned, there would still have been such relations, which are defined by the distinction of sex. Furthermore, it is said that woman was made to be a help to man (Gen. 2:18, 20). However, she is only suited to help man in reproduction, because another man would have been a more effective helper in other matters. Therefore, there would have been reproduction even in a state of innocence.

I answer that, Some of the earlier doctors, considering the nature of concupiscence as regards generation in our present state, concluded that in the state of innocence generation would not have been effected in the same way. Thus Gregory of Nyssa says (De Hom. Opif. xvii) that in paradise the human race would have been multiplied by some other means, as the angels were multiplied without coition by the operation of the Divine Power. He adds that God made man male and female before sin, because He foreknew the mode of generation which would take place after sin, which He foresaw. But this is unreasonable. For what is natural to man was neither acquired nor forfeited by sin. Now it is clear that generation by coition is natural to man by reason of his animal life, which he possessed even before sin, as above explained (Q. 97, A. 3), just as it is natural to other perfect animals, as the corporeal members make it clear. So we cannot allow that these members would not have had a natural use, as other members had, before sin.

I answer that, Some of the earlier scholars, considering the nature of desire in relation to procreation in our current state, concluded that in a state of innocence, procreation wouldn't have occurred in the same way. For example, Gregory of Nyssa states (De Hom. Opif. xvii) that in paradise, humanity would have multiplied by some other means, just as angels multiplied without physical unions through Divine Power. He further notes that God created man as male and female before sin because He anticipated the method of procreation that would occur after sin, which He foresaw. However, this perspective is unreasonable. What's natural to humans wasn’t gained or lost due to sin. It’s evident that procreation through physical union is natural to humans due to their animal life, which they had even before sin, as previously explained (Q. 97, A. 3), just like it is natural for other higher animals, as indicated by their physical structures. Therefore, we cannot accept that these structures wouldn’t have had a natural function like others did before sin.

Thus, as regards generation by coition, there are, in the present state of life, two things to be considered. One, which comes from nature, is the union of man and woman; for in every act of generation there is an active and a passive principle. Wherefore, since wherever there is distinction of sex, the active principle is male and the passive is female; the order of nature demands that for the purpose of generation there should be concurrence of male and female. The second thing to be observed is a certain deformity of excessive concupiscence, which in the state of innocence would not have existed, when the lower powers were entirely subject to reason. Wherefore Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 26): "We must be far from supposing that offspring could not be begotten without concupiscence. All the bodily members would have been equally moved by the will, without ardent or wanton incentive, with calmness of soul and body."

Thus, when it comes to reproduction through sexual intercourse, there are two important aspects to consider in our current state of life. One, which is natural, is the union of man and woman; for every act of reproduction involves an active and a passive element. Therefore, since there is a distinction of sex, the active element is male and the passive is female; nature requires that both male and female come together for reproduction. The second aspect to note is a certain flaw of excessive desire, which would not have existed in a state of innocence, when our lower instincts were fully controlled by reason. Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xiv, 26): "We must not assume that offspring could not be produced without desire. All the body's parts would have been equally directed by the will, without intense or lustful motivation, in a state of calmness for both soul and body."

Reply Obj. 1: In paradise man would have been like an angel in his spirituality of mind, yet with an animal life in his body. After the resurrection man will be like an angel, spiritualized in soul and body. Wherefore there is no parallel.

Reply Obj. 1: In paradise, a person would have been like an angel in their spiritual mindset, but still with a physical life in their body. After the resurrection, a person will be like an angel, with both soul and body transformed into a spiritual state. Therefore, there is no comparison.

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ix, 4), our first parents did not come together in paradise, because on account of sin they were ejected from paradise shortly after the creation of the woman; or because, having received the general Divine command relative to generation, they awaited the special command relative to time.

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. ix, 4), our first parents did not unite in paradise, because due to sin, they were expelled from paradise shortly after the creation of the woman; or because, after receiving the general Divine command regarding procreation, they were waiting for the specific command concerning timing.

Reply Obj. 3: Beasts are without reason. In this way man becomes, as it were, like them in coition, because he cannot moderate concupiscence. In the state of innocence nothing of this kind would have happened that was not regulated by reason, not because delight of sense was less, as some say (rather indeed would sensible delight have been the greater in proportion to the greater purity of nature and the greater sensibility of the body), but because the force of concupiscence would not have so inordinately thrown itself into such pleasure, being curbed by reason, whose place it is not to lessen sensual pleasure, but to prevent the force of concupiscence from cleaving to it immoderately. By "immoderately" I mean going beyond the bounds of reason, as a sober person does not take less pleasure in food taken in moderation than the glutton, but his concupiscence lingers less in such pleasures. This is what Augustine means by the words quoted, which do not exclude intensity of pleasure from the state of innocence, but ardor of desire and restlessness of the mind. Therefore continence would not have been praiseworthy in the state of innocence, whereas it is praiseworthy in our present state, not because it removes fecundity, but because it excludes inordinate desire. In that state fecundity would have been without lust.

Reply Obj. 3: Animals act without reason. In this way, humans become somewhat like them during mating because they can't control their desires. In a state of innocence, nothing of this sort would have occurred that wasn't guided by reason. This isn't because sensory pleasure was any less (in fact, sensory pleasure would likely have been greater due to the purity of nature and the heightened sensitivity of the body), but because the force of desire wouldn't have been so excessively focused on such pleasure, as it would be restrained by reason. The role of reason isn't to diminish sensory pleasure but to prevent the excess of desire from becoming attached to it in an inappropriate way. By "inappropriate," I mean exceeding the limits of reason. A sober person does not find less enjoyment in moderately consumed food than a glutton does; rather, their desires linger less on those pleasures. This interpretation aligns with what Augustine refers to in the quoted words, which do not dismiss the possibility of experiencing pleasure in the state of innocence, but focus on the fervor of desire and the unease of the mind. Thus, self-control wouldn't have been admirable in the state of innocence, whereas it is commendable in our current condition, not because it limits fertility, but because it excludes excessive desire. In that state, fertility would have existed without lust.

Reply Obj. 4: As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 26): In that state "intercourse would have been without prejudice to virginal integrity; this would have remained intact, as it does in the menses. And just as in giving birth the mother was then relieved, not by groans of pain, but by the instigations of maturity; so in conceiving, the union was one, not of lustful desire, but of deliberate action." _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 26): In that state "intercourse would have occurred without harming virginity; this would have remained untouched, just like during menstruation. And just as in giving birth the mother was then relieved, not by cries of pain, but by the natural process of maturity; so in conceiving, the union was one, not of lustful desire, but of intentional action."

QUESTION 99

OF THE CONDITION OF THE OFFSPRING AS TO THE BODY
(In Two Articles)

OF THE CONDITION OF THE OFFSPRING AS TO THE BODY
(In Two Articles)

We must now consider the condition of the offspring—first, as regards the body; secondly, as regards virtue; thirdly, in knowledge. Under the first head there are two points of inquiry:

We need to look at the status of the offspring—first, in terms of the body; second, in terms of virtue; and third, in knowledge. For the first topic, there are two questions to explore:

(1) Whether in the state of innocence children would have had full powers of the body immediately after birth?

(1) Would children have had complete control of their bodies right after birth if they were in a state of innocence?

(2) Whether all infants would have been of the male sex? _______________________

(2) Would all infants have been male? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 99, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 99, Art. 1]

Whether in the State of Innocence Children Would Have Had Perfect
Strength of Body As to the Use of Its Members Immediately After Birth?

Whether in the State of Innocence, Children Would Have Had Perfect
Strength of Body Regarding the Use of Their Limbs Right After Birth?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the state of innocence children would have had perfect strength of the body, as to the use of its members, immediately after birth. For Augustine says (De Pecc. Merit. et Remiss. i, 38): "This weakness of the body befits their weakness of mind." But in the state of innocence there would have been no weakness of mind. Therefore neither would there have been weakness of body in infants.

Objection 1: It seems that in a state of innocence, children would have had perfect physical strength and the full use of their bodies right after birth. Augustine states (De Pecc. Merit. et Remiss. i, 38): "This weakness of the body matches their weakness of the mind." However, in a state of innocence, there wouldn’t have been any weakness of the mind. Therefore, there wouldn’t have been any weakness of the body in infants either.

Obj. 2: Further, some animals at birth have sufficient strength to use their members. But man is nobler than other animals. Therefore much more is it natural to man to have strength to use his members at birth; and thus it appears to be a punishment of sin that he has not that strength.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, some animals are strong enough at birth to use their limbs. But humans are more noble than other animals. Therefore, it’s even more natural for humans to have the strength to use their limbs at birth; and this suggests that not having that strength is a consequence of sin.

Obj. 3: Further, inability to secure a proffered pleasure causes affliction. But if children had not full strength in the use of their limbs, they would often have been unable to procure something pleasurable offered to them; and so they would have been afflicted, which was not possible before sin. Therefore, in the state of innocence, children would not have been deprived of the use of their limbs.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, not being able to enjoy a promised pleasure causes pain. If children didn't have full strength in their limbs, they would often have been unable to get something enjoyable offered to them; and thus they would have been in pain, which didn’t happen before sin. Therefore, in a state of innocence, children wouldn’t have been deprived of the use of their limbs.

Obj. 4: Further, the weakness of old age seems to correspond to that of infancy. But in the state of innocence there would have been no weakness of old age. Therefore neither would there have been such weakness in infancy.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the frailty of old age appears to be similar to that of infancy. However, in a state of innocence, there would have been no frailty of old age. Therefore, there shouldn't have been such frailty in infancy either.

On the contrary, Everything generated is first imperfect. But in the state of innocence children would have been begotten by generation. Therefore from the first they would have been imperfect in bodily size and power.

On the contrary, Everything created is initially flawed. However, in a state of innocence, children would have been born through generation. Thus, from the beginning, they would have been imperfect in physical size and strength.

I answer that, By faith alone do we hold truths which are above nature, and what we believe rests on authority. Wherefore, in making any assertion, we must be guided by the nature of things, except in those things which are above nature, and are made known to us by Divine authority. Now it is clear that it is as natural as it is befitting to the principles of human nature that children should not have sufficient strength for the use of their limbs immediately after birth. Because in proportion to other animals man has naturally a larger brain. Wherefore it is natural, on account of the considerable humidity of the brain in children, that the nerves which are instruments of movement, should not be apt for moving the limbs. On the other hand, no Catholic doubts it possible for a child to have, by Divine power, the use of its limbs immediately after birth.

I respond that, we understand truths that are beyond nature through faith alone, and our beliefs rely on authority. Therefore, when making any claim, we must be guided by the nature of things, except for those matters that transcend nature and are revealed to us by Divine authority. It is evident that it is as natural as it is appropriate to human nature that children do not have enough strength to use their limbs right after birth. This is because, compared to other animals, humans have a naturally larger brain. Hence, it is natural, due to the significant moisture in a child's brain, that the nerves responsible for movement are not ready to control the limbs. On the other hand, no Catholic doubts that it is possible for a child to, through Divine power, have control of its limbs immediately after birth.

Now we have it on the authority of Scripture that "God made man right" (Eccles. 7:30), which rightness, as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 11), consists in the perfect subjection of the body to the soul. As, therefore, in the primitive state it was impossible to find in the human limbs anything repugnant to man's well-ordered will, so was it impossible for those limbs to fail in executing the will's commands. Now the human will is well ordered when it tends to acts which are befitting to man. But the same acts are not befitting to man at every season of life. We must, therefore, conclude that children would not have had sufficient strength for the use of their limbs for the purpose of performing every kind of act; but only for the acts befitting the state of infancy, such as suckling, and the like.

Now we know from Scripture that "God made man right" (Eccles. 7:30), and this righteousness, as Augustine explains (De Civ. Dei xiv, 11), is about the perfect control of the body by the soul. In the beginning, it was impossible for human limbs to act against a well-ordered will, just as those limbs couldn't fail to follow the commands of that will. The human will is well ordered when it aims for actions appropriate to a person. However, those actions are not the same for every stage of life. Therefore, we must conclude that children wouldn’t have had enough strength in their limbs to perform all kinds of actions, but only those suitable for infancy, like suckling and similar activities.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine is speaking of the weakness which we observe in children even as regards those acts which befit the state of infancy; as is clear from his preceding remark that "even when close to the breast, and longing for it, they are more apt to cry than to suckle."

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine is talking about the weakness we see in children, even in actions that align with their age. This is evident from his earlier comment that "even when they are near the breast and wanting to nurse, they are more likely to cry than to suckle."

Reply Obj. 2: The fact that some animals have the use of their limbs immediately after birth, is due, not to their superiority, since more perfect animals are not so endowed; but to the dryness of the brain, and to the operations proper to such animals being imperfect, so that a small amount of strength suffices them.

Reply Obj. 2: The reason some animals can use their limbs right after birth isn't because they are superior; more advanced animals don't have this ability. It's because their brains are dry, and the functions necessary for these animals are incomplete, requiring only a small amount of strength for them to move around.

Reply Obj. 3 is clear from what we have said above. We may add that they would have desired nothing except with an ordinate will; and only what was befitting to their state of life.

Reply Obj. 3 is clear from what we have said above. We may add that they would have desired nothing except with a reasonable will; and only what was appropriate to their lifestyle.

Reply Obj. 4: In the state of innocence man would have been born, yet not subject to corruption. Therefore in that state there could have been certain infantile defects which result from birth; but not senile defects leading to corruption. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: In a state of innocence, a person would have been born, but not prone to corruption. So, in that state, there might have been some minor issues related to infancy that come from birth; however, there wouldn’t have been any age-related issues that lead to corruption.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 99, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 99, Art. 2]

Whether, in the Primitive State, Women Would Have Been Born?

Whether, in the early days, women would have come into existence?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the primitive state woman would not have been born. For the Philosopher says (De Gener. Animal. ii, 3) that woman is a "misbegotten male," as though she were a product outside the purpose of nature. But in that state nothing would have been unnatural in human generation. Therefore in that state women would not have been born.

Objection 1: It seems that in the early stages of humanity, women would not have been born. The Philosopher states (De Gener. Animal. ii, 3) that a woman is a "misbegotten male," suggesting that she is a byproduct of nature's intent. However, in that early state, there would have been nothing unnatural about human reproduction. Therefore, in that state, women would not have been born.

Obj. 2: Further, every agent produces its like, unless prevented by insufficient power or ineptness of matter: thus a small fire cannot burn green wood. But in generation the active force is in the male. Since, therefore, in the state of innocence man's active force was not subject to defect, nor was there inept matter on the part of the woman, it seems that males would always have been born.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, every agent produces something similar unless stopped by insufficient power or issues with the material: for example, a small fire can’t burn damp wood. In reproduction, the active force comes from the male. Thus, since in a state of innocence, man's active force was flawless, and there were no issues with the woman’s material, it seems that males would always have been born.

Obj. 3: Further, in the state of innocence generation is ordered to the multiplication of the human race. But the race would have been sufficiently multiplied by the first man and woman, from the fact that they would have lived for ever. Therefore, in the state of innocence, there was no need for women to be born.

Obj. 3: Additionally, in a state of innocence, procreation was meant for increasing the human population. However, the population would have been adequately expanded by the first man and woman, since they would have lived forever. Hence, in a state of innocence, there was no need for women to be born.

On the contrary, Nature's process in generation would have been in harmony with the manner in which it was established by God. But God established male and female in human nature, as it is written (Gen. 1, 2). Therefore also in the state of innocence male and female would have been born.

On the contrary, Nature's process of reproduction would have aligned with how it was set up by God. But God created male and female in human nature, as it says in (Gen. 1, 2). So even in the state of innocence, male and female would have been born.

I answer that, Nothing belonging to the completeness of human nature would have been lacking in the state of innocence. And as different grades belong to the perfection of the universe, so also diversity of sex belongs to the perfection of human nature. Therefore in the state of innocence, both sexes would have been begotten.

I answer that, nothing essential to the wholeness of human nature would have been missing in the state of innocence. Just as various levels contribute to the perfection of the universe, the differences in sex are also part of the completeness of human nature. Therefore, in the state of innocence, both sexes would have been created.

Reply Obj. 1: Woman is said to be a "misbegotten male," as being a product outside the purpose of nature considered in the individual case: but not against the purpose of universal nature, as above explained (Q. 92, A. 1, ad 2).

Reply Obj. 1: A woman is described as a "misbegotten male," being a result not aligned with the specific purpose of nature in the individual case; however, this does not contradict the purpose of universal nature, as explained above (Q. 92, A. 1, ad 2).

Reply Obj. 2: The generation of woman is not occasioned either by a defect of the active force or by inept matter, as the objection proposes; but sometimes by an extrinsic accidental cause; thus the Philosopher says (De Animal. Histor. vi, 19): "The northern wind favors the generation of males, and the southern wind that of females": sometimes also by some impression in the soul (of the parents), which may easily have some effect on the body (of the child). Especially was this the case in the state of innocence, when the body was more subject to the soul; so that by the mere will of the parent the sex of the offspring might be diversified.

Reply Obj. 2: The generation of a female is not caused by a flaw in the active force or by inadequate matter, as the objection suggests; but sometimes it is due to an external accidental cause. The Philosopher states (De Animal. Histor. vi, 19): "The northern wind favors the generation of males, and the southern wind that of females." It can also be influenced by some impression in the soul (of the parents), which can easily affect the body (of the child). This was especially true in the state of innocence, when the body was more influenced by the soul, allowing the mere will of the parent to affect the sex of the offspring.

Reply Obj. 3: The offspring would have been begotten to an animal life, as to the use of food and generation. Hence it was fitting that all should generate, and not only the first parents. From this it seems to follow that males and females would have been in equal number. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The offspring would have been born into an animal life, in terms of eating and reproduction. Therefore, it made sense that all should reproduce, not just the first parents. This suggests that males and females would have been in equal numbers.

QUESTION 100

OF THE CONDITION OF THE OFFSPRING AS REGARDS RIGHTEOUSNESS
(In Two Articles)

OF THE CONDITION OF THE OFFSPRING CONCERNING RIGHTEOUSNESS
(In Two Articles)

We now have to consider the condition of the offspring as to righteousness. Under this head there are two points of inquiry:

We now need to look at the state of the offspring regarding righteousness. In this regard, there are two key questions to explore:

(1) Whether men would have been born in a state of righteousness?

(1) Would men have been born in a state of righteousness?

(2) Whether they would have been born confirmed in righteousness? _______________________

(2) Would they have been born already confirmed in righteousness? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 100, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 100, Art. 1]

Whether Men Would Have Been Born in a State of Righteousness?

Whether Men Would Have Been Born in a State of Righteousness?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the state of innocence men would not have been born in a state of righteousness. For Hugh of St. Victor says (De Sacram. i): "Before sin the first man would have begotten children sinless; but not heirs to their father's righteousness."

Objection 1: It seems that in a state of innocence, men wouldn't have been born in a state of righteousness. Hugh of St. Victor says (De Sacram. i): "Before sin, the first man would have had children who were sinless; but they wouldn't be heirs to their father's righteousness."

Obj. 2: Further, righteousness is effected by grace, as the Apostle says (Rom. 5:16, 21). Now grace is not transfused from one to another, for thus it would be natural; but is infused by God alone. Therefore children would not have been born righteous.

Obj. 2: Additionally, righteousness is achieved through grace, as the Apostle says (Rom. 5:16, 21). Now grace isn't passed on from one person to another, as that would be a natural process; instead, it’s given by God alone. Therefore, children wouldn’t be born righteous.

Obj. 3: Further, righteousness is in the soul. But the soul is not transmitted from the parent. Therefore neither would righteousness have been transmitted from parents, to the children.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, righteousness exists within the soul. However, the soul is not passed down from the parent. Therefore, righteousness would not be passed down from parents to their children.

On the contrary, Anselm says (De Concep. Virg. x): "As long as man did not sin, he would have begotten children endowed with righteousness together with the rational soul."

On the contrary, Anselm says (De Concep. Virg. x): "As long as man did not sin, he would have had children born with righteousness alongside the rational soul."

I answer that, Man naturally begets a specific likeness to himself. Hence whatever accidental qualities result from the nature of the species, must be alike in parent and child, unless nature fails in its operation, which would not have occurred in the state of innocence. But individual accidents do not necessarily exist alike in parent and child. Now original righteousness, in which the first man was created, was an accident pertaining to the nature of the species, not as caused by the principles of the species, but as a gift conferred by God on the entire human nature. This is clear from the fact that opposites are of the same genus; and original sin, which is opposed to original righteousness, is called the sin of nature, wherefore it is transmitted from the parent to the offspring; and for this reason also, the children would have been assimilated to their parents as regards original righteousness.

I answer that, Humans naturally pass on a resemblance to themselves. Therefore, any accidental traits that come from the nature of the species should be similar in both parent and child, unless nature fails in its process, which wouldn’t have happened in a state of innocence. However, individual traits don’t have to be the same in parent and child. Original righteousness, the state in which the first man was created, was an accidental trait related to the species' nature; it wasn’t caused by the species’ principles but was a gift given by God to all of humanity. This is evident because opposites belong to the same category; original sin, which stands in opposition to original righteousness, is referred to as the sin of nature, and that’s why it is passed from parent to child. Because of this, the children would have been similar to their parents regarding original righteousness.

Reply Obj. 1: These words of Hugh are to be understood as referring, not to the habit of righteousness, but to the execution of the act thereof.

Reply Obj. 1: Hugh's words should be understood as referring, not to the habit of righteousness, but to the actual doing of it.

Reply Obj. 2: Some say that children would have been born, not with the righteousness of grace, which is the principle of merit, but with original righteousness. But since the root of original righteousness, which conferred righteousness on the first man when he was made, consists in the supernatural subjection of the reason to God, which subjection results from sanctifying grace, as above explained (Q. 95, A. 1), we must conclude that if children were born in original righteousness, they would also have been born in grace; thus we have said above that the first man was created in grace (Q. 95, A. 1). This grace, however, would not have been natural, for it would not have been transfused by virtue of the semen; but would have been conferred on man immediately on his receiving a rational soul. In the same way the rational soul, which is not transmitted by the parent, is infused by God as soon as the human body is apt to receive it.

Reply Obj. 2: Some argue that children would be born not with the righteousness of grace, which is the basis of merit, but with original righteousness. However, since the foundation of original righteousness, which granted righteousness to the first man at creation, comes from the supernatural submission of reason to God—this submission arises from sanctifying grace, as explained above (Q. 95, A. 1)—we must conclude that if children were born in original righteousness, they would also have been born in grace; thus, we mentioned earlier that the first man was created in grace (Q. 95, A. 1). This grace, however, would not have been natural, as it wouldn’t have been passed down through the semen; rather, it would have been given to man immediately upon receiving a rational soul. Similarly, the rational soul, which is not inherited from the parent, is infused by God as soon as the human body is capable of receiving it.

From this the reply to the third objection is clear. _______________________

From this, the response to the third objection is clear.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 100, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 100, Art. 2]

Whether in the State of Innocence Children Would Have Been Born
Confirmed in Righteousness?

Whether in the State of Innocence Children Would Have Been Born
Confirmed in Righteousness?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the state of innocence children would have been born confirmed in righteousness. For Gregory says (Moral. iv) on the words of Job 3:13: "For now I should have been asleep, etc.": "If no sinful corruption had infected our first parent, he would not have begotten 'children of hell'; no children would have been born of him but such as were destined to be saved by the Redeemer." Therefore all would have been born confirmed in righteousness.

Objection 1: It seems that in a state of innocence, children would have been born fully righteous. Gregory states (Moral. iv) regarding Job 3:13: "For now I should have been asleep, etc.": "If no sinful corruption had touched our first parent, he wouldn't have fathered 'children of hell'; all children born to him would be those destined to be saved by the Redeemer." Therefore, all would have been born fully righteous.

Obj. 2: Further, Anselm says (Cur Deus Homo i, 18): "If our first parents had lived so as not to yield to temptation, they would have been confirmed in grace, so that with their offspring they would have been unable to sin any more." Therefore the children would have been born confirmed in righteousness.

Obj. 2: Moreover, Anselm states (Cur Deus Homo i, 18): "If our first parents had lived in a way that they didn’t give in to temptation, they would have been established in grace, meaning that along with their descendants, they wouldn’t have been able to sin anymore." Therefore, the children would have been born established in righteousness.

Obj. 3: Further, good is stronger than evil. But by the sin of the first man there resulted, in those born of him, the necessity of sin. Therefore, if the first man had persevered in righteousness, his descendants would have derived from him the necessity of preserving righteousness.

Obj. 3: Additionally, good is more powerful than evil. However, because of the sin of the first man, those born from him now have an inherent tendency to sin. Therefore, if the first man had remained righteous, his descendants would have inherited the necessity of maintaining righteousness.

Obj. 4: Further, the angels who remained faithful to God, while the others sinned, were at once confirmed in grace, so as to be unable henceforth to sin. In like manner, therefore, man would have been confirmed in grace if he had persevered. But he would have begotten children like himself. Therefore they also would have been born confirmed in righteousness.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the angels who stayed loyal to God, while the others sinned, were immediately secured in grace, making it impossible for them to sin from that point on. In the same way, humanity would have been secured in grace if it had continued in faith. However, humanity would have produced offspring like itself. Therefore, those children would have also been born secured in righteousness.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 10): "Happy would have been the whole human race if neither they—that is our first parents—had committed any evil to be transmitted to their descendants, nor any of their race had committed any sin for which they would have been condemned." From which words we gather that even if our first parents had not sinned, any of their descendants might have done evil; and therefore they would not have been born confirmed in righteousness.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiv, 10): "The whole human race would have been happy if neither they—that is, our first parents—had done anything evil to pass on to their descendants, nor any of their descendants had committed a sin that would lead to their condemnation." From these words, we understand that even if our first parents had not sinned, any of their descendants could have done wrong; and therefore, they wouldn’t have been born guaranteed to be righteous.

I answer that, It does not seem possible that in the state of innocence children would have been born confirmed in righteousness. For it is clear that at their birth they would not have had greater perfection than their parents at the time of begetting. Now the parents, as long as they begot children, would not have been confirmed in righteousness. For the rational creature is confirmed in righteousness through the beatitude given by the clear vision of God; and when once it has seen God, it cannot but cleave to Him Who is the essence of goodness, wherefrom no one can turn away, since nothing is desired or loved but under the aspect of good. I say this according to the general law; for it may be otherwise in the case of special privilege, such as we believe was granted to the Virgin Mother of God. And as soon as Adam had attained to that happy state of seeing God in His Essence, he would have become spiritual in soul and body; and his animal life would have ceased, wherein alone there is generation. Hence it is clear that children would not have been born confirmed in righteousness.

I respond that it doesn't seem possible that in a state of innocence, children would have been born fully established in righteousness. It's clear that at birth, they wouldn't have had a greater level of perfection than their parents at the time of conception. Now, as long as the parents were having children, they wouldn't have been fully established in righteousness either. A rational being is solidified in righteousness through the joy that comes from the clear vision of God; once it sees God, it can only cling to Him, Who is the essence of goodness, from which no one can turn away since nothing is desired or loved except in relation to goodness. I mention this based on the general principle, as there may be exceptions for special privileges, like what we believe was given to the Virgin Mother of God. And as soon as Adam reached that blessed state of seeing God in His Essence, he would have become spiritual in both soul and body; his animal life, which is where reproduction occurs, would have ended. Therefore, it is clear that children would not have been born fully established in righteousness.

Reply Obj. 1: If Adam had not sinned, he would not have begotten "children of hell" in the sense that they would contract from him sin which is the cause of hell: yet by sinning of their own free-will they could have become "children of hell." If, however, they did not become "children of hell" by falling into sin, this would not have been owing to their being confirmed in righteousness, but to Divine Providence preserving them free from sin.

Reply Obj. 1: If Adam hadn’t sinned, he wouldn’t have fathered "children of hell" because they wouldn't inherit sin from him, which leads to hell. However, by choosing to sin on their own, they could have become "children of hell." If they didn’t become "children of hell" by succumbing to sin, it wouldn’t be because they were firmly established in goodness, but because Divine Providence kept them free from sin.

Reply Obj. 2: Anselm does not say this by way of assertion, but only as an opinion, which is clear from his mode of expression as follows: "It seems that if they had lived, etc."

Reply Obj. 2: Anselm doesn't state this as a fact, but rather as a personal opinion, which is evident from the way he expresses himself: "It seems that if they had lived, etc."

Reply Obj. 3: This argument is not conclusive, though Anselm seems to have been influenced by it, as appears from his words above quoted. For the necessity of sin incurred by the descendants would not have been such that they could not return to righteousness, which is the case only with the damned. Wherefore neither would the parents have transmitted to their descendants the necessity of not sinning, which is only in the blessed.

Reply Obj. 3: This argument isn’t convincing, although Anselm seems to have been influenced by it, as shown by his earlier quoted words. The need for sin faced by the descendants wouldn’t be so absolute that they couldn’t return to righteousness, which is only true for the damned. Therefore, the parents wouldn’t have passed on to their descendants the necessity of not sinning, which only exists in the blessed.

Reply Obj. 4: There is no comparison between man and the angels; for man's free-will is changeable, both before and after choice; whereas the angel's is not changeable, as we have said above in treating of the angels (Q. 64, A. 2). _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: There’s no comparison between humans and angels; because a human's free will can change, both before and after making a choice; while an angel's free will is unchangeable, as we discussed earlier regarding angels (Q. 64, A. 2).

QUESTION 101

OF THE CONDITION OF THE OFFSPRING AS REGARDS KNOWLEDGE
(In Two Articles)

OF THE CONDITION OF THE OFFSPRING REGARDING KNOWLEDGE
(In Two Articles)

We next consider the condition of the offspring as to knowledge.
Under this head there are two points of inquiry:

We now look at the state of the offspring regarding knowledge.
In this regard, there are two points to explore:

(1) Whether in the state of innocence children would have been born with perfect knowledge?

(1) Would children have been born with perfect knowledge in a state of innocence?

(2) Whether they would have had perfect use of reason at the moment of birth? _______________________

(2) Would they have had complete use of reason at the moment of birth? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 101, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 101, Art. 1]

Whether in the State of Innocence Children Would Have Been Born with
Perfect Knowledge?

Whether in the State of Innocence Children Would Have Been Born with
Perfect Knowledge?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the state of innocence children would have been born with perfect knowledge. For Adam would have begotten children like himself. But Adam was gifted with perfect knowledge (Q. 94, A. 3). Therefore children would have been born of him with perfect knowledge.

Objection 1: It seems that in a state of innocence, children would have been born with perfect knowledge. After all, Adam would have had children like himself. Since Adam had perfect knowledge (Q. 94, A. 3), it follows that his children would have been born with perfect knowledge too.

Obj. 2: Further, ignorance is a result of sin, as Bede says (Cf.
I-II, Q. 85, A. 3). But ignorance is privation of knowledge.
Therefore before sin children would have had perfect knowledge as
soon as they were born.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, ignorance is a consequence of sin, as Bede states (Cf.
I-II, Q. 85, A. 3). However, ignorance is a lack of knowledge.
Therefore, before sin, children would have had complete knowledge as
soon as they were born.

Obj. 3: Further, children would have been gifted with righteousness from birth. But knowledge is required for righteousness, since it directs our actions. Therefore they would also have been gifted with knowledge.

Obj. 3: Additionally, children would have been born with righteousness. However, knowledge is necessary for righteousness because it guides our actions. So, they would also have been given knowledge.

On the contrary, The human soul is naturally "like a blank tablet on which nothing is written," as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 4). But the nature of the soul is the same now as it would have been in the state of innocence. Therefore the souls of children would have been without knowledge at birth.

On the contrary, the human soul is naturally "like a blank slate on which nothing is written," as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 4). But the nature of the soul is the same now as it would have been in the state of innocence. Therefore, the souls of children would have been without knowledge at birth.

I answer that, As above stated (Q. 99, A. 1), as regards belief in matters which are above nature, we rely on authority alone; and so, when authority is wanting, we must be guided by the ordinary course of nature. Now it is natural for man to acquire knowledge through the senses, as above explained (Q. 55, A. 2; Q. 84, A. 6); and for this reason is the soul united to the body, that it needs it for its proper operation; and this would not be so if the soul were endowed at birth with knowledge not acquired through the sensitive powers. We must conclude then, that, in the state of innocence, children would not have been born with perfect knowledge; but in course of time they would have acquired knowledge without difficulty by discovery or learning.

I answer that, As stated earlier (Q. 99, A. 1), when it comes to beliefs about things beyond nature, we rely solely on authority; and so, when there is no authority, we have to follow the natural order of things. It's natural for humans to gain knowledge through their senses, as explained before (Q. 55, A. 2; Q. 84, A. 6); and that's why the soul is connected to the body—it needs the body for its proper function. This wouldn't be the case if the soul was born with knowledge that didn't come from the senses. Therefore, we can conclude that, in a state of innocence, children would not be born with complete knowledge; rather, over time, they would acquire knowledge without much difficulty through discovery or learning.

Reply Obj. 1: The perfection of knowledge was an individual accident of our first parent, so far as he was established as the father and instructor of the whole human race. Therefore he begot children like himself, not in that respect, but only in those accidents which were natural or conferred gratuitously on the whole nature.

Reply Obj. 1: The perfection of knowledge was a one-time event for our first parent, as he was set up as the father and teacher of all humanity. So, he had children like himself, not in that aspect, but only in those characteristics that were natural or given freely to all of humanity.

Reply Obj. 2: Ignorance is privation of knowledge due at some particular time; and this would not have been in children from their birth, for they would have possessed the knowledge due to them at that time. Hence, no ignorance would have been in them, but only nescience in regard to certain matters. Such nescience was even in the holy angels, according to Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii).

Reply Obj. 2: Ignorance is the lack of knowledge that should be present at a specific time; therefore, children wouldn’t have been ignorant from birth because they would have had the knowledge that was expected of them at that time. So, they wouldn’t experience ignorance, only a lack of knowledge about certain things. Even the holy angels had this lack of knowledge, according to Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii).

Reply Obj. 3: Children would have had sufficient knowledge to direct them to deeds of righteousness, in which men are guided by universal principles of right; and this knowledge of theirs would have been much more complete than what we have now by nature, as likewise their knowledge of other universal principles. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Children would have had enough understanding to lead them to good actions, which people are guided by universal principles of what is right; and this understanding of theirs would have been much more complete than what we naturally have now, as well as their understanding of other universal principles.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 101, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 101, Art. 2]

Whether Children Would Have Had Perfect Use of Reason at Birth?

Whether children would have had perfect use of reason at birth?

Objection 1: It would seem that children would have had perfect use of reason at birth. For that children have not perfect use of reason in our present state, is due to the soul being weighed down by the body; which was not the case in paradise, because, as it is written, "The corruptible body is a load upon the soul" (Wis. 9:15). Therefore, before sin and the corruption which resulted therefrom, children would have had the perfect use of reason at birth.

Objection 1: It seems that children would have had full use of reason at birth. The reason children don’t have full use of reason in our current state is that the soul is burdened by the body; this wasn’t the case in paradise, because, as it is written, "The corruptible body is a load upon the soul" (Wis. 9:15). Therefore, before sin and the corruption that followed, children would have had full use of reason at birth.

Obj. 2: Further, some animals at birth have the use of their natural powers, as the lamb at once flees from the wolf. Much more, therefore, would men in the state of innocence have had perfect use of reason at birth.

Obj. 2: Also, some animals are born with their natural abilities, like a lamb that immediately runs away from a wolf. So, it follows that humans, in a state of innocence, would have had full use of reason right from birth.

On the contrary, In all things produced by generation nature proceeds from the imperfect to the perfect. Therefore children would not have had the perfect use of reason from the very outset.

On the contrary, in everything created through generation, nature moves from the imperfect to the perfect. So, children wouldn't have the full use of reason right from the start.

I answer that, As above stated (Q. 84, A. 7), the use of reason depends in a certain manner on the use of the sensitive powers; wherefore, while the senses are tired and the interior sensitive powers hampered, man has not the perfect use of reason, as we see in those who are asleep or delirious. Now the sensitive powers are situate in corporeal organs; and therefore, so long as the latter are hindered, the action of the former is of necessity hindered also; and likewise, consequently, the use of reason. Now children are hindered in the use of these powers on account of the humidity of the brain; wherefore they have perfect use neither of these powers nor of reason. Therefore, in the state of innocence, children would not have had the perfect use of reason, which they would have enjoyed later on in life. Yet they would have had a more perfect use than they have now, as to matters regarding that particular state, as explained above regarding the use of their limbs (Q. 99, A. 1).

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (Q. 84, A. 7), the use of reason is somewhat dependent on the use of our senses; therefore, when the senses are fatigued and our inner sensitive abilities are impaired, a person doesn’t fully utilize reason, as seen in those who are asleep or delirious. The sensitive abilities are linked to physical organs; thus, as long as these organs are restricted, the functioning of these abilities is necessarily limited as well, which also impacts the use of reason. Children are limited in these abilities due to the moisture in their brains; consequently, they don’t fully utilize these abilities or reason. Therefore, in a state of innocence, children would not have had perfect reasoning, which they would come to enjoy later in life. However, they would have had a more developed sense of reasoning regarding their specific state, as previously explained about their use of limbs (Q. 99, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 1: The corruptible body is a load upon the soul, because it hinders the use of reason even in those matters which belong to man at all ages.

Reply Obj. 1: The corruptible body is a burden on the soul, as it obstructs the use of reason even in issues that pertain to humans of all ages.

Reply Obj. 2: Even other animals have not at birth such a perfect use of their natural powers as they have later on. This is clear from the fact that birds teach their young to fly; and the like may be observed in other animals. Moreover a special impediment exists in man from the humidity of the brain, as we have said above (Q. 99, A. 1). _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Other animals also don’t have full control over their natural abilities at birth like they do later in life. This is evident because birds teach their young how to fly, and similar behavior can be seen in other animals. Additionally, humans face a unique challenge due to the moisture in the brain, as we mentioned earlier (Q. 99, A. 1).

QUESTION 102

OF MAN'S ABODE, WHICH IS PARADISE
(In Four Articles)

OF MAN'S ABODE, WHICH IS PARADISE
(In Four Articles)

We next consider man's abode, which is paradise. Under this head there are four points of inquiry:

We will now look at where humans live, which is paradise. In this section, there are four main points to explore:

(1) Whether paradise is a corporeal place?

(1) Is paradise a physical place?

(2) Whether it is a place apt for human habitation?

(2) Is it a place suitable for people to live?

(3) For what purpose was man placed in paradise?

(3) Why was man put in paradise?

(4) Whether he should have been created in paradise? _______________________

(4) Should he have been created in paradise? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 102, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 102, Art. 1]

Whether Paradise Is a Corporeal Place?

Whether Paradise Is a Physical Place?

Objection 1: It would seem that paradise is not a corporeal place. For Bede [*Strabus, Gloss on Gen. 2:8] says that "paradise reaches to the lunar circle." But no earthly place answers that description, both because it is contrary to the nature of the earth to be raised up so high, and because beneath the moon is the region of fire, which would consume the earth. Therefore paradise is not a corporeal place.

Objection 1: It seems that paradise isn't a physical location. Bede [*Strabus, Gloss on Gen. 2:8] states that "paradise extends to the lunar circle." However, no earthly place fits that description, both because it's unnatural for the earth to be elevated so high, and because beneath the moon lies the fiery region, which would burn the earth away. Therefore, paradise is not a physical location.

Obj. 2: Further, Scripture mentions four rivers as rising in paradise (Gen. 2:10). But the rivers there mentioned have visible sources elsewhere, as is clear from the Philosopher (Meteor. i). Therefore paradise is not a corporeal place.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the Scriptures mention four rivers that flow from paradise (Gen. 2:10). However, the rivers referenced have seen sources in other locations, as the Philosopher makes clear (Meteor. i). Therefore, paradise is not a physical location.

Obj. 3: Further, although men have explored the entire habitable world, yet none have made mention of the place of paradise. Therefore apparently it is not a corporeal place.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, although people have traveled throughout the entire livable world, none have mentioned the location of paradise. Therefore, it seems that it is not a physical place.

Obj. 4: Further, the tree of life is described as growing in paradise. But the tree of life is a spiritual thing, for it is written of Wisdom that "She is a tree of life to them that lay hold on her" (Prov. 3:18). Therefore paradise also is not a corporeal, but a spiritual place.

Obj. 4: Additionally, the tree of life is said to be growing in paradise. However, the tree of life represents something spiritual, as it is stated about Wisdom that "She is a tree of life to those who embrace her" (Prov. 3:18). Therefore, paradise is also not a physical, but a spiritual place.

Obj. 5: Further, if paradise be a corporeal place, the trees also of paradise must be corporeal. But it seems they were not; for corporeal trees were produced on the third day, while the planting of the trees of paradise is recorded after the work of the six days. Therefore paradise was not a corporeal place.

Obj. 5: Furthermore, if paradise is a physical place, then the trees in paradise must also be physical. However, it appears they were not; because physical trees were created on the third day, while the planting of the trees in paradise is mentioned after the completion of the six days of creation. Therefore, paradise was not a physical place.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 1): "Three general opinions prevail about paradise. Some understand a place merely corporeal; others a place entirely spiritual; while others, whose opinion, I confess, pleases me, hold that paradise was both corporeal and spiritual."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 1): "There are three main views about paradise. Some see it as a purely physical place; others see it as a completely spiritual one; while others, whose opinion I admit I find appealing, believe that paradise was both physical and spiritual."

I answer that, As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xiii, 21): "Nothing prevents us from holding, within proper limits, a spiritual paradise; so long as we believe in the truth of the events narrated as having there occurred." For whatever Scripture tells us about paradise is set down as matter of history; and wherever Scripture makes use of this method, we must hold to the historical truth of the narrative as a foundation of whatever spiritual explanation we may offer. And so paradise, as Isidore says (Etym. xiv, 3), "is a place situated in the east, its name being the Greek for garden." It was fitting that it should be in the east; for it is to be believed that it was situated in the most excellent part of the earth. Now the east is the right hand on the heavens, as the Philosopher explains (De Coel. ii, 2); and the right hand is nobler than the left: hence it was fitting that God should place the earthly paradise in the east.

I respond that, as Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xiii, 21): "Nothing stops us from having, within reasonable limits, a spiritual paradise; as long as we believe in the truth of the events described as having happened there." For everything Scripture tells us about paradise is recorded as historical fact; and wherever Scripture uses this approach, we must accept the historical truth of the narrative as a foundation for any spiritual interpretation we may provide. Thus, paradise, as Isidore mentions (Etym. xiv, 3), "is a place located in the east, its name being the Greek word for garden." It makes sense for it to be in the east; for it is believed to be located in the most excellent part of the earth. The east is considered the right side of the heavens, as the Philosopher explains (De Coel. ii, 2); and the right side is more noble than the left: hence it was fitting for God to place the earthly paradise in the east.

Reply Obj. 1: Bede's assertion is untrue, if taken in its obvious sense. It may, however, be explained to mean that paradise reaches to the moon, not literally, but figuratively; because, as Isidore says (Etym. xiv, 3), the atmosphere there is "a continually even temperature"; and in this respect it is like the heavenly bodies, which are devoid of opposing elements. Mention, however, is made of the moon rather than of other bodies, because, of all the heavenly bodies, the moon is nearest to us, and is, moreover, the most akin to the earth; hence it is observed to be overshadowed by clouds so as to be almost obscured. Others say that paradise reached to the moon—that is, to the middle space of the air, where rain, and wind, and the like arise; because the moon is said to have influence on such changes. But in this sense it would not be a fit place for human dwelling, through being uneven in temperature, and not attuned to the human temperament, as is the lower atmosphere in the neighborhood of the earth.

Reply Obj. 1: Bede's statement is incorrect if taken at face value. It can be interpreted to mean that paradise extends to the moon, not literally, but figuratively; because, as Isidore says (Etym. xiv, 3), the atmosphere there has “a continually even temperature”; and in this way, it resembles heavenly bodies, which lack opposing elements. However, the moon is mentioned instead of other bodies because, of all the heavenly bodies, the moon is closest to us and is also the most similar to the earth; thus, it is often seen covered by clouds to the point of being almost hidden. Others argue that paradise extends to the moon—that is, to the middle area of the air, where rain, wind, and similar phenomena occur; because the moon is believed to influence such changes. But in this sense, it wouldn't be a suitable place for people to live, as it has an uneven temperature and isn't suited to human nature, unlike the lower atmosphere close to the earth.

Reply Obj. 2: Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 7): "It is probable that man has no idea where paradise was, and that the rivers, whose sources are said to be known, flowed for some distance underground, and then sprang up elsewhere. For who is not aware that such is the case with some other streams?"

Reply Obj. 2: Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 7): "It's likely that humans have no clue where paradise was located, and that the rivers, which are claimed to have known sources, flowed underground for a while before emerging elsewhere. After all, who doesn’t realize that this is true for some other rivers?"

Reply Obj. 3: The situation of paradise is shut off from the habitable world by mountains, or seas, or some torrid region, which cannot be crossed; and so people who have written about topography make no mention of it.

Reply Obj. 3: The location of paradise is separated from the habitable world by mountains, seas, or some unpassable hot region, which cannot be crossed; so those who have written about geography do not mention it.

Reply Obj. 4: The tree of life is a material tree, and so called because its fruit was endowed with a life-preserving power as above stated (Q. 97, A. 4). Yet it had a spiritual signification; as the rock in the desert was of a material nature, and yet signified Christ. In like manner the tree of the knowledge of good and evil was a material tree, so called in view of future events; because, after eating of it, man was to learn, by experience of the consequent punishment, the difference between the good of obedience and the evil of rebellion. It may also be said to signify spiritually the free-will as some say.

Reply Obj. 4: The tree of life is a physical tree, named because its fruit had a life-giving power as mentioned earlier (Q. 97, A. 4). However, it also had a spiritual meaning; just like the rock in the desert was physical but represented Christ. Similarly, the tree of the knowledge of good and evil was a physical tree, named in anticipation of future events; because, after eating from it, humanity was meant to learn, through the experience of the resulting punishment, the difference between the good of obedience and the evil of rebellion. It can also be interpreted as symbolizing free will, as some suggest.

Reply Obj. 5: According to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. v, 5, viii, 3), the plants were not actually produced on the third day, but in their seminal virtues; whereas, after the work of the six days, the plants, both of paradise and others, were actually produced. According to other holy writers, we ought to say that all the plants were actually produced on the third day, including the trees of paradise; and what is said of the trees of paradise being planted after the work of the six days is to be understood, they say, by way of recapitulation. Whence our text reads: "The Lord God had planted a paradise of pleasure from the beginning" (Gen. 2:8). _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: According to Augustine (Gen. ad lit. v, 5, viii, 3), the plants weren't actually created on the third day, but rather existed in their potential forms; while after the six days of creation, the plants, both from paradise and elsewhere, were fully formed. Other religious writers suggest that all the plants were indeed created on the third day, including the trees of paradise; and when it's mentioned that the trees of paradise were planted after the six days, they believe this should be understood as a summary. Hence, our text states: "The Lord God had planted a paradise of pleasure from the beginning" (Gen. 2:8).

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 102, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 102, Art. 2]

Whether Paradise Was a Place Adapted to Be the Abode of Man?

Whether Paradise Was a Place Designed to Be the Home of Humans?

Objection 1: It would seem that paradise was not a place adapted to be the abode of man. For man and angels are similarly ordered to beatitude. But the angels from the very beginning of their existence were made to dwell in the abode of the blessed—that is, the empyrean heaven. Therefore the place of man's habitation should have been there also.

Objection 1: It seems that paradise was not meant to be a place for humans. Both humans and angels are aimed at achieving happiness. However, angels were created right from the start to live in the blessed realm—that is, the highest heaven. So, humanity's home should have been there as well.

Obj. 2: Further, if some definite place were required for man's abode, this would be required on the part either of the soul or of the body. If on the part of the soul, the place would be in heaven, which is adapted to the nature of the soul; since the desire of heaven is implanted in all. On the part of the body, there was no need for any other place than the one provided for other animals. Therefore paradise was not at all adapted to be the abode of man.

Obj. 2: Moreover, if a specific place were necessary for humans to live, it would have to be required for either the soul or the body. If it were for the soul, that place would be in heaven, which suits the nature of the soul since everyone has a desire for heaven. For the body, there’s no need for any place other than what is provided for other animals. Therefore, paradise was not suited to be the home of humans.

Obj. 3: Further, a place which contains nothing is useless. But after sin, paradise was not occupied by man. Therefore if it were adapted as a dwelling-place for man, it seems that God made paradise to no purpose.

Obj. 3: Moreover, a place that holds nothing is pointless. But after sin, paradise was uninhabited by humans. Therefore, if it were meant to be a home for people, it seems that God created paradise for no reason.

Obj. 4: Further, since man is of an even temperament, a fitting place for him should be of even temperature. But paradise was not of an even temperature; for it is said to have been on the equator—a situation of extreme heat, since twice in the year the sun passes vertically over the heads of its inhabitants. Therefore paradise was not a fit dwelling-place for man.

Obj. 4: Additionally, since humans have a balanced nature, their ideal environment should be consistently temperate. However, paradise wasn't consistently temperate; it's described as being on the equator—an area of intense heat, since the sun directly overhead passes over its inhabitants twice a year. So, paradise wasn't a suitable home for humans.

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 11): "Paradise was a divinely ordered region, and worthy of him who was made to God's image."

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 11): "Paradise was a divinely arranged place, fitting for someone created in God's image."

I answer that, As above stated (Q. 97, A. 1), Man was incorruptible and immortal, not because his body had a disposition to incorruptibility, but because in his soul there was a power preserving the body from corruption. Now the human body may be corrupted from within or from without. From within, the body is corrupted by the consumption of the humors, and by old age, as above explained (Q. 97, A. 4), and man was able to ward off such corruption by food. Among those things which corrupt the body from without, the chief seems to be an atmosphere of unequal temperature; and to such corruption a remedy is found in an atmosphere of equable nature. In paradise both conditions were found; because, as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 11): "Paradise was permeated with the all pervading brightness of a temperate, pure, and exquisite atmosphere, and decked with ever-flowering plants." Whence it is clear that paradise was most fit to be a dwelling-place for man, and in keeping with his original state of immortality.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (Q. 97, A. 1), humans were incorruptible and immortal, not because their bodies were naturally incorruptible, but because their souls contained a power that kept their bodies from decaying. The human body can be corrupted from inside or outside. Internally, the body suffers from the depletion of bodily fluids and old age, as discussed (Q. 97, A. 4), and humans could prevent such decay through diet. Externally, the main factor that corrupts the body seems to be an unstable climate; a stable environment acts as a remedy for such corruption. In paradise, both ideal conditions were present because, as Damascene states (De Fide Orth. ii, 11): "Paradise was filled with the universal brightness of a moderate, pure, and beautiful atmosphere, and adorned with ever-blooming plants." Therefore, it is clear that paradise was perfectly suited to be a home for humans, aligning with their original state of immortality.

Reply Obj. 1: The empyrean heaven is the highest of corporeal places, and is outside the region of change. By the first of these two conditions, it is a fitting abode for the angelic nature: for, as Augustine says (De Trin. ii), "God rules corporeal creatures through spiritual creatures." Hence it is fitting that the spiritual nature should be established above the entire corporeal nature, as presiding over it. By the second condition, it is a fitting abode for the state of beatitude, which is endowed with the highest degree of stability. Thus the abode of beatitude was suited to the very nature of the angel; therefore he was created there. But it is not suited to man's nature, since man is not set as a ruler over the entire corporeal creation: it is a fitting abode for man in regard only to his beatitude. Wherefore he was not placed from the beginning in the empyrean heaven, but was destined to be transferred thither in the state of his final beatitude.

Reply Obj. 1: The empyrean heaven is the highest physical place and is outside the realm of change. Because of this first condition, it is a suitable home for angelic nature: as Augustine states (De Trin. ii), "God governs physical creatures through spiritual beings." Therefore, it makes sense for the spiritual nature to be placed above all physical nature, as it oversees it. Due to the second condition, it is also a suitable place for the state of beatitude, which is characterized by the highest level of stability. Thus, the residence of beatitude aligns with the very nature of the angel; hence he was created there. However, it does not fit with human nature, since humans are not meant to rule over all physical creation: it is a suitable home for humans only in relation to their beatitude. Consequently, he was not positioned from the beginning in the empyrean heaven, but was meant to be brought there in the state of his ultimate beatitude.

Reply Obj. 2: It is ridiculous to assert that any particular place is natural to the soul or to any spiritual substances, though some particular place may have a certain fitness in regard to spiritual substances. For the earthly paradise was a place adapted to man, as regards both his body and his soul—that is, inasmuch as in his soul was the force which preserved the human body from corruption. This could not be said of the other animals. Therefore, as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 11): "No irrational animal inhabited paradise"; although, by a certain dispensation, the animals were brought thither by God to Adam; and the serpent was able to trespass therein by the complicity of the devil.

Reply Obj. 2: It's absurd to claim that any specific place is natural to the soul or to any spiritual beings, although some places might be better suited for spiritual beings. For example, the earthly paradise was a location that suited humans in both body and soul—specifically because the soul contained the force that kept the human body from decaying. This couldn't be said for other animals. As Damascene states (De Fide Orth. ii, 11): "No irrational animal inhabited paradise"; though, by a certain arrangement, God brought animals there for Adam, and the serpent was allowed to enter with the devil's help.

Reply Obj. 3: Paradise did not become useless through being unoccupied by man after sin, just as immortality was not conferred on man in vain, though he was to lose it. For thereby we learn God's kindness to man, and what man lost by sin. Moreover, some say that Enoch and Elias still dwell in that paradise.

Reply Obj. 3: Paradise did not lose its value by being empty of people after sin, just as immortality wasn’t given to humans for no reason, even though they were destined to lose it. This shows us God’s kindness towards humanity and what humanity lost through sin. Additionally, some people say that Enoch and Elias still live in that paradise.

Reply Obj. 4: Those who say that paradise was on the equinoctial line are of opinion that such a situation is most temperate, on account of the unvarying equality of day and night; that it is never too cold there, because the sun is never too far off; and never too hot, because, although the sun passes over the heads of the inhabitants, it does not remain long in that position. However, Aristotle distinctly says (Meteor. ii, 5) that such a region is uninhabitable on account of the heat. This seems to be more probable; because, even those regions where the sun does not pass vertically overhead, are extremely hot on account of the mere proximity of the sun. But whatever be the truth of the matter, we must hold that paradise was situated in a most temperate situation, whether on the equator or elsewhere. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Those who believe that paradise was located on the equator think that this position is the most temperate because of the consistent balance of day and night; it's never too cold there since the sun is always nearby, and it's never too hot because, although the sun is directly overhead for the inhabitants, it doesn’t stay in that position for long. However, Aristotle clearly states (Meteor. ii, 5) that such a region is uninhabitable due to the heat. This seems more likely, as even areas where the sun doesn’t pass directly overhead can be extremely hot simply because of their closeness to the sun. But regardless of the truth in this matter, we should believe that paradise was located in a very temperate area, whether on the equator or elsewhere.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 102, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 102, Art. 3]

Whether Man Was Placed in Paradise to Dress It and Keep It?

Whether Man Was Placed in Paradise to Tend to It and Look After It?

Objection 1: It would seem that man was not placed in paradise to dress and keep it. For what was brought on him as a punishment of sin would not have existed in paradise in the state of innocence. But the cultivation of the soil was a punishment of sin (Gen. 3:17). Therefore man was not placed in paradise to dress and keep it.

Objection 1: It seems that humans were not put in paradise to tend to it. What was imposed on them as a punishment for sin wouldn't have existed in paradise in a state of innocence. However, working the soil was a punishment for sin (Gen. 3:17). Therefore, humans were not placed in paradise to tend to it.

Obj. 2: Further, there is no need of a keeper when there is no fear of trespass with violence. But in paradise there was no fear of trespass with violence. Therefore there was no need for man to keep paradise.

Obj. 2: Also, there’s no need for a guardian when there’s no fear of violent intrusion. But in paradise, there was no fear of violent intrusion. Therefore, there was no need for man to guard paradise.

Obj. 3: Further, if man was placed in paradise to dress and keep it, man would apparently have been made for the sake of paradise, and not contrariwise; which seems to be false. Therefore man was not place in paradise to dress and keep it.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if humans were put in paradise to care for it, it would seem that they were created for the sake of paradise, not the other way around, which seems to be false. Therefore, humans were not placed in paradise to care for it.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2: 15): "The Lord God took man and placed in the paradise of pleasure, to dress and keep it."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2: 15): "The Lord God took man and put him in the Garden of Eden to work it and take care of it."

I answer that, As Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 10), these words in Genesis may be understood in two ways. First, in the sense that God placed man in paradise that He might Himself work in man and keep him, by sanctifying him (for if this work cease, man at once relapses into darkness, as the air grows dark when the light ceases to shine); and by keeping man from all corruption and evil. Secondly, that man might dress and keep paradise, which dressing would not have involved labor, as it did after sin; but would have been pleasant on account of man's practical knowledge of the powers of nature. Nor would man have kept paradise against a trespasser; but he would have striven to keep paradise for himself lest he should lose it by sin. All of which was for man's good; wherefore paradise was ordered to man's benefit, and not conversely.

I answer that, As Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. viii, 10), the words in Genesis can be understood in two ways. First, it means that God put man in paradise so that He could work within him and protect him by sanctifying him (because if this work stops, man immediately falls back into darkness, just like how the air becomes dark when the light stops shining); and by keeping man safe from all corruption and evil. Secondly, it suggests that man was meant to tend to and maintain paradise, which would have been enjoyable because of man's practical knowledge of the powers of nature, not involving labor as it did after sin. Man wouldn’t have had to guard paradise against intruders; instead, he would have worked to keep paradise for himself to avoid losing it through sin. All of this was for man's benefit; therefore, paradise was arranged for man's good, and not the other way around.

Whence the Replies to the Objections are made clear. _______________________

Whence the Responses to the Objections are clarified. _______________________

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 102, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 102, Art. 4]

Whether Man Was Created in Paradise?

Whether Man Was Created in Paradise?

Objection 1: It would seem that man was created in paradise. For the angel was created in his dwelling-place—namely, the empyrean heaven. But before sin paradise was a fitting abode for man. Therefore it seems that man was created in paradise.

Objection 1: It seems that humans were created in paradise. The angel was created in his home—specifically, the empyrean heaven. Before sin, paradise was a suitable place for humans. Therefore, it seems that humans were created in paradise.

Obj. 2: Further, other animals remain in the place where they are produced, as the fish in the water, and walking animals on the earth from which they were made. Now man would have remained in paradise after he was created (Q. 97, A. 4). Therefore he was created in paradise.

Obj. 2: Additionally, other animals stay in the environment where they were created, like fish in water and land animals on the ground they came from. Now, humans would have remained in paradise after their creation (Q. 97, A. 4). So, they were created in paradise.

Obj. 3: Further, woman was made in paradise. But man is greater than woman. Therefore much more should man have been made in paradise.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, woman was created in paradise. However, man is greater than woman. Therefore, it would make more sense for man to have been created in paradise.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:15): "God took man and placed him in paradise."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:15): "God took man and put him in paradise."

I answer that, Paradise was a fitting abode for man as regards the incorruptibility of the primitive state. Now this incorruptibility was man's, not by nature, but by a supernatural gift of God. Therefore that this might be attributed to God, and not to human nature, God made man outside of paradise, and afterwards placed him there to live there during the whole of his animal life; and, having attained to the spiritual life, to be transferred thence to heaven.

I answer that, Paradise was a suitable home for humans because of the perfect state they originally had. This perfection wasn't part of human nature but was a special gift from God. To ensure that this was credited to God rather than to human nature, God created man outside of Paradise and then placed him there to live out his earthly life; after achieving spiritual life, he would then move on to heaven.

Reply Obj. 1: The empyrean heaven was a fitting abode for the angels as regards their nature, and therefore they were created there.

Reply Obj. 1: The highest heaven was a suitable home for the angels based on their nature, which is why they were created there.

In the same way I reply to the second objection, for those places befit those animals in their nature.

In the same way, I respond to the second objection: those places are suitable for those animals by nature.

Reply Obj. 3: Woman was made in paradise, not by reason of her own dignity, but on account of the dignity of the principle from which her body was formed. For the same reason the children would have been born in paradise, where their parents were already. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Woman was created in paradise, not because of her own worth, but due to the worth of the source from which her body was made. For the same reason, the children would have been born in paradise, where their parents already were.

TREATISE ON THE CONSERVATION AND GOVERNMENT OF CREATURES (QQ. 103-119) _______________________

TREATISE ON THE CONSERVATION AND GOVERNMENT OF CREATURES (QQ. 103-119) _______________________

QUESTION 103

OF THE GOVERNMENT OF THINGS IN GENERAL
(In Eight Articles)

OF THE GOVERNMENT OF THINGS IN GENERAL
(In Eight Articles)

Having considered the creation of things and their distinction, we now consider in the third place the government thereof, and (1) the government of things in general; (2) in particular, the effects of this government. Under the first head there are eight points of inquiry:

Having thought about how things are created and what makes them different, we now look at the management of these things. First, we’ll explore (1) the management of things overall; (2) specifically, the effects of this management. For the first part, there are eight areas of inquiry:

(1) Whether the world is governed by someone?

(1) Is the world governed by someone?

(2) What is the end of this government?

(2) What is the purpose of this government?

(3) Whether the world is governed by one?

(3) Is the world governed by one?

(4) Of the effects of this government?

(4) What are the effects of this government?

(5) Whether all things are subject to Divine government?

(5) Are all things under Divine control?

(6) Whether all things are immediately governed by God?

(6) Are all things directly controlled by God?

(7) Whether the Divine government is frustrated in anything?

(7) Is the Divine government ever hindered in anything?

(8) Whether anything is contrary to the Divine Providence? _______________________

(8) Is anything opposed to Divine Providence? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 1]

Whether the World Is Governed by Anyone?

Whether the World Is Governed by Anyone?

Objection 1: It would seem that the world is not governed by anyone. For it belongs to those things to be governed, which move or work for an end. But natural things which make up the greater part of the world do not move, or work for an end; for they have no knowledge of their end. Therefore the world is not governed.

Objection 1: It seems that the world isn't controlled by anyone. Things that are governed are those that move or work toward a purpose. However, most natural things in the world don't move or work toward an end because they have no awareness of their purpose. Therefore, the world isn't governed.

Obj. 2: Further, those things are governed which are moved towards an object. But the world does not appear to be so directed, but has stability in itself. Therefore it is not governed.

Obj. 2: Moreover, those things that are moved towards an object are governed. However, the world doesn’t seem to be directed in that way; instead, it has stability within itself. Therefore, it is not governed.

Obj. 3: Further, what is necessarily determined by its own nature to one particular thing, does not require any external principle of government. But the principal parts of the world are by a certain necessity determined to something particular in their actions and movements. Therefore the world does not require to be governed.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, something that is inherently determined by its own nature to be one specific thing does not need any external governing principle. However, the main components of the world are, out of necessity, determined to behave and move in particular ways. Therefore, the world does not need to be governed.

On the contrary, It is written (Wis. 14:3): "But Thou, O Father, governest all things by Thy Providence." And Boethius says (De Consol. iii): "Thou Who governest this universe by mandate eternal."

On the contrary, It is written (Wis. 14:3): "But You, O Father, govern everything by Your Providence." And Boethius says (De Consol. iii): "You Who govern this universe by eternal decree."

I answer that, Certain ancient philosophers denied the government of the world, saying that all things happened by chance. But such an opinion can be refuted as impossible in two ways. First, by observation of things themselves: for we observe that in nature things happen always or nearly always for the best; which would not be the case unless some sort of providence directed nature towards good as an end; which is to govern. Wherefore the unfailing order we observe in things is a sign of their being governed; for instance, if we enter a well-ordered house we gather therefrom the intention of him that put it in order, as Tullius says (De Nat. Deorum ii), quoting Aristotle [*Cleanthes]. Secondly, this is clear from a consideration of Divine goodness, which, as we have said above (Q. 44, A. 4; Q. 65, A. 2), was the cause of the production of things in existence. For as "it belongs to the best to produce the best," it is not fitting that the supreme goodness of God should produce things without giving them their perfection. Now a thing's ultimate perfection consists in the attainment of its end. Therefore it belongs to the Divine goodness, as it brought things into existence, so to lead them to their end: and this is to govern.

I respond that, Certain ancient philosophers argued against the idea of a governing force in the world, claiming that everything happens by chance. However, this view can be disproven in two ways. First, through observation of nature itself: we see that things in the natural world frequently occur for the best outcome; this would not happen unless some kind of providence was directing nature towards a good goal, which implies governance. Thus, the consistent order we notice in things indicates that they are being governed; for instance, if we enter a well-organized home, we can infer the intention of the person who arranged it, as Tullius mentions (De Nat. Deorum ii), quoting Aristotle [*Cleanthes]. Secondly, this is evident when we consider Divine goodness, which, as noted earlier (Q. 44, A. 4; Q. 65, A. 2), is the reason for the existence of things. Since "the best produce the best," it is not appropriate for the ultimate goodness of God to create things without endowing them with their perfection. A thing's highest perfection is achieved by reaching its purpose. Therefore, it is part of Divine goodness, having created things, to guide them toward their ultimate goal: and this is what governance means.

Reply Obj. 1: A thing moves or operates for an end in two ways. First, in moving itself to the end, as man and other rational creatures; and such things have knowledge of their end, and of the means to the end. Secondly, a thing is said to move or operate for an end, as though moved or directed by another thereto, as an arrow directed to the target by the archer, who knows the end unknown to the arrow. Wherefore, as the movement of the arrow towards a definite end shows clearly that it is directed by someone with knowledge, so the unvarying course of natural things which are without knowledge, shows clearly that the world is governed by some reason.

Reply Obj. 1: A thing moves or acts toward a goal in two ways. First, it moves itself toward the goal, like humans and other rational beings; these things have awareness of their goal and the means to achieve it. Second, a thing can be said to move or act toward a goal as if it is being moved or guided by another, like an arrow aimed at a target by an archer who understands the goal, which is unknown to the arrow. Therefore, just as the movement of an arrow toward a specific target clearly indicates it's being aimed by someone knowledgeable, the consistent behavior of natural things, which lack awareness, clearly shows that the world is governed by some reason.

Reply Obj. 2: In all created things there is a stable element, at least primary matter; and something belonging to movement, if under movement we include operation. And things need governing as to both: because even that which is stable, since it is created from nothing, would return to nothingness were it not sustained by a governing hand, as will be explained later (Q. 104, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 2: In all created things, there's a stable element, at least in terms of primary matter, and something related to movement, especially if we consider operation as part of movement. Things need to be governed in both aspects because even that which is stable, since it was created from nothing, would revert to nothingness if it weren't supported by a governing force, as will be explained later (Q. 104, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 3: The natural necessity inherent in those beings which are determined to a particular thing, is a kind of impression from God, directing them to their end; as the necessity whereby an arrow is moved so as to fly towards a certain point is an impression from the archer, and not from the arrow. But there is a difference, inasmuch as that which creatures receive from God is their nature, while that which natural things receive from man in addition to their nature is somewhat violent. Wherefore, as the violent necessity in the movement of the arrow shows the action of the archer, so the natural necessity of things shows the government of Divine Providence. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The natural necessity found in beings that are meant for a specific purpose is like an impression from God, guiding them to their goal; just as the necessity that makes an arrow fly toward a target comes from the archer, not the arrow itself. However, there's a distinction because what creatures receive from God is their true nature, while what natural things receive from humans, in addition to their nature, is somewhat forced. Therefore, just as the forced necessity in the arrow's movement reveals the archer's intent, the natural necessity in things reveals the governance of Divine Providence.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 2]

Whether the End of the Government of the World Is Something Outside the World?

Whether the end of the world is something outside of the world?

Objection 1: It would seem that the end of the government of the world is not something existing outside the world. For the end of the government of a thing is that whereto the thing governed is brought. But that whereto a thing is brought is some good in the thing itself; thus a sick man is brought back to health, which is something good in him. Therefore the end of government of things is some good not outside, but within the things themselves.

Objection 1: It seems that the purpose of governing the world isn’t something that exists outside of it. The purpose of governing something is where that thing is ultimately taken. But where a thing is taken is some kind of good that exists within the thing itself; for example, a sick person is brought back to health, which is a good state for them. Therefore, the purpose of governing things is some good that is found not outside, but within the things themselves.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher says (Ethic. i, 1): "Some ends are an operation; some are a work"—i.e. produced by an operation. But nothing can be produced by the whole universe outside itself; and operation exists in the agent. Therefore nothing extrinsic can be the end of the government of things.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the Philosopher states (Ethic. i, 1): "Some goals are actions; some are results"—meaning they are created by an action. However, nothing can be produced by the entire universe from outside itself; and action resides in the agent. Therefore, nothing external can be the purpose of governing things.

Obj. 3: Further, the good of the multitude seems to consist in order, and peace which is the "tranquillity of order," as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xix, 13). But the world is composed of a multitude of things. Therefore the end of the government of the world is the peaceful order in things themselves. Therefore the end of the government of the world is not an extrinsic good.

Obj. 3: Moreover, the welfare of the many appears to be based on order and peace, which is the "tranquility of order," as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xix, 13). The world consists of many elements. Thus, the goal of governing the world is the peaceful organization of these elements. Therefore, the goal of governing the world is not an outside benefit.

On the contrary, It is written (Prov. 16:4): "The Lord hath made all things for Himself." But God is outside the entire order of the universe. Therefore the end of all things is something extrinsic to them.

On the contrary, It is written (Prov. 16:4): "The Lord has made all things for Himself." But God is beyond the entire order of the universe. Therefore, the purpose of all things is something external to them.

I answer that, As the end of a thing corresponds to its beginning, it is not possible to be ignorant of the end of things if we know their beginning. Therefore, since the beginning of all things is something outside the universe, namely, God, it is clear from what has been expounded above (Q. 44, AA. 1, 2), that we must conclude that the end of all things is some extrinsic good. This can be proved by reason. For it is clear that good has the nature of an end; wherefore, a particular end of anything consists in some particular good; while the universal end of all things is the Universal Good; Which is good of Itself by virtue of Its Essence, Which is the very essence of goodness; whereas a particular good is good by participation. Now it is manifest that in the whole created universe there is not a good which is not such by participation. Wherefore that good which is the end of the whole universe must be a good outside the universe.

I answer that, Just as the end of something relates to its beginning, we cannot be unaware of the end of things if we understand their beginning. Therefore, since the origin of all things lies outside the universe, specifically in God, it is clear from what has been explained above (Q. 44, AA. 1, 2) that we must conclude the end of all things is a greater good beyond the universe. This can be demonstrated through reasoning. It is evident that good has the character of an end; thus, the specific end of anything is a particular good, while the ultimate end of everything is the Universal Good. This Universal Good is inherently good by its very essence, which embodies goodness itself, whereas specific goods are good through their participation in it. Now, it is apparent that within the entire created universe, there is no good that is not such by participation. Therefore, the good that represents the end of the whole universe must be a good that exists outside the universe.

Reply Obj. 1: We may acquire some good in many ways: first, as a form existing in us, such as health or knowledge; secondly, as something done by us, as a builder attains his end by building a house; thirdly, as something good possessed or acquired by us, as the buyer of a field attains his end when he enters into possession. Wherefore nothing prevents something outside the universe being the good to which it is directed.

Reply Obj. 1: We can achieve good in several ways: first, as a quality that exists within us, like health or knowledge; second, as something achieved through our actions, like a builder reaching his goal by constructing a house; and third, as a good that we own or acquire, like when a buyer of a field achieves his goal upon taking possession. Therefore, there’s nothing stopping something outside the universe from being the good we aim for.

Reply Obj. 2: The Philosopher is speaking of the ends of various arts; for the end of some arts consists in the operation itself, as the end of a harpist is to play the harp; whereas the end of other arts consists in something produced, as the end of a builder is not the act of building, but the house he builds. Now it may happen that something extrinsic is the end not only as made, but also as possessed or acquired or even as represented, as if we were to say that Hercules is the end of the statue made to represent him. Therefore we may say that some good outside the whole universe is the end of the government of the universe, as something possessed and represented; for each thing tends to a participation thereof, and to an assimilation thereto, as far as is possible.

Reply Obj. 2: The philosopher is talking about the goals of different arts; for some arts define their purpose through the action itself, like how a harpist's goal is to play the harp. In contrast, the goal of other arts is defined by what is created, such as how a builder's aim is not just to build, but to produce the house. It’s also possible for an external goal to be regarded as an end, not just in terms of what is made, but also in terms of what is owned or represented; like saying that Hercules is the end goal of the statue created to depict him. Therefore, we can argue that some good beyond the entire universe serves as the goal of the governance of the universe, as something that is possessed and represented; because everything strives for participation in that good and aims to become similar to it, as much as possible.

Reply Obj. 3: A good existing in the universe, namely, the order of the universe, is an end thereof; this, however, is not its ultimate end, but is ordered to the extrinsic good as to the end: thus the order in an army is ordered to the general, as stated in Metaph. xii, Did. xi, 10. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: A good that exists in the universe, specifically the order of the universe, serves as an end; however, this is not its ultimate end, but rather it is directed toward an external good as its final goal: in this way, the order within an army is directed toward the general, as mentioned in Metaph. xii, Did. xi, 10.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 3]

Whether the World Is Governed by One?

Whether the World Is Governed by One?

Objection 1: It would seem that the world is not governed by one. For we judge the cause by the effect. Now, we see in the government of the universe that things are not moved and do not operate uniformly, but some contingently and some of necessity in variously different ways. Therefore the world is not governed by one.

Objection 1: It seems that the world is not ruled by a single force. We assess the cause based on the effect. Now, in observing how the universe functions, we see that things do not move and operate consistently; some do so randomly, while others do so necessarily in different ways. Therefore, the world is not governed by one.

Obj. 2: Further, things which are governed by one do not act against each other, except by the incapacity or unskillfulness of the ruler; which cannot apply to God. But created things agree not together, and act against each other; as is evident in the case of contraries. Therefore the world is not governed by one.

Obj. 2: Moreover, things that are governed by one do not oppose each other, unless the ruler is unable or unskilled; this cannot be the case with God. However, created things do not harmonize and can act against each other, which is clear in the case of opposites. Therefore, the world is not governed by one.

Obj. 3: Further, in nature we always find what is the better. But it "is better that two should be together than one" (Eccles. 4:9). Therefore the world is not governed by one, but by many.

Obj. 3: Additionally, in nature, we always find what is better. But it "is better that two should be together than one" (Eccles. 4:9). Therefore, the world is not governed by one, but by many.

On the contrary, We confess our belief in one God and one Lord, according to the words of the Apostle (1 Cor. 8:6): "To us there is but one God, the Father . . . and one Lord": and both of these pertain to government. For to the Lord belongs dominion over subjects; and the name of God is taken from Providence as stated above (Q. 13, A. 8). Therefore the world is governed by one.

On the contrary, we acknowledge our faith in one God and one Lord, based on the words of the Apostle (1 Cor. 8:6): "For us, there is only one God, the Father . . . and one Lord": and both of these are related to authority. For dominion over subjects belongs to the Lord; and the name of God is derived from Providence as mentioned earlier (Q. 13, A. 8). Therefore, the world is governed by one.

I answer that, We must of necessity say that the world is governed by one. For since the end of the government of the world is that which is essentially good, which is the greatest good; the government of the world must be the best kind of government. Now the best government is the government by one. The reason of this is that government is nothing but the directing of the things governed to the end; which consists in some good. But unity belongs to the idea of goodness, as Boethius proves (De Consol. iii, 11) from this, that, as all things desire good, so do they desire unity; without which they would cease to exist. For a thing so far exists as it is one. Whence we observe that things resist division, as far as they can; and the dissolution of a thing arises from defect therein. Therefore the intention of a ruler over a multitude is unity, or peace. Now the proper cause of unity is one. For it is clear that several cannot be the cause of unity or concord, except so far as they are united. Furthermore, what is one in itself is a more apt and a better cause of unity than several things united. Therefore a multitude is better governed by one than by several. From this it follows that the government of the world, being the best form of government, must be by one. This is expressed by the Philosopher (Metaph. xii, Did. xi, 10): "Things refuse to be ill governed; and multiplicity of authorities is a bad thing, therefore there should be one ruler."

I answer that, We must say that the world is governed by one. Since the ultimate goal of governing the world is what is fundamentally good, which is the greatest good, the world’s governance must be the best kind of governance. The best government is one that has a single ruler. The reason for this is that government is simply directing the governed things towards a certain goal, which is based on some good. Unity is an essential part of goodness, as Boethius shows (De Consol. iii, 11) by stating that just as all things seek good, they also seek unity; without which, they would cease to exist. A thing exists to the extent that it is one. Thus, we see that things resist division as much as they can, and a thing dissolves when it lacks this unity. Therefore, the ruler’s intention over a group is unity or peace. The true source of unity is one. It’s clear that many cannot cause unity or harmony unless they are united. Moreover, that which is one in itself is a more fitting and better source of unity than several things that are united. Therefore, a group is better governed by one than by many. Consequently, since the best form of government is one, the governance of the world must be by one. This is articulated by the Philosopher (Metaph. xii, Did. xi, 10): "Things refuse to be poorly governed; and multiple authorities are a bad thing, so there should be one ruler."

Reply Obj. 1: Movement is "the act of a thing moved, caused by the mover." Wherefore dissimilarity of movements is caused by diversity of things moved, which diversity is essential to the perfection of the universe (Q. 47, AA. 1,2; Q. 48, A. 2), and not by a diversity of governors.

Reply Obj. 1: Movement is "the act of a thing being moved, caused by the mover." Therefore, differences in movements come from the variety of things being moved, which variety is essential to the perfection of the universe (Q. 47, AA. 1,2; Q. 48, A. 2), and not from a diversity of leaders.

Reply Obj. 2: Although contraries do not agree with each other in their proximate ends, nevertheless they agree in the ultimate end, so far as they are included in the one order of the universe.

Reply Obj. 2: Even though opposing things don't align in their immediate goals, they do share a common ultimate goal, since they're all part of the single order of the universe.

Reply Obj. 3: If we consider individual goods, then two are better than one. But if we consider the essential good, then no addition is possible. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: If we think about individual goods, then two are better than one. But if we think about the essential good, then no addition is possible.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 4]

Whether the Effect of Government Is One or Many?

Whether the Impact of Government Is Singular or Multiple?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is but one effect of the government of the world and not many. For the effect of government is that which is caused in the things governed. This is one, namely, the good which consists in order; as may be seen in the example of an army. Therefore the government of the world has but one effect.

Objection 1: It seems that there is only one result of the world's governance and not multiple ones. The result of governance is what happens to the things that are governed. This result is singular, specifically the good that comes from order; as can be seen in the example of an army. Therefore, the governance of the world has only one result.

Obj. 2: Further, from one there naturally proceeds but one. But the world is governed by one as we have proved (A. 3). Therefore also the effect of this government is but one.

Obj. 2: Additionally, from one there naturally comes only one. However, the world is governed by one as we have demonstrated (A. 3). Therefore, the outcome of this governance is also just one.

Obj. 3: Further, if the effect of government is not one by reason of the unity of the Governor, it must be many by reason of the many things governed. But these are too numerous to be counted. Therefore we cannot assign any definite number to the effects of government.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if the impact of government isn't a single effect due to the unity of the Governor, it must be multiple effects because of the many things being governed. However, these are too numerous to count. Therefore, we can't assign any specific number to the effects of government.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. xii): "God contains all and fills all by His providence and perfect goodness." But government belongs to providence. Therefore there are certain definite effects of the Divine government.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. xii): "God encompasses everything and fills everything with His care and perfect goodness." But governance is part of this care. Therefore, there are specific outcomes of Divine governance.

I answer that, The effect of any action may be judged from its end; because it is by action that the attainment of the end is effected. Now the end of the government of the world is the essential good, to the participation and similarity of which all things tend. Consequently the effect of the government of the world may be taken in three ways. First, on the part of the end itself; and in this way there is but one effect, that is, assimilation to the supreme good. Secondly, the effect of the government of the world may be considered on the part of those things by means of which the creature is made like to God. Thus there are, in general, two effects of the government. For the creature is assimilated to God in two things; first, with regard to this, that God is good; and so the creature becomes like Him by being good; and secondly, with regard to this, that God is the cause of goodness in others; and so the creature becomes like God by moving others to be good. Wherefore there are two effects of government, the preservation of things in their goodness, and the moving of things to good. Thirdly, we may consider in the individual the effects of the government of the world; and in this way they are without number.

I respond that, The impact of any action can be assessed based on its outcome; because it is through actions that one achieves the desired outcome. The ultimate goal of governing the world is the essential good, which all things aim to participate in and resemble. Therefore, the effect of world governance can be understood in three ways. First, from the perspective of the end itself; in this regard, there is only one effect, which is alignment with the supreme good. Second, the effect of world governance can be viewed through the means by which a creature is made similar to God. In general, this results in two effects of governance. A creature is made like God in two respects; first, concerning the fact that God is good, and thus the creature becomes like Him by embodying goodness; and secondly, regarding the fact that God is the source of goodness in others, and therefore the creature resembles God by inspiring others to be good. Hence, there are two effects of governance: preserving things in their goodness and encouraging things to strive for goodness. Third, we can examine the effects of world governance on individuals, which are countless.

Reply Obj. 1: The order of the universe includes both the preservation of things created by God and their movement. As regards these two things we find order among them, inasmuch as one is better than another; and one is moved by another.

Reply Obj. 1: The order of the universe consists of both the preservation of things created by God and their movement. In relation to these two aspects, we see order among them, as some are better than others; and one is influenced by another.

From what has been said above, we can gather the replies to the other two objections. _______________________

From what we've discussed, we can summarize the responses to the other two objections. _______________________

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 5]

Whether All Things Are Subject to the Divine Government?

Whether Everything Is Under Divine Control?

Objection 1: It would seem that not all things are subject to the Divine government. For it is written (Eccles. 9:11): "I saw that under the sun the race is not to the swift, nor the battle to the strong, nor bread to the wise, nor riches to the learned, nor favor to the skillful, but time and chance in all." But things subject to the Divine government are not ruled by chance. Therefore those things which are under the sun are not subject to the Divine government.

Objection 1: It seems that not everything is under Divine control. For it is written (Eccles. 9:11): "I observed that in this life, the race isn’t always won by the fastest, the battle isn’t always won by the strongest, bread isn’t always earned by the wise, wealth isn’t always gained by the learned, and favor isn’t always granted to the skilled, but rather, it’s all about timing and luck." But things that are under Divine control aren’t affected by chance. Therefore, the things happening in this life are not under Divine control.

Obj. 2: Further, the Apostle says (1 Cor. 9:9): "God hath no care for oxen." But he that governs has care for the things he governs. Therefore all things are not subject to the Divine government.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Apostle says (1 Cor. 9:9): "God does not care about oxen." But someone who rules does care about what they govern. Therefore, not everything is under Divine authority.

Obj. 3: Further, what can govern itself needs not to be governed by another. But the rational creature can govern itself; since it is master of its own act, and acts of itself; and is not made to act by another, which seems proper to things which are governed. Therefore all things are not subject to the Divine government.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, something that can govern itself doesn't need to be governed by someone else. However, a rational being can govern itself; it has control over its own actions and acts independently, not being forced to act by another, which is typically true for things that are governed. Therefore, not everything is subject to Divine governance.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei v, 11): "Not only heaven and earth, not only man and angel, even the bowels of the lowest animal, even the wing of the bird, the flower of the plant, the leaf of the tree, hath God endowed with every fitting detail of their nature." Therefore all things are subject to His government.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei v, 11): "Not just heaven and earth, not just humans and angels, but even the insides of the lowest animal, even the wing of the bird, the flower of the plant, the leaf of the tree, God has given every suitable detail of their nature." Therefore, everything is under His control.

I answer that, For the same reason is God the ruler of things as He is their cause, because the same gives existence as gives perfection; and this belongs to government. Now God is the cause not indeed only of some particular kind of being, but of the whole universal being, as proved above (Q. 44, AA. 1, 2). Wherefore, as there can be nothing which is not created by God, so there can be nothing which is not subject to His government. This can also be proved from the nature of the end of government. For a man's government extends over all those things which come under the end of his government. Now the end of the Divine government is the Divine goodness; as we have shown (A. 2). Wherefore, as there can be nothing that is not ordered to the Divine goodness as its end, as is clear from what we have said above (Q. 44, A. 4; Q. 65, A. 2), so it is impossible for anything to escape from the Divine government.

I respond that, Just as God is the ruler of all things because He is their cause, the same principle applies: what gives existence also provides perfection, which is essential to governance. God is the cause not just of a specific type of being, but of all existence, as demonstrated earlier (Q. 44, AA. 1, 2). Therefore, since nothing exists that was not created by God, it follows that nothing is outside of His governance. This can also be demonstrated by examining the purpose of governance. A person's governance covers all things that fall under the aim of that governance. The ultimate goal of Divine governance is Divine goodness, as we have established (A. 2). Consequently, since nothing is not directed toward Divine goodness as its aim, as clarified in our previous points (Q. 44, A. 4; Q. 65, A. 2), it is impossible for anything to be beyond Divine governance.

Foolish therefore was the opinion of those who said that the corruptible lower world, or individual things, or that even human affairs, were not subject to the Divine government. These are represented as saying, "God hath abandoned the earth" (Ezech. 9:9).

Foolish, therefore, was the belief of those who claimed that the corruptible lower world, individual things, or even human affairs were not under divine control. They are depicted as saying, "God has abandoned the earth" (Ezech. 9:9).

Reply Obj. 1: These things are said to be under the sun which are generated and corrupted according to the sun's movement. In all such things we find chance: not that everything is casual which occurs in such things; but that in each one there is an element of chance. And the very fact that an element of chance is found in those things proves that they are subject to government of some kind. For unless corruptible things were governed by a higher being, they would tend to nothing definite, especially those which possess no kind of knowledge. So nothing would happen unintentionally; which constitutes the nature of chance. Wherefore to show how things happen by chance and yet according to the ordering of a higher cause, he does not say absolutely that he observes chance in all things, but "time and chance," that is to say, that defects may be found in these things according to some order of time.

Reply Obj. 1: Things that are described as being under the sun are those that are created and destroyed according to the sun's movement. In all these things, we see an element of chance: not that everything that happens is random, but each has a degree of unpredictability. The presence of this chance indicates that these things are influenced by some form of governance. If corruptible things weren’t guided by a higher power, they would lack direction, especially those that have no awareness. Thus, nothing would unfold by accident, which is the essence of chance. Therefore, to illustrate how events occur by chance yet still align with the direction of a higher cause, he doesn't claim that chance exists in everything but refers to "time and chance," meaning that flaws can appear in these things according to a certain order of time.

Reply Obj. 2: Government implies a certain change effected by the governor in the things governed. Now every movement is the act of a movable thing, caused by the moving principle, as is laid down Phys. iii, 3. And every act is proportionate to that of which it is an act. Consequently, various movable things must be moved variously, even as regards movement by one and the same mover. Thus by the one art of the Divine governor, various things are variously governed according to their variety. Some, according to their nature, act of themselves, having dominion over their actions; and these are governed by God, not only in this, that they are moved by God Himself, Who works in them interiorly; but also in this, that they are induced by Him to do good and to fly from evil, by precepts and prohibitions, rewards and punishments. But irrational creatures which do not act but are acted upon, are not thus governed by God. Hence, when the Apostle says that "God hath no care for oxen," he does not wholly withdraw them from the Divine government, but only as regards the way in which rational creatures are governed.

Reply Obj. 2: Government involves a specific change brought about by the governor in the things being governed. Every movement is the result of a movable thing, which is caused by a moving principle, as stated in Phys. iii, 3. Each action corresponds to that of which it is an action. Therefore, different movable things must be moved in different ways, even when moved by the same mover. Thus, through the single art of the Divine governor, various things are governed in different ways according to their nature. Some things, by their very nature, act on their own, having control over their actions; these are governed by God not only because they are moved by Him, who works in them from within, but also because He encourages them to do good and avoid evil through guidelines and restrictions, as well as rewards and punishments. However, irrational creatures that do not act but are acted upon are not governed in the same way by God. Therefore, when the Apostle says that "God hath no care for oxen," he doesn't completely exclude them from Divine governance, but only in the way rational creatures are governed.

Reply Obj. 3: The rational creature governs itself by its intellect and will, both of which require to be governed and perfected by the Divine intellect and will. Therefore above the government whereby the rational creature governs itself as master of its own act, it requires to be governed by God. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: A rational being manages itself through its intellect and will, both of which need to be guided and refined by the Divine intellect and will. Therefore, in addition to the way a rational being controls itself as the master of its own actions, it also needs to be governed by God.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 6]

Whether all things are immediately governed by God?

Are all things directly governed by God?

Objection 1: It would seem that all things are governed by God immediately. For Gregory of Nyssa (Nemesius, De Nat. Hom.) reproves the opinion of Plato who divides providence into three parts. The first he ascribes to the supreme god, who watches over heavenly things and all universals; the second providence he attributes to the secondary deities, who go the round of the heavens to watch over generation and corruption; while he ascribes a third providence to certain spirits who are guardians on earth of human actions. Therefore it seems that all things are immediately governed by God.

Objection 1: It seems that everything is directly controlled by God. Gregory of Nyssa (Nemesius, De Nat. Hom.) criticizes Plato's view, which divides providence into three sections. The first part he assigns to the supreme God, who oversees heavenly matters and all universals; the second part he attributes to secondary deities, who巡 the heavens to monitor creation and destruction; while the third part is assigned to certain spirits that act as guardians of human actions on earth. Therefore, it appears that everything is directly governed by God.

Obj. 2: Further, it is better that a thing be done by one, if
possible, than by many, as the Philosopher says (Phys. viii, 6). But
God can by Himself govern all things without any intermediary cause.
Therefore it seems that He governs all things immediately.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, it's preferable for one person to do something, if
possible, rather than many people, as the Philosopher states (Phys. viii, 6). However,
God can manage everything on His own without needing any intermediary.
Thus, it appears that He governs everything directly.

Obj. 3: Further, in God nothing is defective or imperfect. But it seems to be imperfect in a ruler to govern by means of others; thus an earthly king, by reason of his not being able to do everything himself, and because he cannot be everywhere at the same time, requires to govern by means of ministers. Therefore God governs all things immediately.

Obj. 3: Additionally, there is nothing lacking or incomplete in God. However, it seems imperfect for a ruler to rely on others for governance; an earthly king, due to his inability to do everything himself and his limitation of not being present everywhere at once, needs to govern through ministers. Therefore, God governs all things directly.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4): "As the lower and grosser bodies are ruled in a certain orderly way by bodies of greater subtlety and power; so all bodies are ruled by the rational spirit of life; and the sinful and unfaithful spirit is ruled by the good and just spirit of life; and this spirit by God Himself."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4): "Just as the heavier and coarser bodies are governed in a certain orderly manner by bodies that are more refined and powerful; in the same way, all bodies are governed by the rational spirit of life; and the sinful and unfaithful spirit is governed by the good and just spirit of life; and this spirit is governed by God Himself."

I answer that, In government there are two things to be considered; the design of government, which is providence itself; and the execution of the design. As to the design of government, God governs all things immediately; whereas in its execution, He governs some things by means of others.

I respond that, In governance there are two things to consider: the plan of government, which is providence itself; and the implementation of that plan. Regarding the plan of government, God directly governs everything; while in its implementation, He governs some things through others.

The reason of this is that as God is the very essence of goodness, so everything must be attributed to God in its highest degree of goodness. Now the highest degree of goodness in any practical order, design or knowledge (and such is the design of government) consists in knowing the individuals acted upon; as the best physician is not the one who can only give his attention to general principles, but who can consider the least details; and so on in other things. Therefore we must say that God has the design of the government of all things, even of the very least.

The reason for this is that since God represents the essence of goodness, everything should be seen as coming from God in its ultimate form of goodness. The highest level of goodness in any practical matter, design, or knowledge (which includes the purpose of government) lies in understanding the individuals being affected. Just as the best doctor isn’t just the one who focuses on general principles but also considers the smallest details; this applies to other areas too. Therefore, we must conclude that God has the purpose of governing everything, even the smallest things.

But since things which are governed should be brought to perfection by government, this government will be so much the better in the degree the things governed are brought to perfection. Now it is a greater perfection for a thing to be good in itself and also the cause of goodness in others, than only to be good in itself. Therefore God so governs things that He makes some of them to be causes of others in government; as a master, who not only imparts knowledge to his pupils, but gives also the faculty of teaching others.

But since things that are managed should be improved by management, the effectiveness of this management will increase as the managed things are perfected. It is a greater achievement for something to be good on its own and also to inspire goodness in others than just to be good by itself. Therefore, God manages things in a way that makes some of them sources of goodness for others in their management; similar to a teacher, who not only shares knowledge with their students but also enables them to teach others.

Reply Obj. 1: Plato's opinion is to be rejected, because he held that God did not govern all things immediately, even in the design of government; this is clear from the fact that he divided providence, which is the design of government, into three parts.

Reply Obj. 1: Plato's view should be dismissed because he believed that God did not directly oversee everything, even in terms of governance; this is evident from his division of providence, which is the plan for governance, into three parts.

Reply Obj. 2: If God governed alone, things would be deprived of the perfection of causality. Wherefore all that is effected by many would not be accomplished by one.

Reply Obj. 2: If God governed on His own, things would miss out on the full potential of causality. Therefore, everything accomplished by many could not be done by just one.

Reply Obj. 3: That an earthly king should have ministers to execute his laws is a sign not only of his being imperfect, but also of his dignity; because by the ordering of ministers the kingly power is brought into greater evidence. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The fact that a king on earth needs ministers to enforce his laws shows not just that he is imperfect, but also that he has dignity; by organizing ministers, the power of the king is made more apparent.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 7]

Whether Anything Can Happen Outside the Order of the Divine
Government?

Whether Anything Can Happen Outside the Order of the Divine
Government?

Objection 1: It would seem possible that something may occur outside the order of the Divine government. For Boethius says (De Consol. iii) that "God disposes all for good." Therefore, if nothing happens outside the order of the Divine government, it would follow that no evil exists.

Objection 1: It might seem possible for something to happen outside the order of Divine government. Boethius says (De Consol. iii) that "God arranges everything for good." Therefore, if nothing happens outside the order of Divine government, it would mean that no evil exists.

Obj. 2: Further, nothing that is in accordance with the pre-ordination of a ruler occurs by chance. Therefore, if nothing occurs outside the order of the Divine government, it follows that there is nothing fortuitous and casual.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, nothing that aligns with the plan of a ruler happens by chance. Therefore, if nothing happens outside the order of Divine governance, it follows that there is nothing random or accidental.

Obj. 3: Further, the order of Divine Providence is certain and unchangeable; because it is in accordance with the eternal design. Therefore, if nothing happens outside the order of the Divine government, it follows that all things happen by necessity, and nothing is contingent; which is false. Therefore it is possible for something to occur outside the order of the Divine government.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the order of Divine Providence is definite and unchanging; it aligns with the eternal plan. Thus, if nothing occurs outside the scope of Divine governance, it follows that everything happens out of necessity, and nothing is accidental; which is not true. Therefore, it is possible for something to happen outside the scope of Divine governance.

On the contrary, It is written (Esther 13:9): "O Lord, Lord, almighty King, all things are in Thy power, and there is none that can resist Thy will."

On the contrary, It is written (Esther 13:9): "O Lord, Lord, almighty King, everything is in Your power, and no one can resist Your will."

I answer that, It is possible for an effect to result outside the order of some particular cause; but not outside the order of the universal cause. The reason of this is that no effect results outside the order of a particular cause, except through some other impeding cause; which other cause must itself be reduced to the first universal cause; as indigestion may occur outside the order of the nutritive power by some such impediment as the coarseness of the food, which again is to be ascribed to some other cause, and so on till we come to the first universal cause. Therefore as God is the first universal cause, not of one genus only, but of all being in general, it is impossible for anything to occur outside the order of the Divine government; but from the very fact that from one point of view something seems to evade the order of Divine providence considered in regard to one particular cause, it must necessarily come back to that order as regards some other cause.

I respond that, it's possible for an effect to occur outside the order of a specific cause, but not outside the order of the universal cause. The reason is that no effect happens outside the order of a specific cause without an intervening cause; and that intervening cause must ultimately trace back to the first universal cause. For instance, indigestion can happen outside the natural order of digestion due to factors like the roughness of the food, which can again be attributed to another cause, and this continues until we reach the first universal cause. Therefore, since God is the first universal cause of all existence, it’s impossible for anything to occur outside the order of the Divine government. However, even if something seems to evade Divine providence from one perspective regarding a specific cause, it must still return to that order concerning another cause.

Reply Obj. 1: There is nothing wholly evil in the world, for evil is ever founded on good, as shown above (Q. 48, A. 3). Therefore something is said to be evil through its escaping from the order of some particular good. If it wholly escaped from the order of the Divine government, it would wholly cease to exist.

Reply Obj. 1: There's nothing that is completely evil in the world because evil is always based on good, as explained above (Q. 48, A. 3). Thus, something is considered evil when it deviates from a specific good. If it completely strayed from the order of Divine governance, it would completely cease to exist.

Reply Obj. 2: Things are said to be fortuitous as regards some particular cause from the order of which they escape. But as to the order of Divine providence, "nothing in the world happens by chance," as Augustine declares (QQ. 83, qu. 24).

Reply Obj. 2: Things are considered accidental when they occur as a result of a specific cause from which they deviate. However, concerning the order of divine providence, "nothing in the world happens by chance," as Augustine states (QQ. 83, qu. 24).

Reply Obj. 3: Certain effects are said to be contingent as compared to their proximate causes, which may fail in their effects; and not as though anything could happen entirely outside the order of Divine government. The very fact that something occurs outside the order of some proximate cause, is owing to some other cause, itself subject to the Divine government. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Certain effects are considered contingent in relation to their immediate causes, which might not always produce their intended results; however, this doesn’t mean that anything can happen outside the framework of Divine governance. The mere occurrence of something outside the influence of a specific immediate cause is due to another cause, which is also under Divine governance.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 103, Art. 8]

Whether anything can resist the order of the Divine government?

Whether anything can stand against the order of Divine governance?

Objection 1: It would seem possible that some resistance can be made to the order of the Divine government. For it is written (Isa. 3:8): "Their tongue and their devices are against the Lord."

Objection 1: It might seem that some opposition can be offered to the order of Divine governance. For it is written (Isa. 3:8): "Their speech and their plans are against the Lord."

Obj. 2: Further, a king does not justly punish those who do not rebel against his commands. Therefore if no one rebelled against God's commands, no one would be justly punished by God.

Obj. 2: Additionally, a king does not justly punish those who do not oppose his commands. So, if no one went against God's commands, no one would be justly punished by God.

Obj. 3: Further, everything is subject to the order of the Divine government. But some things oppose others. Therefore some things rebel against the order of the Divine government.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, everything is under the authority of Divine governance. However, some things conflict with others. Therefore, some things resist the order of Divine governance.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Consol. iii): "There is nothing that can desire or is able to resist this sovereign good. It is this sovereign good therefore that ruleth all mightily and ordereth all sweetly," as is said (Wis. 8) of Divine wisdom.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Consol. iii): "There is nothing that can desire or resist this supreme good. It is this supreme good that rules everything powerfully and organizes everything harmoniously," as is stated (Wis. 8) about Divine wisdom.

I answer that, We may consider the order of Divine providence in two ways: in general, inasmuch as it proceeds from the governing cause of all; and in particular, inasmuch as it proceeds from some particular cause which executes the order of the Divine government.

I answer that, We can look at the order of Divine providence in two ways: generally, as it comes from the ultimate governing cause of everything; and specifically, as it arises from a particular cause that carries out the order of Divine governance.

Considered in the first way, nothing can resist the order of the Divine government. This can be proved in two ways: firstly from the fact that the order of the Divine government is wholly directed to good, and everything by its own operation and effort tends to good only, "for no one acts intending evil," as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv): secondly from the fact that, as we have said above (A. 1, ad 3; A. 5, ad 2), every inclination of anything, whether natural or voluntary, is nothing but a kind of impression from the first mover; as the inclination of the arrow towards a fixed point is nothing but an impulse received from the archer. Wherefore every agent, whether natural or free, attains to its divinely appointed end, as though of its own accord. For this reason God is said "to order all things sweetly."

When viewed this way, nothing can oppose the order of Divine governance. This can be demonstrated in two ways: first, because the order of Divine governance is entirely aimed at good, and everything by its own actions and efforts strives towards good only, "for no one acts with the intention of doing evil," as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv); second, as we mentioned earlier (A. 1, ad 3; A. 5, ad 2), every inclination of anything, whether natural or voluntary, is merely an effect of the first mover; just like the inclination of an arrow towards a target is nothing but the force it receives from the archer. Therefore, every agent, whether natural or free, reaches its divinely destined purpose as if it were doing so on its own. For this reason, God is said "to order all things sweetly."

Reply Obj. 1: Some are said to think or speak, or act against God: not that they entirely resist the order of the Divine government; for even the sinner intends the attainment of a certain good: but because they resist some particular good, which belongs to their nature or state. Therefore they are justly punished by God.

Reply Obj. 1: Some people are said to think, speak, or act against God; not that they completely oppose the way Divine governance works; because even a sinner aims for a certain good. However, they resist a specific good that is inherent to their nature or situation. As a result, they are justly punished by God.

Reply Obj. 2 is clear from the above.

Reply Obj. 2 is clear from the information above.

Reply Obj. 3: From the fact that one thing opposes another, it follows that some one thing can resist the order of a particular cause; but not that order which depends on the universal cause of all things. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The fact that one thing opposes another indicates that one thing can resist the order of a specific cause; however, it does not mean that it can resist the order that depends on the universal cause of all things.

QUESTION 104

THE SPECIAL EFFECTS OF THE DIVINE GOVERNMENT
(In Four Articles)

THE SPECIAL EFFECTS OF THE DIVINE GOVERNMENT
(In Four Articles)

We next consider the effects of the Divine government in particular; concerning which four points of inquiry arise:

We will now look at the effects of divine governance specifically, which raises four key questions:

(1) Whether creatures need to be kept in existence by God?

(1) Do creatures need to be sustained in existence by God?

(2) Whether they are immediately preserved by God?

(2) Are they preserved by God right away?

(3) Whether God can reduce anything to nothingness?

(3) Can God really turn anything into nothing?

(4) Whether anything is reduced to nothingness? _______________________

(4) Is anything ever reduced to nothing? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 104, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 104, Art. 1]

Whether Creatures Need to Be Kept in Being by God?

Whether creatures need to be sustained in existence by God?

Objection 1: It would seem that creatures do not need to be kept in being by God. For what cannot not-be, does not need to be kept in being; just as that which cannot depart, does not need to be kept from departing. But some creatures by their very nature cannot not-be. Therefore not all creatures need to be kept in being by God. The middle proposition is proved thus. That which is included in the nature of a thing is necessarily in that thing, and its contrary cannot be in it; thus a multiple of two must necessarily be even, and cannot possibly be an odd number. Now form brings being with itself, because everything is actually in being, so far as it has form. But some creatures are subsistent forms, as we have said of the angels (Q. 50, AA. 2, 5): and thus to be is in them of themselves. The same reasoning applies to those creatures whose matter is in potentiality to one form only, as above explained of heavenly bodies (Q. 66, A. 2). Therefore such creatures as these have in their nature to be necessarily, and cannot not-be; for there can be no potentiality to not-being, either in the form which has being of itself, or in matter existing under a form which it cannot lose, since it is not in potentiality to any other form.

Objection 1: It seems that creatures don't need to be sustained in existence by God. For something that cannot not-exist doesn't need to be kept in existence; just like something that cannot leave doesn't need to be prevented from leaving. However, some creatures by their very nature cannot not-exist. Therefore, not all creatures need to be sustained in existence by God. The middle proposition is proven like this: What is inherent in the nature of a thing is necessarily part of that thing, and its opposite cannot be present in it; for instance, a multiple of two must necessarily be even and cannot be odd. Now, form brings existence with it because everything is in existence as long as it has form. Some creatures are independent forms, like we mentioned about angels (Q. 50, AA. 2, 5): therefore, existence is inherent in them. The same reasoning applies to creatures whose matter can only potentially assume one form, as previously explained regarding heavenly bodies (Q. 66, A. 2). Thus, such creatures necessarily exist by their nature and cannot not-exist; because there cannot be a potentiality for non-existence in either the form that has existence in itself or in matter that exists under a form it cannot lose, since it is not potentially able to assume any other form.

Obj. 2: Further, God is more powerful than any created agent. But a created agent, even after ceasing to act, can cause its effect to be preserved in being; thus the house continues to stand after the builder has ceased to build; and water remains hot for some time after the fire has ceased to heat. Much more, therefore, can God cause His creature to be kept in being, after He has ceased to create it.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, God is more powerful than any created being. However, a created being, even after it stops acting, can still cause its effect to persist; for example, a house remains standing even after the builder has stopped building, and water stays hot for a while after the fire has gone out. Therefore, it’s even more certain that God can keep His creation in existence after He has stopped creating it.

Obj. 3: Further, nothing violent can occur, except there be some active cause thereof. But tendency to not-being is unnatural and violent to any creature, since all creatures naturally desire to be. Therefore no creature can tend to not-being, except through some active cause of corruption. Now there are creatures of such a nature that nothing can cause them to corrupt; such are spiritual substances and heavenly bodies. Therefore such creatures cannot tend to not-being, even if God were to withdraw His action.

Obj. 3: Additionally, nothing violent can happen without some active cause behind it. However, the inclination toward non-existence is unnatural and violent for any creature, since all creatures inherently want to exist. Therefore, no creature can move toward non-existence unless there is some active cause of decay. There are beings whose nature is such that nothing can make them decay; these are spiritual beings and celestial bodies. Thus, these beings cannot move toward non-existence, even if God were to withdraw His influence.

Obj. 4: Further, if God keeps creatures in being, this is done by some action. Now every action of an agent, if that action be efficacious, produces something in the effect. Therefore the preserving power of God must produce something in the creature. But this is not so; because this action does not give being to the creature, since being is not given to that which already is: nor does it add anything new to the creature; because either God would not keep the creature in being continually, or He would be continually adding something new to the creature; either of which is unreasonable. Therefore creatures are not kept in being by God.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, if God maintains the existence of creatures, this is achieved through some action. Now, every action of an agent, if it is effective, produces something in its effect. Therefore, God's preserving power must create something in the creature. However, this is not the case; because this action does not give existence to the creature, as existence is not given to something that already exists; nor does it add anything new to the creature; because either God would not continuously keep the creature in existence, or He would be constantly adding something new to the creature; either of which is unreasonable. Therefore, creatures are not sustained in existence by God.

On the contrary, It is written (Heb. 1:3): "Upholding all things by the word of His power."

On the contrary, It is written (Heb. 1:3): "Sustaining everything by the word of His power."

I answer that, Both reason and faith bind us to say that creatures are kept in being by God. To make this clear, we must consider that a thing is preserved by another in two ways. First, indirectly, and accidentally; thus a person is said to preserve anything by removing the cause of its corruption, as a man may be said to preserve a child, whom he guards from falling into the fire. In this way God preserves some things, but not all, for there are some things of such a nature that nothing can corrupt them, so that it is not necessary to keep them from corruption. Secondly, a thing is said to preserve another per se and directly, namely, when what is preserved depends on the preserver in such a way that it cannot exist without it. In this manner all creatures need to be preserved by God. For the being of every creature depends on God, so that not for a moment could it subsist, but would fall into nothingness were it not kept in being by the operation of the Divine power, as Gregory says (Moral. xvi).

I respond that, both reason and faith compel us to affirm that creatures exist because of God. To clarify this, we must recognize that something is maintained by another in two ways. First, indirectly and accidentally; for instance, a person is said to preserve something by eliminating its potential for decay, just as a man may be said to protect a child by making sure they don't fall into the fire. In this way, God preserves some things, but not all, since some things are inherently incapable of corruption, and therefore don't need to be safeguarded from it. Secondly, something is said to preserve another per se and directly, meaning that the existence of the one being preserved relies on the preserver to such an extent that it cannot exist without it. In this sense, all creatures must be preserved by God. The existence of every creature relies on God, so that for even a moment, it could not continue to exist and would vanish into nothingness if it were not sustained by the operation of Divine power, as Gregory states (Moral. xvi).

This is made clear as follows: Every effect depends on its cause, so far as it is its cause. But we must observe that an agent may be the cause of the becoming of its effect, but not directly of its being. This may be seen both in artificial and in natural beings: for the builder causes the house in its becoming, but he is not the direct cause of its being. For it is clear that the being of the house is a result of its form, which consists in the putting together and arrangement of the materials, and results from the natural qualities of certain things. Thus a cook dresses the food by applying the natural activity of fire; thus a builder constructs a house, by making use of cement, stones, and wood which are able to be put together in a certain order and to preserve it. Therefore the being of a house depends on the nature of these materials, just as its becoming depends on the action of the builder. The same principle applies to natural things. For if an agent is not the cause of a form as such, neither will it be directly the cause of being which results from that form; but it will be the cause of the effect, in its becoming only.

This is made clear as follows: Every effect depends on its cause, as far as it is its cause. But we need to note that an agent may cause the becoming of its effect, but not its being. This can be seen in both artificial and natural creations: the builder causes the house to come into being, but he is not the direct cause of its being. It's clear that the being of the house is a result of its form, which comes from the arrangement and organization of the materials and stems from the natural qualities of those materials. For example, a cook prepares food by using the natural action of fire; similarly, a builder constructs a house by using cement, stones, and wood that can be arranged in a specific order and kept together. Therefore, the being of a house depends on the nature of these materials, just as its becoming depends on the builder's actions. The same principle applies to natural things. If an agent is not the cause of a form as such, it won't be the direct cause of the being that comes from that form; rather, it will only be the cause of the effect in its becoming.

Now it is clear that of two things in the same species one cannot directly cause the other's form as such, since it would then be the cause of its own form, which is essentially the same as the form of the other; but it can be the cause of this form for as much as it is in matter—in other words, it may be the cause that "this matter" receives this form. And this is to be the cause of becoming, as when man begets man, and fire causes fire. Thus whenever a natural effect is such that it has an aptitude to receive from its active cause an impression specifically the same as in that active cause, then the becoming of the effect, but not its being, depends on the agent.

Now it's clear that among two things of the same kind, one can't directly create the other's form, because that would mean it is causing its own form, which is basically the same as the form of the other. However, it can cause this form regarding its matter—in other words, it can be the reason that "this matter" gets this form. This is what we mean by becoming, like when a man produces another man, or fire creates fire. So, anytime a natural effect has the ability to receive a specific impression from its active cause that's the same as that active cause, then the becoming of the effect, but not its being, depends on the agent.

Sometimes, however, the effect has not this aptitude to receive the impression of its cause, in the same way as it exists in the agent: as may be seen clearly in all agents which do not produce an effect of the same species as themselves: thus the heavenly bodies cause the generation of inferior bodies which differ from them in species. Such an agent can be the cause of a form as such, and not merely as existing in this matter, consequently it is not merely the cause of becoming but also the cause of being.

Sometimes, though, the effect doesn't have the same ability to take on the impression of its cause as it exists in the agent. This is clearly seen in agents that don't produce an effect of the same kind as themselves; for example, heavenly bodies cause the generation of lower bodies that are different from them in nature. Such an agent can be the cause of a form as a general concept, not just as it exists in a particular matter. Therefore, it is not only the cause of becoming but also the cause of being.

Therefore as the becoming of a thing cannot continue when that action of the agent ceases which causes the becoming of the effect: so neither can the being of a thing continue after that action of the agent has ceased, which is the cause of the effect not only in becoming but also in being. This is why hot water retains heat after the cessation of the fire's action; while, on the contrary, the air does not continue to be lit up, even for a moment, when the sun ceases to act upon it, because water is a matter susceptive of the fire's heat in the same way as it exists in the fire. Wherefore if it were to be reduced to the perfect form of fire, it would retain that form always; whereas if it has the form of fire imperfectly and inchoately, the heat will remain for a time only, by reason of the imperfect participation of the principle of heat. On the other hand, air is not of such a nature as to receive light in the same way as it exists in the sun, which is the principle of light. Therefore, since it has not root in the air, the light ceases with the action of the sun.

So, just as the process of something becoming cannot continue when the action of the agent that causes that becoming stops, the existence of a thing also cannot continue after the agent's action has ended, which causes both its becoming and its being. This is why hot water stays warm after the fire stops acting; on the other hand, air doesn’t stay lit at all when the sun stops shining on it, because water can hold onto the fire’s heat in the same way it exists in fire. If water were to be transformed into the perfect form of fire, it would keep that form indefinitely; however, if it only partially has the form of fire, the heat will last only for a while due to its partial connection to the principle of heat. In contrast, air isn’t capable of holding light in the same way it exists in the sun, which is the source of light. As a result, since it lacks that root in the air, the light disappears when the sun stops acting.

Now every creature may be compared to God, as the air is to the sun which enlightens it. For as the sun possesses light by its nature, and as the air is enlightened by sharing the sun's nature; so God alone is Being in virtue of His own Essence, since His Essence is His existence; whereas every creature has being by participation, so that its essence is not its existence. Therefore, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 12): "If the ruling power of God were withdrawn from His creatures, their nature would at once cease, and all nature would collapse." In the same work (Gen. ad lit. viii, 12) he says: "As the air becomes light by the presence of the sun, so is man enlightened by the presence of God, and in His absence returns at once to darkness."

Now every creature can be seen as a comparison to God, just like the air is to the sun that gives it light. The sun naturally has light, and the air becomes illuminated by sharing in the sun's light; similarly, God alone is Being because of His own Essence, since His Essence is His existence. In contrast, every creature exists by participation, meaning its essence is not the same as its existence. Therefore, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. iv, 12): "If God's ruling power were taken away from His creatures, their nature would instantly disappear, and all of nature would fall apart." In the same work (Gen. ad lit. viii, 12), he states, "Just as the air is lit by the presence of the sun, so is man enlightened by the presence of God, and without Him, he immediately falls back into darkness."

Reply Obj. 1: Being naturally results from the form of a creature, given the influence of the Divine action; just as light results from the diaphanous nature of the air, given the action of the sun. Wherefore the potentiality to not-being in spiritual creatures and heavenly bodies is rather something in God, Who can withdraw His influence, than in the form or matter of those creatures.

Reply Obj. 1: Being naturally comes from the form of a creature, thanks to the influence of divine action, just like light comes from the clear nature of air, due to the sun's action. Therefore, the potentiality for non-being in spiritual creatures and heavenly bodies actually lies with God, who can remove His influence, rather than being found in the form or matter of those creatures.

Reply Obj. 2: God cannot grant to a creature to be preserved in being after the cessation of the Divine influence: as neither can He make it not to have received its being from Himself. For the creature needs to be preserved by God in so far as the being of an effect depends on the cause of its being. So that there is no comparison with an agent that is not the cause of being but only of becoming.

Reply Obj. 2: God cannot allow a creature to continue existing after His influence has stopped, just as He cannot make it so that the creature didn’t get its existence from Him. The creature needs to be sustained by God because the existence of an effect relies on the cause of its existence. So, there's no comparison with an agent that is not the cause of being but only of becoming.

Reply Obj. 3: This argument holds in regard to that preservation which consists in the removal of corruption: but all creatures do not need to be preserved thus, as stated above.

Reply Obj. 3: This argument applies to preservation that involves preventing decay: however, not all creatures need to be preserved in this way, as mentioned earlier.

Reply Obj. 4: The preservation of things by God is a continuation of that action whereby He gives existence, which action is without either motion or time; so also the preservation of light in the air is by the continual influence of the sun. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: God's preservation of things is an ongoing act of giving them existence, an act that doesn't involve motion or time; similarly, the preservation of light in the air comes from the constant influence of the sun.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 104, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 104, Art. 2]

Whether God Preserves Every Creature Immediately?

Whether God Keeps Every Creature Safe Right Away?

Objection 1: It would seem that God preserves every creature immediately. For God creates and preserves things by the same action, as above stated (A. 1, ad 4). But God created all things immediately. Therefore He preserves all things immediately.

Objection 1: It seems that God directly preserves every creature. For God creates and preserves things through the same action, as mentioned earlier (A. 1, ad 4). But God created everything directly. Therefore, He preserves everything directly.

Obj. 2: Further, a thing is nearer to itself than to another. But it cannot be given to a creature to preserve itself; much less therefore can it be given to a creature to preserve another. Therefore God preserves all things without any intermediate cause preserving them.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, something is closer to itself than to anything else. However, a creature cannot be given the ability to preserve itself; even less can a creature be given the ability to preserve another. Therefore, God preserves everything without any intermediary cause doing so.

Obj. 3: Further, an effect is kept in being by the cause, not only of its becoming, but also of its being. But all created causes do not seem to cause their effects except in their becoming, for they cause only by moving, as above stated (Q. 45, A. 3). Therefore they do not cause so as to keep their effects in being.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, an effect is maintained by its cause, not only in its coming into existence, but also in its existence. However, it appears that all created causes do not seem to maintain their effects except in their coming into existence, as they only cause by moving, as mentioned earlier (Q. 45, A. 3). Therefore, they do not cause in a way that keeps their effects in existence.

On the contrary, A thing is kept in being by that which gives it being. But God gives being by means of certain intermediate causes. Therefore He also keeps things in being by means of certain causes.

On the contrary, Something exists because of what gives it existence. God gives existence through certain intermediate causes. Therefore, He also sustains things in existence through certain causes.

I answer that, As stated above (A. 1), a thing keeps another in being in two ways; first, indirectly and accidentally, by removing or hindering the action of a corrupting cause; secondly, directly and per se, by the fact that that on it depends the other's being, as the being of the effect depends on the cause. And in both ways a created thing keeps another in being. For it is clear that even in corporeal things there are many causes which hinder the action of corrupting agents, and for that reason are called preservatives; just as salt preserves meat from putrefaction; and in like manner with many other things. It happens also that an effect depends on a creature as to its being. For when we have a series of causes depending on one another, it necessarily follows that, while the effect depends first and principally on the first cause, it also depends in a secondary way on all the middle causes. Therefore the first cause is the principal cause of the preservation of the effect which is to be referred to the middle causes in a secondary way; and all the more so, as the middle cause is higher and nearer to the first cause.

I answer that, As mentioned above (A. 1), one thing can support another in existence in two ways: first, indirectly and accidentally, by removing or obstructing a corrupting force; second, directly and per se, because one’s existence relies on the other, just as an effect relies on its cause. In both instances, a created thing can sustain another's existence. It's evident that even in physical objects, there are numerous causes that prevent the actions of corrupting agents, and are therefore labeled as preservatives; for example, salt keeps meat from rotting, and there are many other similar instances. Additionally, an effect relies on a creature for its existence. In a sequence of causes that depend on each other, it's clear that while the effect primarily relies on the first cause, it also secondarily depends on all the intermediate causes. Thus, the first cause is the main cause for preserving the effect, while the intermediate causes contribute in a secondary manner, especially as those intermediate causes are closer and more aligned with the first cause.

For this reason, even in things corporeal, the preservation and continuation of things is ascribed to the higher causes: thus the Philosopher says (Metaph. xii, Did. xi, 6), that the first, namely the diurnal movement is the cause of the continuation of things generated; whereas the second movement, which is from the zodiac, is the cause of diversity owing to generation and corruption. In like manner astrologers ascribe to Saturn, the highest of the planets, those things which are permanent and fixed. So we conclude that God keeps certain things in being, by means of certain causes.

For this reason, even in physical matters, the preservation and continuation of things are attributed to higher causes. The Philosopher states (Metaph. xii, Did. xi, 6) that the first cause, which is the daily movement, is what allows generated things to continue; while the second movement, linked to the zodiac, is responsible for the variety that comes from generation and destruction. Similarly, astrologers associate Saturn, the highest of the planets, with things that are permanent and stable. Therefore, we conclude that God maintains certain things in existence through specific causes.

Reply Obj. 1: God created all things immediately, but in the creation itself He established an order among things, so that some depend on others, by which they are preserved in being, though He remains the principal cause of their preservation.

Reply Obj. 1: God created everything at once, but in the act of creation, He set up a hierarchy among things, so that some rely on others for their existence, even though He is the main reason for their continued existence.

Reply Obj. 2: Since an effect is preserved by its proper cause on which it depends; just as no effect can be its own cause, but can only produce another effect, so no effect can be endowed with the power of self-preservation, but only with the power of preserving another.

Reply Obj. 2: Since an effect is maintained by its specific cause that it relies on; just as no effect can be the cause of itself, but can only create another effect, no effect can have the ability to preserve itself, but only the ability to preserve something else.

Reply Obj. 3: No created nature can be the cause of another, as regards the latter acquiring a new form, or disposition, except by virtue of some change; for the created nature acts always on something presupposed. But after causing the form or disposition in the effect, without any fresh change in the effect, the cause preserves that form or disposition; as in the air, when it is lit up anew, we must allow some change to have taken place, while the preservation of the light is without any further change in the air due to the presence of the source of light. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: No created being can make another being acquire a new form or change, except through some kind of change; because a created being always acts on something that already exists. However, after bringing about the form or change in the result, without any new change in that result, the cause maintains that form or change; for example, when the air is lit up again, we must acknowledge that some change has occurred, while the light continues without any further change in the air caused by the presence of the light source.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 104, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 104, Art. 3]

Whether God Can Annihilate Anything?

Can God annihilate anything?

Objection 1: It would seem that God cannot annihilate anything. For Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 21) that "God is not the cause of anything tending to non-existence." But He would be such a cause if He were to annihilate anything. Therefore He cannot annihilate anything.

Objection 1: It seems that God cannot destroy anything. For Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 21) that "God is not the cause of anything that leads to non-existence." But He would be that cause if He were to destroy anything. Therefore, He cannot destroy anything.

Obj. 2: Further, by His goodness God is the cause why things exist, since, as Augustine says (De Doctr. Christ. i, 32): "Because God is good, we exist." But God cannot cease to be good. Therefore He cannot cause things to cease to exist; which would be the case were He to annihilate anything.

Obj. 2: Moreover, because of His goodness, God is the reason why things exist, since, as Augustine states (De Doctr. Christ. i, 32): "Because God is good, we exist." But God cannot stop being good. Therefore, He cannot cause things to stop existing; that would happen if He were to destroy anything.

Obj. 3: Further, if God were to annihilate anything it would be by His action. But this cannot be; because the term of every action is existence. Hence even the action of a corrupting cause has its term in something generated; for when one thing is generated another undergoes corruption. Therefore God cannot annihilate anything.

Obj. 3: Moreover, if God were to destroy anything, it would be through His action. But this isn't possible because the goal of every action is existence. Thus, even the action of a corrupting cause ends in something that is generated; when one thing comes into being, another experiences decay. Therefore, God cannot destroy anything.

On the contrary, It is written (Jer. 10:24): "Correct me, O Lord, but yet with judgment; and not in Thy fury, lest Thou bring me to nothing."

On the contrary, It is written (Jer. 10:24): "Discipline me, O Lord, but do it fairly; not in Your anger, or I’ll be wiped out."

I answer that, Some have held that God, in giving existence to creatures, acted from natural necessity. Were this true, God could not annihilate anything, since His nature cannot change. But, as we have said above (Q. 19, A. 4), such an opinion is entirely false, and absolutely contrary to the Catholic faith, which confesses that God created things of His own free-will, according to Ps. 134:6: "Whatsoever the Lord pleased, He hath done." Therefore that God gives existence to a creature depends on His will; nor does He preserve things in existence otherwise than by continually pouring out existence into them, as we have said. Therefore, just as before things existed, God was free not to give them existence, and not to make them; so after they are made, He is free not to continue their existence; and thus they would cease to exist; and this would be to annihilate them.

I answer that, Some people believe that God, when creating living beings, did so out of natural necessity. If this were true, God wouldn't be able to destroy anything, since His nature can't change. However, as we've mentioned before (Q. 19, A. 4), this belief is completely false and goes against the Catholic faith, which teaches that God created things freely, as stated in Ps. 134:6: "Whatever the Lord pleased, He has done." Therefore, God's decision to give existence to a creature is based on His will; and He doesn't keep things in existence by any means other than constantly giving them existence, as we've discussed. Just as before creation, God was free not to create anything, after they are created, He is free not to keep them existing; and thus they would stop existing, which would mean annihilating them.

Reply Obj. 1: Non-existence has no direct cause; for nothing is a cause except inasmuch as it has existence, and a being essentially as such is a cause of something existing. Therefore God cannot cause a thing to tend to non-existence, whereas a creature has this tendency of itself, since it is produced from nothing. But indirectly God can be the cause of things being reduced to non-existence, by withdrawing His action therefrom.

Reply Obj. 1: Non-existence doesn’t have a direct cause; since a thing can only be a cause if it exists, and a being by its nature is a cause of something existing. So, God cannot cause something to move toward non-existence, but a creature has that tendency on its own because it comes from nothing. However, God can indirectly cause things to become non-existent by stopping His action from being present.

Reply Obj. 2: God's goodness is the cause of things, not as though by natural necessity, because the Divine goodness does not depend on creatures; but by His free-will. Wherefore, as without prejudice to His goodness, He might not have produced things into existence, so, without prejudice to His goodness, He might not preserve things in existence.

Reply Obj. 2: God's goodness is the reason things exist, not out of natural necessity, because Divine goodness isn't dependent on creation; it comes from His free will. Therefore, just as He could have chosen not to create things without compromising His goodness, He can also choose not to sustain things in existence without affecting His goodness.

Reply Obj. 3: If God were to annihilate anything, this would not imply an action on God's part; but a mere cessation of His action. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: If God were to destroy anything, it wouldn’t mean He is doing something; it would just be a stopping of His action.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 104, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 104, Art. 4]

Whether Anything Is Annihilated?

Is anything actually annihilated?

Objection 1: It would seem that something is annihilated. For the end corresponds to the beginning. But in the beginning there was nothing but God. Therefore all things must tend to this end, that there shall be nothing but God. Therefore creatures will be reduced to nothing.

Objection 1: It seems that something is destroyed. The end corresponds to the beginning. But in the beginning, there was nothing except God. So, everything must ultimately lead to this end, where there will be nothing but God. Therefore, living beings will eventually become nothing.

Obj. 2: Further, every creature has a finite power. But no finite power extends to the infinite. Wherefore the Philosopher proves (Phys. viii, 10) that, "a finite power cannot move in infinite time." Therefore a creature cannot last for an infinite duration; and so at some time it will be reduced to nothing.

Obj. 2: Additionally, every creature has limited power. But no limited power can reach the infinite. This is why the Philosopher demonstrates (Phys. viii, 10) that, "a limited power cannot operate over infinite time." Therefore, a creature cannot exist indefinitely; eventually, it will cease to exist.

Obj. 3: Further, forms and accidents have no matter as part of themselves. But at some time they cease to exist. Therefore they are reduced to nothing.

Obj. 3: Additionally, forms and accidents do not have matter as part of themselves. However, at some point, they stop existing. Therefore, they are brought to nothing.

On the contrary, It is written (Eccles. 3:14): "I have learned that all the works that God hath made continue for ever."

On the contrary, It is written (Eccles. 3:14): "I have learned that all the works that God has made last forever."

I answer that, Some of those things which God does in creatures occur in accordance with the natural course of things; others happen miraculously, and not in accordance with the natural order, as will be explained (Q. 105, A. 6). Now whatever God wills to do according to the natural order of things may be observed from their nature; but those things which occur miraculously, are ordered for the manifestation of grace, according to the Apostle, "To each one is given the manifestation of the Spirit, unto profit" (1 Cor. 12:7); and subsequently he mentions, among others, the working of miracles.

I respond that, Some of the things God does in creation happen according to the natural order; others happen miraculously, not in line with nature, as will be explained (Q. 105, A. 6). Whatever God chooses to do according to the natural order can be understood from its nature; however, those things that occur miraculously are meant to showcase grace, as the Apostle says, "To each one is given the manifestation of the Spirit for the common good" (1 Cor. 12:7); and he goes on to mention, among other things, the performance of miracles.

Now the nature of creatures shows that none of them is annihilated. For, either they are immaterial, and therefore have no potentiality to non-existence; or they are material, and then they continue to exist, at least in matter, which is incorruptible, since it is the subject of generation and corruption. Moreover, the annihilation of things does not pertain to the manifestation of grace; since rather the power and goodness of God are manifested by the preservation of things in existence. Wherefore we must conclude by denying absolutely that anything at all will be annihilated.

Now the nature of creatures shows that none of them can be destroyed. Either they are immaterial, which means they can't possibly not exist, or they are material, in which case they continue to exist, at least in matter, which is indestructible because it is the basis of creation and destruction. Furthermore, the annihilation of things is not part of the expression of grace; rather, it is the power and goodness of God that are shown through the preservation of things in existence. Therefore, we must conclude by firmly denying that anything will ever be annihilated.

Reply Obj. 1: That things are brought into existence from a state of non-existence, clearly shows the power of Him Who made them; but that they should be reduced to nothing would hinder that manifestation, since the power of God is conspicuously shown in His preserving all things in existence, according to the Apostle: "Upholding all things by the word of His power" (Heb. 1:3).

Reply Obj. 1: The fact that things come into existence from nothing clearly demonstrates the power of the one who created them; however, if they were to be eliminated, it would obscure that demonstration. God's power is clearly shown in His ability to keep everything in existence, as the Apostle said: "Upholding all things by the word of His power" (Heb. 1:3).

Reply Obj. 2: A creature's potentiality to existence is merely receptive; the active power belongs to God Himself, from Whom existence is derived. Wherefore the infinite duration of things is a consequence of the infinity of the Divine power. To some things, however, is given a determinate power of duration for a certain time, so far as they may be hindered by some contrary agent from receiving the influx of existence which comes from Him Whom finite power cannot resist, for an infinite, but only for a fixed time. So things which have no contrary, although they have a finite power, continue to exist for ever.

Reply Obj. 2: A creature's ability to exist is simply passive; the active power to exist comes from God Himself, from whom existence is derived. Therefore, the endless duration of things is a result of God's infinite power. However, some things are given a specific power to last for a certain period, as they may be prevented by opposing forces from receiving the flow of existence that comes from Him, which no finite power can resist, but only for a limited time. Thus, things that lack opposition, even though they have finite power, continue to exist forever.

Reply Obj. 3: Forms and accidents are not complete beings, since they do not subsist: but each one of them is something "of a being"; for it is called a being, because something is by it. Yet so far as their mode of existence is concerned, they are not entirely reduced to nothingness; not that any part of them survives, but that they remain in the potentiality of the matter, or of the subject. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Forms and accidents are not complete beings since they don't exist on their own. However, each of them represents something "of a being"; they are referred to as beings because they enable something to exist. Still, in terms of how they exist, they haven't completely turned to nothing; it's not that any part of them continues to exist, but rather they exist in the potential of the matter or subject.

QUESTION 105

OF THE CHANGE OF CREATURES BY GOD
(In Eight Articles)

OF THE CHANGE OF CREATURES BY GOD
(In Eight Articles)

We now consider the second effect of the Divine government, i.e. the change of creatures; and first, the change of creatures by God; secondly, the change of one creature by another.

We now look at the second effect of divine governance, which is the change of creatures; first, the change of creatures by God; and second, the change of one creature by another.

Under the first head there are eight points of inquiry:

Under the first section, there are eight points of inquiry:

(1) Whether God can move immediately the matter to the form?

(1) Can God directly transform matter into form?

(2) Whether He can immediately move a body?

(2) Can He move a body instantly?

(3) Whether He can move the intellect?

(3) Can He influence the mind?

(4) Whether He can move the will?

(4) Can He influence the will?

(5) Whether God works in every worker?

(5) Does God work in every worker?

(6) Whether He can do anything outside the order imposed on things?

(6) Can He do anything outside the order that's been set for things?

(7) Whether all that God does is miraculous?

(7) Is everything that God does miraculous?

(8) Of the diversity of miracles. _______________________

(8) About the variety of miracles. _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 1]

Whether God Can Move the Matter Immediately to the Form?

Whether God Can Directly Move Matter to Take Shape?

Objection 1: It would seem that God cannot move the matter immediately to receive the form. For as the Philosopher proves (Metaph. vii, Did. vi, 8), nothing can bring a form into any particular matter, except that form which is in matter; because, like begets like. But God is not a form in matter. Therefore He cannot cause a form in matter.

Objection 1: It seems that God cannot directly move matter to receive a form. As the Philosopher demonstrates (Metaph. vii, Did. vi, 8), nothing can bring a form into any specific matter except for the form that already exists in that matter, because like produces like. But God is not a form in matter. Therefore, He cannot cause a form in matter.

Obj. 2: Further, any agent inclined to several effects will produce none of them, unless it is determined to a particular one by some other cause; for, as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 11), a general assertion does not move the mind, except by means of some particular apprehension. But the Divine power is the universal cause of all things. Therefore it cannot produce any particular form, except by means of a particular agent.

Obj. 2: Additionally, any agent that is inclined to produce multiple effects will not produce any of them unless it is directed toward a specific one by another cause; because, as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 11), a general statement does not engage the mind unless it is tied to a specific understanding. However, Divine power is the universal cause of all things. Therefore, it cannot create any particular form unless through a specific agent.

Obj. 3: As universal being depends on the first universal cause, so determinate being depends on determinate particular causes; as we have seen above (Q. 104, A. 2). But the determinate being of a particular thing is from its own form. Therefore the forms of things are produced by God, only by means of particular causes.

Obj. 3: Just as universal existence relies on the first universal cause, specific existence relies on specific particular causes; as we have observed above (Q. 104, A. 2). However, the specific existence of a particular thing comes from its own form. Therefore, the forms of things are created by God, but only through particular causes.

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:7): "God formed man of the slime of the earth."

On the contrary, It is written (Gen. 2:7): "God made man from the dust of the ground."

I answer that, God can move matter immediately to form; because whatever is in passive potentiality can be reduced to act by the active power which extends over that potentiality. Therefore, since the Divine power extends over matter, as produced by God, it can be reduced to act by the Divine power: and this is what is meant by matter being moved to a form; for a form is nothing else but the act of matter.

I respond that God can directly move matter to take form because anything that exists in potential can be activated by the active power that governs that potential. So, since Divine power encompasses matter, as created by God, it can be activated by Divine power: and this is what is meant by matter being moved to a form; for a form is simply the activation of matter.

Reply Obj. 1: An effect is assimilated to the active cause in two ways. First, according to the same species; as man is generated by man, and fire by fire. Secondly, by being virtually contained in the cause; as the form of the effect is virtually contained in its cause: thus animals produced by putrefaction, and plants, and minerals are like the sun and stars, by whose power they are produced. In this way the effect is like its active cause as regards all that over which the power of that cause extends. Now the power of God extends to both matter and form; as we have said above (Q. 14, A. 2; Q. 44, A. 2); wherefore if a composite thing be produced, it is likened to God by way of a virtual inclusion; or it is likened to the composite generator by a likeness of species. Therefore just as the composite generator can move matter to a form by generating a composite thing like itself; so also can God. But no other form not existing in matter can do this; because the power of no other separate substance extends over matter. Hence angels and demons operate on visible matter; not by imprinting forms in matter, but by making use of corporeal seeds.

Reply Obj. 1: An effect is similar to the active cause in two ways. First, in terms of the same kind; just as a human comes from a human, and fire comes from fire. Second, by being virtually contained in the cause; the essence of the effect is virtually included in its cause. For example, animals that come from decay, as well as plants and minerals, are like the sun and stars that have the power to create them. In this sense, the effect is similar to its active cause regarding everything that falls within the reach of that cause's power. God's power extends to both matter and form, as we mentioned earlier (Q. 14, A. 2; Q. 44, A. 2); thus, if a composite thing is created, it resembles God through a kind of virtual inclusion; or it resembles the composite generator by way of kind. Therefore, just as the composite generator can induce matter to take on a form by generating something like itself, so can God. However, no other form that doesn't exist in matter can do this because no other separate substance has power over matter. Consequently, angels and demons interact with visible matter not by imprinting forms on it but by using physical seeds.

Reply Obj. 2: This argument would hold if God were to act of natural necessity. But since He acts by His will and intellect, which knows the particular and not only the universal natures of all forms, it follows that He can determinately imprint this or that form on matter.

Reply Obj. 2: This argument would be valid if God acted out of natural necessity. However, since He acts according to His will and intellect, which understands the specific as well as the general natures of all forms, it follows that He can intentionally impose this or that form on matter.

Reply Obj. 3: The fact that secondary causes are ordered to determinate effects is due to God; wherefore since God ordains other causes to certain effects He can also produce certain effects by Himself without any other cause. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The reason secondary causes are arranged to achieve specific effects is because of God; therefore, since God determines other causes for certain effects, He can also bring about certain effects by Himself without any other cause.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 2]

Whether God Can Move a Body Immediately?

Whether God Can Move a Body Immediately?

Objection 1: It would seem that God cannot move a body immediately. For as the mover and the moved must exist simultaneously, as the Philosopher says (Phys. vii, 2), it follows that there must be some contact between the mover and moved. But there can be no contact between God and a body; for Dionysius says (Div. Nom. 1): "There is no contact with God." Therefore God cannot move a body immediately.

Objection 1: It seems that God cannot move a body directly. Since the mover and the moved must exist at the same time, as the Philosopher says (Phys. vii, 2), there needs to be some contact between the mover and the moved. However, there can be no contact between God and a body, because Dionysius states (Div. Nom. 1): "There is no contact with God." Therefore, God cannot move a body directly.

Obj. 2: Further, God is the mover unmoved. But such also is the desirable object when apprehended. Therefore God moves as the object of desire and apprehension. But He cannot be apprehended except by the intellect, which is neither a body nor a corporeal power. Therefore God cannot move a body immediately.

Obj. 2: Also, God is the unmoved mover. And the object we desire is similar when we understand it. So, God acts as the object of our desire and understanding. However, He can only be understood through the intellect, which isn’t a physical body or a physical force. Therefore, God cannot directly move a body.

Obj. 3: Further, the Philosopher proves (Phys. viii, 10) that an infinite power moves instantaneously. But it is impossible for a body to be moved in one instant; for since every movement is between opposites, it follows that two opposites would exist at once in the same subject, which is impossible. Therefore a body cannot be moved immediately by an infinite power. But God's power is infinite, as we have explained (Q. 25, A. 2). Therefore God cannot move a body immediately.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the Philosopher demonstrates (Phys. viii, 10) that an infinite power moves instantly. However, it's impossible for a body to be moved in a single instant; since every movement occurs between opposites, this means that two opposites would have to exist at the same time in the same subject, which is not possible. Therefore, a body cannot be moved directly by an infinite power. But God's power is infinite, as we've explained (Q. 25, A. 2). Therefore, God cannot move a body directly.

On the contrary, God produced the works of the six days immediately among which is included the movements of bodies, as is clear from Gen. 1:9 "Let the waters be gathered together into one place." Therefore God alone can move a body immediately.

On the contrary, God created the works of the six days directly, which includes the movements of physical bodies, as shown in Gen. 1:9 "Let the waters be gathered together into one place." Therefore, only God can move a body directly.

I answer that, It is erroneous to say that God cannot Himself produce all the determinate effects which are produced by any created cause. Wherefore, since bodies are moved immediately by created causes, we cannot possibly doubt that God can move immediately any bodies whatever. This indeed follows from what is above stated (A. 1). For every movement of any body whatever, either results from a form, as the movements of things heavy and light result from the form which they have from their generating cause, for which reason the generator is called the mover; or else tends to a form, as heating tends to the form of heat. Now it belongs to the same cause, to imprint a form, to dispose to that form, and to give the movement which results from that form; for fire not only generates fire, but it also heats and moves things upwards. Therefore, as God can imprint form immediately in matter, it follows that He can move any body whatever in respect of any movement whatever.

I answer that, it is wrong to say that God cannot directly produce all the specific effects that any created cause can. Therefore, since bodies are moved immediately by created causes, we cannot doubt that God can immediately move any bodies at all. This indeed follows from what has been stated above (A. 1). For every movement of any body results from a form, as the movements of heavy and light things come from the form they have from their generating cause; for this reason, the generator is called the mover. Alternatively, movement can aim for a form, as heating aims for the form of heat. Now, the same cause is responsible for impressing a form, preparing for that form, and providing the movement that comes from that form; for fire not only creates fire, but it also heats and moves things upwards. Therefore, since God can directly impress a form in matter, it follows that He can move any body in any way.

Reply Obj. 1: There are two kinds of contact; corporeal contact, when two bodies touch each other; and virtual contact, as the cause of sadness is said to touch the one made sad. According to the first kind of contact, God, as being incorporeal, neither touches, nor is touched; but according to virtual contact He touches creatures by moving them; but He is not touched, because the natural power of no creature can reach up to Him. Thus did Dionysius understand the words, "There is no contact with God"; that is, so that God Himself be touched.

Reply Obj. 1: There are two types of contact: physical contact, where two bodies touch each other, and virtual contact, where something causing sadness is said to affect the one who is sad. In terms of physical contact, God, being incorporeal, neither touches nor is touched; but through virtual contact, He influences creatures by moving them. However, He is not touched because no creature's natural power can reach Him. Thus, Dionysius interpreted the phrase, "There is no contact with God," to mean that God Himself cannot be touched.

Reply Obj. 2: God moves as the object of desire and apprehension; but it does not follow that He always moves as being desired and apprehended by that which is moved; but as being desired and known by Himself; for He does all things for His own goodness.

Reply Obj. 2: God acts as the focus of desire and understanding; however, it doesn't mean that He is always moved as the one who is desired and understood by what is being moved; rather, He is desired and known by Himself; because He does everything for His own goodness.

Reply Obj. 3: The Philosopher (Phys. viii, 10) intends to prove that the power of the first mover is not a power of the first mover of bulk, by the following argument. The power of the first mover is infinite (which he proves from the fact that the first mover can move in infinite time). Now an infinite power, if it were a power of bulk, would move without time, which is impossible; therefore the infinite power of the first mover must be in something which is not measured by its bulk. Whence it is clear that for a body to be moved without time can only be the result of an infinite power. The reason is that every power of bulk moves in its entirety; since it moves by the necessity of its nature. But an infinite power surpasses out of all proportion any finite power. Now the greater the power of the mover, the greater is the velocity of the movement. Therefore, since a finite power moves in a determinate time, it follows that an infinite power does not move in any time; for between one time and any other time there is some proportion. On the other hand, a power which is not in bulk is the power of an intelligent being, which operates in its effects according to what is fitting to them; and therefore, since it cannot be fitting for a body to be moved without time, it does not follow that it moves without time. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The Philosopher (Phys. viii, 10) aims to show that the power of the first mover is not a power defined by its size, using the following argument. The power of the first mover is infinite (which he demonstrates by stating that the first mover can act over infinite time). Now, an infinite power, if it were defined by size, would move without time, which is impossible; therefore, the first mover's infinite power must exist in something not measured by its size. It is clear that for a body to be moved without time can only come from an infinite power. The reason is that every force defined by size moves entirely; it operates by the necessity of its nature. But an infinite power far exceeds any finite power. The greater the power of the mover, the greater the speed of the movement. Thus, since a finite power moves within a specific time frame, it follows that an infinite power does not move within any time frame; for there is some proportion between different times. On the other hand, a power that isn’t defined by size is the power of an intelligent being, which operates its effects according to what is appropriate for them; therefore, since it would not be appropriate for a body to be moved without time, it does not follow that it moves without time.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 3]

Whether God Moves the Created Intellect Immediately?

Whether God Moves the Created Intellect Directly?

Objection 1: It would seem that God does not immediately move the created intellect. For the action of the intellect is governed by its own subject; since it does not pass into external matter; as stated in Metaph. ix, Did. viii, 8. But the action of what is moved by another does not proceed from that wherein it is; but from the mover. Therefore the intellect is not moved by another; and so apparently God cannot move the created intellect.

Objection 1: It seems that God does not directly influence the created intellect. The intellect's actions are controlled by its own nature; it does not engage with external matter, as stated in Metaph. ix, Did. viii, 8. However, the actions of something that is moved by another do not originate from the thing itself but from the mover. Therefore, the intellect isn't moved by something else, which suggests that God cannot move the created intellect.

Obj. 2: Further, anything which in itself is a sufficient principle of movement, is not moved by another. But the movement of the intellect is its act of understanding; in the sense in which we say that to understand or to feel is a kind of movement, as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 7). But the intellectual light which is natural to the soul, is a sufficient principle of understanding. Therefore it is not moved by another.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, anything that is a sufficient principle of movement in itself is not moved by something else. The movement of the intellect is its act of understanding; we say that understanding or feeling is a kind of movement, as the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 7). However, the intellectual light that is natural to the soul is a sufficient principle of understanding. Therefore, it is not moved by another.

Obj. 3: Further, as the senses are moved by the sensible, so the intellect is moved by the intelligible. But God is not intelligible to us, and exceeds the capacity of our intellect. Therefore God cannot move our intellect.

Obj. 3: Also, just as our senses respond to what we can perceive, our intellect responds to what we can understand. But God is beyond our understanding and exceeds what our intellect can grasp. Therefore, God cannot influence our intellect.

On the contrary, The teacher moves the intellect of the one taught. But it is written (Ps. 93:10) that God "teaches man knowledge." Therefore God moves the human intellect.

On the contrary, The teacher stimulates the intellect of the student. But it is written (Ps. 93:10) that God "teaches man knowledge." Therefore God influences the human intellect.

I answer that, As in corporeal movement that is called the mover which gives the form that is the principle of movement, so that is said to move the intellect, which is the cause of the form that is the principle of the intellectual operation, called the movement of the intellect. Now there is a twofold principle of intellectual operation in the intelligent being; one which is the intellectual power itself, which principle exists in the one who understands in potentiality; while the other is the principle of actual understanding, namely, the likeness of the thing understood in the one who understands. So a thing is said to move the intellect, whether it gives to him who understands the power of understanding; or impresses on him the likeness of the thing understood.

I respond that, just as in physical movement, there’s the mover that provides the form which is the source of movement, the same applies to what stimulates the intellect, which is the source of the form that drives intellectual activity, referred to as the movement of the intellect. There are two main sources of intellectual operation in an intelligent being; one is the intellectual capacity itself, existing in the one who has the potential to understand; the other is the source of actual understanding, specifically the representation of the thing being understood in the person who comprehends. Therefore, something is said to stimulate the intellect whether it grants the one who understands the ability to grasp concepts or impresses upon them the representation of the concept being understood.

Now God moves the created intellect in both ways. For He is the First immaterial Being; and as intellectuality is a result of immateriality, it follows that He is the First intelligent Being. Therefore since in each order the first is the cause of all that follows, we must conclude that from Him proceeds all intellectual power. In like manner, since He is the First Being, and all other beings pre-exist in Him as in their First Cause, it follows that they exist intelligibly in Him, after the mode of His own Nature. For as the intelligible types of everything exist first of all in God, and are derived from Him by other intellects in order that these may actually understand; so also are they derived by creatures that they may subsist. Therefore God so moves the created intellect, inasmuch as He gives it the intellectual power, whether natural, or superadded; and impresses on the created intellect the intelligible species, and maintains and preserves both power and species in existence.

Now, God influences the created mind in two ways. He is the First immaterial Being, and since intellectuality comes from immateriality, He is the First intelligent Being. Since the first in any order is the source of everything that follows, we have to conclude that all intellectual power comes from Him. Similarly, because He is the First Being, and all other beings exist in Him as their First Cause, it follows that they exist intelligibly in Him, according to His own Nature. Just as the intelligible forms of everything exist first in God and are passed on to other minds so they can truly understand, they are also passed on to creatures so they can exist. Therefore, God influences the created mind by granting it intellectual power, whether natural or added; He impresses the intelligible forms upon the created mind and sustains both power and forms in existence.

Reply Obj. 1: The intellectual operation is performed by the intellect in which it exists, as by a secondary cause; but it proceeds from God as from its first cause. For by Him the power to understand is given to the one who understands.

Reply Obj. 1: The mental process happens through the mind where it exists, acting as a secondary cause; however, it originates from God as the primary cause. It is through Him that the ability to understand is given to the one who understands.

Reply Obj. 2: The intellectual light together with the likeness of the thing understood is a sufficient principle of understanding; but it is a secondary principle, and depends upon the First Principle.

Reply Obj. 2: The intellectual insight along with the similarity of the concept being understood is enough to grasp understanding; however, it is a secondary principle that relies on the First Principle.

Reply Obj. 3: The intelligible object moves our human intellect, so far as, in a way, it impresses on it its own likeness, by means of which the intellect is able to understand it. But the likenesses which God impresses on the created intellect are not sufficient to enable the created intellect to understand Him through His Essence, as we have seen above (Q. 12, A. 2; Q. 56, A. 3). Hence He moves the created intellect, and yet He cannot be intelligible to it, as we have explained (Q. 12, A. 4). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The understandable object engages our human intellect because it somehow impresses its own likeness on it, allowing the intellect to comprehend it. However, the likenesses that God imprints on the created intellect don't provide enough for the created intellect to understand Him in His Essence, as we've noted before (Q. 12, A. 2; Q. 56, A. 3). Therefore, He engages the created intellect, yet He cannot be fully understood by it, as we explained (Q. 12, A. 4).

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 4]

Whether God Can Move the Created Will?

Whether God Can Influence the Created Will?

Objection 1: It would seem that God cannot move the created will. For whatever is moved from without, is forced. But the will cannot be forced. Therefore it is not moved from without; and therefore cannot be moved by God.

Objection 1: It seems that God cannot influence the created will. For anything that is moved from the outside is compelled. But the will cannot be compelled. Therefore, it is not moved from the outside; and therefore cannot be moved by God.

Obj. 2: Further, God cannot make two contradictories to be true at the same time. But this would follow if He moved the will; for to be voluntarily moved means to be moved from within, and not by another. Therefore God cannot move the will.

Obj. 2: Additionally, God cannot make two contradictory things true at the same time. But this would happen if He influenced the will; because to be moved voluntarily means to be moved from within, not by something else. Therefore, God cannot influence the will.

Obj. 3: Further, movement is attributed to the mover rather than to the one moved; wherefore homicide is not ascribed to the stone, but to the thrower. Therefore, if God moves the will, it follows that voluntary actions are not imputed to man for reward or blame. But this is false. Therefore God does not move the will.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, movement is attributed to the one who causes it rather than to the one being moved; therefore, homicide is attributed to the thrower, not the stone. So, if God influences the will, it means that voluntary actions aren’t credited to man for reward or blame. But this is incorrect. Therefore, God does not influence the will.

On the contrary, It is written (Phil. 2:13): "It is God who worketh in us [Vulgate—'you'] both to will and to accomplish."

On the contrary, It is written (Phil. 2:13): "It is God who works in us [Vulgate—'you'] both to will and to accomplish."

I answer that, As the intellect is moved by the object and by the Giver of the power of intelligence, as stated above (A. 3), so is the will moved by its object, which is good, and by Him who creates the power of willing. Now the will can be moved by good as its object, but by God alone sufficiently and efficaciously. For nothing can move a movable thing sufficiently unless the active power of the mover surpasses or at least equals the potentiality of the thing movable. Now the potentiality of the will extends to the universal good; for its object is the universal good; just as the object of the intellect is the universal being. But every created good is some particular good; God alone is the universal good. Whereas He alone fills the capacity of the will, and moves it sufficiently as its object. In like manner the power of willing is caused by God alone. For to will is nothing but to be inclined towards the object of the will, which is universal good. But to incline towards the universal good belongs to the First Mover, to Whom the ultimate end is proportionate; just as in human affairs to him that presides over the community belongs the directing of his subjects to the common weal. Wherefore in both ways it belongs to God to move the will; but especially in the second way by an interior inclination of the will.

I answer that, Just as the intellect is influenced by the object and by the source of intelligence, as mentioned earlier (A. 3), the will is influenced by its object, which is good, and by God, who provides the ability to will. The will can be moved by good as its object, but only by God in a complete and effective way. Nothing can sufficiently motivate something that can be moved unless the power of the mover is greater than or at least equal to the potential of the thing being moved. The potential of the will is aimed at the universal good because its object is universal good, just as the object of the intellect is universal being. However, every created good is just a specific good; God alone is the universal good. He alone fulfills the will’s capacity and influences it sufficiently as its object. Similarly, the ability to will is caused solely by God. To will is simply to be inclined towards the object of the will, which is universal good. This inclination towards the universal good is the role of the First Mover, to whom the ultimate end is fitting; just as in human matters, the leader of a community is responsible for guiding their members towards the common good. Therefore, in both respects, it is God's role to influence the will; particularly in the second respect through an internal inclination of the will.

Reply Obj. 1: A thing moved by another is forced if moved against its natural inclination; but if it is moved by another giving to it the proper natural inclination, it is not forced; as when a heavy body is made to move downwards by that which produced it, then it is not forced. In like manner God, while moving the will, does not force it, because He gives the will its own natural inclination.

Reply Obj. 1: An object is considered forced when it's moved against its natural tendency; however, if it is moved in a way that aligns with its natural tendency, it isn't forced. For example, when a heavy object is caused to move downward by something that is responsible for its motion, it is not forced. Similarly, when God influences the will, He does not force it, because He aligns the will with its natural inclination.

Reply Obj. 2: To be moved voluntarily, is to be moved from within, that is, by an interior principle: yet this interior principle may be caused by an exterior principle; and so to be moved from within is not repugnant to being moved by another.

Reply Obj. 2: To be moved voluntarily means to be moved from within, by an internal principle; however, this internal principle can be influenced by an external force. So, being moved from within does not contradict being moved by someone else.

Reply Obj. 3: If the will were so moved by another as in no way to be moved from within itself, the act of the will would not be imputed for reward or blame. But since its being moved by another does not prevent its being moved from within itself, as we have stated (ad 2), it does not thereby forfeit the motive for merit or demerit. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: If the will were completely influenced by something outside itself and not at all by its own internal desire, then its actions wouldn’t be considered for reward or punishment. However, since being influenced by another doesn’t stop it from being internally motivated, as we have explained (ad 2), it doesn’t lose the basis for earning merit or facing demerit.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 5]

Whether God Works in Every Agent?

Whether God Works in Every Agent?

Objection 1: It would seem that God does not work in every agent. For we must not attribute any insufficiency to God. If therefore God works in every agent, He works sufficiently in each one. Hence it would be superfluous for the created agent to work at all.

Objection 1: It seems that God does not work in every agent. We shouldn't say that God is lacking in any way. If God works in every agent, then He works adequately in each one. Therefore, it would be unnecessary for the created agent to work at all.

Obj. 2: Further, the same work cannot proceed at the same time from two sources; as neither can one and the same movement belong to two movable things. Therefore if the creature's operation is from God operating in the creature, it cannot at the same time proceed from the creature; and so no creature works at all.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the same action cannot come from two sources at the same time; just as one single movement cannot belong to two separate objects. Therefore, if a creature's action is initiated by God working within the creature, it cannot simultaneously come from the creature itself; thus, no creature actually does any work at all.

Obj. 3: Further, the maker is the cause of the operation of the thing made, as giving it the form whereby it operates. Therefore, if God is the cause of the operation of things made by Him, this would be inasmuch as He gives them the power of operating. But this is in the beginning, when He makes them. Thus it seems that God does not operate any further in the operating creature.

Obj. 3: Moreover, the creator is the reason behind how the thing created functions, as it is He who provides it with the form that allows it to operate. Therefore, if God is responsible for the operation of things He has made, it is because He grants them the ability to act. However, this happens at the beginning, when He creates them. Thus, it seems that God does not continue to act in the operating creature.

On the contrary, It is written (Isa. 26:12): "Lord, Thou hast wrought all our works in [Vulg.: 'for'] us."

On the contrary, It is written (Isa. 26:12): "Lord, You have done all our works for us."

I answer that, Some have understood God to work in every agent in such a way that no created power has any effect in things, but that God alone is the ultimate cause of everything wrought; for instance, that it is not fire that gives heat, but God in the fire, and so forth. But this is impossible. First, because the order of cause and effect would be taken away from created things: and this would imply lack of power in the Creator: for it is due to the power of the cause, that it bestows active power on its effect. Secondly, because the active powers which are seen to exist in things, would be bestowed on things to no purpose, if these wrought nothing through them. Indeed, all things created would seem, in a way, to be purposeless, if they lacked an operation proper to them; since the purpose of everything is its operation. For the less perfect is always for the sake of the more perfect: and consequently as the matter is for the sake of the form, so the form which is the first act, is for the sake of its operation, which is the second act; and thus operation is the end of the creature. We must therefore understand that God works in things in such a manner that things have their proper operation.

I answer that, Some people think that God works in every agent in such a way that no created force has any effect on things, and that God alone is the ultimate cause of everything that happens; for example, it’s not fire that produces heat, but God working through the fire, and so on. But this idea is impossible. First, it would eliminate the order of cause and effect among created things, implying that the Creator lacks power; it's because of the power of the cause that it gives active power to its effect. Second, the active powers we observe in things would be meaningless if these things achieved nothing through them. In fact, all created things would seem somewhat purposeless if they didn’t have a function of their own, since the purpose of everything lies in its operation. The less perfect exists for the sake of the more perfect: thus, as the matter exists for the sake of the form, the form, which is the first act, exists for the sake of its operation, the second act; therefore, operation is the end of the creature. We must understand that God works in such a way that things have their own proper operation.

In order to make this clear, we must observe that as there are few kinds of causes; matter is not a principle of action, but is the subject that receives the effect of action. On the other hand, the end, the agent, and the form are principles of action, but in a certain order. For the first principle of action is the end which moves the agent; the second is the agent; the third is the form of that which the agent applies to action (although the agent also acts through its own form); as may be clearly seen in things made by art. For the craftsman is moved to action by the end, which is the thing wrought, for instance a chest or a bed; and applies to action the axe which cuts through its being sharp.

To clarify this, we need to recognize that there are only a few types of causes. Matter isn't a principle of action; it's the subject that experiences the effects of action. In contrast, the end, the agent, and the form are the principles of action, but they follow a specific order. The first principle of action is the end, which motivates the agent; the second is the agent itself; and the third is the form of what the agent applies in action (even though the agent also acts through its own form), as can be clearly seen in things created by art. The craftsman is driven to action by the end, which is the final product, such as a chest or a bed; and he uses the axe, which is effective because it is sharp, to carry out the action.

Thus then does God work in every worker, according to these three things. First as an end. For since every operation is for the sake of some good, real or apparent; and nothing is good either really or apparently, except in as far as it participates in a likeness to the Supreme Good, which is God; it follows that God Himself is the cause of every operation as its end. Again it is to be observed that where there are several agents in order, the second always acts in virtue of the first; for the first agent moves the second to act. And thus all agents act in virtue of God Himself: and therefore He is the cause of action in every agent. Thirdly, we must observe that God not only moves things to operate, as it were applying their forms and powers to operation, just as the workman applies the axe to cut, who nevertheless at times does not give the axe its form; but He also gives created agents their forms and preserves them in being. Therefore He is the cause of action not only by giving the form which is the principle of action, as the generator is said to be the cause of movement in things heavy and light; but also as preserving the forms and powers of things; just as the sun is said to be the cause of the manifestation of colors, inasmuch as it gives and preserves the light by which colors are made manifest. And since the form of a thing is within the thing, and all the more, as it approaches nearer to the First and Universal Cause; and because in all things God Himself is properly the cause of universal being which is innermost in all things; it follows that in all things God works intimately. For this reason in Holy Scripture the operations of nature are attributed to God as operating in nature, according to Job 10:11: "Thou hast clothed me with skin and flesh: Thou hast put me together with bones and sinews."

So, God works through every worker in three ways. First, as an ultimate purpose. Every action exists for some good, whether real or perceived; and nothing is good—either genuinely or seemingly—unless it reflects some aspect of the Supreme Good, which is God. Therefore, God is the reason behind every action as its ultimate goal. Secondly, it should be noted that when there are multiple agents involved, the second one acts based on the first; the initial agent motivates the second to act. In this way, all agents operate through God Himself, making Him the source of action for every agent. Thirdly, we must recognize that God not only prompts things to act by applying their forms and abilities to operation—similar to how a worker uses an axe to cut—but He also gives created agents their forms and maintains their existence. Thus, He causes action not only by providing the form that initiates action (like a creator is said to cause movement in heavy and light things) but also by sustaining the forms and abilities of things. This is similar to how the sun is seen as the cause of revealing colors, as it gives and maintains the light through which colors are visible. Furthermore, since the essence of a thing lies within it—and even more so as it gets closer to the First and Universal Cause—and because God is fundamentally the source of universal existence that is deeply embedded in all things, it follows that God works closely within all things. For this reason, in the Holy Scripture, the workings of nature are attributed to God as acting within nature, as illustrated in Job 10:11: "You have clothed me with skin and flesh; you have knit me together with bones and sinews."

Reply Obj. 1: God works sufficiently in things as First Agent, but it does not follow from this that the operation of secondary agents is superfluous.

Reply Obj. 1: God acts effectively in things as the First Agent, but this doesn't mean that the actions of secondary agents are unnecessary.

Reply Obj. 2: One action does not proceed from two agents of the same order. But nothing hinders the same action from proceeding from a primary and a secondary agent.

Reply Obj. 2: One action doesn’t come from two agents of the same type. However, nothing prevents the same action from coming from a primary agent and a secondary agent.

Reply Obj. 3: God not only gives things their form, but He also preserves them in existence, and applies them to act, and is moreover the end of every action, as above explained. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: God not only gives things their form, but He also keeps them in existence, makes them act, and is ultimately the goal of every action, as explained above.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 6]

Whether God Can Do Anything Outside the Established Order of Nature?

Whether God can do anything outside the established order of nature?

Objection 1: It would seem that God cannot do anything outside the established order of nature. For Augustine (Contra Faust. xxvi, 3) says: "God the Maker and Creator of each nature, does nothing against nature." But that which is outside the natural order seems to be against nature. Therefore God can do nothing outside the natural order.

Objection 1: It seems that God can't do anything outside the established order of nature. Augustine (Contra Faust. xxvi, 3) says, "God, the Maker and Creator of every nature, does nothing against nature." However, anything outside the natural order seems to go against nature. Therefore, God can't do anything outside the natural order.

Obj. 2: Further, as the order of justice is from God, so is the order of nature. But God cannot do anything outside the order of justice; for then He would do something unjust. Therefore He cannot do anything outside the order of nature.

Obj. 2: Also, just as the order of justice comes from God, so does the order of nature. But God can't act outside the order of justice; otherwise, He would be acting unjustly. Therefore, He can't act outside the order of nature.

Obj. 3: Further, God established the order of nature. Therefore it God does anything outside the order of nature, it would seem that He is changeable; which cannot be said.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, God established the order of nature. Therefore, if God does anything outside that order, it would suggest that He is changeable; which cannot be true.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Contra Faust. xxvi, 3): "God sometimes does things which are contrary to the ordinary course of nature."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Contra Faust. xxvi, 3): "God sometimes does things that go against the usual laws of nature."

I answer that, From each cause there results a certain order to its effects, since every cause is a principle; and so, according to the multiplicity of causes, there results a multiplicity of orders, subjected one to the other, as cause is subjected to cause. Wherefore a higher cause is not subjected to a cause of a lower order; but conversely. An example of this may be seen in human affairs. On the father of a family depends the order of the household; which order is contained in the order of the city; which order again depends on the ruler of the city; while this last order depends on that of the king, by whom the whole kingdom is ordered.

I answer that, each cause leads to a specific order of its effects since every cause serves as a principle. Therefore, with the variety of causes comes a variety of orders, each subject to the others, just as one cause is subject to another. Consequently, a higher cause is not subject to a cause of a lower order; rather, it’s the other way around. We can see this in human affairs. The order of a household depends on the father of the family; this order is part of the order of the city, which in turn depends on the city's ruler; and this last order is influenced by that of the king, who oversees the entire kingdom.

If therefore we consider the order of things depending on the first cause, God cannot do anything against this order; for, if He did so, He would act against His foreknowledge, or His will, or His goodness. But if we consider the order of things depending on any secondary cause, thus God can do something outside such order; for He is not subject to the order of secondary causes; but, on the contrary, this order is subject to Him, as proceeding from Him, not by a natural necessity, but by the choice of His own will; for He could have created another order of things. Wherefore God can do something outside this order created by Him, when He chooses, for instance by producing the effects of secondary causes without them, or by producing certain effects to which secondary causes do not extend. So Augustine says (Contra Faust. xxvi, 3): "God acts against the wonted course of nature, but by no means does He act against the supreme law; because He does not act against Himself."

If we look at the order of things based on the first cause, God can't do anything against that order; if He did, it would go against His foreknowledge, His will, or His goodness. However, if we think about the order of things based on any secondary cause, then God can do things that fall outside that order because He isn't bound by it. Instead, this order is under His control, as it comes from Him—not out of natural necessity, but by His own choice. He could have created a different order altogether. Therefore, God can act outside this created order whenever He wants, for example, by bringing about the effects of secondary causes without them or by producing certain effects that secondary causes can't achieve. As Augustine says (Contra Faust. xxvi, 3): "God works against the usual course of nature, but He never acts against the supreme law; because He does not go against Himself."

Reply Obj. 1: In natural things something may happen outside this natural order, in two ways. It may happen by the action of an agent which did not give them their natural inclination; as, for example, when a man moves a heavy body upwards, which does not owe to him its natural inclination to move downwards; and that would be against nature. It may also happen by the action of the agent on whom the natural inclination depends; and this is not against nature, as is clear in the ebb and flow of the tide, which is not against nature; although it is against the natural movement of water in a downward direction; for it is owing to the influence of a heavenly body, on which the natural inclination of lower bodies depends. Therefore since the order of nature is given to things by God; if He does anything outside this order, it is not against nature. Wherefore Augustine says (Contra Faust. xxvi, 3): "That is natural to each thing which is caused by Him from Whom is all mode, number, and order in nature."

Reply Obj. 1: In natural things, something can happen outside of this natural order in two ways. It may occur through the action of an agent that doesn't give them their natural tendency; for example, when a person lifts a heavy object upwards, which naturally wants to move downward due to gravity. That would be against nature. It can also happen through the action of the agent on whom the natural tendency relies; and this is not against nature, as seen in the ebb and flow of the tide, which is natural even though it goes against the usual downward movement of water. This is due to the influence of a celestial body, which affects the natural inclination of lower bodies. Therefore, since the order of nature is established by God, if He acts outside this order, it is not against nature. As Augustine says (Contra Faust. xxvi, 3): "That is natural to each thing which is caused by Him from Whom is all mode, number, and order in nature."

Reply Obj. 2: The order of justice arises by relation to the First Cause, Who is the rule of all justice; and therefore God can do nothing against such order.

Reply Obj. 2: The order of justice comes from the First Cause, Who is the standard of all justice; so, God cannot act against that order.

Reply Obj. 3: God fixed a certain order in things in such a way that at the same time He reserved to Himself whatever he intended to do otherwise than by a particular cause. So when He acts outside this order, He does not change. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: God established a specific order in things so that He also kept the freedom to do what He intended outside of that order. So when He acts beyond this order, He does not change.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 7]

Whether Whatever God Does Outside the Natural Order Is Miraculous?

Whether what God does outside the natural order is considered miraculous?

Objection 1: It would seem that not everything which God does outside the natural order of things, is miraculous. For the creation of the world, and of souls, and the justification of the unrighteous, are done by God outside the natural order; as not being accomplished by the action of any natural cause. Yet these things are not called miracles. Therefore not everything that God does outside the natural order is a miracle.

Objection 1: It seems that not everything God does outside the natural order is miraculous. The creation of the world, the creation of souls, and the justification of the unrighteous all happen by God's hand outside the natural order, as they aren't produced by any natural cause. However, these things aren’t considered miracles. Therefore, not everything God does outside the natural order is a miracle.

Obj. 2: Further, a miracle is "something difficult, which seldom occurs, surpassing the faculty of nature, and going so far beyond our hopes as to compel our astonishment" [*St. Augustine, De utilitate credendi xvi.]. But some things outside the order of nature are not arduous; for they occur in small things, such as the recovery and healing of the sick. Nor are they of rare occurrence, since they happen frequently; as when the sick were placed in the streets, to be healed by the shadow of Peter (Acts 5:15). Nor do they surpass the faculty of nature; as when people are cured of a fever. Nor are they beyond our hopes, since we all hope for the resurrection of the dead, which nevertheless will be outside the course of nature. Therefore not all things are outside the course of nature are miraculous.

Obj. 2: Additionally, a miracle is "something difficult, which rarely happens, surpassing the abilities of nature, and going so far beyond our expectations that it leaves us amazed" [*St. Augustine, De utilitate credendi xvi.]. However, some occurrences that are outside the natural order are not hard to explain; they happen in small ways, like the recovery and healing of the sick. These occurrences aren’t uncommon either, as they happen often; for example, when sick people were laid out in the streets to be healed by Peter's shadow (Acts 5:15). They don't exceed the natural abilities either, like when people recover from a fever. They also do not go beyond our hopes, since we all hope for the resurrection of the dead, which, however, will be beyond what usually happens in nature. Therefore, not everything that is outside the natural order is miraculous.

Obj. 3: Further, the word miracle is derived from admiration. Now admiration concerns things manifest to the senses. But sometimes things happen outside the order of nature, which are not manifest to the senses; as when the Apostles were endowed with knowledge without studying or being taught. Therefore not everything that occurs outside the order of nature is miraculous.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the word miracle comes from admiration. Now, admiration relates to things that can be perceived through the senses. However, there are times when events occur outside the natural order that aren't evident to the senses; for example, when the Apostles gained knowledge without studying or being taught. Therefore, not everything that happens outside the natural order is considered miraculous.

On the contrary, Augustine says (Contra Faust. xxvi, 3): "Where God does anything against that order of nature which we know and are accustomed to observe, we call it a miracle."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Contra Faust. xxvi, 3): "When God does something that goes against the natural order we know and are used to, we call it a miracle."

I answer that, The word miracle is derived from admiration, which arises when an effect is manifest, whereas its cause is hidden; as when a man sees an eclipse without knowing its cause, as the Philosopher says in the beginning of his Metaphysics. Now the cause of a manifest effect may be known to one, but unknown to others. Wherefore a thing is wonderful to one man, and not at all to others: as an eclipse is to a rustic, but not to an astronomer. Now a miracle is so called as being full of wonder; as having a cause absolutely hidden from all: and this cause is God. Wherefore those things which God does outside those causes which we know, are called miracles.

I answer that, The word miracle comes from the sense of wonder, which occurs when we see an effect but can't explain its cause; for example, when someone witnesses an eclipse without understanding why it happens, as the Philosopher points out at the start of his Metaphysics. Now, someone might know the cause of an obvious effect while others do not. This is why something can be extraordinary to one person but completely ordinary to another: like an eclipse is to a farmer, but not to an astronomer. A miracle is called such because it is full of wonder; it has a cause that is completely hidden from everyone, and that cause is God. Therefore, the things that God does outside of the causes we are familiar with are considered miracles.

Reply Obj. 1: Creation, and the justification of the unrighteous, though done by God alone, are not, properly speaking, miracles, because they are not of a nature to proceed from any other cause; so they do not occur outside the order of nature, since they do not belong to that order.

Reply Obj. 1: Creation and the justification of the unrighteous, while done solely by God, are not technically miracles because they can't come from any other cause; therefore, they don't happen outside the natural order, as they aren't part of that order.

Reply Obj. 2: An arduous thing is called a miracle, not on account of the excellence of the thing wherein it is done, but because it surpasses the faculty of nature: likewise a thing is called unusual, not because it does not often happen, but because it is outside the usual natural course of things. Furthermore, a thing is said to be above the faculty of nature, not only by reason of the substance of the thing done, but also on account of the manner and order in which it is done. Again, a miracle is said to go beyond the hope "of nature," not above the hope "of grace," which hope comes from faith, whereby we believe in the future resurrection.

Reply Obj. 2: A difficult thing is called a miracle, not because of how great the thing is that is being done, but because it goes beyond what nature can achieve. Similarly, something is referred to as unusual, not because it doesn't happen often, but because it falls outside the normal natural order. Additionally, a thing is considered to be beyond what nature can do, not just because of what is being accomplished, but also due to how and in what way it is accomplished. Again, a miracle is said to exceed the hope of "nature," but not the hope of "grace," which hope is rooted in faith, through which we believe in the future resurrection.

Reply Obj. 3: The knowledge of the Apostles, although not manifest in itself, yet was made manifest in its effect, from which it was shown to be wonderful. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The knowledge of the Apostles, while not obvious on its own, was revealed through its effects, which demonstrated its greatness.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 105, Art. 8]

Whether One Miracle Is Greater Than Another?

Whether One Miracle Is Greater Than Another?

Objection 1: It would seem that one miracle is not greater than another. For Augustine says (Epist. ad Volusian. cxxxvii): "In miraculous deeds, the whole measure of the deed is the power of the doer." But by the same power of God all miracles are done. Therefore one miracle is not greater than another.

Objection 1: It seems that one miracle is not greater than another. Augustine says (Epist. ad Volusian. cxxxvii): "In miraculous acts, the total measure of the act is the ability of the doer." Since all miracles are performed by the same power of God, one miracle is not greater than another.

Obj. 2: Further, the power of God is infinite. But the infinite exceeds the finite beyond all proportion; and therefore no more reason exists to wonder at one effect thereof than at another. Therefore one miracle is not greater than another.

Obj. 2: Also, God's power is infinite. The infinite surpasses the finite by an immeasurable amount; therefore, there’s no reason to be more amazed by one effect than another. As a result, one miracle is not greater than another.

On the contrary, The Lord says, speaking of miraculous works (John 14:12): "The works that I do, he also shall do, and greater than these shall he do."

On the contrary, The Lord says, talking about miraculous works (John 14:12): "The things I do, he will do also, and even greater things than these will he do."

I answer that, Nothing is called a miracle by comparison with the Divine Power; because no action is of any account compared with the power of God, according to Isa. 40:15: "Behold the Gentiles are as a drop from a bucket, and are counted as the smallest grain of a balance." But a thing is called a miracle by comparison with the power of nature which it surpasses. So the more the power of nature is surpassed, the greater the miracle. Now the power of nature is surpassed in three ways: firstly, in the substance of the deed, for instance, if two bodies occupy the same place, or if the sun goes backwards; or if a human body is glorified: such things nature is absolutely unable to do; and these hold the highest rank among miracles. Secondly, a thing surpasses the power of nature, not in the deed, but in that wherein it is done; as the raising of the dead, and giving sight to the blind, and the like; for nature can give life, but not to the dead; and such hold the second rank in miracles. Thirdly, a thing surpasses nature's power in the measure and order in which it is done; as when a man is cured of a fever suddenly, without treatment or the usual process of nature; or as when the air is suddenly condensed into rain, by Divine power without a natural cause, as occurred at the prayers of Samuel and Elias; and these hold the lowest place in miracles. Moreover, each of these kinds has various degrees, according to the different ways in which the power of nature is surpassed.

I respond that, nothing is considered a miracle when compared to Divine Power because no action holds any significance next to God's power, as stated in Isa. 40:15: "Look, the nations are like a drop in a bucket, and they are regarded as the smallest piece on the scales." However, something is referred to as a miracle when it exceeds the power of nature. The greater the difference from natural power, the bigger the miracle. The power of nature is surpassed in three ways: first, in the substance of the act, such as when two bodies occupy the same space, or when the sun moves backward, or when a human body is glorified; these are things that nature cannot achieve and are considered the highest category of miracles. Second, something surpasses nature's power not in the action itself but in the result, like raising the dead or giving sight to the blind; nature can create life, but not bring the dead back to life, and these are ranked second in miracles. Third, an action exceeds nature's power in the timing and method of execution, such as when a person is suddenly healed from a fever without treatment or the expected natural process; or when air is suddenly turned into rain by Divine intervention without a natural cause, as happened during the prayers of Samuel and Elijah; these are ranked lowest among miracles. Additionally, each of these types has different levels, depending on how nature's power is surpassed.

From this is clear how to reply to the objections, arguing as they do from the Divine power. _______________________

From this, it's clear how to respond to the objections, as they argue from Divine power.

QUESTION 106

HOW ONE CREATURE MOVES ANOTHER
(In Four Articles)

HOW ONE CREATURE MOVES ANOTHER
(In Four Articles)

We next consider how one creature moves another. This consideration will be threefold:

We will now look at how one creature moves another. This discussion will be in three parts:

(1) How the angels move, who are purely spiritual creatures;

(1) How the angels move, who are purely spiritual beings;

(2) How bodies move;

How bodies move;

(3) How man moves, who is composed of a spiritual and a corporeal nature.

(3) How a person moves, who is made up of both a spiritual and a physical nature.

Concerning the first point, there are three things to be considered:

Concerning the first point, there are three things to consider:

(1) How an angel acts on an angel;

(1) How one angel influences another angel;

(2) How an angel acts on a corporeal nature;

(2) How an angel interacts with a physical nature;

(3) How an angel acts on man.

(3) How an angel interacts with a person.

The first of these raises the question of the enlightenment and speech of the angels; and of their mutual coordination, both of the good and of the bad angels.

The first of these brings up the topic of the understanding and communication of angels, and how they work together, both the good and the bad ones.

Concerning their enlightenment there are four points of inquiry:

Concerning their enlightenment, there are four questions to consider:

(1) Whether one angel moves the intellect of another by enlightenment?

(1) Does one angel inspire the mind of another by providing insight?

(2) Whether one angel moves the will of another?

(2) Can one angel influence the will of another?

(3) Whether an inferior angel can enlighten a superior angel?

(3) Can a lower-ranking angel enlighten a higher-ranking angel?

(4) Whether a superior angel enlightens an inferior angel in all that he knows himself? _______________________

(4) Does a higher angel enlighten a lower angel in everything he knows himself? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 106, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 106, Art. 1]

Whether One Angel Enlightens Another?

Does one angel inspire another?

Objection 1: It would seem that one angel does not enlighten another.
For the angels possess now the same beatitude which we hope to obtain.
But one man will not then enlighten another, according to Jer. 31:34:
"They shall teach no more every man his neighbor, and every man his
brother." Therefore neither does an angel enlighten another now.

Objection 1: It seems that one angel doesn’t enlighten another.
For the angels already have the same happiness that we hope to achieve.
But one person won’t enlighten another at that time, according to Jer. 31:34:
"They shall teach no more every man his neighbor, and every man his
brother." Therefore, an angel doesn’t enlighten another now either.

Obj. 2: Further, light in the angels is threefold; of nature, of grace, and of glory. But an angel is enlightened in the light of nature by the Creator; in the light of grace by the Justifier; in the light of glory by the Beatifier; all of which comes from God. Therefore one angel does not enlighten another.

Obj. 2: Also, angels have three types of light: natural, grace, and glory. An angel receives the light of nature from the Creator; the light of grace from the Justifier; and the light of glory from the Beatifier; all of which come from God. Therefore, one angel does not enlighten another.

Obj. 3: Further, light is a form in the mind. But the rational mind is "informed by God alone, without created intervention," as Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 51). Therefore one angel does not enlighten the mind of another.

Obj. 3: Additionally, light is a concept in the mind. However, the rational mind is "informed by God alone, without created intervention," as Augustine states (QQ. 83, qu. 51). Thus, one angel does not enlighten the mind of another.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. viii) that "the angels of the second hierarchy are cleansed, enlightened and perfected by the angels of the first hierarchy."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. viii) that "the angels of the second hierarchy are purified, enlightened, and perfected by the angels of the first hierarchy."

I answer that, One angel enlightens another. To make this clear, we must observe that intellectual light is nothing else than a manifestation of truth, according to Eph. 5:13: "All that is made manifest is light." Hence to enlighten means nothing else but to communicate to others the manifestation of the known truth; according to the Apostle (Eph. 3:8): "To me the least of all the saints is given this grace . . . to enlighten all men, that they may see what is the dispensation of the mystery which hath been hidden from eternity in God." Therefore one angel is said to enlighten another by manifesting the truth which he knows himself. Hence Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. vii): "Theologians plainly show that the orders of the heavenly beings are taught Divine science by the higher minds."

I respond that, one angel enlightens another. To clarify this, we need to understand that intellectual light is simply a way of revealing truth, as stated in Eph. 5:13: "Everything that is revealed is light." Therefore, to enlighten means to share the revelation of known truth with others; as the Apostle states (Eph. 3:8): "To me, the least of all the saints, this grace was given... to enlighten all people so they can see what the plan of the mystery has been hidden in God from eternity." So, one angel is said to enlighten another by revealing the truth they understand. Thus, Dionysius mentions (Coel. Hier. vii): "Theologians clearly show that the ranks of heavenly beings are taught Divine knowledge by the higher minds."

Now since two things concur in the intellectual operation, as we have said (Q. 105, A. 3), namely, the intellectual power, and the likeness of the thing understood; in both of these one angel can notify the known truth to another. First, by strengthening his intellectual power; for just as the power of an imperfect body is strengthened by the neighborhood of a more perfect body—for instance, the less hot is made hotter by the presence of what is hotter; so the intellectual power of an inferior angel is strengthened by the superior angel turning to him: since in spiritual things, for one thing to turn to another, corresponds to neighborhood in corporeal things. Secondly, one angel manifests the truth to another as regards the likeness of the thing understood. For the superior angel receives the knowledge of truth by a kind of universal conception, to receive which the inferior angel's intellect is not sufficiently powerful, for it is natural to him to receive truth in a more particular manner. Therefore the superior angel distinguishes, in a way, the truth which he conceives universally, so that it can be grasped by the inferior angel; and thus he proposes it to his knowledge. Thus it is with us that the teacher, in order to adapt himself to others, divides into many points the knowledge which he possesses in the universal. This is thus expressed by Dionysius (Coel. Hier. xv): "Every intellectual substance with provident power divides and multiplies the uniform knowledge bestowed on it by one nearer to God, so as to lead its inferiors upwards by analogy."

Now, since two things are involved in intellectual processes, as we mentioned (Q. 105, A. 3), namely, the intellectual ability and the similarity of what is understood; in both cases, one angel can convey the known truth to another. First, by enhancing his intellectual ability; just as a less hot body gets warmer when close to a hotter body, the intellectual ability of a lower angel is strengthened when a higher angel approaches him. In spiritual matters, one thing turning toward another is similar to physical closeness. Secondly, one angel reveals the truth to another regarding the resemblance of the understood thing. The higher angel comprehends truth through a kind of universal understanding, which the lower angel's intellect isn't strong enough to grasp fully since it naturally receives truth in a more specific way. Therefore, the higher angel clarifies the truth he comprehends universally so the lower angel can understand it; thus, he presents it for his knowledge. This mirrors how a teacher breaks down his broad knowledge into many points to connect with others. Dionysius expresses this well (Coel. Hier. xv): "Every intellectual substance with providential power divides and multiplies the uniform knowledge given to it by one closer to God, to guide its inferiors upward by analogy."

Reply Obj. 1: All the angels, both inferior and superior, see the Essence of God immediately, and in this respect one does not teach another. It is of this truth that the prophet speaks; wherefore he adds: "They shall teach no more every man his brother, saying: 'Know the Lord': for all shall know Me, from the least of them even to the greatest." But all the types of the Divine works, which are known in God as in their cause, God knows in Himself, because He comprehends Himself; but of others who see God, each one knows the more types, the more perfectly he sees God. Hence a superior angel knows more about the types of the Divine works than an inferior angel, and concerning these the former enlightens the latter; and as to this Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that the angels "are enlightened by the types of existing things."

Reply Obj. 1: All angels, both lower and higher, perceive the Essence of God directly, and in this regard, they don’t teach each other. This truth is what the prophet refers to when he adds: "They will no longer teach each man his neighbor, saying: 'Know the Lord': for all will know Me, from the least to the greatest." However, all the types of Divine works, which are known in God as their cause, God understands within Himself because He has complete self-knowledge. As for others who see God, each one knows more types the more clearly they perceive God. Therefore, a higher angel understands more about the types of Divine works than a lower angel, and in this matter, the former enlightens the latter. Dionysius mentions this (Div. Nom. iv) by stating that the angels "are enlightened by the types of existing things."

Reply Obj. 2: An angel does not enlighten another by giving him the light of nature, grace, or glory; but by strengthening his natural light, and by manifesting to him the truth concerning the state of nature, of grace, and of glory, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 2: An angel doesn’t enlighten someone by giving them the light of nature, grace, or glory; instead, it strengthens their natural light and reveals the truth about the state of nature, grace, and glory, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 3: The rational mind is formed immediately by God, either as the image from the exemplar, forasmuch as it is made to the image of God alone; or as the subject by the ultimate perfecting form: for the created mind is always considered to be unformed, except it adhere to the first truth; while the other kinds of enlightenment that proceed from man or angel, are, as it were, dispositions to this ultimate form. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The rational mind is created directly by God, either as an image from the example, since it's made in the image of God alone; or as the subject by the highest perfecting form: because the created mind is always seen as unformed, unless it connects with the ultimate truth; while the other forms of enlightenment that come from humans or angels are, in a way, preparations for this ultimate form.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 106, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 106, Art. 2]

Whether one angel moves another angel's will?

Whether one angel influences another angel's will?

Objection 1: It would seem that one angel can move another angel's will. Because, according to Dionysius quoted above (A. 1), as one angel enlightens another, so does he cleanse and perfect another. But cleansing and perfecting seem to belong to the will: for the former seems to point to the stain of sin which appertains to will; while to be perfected is to obtain an end, which is the object of the will. Therefore an angel can move another angel's will.

Objection 1: It seems that one angel can influence another angel's will. Because, as Dionysius mentioned earlier (A. 1), just like one angel enlightens another, he also cleanses and perfects another. However, cleansing and perfecting seem to relate to the will: cleansing seems to address the stain of sin that pertains to the will, while being perfected means achieving an end, which is the goal of the will. Therefore, an angel can influence another angel's will.

Obj. 2: Further, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. vii): "The names of the angels designate their properties." Now the Seraphim are so called because they "kindle" or "give heat": and this is by love which belongs to the will. Therefore one angel moves another angel's will.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. vii): "The names of the angels reflect their characteristics." The Seraphim are named this way because they "ignite" or "provide warmth": and this comes from the love that belongs to the will. Therefore, one angel influences another angel's will.

Obj. 3: Further, the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 11) that the higher appetite moves the lower. But as the intellect of the superior angel is higher, so also is his will. It seems, therefore, that the superior angel can change the will of another angel.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the Philosopher states (De Anima iii, 11) that the higher desire influences the lower one. Since the intellect of a higher angel is greater, so is his will. Therefore, it appears that a higher angel can influence the will of another angel.

On the contrary, To him it belongs to change the will, to whom it belongs to bestow righteousness: for righteousness is the rightness of the will. But God alone bestows righteousness. Therefore one angel cannot change another angel's will.

On the contrary, it is up to the one who grants righteousness to change the will, because righteousness is the correctness of the will. But only God can grant righteousness. Therefore, one angel cannot change another angel's will.

I answer that, As was said above (Q. 105, A. 4), the will is changed in two ways; on the part of the object, and on the part of the power. On the part of the object, both the good itself which is the object of the will, moves the will, as the appetible moves the appetite; and he who points out the object, as, for instance, one who proves something to be good. But as we have said above (Q. 105, A. 4), other goods in a measure incline the will, yet nothing sufficiently moves the will save the universal good, and that is God. And this good He alone shows, that it may be seen by the blessed, Who, when Moses asked: "Show me Thy glory," answered: "I will show thee all good" (Ex. 33:18, 19). Therefore an angel does not move the will sufficiently, either as the object or as showing the object. But he inclines the will as something lovable, and as manifesting some created good ordered to God's goodness. And thus he can incline the will to the love of the creature or of God, by way of persuasion.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (Q. 105, A. 4), the will is affected in two ways: regarding the object and regarding the power. On the object side, the good itself, which is what the will desires, influences the will, just like an appetite is drawn to what it craves; and someone who identifies that good, such as a person who demonstrates something as good. But as noted earlier (Q. 105, A. 4), other goods can somewhat influence the will, yet nothing can genuinely move the will except for the universal good, which is God. Only He presents this good, so it can be perceived by the blessed, who, when Moses asked, "Show me Your glory," responded, "I will show you all good" (Ex. 33:18, 19). Therefore, an angel does not sufficiently move the will, whether as the object or as the one revealing the object. However, it can incline the will as something lovable and as exhibiting a created good that directs towards God's goodness. Thus, it can sway the will to love either the creature or God through persuasion.

But on the part of the power the will cannot be moved at all save by God. For the operation of the will is a certain inclination of the willer to the thing willed. And He alone can change this inclination, Who bestowed on the creature the power to will: just as that agent alone can change the natural inclination, which can give the power to which follows that natural inclination. Now God alone gave to the creature the power to will, because He alone is the author of the intellectual nature. Therefore an angel cannot move another angel's will.

But when it comes to the will, it can't be influenced at all except by God. The operation of the will is a specific tendency of the person willing toward what they desire. Only He who gave the ability to will can change this tendency, just like only the agent who provides a natural inclination can influence the power that follows that inclination. God alone granted the ability to will to the creature because He is the sole creator of intellectual nature. Therefore, one angel cannot influence another angel's will.

Reply Obj. 1: Cleansing and perfecting are to be understood according to the mode of enlightenment. And since God enlightens by changing the intellect and will, He cleanses by removing defects of intellect and will, and perfects unto the end of the intellect and will. But the enlightenment caused by an angel concerns the intellect, as explained above (A. 1); therefore an angel is to be understood as cleansing from the defect of nescience in the intellect; and as perfecting unto the consummate end of the intellect, and this is the knowledge of truth. Thus Dionysius says (Eccl. Hier. vi): that "in the heavenly hierarchy the chastening of the inferior essence is an enlightening of things unknown, that leads them to more perfect knowledge." For instance, we might say that corporeal sight is cleansed by the removal of darkness; enlightened by the diffusion of light; and perfected by being brought to the perception of the colored object.

Reply Obj. 1: Cleansing and perfecting should be understood in terms of enlightenment. Since God enlightens by changing the intellect and will, He cleanses by eliminating flaws in the intellect and will, and perfects them to reach their ultimate purpose. The enlightenment brought by an angel pertains to the intellect, as explained above (A. 1); therefore, an angel is understood as cleansing the intellect of ignorance and perfecting it toward the ultimate understanding of truth. Dionysius states (Eccl. Hier. vi) that "in the heavenly hierarchy, the guidance of the lower essence is an enlightenment of the unknown that leads them to more complete knowledge." For example, we could say that physical sight is cleansed by removing darkness, enlightened by the spreading of light, and perfected by being able to perceive colored objects.

Reply Obj. 2: One angel can induce another to love God by persuasion as explained above.

Reply Obj. 2: One angel can encourage another to love God through persuasion, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 3: The Philosopher speaks of the lower sensitive appetite which can be moved by the superior intellectual appetite, because it belongs to the same nature of the soul, and because the inferior appetite is a power in a corporeal organ. But this does not apply to the angels. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The Philosopher talks about the lower sensitive desire, which can be influenced by the higher intellectual desire, since they belong to the same nature of the soul, and the lower desire is a function within a physical body. However, this does not apply to angels.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 106, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 106, Art. 3]

Whether an Inferior Angel Can Enlighten a Superior Angel?

Whether a lesser angel can enlighten a greater angel?

Objection 1: It would seem that an inferior angel can enlighten a superior angel. For the ecclesiastical hierarchy is derived from, and represents the heavenly hierarchy; and hence the heavenly Jerusalem is called "our mother" (Gal. 4:26). But in the Church even superiors are enlightened and taught by their inferiors, as the Apostle says (1 Cor. 14:31): "You may all prophesy one by one, that all may learn and all may be exhorted." Therefore, likewise in the heavenly hierarchy, the superiors can be enlightened by inferiors.

Objection 1: It seems that a lower angel can enlighten a higher angel. The church hierarchy comes from and reflects the heavenly hierarchy; that's why the heavenly Jerusalem is called "our mother" (Gal. 4:26). In the Church, even those in higher positions are enlightened and taught by those below them, as the Apostle says (1 Cor. 14:31): "You can all prophesy one by one, so that everyone may learn and be encouraged." Therefore, it follows that in the heavenly hierarchy, the higher beings can also be enlightened by those who are lower.

Obj. 2: Further, as the order of corporeal substances depends on the will of God, so also does the order of spiritual substances. But, as was said above (Q. 105, A. 6), God sometimes acts outside the order of corporeal substances. Therefore He also sometimes acts outside the order of spiritual substances, by enlightening inferior otherwise than through their superiors. Therefore in that way the inferiors enlightened by God can enlighten superiors.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, just as the arrangement of physical substances is determined by God's will, so is the arrangement of spiritual substances. However, as mentioned earlier (Q. 105, A. 6), God occasionally acts outside the order of physical substances. Thus, He also sometimes acts outside the order of spiritual substances, by enlightening those below Him in ways that don't involve their superiors. Therefore, in that way, those below who are enlightened by God can also enlighten those above them.

Obj. 3: Further, one angel enlightens the other to whom he turns, as was above explained (A. 1). But since this turning to another is voluntary, the highest angel can turn to the lowest passing over the others. Therefore he can enlighten him immediately; and thus the latter can enlighten his superiors.

Obj. 3: Additionally, one angel provides insight to another whom he chooses to focus on, as previously explained (A. 1). However, since this turning toward another is a choice, the highest angel can turn to the lowest, bypassing the others. Therefore, he can directly enlighten him; and in this way, the latter can provide insight to his superiors.

On the contrary, Dionysius says that "this is the Divine unalterable law, that inferior things are led to God by the superior" (Coel. Hier. iv; Eccl. Hier. v).

On the contrary, Dionysius says that "this is the Divine unchanging law, that lesser things are brought to God by the greater" (Coel. Hier. iv; Eccl. Hier. v).

I answer that, The inferior angels never enlighten the superior, but are always enlightened by them. The reason is, because, as above explained (Q. 105, A. 6), one order is under another, as cause is under cause; and hence as cause is ordered to cause, so is order to order. Therefore there is no incongruity if sometimes anything is done outside the order of the inferior cause, to be ordered to the superior cause, as in human affairs the command of the president is passed over from obedience to the prince. So it happens that God works miraculously outside the order of corporeal nature, that men may be ordered to the knowledge of Him. But the passing over of the order that belongs to spiritual substances in no way belongs to the ordering of men to God; since the angelic operations are not made known to us; as are the operations of sensible bodies. Thus the order which belongs to spiritual substances is never passed over by God; so that the inferiors are always moved by the superior, and not conversely.

I answer that, the lower angels never enlighten the higher angels, but are always enlightened by them. The reason is, as explained earlier (Q. 105, A. 6), one order is subordinate to another, just as cause is subordinate to cause; therefore, just as one cause is related to another, so is one order to another. So, it's not unusual if sometimes something is done outside the order of the lower cause to be directed to the higher cause, similar to how a president's command may be overridden by the prince's authority. This is how God works miraculously outside the order of physical nature, so that people can be directed to the knowledge of Him. However, the deviation from the order that applies to spiritual beings does not affect the way humans are directed to God; since the actions of angels are not revealed to us, unlike the actions of physical bodies. Thus, the order that applies to spiritual beings is never bypassed by God; so the lower beings are always moved by the higher, and not the other way around.

Reply Obj. 1: The ecclesiastical hierarchy imitates the heavenly in some degree, but not by a perfect likeness. For in the heavenly hierarchy the perfection of the order is in proportion to its nearness to God; so that those who are the nearer to God are the more sublime in grade, and more clear in knowledge; and on that account the superiors are never enlightened by the inferiors, whereas in the ecclesiastical hierarchy, sometimes those who are the nearer to God in sanctity, are in the lowest grade, and are not conspicuous for science; and some also are eminent in one kind of science, and fail in another; and on that account superiors may be taught by inferiors.

Reply Obj. 1: The church hierarchy somewhat reflects the heavenly one, but it's not a perfect match. In the heavenly order, the closer you are to God, the more perfect and elevated your position is, and those nearer to God have greater clarity of knowledge. Because of this, superiors are never taught by inferiors. However, in the church hierarchy, sometimes those who are holiest are found in the lowest positions and may not stand out in knowledge. Additionally, some may excel in one area of knowledge while lacking in another, which is why superiors can learn from inferiors.

Reply Obj. 2: As above explained, there is no similarity between what God does outside the order of corporeal nature, and that of spiritual nature. Hence the argument does not hold.

Reply Obj. 2: As explained above, there is no similarity between what God does outside the order of physical nature and what happens in spiritual nature. Therefore, the argument does not hold.

Reply Obj. 3: An angel turns voluntarily to enlighten another angel, but the angel's will is ever regulated by the Divine law which made the order in the angels. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: An angel chooses to help another angel, but the angel's will is always guided by the Divine law that established the order among the angels.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 106, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 106, Art. 4]

Whether the Superior Angel Enlightens the Inferior As Regards All He
Himself Knows?

Whether the Superior Angel teaches the Inferior about everything He
Himself knows?

Objection 1: It would seem that the superior angel does not enlighten the inferior concerning all he himself knows. For Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. xii) that the superior angels have a more universal knowledge; and the inferior a more particular and individual knowledge. But more is contained under a universal knowledge than under a particular knowledge. Therefore not all that the superior angels know, is known by the inferior, through these being enlightened by the former.

Objection 1: It seems that a higher angel doesn’t share everything he knows with a lower angel. Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. xii) that higher angels have a broader understanding, while lower angels have a more specific and individual understanding. More is included in a broader understanding than in a specific one. Therefore, not everything that higher angels know is also known by lower angels, even though the latter are guided by the former.

Obj. 2: Further, the Master of the Sentences (ii, D, 11) says that the superior angels had long known the Mystery of the Incarnation, whereas the inferior angels did not know it until it was accomplished. Thus we find that on some of the angels inquiring, as it were, in ignorance: "Who is this King of glory?" other angels, who knew, answered: "The Lord of Hosts, He is the King of glory," as Dionysius expounds (Coel. Hier. vii). But this would not apply if the superior angels enlightened the inferior concerning all they know themselves. Therefore they do not do so.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the Master of the Sentences (ii, D, 11) states that the higher angels had been aware of the Mystery of the Incarnation for a long time, while the lower angels didn’t understand it until it happened. This is evident when some angels, seemingly confused, asked, "Who is this King of glory?" and other angels, who knew the answer, responded, "The Lord of Hosts, He is the King of glory," as explained by Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii). However, this wouldn’t make sense if the higher angels were sharing all their knowledge with the lower ones. So, they don’t do that.

Obj. 3: Further, if the superior angels enlighten the inferior about all they know, nothing that the superior angels know would be unknown to the inferior angels. Therefore the superior angels could communicate nothing more to the inferior; which appears open to objection. Therefore the superior angels enlighten the inferior in all things.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if the higher angels share all their knowledge with the lower ones, then there would be nothing that the higher angels know that the lower angels do not. Thus, the higher angels wouldn't be able to convey anything beyond what the lower angels already know, which seems problematic. Therefore, the higher angels do enlighten the lower ones in all things.

On the contrary, Gregory [*Peter Lombard, Sent. ii, D, ix; Cf. Gregory, Hom. xxxiv, in Ev.] says: "In that heavenly country, though there are some excellent gifts, yet nothing is held individually." And Dionysius says: "Each heavenly essence communicates to the inferior the gift derived from the superior" (Coel. Hier. xv), as quoted above (A. 1).

On the contrary, Gregory [*Peter Lombard, Sent. ii, D, ix; Cf. Gregory, Hom. xxxiv, in Ev.] says: "In that heavenly country, even though there are some amazing gifts, nothing is owned personally." And Dionysius states: "Each heavenly essence shares the gift it receives from the higher one" (Coel. Hier. xv), as mentioned above (A. 1).

I answer that, Every creature participates in the Divine goodness, so as to diffuse the good it possesses to others; for it is of the nature of good to communicate itself to others. Hence also corporeal agents give their likeness to others so far as they can. So the more an agent is established in the share of the Divine goodness, so much the more does it strive to transmit its perfections to others as far as possible. Hence the Blessed Peter admonishes those who by grace share in the Divine goodness; saying: "As every man hath received grace, ministering the same one to another; as good stewards of the manifold grace of God" (1 Pet. 4:10). Much more therefore do the holy angels, who enjoy the plenitude of participation of the Divine goodness, impart the same to those below them.

I respond that, Every being shares in the Divine goodness, allowing it to spread the good it has to others; it's in the nature of good to share itself. Similarly, physical beings pass on their likeness to others as much as they can. The more a being is rooted in the Divine goodness, the more it tries to share its qualities with others as much as possible. This is why Blessed Peter advises those who, through grace, partake in the Divine goodness: "As each one has received grace, let them serve one another, as good stewards of God’s varied grace" (1 Pet. 4:10). Even more so, the holy angels, who possess the fullness of the Divine goodness, share it with those beneath them.

Nevertheless this gift is not received so excellently by the inferior as by the superior angels; and therefore the superior ever remain in a higher order, and have a more perfect knowledge; as the master understands the same thing better than the pupil who learns from him.

Nevertheless, this gift is not received as well by the lower angels as it is by the higher ones; therefore, the higher angels always remain in a superior position and possess a more complete understanding, just as a teacher understands something better than the student who is learning from them.

Reply Obj. 1: The knowledge of the superior angels is said to be more universal as regards the more eminent mode of knowledge.

Reply Obj. 1: The knowledge of the higher angels is said to be more universal in terms of a higher level of understanding.

Reply Obj. 2: The Master's words are not to be understood as if the inferior angels were entirely ignorant of the Mystery of the Incarnation but that they did not know it as fully as the superior angels; and that they progressed in the knowledge of it afterwards when the Mystery was accomplished.

Reply Obj. 2: The Master's words should not be taken to mean that the lower angels were completely unaware of the Mystery of the Incarnation, but rather that they didn’t understand it as deeply as the higher angels did; and that they gained a better understanding of it later when the Mystery was fulfilled.

Reply Obj. 3: Till the Judgment Day some new things are always being revealed by God to the highest angels, concerning the course of the world, and especially the salvation of the elect. Hence there is always something for the superior angels to make known to the inferior. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Until Judgment Day, God continues to reveal new things to the highest angels about the state of the world, especially regarding the salvation of the chosen. Therefore, there is always something for the higher angels to share with the lower ones.

QUESTION 107

THE SPEECH OF THE ANGELS
(In Five Articles)

THE SPEECH OF THE ANGELS
(In Five Articles)

We next consider the speech of the angels. Here there are five points of inquiry:

We will now look at what the angels say. There are five areas we need to examine:

(1) Whether one angel speaks to another?

(1) Does one angel talk to another?

(2) Whether the inferior speaks to the superior?

(2) Does the person below speak to the person above?

(3) Whether an angel speaks to God?

(3) Does an angel talk to God?

(4) Whether the angelic speech is subject to local distance?

(4) Is the angelic speech affected by local distance?

(5) Whether all the speech of one angel to another is known to all? _______________________

(5) Is all the conversation between one angel and another known to everyone?

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 107, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 107, Art. 1]

Whether One Angel Speaks to Another?

Whether One Angel Talks to Another?

Objection 1: It would seem that one angel does not speak to another. For Gregory says (Moral. xviii) that, in the state of the resurrection "each one's body will not hide his mind from his fellows." Much less, therefore, is one angel's mind hidden from another. But speech manifests to another what lies hidden in the mind. Therefore it is not necessary that one angel should speak to another.

Objection 1: It seems that one angel doesn't speak to another. For Gregory states (Moral. xviii) that, in the state of the resurrection, "each person's body will not conceal their thoughts from their peers." Even more so, one angel's thoughts are less concealed from another. But speech reveals what is hidden in the mind to others. Therefore, it's not necessary for one angel to speak to another.

Obj. 2: Further, speech is twofold; interior, whereby one speaks to oneself; and exterior, whereby one speaks to another. But exterior speech takes place by some sensible sign, as by voice, or gesture, or some bodily member, as the tongue, or the fingers, and this cannot apply to the angels. Therefore one angel does not speak to another.

Obj. 2: Also, speech has two types; internal, where someone talks to themselves; and external, where someone talks to another person. But external speech occurs through some kind of sensory sign, like voice, gestures, or parts of the body, like the tongue or fingers, and this doesn't apply to angels. So, one angel doesn't speak to another.

Obj. 3: Further, the speaker incites the hearer to listen to what he says. But it does not appear that one angel incites another to listen; for this happens among us by some sensible sign. Therefore one angel does not speak to another.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the speaker encourages the listener to pay attention to what he is saying. However, it doesn't seem that one angel encourages another to listen; this occurs among us through some obvious sign. So, one angel does not communicate with another.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (1 Cor. 13:1): "If I speak with the tongues of men and of angels."

On the contrary, The Apostle says (1 Cor. 13:1): "If I speak with the languages of men and of angels."

I answer that, The angels speak in a certain way. But, as Gregory says (Moral. ii): "It is fitting that our mind, rising above the properties of bodily speech, should be lifted to the sublime and unknown methods of interior speech."

I respond that, Angels communicate in a specific manner. However, as Gregory states (Moral. ii): "It is appropriate for our minds, transcending the nature of physical speech, to be elevated towards the profound and mysterious ways of inner communication."

To understand how one angel speaks to another, we must consider that, as we explained above (Q. 82, A. 4), when treating of the actions and powers of the soul, the will moves the intellect to its operation. Now an intelligible object is present to the intellect in three ways; first, habitually, or in the memory, as Augustine says (De Trin. xiv, 6, 7); secondly, as actually considered or conceived; thirdly, as related to something else. And it is clear that the intelligible object passes from the first to the second stage by the command of the will, and hence in the definition of habit these words occur, "which anyone uses when he wills." So likewise the intelligible object passes from the second to the third stage by the will; for by the will the concept of the mind is ordered to something else, as, for instance, either to the performing of an action, or to being made known to another. Now when the mind turns itself to the actual consideration of any habitual knowledge, then a person speaks to himself; for the concept of the mind is called "the interior word." And by the fact that the concept of the angelic mind is ordered to be made known to another by the will of the angel himself, the concept of one angel is made known to another; and in this way one angel speaks to another; for to speak to another only means to make known the mental concept to another.

To understand how one angel communicates with another, we need to consider that, as we mentioned earlier (Q. 82, A. 4), when discussing the actions and powers of the soul, the will drives the intellect to function. An intelligible object is present to the intellect in three ways: first, habitually or in memory, as Augustine notes (De Trin. xiv, 6, 7); second, as actively thought about or conceived; and third, as related to something else. It’s clear that the intelligible object moves from the first to the second stage through the will, which is reflected in the definition of habit with the phrase, "which anyone uses when he wills." Similarly, the intelligible object moves from the second to the third stage through the will, as the will directs the mind's concept towards something else, like performing an action or sharing it with another. When the mind focuses on recalling any habitual knowledge, a person is essentially talking to themselves; the mind's concept is referred to as "the interior word." When the concept of the angelic mind is intentionally shared with another by the will of the angel, one angel's concept becomes known to another; that's how one angel communicates with another, as speaking to another simply means revealing the mental concept to them.

Reply Obj. 1: Our mental concept is hidden by a twofold obstacle. The first is in the will, which can retain the mental concept within, or can direct it externally. In this way God alone can see the mind of another, according to 1 Cor. 2:11: "What man knoweth the things of a man, but the spirit of a man that is in him?" The other obstacle whereby the mental concept is excluded from another one's knowledge, comes from the body; and so it happens that even when the will directs the concept of the mind to make itself known, it is not at once make known to another; but some sensible sign must be used. Gregory alludes to this fact when he says (Moral. ii): "To other eyes we seem to stand aloof as it were behind the wall of the body; and when we wish to make ourselves known, we go out as it were by the door of the tongue to show what we really are." But an angel is under no such obstacle, and so he can make his concept known to another at once.

Reply Obj. 1: Our mental ideas face a twofold barrier. The first is in the will, which can either keep the idea inside or express it outwardly. Only God can truly understand what’s in another person’s mind, as stated in 1 Cor. 2:11: "What man knows the things of a man, but the spirit of a man that is in him?" The second barrier that prevents someone from knowing our thoughts comes from our body; even when we want to share our thoughts, they aren’t immediately understood by others; we have to use some kind of physical sign. Gregory mentions this when he says (Moral. ii): "To other eyes we seem to stand aloof as if behind the wall of the body; and when we wish to make ourselves known, we go out as if through the door of the tongue to show what we really are." However, an angel doesn't face such barriers, so he can communicate his thoughts to another instantly.

Reply Obj. 2: External speech, made by the voice, is a necessity for us on account of the obstacle of the body. Hence it does not befit an angel; but only interior speech belongs to him, and this includes not only the interior speech by mental concept, but also its being ordered to another's knowledge by the will. So the tongue of an angel is called metaphorically the angel's power, whereby he manifests his mental concept.

Reply Obj. 2: External speech, spoken with the voice, is essential for us because of the limitations of the body. Therefore, it’s not fitting for an angel; only internal speech belongs to him, which includes not just internal thought but also its direction towards another’s understanding by choice. So, the tongue of an angel is metaphorically referred to as the angel's power, through which he expresses his thoughts.

Reply Obj. 3: There is no need to draw the attention of the good angels, inasmuch as they always see each other in the Word; for as one ever sees the other, so he ever sees what is ordered to himself. But because by their very nature they can speak to each other, and even now the bad angels speak to each other, we must say that the intellect is moved by the intelligible object just as sense is affected by the sensible object. Therefore, as sense is aroused by the sensible object, so the mind of an angel can be aroused to attention by some intelligible power. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: There's no need to get the good angels' attention since they always see each other through the Word; just as one always sees the other, he always sees what is meant for him. However, because by their very nature they can communicate with one another, and even now the bad angels talk to each other, we can say that the intellect is influenced by the intelligible object just like the senses are influenced by the tangible object. Thus, just as the senses are stimulated by something they can perceive, the mind of an angel can be prompted to pay attention by some intelligible force.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 107, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 107, Art. 2]

Whether the Inferior Angel Speaks to the Superior?

Whether the Lower Angel Talks to the Higher?

Objection 1: It would seem that the inferior angel does not speak to the superior. For on the text (1 Cor. 13:1), "If I speak with the tongues of men and of angels," a gloss remarks that the speech of the angels is an enlightenment whereby the superior enlightens the inferior. But the inferior never enlightens the superior, as was above explained (Q. 106, A. 3). Therefore neither do the inferior speak to the superior.

Objection 1: It seems that a lower-ranking angel doesn't communicate with a higher one. In the passage (1 Cor. 13:1), "If I speak with the tongues of men and of angels," a commentary notes that angels communicate through a form of enlightenment where the higher conveys understanding to the lower. However, the lower never provides enlightenment to the higher, as explained earlier (Q. 106, A. 3). Therefore, neither do the lower speak to the higher.

Obj. 2: Further, as was said above (Q. 106, A. 1), to enlighten means merely to acquaint one man of what is known to another; and this is to speak. Therefore to speak and to enlighten are the same; so the same conclusion follows.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, as mentioned earlier (Q. 106, A. 1), to enlighten simply means to inform one person about what another person knows; and this is what it means to speak. Therefore, to speak and to enlighten are the same; so the same conclusion applies.

Obj. 3: Further, Gregory says (Moral. ii): "God speaks to the angels by the very fact that He shows to their hearts His hidden and invisible things." But this is to enlighten them. Therefore, whenever God speaks, He enlightens. In the same way every angelic speech is an enlightening. Therefore an inferior angel can in no way speak to a superior angel.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Gregory states (Moral. ii): "God communicates with the angels by revealing His hidden and invisible truths to their hearts." This serves to enlighten them. Therefore, whenever God speaks, He brings enlightenment. Similarly, every form of angelic communication provides enlightenment. Consequently, a lesser angel cannot communicate with a higher angel in any way.

On the contrary, According to the exposition of Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii), the inferior angels said to the superior: "Who is this King of Glory?"

On the contrary, According to the explanation of Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii), the lower angels asked the higher ones: "Who is this King of Glory?"

I answer that, The inferior angels can speak to the superior. To make this clear, we must consider that every angelic enlightening is an angelic speech; but on the other hand, not every speech is an enlightening; because, as we have said (A. 1), for one angel to speak to another angel means nothing else, but that by his own will he directs his mental concept in such a way, that it becomes known to the other. Now what the mind conceives may be reduced to a twofold principle; to God Himself, Who is the primal truth; and to the will of the one who understands, whereby we actually consider anything. But because truth is the light of the intellect, and God Himself is the rule of all truth; the manifestation of what is conceived by the mind, as depending on the primary truth, is both speech and enlightenment; for example, when one man says to another: "Heaven was created by God"; or, "Man is an animal." The manifestation, however, of what depends on the will of the one who understands, cannot be called an enlightenment, but is only a speech; for instance, when one says to another: "I wish to learn this; I wish to do this or that." The reason is that the created will is not a light, nor a rule of truth; but participates of light. Hence to communicate what comes from the created will is not, as such, an enlightening. For to know what you may will, or what you may understand does not belong to the perfection of my intellect; but only to know the truth in reality.

I answer that, lower angels can communicate with higher ones. To clarify this, we need to recognize that every angelic revelation is a form of communication; however, not every form of communication equates to a revelation. As we've discussed (A. 1), when one angel speaks to another, it simply means that the speaker is directing their mental thoughts in a way that becomes known to the other. The content of the mind can be traced back to two main sources: God Himself, who is the ultimate truth, and the will of the person who is understanding, which is how we actually process information. Because truth acts as the light of the intellect, and God is the standard for all truth, expressing what the mind conceives, which relies on the ultimate truth, represents both communication and revelation. For example, when one person tells another: "Heaven was created by God" or "Man is an animal." In contrast, expressing what is based on the desire of the understanding person cannot be called a revelation; it is just communication. For instance, when one says to another: "I want to learn this" or "I want to do this or that." The reason is that the created will does not serve as light or a standard of truth; it only reflects light. Therefore, sharing what arises from the created will does not inherently qualify as a revelation. Knowing what you might want or what you might understand is not about the completeness of my intellect; it's about recognizing the truth in reality.

Now it is clear that the angels are called superior or inferior by comparison with this principle, God; and therefore enlightenment, which depends on the principle which is God, is conveyed only by the superior angels to the inferior. But as regards the will as the principle, he who wills is first and supreme; and therefore the manifestation of what belongs to the will, is conveyed to others by the one who wills. In that manner both the superior angels speak to the inferior, and the inferior speak to the superior.

Now it’s clear that angels are called superior or inferior in relation to this principle, God. Therefore, enlightenment, which relies on the principle of God, is only given by the superior angels to the inferior ones. However, regarding the will as the principle, the one who wills is the first and the highest; thus, the expression of what belongs to the will is shared with others by the one who wills. In this way, both the superior angels communicate with the inferior ones, and the inferior ones communicate with the superior.

From this clearly appear the replies to the first and second objections.

From this, the answers to the first and second objections are clearly seen.

Reply Obj. 3: Every speech of God to the angels is an enlightening; because since the will of God is the rule of truth, it belongs to the perfection and enlightenment of the created mind to know even what God wills. But the same does not apply to the will of the angels, as was explained above. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Every message from God to the angels is enlightening because God's will is the standard of truth, and it's part of the perfection and understanding of the created mind to know what God desires. However, this is not the case for the will of the angels, as explained earlier.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 107, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 107, Art. 3]

Whether an Angel Speaks to God?

Whether an angel talks to God?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel does not speak to God. For speech makes known something to another. But an angel cannot make known anything to God, Who knows all things. Therefore an angel does not speak to God.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel doesn't speak to God. Speech is a way of revealing something to someone else. But an angel can't reveal anything to God, who knows everything. Therefore, an angel doesn't speak to God.

Obj. 2: Further, to speak is to order the mental concept in reference to another, as was shown above (A. 1). But an angel ever orders his mental concept to God. So if an angel speaks to God, he ever speaks to God; which in some ways appears to be unreasonable, since an angel sometimes speaks to another angel. Therefore it seems that an angel never speaks to God.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, to speak is to organize a mental concept in relation to another, as mentioned earlier (A. 1). But an angel always organizes his mental concept towards God. So if an angel speaks to God, he is always speaking to God; which might seem unreasonable in some ways, since an angel sometimes speaks to another angel. Therefore, it seems that an angel never speaks to God.

On the contrary, It is written (Zech. 1:12): "The angel of the Lord answered and said: O Lord of hosts, how long wilt Thou not have mercy on Jerusalem." Therefore an angel speaks to God.

On the contrary, It is written (Zech. 1:12): "The angel of the Lord answered and said: O Lord of hosts, how long will You not have mercy on Jerusalem?" Therefore, an angel speaks to God.

I answer that, As was said above (AA. 1, 2), the angel speaks by ordering his mental concept to something else. Now one thing is ordered to another in a twofold manner. In one way for the purpose of giving one thing to another, as in natural things the agent is ordered to the patient, and in human speech the teacher is ordered to the learner; and in this sense an angel in no way speaks to God either of what concerns the truth, or of whatever depends on the created will; because God is the principle and source of all truth and of all will. In another way one thing is ordered to another to receive something, as in natural things the passive is ordered to the agent, and in human speech the disciple to the master; and in this way an angel speaks to God, either by consulting the Divine will of what ought to be done, or by admiring the Divine excellence which he can never comprehend; thus Gregory says (Moral. ii) that "the angels speak to God, when by contemplating what is above themselves they rise to emotions of admiration."

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (AA. 1, 2), the angel communicates by directing his thoughts toward something else. Now, one thing can be directed towards another in two ways. First, it can be for the purpose of giving something to another, like in nature where the agent is directed to the patient, or in human communication where the teacher is directed to the learner; in this sense, an angel does not speak to God about the truth or anything related to the created will, because God is the foundation and source of all truth and will. Secondly, one thing can be directed towards another to receive something, like in nature where the passive is directed to the agent, or in human communication where the disciple is directed to the master; in this way, an angel speaks to God, either by seeking guidance on the Divine will about what should be done, or by admiring the Divine excellence which he can never fully understand; thus Gregory states (Moral. ii) that "the angels speak to God when, by contemplating what is beyond themselves, they are filled with emotions of admiration."

Reply Obj. 1: Speech is not always for the purpose of making something known to another; but is sometimes finally ordered to the purpose of manifesting something to the speaker himself; as when the disciples ask instruction from the master.

Reply Obj. 1: Speech isn’t always meant to communicate something to someone else; sometimes it’s ultimately aimed at helping the speaker clarify something for themselves, like when the disciples seek guidance from the master.

Reply Obj. 2: The angels are ever speaking to God in the sense of praising and admiring Him and His works; but they speak to Him by consulting Him about what ought to be done whenever they have to perform any new work, concerning which they desire enlightenment. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The angels are always communicating with God by praising and admiring Him and His creations; however, they also consult Him about what should be done whenever they have to carry out a new task, seeking guidance on the matter.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 107, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 107, Art. 4]

Whether Local Distance Influences the Angelic Speech?

Whether Local Distance Affects the Angelic Speech?

Objection 1: It would seem that local distance affects the angelic speech. For as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 13): "An angel works where he is." But speech is an angelic operation. Therefore, as an angel is in a determinate place, it seems that an angel's speech is limited by the bounds of that place.

Objection 1: It seems that local distance affects how angels speak. As Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 13): "An angel works where he is." But speaking is something angels do. Therefore, since an angel is in a specific place, it appears that an angel's speech is restricted by the limits of that place.

Obj. 2: Further, a speaker cries out on account of the distance of the hearer. But it is said of the Seraphim that "they cried one to another" (Isa. 6:3). Therefore in the angelic speech local distance has some effect.

Obj. 2: Additionally, a speaker calls out because of how far away the listener is. However, it is mentioned about the Seraphim that "they cried one to another" (Isa. 6:3). Therefore, in angelic communication, physical distance has some impact.

On the contrary, It is said that the rich man in hell spoke to Abraham, notwithstanding the local distance (Luke 16:24). Much less therefore does local distance impede the speech of one angel to another.

On the contrary, it is said that the rich man in hell spoke to Abraham, despite the physical distance (Luke 16:24). Much less does physical distance prevent one angel from communicating with another.

I answer that, The angelic speech consists in an intellectual operation, as explained above (AA. 1, 2, 3). And the intellectual operation of an angel abstracts from the "here and now." For even our own intellectual operation takes place by abstraction from the "here and now," except accidentally on the part of the phantasms, which do not exist at all in an angel. But as regards whatever is abstracted from "here and now," neither difference of time nor local distance has any influence whatever. Hence in the angelic speech local distance is no impediment.

I respond that, angelic communication involves a mental process, as explained earlier (AA. 1, 2, 3). The way angels think is separate from the "here and now." Even in our own thinking, we typically distance ourselves from the "here and now," though that's only incidental with our mental images, which don't exist at all for angels. However, when it comes to what is separated from the "here and now," neither time differences nor physical distance affect it at all. Therefore, in angelic communication, physical distance is not a barrier.

Reply Obj. 1: The angelic speech, as above explained (A. 1, ad 2), is interior; perceived, nevertheless, by another; and therefore it exists in the angel who speaks, and consequently where the angel is who speaks. But as local distance does not prevent one angel seeing another, so neither does it prevent an angel perceiving what is ordered to him on the part of another; and this is to perceive his speech.

Reply Obj. 1: The angelic communication, as explained above (A. 1, ad 2), is internal; however, it is perceived by another. Therefore, it exists in the speaking angel and consequently where the speaking angel is located. Just as physical distance does not stop one angel from seeing another, it also does not prevent an angel from perceiving what is directed toward him from another; this means he can perceive that angel's communication.

Reply Obj. 2: The cry mentioned is not a bodily voice raised by reason of the local distance; but is taken to signify the magnitude of what is said, or the intensity of the affection, according to what Gregory says (Moral. ii): "The less one desires, the less one cries out." _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: The cry referenced isn’t a physical voice caused by being far away; rather, it signifies the importance of what is being said or the strength of the emotion involved, as Gregory states (Moral. ii): "The less one desires, the less one cries out."

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 107, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 107, Art. 5]

Whether All the Angels Know What One Speaks to Another?

Whether All the Angels Know What One Speaks to Another?

Objection 1: It would seem that all the angels know what one speaks to another. For unequal local distance is the reason why all men do not know what one man says to another. But in the angelic speech local distance has no effect, as above explained (A. 4). Therefore all the angels know what one speaks to another.

Objection 1: It seems that all the angels know what one says to another. The reason all men don’t know what one person says to another is due to the physical distance between them. However, in the case of angelic communication, physical distance doesn’t matter, as explained earlier (A. 4). Therefore, all the angels know what one speaks to another.

Obj. 2: Further, all the angels have the intellectual power in common. So if the mental concept of one ordered to another is known by one, it is for the same reason known by all.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, all the angels share the same intellectual abilities. Therefore, if one angel understands a mental concept related to another, it is for the same reason that all of them understand it.

Obj. 3: Further, enlightenment is a kind of speech. But the enlightenment of one angel by another extends to all the angels, because, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. xv): "Each one of the heavenly beings communicates what he learns to the others." Therefore the speech of one angel to another extends to all.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, enlightenment is a form of communication. The enlightenment of one angel by another reaches all the angels, because, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. xv): "Each of the heavenly beings shares what he learns with the others." Therefore, the communication of one angel to another encompasses all.

On the contrary, One man can speak to another alone; much more can this be the case among the angels.

On the contrary, One man can talk to another alone; it’s even more likely that this happens among the angels.

I answer that, As above explained (AA. 1, 2), the mental concept of one angel can be perceived by another when the angel who possesses the concept refers it by his will to another. Now a thing can be ordered through some cause to one thing and not to another; consequently the concept of one (angel) may be known by one and not by another; and therefore an angel can perceive the speech of one angel to another; whereas others do not, not through the obstacle of local distance, but on account of the will so ordering, as explained above.

I respond that, As I mentioned before (AA. 1, 2), one angel can understand the mental concept of another if the angel with the concept intentionally shares it with someone else. A thing can be directed by a cause towards one thing and not another; therefore, one angel's concept may be known by one angel but not by another. This means that an angel can perceive the communication between two other angels, while others cannot—not because of physical distance, but because of the will's decision, as explained earlier.

From this appear the replies to the first and second objections.

From this come the answers to the first and second objections.

Reply Obj. 3: Enlightenment is of those truths that emanate from the first rule of truth, which is the principle common to all the angels; and in that way all enlightenments are common to all. But speech may be of something ordered to the principle of the created will, which is proper to each angel; and in this way it is not necessary that these speeches should be common to all. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Enlightenment comes from the fundamental truths that are shared among all angels. Therefore, all forms of enlightenment are shared collectively. However, speech can relate to the principle of the created will, which is unique to each angel; thus, it’s not essential for these forms of speech to be shared by all.

QUESTION 108

OF THE ANGELIC DEGREES OF HIERARCHIES AND ORDERS
(In Eight Articles)

OF THE ANGELIC DEGREES OF HIERARCHIES AND ORDERS
(In Eight Articles)

We next consider the degrees of the angels in their hierarchies and orders; for it was said above (Q. 106, A. 3), that the superior angels enlighten the inferior angels; and not conversely.

We will now look at the ranks of angels in their hierarchies and orders; as mentioned earlier (Q. 106, A. 3), the higher angels enlighten the lower angels, but not the other way around.

Under this head there are eight points of inquiry:

Under this heading, there are eight points to explore:

(1) Whether all the angels belong to one hierarchy?

(1) Do all the angels belong to one hierarchy?

(2) Whether in one hierarchy there is only one order?

(2) Is there only one order within a hierarchy?

(3) Whether in one order there are many angels?

(3) Are there many angels within one order?

(4) Whether the distinction of hierarchies and orders is natural?

(4) Is the distinction of hierarchies and orders natural?

(5) Of the names and properties of each order.

(5) The names and characteristics of each category.

(6) Of the comparison of the orders to one another.

(6) Comparing the orders to each other.

(7) Whether the orders will outlast the Day of Judgment?

(7) Will the orders last beyond Judgment Day?

(8) Whether men are taken up into the angelic orders? _______________________

(8) Are men raised to the status of angels? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 1]

Whether All the Angels Are of One Hierarchy?

Whether All the Angels Belong to One Hierarchy?

Objection 1: It would seem that all the angels belong to one hierarchy. For since the angels are supreme among creatures, it is evident that they are ordered for the best. But the best ordering of a multitude is for it to be governed by one authority, as the Philosopher shows (Metaph. xii, Did. xi, 10; Polit. iii, 4). Therefore as a hierarchy is nothing but a sacred principality, it seems that all the angels belong to one hierarchy.

Objection 1: It seems that all the angels belong to one hierarchy. Since angels are the highest among creatures, it's clear that they are organized for the best outcome. However, the best way to organize a group is to have it overseen by one authority, as the Philosopher demonstrates (Metaph. xii, Did. xi, 10; Polit. iii, 4). Therefore, since a hierarchy is simply a sacred authority, it appears that all the angels belong to one hierarchy.

Obj. 2: Further, Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. iii) that "hierarchy is order, knowledge, and action." But all the angels agree in one order towards God, Whom they know, and by Whom in their actions they are ruled. Therefore all the angels belong to one hierarchy.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. iii) that "hierarchy is order, knowledge, and action." All the angels share the same order towards God, whom they know, and by whom they are guided in their actions. Therefore, all the angels belong to one hierarchy.

Obj. 3: Further, the sacred principality called hierarchy is to be found among men and angels. But all men are of one hierarchy. Therefore likewise all the angels are of one hierarchy.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the sacred principle known as hierarchy exists among both humans and angels. All humans belong to one hierarchy. Therefore, all angels are also part of one hierarchy.

On the contrary, Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vi) distinguishes three hierarchies of angels.

On the contrary, Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vi) identifies three levels of angels.

I answer that, Hierarchy means a "sacred" principality, as above explained. Now principality includes two things: the prince himself and the multitude ordered under the prince. Therefore because there is one God, the Prince not only of all the angels but also of men and all creatures; so there is one hierarchy, not only of all the angels, but also of all rational creatures, who can be participators of sacred things; according to Augustine (De Civ. Dei xii, 1): "There are two cities, that is, two societies, one of the good angels and men, the other of the wicked." But if we consider the principality on the part of the multitude ordered under the prince, then principality is said to be "one" accordingly as the multitude can be subject in one way to the government of the prince. And those that cannot be governed in the same way by a prince belong to different principalities: thus, under one king there are different cities, which are governed by different laws and administrators. Now it is evident that men do not receive the Divine enlightenments in the same way as do the angels; for the angels receive them in their intelligible purity, whereas men receive them under sensible signs, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. i). Therefore there must needs be a distinction between the human and the angelic hierarchy. In the same manner we distinguish three angelic hierarchies. For it was shown above (Q. 55, A. 3), in treating of the angelic knowledge, that the superior angels have a more universal knowledge of the truth than the inferior angels. This universal knowledge has three grades among the angels. For the types of things, concerning which the angels are enlightened, can be considered in a threefold manner. First as preceding from God as the first universal principle, which mode of knowledge belongs to the first hierarchy, connected immediately with God, and, "as it were, placed in the vestibule of God," as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. vii). Secondly, forasmuch as these types depend on the universal created causes which in some way are already multiplied; which mode belongs to the second hierarchy. Thirdly, forasmuch as these types are applied to particular things as depending on their causes; which mode belongs to the lowest hierarchy. All this will appear more clearly when we treat of each of the orders (A. 6). In this way are the hierarchies distinguished on the part of the multitude of subjects.

I respond that, hierarchy signifies a "sacred" principality, as explained earlier. Principality consists of two components: the prince and the multitude governed by the prince. Therefore, since there is one God, the Prince of all angels, humans, and all creatures, there is one hierarchy that includes not only all angels but also all rational beings capable of sharing in sacred matters; as Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xii, 1): "There are two cities, or societies, one of good angels and humans, the other of evil." However, if we consider the principality from the perspective of the multitude governed by the prince, then it is said to be "one" in the sense that the multitude can be subject in one way to the prince's governance. Those who cannot be governed in the same manner by a prince belong to different principalities: thus, under one king, there are different cities governed by various laws and leaders. It is clear that humans do not receive Divine insights in the same manner as angels do; angels receive them in their pure, intelligible form, while humans receive them through sensory signs, as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. i). Therefore, there must be a distinction between the human and angelic hierarchies. Similarly, we differentiate three angelic hierarchies. It was shown earlier (Q. 55, A. 3) that the higher angels possess a more universal understanding of truth than the lower angels. This universal understanding has three levels among the angels. The types of things concerning which the angels gain insight can be viewed in three ways. First, as originating from God, the first universal principle, which type of knowledge belongs to the first hierarchy, directly connected to God and "as it were, positioned in God's vestibule," as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. vii). Second, these types depend on universal created causes, which are already in some way multiplied; this type belongs to the second hierarchy. Third, these types are applied to specific things based on their causes; this type pertains to the lowest hierarchy. All of this will become clearer when we discuss each order (A. 6). Thus, the hierarchies are distinguished based on the multitude of subjects.

Hence it is clear that those err and speak against the opinion of Dionysius who place a hierarchy in the Divine Persons, and call it the "supercelestial" hierarchy. For in the Divine Persons there exists, indeed, a natural order, but there is no hierarchical order, for as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. iii): "The hierarchical order is so directed that some be cleansed, enlightened, and perfected; and that others cleanse, enlighten, and perfect"; which far be it from us to apply to the Divine Persons.

Therefore, it's obvious that those who argue against Dionysius's viewpoint and suggest a hierarchy among the Divine Persons, calling it the "supercelestial" hierarchy, are mistaken. There is certainly a natural order among the Divine Persons, but no hierarchical order. As Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. iii): "The hierarchical order is designed in such a way that some are cleansed, enlightened, and perfected, while others cleanse, enlighten, and perfect"; this should not be applied to the Divine Persons at all.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection considers principality on the part of the ruler, inasmuch as a multitude is best ruled by one ruler, as the Philosopher asserts in those passages.

Reply Obj. 1: This objection looks at the idea of leadership from the perspective of the ruler, since a group is best governed by one leader, as the Philosopher states in those sections.

Reply Obj. 2: As regards knowing God Himself, Whom all see in one way—that is, in His essence—there is no hierarchical distinction among the angels; but there is such a distinction as regards the types of created things, as above explained.

Reply Obj. 2: When it comes to knowing God Himself, whom everyone perceives in the same way—meaning, in His essence—there is no hierarchical distinction among the angels; however, there is a distinction in relation to the different types of created things, as previously explained.

Reply Obj. 3: All men are of one species, and have one connatural mode of understanding; which is not the case in the angels: and hence the same argument does not apply to both. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: All humans are of one species and share a common way of understanding, which is not true for angels; therefore, the same argument doesn’t apply to both.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 2]

Whether There Are Several Orders in One Hierarchy?

Whether There Are Several Orders in One Hierarchy?

Objection 1: It would seem that in the one hierarchy there are not several orders. For when a definition is multiplied, the thing defined is also multiplied. But hierarchy is order, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. iii). Therefore, if there are many orders, there is not one hierarchy only, but many.

Objection 1: It appears that there aren't several orders within one hierarchy. When a definition is repeated, what is being defined is also repeated. But a hierarchy signifies order, as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. iii). Thus, if there are multiple orders, then there isn't just one hierarchy, but many.

Obj. 2: Further, different orders are different grades, and grades among spirits are constituted by different spiritual gifts. But among the angels all the spiritual gifts are common to all, for "nothing is possessed individually" (Sent. ii, D, ix). Therefore there are not different orders of angels.

Obj. 2: Additionally, different orders represent different ranks, and these ranks among spirits are determined by various spiritual gifts. However, among the angels, all spiritual gifts are shared equally, as "nothing is owned individually" (Sent. ii, D, ix). Therefore, there are no distinct orders of angels.

Obj. 3: Further, in the ecclesiastical hierarchy the orders are distinguished according to the actions of "cleansing," "enlightening," and "perfecting." For the order of deacons is "cleansing," the order of priests, is "enlightening," and of bishops "perfecting," as Dionysius says (Eccl. Hier. v). But each of the angels cleanses, enlightens, and perfects. Therefore there is no distinction of orders among the angels.

Obj. 3: Additionally, in the church hierarchy, the roles are categorized based on the actions of "cleansing," "enlightening," and "perfecting." The deacon role is associated with "cleansing," the priest role is about "enlightening," and the bishop role is linked to "perfecting," as stated by Dionysius (Eccl. Hier. v). However, every angel cleanses, enlightens, and perfects. Therefore, there is no distinction of roles among the angels.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Eph. 1:20,21) that "God has set the Man Christ above all principality and power, and virtue, and dominion": which are the various orders of the angels, and some of them belong to one hierarchy, as will be explained (A. 6).

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Eph. 1:20,21) that "God has placed the Man Christ above all principalities and powers, and authority, and dominion": which are the different orders of angels, and some of them belong to one hierarchy, as will be explained (A. 6).

I answer that, As explained above, one hierarchy is one principality—that is, one multitude ordered in one way under the rule of a prince. Now such a multitude would not be ordered, but confused, if there were not in it different orders. So the nature of a hierarchy requires diversity of orders.

I answer that, As explained above, one hierarchy is one principality—that is, one group organized in one way under the leadership of a prince. Now such a group would be disorganized, but chaotic, if there weren't different ranks within it. So, the nature of a hierarchy requires a variety of ranks.

This diversity of order arises from the diversity of offices and actions, as appears in one city where there are different orders according to the different actions; for there is one order of those who judge, and another of those who fight, and another of those who labor in the fields, and so forth.

This variety of order comes from the variety of roles and activities, as seen in a city where there are different orders based on different actions; for there is one group for those who judge, another for those who fight, another for those who work in the fields, and so on.

But although one city thus comprises several orders, all may be reduced to three, when we consider that every multitude has a beginning, a middle, and an end. So in every city, a threefold order of men is to be seen, some of whom are supreme, as the nobles; others are the last, as the common people, while others hold a place between these, as the middle-class [populus honorabilis]. In the same way we find in each angelic hierarchy the orders distinguished according to their actions and offices, and all this diversity is reduced to three—namely, to the summit, the middle, and the base; and so in every hierarchy Dionysius places three orders (Coel. Hier. vi).

But even though one city has several classes, they can all be grouped into three when we realize that every large group has a beginning, a middle, and an end. In any city, you can see this threefold structure of people: some are at the top, like the nobles; others are at the bottom, like the common folks; and some are in the middle, like the middle class [populus honorabilis]. Similarly, in every group of angels, the orders are categorized based on their actions and functions, and all this variety can be simplified into three—specifically, the top, the middle, and the bottom; and so in every hierarchy, Dionysius identifies three orders (Coel. Hier. vi).

Reply Obj. 1: Order is twofold. In one way it is taken as the order comprehending in itself different grades; and in that way a hierarchy is called an order. In another way one grade is called an order; and in that sense the several orders of one hierarchy are so called.

Reply Obj. 1: Order has two aspects. On one hand, it refers to the arrangement that includes different levels; in this sense, a hierarchy is referred to as an order. On the other hand, a single level is referred to as an order; and in this context, the various levels within one hierarchy are referred to as such.

Reply Obj. 2: All things are possessed in common by the angelic society, some things, however, being held more excellently by some than by others. Each gift is more perfectly possessed by the one who can communicate it, than by the one who cannot communicate it; as the hot thing which can communicate heat is more perfect that what is unable to give heat. And the more perfectly anyone can communicate a gift, the higher grade he occupies, as he is in the more perfect grade of mastership who can teach a higher science. By this similitude we can reckon the diversity of grades or orders among the angels, according to their different offices and actions.

Reply Obj. 2: Everything is shared among the angelic community, although some things are held more excellently by certain individuals than by others. A gift is possessed more completely by the person who can share it than by the one who cannot; just like something that is hot is more perfect when it can give off heat than something that cannot. The better someone is at sharing a gift, the higher their rank, similar to how someone who can teach a more advanced subject is at a higher level of mastery. This comparison helps us understand the different ranks or orders among the angels based on their various roles and actions.

Reply Obj. 3: The inferior angel is superior to the highest man of our hierarchy, according to the words, "He that is the lesser in the kingdom of heaven, is greater than he"—namely, John the Baptist, than whom "there hath not risen a greater among them that are born of women" (Matt. 11:11). Hence the lesser angel of the heavenly hierarchy can not only cleanse, but also enlighten and perfect, and in a higher way than can the orders of our hierarchy. Thus the heavenly orders are not distinguished by reason of these, but by reason of other different acts. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The lower angel is greater than the best human in our hierarchy, based on the saying, "He who is the least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he"—specifically, John the Baptist, of whom it is said "there has not been anyone greater born of women" (Matt. 11:11). Therefore, the least angel in the heavenly hierarchy can not only purify but also enlighten and perfect, and does so in a more profound way than the ranks of our own hierarchy. Thus, the heavenly orders are distinguished not because of these actions, but for other different reasons.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 3]

Whether There Are Many Angels in One Order?

Whether There Are Many Angels in One Order?

Objection 1: It seems that there are not many angels in one order. For it was shown above (Q. 50, A. 4), that all the angels are unequal. But equals belong to one order. Therefore there are not many angels in one order.

Objection 1: It looks like there aren't many angels in one category. As explained earlier (Q. 50, A. 4), all angels are unequal. But equals belong to the same category. So, there aren't many angels in one category.

Obj. 2: Further, it is superfluous for a thing to be done by many, which can be done sufficiently by one. But that which belongs to one angelic office can be done sufficiently by one angel; so much more sufficiently than the one sun does what belongs to the office of the sun, as the angel is more perfect than a heavenly body. If, therefore, the orders are distinguished by their offices, as stated above (A. 2), several angels in one order would be superfluous.

Obj. 2: Moreover, it's unnecessary for something to be done by many if one person can do it well enough. Whatever is associated with a single angelic role can be handled adequately by one angel; it performs its duties much more effectively than one sun does its job, since the angel is more perfect than a celestial body. Therefore, if the different orders are defined by their roles, as mentioned earlier (A. 2), having multiple angels in one order would be unnecessary.

Obj. 3: Further, it was said above (Obj. 1) that all the angels are unequal. Therefore, if several angels (for instance, three or four), are of one order, the lowest one of the superior order will be more akin to the highest of the inferior order than with the highest of his own order; and thus he does not seem to be more of one order with the latter than with the former. Therefore there are not many angels of one order.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, as mentioned earlier (Obj. 1), all angels are not equal. So, if several angels (for example, three or four) belong to the same order, the lowest-ranking angel in the higher order will actually be closer to the highest-ranking angel in the lower order than to the highest-ranking angel in its own order. Therefore, it doesn’t seem like they belong to the same order more than they do with the other group. This suggests there aren’t many angels in the same order.

On the contrary, It is written: "The Seraphim cried to one another" (Isa. 6:3). Therefore there are many angels in the one order of the Seraphim.

On the contrary, it is written: "The Seraphim cried to one another" (Isa. 6:3). Therefore, there are many angels in the one order of the Seraphim.

I answer that, Whoever knows anything perfectly, is able to distinguish its acts, powers, and nature, down to the minutest details, whereas he who knows a thing in an imperfect manner can only distinguish it in a general way, and only as regards a few points. Thus, one who knows natural things imperfectly, can distinguish their orders in a general way, placing the heavenly bodies in one order, inanimate inferior bodies in another, plants in another, and animals in another; whilst he who knows natural things perfectly, is able to distinguish different orders in the heavenly bodies themselves, and in each of the other orders.

I answer that, Anyone who knows something thoroughly can identify its actions, powers, and essence down to the smallest details, while someone with only a partial understanding can only recognize it in broad terms and just a few aspects. For example, someone who has an incomplete understanding of natural things can categorize them generally, putting heavenly bodies in one group, non-living things in another, plants in another, and animals in yet another; whereas someone who has a complete understanding of natural things can distinguish between different categories within the heavenly bodies themselves and within each of the other groups.

Now our knowledge of the angels is imperfect, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. vi). Hence we can only distinguish the angelic offices and orders in a general way, so as to place many angels in one order. But if we knew the offices and distinctions of the angels perfectly, we should know perfectly that each angel has his own office and his own order among things, and much more so than any star, though this be hidden from us.

Now our understanding of angels is incomplete, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. vi). So we can only categorize the angelic roles and ranks in a general way, putting many angels in the same order. But if we fully understood the roles and distinctions of angels, we would know that each angel has its own role and place among things, even more distinctly than any star, although this remains hidden from us.

Reply Obj. 1: All the angels of one order are in some way equal in a common similitude, whereby they are placed in that order; but absolutely speaking they are not equal. Hence Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. x) that in one and the same order of angels there are those who are first, middle, and last.

Reply Obj. 1: All the angels of a particular order are somewhat equal in a shared similarity that places them in that order; however, they are not equal in an absolute sense. This is why Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. x) that within the same order of angels, there are those who come first, those in the middle, and those who are last.

Reply Obj. 2: That special distinction of orders and offices wherein each angel has his own office and order, is hidden from us.

Reply Obj. 2: The specific distinction of roles and positions where each angel has their own role and position is unknown to us.

Reply Obj. 3: As in a surface which is partly white and partly black, the two parts on the borders of white and black are more akin as regards their position than any other two white parts, but are less akin in quality; so two angels who are on the boundary of two orders are more akin in propinquity of nature than one of them is akin to the others of its own order, but less akin in their fitness for similar offices, which fitness, indeed, extends to a definite limit. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Just like a surface that is partly white and partly black, the two areas at the borders of white and black are more similar in their positioning than any two white areas, but they are less similar in quality; similarly, two angels who are on the boundary of two different orders are closer in nature to each other than either one is to the others in its own order, but they are less suited for the same roles, which suitability indeed has a definite limit.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 4]

Whether the Distinction of Hierarchies and Orders Comes from the
Angelic Nature?

Whether the distinction between hierarchies and orders comes from the
angelic nature?

Objection 1: It would seem that the distinction of hierarchies and of orders is not from the nature of the angels. For hierarchy is "a sacred principality," and Dionysius places in its definition that it "approaches a resemblance to God, as far as may be" (Coel. Hier. iii). But sanctity and resemblance to God is in the angels by grace, and not by nature. Therefore the distinction of hierarchies and orders in the angels is by grace, and not by nature.

Objection 1: It seems that the distinction of hierarchies and orders comes from the nature of angels. Hierarchy is "a sacred principality," and Dionysius notes in its definition that it "comes close to resembling God, as much as possible" (Coel. Hier. iii). However, sanctity and resemblance to God in angels is due to grace, not nature. Therefore, the distinction of hierarchies and orders among angels is by grace, not by nature.

Obj. 2: Further, the Seraphim are called "burning" or "kindling," as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. vii). This belongs to charity which comes not from nature but from grace; for "it is poured forth in our hearts by the Holy Ghost Who is given to us" (Rom. 5:5): "which is said not only of holy men, but also of the holy angels," as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xii). Therefore the angelic orders are not from nature, but from grace.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the Seraphim are referred to as "burning" or "kindling," as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. vii). This pertains to love that comes not from nature but from grace; for "it is poured out in our hearts by the Holy Spirit Who is given to us" (Rom. 5:5): "which applies not only to holy people but also to the holy angels," as Augustine mentions (De Civ. Dei xii). Therefore, the angelic orders are not of nature, but of grace.

Obj. 3: Further, the ecclesiastical hierarchy is copied from the heavenly. But the orders among men are not from nature, but by the gift of grace; for it is not a natural gift for one to be a bishop, and another a priest, and another a deacon. Therefore neither in the angels are the orders from nature, but from grace only.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the church hierarchy is modeled after the heavenly one. However, the roles among people don't come from nature, but are a gift of grace; it's not a natural ability for someone to be a bishop, another to be a priest, and yet another to be a deacon. Therefore, neither are the roles of angels based on nature, but solely on grace.

On the contrary, The Master says (ii, D. 9) that "an angelic order is a multitude of heavenly spirits, who are likened to each other by some gift of grace, just as they agree also in the participation of natural gifts." Therefore the distinction of orders among the angels is not only by gifts of grace, but also by gifts of nature.

On the contrary, The Master says (ii, D. 9) that "an angelic order is a group of heavenly spirits who are similar to one another through certain gifts of grace, just as they also share in natural gifts." So, the differences between the orders of angels are based not only on gifts of grace but also on gifts of nature.

I answer that, The order of government, which is the order of a multitude under authority, is derived from its end. Now the end of the angels may be considered in two ways. First, according to the faculty of nature, so that they may know and love God by natural knowledge and love; and according to their relation to this end the orders of the angels are distinguished by natural gifts. Secondly, the end of the angelic multitude can be taken from what is above their natural powers, which consists in the vision of the Divine Essence, and in the unchangeable fruition of His goodness; to which end they can reach only by grace; and hence as regards this end, the orders in the angels are adequately distinguished by the gifts of grace, but dispositively by natural gifts, forasmuch as to the angels are given gratuitous gifts according to the capacity of their natural gifts; which is not the case with men, as above explained (Q. 62, A. 6). Hence among men the orders are distinguished according to the gratuitous gifts only, and not according to natural gifts.

I respond that, The structure of government, which is the organization of a group under authority, is based on its purpose. Now, the purpose of angels can be viewed in two ways. First, it can be understood through their natural abilities, allowing them to know and love God through their inherent knowledge and love; in relation to this purpose, the orders of angels are categorized by natural gifts. Second, the purpose of the angelic group can also be seen as something beyond their natural abilities, which involves the vision of the Divine Essence and the unchanging enjoyment of His goodness; they can only reach this purpose through grace. Thus, concerning this purpose, the orders of angels are appropriately classified by the gifts of grace, but are also prepared by natural gifts, as angels receive free gifts according to their natural capacities; this differs from humans, as previously explained (Q. 62, A. 6). Therefore, among humans, the orders are categorized based solely on the free gifts, not on natural gifts.

From the above the replies to the objections are evident. _______________________

From the above, the responses to the objections are clear.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 5]

Whether the Orders of the Angels Are Properly Named?

Whether the Names of the Angels' Orders Are Accurate?

Objection 1: It would seem that the orders of the angels are not properly named. For all the heavenly spirits are called angels and heavenly virtues. But common names should not be appropriated to individuals. Therefore the orders of the angels and virtues are ineptly named.

Objection 1: It seems that the ranks of angels are not named correctly. All celestial beings are referred to as angels and heavenly virtues. However, common names shouldn't be assigned to specific individuals. Therefore, the ranks of angels and virtues are inaccurately named.

Obj. 2: Further, it belongs to God alone to be Lord, according to the words, "Know ye that the Lord He is God" (Ps. 99:3). Therefore one order of the heavenly spirits is not properly called "Dominations."

Obj. 2: Furthermore, it is God's sole authority to be Lord, based on the statement, "Know that the Lord He is God" (Ps. 99:3). Hence, one category of the heavenly beings should not be correctly referred to as "Dominations."

Obj. 3: Further, the name "Domination" seems to imply government and likewise the names "Principalities" and "Powers." Therefore these three names do not seem to be properly applied to three orders.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the term "Domination" appears to suggest governance, and similarly, the terms "Principalities" and "Powers." Thus, these three titles don’t seem to be accurately assigned to three distinct orders.

Obj. 4: Further, archangels are as it were angel princes. Therefore this name ought not to be given to any other order than to the "Principalities."

Obj. 4: Furthermore, archangels are essentially angel leaders. So, this title shouldn't be assigned to any other group except for the "Principalities."

Obj. 5: Further, the name "Seraphim" is derived from ardor, which pertains to charity; and the name "Cherubim" from knowledge. But charity and knowledge are gifts common to all the angels. Therefore they ought not to be names of any particular orders.

Obj. 5: Also, the name "Seraphim" comes from a word meaning fiery or passionate, which relates to love; and the name "Cherubim" comes from a term for knowledge. However, love and knowledge are gifts shared by all the angels. So, these names shouldn't refer to any specific orders.

Obj. 6: Further, Thrones are seats. But from the fact that God knows and loves the rational creature He is said to sit within it. Therefore there ought not to be any order of "Thrones" besides the "Cherubim" and "Seraphim." Therefore it appears that the orders of angels are not properly styled.

Obj. 6: Additionally, Thrones are seats. Because God knows and loves rational beings, He is said to sit among them. Therefore, there shouldn’t be any order of "Thrones" beyond the "Cherubim" and "Seraphim." Thus, it seems that the classifications of angels are not accurately named.

On the contrary is the authority of Holy Scripture wherein they are so named. For the name "Seraphim" is found in Isa. 6:2; the name "Cherubim" in Ezech. 1 (Cf. 10:15,20); "Thrones" in Col. 1:16; "Dominations," "Virtues," "Powers," and "Principalities" are mentioned in Eph. 1:21; the name "Archangels" in the canonical epistle of St. Jude (9), and the name "Angels" is found in many places of Scripture.

On the other hand, the authority of Holy Scripture names them explicitly. The term "Seraphim" appears in Isaiah 6:2; "Cherubim" is found in Ezekiel 1 (See 10:15,20); "Thrones" is mentioned in Colossians 1:16; "Dominions," "Virtues," "Powers," and "Principalities" are referred to in Ephesians 1:21; the name "Archangels" is in the canonical letter of St. Jude (9), and the term "Angels" is found throughout many parts of Scripture.

I answer that, As Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. vii), in the names of the angelic orders it is necessary to observe that the proper name of each order expresses its property. Now to see what is the property of each order, we must consider that in coordinated things, something may be found in a threefold manner: by way of property, by way of excess, and by way of participation. A thing is said to be in another by way of property, if it is adequate and proportionate to its nature: by excess when an attribute is less than that to which it is attributed, but is possessed thereby in an eminent manner, as we have stated (Q. 13, A. 2) concerning all the names which are attributed to God: by participation, when an attribute is possessed by something not fully but partially; thus holy men are called gods by participation. Therefore, if anything is to be called by a name designating its property, it ought not to be named from what it participates imperfectly, nor from that which it possesses in excess, but from that which is adequate thereto; as, for instance, when we wish properly to name a man, we should call him a "rational substance," but not an "intellectual substance," which latter is the proper name of an angel; because simple intelligence belongs to an angel as a property, and to man by participation; nor do we call him a "sensible substance," which is the proper name of a brute; because sense is less than the property of a man, and belongs to man in a more excellent way than to other animals.

I respond that, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. vii), when we look at the names of the angelic orders, we need to recognize that the proper name of each order reflects its essential nature. To understand the essence of each order, we must consider that in related things, attributes can be observed in three ways: by property, by excess, and by participation. An attribute is said to be in another by way of property if it is suitable and fitting to its nature; it is by excess when an attribute is less than what it describes but is possessed in a superior way, as we have mentioned (Q. 13, A. 2) regarding the names that refer to God; and it is by participation when an attribute is only partially possessed by something. For example, holy individuals are considered gods by participation. Therefore, if anything is to be named according to its property, it should not be named based on what it only partially participates in or from what it possesses excessively, but from what accurately represents it; for instance, when we want to properly identify a man, we should call him a "rational being," not an "intellectual being," which is the proper name for an angel; because simple intelligence is an essential property of angels, whereas humans possess it through participation. We also do not call a man a "sensible being," which is the proper name for an animal; this is because sense is a lesser attribute than what defines a man, and humans possess it in a more advanced way compared to other creatures.

So we must consider that in the angelic orders all spiritual perfections are common to all the angels, and that they are all more excellently in the superior than in the inferior angels. Further, as in these perfections there are grades, the superior perfection belongs to the superior order as its property, whereas it belongs to the inferior by participation; and conversely the inferior perfection belongs to the inferior order as its property, and to the superior by way of excess; and thus the superior order is denominated from the superior perfection.

So we need to recognize that in the ranks of angels, all spiritual qualities are shared among all the angels, and those in higher ranks possess these qualities to a greater degree than those in lower ranks. Additionally, since there are different levels of these qualities, the higher-level qualities belong to the higher order as their own, while they are possessed by the lower order only as a shared quality; on the other hand, the lower-level qualities belong to the lower order as their own, but are found in the higher order in an excessive way. Therefore, the higher order is named after the higher-level qualities.

So in this way Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii) explains the names of the orders accordingly as they befit the spiritual perfections they signify. Gregory, on the other hand, in expounding these names (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.) seems to regard more the exterior ministrations; for he says that "angels are so called as announcing the least things; and the archangels in the greatest; by the virtues miracles are wrought; by the powers hostile powers are repulsed; and the principalities preside over the good spirits themselves."

So in this way, Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii) explains the names of the orders based on the spiritual qualities they represent. Gregory, on the other hand, in explaining these names (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.), seems to focus more on their visible roles; he says that "angels are named for announcing the smallest things, while archangels are named for the greatest; miracles are performed by the virtues; hostile powers are pushed back by the powers; and the principalities oversee the good spirits themselves."

Reply Obj. 1: Angel means "messenger." So all the heavenly spirits, so far as they make known Divine things, are called "angels." But the superior angels enjoy a certain excellence, as regards this manifestation, from which the superior orders are denominated. The lowest order of angels possess no excellence above the common manifestation; and therefore it is denominated from manifestation only; and thus the common name remains as it were proper to the lowest order, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. v). Or we may say that the lowest order can be specially called the order of "angels," forasmuch as they announce things to us immediately.

Reply Obj. 1: "Angel" means "messenger." So all the heavenly beings that reveal Divine matters are called "angels." However, the higher angels have a certain level of excellence in this revelation, and that's why the higher orders are named as such. The lowest order of angels doesn’t have any excellence beyond the basic revelation; therefore, it's named just for that reason, and the general term applies specifically to the lowest order, as Dionysius points out (Coel. Hier. v). We can also say that the lowest order can specifically be referred to as the order of "angels," since they are the ones who communicate things to us directly.

"Virtue" can be taken in two ways. First, commonly, considered as the medium between the essence and the operation, and in that sense all the heavenly spirits are called heavenly virtues, as also "heavenly essences." Secondly, as meaning a certain excellence of strength; and thus it is the proper name of an angelic order. Hence Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. viii) that the "name 'virtues' signifies a certain virile and immovable strength"; first, in regard of those Divine operations which befit them; secondly, in regard to receiving Divine gifts. Thus it signifies that they undertake fearlessly the Divine behests appointed to them; and this seems to imply strength of mind.

"Virtue" can be understood in two ways. First, it is commonly seen as the middle ground between essence and action, and in this sense, all heavenly spirits are referred to as heavenly virtues, or "heavenly essences." Second, it refers to a particular excellence of strength, making it the specific name for an order of angels. Therefore, Dionysius mentions (Coel. Hier. viii) that the term "virtues" represents a kind of strong and unshakeable power; first, in relation to the Divine actions suited to them; second, in relation to receiving Divine gifts. This indicates that they boldly take on the Divine tasks assigned to them, which suggests mental strength.

Reply Obj. 2: As Dionysius says (Div. Nom. xii): "Dominion is attributed to God in a special manner, by way of excess: but the Divine word gives the more illustrious heavenly princes the name of Lord by participation, through whom the inferior angels receive the Divine gifts." Hence Dionysius also states (Coel. Hier. viii) that the name "Domination" means first "a certain liberty, free from servile condition and common subjection, such as that of plebeians, and from tyrannical oppression," endured sometimes even by the great. Secondly, it signifies "a certain rigid and inflexible supremacy which does not bend to any servile act, or to the act of those who are subject to or oppressed by tyrants." Thirdly, it signifies "the desire and participation of the true dominion which belongs to God." Likewise the name of each order signifies the participation of what belongs to God; as the name "Virtues" signifies the participation of the Divine virtue; and the same principle applies to the rest.

Reply Obj. 2: As Dionysius states (Div. Nom. xii): "Dominion is attributed to God in a unique way, in an extraordinary sense: but the Divine word grants the more distinguished heavenly princes the title of Lord through participation, by which the lower angels receive the Divine gifts." Therefore, Dionysius also mentions (Coel. Hier. viii) that the term "Domination" signifies, first, "a kind of freedom, unbound from servile conditions and common subjection, like that of commoners, and from tyrannical oppression," which is sometimes experienced even by the powerful. Secondly, it represents "a strict and unyielding supremacy that does not bow to any servile act or to those who are subjected to or oppressed by tyrants." Thirdly, it indicates "the desire and sharing in the true dominion that belongs to God." Similarly, the name of each order reflects the participation in what belongs to God; for example, the term "Virtues" represents the sharing in the Divine virtue; and the same concept applies to the others.

Reply Obj. 3: The names "Domination," "Power," and "Principality" belong to government in different ways. The place of a lord is only to prescribe what is to be done. So Gregory says (Hom. xxiv in Evang.), that "some companies of the angels, because others are subject to obedience to them, are called dominations." The name "Power" points out a kind of order, according to what the Apostle says, "He that resisteth the power, resisteth the ordination of God" (Rom. 13:2). And so Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. viii) that the name "Power" signifies a kind of ordination both as regards the reception of Divine things, and as regards the Divine actions performed by superiors towards inferiors by leading them to things above. Therefore, to the order of "Powers" it belongs to regulate what is to be done by those who are subject to them. To preside [principari] as Gregory says (Hom. xxiv in Ev.) is "to be first among others," as being first in carrying out what is ordered to be done. And so Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. ix) that the name of "Principalities" signifies "one who leads in a sacred order." For those who lead others, being first among them, are properly called "princes," according to the words, "Princes went before joined with singers" (Ps. 67:26).

Reply Obj. 3: The terms "Domination," "Power," and "Principality" relate to government in different ways. A lord's role is mainly to dictate what should be done. Gregory mentions (Hom. xxiv in Evang.) that "some groups of angels are called dominations because others are obedient to them." The term "Power" indicates a certain order, as the Apostle states, "He who resists the power resists the ordinance of God" (Rom. 13:2). Similarly, Dionysius mentions (Coel. Hier. viii) that "Power" signifies a form of order concerning the reception of Divine matters and the Divine actions executed by superiors toward inferiors, guiding them toward higher things. Therefore, the order of "Powers" is responsible for regulating the actions of those who are under them. To preside [principari], as Gregory says (Hom. xxiv in Ev.), means "to be first among others," as the primary one carrying out the orders. Furthermore, Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. ix) that the term "Principalities" indicates "one who leads in a sacred order." Those who lead others, being foremost among them, are appropriately referred to as "princes," as noted in the phrase, "Princes went before joined with singers" (Ps. 67:26).

Reply Obj. 4: The "Archangels," according to Dionysius (Coel. Hier. ix), are between the "Principalities" and the "Angels." A medium compared to one extreme seems like the other, as participating in the nature of both extremes; thus tepid seems cold compared to hot, and hot compared to cold. So the "Archangels" are called the "angel princes"; forasmuch as they are princes as regards the "Angels," and angels as regards the Principalities. But according to Gregory (Hom. xxiv in Ev.) they are called "Archangels," because they preside over the one order of the "Angels"; as it were, announcing greater things: and the "Principalities" are so called as presiding over all the heavenly "Virtues" who fulfil the Divine commands.

Reply Obj. 4: The "Archangels," according to Dionysius (Coel. Hier. ix), are positioned between the "Principalities" and the "Angels." A middle point compared to one extreme appears like the other, since it takes on traits from both extremes; this is similar to how something lukewarm seems cold compared to hot, and hot compared to cold. Therefore, the "Archangels" are referred to as the "angel princes," as they are considered princes in relation to the "Angels," and angels in relation to the Principalities. However, according to Gregory (Hom. xxiv in Ev.), they are called "Archangels" because they oversee the order of the "Angels," as if they are announcing greater messages: and the "Principalities" are named so because they preside over all the heavenly "Virtues" that carry out the Divine commands.

Reply Obj. 5: The name "Seraphim" does not come from charity only, but from the excess of charity, expressed by the word ardor or fire. Hence Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii) expounds the name "Seraphim" according to the properties of fire, containing an excess of heat. Now in fire we may consider three things. First, the movement which is upwards and continuous. This signifies that they are borne inflexibly towards God. Secondly, the active force which is "heat," which is not found in fire simply, but exists with a certain sharpness, as being of most penetrating action, and reaching even to the smallest things, and as it were, with superabundant fervor; whereby is signified the action of these angels, exercised powerfully upon those who are subject to them, rousing them to a like fervor, and cleansing them wholly by their heat. Thirdly we consider in fire the quality of clarity, or brightness; which signifies that these angels have in themselves an inextinguishable light, and that they also perfectly enlighten others.

Reply Obj. 5: The name "Seraphim" comes not just from charity, but from an excess of charity, represented by the idea of ardor or fire. Therefore, Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii) explains the name "Seraphim" in relation to the characteristics of fire, which has an abundance of heat. In fire, we can observe three things. First, the upward and continuous movement, which indicates that they are unwaveringly drawn towards God. Second, the active force of "heat," which is not simply found in fire, but has a sharpness that is very penetrating and can reach even the tiniest things, displaying an overwhelming fervor; this signifies the powerful actions of these angels, which stimulate those under their influence to experience a similar fervor and completely cleanse them with their heat. Third, we note the quality of clarity or brightness in fire; this signifies that these angels possess an unquenchable light in themselves and also shine that light perfectly onto others.

In the same way the name "Cherubim" comes from a certain excess of knowledge; hence it is interpreted "fulness of knowledge," which Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii) expounds in regard to four things: the perfect vision of God; the full reception of the Divine Light; their contemplation in God of the beauty of the Divine order; and in regard to the fact that possessing this knowledge fully, they pour it forth copiously upon others.

In the same way, the name "Cherubim" comes from a particular abundance of knowledge; thus, it's interpreted as "fullness of knowledge," which Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii) explains in relation to four things: the complete vision of God; the full reception of Divine Light; their contemplation of the beauty of the Divine order within God; and the fact that, possessing this knowledge fully, they generously share it with others.

Reply Obj. 6: The order of the "Thrones" excels the inferior orders as having an immediate knowledge of the types of the Divine works; whereas the "Cherubim" have the excellence of knowledge and the "Seraphim" the excellence of ardor. And although these two excellent attributes include the third, yet the gift belonging to the "Thrones" does not include the other two; and so the order of the "Thrones" is distinguished from the orders of the "Cherubim" and the "Seraphim." For it is a common rule in all things that the excellence of the inferior is contained in the superior, but not conversely. But Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii) explains the name "Thrones" by its relation to material seats, in which we may consider four things. First, the site; because seats are raised above the earth, and to the angels who are called "Thrones" are raised up to the immediate knowledge of the types of things in God. Secondly, because in material seats is displayed strength, forasmuch as a person sits firmly on them. But here the reverse is the case; for the angels themselves are made firm by God. Thirdly, because the seat receives him who sits thereon, and he can be carried thereupon; and so the angels receive God in themselves, and in a certain way bear Him to the inferior creatures. Fourthly, because in its shape, a seat is open on one side to receive the sitter; and thus are the angels promptly open to receive God and to serve Him. _______________________

Reply Obj. 6: The order of the "Thrones" is superior to the lower orders because it has direct knowledge of the types of Divine works; while the "Cherubim" embody knowledge and the "Seraphim" embody passion. Although these two superior attributes include the third, the gift associated with the "Thrones" does not encompass the other two, which distinguishes the order of the "Thrones" from the "Cherubim" and "Seraphim." It is a general principle that the excellence of lower beings is contained within the superior, but not the other way around. However, Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii) explains the term "Thrones" in relation to physical seats, which we can consider in four ways. First, the location; because seats are elevated above the ground, and the angels known as "Thrones" are raised to have immediate knowledge of the types of things in God. Second, because material seats exhibit strength, as a person sits firmly upon them. But here it's the opposite; the angels themselves gain their firmness from God. Third, because a seat supports the person sitting on it and can carry them; similarly, the angels receive God within themselves and, in a way, carry Him to lesser creatures. Fourth, because a seat is shaped to be open on one side for the person to sit; in this way, the angels are readily open to receive God and to serve Him.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 6]

Whether the Grades of the Orders Are Properly Assigned?

Whether the Rankings of the Orders Are Properly Assigned?

Objection 1: It would seem that the grades of the orders are not properly assigned. For the order of prelates is the highest. But the names of "Dominations," "Principalities," and "Powers" of themselves imply prelacy. Therefore these orders ought not to be supreme.

Objection 1: It seems that the rankings of the orders are incorrectly assigned. The order of prelates is the highest. However, the names "Dominations," "Principalities," and "Powers" imply a higher status. Thus, these orders shouldn't be the supreme ones.

Obj. 2: Further, the nearer an order is to God, the higher it is. But the order of "Thrones" is the nearest to God; for nothing is nearer to the sitter than the seat. Therefore the order of the "Thrones" is the highest.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the closer an order is to God, the greater it is. However, the order of "Thrones" is the closest to God; for nothing is closer to the person sitting than the seat. Therefore, the order of the "Thrones" is the highest.

Obj. 3: Further, knowledge comes before love, and intellect is higher than will. Therefore the order of "Cherubim" seems to be higher than the "Seraphim."

Obj. 3: Furthermore, knowledge precedes love, and intellect is superior to will. Therefore, the order of "Cherubim" appears to be higher than that of the "Seraphim."

Obj. 4: Further, Gregory (Hom. xxiv in Evang.) places the "Principalities" above the "Powers." These therefore are not placed immediately above the Archangels, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. ix).

Obj. 4: Additionally, Gregory (Hom. xxiv in Evang.) ranks the "Principalities" above the "Powers." Therefore, these are not positioned directly above the Archangels, as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. ix).

On the contrary, Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii), places in the highest hierarchy the "Seraphim" as the first, the "Cherubim" as the middle, the "Thrones" as the last; in the middle hierarchy he places the "Dominations," as the first, the "Virtues" in the middle, the "Powers" last; in the lowest hierarchy the "Principalities" first, then the "Archangels," and lastly the "Angels."

On the contrary, Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii) ranks the "Seraphim" as the highest in the first hierarchy, the "Cherubim" as the middle rank, and the "Thrones" as the last in that hierarchy; in the middle hierarchy, he places the "Dominations" as the first, the "Virtues" in the middle, and the "Powers" last; in the lowest hierarchy, the "Principalities" come first, followed by the "Archangels," and finally the "Angels."

I answer that, The grades of the angelic orders are assigned by Gregory (Hom. xxiv in Ev.) and Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii), who agree as regards all except the "Principalities" and "Virtues." For Dionysius places the "Virtues" beneath the "Dominations," and above the "Powers"; the "Principalities" beneath the "Powers" and above the "Archangels." Gregory, however, places the "Principalities" between the "Dominations" and the "Powers"; and the "Virtues" between the "Powers" and the "Archangels." Each of these placings may claim authority from the words of the Apostle, who (Eph. 1:20,21) enumerates the middle orders, beginning from the lowest saying that "God set Him," i.e. Christ, "on His right hand in the heavenly places above all Principality and Power, and Virtue, and Dominion." Here he places "Virtues" between "Powers" and "Dominations," according to the placing of Dionysius. Writing however to the Colossians (1:16), numbering the same orders from the highest, he says: "Whether Thrones, or Dominations, or Principalities, or Powers, all things were created by Him and in Him." Here he places the "Principalities" between "Dominations" and "Powers," as does also Gregory.

I answer that, The ranks of the angelic orders are assigned by Gregory (Hom. xxiv in Ev.) and Dionysius (Coel. Hier. vii), who agree on everything except for the "Principalities" and "Virtues." Dionysius places the "Virtues" below the "Dominations" and above the "Powers"; the "Principalities" are positioned below the "Powers" and above the "Archangels." However, Gregory places the "Principalities" between the "Dominations" and the "Powers," and the "Virtues" between the "Powers" and the "Archangels." Each of these positions can claim authority from the words of the Apostle, who (Eph. 1:20,21) lists the middle orders, starting from the lowest, stating that "God set Him," meaning Christ, "at His right hand in the heavenly places above all Principality and Power, and Virtue, and Dominion." Here he places "Virtues" between "Powers" and "Dominations," according to Dionysius. However, when writing to the Colossians (1:16) and listing the same orders from the highest, he says: "Whether Thrones, or Dominations, or Principalities, or Powers, all things were created by Him and in Him." In this case, he places the "Principalities" between "Dominations" and "Powers," which also aligns with Gregory's placement.

Let us then first examine the reason for the ordering of Dionysius, in which we see, that, as said above (A. 1), the highest hierarchy contemplates the ideas of things in God Himself; the second in the universal causes; and third in their application to particular effects. And because God is the end not only of the angelic ministrations, but also of the whole creation, it belongs to the first hierarchy to consider the end; to the middle one belongs the universal disposition of what is to be done; and to the last belongs the application of this disposition to the effect, which is the carrying out of the work; for it is clear that these three things exist in every kind of operation. So Dionysius, considering the properties of the orders as derived from their names, places in the first hierarchy those orders the names of which are taken from their relation to God, the "Seraphim," "Cherubim," and "Thrones"; and he places in the middle hierarchy those orders whose names denote a certain kind of common government or disposition—the "Dominations," "Virtues," and "Powers"; and he places in the third hierarchy the orders whose names denote the execution of the work, the "Principalities," "Angels," and "Archangels."

Let’s first look at why Dionysius organized the hierarchy the way he did. As mentioned earlier (A. 1), the highest hierarchy focuses on the ideas of things within God Himself; the second one looks at universal causes; and the third one focuses on their application to specific effects. Since God is the ultimate purpose not just for the angelic services but for all of creation, it’s the first hierarchy’s role to consider that purpose; the second hierarchy’s role is to oversee the general plan of what needs to be done; and the last hierarchy’s role is to put this plan into action, executing the work. It’s clear that these three functions are present in every type of operation. Therefore, Dionysius, looking at the characteristics of the orders based on their names, places in the first hierarchy the orders named for their connection to God—the “Seraphim,” “Cherubim,” and “Thrones”; he places in the middle hierarchy the orders whose names imply a type of common governance or arrangement—the “Dominations,” “Virtues,” and “Powers”; and he places in the third hierarchy the orders whose names indicate the execution of tasks—the “Principalities,” “Angels,” and “Archangels.”

As regards the end, three things may be considered. For firstly we consider the end; then we acquire perfect knowledge of the end; thirdly, we fix our intention on the end; of which the second is an addition to the first, and the third an addition to both. And because God is the end of creatures, as the leader is the end of an army, as the Philosopher says (Metaph. xii, Did. xi, 10); so a somewhat similar order may be seen in human affairs. For there are some who enjoy the dignity of being able with familiarity to approach the king or leader; others in addition are privileged to know his secrets; and others above these ever abide with him, in a close union. According to this similitude, we can understand the disposition in the orders of the first hierarchy; for the "Thrones" are raised up so as to be the familiar recipients of God in themselves, in the sense of knowing immediately the types of things in Himself; and this is proper to the whole of the first hierarchy. The "Cherubim" know the Divine secrets supereminently; and the "Seraphim" excel in what is the supreme excellence of all, in being united to God Himself; and all this in such a manner that the whole of this hierarchy can be called the "Thrones"; as, from what is common to all the heavenly spirits together, they are all called "Angels."

Regarding the end, three things can be considered. First, we look at the end; second, we gain complete understanding of the end; and third, we focus our intention on the end. The second is an addition to the first, and the third adds to both. Since God is the end of all creatures, much like a leader is the end for an army, as the Philosopher states (Metaph. xii, Did. xi, 10), we can see a somewhat similar order in human affairs. Some individuals have the honor of being able to approach the king or leader with familiarity; others are privileged to know his secrets, and some even stay close to him in a deep union. Based on this analogy, we can understand the order of the first hierarchy. The "Thrones" are elevated to be the familiar recipients of God, grasping directly the types of things within Him; this is characteristic of the entire first hierarchy. The "Cherubim" know divine secrets at a superior level, while the "Seraphim" excel in the ultimate excellence of being united to God Himself. All of this exists in such a way that this entire hierarchy can be referred to as the "Thrones," just as all heavenly beings together are commonly called "Angels."

As regards government, three things are comprised therein, the first of which is to appoint those things which are to be done, and this belongs to the "Dominations"; the second is to give the power of carrying out what is to be done, which belongs to the "Virtues"; the third is to order how what has been commanded or decided to be done can be carried out by others, which belongs to the "Powers."

In terms of government, three main functions are involved. The first is determining what needs to be done, which falls under the "Dominations." The second is granting the authority to execute those tasks, belonging to the "Virtues." The third is organizing how what has been commanded or decided can be implemented by others, which is the role of the "Powers."

The execution of the angelic ministrations consists in announcing Divine things. Now in the execution of any action there are beginners and leaders; as in singing, the precentors; and in war, generals and officers; this belongs to the "Principalities." There are others who simply execute what is to be done; and these are the "Angels." Others hold a middle place; and these are the "Archangels," as above explained.

The role of angelic beings is to proclaim divine matters. In any action, there are those who initiate and those who lead; for example, in singing, there are conductors, and in battle, there are generals and officers; this is what the "Principalities" do. There are others who simply carry out the tasks, and these are the "Angels." Then there are those who occupy a middle ground, known as the "Archangels," as explained above.

This explanation of the orders is quite a reasonable one. For the highest in an inferior order always has affinity to the lowest in the higher order; as the lowest animals are near to the plants. Now the first order is that of the Divine Persons, which terminates in the Holy Ghost, Who is Love proceeding, with Whom the highest order of the first hierarchy has affinity, denominated as it is from the fire of love. The lowest order of the first hierarchy is that of the "Thrones," who in their own order are akin to the "Dominations"; for the "Thrones," according to Gregory (Hom. xxiv in Ev.), are so called "because through them God accomplishes His judgments," since they are enlightened by Him in a manner adapted to the immediate enlightening of the second hierarchy, to which belongs the disposition of the Divine ministrations. The order of the "Powers" is akin to the order of the "Principalities"; for as it belongs to the "Powers" to impose order on those subject to them, this ordering is plainly shown at once in the name of "Principalities," who, as presiding over the government of peoples and kingdoms (which occupies the first and principal place in the Divine ministrations), are the first in the execution thereof; "for the good of a nation is more divine than the good of one man" (Ethic. i, 2); and hence it is written, "The prince of the kingdom of the Persians resisted me" (Dan. 10:13).

This explanation of the orders makes a lot of sense. The highest in a lower order is always connected to the lowest in a higher order; for example, the lowest animals are close to plants. The first order is that of the Divine Persons, which culminates in the Holy Ghost, Who is Love in action, and the highest order of the first hierarchy is linked to Him, named after the fire of love. The lowest order of the first hierarchy is that of the "Thrones," who are similar to the "Dominations"; according to Gregory (Hom. xxiv in Ev.), the "Thrones" are named so "because through them God accomplishes His judgments," as they are enlightened by Him in a way that directly enlightens the second hierarchy, which is responsible for the arrangement of the Divine ministrations. The order of the "Powers" is connected to the order of the "Principalities"; since it is the role of the "Powers" to impose order on those under them, this organizing is clearly reflected in the name "Principalities," who oversee the governance of nations and kingdoms (the primary focus of Divine ministrations) and are first in executing it; "for the good of a nation is more divine than the good of one man" (Ethic. i, 2); and thus it is written, "The prince of the kingdom of the Persians resisted me" (Dan. 10:13).

The disposition of the orders which is mentioned by Gregory is also reasonable. For since the "Dominations" appoint and order what belongs to the Divine ministrations, the orders subject to them are arranged according to the disposition of those things in which the Divine ministrations are effected. Still, as Augustine says (De Trin. iii), "bodies are ruled in a certain order; the inferior by the superior; and all of them by the spiritual creature, and the bad spirit by the good spirit." So the first order after the "Dominations" is called that of "Principalities," who rule even over good spirits; then the "Powers," who coerce the evil spirits; even as evil-doers are coerced by earthly powers, as it is written (Rom. 13:3,4). After these come the "Virtues," which have power over corporeal nature in the working of miracles; after these are the "Angels" and the "Archangels," who announce to men either great things above reason, or small things within the purview of reason.

The arrangement of the orders mentioned by Gregory makes sense. Since the "Dominations" assign and organize what pertains to Divine ministries, the orders that follow them are organized according to how Divine ministries are carried out. However, as Augustine states (De Trin. iii), "bodies are governed in a specific order; the lower by the higher; and all of them by spiritual beings, with evil spirits governed by good spirits." So, the first order following the "Dominations" is called "Principalities," which even have authority over good spirits; then come the "Powers," who restrain evil spirits, just as wrongdoers are restrained by earthly authorities, as it is written (Rom. 13:3,4). Next are the "Virtues," which have power over the physical world in performing miracles; following them are the "Angels" and the "Archangels," who convey either great truths beyond reason or smaller things within human understanding.

Reply Obj. 1: The angels' subjection to God is greater than their presiding over inferior things; and the latter is derived from the former. Thus the orders which derive their name from presiding are not the first and highest; but rather the orders deriving their name from their nearness and relation to God.

Reply Obj. 1: The angels' submission to God is greater than their control over lesser beings; and the latter comes from the former. Therefore, the ranks that are named for their authority are not the first and highest; instead, it is the ranks named for their closeness and relationship to God that hold that position.

Reply Obj. 2: The nearness to God designated by the name of the "Thrones," belongs also to the "Cherubim" and "Seraphim," and in a more excellent way, as above explained.

Reply Obj. 2: The closeness to God indicated by the name "Thrones" also applies to the "Cherubim" and "Seraphim," and in an even greater way, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 3: As above explained (Q. 27, A. 3), knowledge takes place accordingly as the thing known is in the knower; but love as the lover is united to the object loved. Now higher things are in a nobler way in themselves than in lower things; whereas lower things are in higher things in a nobler way than they are in themselves. Therefore to know lower things is better than to love them; and to love the higher things, God above all, is better than to know them.

Reply Obj. 3: As explained earlier (Q. 27, A. 3), knowledge happens based on how the known thing exists in the knower, while love is about the lover being connected to the object of their love. Higher things exist in a more refined way compared to lower things, while lower things exist within higher things in a more refined way than they do on their own. Therefore, knowing lower things is better than loving them, and loving higher things, especially God, is better than simply knowing them.

Reply Obj. 4: A careful comparison will show that little or no difference exists in reality between the dispositions of the orders according to Dionysius and Gregory. For Gregory expounds the name "Principalities" from their "presiding over good spirits," which also agrees with the "Virtues" accordingly as this name expressed a certain strength, giving efficacy to the inferior spirits in the execution of the Divine ministrations. Again, according to Gregory, the "Virtues" seem to be the same as "Principalities" of Dionysius. For to work miracles holds the first place in the Divine ministrations; since thereby the way is prepared for the announcements of the "Archangels" and the "Angels." _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: A careful comparison will show that there is little or no real difference between the classifications of the orders according to Dionysius and Gregory. Gregory explains the term "Principalities" as those who "preside over good spirits," which also aligns with the "Virtues" as this name suggests a certain strength, enabling the lower spirits to carry out the Divine tasks. Moreover, according to Gregory, the "Virtues" appear to be the same as the "Principalities" of Dionysius. Working miracles is the top priority in the Divine tasks, as it paves the way for the announcements of the "Archangels" and the "Angels."

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 7]

Whether the Orders Will Outlast the Day of Judgment?

Whether the Orders Will Last Beyond Judgment Day?

Objection 1: It would seem that the orders of angels will not outlast the Day of Judgment. For the Apostle says (1 Cor. 15:24), that Christ will "bring to naught all principality and power, when He shall have delivered up the kingdom to God and the Father," and this will be in the final consummation. Therefore for the same reason all others will be abolished in that state.

Objection 1: It seems that the orders of angels won't last beyond the Day of Judgment. The Apostle says (1 Cor. 15:24) that Christ will "eliminate all principalities and powers when He hands over the kingdom to God the Father," and this will happen at the final conclusion. So, for the same reason, all others will be wiped out in that state.

Obj. 2: Further, to the office of the angelic orders it belongs to cleanse, enlighten, and perfect. But after the Day of Judgment one angel will not cleanse, enlighten, or perfect another, because they will not advance any more in knowledge. Therefore the angelic orders would remain for no purpose.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, it's the role of the angelic orders to cleanse, enlighten, and perfect. However, after the Day of Judgment, one angel will not cleanse, enlighten, or perfect another, since they will no longer grow in knowledge. As a result, the angelic orders would serve no purpose.

Obj. 3: Further, the Apostle says of the angels (Heb. 1:14), that "they are all ministering spirits, sent to minister to them who shall receive the inheritance of salvation"; whence it appears that the angelic offices are ordered for the purpose of leading men to salvation. But all the elect are in pursuit of salvation until the Day of Judgment. Therefore the angelic offices and orders will not outlast the Day of Judgment.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the Apostle mentions the angels (Heb. 1:14), stating that "they are all ministering spirits, sent to serve those who will receive the inheritance of salvation"; this indicates that the roles of angels are meant to guide humans toward salvation. All the elect are seeking salvation until the Day of Judgment. Therefore, the roles and orders of angels will not continue beyond the Day of Judgment.

On the contrary, It is written (Judges 5:20): "Stars remaining in their order and courses," which is applied to the angels. Therefore the angels will ever remain in their orders.

On the contrary, It is written (Judges 5:20): "Stars remaining in their order and courses," which refers to the angels. Therefore, the angels will always remain in their orders.

I answer that, In the angelic orders we may consider two things; the distinction of grades, and the execution of their offices. The distinction of grades among the angels takes place according to the difference of grace and nature, as above explained (A. 4); and these differences will ever remain in the angels; for these differences of natures cannot be taken from them unless they themselves be corrupted. The difference of glory will also ever remain in them according to the difference of preceding merit. As to the execution of the angelic offices, it will to a certain degree remain after the Day of Judgment, and to a certain degree will cease. It will cease accordingly as their offices are directed towards leading others to their end; but it will remain, accordingly as it agrees with the attainment of the end. Thus also the various ranks of soldiers have different duties to perform in battle and in triumph.

I answer that, In the orders of angels, we can consider two aspects: the distinction of ranks and the fulfillment of their roles. The differences in ranks among the angels are based on their varying grace and nature, as previously explained (A. 4); and these differences will always exist among the angels, since their nature cannot be altered unless they are corrupted. The variations in glory will also always persist according to the differences in their prior merits. Regarding the fulfillment of angelic roles, some aspects will continue after the Day of Judgment, while others will cease. It will cease in relation to roles that are aimed at guiding others to their ultimate goal, but it will continue where it aligns with achieving that goal. Similarly, different ranks of soldiers have distinct responsibilities during battle and celebration.

Reply Obj. 1: The principalities and powers will come to an end in that final consummation as regards their office of leading others to their end; because when the end is attained, it is no longer necessary to tend towards the end. This is clear from the words of the Apostle, "When He shall have delivered up the kingdom of God and the Father," i.e. when He shall have led the faithful to the enjoyment of God Himself.

Reply Obj. 1: The principalities and powers will cease to exist in that final fulfillment concerning their role of guiding others to their conclusion; because once the goal is reached, it is no longer needed to strive toward that goal. This is evident from the Apostle's words, "When He has handed over the kingdom to God the Father," meaning when He has guided the faithful to experience God Himself.

Reply Obj. 2: The actions of angels over the other angels are to be considered according to a likeness to our own intellectual actions. In ourselves we find many intellectual actions which are ordered according to the order of cause and effect; as when we gradually arrive at one conclusion by many middle terms. Now it is manifest that the knowledge of a conclusion depends on all the preceding middle terms not only in the new acquisition of knowledge, but also as regards the keeping of the knowledge acquired. A proof of this is that when anyone forgets any of the preceding middle terms he can have opinion or belief about the conclusion, but not knowledge; as he is ignorant of the order of the causes. So, since the inferior angels know the types of the Divine works by the light of the superior angels, their knowledge depends on the light of the superior angels not only as regards the acquisition of knowledge, but also as regards the preserving of the knowledge possessed. So, although after the Judgment the inferior angels will not progress in the knowledge of some things, still this will not prevent their being enlightened by the superior angels.

Reply Obj. 2: The actions of angels in relation to other angels can be understood similarly to how we think and reason. In ourselves, we experience many intellectual processes that follow a chain of cause and effect, like when we reach a conclusion through several intermediate steps. It’s clear that understanding a conclusion relies on all the earlier steps, not just in gaining new knowledge but also in retaining what we already know. For example, if someone forgets any of the earlier steps, they might form an opinion about the conclusion but won't truly understand it since they lack the clarity on the causal relationships. Therefore, because the lower angels learn about the types of Divine works through the insight of the higher angels, their understanding relies on the guidance of the higher angels, both in acquiring knowledge and in maintaining what they already know. So, even though after the Judgment the lower angels won't develop more understanding of certain things, this won’t stop them from being illuminated by the higher angels.

Reply Obj. 3: Although after the Day of Judgment men will not be led any more to salvation by the ministry of the angels, still those who are already saved will be enlightened through the angelic ministry. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Even though after the Day of Judgment people won’t be guided to salvation by angels anymore, those who are already saved will still be enlightened through the ministry of angels.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 108, Art. 8]

Whether Men Are Taken Up into the Angelic Orders?

Whether Men Are Taken Up into the Angelic Orders?

Objection 1: It would seem that men are not taken up into the orders of the angels. For the human hierarchy is stationed beneath the lowest heavenly hierarchy, as the lowest under the middle hierarchy and the middle beneath the first. But the angels of the lowest hierarchy are never transferred into the middle, or the first. Therefore neither are men transferred to the angelic orders.

Objection 1: It seems that humans are not included in the ranks of angels. The human hierarchy is positioned below the lowest heavenly hierarchy, which is itself below the middle hierarchy, and that middle hierarchy is beneath the highest. However, the angels of the lowest hierarchy are never moved into the middle or the highest. Therefore, humans are also not transferred to the orders of angels.

Obj. 2: Further, certain offices belong to the orders of the angels, as to guard, to work miracles, to coerce the demons, and the like; which do not appear to belong to the souls of the saints. Therefore they are not transferred to the angelic orders.

Obj. 2: Additionally, some roles are associated with the orders of angels, such as guarding, performing miracles, and controlling demons, among others; which do not seem to be associated with the souls of the saints. Therefore, they are not assigned to the angelic orders.

Obj. 3: Further, as the good angels lead on to good, so do the demons to what is evil. But it is erroneous to say that the souls of bad men are changed into demons; for Chrysostom rejects this (Hom. xxviii in Matt.). Therefore it does not seem that the souls of the saints will be transferred to the orders of angels.

Obj. 3: Additionally, just as good angels inspire goodness, demons lead to evil. However, it's incorrect to claim that the souls of bad people are transformed into demons; Chrysostom dismisses this idea (Hom. xxviii in Matt.). So, it appears that the souls of the saints will not be promoted to the ranks of angels.

On the contrary, The Lord says of the saints that, "they will be as the angels of God" (Matt. 22:30). I answer that, As above explained (AA. 4,7), the orders of the angels are distinguished according to the conditions of nature and according to the gifts of grace. Considered only as regards the grade of nature, men can in no way be assumed into the angelic orders; for the natural distinction will always remain. In view of this distinction, some asserted that men can in no way be transferred to an equality with the angels; but this is erroneous, contradicting as it does the promise of Christ saying that the children of the resurrection will be equal to the angels in heaven (Luke 20:36). For whatever belongs to nature is the material part of an order; whilst that which perfects is from grace which depends on the liberality of God, and not on the order of nature. Therefore by the gift of grace men can merit glory in such a degree as to be equal to the angels, in each of the angelic grades; and this implies that men are taken up into the orders of the angels. Some, however, say that not all who are saved are assumed into the angelic orders, but only virgins or the perfect; and that the other will constitute their own order, as it were, corresponding to the whole society of the angels. But this is against what Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xii, 9), that "there will not be two societies of men and angels, but only one; because the beatitude of all is to cleave to God alone."

On the contrary, The Lord states about the saints that, "they will be like the angels of God" (Matt. 22:30). I respond that, as previously explained (AA. 4,7), the orders of the angels are distinguished based on the conditions of nature and the gifts of grace. Considering only the aspect of natural rank, humans cannot be included in the angelic orders; the natural distinction will always exist. In light of this distinction, some claim that humans can never reach equality with angels; however, this is incorrect, as it contradicts Christ's promise that the children of the resurrection will be equal to the angels in heaven (Luke 20:36). Because what pertains to nature is the material aspect of an order, while that which perfects comes from grace, which depends on God's generosity and not on the natural order. Therefore, through the gift of grace, humans can attain glory to the extent that they are equal to angels in each of the angelic orders; this suggests that humans are included in the ranks of angels. Some, however, argue that not everyone who is saved enters the angelic orders, but only virgins or the perfect; and that the others will create their own order, corresponding to the entire society of angels. But this goes against what Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xii, 9), that "there will not be two societies of men and angels, but only one; because the ultimate happiness of all is to be united with God alone."

Reply Obj. 1: Grace is given to the angels in proportion to their natural gifts. This, however, does not apply to men, as above explained (A. 4; Q. 62, A. 6). So, as the inferior angels cannot be transferred to the natural grade of the superior, neither can they be transferred to the superior grade of grace; whereas men can ascend to the grade of grace, but not of nature.

Reply Obj. 1: Angels receive grace based on their natural abilities. However, this doesn’t apply to humans, as explained earlier (A. 4; Q. 62, A. 6). Just as the lower angels cannot be elevated to the natural level of the higher ones, they also can't be raised to a higher level of grace; however, humans can reach a higher level of grace, but not of their natural state.

Reply Obj. 2: The angels according to the order of nature are between us and God; and therefore according to the common law not only human affairs are administered by them, but also all corporeal matters. But holy men even after this life are of the same nature with ourselves; and hence according to the common law they do not administer human affairs, "nor do they interfere in the things of the living," as Augustine says (De cura pro mortuis xiii, xvi). Still, by a certain special dispensation it is sometimes granted to some of the saints to exercise these offices; by working miracles, by coercing the demons, or by doing something of that kind, as Augustine says (De cura pro mortuis xvi).

Reply Obj. 2: According to the natural order, angels exist between us and God; therefore, under common law, they oversee not only human affairs but all physical matters as well. However, holy individuals, even after this life, share the same nature as we do; thus, under common law, they do not manage human affairs, "nor do they interfere in the things of the living," as Augustine states (De cura pro mortuis xiii, xvi). Nevertheless, through a special arrangement, it is sometimes allowed for certain saints to take on these roles by performing miracles, controlling demons, or similar acts, as Augustine mentions (De cura pro mortuis xvi).

Reply Obj. 3: It is not erroneous to say that men are transferred to the penalty of demons; but some erroneously stated that the demons are nothing but souls of the dead; and it is this that Chrysostom rejects. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: It's not wrong to say that people are sent to the punishment of demons; however, some mistakenly claimed that demons are just souls of the dead, and that's what Chrysostom denies.

QUESTION 109

THE ORDERING OF THE BAD ANGELS
(In Four Articles)

THE ORDERING OF THE BAD ANGELS
(In Four Articles)

We now consider the ordering of the bad angels; concerning which there are four points of inquiry:

We now look at the hierarchy of the bad angels; regarding which there are four questions to explore:

(1) Whether there are orders among the demons?

(1) Are there ranks among the demons?

(2) Whether among them there is precedence?

(2) Is there a hierarchy among them?

(3) Whether one enlightens another?

Does one enlighten another?

(4) Whether they are subject to the precedence of the good angels? _______________________

(4) Are they under the authority of the good angels? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 109, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 109, Art. 1]

Whether There Are Orders Among the Demons?

Whether There Are Orders Among the Demons?

Objection 1: It would seem that there are no orders among the demons. For order belongs to good, as also mode, and species, as Augustine says (De Nat. Boni iii); and on the contrary, disorder belongs to evil. But there is nothing disorderly in the good angels. Therefore in the bad angels there are no orders.

Objection 1: It seems that there are no hierarchies among the demons. Order is a characteristic of good, along with structure and classification, as Augustine states (De Nat. Boni iii); conversely, disorder is associated with evil. But there is nothing chaotic among the good angels. Therefore, among the fallen angels, there are no hierarchies.

Obj. 2: Further, the angelic orders are contained under a hierarchy. But the demons are not in a hierarchy, which is defined as a holy principality; for they are void of all holiness. Therefore among the demons there are no orders.

Obj. 2: Moreover, the angelic orders exist within a hierarchy. However, demons do not belong to a hierarchy, which is defined as a sacred principality; because they lack any holiness. Consequently, there are no orders among the demons.

Obj. 3: Further, the demons fell from every one of the angelic orders; as is commonly supposed. Therefore, if some demons are said to belong to an order, as falling from that order, it would seem necessary to give them the names of each of those orders. But we never find that they are called "Seraphim," or "Thrones," or "Dominations." Therefore on the same ground they are not to be placed in any other order.

Obj. 3: Moreover, the demons came from every one of the angelic orders, as is generally believed. Therefore, if some demons are said to belong to a specific order because they fell from it, it would make sense to give them the names of those orders. However, we never see them referred to as "Seraphim," "Thrones," or "Dominations." Thus, for the same reason, they should not be classified under any other order.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Eph. 6:12): "Our wrestling . . . is against principalities and powers, against the rulers of the world of this darkness."

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Eph. 6:12): "Our struggle . . . is against authorities and powers, against the rulers of this dark world."

I answer that, As explained above (Q. 108, AA. 4, 7, 8), order in the angels is considered both according to the grade of nature; and according to that of grace. Now grace has a twofold state, the imperfect, which is that of merit; and the perfect, which is that of consummate glory.

I respond that, As explained earlier (Q. 108, AA. 4, 7, 8), the hierarchy among angels is viewed both in terms of their nature and their grace. Grace has two stages: the imperfect stage, which relates to merit, and the perfect stage, which pertains to complete glory.

If therefore we consider the angelic orders in the light of the perfection of glory, then the demons are not in the angelic orders, and never were. But if we consider them in relation to imperfect grace, in that view the demons were at the time in the orders of angels, but fell away from them, according to what was said above (Q. 62, A. 3), that all the angels were created in grace. But if we consider them in the light of nature, in that view they are still in those orders; because they have not lost their natural gifts; as Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv).

If we look at the angelic orders through the lens of perfect glory, then demons don’t belong to those orders and never have. However, if we view them in the context of imperfect grace, then demons were once part of the angelic orders but fell from them, as mentioned earlier (Q. 62, A. 3), since all angels were created in grace. But if we consider them from the perspective of nature, they still belong to those orders because they haven't lost their natural gifts, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv).

Reply Obj. 1: Good can exist without evil; whereas evil cannot exist without good (Q. 49, A. 3); so there is order in the demons, as possessing a good nature.

Reply Obj. 1: Good can exist without evil, but evil cannot exist without good (Q. 49, A. 3); therefore, there is order among the demons, as they have a good nature.

Reply Obj. 2: If we consider the ordering of the demons on the part of God Who orders them, it is sacred; for He uses the demons for Himself; but on the part of the demons' will it is not a sacred thing, because they abuse their nature for evil.

Reply Obj. 2: If we look at how God organizes the demons, it is sacred; He uses the demons for His purposes. However, from the demons' perspective, it isn't sacred because they misuse their nature for evil.

Reply Obj. 3: The name "Seraphim" is given from the ardor of charity; and the name "Thrones" from the Divine indwelling; and the name "Dominations" imports a certain liberty; all of which are opposed to sin; and therefore these names are not given to the angels who sinned. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The name "Seraphim" comes from the intensity of love; the name "Thrones" refers to the Divine presence; and the name "Dominations" implies a certain freedom. All of these are opposed to sin, which is why these names aren't given to the angels who sinned.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 109, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 109, Art. 2]

Whether among the demons there is precedence?

Is there a hierarchy among the demons?

Objection 1: It would seem that there is no precedence among the demons. For every precedence is according to some order of justice. But the demons are wholly fallen from justice. Therefore there is no precedence among them.

Objection 1: It seems that there is no ranking among the demons. Every ranking is based on some sense of justice. But the demons have completely fallen away from justice. Therefore, there is no ranking among them.

Obj. 2: Further, there is no precedence where obedience and subjection do not exist. But these cannot be without concord; which is not to be found among the demons, according to the text, "Among the proud there are always contentions" (Prov. 13:10). Therefore there is no precedence among the demons.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, there is no leadership where obedience and submission are absent. But these cannot exist without agreement, which, according to the text, "Among the proud there are always conflicts" (Prov. 13:10), is not seen among demons. Therefore, there is no hierarchy among demons.

Obj. 3: If there be precedence among them it is either according to nature, or according to their sin or punishment. But it is not according to their nature, for subjection and service do not come from nature but from subsequent sin; neither is it according to sin or punishment, because in that case the superior demons who have sinned the most grievously, would be subject to the inferior. Therefore there is no precedence among the demons.

Obj. 3: If there is a rank among them, it's either based on their nature or their sin or punishment. But it’s not based on their nature, since servitude and submission don’t arise from nature but from later sin; nor is it based on sin or punishment, because in that case, the higher-ranking demons who have sinned the most would be subordinate to the lower ones. Therefore, there is no hierarchy among the demons.

On the contrary, On 1 Cor. 15:24 the gloss says: "While the world lasts, angels will preside over angels, men over men, and demons over demons."

On the contrary, On 1 Cor. 15:24 the gloss says: "As long as the world exists, angels will rule over angels, humans over humans, and demons over demons."

I answer that, Since action follows the nature of a thing, where natures are subordinate, actions also must be subordinate to each other. Thus it is in corporeal things, for as the inferior bodies by natural order are below the heavenly bodies, their actions and movements are subject to the actions and movements of the heavenly bodies. Now it is plain from what we have said (A. 1), that the demons are by natural order subject to others; and hence their actions are subject to the action of those above them, and this is what we mean by precedence—that the action of the subject should be under the action of the prelate. So the very natural disposition of the demons requires that there should be authority among them. This agrees too with Divine wisdom, which leaves nothing inordinate, which "reacheth from end to end mightily, and ordereth all things sweetly" (Wis. 8:1).

I respond that, since an action depends on the nature of a thing, where natures are ranked, actions must also be ranked in relation to each other. This applies to physical beings, as lower bodies, by natural order, are beneath the heavenly bodies; their actions and movements are influenced by the actions and movements of the heavenly bodies. It is clear from what we've stated (A. 1) that demons are naturally subordinate to others; therefore, their actions are affected by those above them. This is what we mean by precedence—the action of the subordinate should be under the action of the superior. Thus, the natural structure of the demons requires that there be authority among them. This aligns with Divine wisdom, which leaves nothing out of order, which "reaches from end to end mightily, and arranges all things sweetly" (Wis. 8:1).

Reply Obj. 1: The authority of the demons is not founded on their justice, but on the justice of God ordering all things.

Reply Obj. 1: The authority of the demons doesn't come from their own fairness, but from God's justice that governs everything.

Reply Obj. 2: The concord of the demons, whereby some obey others, does not arise from mutual friendships, but from their common wickedness whereby they hate men, and fight against God's justice. For it belongs to wicked men to be joined to and subject to those whom they see to be stronger, in order to carry out their own wickedness.

Reply Obj. 2: The agreement among the demons, where some follow the commands of others, doesn't come from mutual friendships but from their shared evil nature, which drives them to hate humanity and oppose God's justice. Wicked individuals tend to align with and submit to those they recognize as stronger, so they can pursue their own wrongdoing.

Reply Obj. 3: The demons are not equal in nature; and so among them there exists a natural precedence; which is not the case with men, who are naturally equal. That the inferior are subject to the superior, is not for the benefit of the superior, but rather to their detriment; because since to do evil belongs in a pre-eminent degree to unhappiness, it follows that to preside in evil is to be more unhappy. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The demons are not equal in nature; so among them, there is a natural hierarchy, which is not true for humans, who are naturally equal. The people who are inferior are subject to those who are superior, not for the advantage of the superior, but rather to their disadvantage; because since doing evil is fundamentally linked to unhappiness, it follows that leading in evil means being more unhappy.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 109, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 109, Art. 3]

Whether There Is Enlightenment in the Demons?

Whether There's Enlightenment in the Demons?

Objection 1: It would seem that enlightenment is in the demons. For enlightenment means the manifestation of the truth. But one demon can manifest truth to another, because the superior excel in natural knowledge. Therefore the superior demons can enlighten the inferior.

Objection 1: It seems that demons can bring enlightenment. Enlightenment means revealing the truth. However, one demon can show the truth to another since the more powerful ones excel in natural knowledge. So, the stronger demons can enlighten the weaker ones.

Obj. 2: Further, a body abounding in light can enlighten a body deficient in light, as the sun enlightens the moon. But the superior demons abound in the participation of natural light. Therefore it seems that the superior demons can enlighten the inferior.

Obj. 2: Also, a body full of light can illuminate a body lacking in light, just like the sun brightens the moon. But the higher demons are rich in their share of natural light. So it seems that the higher demons can enlighten the lower ones.

On the contrary, Enlightenment is not without cleansing and perfecting, as stated above (Q. 106, A. 1). But to cleanse does not befit the demons, according to the words: "What can be made clean by the unclean?" (Ecclus. 34:4). Therefore neither can they enlighten.

On the contrary, Enlightenment isn't without purification and improvement, as mentioned earlier (Q. 106, A. 1). However, cleansing isn't suitable for demons, as the saying goes: "What can be made clean by the unclean?" (Ecclus. 34:4). Therefore, they can't provide enlightenment either.

I answer that, There can be no enlightenment properly speaking among the demons. For, as above explained (Q. 107, A. 2), enlightenment properly speaking is the manifestation of the truth in reference to God, Who enlightens every intellect. Another kind of manifestation of the truth is speech, as when one angel manifests his concept to another. Now the demon's perversity does not lead one to order another to God, but rather to lead away from the Divine order; and so one demon does not enlighten another; but one can make known his mental concept to another by way of speech.

I answer that, There cannot be true enlightenment among demons. As explained earlier (Q. 107, A. 2), true enlightenment is the revealing of the truth in relation to God, who enlightens every mind. Another way to reveal the truth is through speech, like when one angel shares his idea with another. However, a demon's wickedness does not direct others towards God; instead, it leads them away from the Divine order. Therefore, one demon does not enlighten another, but they can communicate their thoughts to each other through speech.

Reply Obj. 1: Not every kind of manifestation of the truth is enlightenment, but only that which is above described.

Reply Obj. 1: Not every expression of the truth is enlightenment, but only the one described above.

Reply Obj. 2: According to what belongs to natural knowledge, there is no necessary manifestation of the truth either in the angels, or in the demons, because, as above explained (Q. 55, A. 2; Q. 58, A. 2; Q. 79, A. 2), they know from the first all that belongs to their natural knowledge. So the greater fulness of natural light in the superior demons does not prove that they can enlighten others. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: In terms of natural knowledge, there is no mandatory revelation of truth in either angels or demons, because, as explained above (Q. 55, A. 2; Q. 58, A. 2; Q. 79, A. 2), they know everything that pertains to their natural knowledge from the very beginning. Therefore, the greater amount of natural light in the higher demons doesn’t indicate that they can illuminate others.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 109, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 109, Art. 4]

Whether the Good Angels Have Precedence Over the Bad Angels?

Whether the Good Angels Have Precedence Over the Bad Angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that the good angels have no precedence over the bad angels. For the angels' precedence is especially connected with enlightenment. But the bad angels, being darkness, are not enlightened by the good angels. Therefore the good angels do not rule over the bad.

Objection 1: It seems that good angels do not have authority over bad angels. The authority of angels is particularly linked to enlightenment. However, bad angels, being associated with darkness, are not enlightened by good angels. Therefore, good angels do not have dominion over bad ones.

Obj. 2: Further, superiors are responsible as regards negligence for the evil deeds of their subjects. But the demons do much evil. Therefore if they are subject to the good angels, it seems that negligence is to be charged to the good angels; which cannot be admitted.

Obj. 2: Additionally, superiors are accountable for the wrongdoings of those under their authority due to negligence. However, the demons commit many wrongs. So, if they are under the good angels, it appears that the good angels should be blamed for this negligence, which is not acceptable.

Obj. 3: Further, the angels' precedence follows upon the order of nature, as above explained (A. 2). But if the demons fell from every order, as is commonly said, many of the demons are superior to many good angels in the natural order. Therefore the good angels have no precedence over all the bad angels.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the angels' rank is based on the order of nature, as explained earlier (A. 2). However, if the demons fell from every rank, as is often suggested, many of the demons are actually superior to many good angels in the natural order. Thus, the good angels do not hold a higher status than all the bad angels.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii), that "the treacherous and sinful spirit of life is ruled by the rational, pious, and just spirit of life"; and Gregory says (Hom. xxxiv) that "the Powers are the angels to whose charge are subjected the hostile powers."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii), that "the deceitful and sinful spirit of life is governed by the rational, righteous, and just spirit of life"; and Gregory says (Hom. xxxiv) that "the Powers are the angels to whom the opposing powers are subjected."

I answer that, The whole order of precedence is first and originally in God; and it is shared by creatures accordingly as they are the nearer to God. For those creatures, which are more perfect and nearer to God, have the power to act on others. Now the greatest perfection and that which brings them nearest to God belongs to the creatures who enjoy God, as the holy angels; of which perfection the demons are deprived; and therefore the good angels have precedence over the bad, and these are ruled by them.

I respond that, the entire order of authority originates with God, and it is distributed among creatures based on how close they are to Him. Those creatures that are more perfect and closer to God have the ability to influence others. The highest level of perfection, which brings them closest to God, is found in those creatures who are in communion with Him, like the holy angels; the demons lack this perfection. Therefore, the good angels take precedence over the bad, and the latter are governed by the former.

Reply Obj. 1: Many things concerning Divine mysteries are made known by the holy angels to the bad angels, whenever the Divine justice requires the demons to do anything for the punishment of the evil; or for the trial of the good; as in human affairs the judge's assessors make known his sentence to the executioners. This revelation, if compared to the angelic revealers, can be called an enlightenment, forasmuch as they direct it to God; but it is not an enlightenment on the part of the demons, for these do not direct it to God; but to the fulfilment of their own wickedness.

Reply Obj. 1: Many aspects of Divine mysteries are revealed by the holy angels to the bad angels whenever Divine justice requires the demons to act, either to punish the wicked or to test the righteous; similar to how a judge’s assistants communicate his sentence to the executioners. This revelation, when compared to the angels who convey it, can be considered an enlightenment, as it is directed towards God; however, it is not an enlightenment from the demons, since they do not direct it to God, but rather to fulfill their own evil intentions.

Reply Obj. 2: The holy angels are the ministers of the Divine wisdom. Hence as the Divine wisdom permits some evil to be done by bad angels or men, for the sake of the good that follows; so also the good angels do not entirely restrain the bad from inflicting harm.

Reply Obj. 2: The holy angels serve as the messengers of Divine wisdom. Therefore, just as Divine wisdom allows some evil to occur through wicked angels or people for the sake of the good that follows, the good angels also do not completely prevent the bad from causing harm.

Reply Obj. 3: An angel who is inferior in the natural order presides over demons, although these may be naturally superior; because the power of Divine justice to which the good angels cleave, is stronger than the natural power of the angels. Hence likewise among men, "the spiritual man judgeth all things" (1 Cor. 2:15), and the Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 4; x, 5) that "the virtuous man is the rule and measure of all human acts." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: An angel who is lower in the natural order can oversee demons, even though those demons may be naturally stronger; this is because the strength of Divine justice, which the good angels adhere to, outweighs the natural strength of the angels. Similarly, among humans, "the spiritual person judges everything" (1 Cor. 2:15), and the philosopher notes (Ethic. iii, 4; x, 5) that "the virtuous person is the standard and measure for all human actions."

QUESTION 110

HOW ANGELS ACT ON BODIES
(In Four Articles)

HOW ANGELS ACT ON BODIES
(In Four Articles)

We now consider how the angels preside over the corporeal creatures.
Under this head there are four points of inquiry:

We will now look at how the angels oversee the physical beings.
There are four key questions related to this topic:

(1) Whether the corporeal creature is governed by the angels?

(1) Are physical beings controlled by angels?

(2) Whether the corporeal creature obeys the mere will of the angels?

(2) Does the physical being just follow the wishes of the angels?

(3) Whether the angels by their own power can immediately move bodies locally?

(3) Can angels move bodies locally by their own power?

(4) Whether the good or bad angels can work miracles? _______________________

(4) Can good or bad angels perform miracles? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 110, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 110, Art. 1]

Whether the Corporeal Creature Is Governed by the Angels?

Whether the Physical Being Is Controlled by Angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that the corporeal creature is not governed by angels. For whatever possesses a determinate mode of action, needs not to be governed by any superior power; for we require to be governed lest we do what we ought not. But corporeal things have their actions determined by the nature divinely bestowed upon them. Therefore they do not need the government of angels.

Objection 1: It seems that physical creatures are not governed by angels. Anything that has a specific way of acting doesn’t need to be controlled by a higher power; we need governance to avoid doing things we shouldn’t. However, physical things have their actions determined by the nature given to them by God. Therefore, they don’t require the guidance of angels.

Obj. 2: Further, the lowest things are ruled by the superior. But some corporeal things are inferior, and others are superior. Therefore they need not be governed by the angels.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the lowest things are governed by those above them. Some physical things are inferior, while others are superior. Therefore, they don’t necessarily need to be controlled by the angels.

Obj. 3: Further, the different orders of the angels are distinguished by different offices. But if corporeal creatures were ruled by the angels, there would be as many angelic offices as there are species of things. So also there would be as many orders of angels as there are species of things; which is against what is laid down above (Q. 108, A. 2). Therefore the corporeal creature is not governed by angels.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the various types of angels are defined by their specific roles. However, if physical beings were governed by angels, there would be as many angelic roles as there are types of beings. Likewise, there would be as many orders of angels as there are types of beings, which contradicts what was previously stated (Q. 108, A. 2). Therefore, physical beings are not governed by angels.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4) that "all bodies are ruled by the rational spirit of life"; and Gregory says (Dial. iv, 6), that "in this visible world nothing takes place without the agency of the invisible creature."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4) that "all bodies are governed by the rational spirit of life"; and Gregory says (Dial. iv, 6) that "in this visible world, nothing happens without the influence of the invisible being."

I answer that, It is generally found both in human affairs and in natural things that every particular power is governed and ruled by the universal power; as, for example, the bailiff's power is governed by the power of the king. Among the angels also, as explained above (Q. 55, A. 3; Q. 108, A. 1), the superior angels who preside over the inferior possess a more universal knowledge. Now it is manifest that the power of any individual body is more particular than the power of any spiritual substance; for every corporeal form is a form individualized by matter, and determined to the "here and now"; whereas immaterial forms are absolute and intelligible. Therefore, as the inferior angels who have the less universal forms, are ruled by the superior; so are all corporeal things ruled by the angels. This is not only laid down by the holy doctors, but also by all philosophers who admit the existence of incorporeal substances.

I respond that, it's generally observed in both human matters and in natural elements that every specific power is governed and directed by a universal power; for example, a bailiff's authority is controlled by the king's authority. Among the angels, as previously discussed (Q. 55, A. 3; Q. 108, A. 1), the higher-ranking angels who oversee the lower ones possess a broader knowledge. It’s clear that the power of any individual body is more specific than the power of any spiritual being; every physical form is a form defined by matter and specific to a given time and place, while immaterial forms are absolute and intelligible. Therefore, just as the lower angels, who have less universal forms, are governed by the higher ones, all physical entities are governed by the angels. This is affirmed not only by the esteemed doctors but also by all philosophers who acknowledge the existence of non-physical substances.

Reply Obj. 1: Corporeal things have determinate actions; but they exercise such actions only according as they are moved; because it belongs to a body not to act unless moved. Hence a corporeal creature must be moved by a spiritual creature.

Reply Obj. 1: Physical things have specific actions; however, they perform those actions only when they are moved, because a body cannot act unless it is moved. Therefore, a physical creature must be moved by a spiritual being.

Reply Obj. 2: The reason alleged is according to the opinion of Aristotle who laid down (Metaph. xi, 8) that the heavenly bodies are moved by spiritual substances; the number of which he endeavored to assign according to the number of motions apparent in the heavenly bodies. But he did not say that there were any spiritual substances with immediate rule over the inferior bodies, except perhaps human souls; and this was because he did not consider that any operations were exercised in the inferior bodies except the natural ones for which the movement of the heavenly bodies sufficed. But because we assert that many things are done in the inferior bodies besides the natural corporeal actions, for which the movements of the heavenly bodies are not sufficient; therefore in our opinion we must assert that the angels possess an immediate presidency not only over the heavenly bodies, but also over the inferior bodies.

Reply Obj. 2: The reason given is based on Aristotle's view, who stated (Metaph. xi, 8) that the heavenly bodies are moved by spiritual beings; he tried to determine how many there were based on the number of movements observable in the heavenly bodies. However, he did not claim there were any spiritual beings that directly governed the lower bodies, except possibly human souls. This was because he believed that only natural processes occurred in the lower bodies, which were adequately explained by the movements of the heavenly bodies. However, since we argue that many actions take place in the lower bodies beyond just the natural physical ones, which cannot be explained solely by the movements of the heavenly bodies, we must affirm that angels have direct authority over not only the heavenly bodies but also the lower bodies.

Reply Obj. 3: Philosophers have held different opinions about immaterial substances. For Plato laid down that immaterial substances were types and species of sensible bodies; and that some were more universal than others; and so he held that immaterial substances preside immediately over all sensible bodies, and different ones over different bodies. But Aristotle held that immaterial substances are not the species of sensible bodies, but something higher and more universal; and so he did not attribute to them any immediate presiding over single bodies, but only over the universal agents, the heavenly bodies. Avicenna followed a middle course. For he agreed with Plato in supposing some spiritual substance to preside immediately in the sphere of active and passive elements; because, as Plato also said, he held that the forms of these sensible things are derived from immaterial substances. But he differed from Plato because he supposed only one immaterial substance to preside over all inferior bodies, which he called the "active intelligence."

Reply Obj. 3: Philosophers have had different views about immaterial substances. Plato argued that immaterial substances were types and categories of sensible bodies, with some being more universal than others. He believed that immaterial substances directly oversee all sensible bodies, each overseeing different ones. In contrast, Aristotle contended that immaterial substances are not the species of sensible bodies but something higher and more universal. Thus, he did not assign them any direct oversight of individual bodies, but only over universal agents, like the heavenly bodies. Avicenna took a middle ground. He agreed with Plato that some spiritual substance directly oversees the realm of active and passive elements because, as Plato also stated, he believed that the forms of these sensible things come from immaterial substances. However, he differed from Plato in that he proposed only one immaterial substance oversaw all lower bodies, which he called the "active intelligence."

The holy doctors held with the Platonists that different spiritual substances were placed over corporeal things. For Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 79): "Every visible thing in this world has an angelic power placed over it"; and Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 4): "The devil was one of the angelic powers who presided over the terrestrial order"; and Origen says on the text, "When the ass saw the angel" (Num. 22:23), that "the world has need of angels who preside over beasts, and over the birth of animals, and trees, and plants, and over the increase of all other things" (Hom. xiv in Num.). The reason of this, however, is not that an angel is more fitted by his nature to preside over animals than over plants; because each angel, even the least, has a higher and more universal power than any kind of corporeal things: the reason is to be sought in the order of Divine wisdom, Who places different rulers over different things. Nor does it follow that there are more than nine orders of angels, because, as above expounded (Q. 108, A. 2), the orders are distinguished by their general offices. Hence as according to Gregory all the angels whose proper office it is to preside over the demons are of the order of the "powers"; so to the order of the "virtues" do those angels seem to belong who preside over purely corporeal creatures; for by their ministration miracles are sometimes performed. _______________________

The holy doctors believed alongside the Platonists that different spiritual entities exist above physical things. Augustine states (QQ. 83, qu. 79): "Every visible thing in this world has an angelic power assigned to it"; and Damascene notes (De Fide Orth. ii, 4): "The devil was one of the angelic powers overseeing the earthly order"; Origen comments on the passage, "When the ass saw the angel" (Num. 22:23), that "the world needs angels to oversee animals, the reproduction of creatures, trees, plants, and the growth of all other things" (Hom. xiv in Num.). However, the reason for this isn't that an angel is naturally better suited to oversee animals than plants; each angel, even the least, possesses a higher and more universal power than any type of physical thing. The reason lies in the order of Divine wisdom, which assigns different rulers to different entities. It's also not the case that there are more than nine orders of angels, because, as explained above (Q. 108, A. 2), the orders are categorized by their general roles. Therefore, according to Gregory, all angels tasked with overseeing demons belong to the order of "powers"; similarly, angels who oversee purely physical beings seem to belong to the order of "virtues," as their service sometimes leads to miracles.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 110, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 110, Art. 2]

Whether Corporeal Matter Obeys the Mere Will of an Angel?

Whether Physical Matter Follows the Simple Will of an Angel?

Objection 1: It would seem that corporeal matter obeys the mere will of an angel. For the power of an angel excels the power of the soul. But corporeal matter obeys a conception of the soul; for the body of man is changed by a conception of the soul as regards heat and cold, and sometimes even as regards health and sickness. Therefore much more is corporeal matter changed by a conception of an angel.

Objection 1: It appears that physical matter follows the simple will of an angel. Since an angel's power is greater than that of the soul, and physical matter responds to the soul's thoughts—because a person's body can change due to the soul's thoughts about heat and cold, and sometimes even about health and illness—then it stands to reason that physical matter is even more influenced by the thoughts of an angel.

Obj. 2: Further, whatever can be done by an inferior power, can be done by a superior power. Now the power of an angel is superior to corporeal power. But a body by its power is able to transform corporeal matter; as appears when fire begets fire. Therefore much more efficaciously can an angel by his power transform corporeal matter.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, anything an inferior power can do, a superior power can also do. The power of an angel is greater than that of a physical being. A physical body can change physical matter; for example, when fire creates fire. Therefore, an angel can much more effectively transform physical matter with its power.

Obj. 3: Further, all corporeal nature is under angelic administration, as appears above (A. 1), and thus it appears that bodies are as instruments to the angels, for an instrument is essentially a mover moved. Now in effects there is something that is due to the power of their principal agents, and which cannot be due to the power of the instrument; and this it is that takes the principal place in the effect. For example, digestion is due to the force of natural heat, which is the instrument of the nutritive soul: but that living flesh is thus generated is due to the power of the soul. Again the cutting of the wood is from the saw; but that it assumes the length the form of a bed is from the design of the [joiner's] art. Therefore the substantial form which takes the principal place in the corporeal effects, is due to the angelic power. Therefore matter obeys the angels in receiving its form.

Obj. 3: Additionally, all physical nature is managed by angels, as mentioned above (A. 1), and so it seems that physical bodies serve as tools for the angels, because a tool is essentially a mover that is moved. In effects, there is something that comes from the power of their main agents, which cannot be attributed to the power of the tool; this is what takes precedence in the effect. For instance, digestion results from the force of natural heat, which is the tool of the nourishing soul: however, the creation of living flesh comes from the power of the soul. Similarly, the cutting of wood is done by the saw; but the fact that it takes on the shape of a bed comes from the skill of the carpenter's craft. Therefore, the substantial form that is primary in physical effects is due to angelic power. Hence, matter submits to the angels in receiving its form.

On the contrary, Augustine says "It is not to be thought, that this visible matter obeys these rebel angels; for it obeys God alone."

On the contrary, Augustine says "We shouldn't think that this visible matter follows these rebellious angels; it follows God alone."

I answer that, The Platonists [*Phaedo. xlix: Tim. (Did.) vol. ii, p. 218] asserted that the forms which are in matter are caused by immaterial forms, because they said that the material forms are participations of immaterial forms. Avicenna followed them in this opinion to some extent, for he said that all forms which are in matter proceed from the concept of the intellect; and that corporeal agents only dispose [matter] for the forms. They seem to have been deceived on this point, through supposing a form to be something made per se, so that it would be the effect of a formal principle. But, as the Philosopher proves (Metaph. vii, Did. vi, 8), what is made, properly speaking, is the composite: for this properly speaking, is, as it were, what subsists. Whereas the form is called a being, not as that which is, but as that by which something is; and consequently neither is a form, properly speaking, made; for that is made which is; since to be is nothing but the way to existence.

I answer that, The Platonists [*Phaedo. xlix: Tim. (Did.) vol. ii, p. 218] claimed that forms found in matter come from immaterial forms because they believed that material forms are participations in immaterial ones. Avicenna somewhat agreed with this view, stating that all forms within matter arise from the concept of the intellect; and that physical agents merely prepare [matter] for the forms. They seem to have misunderstood this issue by thinking of a form as something created per se, making it an effect of a formal principle. However, as the Philosopher demonstrates (Metaph. vii, Did. vi, 8), what is actually made, in the true sense, is the composite: this, properly speaking, exists as something that stands alone. On the other hand, a form is referred to as a being, not in the sense of what is, but as that by which something comes into being; therefore, a form is not, in the true sense, created; because what is created is what exists; and to be is simply the way to existence.

Now it is manifest that what is made is like to the maker, forasmuch as every agent makes its like. So whatever makes natural things, has a likeness to the composite; either because it is composite itself, as when fire begets fire, or because the whole "composite" as to both matter and form is within its power; and this belongs to God alone. Therefore every informing of matter is either immediately from God, or form some corporeal agent; but not immediately from an angel.

Now it’s clear that what is created resembles the creator, because every agent produces something similar. So anything that creates natural things has a similarity to the composite; either because it is composite itself, like how fire produces fire, or because the entire "composite," in terms of both matter and form, is within its control; and this ability belongs solely to God. Therefore, every shaping of matter comes either directly from God or from some physical agent; but not directly from an angel.

Reply Obj. 1: Our soul is united to the body as the form; and so it is not surprising for the body to be formally changed by the soul's concept; especially as the movement of the sensitive appetite, which is accompanied with a certain bodily change, is subject to the command of reason. An angel, however, has not the same connection with natural bodies; and hence the argument does not hold.

Reply Obj. 1: Our soul is connected to the body as its form; so it's not surprising that the body can be fundamentally transformed by the soul's ideas, especially since the movements of our desires, which come with certain physical changes, are under the control of reason. An angel, however, doesn't have the same relationship with natural bodies; therefore, the argument doesn't apply.

Reply Obj. 2: Whatever an inferior power can do, that a superior power can do, not in the same way, but in a more excellent way; for example, the intellect knows sensible things in a more excellent way than sense knows them. So an angel can change corporeal matter in a more excellent way than can corporeal agents, that is by moving the corporeal agents themselves, as being the superior cause.

Reply Obj. 2: Anything an inferior power can do, a superior power can do too, but not in the same way—rather, in a better way. For instance, the mind understands physical things better than the senses do. Similarly, an angel can manipulate physical matter in a superior way compared to physical agents, as it does so by directing the physical agents themselves, being the higher cause.

Reply Obj. 3: There is nothing to prevent some natural effect taking place by angelic power, for which the power of corporeal agents would not suffice. This, however, is not to obey an angel's will (as neither does matter obey the mere will of a cook, when by regulating the fire according to the prescription of his art he produces a dish that the fire could not have produced by itself); since to reduce matter to the act of the substantial form does not exceed the power of a corporeal agent; for it is natural for like to make like. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: There’s nothing stopping some natural effect from happening through angelic power, which wouldn’t be possible with just physical agents. However, this doesn’t mean that matter is following an angel's will (just as matter doesn’t simply follow a cook's will when, by adjusting the fire according to his techniques, he creates a dish that the fire alone couldn’t make); because transforming matter into its actual form doesn’t go beyond the capability of a physical agent; it’s natural for like to produce like.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 110, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 110, Art. 3]

Whether Bodies Obey the Angels As Regards Local Motion?

Whether Bodies Follow the Angels When It Comes to Movement?

Objection 1: It would seem that bodies do not obey the angels in local motion. For the local motion of natural bodies follows on their forms. But the angels do not cause the forms of natural bodies, as stated above (A. 2). Therefore neither can they cause in them local motion.

Objection 1: It seems that physical bodies do not follow angels in local movement. The local movement of natural bodies is determined by their forms. However, as mentioned earlier (A. 2), angels do not create the forms of natural bodies. Therefore, they cannot produce local movement in them either.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher (Phys. viii, 7) proves that local motion is the first of all movements. But the angels cannot cause other movements by a formal change of the matter. Therefore neither can they cause local motion.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the Philosopher (Phys. viii, 7) demonstrates that local motion is the primary type of movement. However, angels cannot produce other movements through a formal change in matter. Thus, they also cannot create local motion.

Obj. 3: Further, the corporeal members obey the concept of the soul as regards local movement, as having in themselves some principle of life. In natural bodies, however, there is no vital principle. Therefore they do not obey the angels in local motion.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the physical parts respond to the concept of the soul when it comes to local movement, as they contain some principle of life within them. However, in natural bodies, there is no vital principle. Therefore, they do not follow the angels in local motion.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8,9) that the angels use corporeal seed to produce certain effects. But they cannot do this without causing local movement. Therefore bodies obey them in local motion.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8,9) that angels use physical matter to create certain effects. However, they can't do this without causing movement in space. So, physical bodies respond to them in terms of movement.

I answer that, As Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii): "Divine wisdom has joined the ends of the first to the principles of the second." Hence it is clear that the inferior nature at its highest point is in conjunction with superior nature. Now corporeal nature is below the spiritual nature. But among all corporeal movements the most perfect is local motion, as the Philosopher proves (Phys. viii, 7). The reason of this is that what is moved locally is not as such in potentiality to anything intrinsic, but only to something extrinsic—that is, to place. Therefore the corporeal nature has a natural aptitude to be moved immediately by the spiritual nature as regards place. Hence also the philosophers asserted that the supreme bodies are moved locally by the spiritual substances; whence we see that the soul moves the body first and chiefly by a local motion.

I answer that, As Dionysius says (Div. Nom. vii): "Divine wisdom has connected the ends of the first with the principles of the second." Therefore, it is clear that the lower nature, at its highest point, is linked with the higher nature. Now, physical nature is below spiritual nature. Among all physical movements, the most perfect is local motion, as the Philosopher demonstrates (Phys. viii, 7). The reason for this is that what is moved locally is not in potentiality to anything intrinsic, but only to something external—that is, to location. Thus, physical nature has a natural ability to be immediately moved by spiritual nature regarding its position. For this reason, philosophers also claimed that the supreme bodies are moved locally by spiritual substances; hence we see that the soul primarily moves the body through local motion.

Reply Obj. 1: There are in bodies other local movements besides those which result from the forms; for instance, the ebb and flow of the sea does not follow from the substantial form of the water, but from the influence of the moon; and much more can local movements result from the power of spiritual substances.

Reply Obj. 1: There are other local movements in bodies besides those that come from their forms; for example, the rising and falling of the sea isn’t caused by the water’s substantial form, but rather by the moon's influence. Additionally, many local movements can also arise from the power of spiritual substances.

Reply Obj. 2: The angels, by causing local motion, as the first motion, can thereby cause other movements; that is, by employing corporeal agents to produce these effects, as a workman employs fire to soften iron.

Reply Obj. 2: Angels can initiate local motion, which is the first movement, and in doing so, they can cause other movements. They do this by using physical agents to create these effects, similar to how a worker uses fire to soften iron.

Reply Obj. 3: The power of an angel is not so limited as is the power of the soul. Hence the motive power of the soul is limited to the body united to it, which is vivified by it, and by which it can move other things. But an angel's power is not limited to any body; hence it can move locally bodies not joined to it. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: An angel's power is not as restricted as that of the soul. The soul's ability to act is confined to the body it is connected to, which it animates and through which it can cause movement in other things. However, an angel's power is not bound to any single body; therefore, it can influence and move objects that are not attached to it.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 110, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 110, Art. 4]

Whether Angels Can Work Miracles?

Can angels perform miracles?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels can work miracles. For Gregory says (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.): "Those spirits are called virtues by whom signs and miracles are usually done."

Objection 1: It seems that angels can perform miracles. For Gregory states (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.): "Those spirits are called virtues since they typically carry out signs and miracles."

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 79) that "magicians work miracles by private contracts; good Christians by public justice, bad Christians by the signs of public justice." But magicians work miracles because they are "heard by the demons," as he says elsewhere in the same work [*Cf. Liber xxi, Sentent., sent. 4: among the supposititious works of St. Augustine]. Therefore the demons can work miracles. Therefore much more can the good angels.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (QQ. 83, qu. 79) that "magicians perform miracles through private agreements; good Christians through public justice, and bad Christians through the appearances of public justice." However, magicians perform miracles because they are "listened to by demons," as he mentions elsewhere in the same work [*Cf. Liber xxi, Sentent., sent. 4: among the supposed works of St. Augustine]. Thus, demons can perform miracles. Therefore, much more can good angels.

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine says in the same work [*Cf. Liber xxi, Sentent., sent. 4: among the supposititious works of St. Augustine] that "it is not absurd to believe that all the things we see happen may be brought about by the lower powers that dwell in our atmosphere." But when an effect of natural causes is produced outside the order of the natural cause, we call it a miracle, as, for instance, when anyone is cured of a fever without the operation of nature. Therefore the angels and demons can work miracles.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, Augustine mentions in the same work [*Cf. Liber xxi, Sentent., sent. 4: among the supposititious works of St. Augustine] that "it isn't unreasonable to think that everything we observe happening can be caused by the lower powers existing in our atmosphere." However, when something happens as a result of natural causes but is outside the usual order of those causes, we refer to it as a miracle, such as when someone is healed of a fever without the influence of nature. So, angels and demons have the ability to perform miracles.

Obj. 4: Further, superior power is not subject to the order of an inferior cause. But corporeal nature is inferior to an angel. Therefore an angel can work outside the order of corporeal agents; which is to work miracles.

Obj. 4: Additionally, a higher power is not bound by the order of a lower cause. Since physical nature is lower than an angel, an angel can operate outside the rules of physical beings; this is what it means to perform miracles.

On the contrary, It is written of God (Ps. 135:4): "Who alone doth great wonders."

On the contrary, It is written of God (Ps. 135:4): "Who alone does great wonders."

I answer that, A miracle properly so called is when something is done outside the order of nature. But it is not enough for a miracle if something is done outside the order of any particular nature; for otherwise anyone would perform a miracle by throwing a stone upwards, as such a thing is outside the order of the stone's nature. So for a miracle is required that it be against the order of the whole created nature. But God alone can do this, because, whatever an angel or any other creature does by its own power, is according to the order of created nature; and thus it is not a miracle. Hence God alone can work miracles.

I answer that, A miracle, by definition, is an occurrence that goes beyond the laws of nature. However, it’s not sufficient for something to simply be outside the limits of a specific nature; otherwise, anyone could perform a miracle by throwing a stone upward, since that defies the stone's natural behavior. Therefore, a miracle must go against the order of all created nature. Only God can accomplish this because anything that an angel or any other creature does with its own power operates within the framework of created nature; thus, it isn’t considered a miracle. Therefore, only God can perform miracles.

Reply Obj. 1: Some angels are said to work miracles; either because God works miracles at their request, in the same way as holy men are said to work miracles; or because they exercise a kind of ministry in the miracles which take place; as in collecting the dust in the general resurrection, or by doing something of that kind.

Reply Obj. 1: Some angels are believed to perform miracles; either because God performs miracles at their request, just like holy people are said to do miracles; or because they play a role in the miracles that occur, such as gathering the dust during the general resurrection, or doing something similar.

Reply Obj. 2: Properly speaking, as said above, miracles are those things which are done outside the order of the whole created nature. But as we do not know all the power of created nature, it follows that when anything is done outside the order of created nature by a power unknown to us, it is called a miracle as regards ourselves. So when the demons do anything of their own natural power, these things are called "miracles" not in an absolute sense, but in reference to ourselves. In this way the magicians work miracles through the demons; and these are said to be done by "private contracts," forasmuch as every power of the creature, in the universe, may be compared to the power of a private person in a city. Hence when a magician does anything by compact with the devil, this is done as it were by private contract. On the other hand, the Divine justice is in the whole universe as the public law is in the city. Therefore good Christians, so far as they work miracles by Divine justice, are said to work miracles by "public justice": but bad Christians by the "signs of public justice," as by invoking the name of Christ, or by making use of other sacred signs.

Reply Obj. 2: To be precise, as mentioned earlier, miracles are events that occur outside the normal order of all created nature. However, since we don’t fully understand all the capabilities of created nature, when something happens that defies this order through a power we don’t know, we call it a miracle in relation to our understanding. So when demons act using their own natural abilities, these actions are called "miracles" not in an absolute sense, but in relation to our perspective. In this way, magicians perform miracles through demons; these acts are considered to be done through "private contracts," because the power of any creature in the universe can be compared to the power of an individual in a city. Thus, when a magician performs an act in agreement with the devil, it's as if it's done by a private contract. Conversely, Divine justice exists throughout the universe much like public law exists in a city. Therefore, good Christians, when they perform miracles through Divine justice, are said to work miracles through "public justice"; while bad Christians do so through "signs of public justice," like invoking the name of Christ or using other sacred signs.

Reply Obj. 3: Spiritual powers are able to effect whatever happens in this visible world, by employing corporeal seeds by local movement.

Reply Obj. 3: Spiritual powers can influence everything that happens in this visible world by using physical elements through local movement.

Reply Obj. 4: Although the angels can do something which is outside the order of corporeal nature, yet they cannot do anything outside the whole created order, which is essential to a miracle, as above explained. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: Although angels can perform actions that go beyond the limits of physical nature, they cannot act in a way that goes against the entire created order, which is essential for a miracle, as explained above.

QUESTION 111

THE ACTION OF THE ANGELS ON MAN
(In Four Articles)

THE ACTION OF THE ANGELS ON HUMANS
(In Four Articles)

We now consider the action of the angels on man, and inquire:

We now look at how angels interact with humans and ask:

(1) How far they can change them by their own natural power;

(1) How much they can change them using their own natural ability;

(2) How they are sent by God to the ministry of men;

(2) How they are sent by God to serve humanity;

(3) How they guard and protect men.

(3) How they look after and protect people.

Under the first head there are four points of inquiry:

Under the first section, there are four things to look into:

(1) Whether an angel can enlighten the human intellect?

(1) Can an angel enlighten the human mind?

(2) Whether he can change man's will?

(2) Can he change a person's will?

(3) Whether he can change man's imagination?

(3) Can he change how people imagine things?

(4) Whether he can change man's senses? _______________________

(4) Can he change how people perceive things? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 111, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 111, Art. 1]

Whether an Angel Can Enlighten Man?

Whether an Angel Can Enlighten Man?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel cannot enlighten man. For man is enlightened by faith; hence Dionysius (Eccl. Hier. iii) attributes enlightenment to baptism, as "the sacrament of faith." But faith is immediately from God, according to Eph. 2:8: "By grace you are saved through faith, and that not of yourselves, for it is the gift of God." Therefore man is not enlightened by an angel; but immediately by God.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel cannot enlighten a person. A person is enlightened by faith; therefore, Dionysius (Eccl. Hier. iii) assigns enlightenment to baptism, calling it "the sacrament of faith." But faith comes directly from God, as stated in Eph. 2:8: "By grace you are saved through faith, and that not of yourselves, for it is the gift of God." Therefore, a person is not enlightened by an angel; rather, it is directly by God.

Obj. 2: Further, on the words, "God hath manifested it to them" (Rom. 1:19), the gloss observes that "not only natural reason availed for the manifestation of Divine truths to men, but God also revealed them by His work," that is, by His creature. But both are immediately from God—that is, natural reason and the creature. Therefore God enlightens man immediately.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, regarding the phrase, "God has revealed it to them" (Rom. 1:19), the commentary notes that "not only did natural reason allow for the revelation of Divine truths to people, but God also made them known through His creation," meaning through His creatures. However, both come directly from God—that is, natural reason and creation. Therefore, God illuminates humanity directly.

Obj. 3: Further, whoever is enlightened is conscious of being enlightened. But man is not conscious of being enlightened by angels. Therefore he is not enlightened by them.

Obj. 3: Additionally, anyone who is enlightened is aware of their enlightenment. However, people are not aware of being enlightened by angels. So, they are not enlightened by them.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. iv) that the revelation of Divine things reaches men through the ministry of the angels. But such revelation is an enlightenment as we have stated (Q. 106, A. 1; Q. 107, A. 2). Therefore men are enlightened by the angels.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. iv) that the revelation of Divine things comes to people through the work of angels. However, this revelation is a form of enlightenment, as we have stated (Q. 106, A. 1; Q. 107, A. 2). Therefore, people are enlightened by the angels.

I answer that, Since the order of Divine Providence disposes that lower things be subject to the actions of higher, as explained above (Q. 109, A. 2); as the inferior angels are enlightened by the superior, so men, who are inferior to the angels, are enlightened by them.

I reply that, Since the order of Divine Providence arranges that lower things are influenced by higher ones, as previously explained (Q. 109, A. 2); just as the lower angels receive guidance from the higher angels, humans, who are below the angels, are guided by them.

The modes of each of these kinds of enlightenment are in one way alike and in another way unlike. For, as was shown above (Q. 106, A. 1), the enlightenment which consists in making known Divine truth has two functions; namely, according as the inferior intellect is strengthened by the action of the superior intellect, and according as the intelligible species which are in the superior intellect are proposed to the inferior so as to be grasped thereby. This takes place in the angels when the superior angel divides his universal concept of the truth according to the capacity of the inferior angel, as explained above (Q. 106, A. 1).

The ways each type of enlightenment works are similar in some aspects and different in others. As mentioned earlier (Q. 106, A. 1), the enlightenment that involves revealing Divine truth serves two purposes: first, it strengthens the lower intellect through the influence of the higher intellect, and second, it presents the understandings from the higher intellect to the lower one so they can be understood. This happens with angels when a higher angel breaks down his universal understanding of truth to match the abilities of the lower angel, as explained earlier (Q. 106, A. 1).

The human intellect, however, cannot grasp the universal truth itself unveiled; because its nature requires it to understand by turning to the phantasms, as above explained (Q. 84, A. 7). So the angels propose the intelligible truth to men under the similitudes of sensible things, according to what Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. i), that, "It is impossible for the divine ray to shine on us, otherwise than shrouded by the variety of the sacred veils." On the other hand, the human intellect as the inferior, is strengthened by the action of the angelic intellect. And in these two ways man is enlightened by an angel.

The human mind, however, cannot grasp the universal truth itself because it needs to understand by looking at appearances, as explained above (Q. 84, A. 7). So, angels present this intelligible truth to people using examples from the physical world. As Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. i), "It’s impossible for the divine light to shine on us without being covered by the variety of sacred veils." On the other hand, the human mind, being the lesser, is strengthened by the influence of the angelic mind. In these two ways, a person is enlightened by an angel.

Reply Obj. 1: Two dispositions concur in the virtue of faith; first, the habit of the intellect whereby it is disposed to obey the will tending to Divine truth. For the intellect assents to the truth of faith, not as convinced by the reason, but as commanded by the will; hence Augustine says, "No one believes except willingly." In this respect faith comes from God alone. Secondly, faith requires that what is to be believed be proposed to the believer; which is accomplished by man, according to Rom. 10:17, "Faith cometh by hearing"; principally, however, by the angels, by whom Divine things are revealed to men. Hence the angels have some part in the enlightenment of faith. Moreover, men are enlightened by the angels not only concerning what is to be believed; but also as regards what is to be done.

Reply Obj. 1: There are two aspects that contribute to the virtue of faith. First, there's the habit of the intellect that makes it ready to follow the will toward Divine truth. The intellect accepts the truth of faith, not because it’s convinced by reason, but because the will commands it; therefore, Augustine states, "No one believes except willingly." In this sense, faith comes solely from God. Second, faith requires that what needs to be believed is presented to the believer; this is achieved by humans, as stated in Rom. 10:17, "Faith comes by hearing"; more importantly, though, it is done by angels, who reveal Divine truths to people. Thus, angels play a role in enlightening faith. Additionally, people are guided by angels not only about what should be believed but also about what actions should be taken.

Reply Obj. 2: Natural reason, which is immediately from God, can be strengthened by an angel, as we have said above. Again, the more the human intellect is strengthened, so much higher an intelligible truth can be elicited from the species derived from creatures. Thus man is assisted by an angel so that he may obtain from creatures a more perfect knowledge of God.

Reply Obj. 2: Natural reason, which comes directly from God, can be supported by an angel, as we mentioned earlier. Moreover, the more the human intellect is empowered, the greater understanding of truth can be drawn from the qualities of created things. In this way, an angel helps humans gain a more complete understanding of God from His creations.

Reply Obj. 3: Intellectual operation and enlightenment can be understood in two ways. First, on the part of the object understood; thus whoever understands or is enlightened, knows that he understands or is enlightened, because he knows that the object is made known to him. Secondly, on the part of the principle; and thus it does not follow that whoever understands a truth, knows what the intellect is, which is the principle of the intellectual operation. In like manner not everyone who is enlightened by an angel, knows that he is enlightened by him. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Understanding and enlightenment can be seen in two ways. First, from the perspective of the object being understood; so anyone who understands or is enlightened knows that they are, because they recognize that the object is revealed to them. Second, from the perspective of the principle; and so it doesn't mean that just because someone understands a truth, they know what the intellect is, which is the basis of intellectual operation. Similarly, not everyone who is enlightened by an angel realizes that they are being enlightened by that angel.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 111, Art. 3]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 111, Art. 3]

Whether the Angels Can Change the Will of Man?

Whether Angels Can Change the Will of Man?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels can change the will of man. For, upon the text, "Who maketh His angels spirits and His ministers a flame of fire" (Heb. 1:7), the gloss notes that "they are fire, as being spiritually fervent, and as burning away our vices." This could not be, however, unless they changed the will. Therefore the angels can change the will.

Objection 1: It seems that angels can change a person's will. According to the text, "Who makes His angels spirits and His ministers a flame of fire" (Heb. 1:7), the commentary explains that "they are fire, being spiritually passionate, and as such, they burn away our faults." This wouldn't be possible unless they could change the will. Therefore, angels can change the will.

Obj. 2: Further, Bede says (Super Matth. xv, 11), that, "the devil does not send wicked thoughts, but kindles them." Damascene, however, says that he also sends them; for he remarks that "every malicious act and unclean passion is contrived by the demons and put into men" (De Fide Orth. ii, 4); in like manner also the good angels introduce and kindle good thoughts. But this could only be if they changed the will. Therefore the will is changed by them.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Bede states (Super Matth. xv, 11) that "the devil doesn’t send wicked thoughts, but sparks them." However, Damascene argues that he does send them, noting that "every malicious act and unclean desire is crafted by the demons and instilled in people" (De Fide Orth. ii, 4); similarly, good angels inspire and ignite good thoughts. This could only happen if they influenced the will. Therefore, the will is influenced by them.

Obj. 3: Further, the angel, as above explained, enlightens the human intellect by means of the phantasms. But as the imagination which serves the intellect can be changed by an angel, so can the sensitive appetite which serves the will, because it also is a faculty using a corporeal organ. Therefore as the angel enlightens the mind, so can he change the will.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the angel, as explained earlier, informs the human intellect through images. Just as the imagination that assists the intellect can be altered by an angel, so can the sensory appetite that supports the will, since it is also a faculty using a physical organ. Therefore, just as the angel enlightens the mind, he can also influence the will.

On the contrary, To change the will belongs to God alone, according to Prov. 21:1: "The heart of the king is in the hand of the Lord, whithersoever He will He shall turn it."

On the contrary, Changing the will is something only God can do, as stated in Prov. 21:1: "The heart of the king is in the hand of the Lord; He directs it wherever He wants."

I answer that, The will can be changed in two ways. First, from within; in which way, since the movement of the will is nothing but the inclination of the will to the thing willed, God alone can thus change the will, because He gives the power of such an inclination to the intellectual nature. For as the natural inclination is from God alone Who gives the nature, so the inclination of the will is from God alone, Who causes the will.

I respond that, The will can be altered in two ways. First, from within; in this way, since the movement of the will is simply the desire of the will towards what it wishes, only God can change the will in this manner, because He provides the power for such desire to the intellectual nature. Just as natural inclinations come from God alone, Who grants the nature, the inclinations of the will also come from God alone, Who causes the will.

Secondly, the will is moved from without. As regards an angel, this can be only in one way—by the good apprehended by the intellect. Hence in as far as anyone may be the cause why anything be apprehended as an appetible good, so far does he move the will. In this way also God alone can move the will efficaciously; but an angel and man move the will by way of persuasion, as above explained (Q. 106, A. 2).

Secondly, the will is influenced from the outside. When it comes to an angel, this can only happen in one way—through the good that is understood by the mind. Therefore, the more someone is the reason that something is perceived as a desirable good, the more they can influence the will. In this way, only God can effectively move the will; however, an angel and a person can influence the will through persuasion, as explained above (Q. 106, A. 2).

In addition to this mode the human will can be moved from without in another way; namely, by the passion residing in the sensitive appetite: thus by concupiscence or anger the will is inclined to will something. In this manner the angels, as being able to rouse these passions, can move the will, not however by necessity, for the will ever remains free to consent to, or to resist, the passion.

Besides this way, the human will can also be influenced from the outside in another manner; specifically, through the feelings that come from our emotional desires: for example, desire or anger can push the will to want something. In this way, angels, since they can stir up these feelings, can influence the will, but not in a mandatory way, because the will always stays free to agree with or oppose the emotion.

Reply Obj. 1: Those who act as God's ministers, either men or angels, are said to burn away vices, and to incite to virtue by way of persuasion.

Reply Obj. 1: Those who serve as God's ministers, whether they are people or angels, are said to eliminate vices and encourage virtue through persuasion.

Reply Obj. 2: The demon cannot put thoughts in our minds by causing them from within, since the act of the cogitative faculty is subject to the will; nevertheless the devil is called the kindler of thoughts, inasmuch as he incites to thought, by the desire of the things thought of, by way of persuasion, or by rousing the passions. Damascene calls this kindling "a putting in" because such a work is accomplished within. But good thoughts are attributed to a higher principle, namely, God, though they may be procured by the ministry of the angels.

Reply Obj. 2: The demon can't plant thoughts in our minds from the inside, since our thinking is controlled by our will. However, the devil is referred to as the instigator of thoughts because he influences our thinking through desire for what we consider, either by persuasion or by stirring up our feelings. Damascene describes this influence as "putting in" because it happens internally. But positive thoughts are credited to a higher source, namely God, even if they are facilitated by angels.

Reply Obj. 3: The human intellect in its present state can understand only by turning to the phantasms; but the human will can will something following the judgment of reason rather than the passion of the sensitive appetite. Hence the comparison does not hold. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The human mind, in its current state, can only understand by referring to images; however, the human will can choose something based on the judgment of reason rather than the desires of the senses. Therefore, the comparison doesn't hold.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 111, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 111, Art. 3]

Whether an Angel Can Change Man's Imagination?

Whether an angel can change a person's imagination?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel cannot change man's imagination. For the phantasy, as is said De Anima iii, is "a motion caused by the sense in act." But if this motion were caused by an angel, it would not be caused by the sense in act. Therefore it is contrary to the nature of the phantasy, which is the act of the imaginative faculty, to be changed by an angel.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel cannot change a person's imagination. The phantasy, as stated in De Anima iii, is "a motion caused by the senses in action." But if this motion were caused by an angel, it wouldn’t be caused by the senses in action. Therefore, it goes against the nature of phantasy, which is the function of the imaginative faculty, to be changed by an angel.

Obj. 2: Further, since the forms in the imagination are spiritual, they are nobler than the forms existing in sensible matter. But an angel cannot impress forms upon sensible matter (Q. 110, A. 2). Therefore he cannot impress forms on the imagination, and so he cannot change it.

Obj. 2: Moreover, since the forms in the imagination are spiritual, they are superior to the forms that exist in physical matter. However, an angel can't imprint forms on physical matter (Q. 110, A. 2). Because of this, he can't imprint forms on the imagination, and therefore, he cannot alter it.

Obj. 3: Further, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 12): "One spirit by intermingling with another can communicate his knowledge to the other spirit by these images, so that the latter either understands it himself, or accepts it as understood by the other." But it does not seem that an angel can be mingled with the human imagination, nor that the imagination can receive the knowledge of an angel. Therefore it seems that an angel cannot change the imagination.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 12): "One spirit can share its knowledge with another spirit through these images, so that the second spirit either comprehends it on its own, or takes it as understood by the first." However, it doesn't appear that an angel can blend with the human imagination, nor that the imagination can grasp the knowledge of an angel. Therefore, it seems that an angel cannot alter the imagination.

Obj. 4: Further, in the imaginative vision man cleaves to the similitudes of the things as to the things themselves. But in this there is deception. So as a good angel cannot be the cause of deception, it seems that he cannot cause the imaginative vision, by changing the imagination.

Obj. 4: Additionally, in the imaginative vision, a person clings to the likenesses of things as if they were the things themselves. However, this is misleading. Since a good angel cannot be the source of deception, it appears that he cannot create the imaginative vision by altering the imagination.

On the contrary, Those things which are seen in dreams are seen by imaginative vision. But the angels reveal things in dreams, as appears from Matt. 1:20; 2:13, 19 in regard to the angel who appeared to Joseph in dreams. Therefore an angel can move the imagination.

On the contrary, Things that appear in dreams are experienced through imaginative vision. However, angels reveal things in dreams, as shown in Matt. 1:20; 2:13, 19 concerning the angel who appeared to Joseph in dreams. Therefore, an angel can influence the imagination.

I answer that, Both a good and a bad angel by their own natural power can move the human imagination. This may be explained as follows. For it was said above (Q. 110, A. 3), that corporeal nature obeys the angel as regards local movement, so that whatever can be caused by the local movement of bodies is subject to the natural power of the angels. Now it is manifest that imaginative apparitions are sometimes caused in us by the local movement of animal spirits and humors. Hence Aristotle says (De Somn. et Vigil.) [*De Insomniis iii], when assigning the cause of visions in dreams, that "when an animal sleeps, the blood descends in abundance to the sensitive principle, and movements descend with it," that is, the impressions left from the movements are preserved in the animal spirits, "and move the sensitive principle"; so that a certain appearance ensues, as if the sensitive principle were being then changed by the external objects themselves. Indeed, the commotion of the spirits and humors may be so great that such appearances may even occur to those who are awake, as is seen in mad people, and the like. So, as this happens by a natural disturbance of the humors, and sometimes also by the will of man who voluntarily imagines what he previously experienced, so also the same may be done by the power of a good or a bad angel, sometimes with alienation from the bodily senses, sometimes without such alienation.

I answer that, Both a good and a bad angel can influence the human imagination through their natural abilities. Here's how that works. As mentioned earlier (Q. 110, A. 3), physical nature responds to angels in terms of local movement, meaning anything that can be triggered by the physical movement of bodies is under the control of angels' natural powers. It's clear that imaginative visions can sometimes be created in us by the physical movement of animal spirits and bodily fluids. Aristotle states (De Somn. et Vigil.) [*De Insomniis iii] that when an animal sleeps, blood flows abundantly to the sensitive part of the mind, and movements accompany this flow, meaning the impressions left by these movements are stored in the animal spirits and influence the sensitive part of the mind. This can lead to certain perceptions as if the sensitive part is being altered by external objects. In fact, the disturbance in the spirits and humors can be intense enough that such visions may occur even when a person is awake, as seen in individuals with mental illness, for example. Since this can happen due to a natural disruption of the humors, and sometimes caused by a person's own will when they deliberately imagine what they have experienced before, the same is true for the influence of a good or a bad angel—sometimes detaching from the bodily senses, and sometimes without such detachment.

Reply Obj. 1: The first principle of the imagination is from the sense in act. For we cannot imagine what we have never perceived by the senses, either wholly or partly; as a man born blind cannot imagine color. Sometimes, however, the imagination is informed in such a way that the act of the imaginative movement arises from the impressions preserved within.

Reply Obj. 1: The first principle of imagination comes from our direct experiences. We can’t picture anything we’ve never sensed in some way; for example, a person born blind can’t envision color. However, sometimes the imagination is shaped in such a way that the creative process comes from the memories we hold onto.

Reply Obj. 2: An angel changes the imagination, not indeed by the impression of an imaginative form in no way previously received from the senses (for he cannot make a man born blind imagine color), but by local movement of the spirits and humors, as above explained.

Reply Obj. 2: An angel alters the imagination, not by impressing an imaginative form that hasn't been previously received from the senses (since he can't make a blind person envision color), but through the physical movement of the spirits and humors, as explained earlier.

Reply Obj. 3: The commingling of the angelic spirit with the human imagination is not a mingling of essences, but by reason of an effect which he produces in the imagination in the way above stated; so that he shows man what he [the angel] knows, but not in the way he knows.

Reply Obj. 3: The blending of the angelic spirit with the human imagination isn't a mixing of essences, but rather a result of an effect that it creates in the imagination as mentioned above; this allows the angel to show humans what it knows, but not in the way it knows.

Reply Obj. 4: An angel causing an imaginative vision, sometimes enlightens the intellect at the same time, so that it knows what these images signify; and then there is no deception. But sometimes by the angelic operation the similitudes of things only appear in the imagination; but neither then is deception caused by the angel, but by the defect in the intellect to whom such things appear. Thus neither was Christ a cause of deception when He spoke many things to the people in parables, which He did not explain to them. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: An angel creating an imaginative vision can sometimes also enlighten the intellect, so that it understands what these images mean; in that case, there is no deception. However, sometimes the angel's action only makes the likenesses of things appear in the imagination; even then, the angel isn't causing deception, but it's a flaw in the intellect of the person who perceives these things. Similarly, Christ was not a cause of deception when He told many things to the people in parables without explaining them.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 111, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 111, Art. 4]

Whether an Angel Can Change the Human Senses?

Whether an Angel Can Change Human Senses?

Objection 1: It seems that an angel cannot change the human senses. For the sensitive operation is a vital operation. But such an operation does not come from an extrinsic principle. Therefore the sensitive operation cannot be caused by an angel.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel cannot change human senses. The sensitive operation is a vital process. But this kind of operation doesn't stem from an outside principle. Therefore, the sensitive operation can't be caused by an angel.

Obj. 2: Further, the sensitive operation is nobler than the nutritive. But the angel cannot change the nutritive power, nor other natural forms. Therefore neither can he change the sensitive power.

Obj. 2: Moreover, the sensitive operation is more noble than the nutritive one. However, the angel cannot alter the nutritive power or any other natural forms. Therefore, he cannot change the sensitive power either.

Obj. 3: Further, the senses are naturally moved by the sensible objects. But an angel cannot change the order of nature (Q. 110, A. 4). Therefore an angel cannot change the senses; but these are changed always by the sensible object.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the senses are naturally affected by the things we can perceive. However, an angel cannot alter the natural order (Q. 110, A. 4). Therefore, an angel cannot change the senses; instead, the senses are always influenced by the objects we perceive.

On the contrary, The angels who overturned Sodom, "struck the people of Sodom with blindness or aorasia, so that they could not find the door" (Gen. 19:11). [*It is worth noting that these are the only two passages in the Greek version where the word aorasia appears. It expresses, in fact, the effect produced on the people of Sodom—namely, dazzling (French version, "eblouissement"), which the Latin "caecitas" (blindness) does not necessarily imply.] The same is recorded of the Syrians whom Eliseus led into Samaria (4 Kings 6:18).

On the contrary, the angels who destroyed Sodom "struck the people of Sodom with blindness or aorasia, so that they could not find the door" (Gen. 19:11). [*It’s worth noting that these are the only two instances in the Greek version where the word aorasia appears. It actually describes the effect on the people of Sodom—dazzling (French version, "eblouissement"), which the Latin "caecitas" (blindness) does not necessarily indicate.] The same is noted about the Syrians whom Eliseus led into Samaria (4 Kings 6:18).

I answer that, The senses may be changed in a twofold manner; from without, as when affected by the sensible object: and from within, for we see that the senses are changed when the spirits and humors are disturbed; as for example, a sick man's tongue, charged with choleric humor, tastes everything as bitter, and the like with the other senses. Now an angel, by his natural power, can work a change in the senses both ways. For an angel can offer the senses a sensible object from without, formed by nature or by the angel himself, as when he assumes a body, as we have said above (Q. 51, A. 2). Likewise he can move the spirits and humors from within, as above remarked, whereby the senses are changed in various ways.

I answer that, The senses can change in two ways: from the outside, when they are influenced by a material object; and from the inside, because we can see that the senses change when the body's fluids and energies are imbalanced. For example, a sick person's tongue, affected by excess bile, perceives everything as bitter, and this applies to the other senses as well. An angel, by its inherent power, can alter the senses in both ways. An angel can present the senses with a material object from the outside, either naturally occurring or created by the angel itself, such as when it takes on a physical form, as mentioned earlier (Q. 51, A. 2). Similarly, it can influence the body's fluids and energies from the inside, as noted above, which changes the senses in various ways.

Reply Obj. 1: The principle of the sensitive operation cannot be without the interior principle which is the sensitive power; but this interior principle can be moved in many ways by the exterior principle, as above explained.

Reply Obj. 1: The principle of sensitive operation cannot exist without the inner principle, which is the sensitive power; however, this inner principle can be influenced in various ways by the outer principle, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 2: By the interior movement of the spirits and humors an angel can do something towards changing the act of the nutritive power, and also of the appetitive and sensitive power, and of any other power using a corporeal organ.

Reply Obj. 2: Through the inner movement of the spirits and humors, an angel can influence the functioning of the nutritive power, as well as the appetitive and sensitive powers, and any other power that uses a physical organ.

Reply Obj. 3: An angel can do nothing outside the entire order of creatures; but he can outside some particular order of nature, since he is not subject to that order; thus in some special way an angel can work a change in the senses outside the common mode of nature. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: An angel can't do anything outside the overall order of creatures; however, he can act outside a specific natural order, as he isn't bound by that order. Therefore, in a specific way, an angel can create a change in the senses that goes beyond the usual natural process.

QUESTION 112

THE MISSION OF THE ANGELS
(In Four Articles)

THE MISSION OF THE ANGELS
(In Four Articles)

We next consider the mission of the angels. Under this head arise four points of inquiry:

We’ll now look at the role of the angels. In this regard, there are four main questions to explore:

(1) Whether any angels are sent on works of ministry?

(1) Are any angels sent to do ministry work?

(2) Whether all are sent?

Are all of them sent?

(3) Whether those who are sent, assist?

(3) Do those who are sent help?

(4) From what orders they are sent. _______________________

(4) From what orders they are sent.

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 112, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 112, Art. 1]

Whether the Angels Are Sent on Works of Ministry?

Whether the Angels Are Sent on Ministry Tasks?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels are not sent on works of ministry. For every mission is to some determinate place. But intellectual actions do not determine a place, for intellect abstracts from the "here" and "now." Since therefore the angelic actions are intellectual, it appears that the angels are not sent to perform their own actions.

Objection 1: It seems that angels are not sent on missions. Every mission is directed to a specific place. However, intellectual actions do not specify a place because intellect abstracts from "here" and "now." Therefore, since angelic actions are intellectual, it appears that angels are not sent to carry out their own actions.

Obj. 2: Further, the empyrean heaven is the place that beseems the angelic dignity. Therefore if they are sent to us in ministry, it seems that something of their dignity would be lost; which is unseemly.

Obj. 2: Moreover, the empyrean heaven is the place that fits the angelic dignity. Therefore, if they are sent to us to serve, it seems that something of their dignity would be diminished; which is inappropriate.

Obj. 3: Further, external occupation hinders the contemplation of wisdom; hence it is said: "He that is less in action, shall receive wisdom" (Ecclus. 38:25). So if some angels are sent on external ministrations, they would seemingly be hindered from contemplation. But the whole of their beatitude consists in the contemplation of God. So if they were sent, their beatitude would be lessened; which is unfitting.

Obj. 3: Additionally, being caught up in external activities prevents deep thinking about wisdom; therefore, it is stated: "He who is less active will gain wisdom" (Ecclus. 38:25). If some angels are dispatched for external tasks, it seems they would be distracted from contemplation. However, their entire happiness is found in contemplating God. So, if they were sent out, their happiness would be diminished, which is inappropriate.

Obj. 4: Further, to minister is the part of an inferior; hence it is written (Luke 22:27): "Which is the greater, he that sitteth at table, or he that serveth? is not he that sitteth at table?" But the angels are naturally greater than we are. Therefore they are not sent to administer to us.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, to serve is the role of someone who is lesser; as it says in Luke 22:27: "Who is greater, the one who sits at the table or the one who serves? Isn't it the one who sits at the table?" But angels are naturally greater than we are. So, they are not sent to serve us.

On the contrary, It is written (Ex. 23:20): "Behold I will send My angels who shall go before thee."

On the contrary, It is written (Ex. 23:20): "Look, I will send My angels to go before you."

I answer that, From what has been said above (Q. 108, A. 6), it may be shown that some angels are sent in ministry by God. For, as we have already stated (Q. 43, A. 1), in treating of the mission of the Divine Persons, he is said to be sent who in any way proceeds from another so as to begin to be where he was not, or to be in another way, where he already was. Thus the Son, or the Holy Ghost is said to be sent as proceeding from the Father by origin; and begins to be in a new way, by grace or by the nature assumed, where He was before by the presence of His Godhead; for it belongs to God to be present everywhere, because, since He is the universal agent, His power reaches to all being, and hence He exists in all things (Q. 8, A. 1). An angel's power, however, as a particular agent, does not reach to the whole universe, but reaches to one thing in such a way as not to reach another; and so he is "here" in such a manner as not to be "there." But it is clear from what was above stated (Q. 110, A. 1), that the corporeal creature is governed by the angels. Hence, whenever an angel has to perform any work concerning a corporeal creature, the angel applies himself anew to that body by his power; and in that way begins to be there afresh. Now all this takes place by Divine command. Hence it follows that an angel is sent by God.

I respond that, Based on what we've discussed earlier (Q. 108, A. 6), it's clear that some angels are sent to serve by God. As we've already explained (Q. 43, A. 1), regarding the mission of the Divine Persons, someone is considered sent when they somehow proceed from another to begin to exist where they weren't before, or to exist in a different way where they already were. So, the Son or the Holy Spirit is described as being sent since they proceed from the Father by origin; they begin to exist in a new way, either by grace or through the nature they've taken on, where they were already present through their divine essence. God is present everywhere because, as the universal agent, His power extends to all existence, and therefore, He exists in all things (Q. 8, A. 1). However, an angel's power, as a specific agent, does not encompass the entire universe; it reaches one thing in such a way that it does not reach another. Therefore, an angel is "here" in one way while not being "there." From what has been stated earlier (Q. 110, A. 1), it's clear that angels govern corporeal creatures. Thus, whenever an angel needs to perform a task involving a corporeal creature, the angel directs its power to that body anew; in doing so, it effectively begins to be present there afresh. All of this happens under Divine command. Consequently, it follows that an angel is sent by God.

Yet the action performed by the angel who is sent, proceeds from God as from its first principle, at Whose nod and by Whose authority the angels work; and is reduced to God as to its last end. Now this is what is meant by a minister: for a minister is an intelligent instrument; while an instrument is moved by another, and its action is ordered to another. Hence angels' actions are called "ministries"; and for this reason they are said to be sent in ministry.

Yet the actions carried out by the angel who is sent come from God as their primary source, and it is through His direction and authority that the angels operate; their actions are ultimately directed back to God as their final purpose. This is what is meant by a minister: a minister is an intelligent tool; whereas a tool is operated by another, and its actions are aimed at a different goal. Therefore, the actions of angels are referred to as "ministries"; this is why they are said to be sent to serve.

Reply Obj. 1: An operation can be intellectual in two ways. In one way, as dwelling in the intellect itself, as contemplation; such an operation does not demand to occupy a place; indeed, as Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20): "Even we ourselves as mentally tasting something eternal, are not in this world." In another sense an action is said to be intellectual because it is regulated and commanded by some intellect; in that sense the intellectual operations evidently have sometimes a determinate place.

Reply Obj. 1: An operation can be intellectual in two ways. First, it can exist within the intellect itself, like contemplation; this kind of operation doesn’t need to occupy a physical space. As Augustine says (De Trin. iv, 20): "Even we ourselves, when mentally experiencing something eternal, are not in this world." Second, an action is considered intellectual because it is regulated and directed by some intellect; in this sense, intellectual operations sometimes clearly have a specific place.

Reply Obj. 2: The empyrean heaven belongs to the angelic dignity by way of congruity; forasmuch as it is congruous that the higher body should be attributed to that nature which occupies a rank above bodies. Yet an angel does not derive his dignity from the empyrean heaven; so when he is not actually in the empyrean heaven, nothing of his dignity is lost, as neither does a king lessen his dignity when not actually sitting on his regal throne, which suits his dignity.

Reply Obj. 2: The empyrean heaven is fitting for the angelic nature because it makes sense that a higher realm should be associated with beings that are above physical bodies. However, an angel doesn’t get his dignity from the empyrean heaven; so when he’s not actually in the empyrean heaven, he doesn’t lose any of his dignity, just like a king doesn’t diminish his dignity when he’s not sitting on his throne, which is appropriate for his status.

Reply Obj. 3: In ourselves the purity of contemplation is obscured by exterior occupation; because we give ourselves to action through the sensitive faculties, the action of which when intense impedes the action of the intellectual powers. An angel, on the contrary, regulates his exterior actions by intellectual operation alone. Hence it follows that his external occupations in no respect impede his contemplation; because given two actions, one of which is the rule and the reason of the other, one does not hinder but helps the other. Wherefore Gregory says (Moral. ii) that "the angels do not go abroad in such a manner as to lose the delights of inward contemplation."

Reply Obj. 3: In ourselves, the clarity of contemplation is clouded by outside distractions; because we engage in action through our senses, which, when too intense, interfere with our intellectual abilities. An angel, on the other hand, governs his external actions purely through intellectual thought. Therefore, his outside activities do not interrupt his contemplation at all; since when one action is guided and informed by another, one supports rather than hinders the other. For this reason, Gregory states (Moral. ii) that "the angels do not venture out in a way that causes them to lose the joy of inner contemplation."

Reply Obj. 4: In their external actions the angels chiefly minister to God, and secondarily to us; not because we are superior to them, absolutely speaking, but because, since every man or angel by cleaving to God is made one spirit with God, he is thereby superior to every creature. Hence the Apostle says (Phil. 2:3): "Esteeming others better than themselves." _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: In their external actions, the angels primarily serve God and, secondarily, us; not because we are superior to them in absolute terms, but because when any person or angel connects with God, they become one spirit with God, which makes them superior to every other creature. That's why the Apostle says (Phil. 2:3): "Esteeming others better than themselves."

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 112, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 112, Art. 2]

Whether All the Angels Are Sent in Ministry?

Whether All the Angels Are Sent in Ministry?

Objection 1: It would seem that all the angels are sent in ministry. For the Apostle says (Heb. 1:14): "All are ministering spirits, sent to minister" [Vulg. 'Are they not all . . . ?'].

Objection 1: It seems that all the angels are sent to serve. For the Apostle says (Heb. 1:14): "Are they not all ministering spirits, sent to serve?" [Vulg. 'Are they not all . . . ?'].

Obj. 2: Further, among the orders, the highest is that of the Seraphim, as stated above (Q. 108, A. 6). But a Seraph was sent to purify the lips of the prophet (Isa. 6:6, 7). Therefore much more are the inferior orders sent.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, among the orders, the highest is that of the Seraphim, as mentioned earlier (Q. 108, A. 6). But a Seraph was sent to cleanse the lips of the prophet (Isa. 6:6, 7). Therefore, it follows that the lower orders are sent even more.

Obj. 3: Further, the Divine Persons infinitely excel all the angelic orders. But the Divine Persons are sent. Therefore much more are even the highest angels sent.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the Divine Persons are far superior to all the angelic orders. However, the Divine Persons are sent. Therefore, the highest angels are even more so sent.

Obj. 4: Further, if the superior angels are not sent to the external ministries, this can only be because the superior angels execute the Divine ministries by means of the inferior angels. But as all the angels are unequal, as stated above (Q. 50, A. 4), each angel has an angel inferior to himself except the last one. Therefore only the last angel would be sent in ministry; which contradicts the words, "Thousands of thousands ministered to Him" (Dan. 7:10).

Obj. 4: Furthermore, if the higher angels are not dispatched for external tasks, it can only mean that the higher angels carry out Divine duties through the lower angels. But since all angels are unequal, as mentioned earlier (Q. 50, A. 4), each angel has a lower-ranking angel beneath them except for the last one. Thus, only the last angel would be sent on missions, which goes against the statement, "Thousands of thousands ministered to Him" (Dan. 7:10).

On the contrary, Gregory says (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.), quoting the statement of Dionysius (Coel. Hier. xiii), that "the higher ranks fulfil no exterior service."

On the contrary, Gregory says (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.), quoting Dionysius’ statement (Coel. Hier. xiii), that "the higher ranks do not perform any outward service."

I answer that, As appears from what has been said above (Q. 106, A. 3; Q. 110, A. 1), the order of Divine Providence has so disposed not only among the angels, but also in the whole universe, that inferior things are administered by the superior. But the Divine dispensation, however, this order is sometimes departed from as regards corporeal things, for the sake of a higher order, that is, according as it is suitable for the manifestation of grace. That the man born blind was enlightened, that Lazarus was raised from the dead, was accomplished immediately by God without the action of the heavenly bodies. Moreover both good and bad angels can work some effect in these bodies independently of the heavenly bodies, by the condensation of the clouds to rain, and by producing some such effects. Nor can anyone doubt that God can immediately reveal things to men without the help of the angels, and the superior angels without the inferior. From this standpoint some have said that according to the general law the superior angels are not sent, but only the inferior; yet that sometimes, by Divine dispensation, the superior angels also are sent.

I respond that, As has been stated above (Q. 106, A. 3; Q. 110, A. 1), the order of Divine Providence has arranged things so that not only among the angels but throughout the universe, lower things are managed by those higher up. However, this Divine arrangement sometimes departs from this order regarding physical things, in order to achieve a higher purpose, specifically for the sake of revealing grace. The healing of the man born blind and the raising of Lazarus from the dead were accomplished directly by God without the influence of the heavenly bodies. Additionally, both good and bad angels can affect these bodies independently of the heavenly bodies, such as through the condensation of clouds to produce rain or similar effects. No one should doubt that God can directly reveal things to people without needing the angels, and that the higher angels can act without the lower ones. From this perspective, some have argued that, as a general rule, the higher angels are not sent, only the lower ones; yet sometimes, through Divine arrangement, higher angels are also sent.

It may also be said that the Apostle wishes to prove that Christ is greater than the angels who were chosen as the messengers of the law; in order that He might show the excellence of the new over the old law. Hence there is no need to apply this to any other angels besides those who were sent to give the law.

It can also be said that the Apostle wants to demonstrate that Christ is greater than the angels chosen as the messengers of the law, to highlight the superiority of the new law over the old one. Therefore, there's no need to apply this to any angels other than those who were sent to deliver the law.

Reply Obj. 2: According to Dionysius (Coel. Hier. xiii), the angel who was sent to purify the prophet's lips was one of the inferior order; but was called a "Seraph," that is, "kindling " in an equivocal sense, because he came to "kindle" the lips of the prophet. It may also be said that the superior angels communicate their own proper gifts whereby they are denominated, through the ministry of the inferior angels. Thus one of the Seraphim is described as purifying by fire the prophet's lips, not as if he did so immediately, but because an inferior angel did so by his power; as the Pope is said to absolve a man when he gives absolution by means of someone else.

Reply Obj. 2: According to Dionysius (Coel. Hier. xiii), the angel who was sent to purify the prophet's lips was one of the lower orders; but he was called a "Seraph," meaning "kindling" in a figurative sense, because he came to "kindle" the prophet's lips. It can also be said that the higher angels share their own unique gifts, which is why they are named as such, through the work of the lower angels. Therefore, one of the Seraphim is described as purifying the prophet's lips with fire, not as if he did it directly, but because a lower angel did so with his power; just as the Pope is said to absolve someone when he grants absolution through another person.

Reply Obj. 3: The Divine Persons are not sent in ministry, but are said to be sent in an equivocal sense, as appears from what has been said (Q. 43, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 3: The Divine Persons are not sent for ministry, but are said to be sent in a general sense, as has been discussed (Q. 43, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 4: A manifold grade exists in the Divine ministries. Hence there is nothing to prevent angels though unequal from being sent immediately in ministry, in such a manner however that the superior are sent to the higher ministries, and the lower to the inferior ministries. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: There are various levels in the Divine ministries. Therefore, there's no reason that angels, despite their differences in rank, can't be sent directly to serve, with the higher-ranking ones sent for the more significant ministries and the lower-ranking ones assigned to the less important ministries.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 112, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 112, Art. 3]

Whether All the Angels Who Are Sent, Assist?

Whether all the angels who are sent assist?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angels who are sent also assist.
For Gregory says (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.): "So the angels are sent, and
assist; for, though the angelic spirit is limited, yet the supreme
Spirit, God, is not limited."

Objection 1: It seems that the angels who are sent also help.
For Gregory says (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.): "So the angels are sent, and
assist; for, although the angelic spirit is limited, the supreme
Spirit, God, is not limited."

Obj. 2: Further, the angel was sent to administer to Tobias. Yet he said, "I am the angel Raphael, one of the seven who stand before the Lord" (Tob. 12:15). Therefore the angels who are sent, assist.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the angel was sent to help Tobias. Yet he said, "I am the angel Raphael, one of the seven who stand before the Lord" (Tob. 12:15). Therefore, the angels who are sent provide assistance.

Obj. 3: Further, every holy angel is nearer to God than Satan is. Yet
Satan assisted God, according to Job 1:6: "When the sons of God came
to stand before the Lord, Satan also was present among them."
Therefore much more do the angels, who are sent to minister, assist.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, every holy angel is closer to God than Satan is. Yet
Satan attended God, as noted in Job 1:6: "When the sons of God came
to present themselves before the Lord, Satan also was there with them."
So the angels, who are sent to serve, assist even more.

Obj. 4: Further, if the inferior angels do not assist, the reason is because they receive the Divine enlightenment, not immediately, but through the superior angels. But every angel receives the Divine enlightenment from a superior, except the one who is highest of all. Therefore only the highest angel would assist; which is contrary to the text of Dan. 7:10: "Ten thousand times a hundred thousand stood before Him." Therefore the angels who are sent also assist.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, if the lesser angels don't help, it's because they get Divine insight not directly, but through the higher angels. Every angel gets this Divine insight from someone above them, except for the one who is the highest. So, it would seem only the highest angel would assist, which contradicts the text in Dan. 7:10: "Ten thousand times a hundred thousand stood before Him." Therefore, the angels that are sent also provide assistance.

On the contrary, Gregory says, on Job 25:3: "Is there any numbering of His soldiers?" (Moral. xvii): "Those powers assist, who do not go forth as messengers to men." Therefore those who are sent in ministry do not assist.

On the contrary, Gregory says, on Job 25:3: "Is there any counting of His soldiers?" (Moral. xvii): "Those powers help, who do not go out as messengers to people." So, those who are sent to serve do not provide assistance.

I answer that, The angels are spoken of as "assisting" and "administering," after the likeness of those who attend upon a king; some of whom ever wait upon him, and hear his commands immediately; while others there are to whom the royal commands are conveyed by those who are in attendance—for instance, those who are placed at the head of the administration of various cities; these are said to administer, not to assist.

I answer that, The angels are referred to as "assisting" and "administering," similar to those who serve a king; some are always close by, listening to his orders directly; while others receive the king's commands through those who are present—for example, those in charge of managing different cities; these are described as administering, rather than assisting.

We must therefore observe that all the angels gaze upon the Divine Essence immediately; in regard to which all, even those who minister, are said to assist. Hence Gregory says (Moral. ii) that "those who are sent on the external ministry of our salvation can always assist and see the face of the Father." Yet not all the angels can perceive the secrets of the Divine mysteries in the clearness itself of the Divine Essence; but only the superior angels who announce them to the inferior: and in that respect only the superior angels belonging to the highest hierarchy are said to assist, whose special prerogative it is to be enlightened immediately by God.

We should note that all the angels look directly at the Divine Essence; in this regard, everyone, even those who serve, is said to assist. Gregory states (Moral. ii) that "those who are sent for the external ministry of our salvation can always assist and see the face of the Father." However, not all angels can grasp the secrets of the Divine mysteries clearly within the Divine Essence; only the higher-ranking angels who communicate these to the lower ones can do so. In this sense, only the higher angels from the highest hierarchy are said to assist, as it is their unique privilege to be enlightened directly by God.

From this may be deduced the reply to the first and second objections, which are based on the first mode of assisting.

From this, we can deduce the answer to the first and second objections, which rely on the first way of assisting.

Reply Obj. 3: Satan is not described as having assisted, but as present among the assistants; for, as Gregory says (Moral. ii), "though he has lost beatitude, still he has retained a nature like to the angels."

Reply Obj. 3: Satan is not portrayed as having helped, but as being present among those who helped; for, as Gregory says (Moral. ii), "even though he has lost happiness, he still has a nature similar to that of the angels."

Reply Obj. 4: All the assistants see some things immediately in the glory of the Divine Essence; and so it may be said that it is the prerogative of the whole of the highest hierarchy to be immediately enlightened by God; while the higher ones among them see more than is seen by the inferior; some of whom enlighten others: as also among those who assist the king, one knows more of the king's secrets than another. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: All the assistants see certain things right away in the glory of the Divine Essence; so it can be said that it's the privilege of the entire highest hierarchy to be directly enlightened by God. The higher ones among them see more than the lower ones; some of whom enlighten others. This is similar to those who assist the king, where one knows more of the king's secrets than another.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 112, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 112, Art. 4]

Whether All the Angels of the Second Hierarchy Are Sent?

Whether All the Angels of the Second Hierarchy Are Sent?

Objection 1: It would seem that all the angels of the second hierarchy are sent. For all the angels either assist, or minister, according to Dan. 7:10. But the angels of the second hierarchy do not assist; for they are enlightened by the angels of the first hierarchy, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. viii). Therefore all the angels of the second hierarchy are sent in ministry.

Objection 1: It seems that all the angels of the second hierarchy are sent. For all angels either assist or minister, according to Dan. 7:10. However, the angels of the second hierarchy do not assist because they are enlightened by the angels of the first hierarchy, as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. viii). Therefore, all the angels of the second hierarchy are sent in ministry.

Obj. 2: Further, Gregory says (Moral. xvii) that "there are more who minister than who assist." This would not be the case if the angels of the second hierarchy were not sent in ministry. Therefore all the angels of the second hierarchy are sent to minister.

Obj. 2: Additionally, Gregory states (Moral. xvii) that "there are more who serve than those who help." This would not hold true if the angels of the second hierarchy weren't sent to serve. Therefore, all the angels of the second hierarchy are sent to serve.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. viii) that the "Dominations are above all subjection." But to be sent implies subjection. Therefore the dominations are not sent to minister.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. viii) that the "Dominations are above all subjection." But being sent means being under authority. Therefore, the dominations are not sent to serve.

I answer that, As above stated (A. 1), to be sent to external ministry properly belongs to an angel according as he acts by Divine command in respect of any corporeal creature; which is part of the execution of the Divine ministry. Now the angelic properties are manifested by their names, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. vii); and therefore the angels of those orders are sent to external ministry whose names signify some kind of administration. But the name "dominations" does not signify any such administration, but only disposition and command in administering. On the other hand, the names of the inferior orders imply administration, for the "Angels" and "Archangels" are so called from "announcing"; the "Virtues" and "Powers" are so called in respect of some act; and it is right that the "Prince," according to what Gregory says (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.), "be first among the workers." Hence it belongs to these five orders to be sent to external ministry; not to the four superior orders.

I respond that, as mentioned earlier (A. 1), the role of sending messages involves an angel acting on Divine command regarding any physical being, which is part of fulfilling the Divine ministry. The properties of angels are reflected in their names, as Dionysius points out (Coel. Hier. vii); therefore, the angels in those orders that are sent for external ministry have names that indicate a form of administration. However, the name "dominions" does not indicate any such administration, but rather suggests disposition and authority in governance. In contrast, the names of the lower orders imply administration, as "Angels" and "Archangels" derive their names from "announcing"; "Virtues" and "Powers" relate to specific actions; and it is fitting for the "Prince," according to Gregory (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.), to "be first among the workers." Thus, it is these five orders that are assigned to external ministry, not the four higher orders.

Reply Obj. 1: The Dominations are reckoned among the ministering angels, not as exercising but as disposing and commanding what is to be done by others; thus an architect does not put his hands to the production of his art, but only disposes and orders what others are to do.

Reply Obj. 1: The Dominations are considered among the serving angels, not as doing the work themselves but as organizing and directing what others are to accomplish; similarly, an architect doesn’t physically create their artwork but instead plans and instructs others on what to do.

Reply Obj. 2: A twofold reason may be given in assigning the number of the assisting and ministering angels. For Gregory says that those who minister are more numerous than those who assist; because he takes the words (Dan. 7:10) "thousands of thousands ministered to Him," not in a multiple but in a partitive sense, to mean "thousands out of thousands"; thus the number of those who minister is indefinite, and signifies excess; while the number of assistants is finite as in the words added, "and ten thousand times a hundred thousand assisted Him." This explanation rests on the opinion of the Platonists, who said that the nearer things are to the one first principle, the smaller they are in number; as the nearer a number is to unity, the lesser it is than multitude. This opinion is verified as regards the number of orders, as six administer and three assist.

Reply Obj. 2: There are two main reasons for the number of the assisting and ministering angels. Gregory states that those who serve are more numerous than those who assist; he interprets the phrase (Dan. 7:10) "thousands of thousands ministered to Him" not as a literal count but in a partitive sense, meaning "thousands out of thousands." Therefore, the number of those who minister is indefinite and indicates abundance, while the number of assistants is definite, as shown in the addition: "and ten thousand times a hundred thousand assisted Him." This explanation aligns with the belief of the Platonists, who argued that the closer something is to the one first principle, the fewer there are; the closer a number is to unity, the smaller it is compared to a multitude. This belief is evident concerning the number of orders, with six ministering and three assisting.

Dionysius, however, (Coel. Hier. xiv) declares that the multitude of angels surpasses all the multitude of material things; so that, as the superior bodies exceed the inferior in magnitude to an immeasurable degree, so the superior incorporeal natures surpass all corporeal natures in multitude; because whatever is better is more intended and more multiplied by God. Hence, as the assistants are superior to the ministers there will be more assistants than ministers. In this way, the words "thousands of thousands" are taken by way of multiplication, to signify "a thousand times a thousand." And because ten times a hundred is a thousand, if it were said "ten times a hundred thousand" it would mean that there are as many assistants as ministers: but since it is written "ten thousand times a hundred thousand," we are given to understand that the assistants are much more numerous than the ministers. Nor is this said to signify that this is the precise number of angels, but rather that it is much greater, in that it exceeds all material multitude. This is signified by the multiplication together of all the greatest numbers, namely ten, a hundred, and a thousand, as Dionysius remarks in the same passage. _______________________

Dionysius, however, (Coel. Hier. xiv) states that the number of angels exceeds all the number of material things; just as superior bodies vastly outsize inferior ones, superior incorporeal beings surpass all corporeal beings in quantity. This is because whatever is better is more intended and more multiplied by God. Therefore, since the assistants are greater than the ministers, there will be more assistants than ministers. In this sense, the phrase "thousands of thousands" is interpreted as a multiplication meaning "a thousand times a thousand." And since ten times a hundred equals a thousand, if it were said "ten times a hundred thousand," it would imply an equal number of assistants and ministers. But since it is written "ten thousand times a hundred thousand," we understand that the assistants vastly outnumber the ministers. This isn't meant to indicate that this is the exact number of angels, but rather that it is much larger, surpassing all material quantities. This is signified by multiplying together the highest numbers, namely ten, a hundred, and a thousand, as Dionysius notes in the same passage.

QUESTION 113

OF THE GUARDIANSHIP OF THE GOOD ANGELS
(In Eight Articles)

OF THE GUARDIANSHIP OF THE GOOD ANGELS
(In Eight Articles)

We next consider the guardianship exercised by the good angels; and their warfare against the bad angels. Under the first head eight points of inquiry arise:

We will now look at the protection provided by good angels and their battle against bad angels. Under the first topic, eight questions come up:

(1) Whether men are guarded by the angels?

(1) Are men protected by angels?

(2) Whether to each man is assigned a single guardian angel?

(2) Is each person assigned a single guardian angel?

(3) Whether the guardianship belongs only to the lowest order of angels?

(3) Does the guardianship belong only to the lowest rank of angels?

(4) Whether it is fitting for each man to have an angel guardian?

(4) Is it appropriate for everyone to have a guardian angel?

(5) When does an angel's guardianship of a man begin?

(5) When does an angel start watching over a person?

(6) Whether the angel guardians always watch over men?

(6) Do angel guardians always watch over people?

(7) Whether the angel grieves over the loss of the one guarded?

(7) Does the angel feel sad about losing the one they were protecting?

(8) Whether rivalry exists among the angels as regards their guardianship? _______________________

(8) Is there competition among the angels concerning their guardianship? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 1]

Whether Men Are Guarded by the Angels?

Whether Men Are Guarded by Angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that men are not guarded by the angels. For guardians are deputed to some because they either know not how, or are not able, to guard themselves, as children and the sick. But man is able to guard himself by his free-will; and knows how by his natural knowledge of natural law. Therefore man is not guarded by an angel.

Objection 1: It seems that people are not protected by angels. Guardians are assigned to some individuals because they either don’t know how or can’t protect themselves, like children and the sick. However, people can protect themselves through their free will and have a natural understanding of natural law. Therefore, people are not protected by an angel.

Obj. 2: Further, a strong guard makes a weaker one superfluous. But men are guarded by God, according to Ps. 120:4: "He shall neither slumber nor sleep, that keepeth Israel." Therefore man does not need to be guarded by an angel.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, a strong guard makes a weaker one unnecessary. However, people are protected by God, as stated in Ps. 120:4: "He shall neither slumber nor sleep, who keeps Israel." Therefore, a person does not need to be protected by an angel.

Obj. 3: Further, the loss of the guarded redounds to the negligence of the guardian; hence it was said to a certain one: "Keep this man; and if he shall slip away, thy life shall be for his life" (3 Kings 20:39). Now many perish daily through falling into sin; whom the angels could help by visible appearance, or by miracles, or in some such-like way. The angels would therefore be negligent if men are given to their guardianship. But that is clearly false. Therefore the angels are not the guardians of men.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the loss of the person under protection is due to the guardian's negligence; thus it was said to someone: "Watch this man; and if he escapes, your life will be exchanged for his" (3 Kings 20:39). Many people fall into sin every day; the angels could assist them through visible appearances, miracles, or similar means. The angels would be negligent if humans were entrusted to their care. But that is clearly not true. Therefore, the angels are not the guardians of humans.

On the contrary, It is written (Ps. 90:11): "He hath given His angels charge over thee, to keep thee in all thy ways."

On the contrary, it is written (Ps. 90:11): "He has given His angels charge over you, to keep you in all your ways."

I answer that, According to the plan of Divine Providence, we find that in all things the movable and variable are moved and regulated by the immovable and invariable; as all corporeal things by immovable spiritual substances, and the inferior bodies by the superior which are invariable in substance. We ourselves also are regulated as regards conclusions, about which we may have various opinions, by the principles which we hold in an invariable manner. It is moreover manifest that as regards things to be done human knowledge and affection can vary and fail from good in many ways; and so it was necessary that angels should be deputed for the guardianship of men, in order to regulate them and move them to good.

I answer that, According to the plan of Divine Providence, we see that everything that is changeable and variable is guided and controlled by what is unchanging and constant; just as all physical things are influenced by unchanging spiritual entities, and lower beings are directed by higher ones that are constant in their essence. We ourselves are also guided in our conclusions, which we may view in different ways, by principles that we hold consistently. Furthermore, it's clear that when it comes to actions, human knowledge and emotions can fluctuate and lead us away from what is good in many ways; therefore, it was necessary for angels to be assigned to watch over humanity, to guide and steer them towards goodness.

Reply Obj. 1: By free-will man can avoid evil to a certain degree, but not in any sufficient degree; forasmuch as he is weak in affection towards good on account of the manifold passions of the soul. Likewise universal natural knowledge of the law, which by nature belongs to man, to a certain degree directs man to good, but not in a sufficient degree; because in the application of the universal principles of law to particular actions man happens to be deficient in many ways. Hence it is written (Wis. 9:14): "The thoughts of mortal men are fearful, and our counsels uncertain." Thus man needs to be guarded by the angels.

Reply Obj. 1: Through free will, a person can avoid evil to some extent, but not enough; because they are weak in their desire for good due to the many passions of the soul. Similarly, the universal understanding of the law, which naturally belongs to humans, guides people to good to a degree, but not sufficiently; because when it comes to applying these universal principles of law to specific actions, people fall short in many ways. That's why it’s written (Wis. 9:14): "The thoughts of mortal men are fearful, and our counsels uncertain." Therefore, humans need protection from angels.

Reply Obj. 2: Two things are required for a good action; first, that the affection be inclined to good, which is effected in us by the habit of mortal virtue. Secondly, that reason should discover the proper methods to make perfect the good of virtue; this the Philosopher (Ethic. vi) attributes to prudence. As regards the first, God guards man immediately by infusing into him grace and virtues; as regards the second, God guards man as his universal instructor, Whose precepts reach man by the medium of the angels, as above stated (Q. 111, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 2: For a good action, two things are needed: first, a strong inclination towards good, which is achieved through the practice of moral virtue. Second, reason must identify the right ways to perfect that good of virtue; the Philosopher attributes this to prudence (Ethic. vi). Concerning the first, God directly protects humans by instilling grace and virtues in them; regarding the second, God protects humans as the ultimate teacher, whose teachings are conveyed to them through angels, as mentioned above (Q. 111, A. 1).

Reply Obj. 3: As men depart from the natural instinct of good by reason of a sinful passion, so also do they depart from the instigation of the good angels, which takes place invisibly when they enlighten man that he may do what is right. Hence that men perish is not to be imputed to the negligence of the angels but to the malice of men. That they sometimes appear to men visibly outside the ordinary course of nature comes from a special grace of God, as likewise that miracles occur outside the order of nature. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Just as people stray from their natural instinct for good because of sinful desires, they also turn away from the guidance of good angels. This guidance happens invisibly when angels help people see what is right. Therefore, when people fail, it's not because the angels were negligent, but due to human malice. The fact that angels sometimes appear visibly to people, outside of the usual course of nature, is a special grace from God, just like the miracles that happen outside the natural order.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 2]

Whether Each Man Is Guarded by an Angel?

Whether Each Person Is Protected by an Angel?

Objection 1: It would seem that each man is not guarded by an angel. For an angel is stronger than a man. But one man suffices to guard many men. Therefore much more can one angel guard many men.

Objection 1: It seems that each person is not protected by an angel. An angel is stronger than a person. But one person can protect many people. Therefore, it makes sense that one angel can protect many people.

Obj. 2: Further, the lower things are brought to God through the medium of the higher, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. iv, xiii). But as all the angels are unequal (Q. 50, A. 4), there is only one angel between whom and men there is no medium. Therefore there is only one angel who immediately keeps men.

Obj. 2: Moreover, the lower things reach God through the higher, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. iv, xiii). However, since all the angels are unequal (Q. 50, A. 4), there is only one angel with no medium between him and humanity. Therefore, there is only one angel who directly watches over people.

Obj. 3: Further, the greater angels are deputed to the greater offices. But it is not a greater office to keep one man more than another; since all men are naturally equal. Since therefore of all the angels one is greater than another, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. x), it seems that different men are not guarded by different angels.

Obj. 3: Additionally, higher-ranking angels are assigned to more important roles. However, it doesn't make sense to say that watching over one person is a more significant role than watching over another, since all people are naturally equal. Therefore, since among all angels, some are greater than others, as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. x), it appears that different people are not protected by different angels.

On the contrary, On the text, "Their angels in heaven," etc. (Matt. 8:10), Jerome says: "Great is the dignity of souls, for each one to have an angel deputed to guard it from its birth."

On the contrary, On the text, "Their angels in heaven," etc. (Matt. 8:10), Jerome says: "The dignity of souls is great, for each one has an angel assigned to protect it from the moment of its birth."

I answer that, Each man has an angel guardian appointed to him. This rests upon the fact that the guardianship of angels belongs to the execution of Divine providence concerning men. But God's providence acts differently as regards men and as regards other corruptible creatures, for they are related differently to incorruptibility. For men are not only incorruptible in the common species, but also in the proper forms of each individual, which are the rational souls, which cannot be said of other incorruptible things. Now it is manifest that the providence of God is chiefly exercised towards what remains for ever; whereas as regards things which pass away, the providence of God acts so as to order their existence to the things which are perpetual. Thus the providence of God is related to each man as it is to every genus or species of things corruptible. But, according to Gregory (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.), the different orders are deputed to the different genera of things, for instance, the "Powers" to coerce the demons, the "Virtues" to work miracles in things corporeal; while it is probable that the different species are presided over by different angels of the same order. Hence it is also reasonable to suppose that different angels are appointed to the guardianship of different men.

I answer that, Each person has a guardian angel assigned to them. This is based on the understanding that angelic guardianship is part of God's divine plan concerning humanity. However, God's plan operates differently for humans compared to other mortal beings, as they are connected to incorruptibility in unique ways. Humans aren't just incorruptible in general terms, but also in their individual forms, which are their rational souls—a characteristic not shared by other incorruptible things. It's clear that God’s providence is primarily focused on what lasts forever, while for things that are temporary, God’s plan organizes their existence in relation to enduring things. Therefore, God’s providence applies to each person as it does to every category of corruptible things. According to Gregory (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.), different orders of angels are assigned to various categories of beings; for example, the "Powers" manage the demons, and the "Virtues" perform miracles in physical matters. It is likely that different species have their own angels within the same order. Thus, it’s reasonable to believe that various angels are appointed to guard different individuals.

Reply Obj. 1: A guardian may be assigned to a man for two reasons: first, inasmuch as a man is an individual, and thus to one man one guardian is due; and sometimes several are appointed to guard one. Secondly, inasmuch as a man is part of a community, and thus one man is appointed as guardian of a whole community; to whom it belongs to provide what concerns one man in his relation to the whole community, such as external works, which are sources of strength or weakness to others. But angel guardians are given to men also as regards invisible and occult things, concerning the salvation of each one in his own regard. Hence individual angels are appointed to guard individual men.

Reply Obj. 1: A guardian may be assigned to a person for two reasons: first, because a person is an individual, and so each person deserves one guardian; sometimes multiple guardians are appointed to watch over one individual. Secondly, because a person is part of a community, one person can be appointed as the guardian of the entire community; this guardian is responsible for what concerns one individual in relation to the whole community, such as external actions that can affect the strength or weakness of others. Additionally, angel guardians are assigned to individuals to oversee invisible and hidden matters related to each person's salvation. Therefore, individual angels are designated to guard each individual.

Reply Obj. 2: As above stated (Q. 112, A. 3, ad 4), all the angels of the first hierarchy are, as to some things, enlightened by God directly; but as to other things, only the superior are directly enlightened by God, and these reveal them to the inferior. And the same also applies to the inferior orders: for a lower angel is enlightened in some respects by one of the highest, and in other respects by the one immediately above him. Thus it is possible that some one angel enlightens a man immediately, and yet has other angels beneath him whom he enlightens.

Reply Obj. 2: As mentioned earlier (Q. 112, A. 3, ad 4), all the angels in the first hierarchy receive direct enlightenment from God in some areas; however, in other areas, only the higher-ranking angels are directly enlightened by God, and they pass that information on to the lower-ranking angels. The same principle applies to the lower orders: a lesser angel is enlightened in certain ways by one of the highest angels and in other ways by the one directly above him. Therefore, it’s possible for one angel to enlighten a person directly while also having other angels underneath him whom he enlightens.

Reply Obj. 3: Although men are equal in nature, still inequality exists among them, according as Divine Providence orders some to the greater, and others to the lesser things, according to Ecclus. 33:11, 12: "With much knowledge the Lord hath divided them, and diversified their ways: some of them hath He blessed and exalted, and some of them hath He cursed and brought low." Thus it is a greater office to guard one man than another. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Although men are equal by nature, inequality does exist among them, as Divine Providence assigns some to greater roles and others to lesser ones, as stated in Ecclus. 33:11, 12: "With much knowledge the Lord has divided them and diversified their paths: some He has blessed and exalted, while others He has cursed and brought low." Therefore, it is a greater responsibility to protect one person than another.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 3]

Whether to Guard Men Belongs Only to the Lowest Order of Angels?

Whether guarding humans is the responsibility of the lowest order of angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that the guardianship of men does not belong only to the lowest order of the angels. For Chrysostom says that the text (Matt. 18:10), "Their angels in heaven," etc. is to be understood not of any angels but of the highest. Therefore the superior angels guard men.

Objection 1: It seems that the guardianship of humans isn’t limited to just the lowest order of angels. Chrysostom states that the phrase (Matt. 18:10), "Their angels in heaven," etc. should be understood not in reference to any angels but specifically to the highest ones. Therefore, the superior angels watch over humans.

Obj. 2: Further, the Apostle says that angels "are sent to minister for them who shall receive the inheritance of salvation" (Heb. 1:14); and thus it seems that the mission of the angels is directed to the guardianship of men. But five orders are sent in external ministry (Q. 112, A. 4). Therefore all the angels of the five orders are deputed to the guardianship of men.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, the Apostle states that angels "are sent to serve those who will inherit salvation" (Heb. 1:14); and so it appears that the purpose of angels is to protect humans. However, five orders are involved in external ministry (Q. 112, A. 4). Therefore, all the angels from these five orders are assigned to the protection of people.

Obj. 3: Further, for the guardianship of men it seems especially necessary to coerce the demons, which belongs most of all to the Powers, according to Gregory (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.); and to work miracles, which belongs to the Virtues. Therefore these orders are also deputed to the work of guardianship, and not only the lowest order.

Obj. 3: Additionally, it seems particularly important for the protection of humans to control the demons, which primarily falls under the Powers, according to Gregory (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.); and to perform miracles, which is the role of the Virtues. Therefore, these orders are also assigned the task of guardianship, not just the lowest order.

On the contrary, In the Psalm (90) the guardianship of men is attributed to the angels; who belong to the lowest order, according to Dionysius (Coel. Hier. v, ix).

On the contrary, In Psalm (90), the protection of people is assigned to the angels, who are considered to be in the lowest order, according to Dionysius (Coel. Hier. v, ix).

I answer that, As above stated (A. 2), man is guarded in two ways; in one way by particular guardianship, according as to each man an angel is appointed to guard him; and such guardianship belongs to the lowest order of the angels, whose place it is, according to Gregory, to announce the "lesser things"; for it seems to be the least of the angelic offices to procure what concerns the salvation of only one man. The other kind of guardianship is universal, multiplied according to the different orders. For the more universal an agent is, the higher it is. Thus the guardianship of the human race belongs to the order of "Principalities," or perhaps to the "Archangels," whom we call the angel princes. Hence, Michael, whom we call an archangel, is also styled "one of the princes" (Dan. 10:13). Moreover all corporeal creatures are guarded by the "Virtues"; and likewise the demons by the "Powers," and the good spirits by the "Principalities," according to Gregory's opinion (Hom. xxxiv in Ev.).

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (A. 2), people are protected in two ways; one way is through individual guardianship, where each person has an angel assigned to watch over them. This type of guardianship is associated with the lowest rank of angels, whose role, according to Gregory, is to handle the "lesser things"; it seems to be the least of the angelic duties to ensure the salvation of just one person. The other kind of guardianship is universal, varying according to different orders. The more universal an agent is, the higher its rank. Therefore, the guardianship of humanity falls under the order of "Principalities," or possibly the "Archangels," whom we refer to as the angelic princes. For instance, Michael, whom we call an archangel, is also referred to as "one of the princes" (Dan. 10:13). Additionally, all physical beings are protected by the "Virtues"; likewise, demons are overseen by the "Powers," and good spirits by the "Principalities," according to Gregory's view (Hom. xxxiv in Ev.).

Reply Obj. 1: Chrysostom can be taken to mean the highest in the lowest order of angels; for, as Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. x) in each order there are first, middle, and last. It is, however, probable that the greater angels are deputed to keep those chosen by God for the higher degree of glory.

Reply Obj. 1: Chrysostom can refer to the highest ranking among the lowest group of angels; as Dionysius states (Coel. Hier. x), in each order, there are first, middle, and last ranks. However, it is likely that the greater angels are assigned to guard those chosen by God for a higher level of glory.

Reply Obj. 2: Not all the angels who are sent have guardianship of individual men; but some orders have a universal guardianship, greater or less, as above explained.

Reply Obj. 2: Not all the angels that are sent oversee individual people; however, some orders have a broader guardianship, either greater or lesser, as explained above.

Reply Obj. 3: Even inferior angels exercise the office of the superior, as they share in their gifts, and they are executors of the superiors' power; and in this way all the angels of the lowest order can coerce the demons, and work miracles. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Even lower-ranking angels perform the duties of the higher-ranking ones, as they share in their gifts and act on behalf of their authority; in this way, all the angels of the lowest rank can control the demons and perform miracles. _______________________

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 4]

Whether Angels Are Appointed to the Guardianship of All Men?

Whether Angels Are Appointed to the Guardianship of All People?

Objection 1: It would seem that angels are not appointed to the guardianship of all men. For it is written of Christ (Phil. 2:7) that "He was made in the likeness of men, and in habit found as a man." If therefore angels are appointed to the guardianship of all men, Christ also would have had an angel guardian. But this is unseemly, for Christ is greater than all the angels. Therefore angels are not appointed to the guardianship of all men.

Objection 1: It seems that angels are not assigned to guard all people. It's written about Christ (Phil. 2:7) that "He was made in the likeness of men and was found in appearance as a man." If angels were assigned to guard everyone, then Christ would also have had an angel as a guardian. But that wouldn't be appropriate, since Christ is greater than all the angels. Therefore, angels are not assigned to guard all people.

Obj. 2: Further, Adam was the first of all men. But it was not fitting that he should have an angel guardian, at least in the state of innocence: for then he was not beset by any dangers. Therefore angels are not appointed to the guardianship of all men.

Obj. 2: Also, Adam was the first of all humans. However, it wouldn't make sense for him to have a guardian angel, at least in a state of innocence, since he wasn't faced with any dangers. Therefore, angels are not assigned to watch over all people.

Obj. 3: Further, angels are appointed to the guardianship of men, that they may take them by the hand and guide them to eternal life, encourage them to good works, and protect them against the assaults of the demons. But men who are foreknown to damnation, never attain to eternal life. Infidels, also, though at times they perform good works, do not perform them well, for they have not a right intention: for "faith directs the intention" as Augustine says (Enarr. ii in Ps. 31). Moreover, the coming of Antichrist will be "according to the working of Satan," as it is written (2 Thess. 2:9). Therefore angels are not deputed to the guardianship of all men.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, angels are assigned to guard over people so they can hold their hands and guide them to eternal life, encourage them to do good deeds, and protect them from the attacks of demons. However, those who are destined for damnation will never reach eternal life. Nonbelievers, while they may occasionally do good deeds, do not do them sincerely because they lack the right intention; as Augustine says, "faith directs the intention" (Enarr. ii in Ps. 31). Additionally, the arrival of Antichrist will be "according to the working of Satan," as it is written (2 Thess. 2:9). Therefore, angels are not assigned to guard all people.

On the contrary, is the authority of Jerome quoted above (A. 2), for he says that "each soul has an angel appointed to guard it."

On the contrary, the authority of Jerome quoted above (A. 2), for he says that "each soul has an angel assigned to protect it."

I answer that, Man while in this state of life, is, as it were, on a road by which he should journey towards heaven. On this road man is threatened by many dangers both from within and from without, according to Ps. 159:4: "In this way wherein I walked, they have hidden a snare for me." And therefore as guardians are appointed for men who have to pass by an unsafe road, so an angel guardian is assigned to each man as long as he is a wayfarer. When, however, he arrives at the end of life he no longer has a guardian angel; but in the kingdom he will have an angel to reign with him, in hell a demon to punish him.

I answer that, while a person is in this life, they are essentially on a path leading towards heaven. On this path, individuals face many dangers both from within themselves and from the outside, as noted in Ps. 159:4: "In the way I walked, they have hidden a trap for me." Therefore, just as guardians are assigned to people traveling along a dangerous road, a guardian angel is given to each person while they are still journeying. However, when they reach the end of their life, they no longer have a guardian angel; instead, in the kingdom, they will have an angel to reign with them, and in hell, a demon to punish them.

Reply Obj. 1: Christ as man was guided immediately by the Word of God: wherefore He needed not be guarded by an angel. Again as regards His soul, He was a comprehensor, although in regard to His passible body, He was a wayfarer. In this latter respect it was right that He should have not a guardian angel as superior to Him, but a ministering angel as inferior to Him. Whence it is written (Matt. 4:11) that "angels came and ministered to Him."

Reply Obj. 1: Christ, as a human, was directly guided by the Word of God; therefore, He didn't need protection from an angel. Additionally, regarding His soul, He was a comprehensor, but in terms of His suffering body, He was a wayfarer. In this sense, it was appropriate that He should have a ministering angel, who was inferior to Him, rather than a guardian angel who would be superior to Him. Hence, it is written (Matt. 4:11) that "angels came and ministered to Him."

Reply Obj. 2: In the state of innocence man was not threatened by any peril from within: because within him all was well ordered, as we have said above (Q. 95, AA. 1, 3). But peril threatened from without on account of the snares of the demons; as was proved by the event. For this reason he needed a guardian angel.

Reply Obj. 2: In the state of innocence, humanity faced no dangers from within, as everything was well regulated inside them, as previously mentioned (Q. 95, AA. 1, 3). However, there were external threats due to the traps set by demons, which was demonstrated by what happened. For this reason, they needed a guardian angel.

Reply Obj. 3: Just as the foreknown, the infidels, and even Antichrist, are not deprived of the interior help of natural reason; so neither are they deprived of that exterior help granted by God to the whole human race—namely the guardianship of the angels. And although the help which they receive therefrom does not result in their deserving eternal life by good works, it does nevertheless conduce to their being protected from certain evils which would hurt both themselves and others. For even the demons are held off by the good angels, lest they hurt as much as they would. In like manner Antichrist will not do as much harm as he would wish. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Just like those who are foreknown, the unbelievers, and even Antichrist, are not lacking the internal guidance of natural reason; they also receive the external assistance granted by God to all of humanity—specifically, the protection of angels. Although the help they get does not allow them to earn eternal life through good deeds, it does help keep them safe from certain harms that could affect both themselves and others. Even demons are kept at bay by good angels, preventing them from causing as much damage as they could. In the same way, Antichrist will not inflict as much harm as he would like.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 5]

Whether an Angel Is Appointed to Guard a Man from His Birth?

Whether an angel is assigned to protect a person from birth?

Objection 1: It would seem that an angel is not appointed to guard a man from his birth. For angels are "sent to minister for them who shall receive the inheritance of salvation," as the Apostle says (Heb. 1:14). But men begin to receive the inheritance of salvation, when they are baptized. Therefore an angel is appointed to guard a man from the time of his baptism, not of his birth.

Objection 1: It seems that an angel isn’t assigned to protect a person from their birth. Angels are "sent to serve those who will inherit salvation," as the Apostle states (Heb. 1:14). But people start to receive the inheritance of salvation when they are baptized. Therefore, an angel is designated to guard a person from the time of their baptism, not from their birth.

Obj. 2: Further, men are guarded by angels in as far as angels enlighten and instruct them. But children are not capable of instruction as soon as they are born, for they have not the use of reason. Therefore angels are not appointed to guard children as soon as they are born.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, men are protected by angels to the extent that angels enlighten and instruct them. However, children cannot be instructed right after they are born because they do not have the ability to reason. Therefore, angels are not assigned to guard children at birth.

Obj. 3: Further, a child has a rational soul for some time before birth, just as well as after. But it does not appear that an angel is appointed to guard a child before its birth, for they are not then admitted to the sacraments of the Church. Therefore angels are not appointed to guard men from the moment of their birth.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, a child has a rational soul for a period before birth, just as it does after. However, it seems that an angel is not assigned to protect a child before its birth, since they are not yet able to receive the sacraments of the Church. Therefore, angels are not designated to guard humans from the moment they are born.

On the contrary, Jerome says (vide A. 4) that "each soul has an angel appointed to guard it from its birth."

On the contrary, Jerome says (see A. 4) that "each soul has an angel assigned to protect it from its birth."

I answer that, as Origen observes (Tract. v, super Matt.) there are two opinions on this matter. For some have held that the angel guardian is appointed at the time of baptism, others, that he is appointed at the time of birth. The latter opinion Jerome approves (loc. cit.), and with reason. For those benefits which are conferred by God on man as a Christian, begin with his baptism; such as receiving the Eucharist, and the like. But those which are conferred by God on man as a rational being, are bestowed on him at his birth, for then it is that he receives that nature. Among the latter benefits we must count the guardianship of angels, as we have said above (AA. 1, 4). Wherefore from the very moment of his birth man has an angel guardian appointed to him.

I answer that, as Origen points out (Tract. v, super Matt.), there are two views on this topic. Some believe that a guardian angel is assigned at baptism, while others think it's at birth. Jerome endorses the latter view (loc. cit.), and it makes sense. The benefits that God grants to a person as a Christian begin with baptism, like receiving the Eucharist and similar sacraments. However, the benefits given by God to a person simply as a rational being are given at birth since that’s when they gain that nature. We must include the guardianship of angels among those latter benefits, as mentioned earlier (AA. 1, 4). Therefore, from the very moment of birth, a person has an appointed guardian angel.

Reply Obj. 1: Angels are sent to minister, and that efficaciously indeed, for those who shall receive the inheritance of salvation, if we consider the ultimate effect of their guardianship, which is the realizing of that inheritance. But for all that, the angelic ministrations are not withdrawn for others although they are not so efficacious as to bring them to salvation: efficacious, nevertheless, they are, inasmuch as they ward off many evils.

Reply Obj. 1: Angels are sent to help people, and they do so effectively for those who will receive the gift of salvation, considering the ultimate result of their protection, which is achieving that gift. However, angelic help is not withheld from others, even if it isn't strong enough to lead them to salvation; it is still effective in protecting them from many evils.

Reply Obj. 2: Guardianship is ordained to enlightenment by instruction, as to its ultimate and principal effect. Nevertheless it has many other effects consistent with childhood; for instance to ward off the demons, and to prevent both bodily and spiritual harm.

Reply Obj. 2: Guardianship is meant to bring about understanding through teaching, which is its main purpose. However, it also has many other benefits suited for children; for example, it helps to protect them from evil and prevents both physical and spiritual harm.

Reply Obj. 3: As long as the child is in the mother's womb it is not entirely separate, but by reason of a certain intimate tie, is still part of her: just as the fruit while hanging on the tree is part of the tree. And therefore it can be said with some degree of probability, that the angel who guards the mother guards the child while in the womb. But at its birth, when it becomes separate from the mother, an angel guardian is appointed to it; as Jerome, above quoted, says. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: While the child is in the mother's womb, it isn't completely separate; due to a close connection, it is still part of her, just like fruit hanging on a tree is part of the tree. Therefore, it can be reasonably said that the angel who watches over the mother also watches over the child while it's in the womb. However, at birth, when the child separates from the mother, an angel guardian is assigned to it, as Jerome mentioned earlier.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 6]

Whether the Angel Guardian Ever Forsakes a Man?

Whether the Guardian Angel Ever Abandons a Person?

Objection 1: It would seem that the angel guardian sometimes forsakes the man whom he is appointed to guard. For it is said (Jer. 51:9) in the person of the angels: "We would have cured Babylon, but she is not healed: let us forsake her." And (Isa. 5:5) it is written: "I will take away the hedge"—that is, "the guardianship of the angels" [gloss]—"and it shall be wasted."

Objection 1: It seems that the guardian angel sometimes abandons the person they are supposed to protect. As it says in (Jer. 51:9) regarding the angels: "We would have healed Babylon, but she is not healed: let us abandon her." Also, in (Isa. 5:5) it is written: "I will remove the hedge"—meaning "the guardianship of the angels" [gloss]—"and it will be laid waste."

Obj. 2: Further, God's guardianship excels that of the angels. But God forsakes man at times, according to Ps. 21:2: "O God, my God, look upon me: why hast Thou forsaken me?" Much rather therefore does an angel guardian forsake man.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, God's protection is better than that of the angels. However, God does sometimes abandon man, as seen in Psalm 21:2: "O God, my God, why have You forsaken me?" Therefore, it's even more likely that a guardian angel would abandon man.

Obj. 3: Further, according to Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii, 3), "When the angels are here with us, they are not in heaven." But sometimes they are in heaven. Therefore sometimes they forsake us.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, as Damascene states (De Fide Orth. ii, 3), "When the angels are here with us, they are not in heaven." But sometimes they are in heaven. Therefore, there are times when they leave us.

On the contrary, The demons are ever assailing us, according to 1 Pet. 5:8: "Your adversary the devil, as a roaring lion, goeth about, seeking whom he may devour." Much more therefore do the good angels ever guard us.

On the contrary, the demons are constantly attacking us, as stated in 1 Pet. 5:8: "Your enemy the devil prowls around like a roaring lion looking for someone to devour." Much more, therefore, do the good angels always protect us.

I answer that, As appears above (A. 2), the guardianship of the angels is an effect of Divine providence in regard to man. Now it is evident that neither man, nor anything at all, is entirely withdrawn from the providence of God: for in as far as a thing participates being, so far is it subject to the providence that extends over all being. God indeed is said to forsake man, according to the ordering of His providence, but only in so far as He allows man to suffer some defect of punishment or of fault. In like manner it must be said that the angel guardian never forsakes a man entirely, but sometimes he leaves him in some particular, for instance by not preventing him from being subject to some trouble, or even from falling into sin, according to the ordering of Divine judgments. In this sense Babylon and the House of Israel are said to have been forsaken by the angels, because their angel guardians did not prevent them from being subject to tribulation.

I answer that, As shown above (A. 2), the guardianship of the angels is a result of Divine providence concerning humanity. It’s clear that neither people nor anything else is completely outside the reach of God's providence: the more something exists, the more it falls under the providence that covers all existence. It is true that God is said to abandon humans according to His providence, but only in the sense that He allows them to experience some form of punishment or fault. Similarly, it should be noted that a guardian angel never completely abandons a person; however, sometimes they may leave them in specific situations, such as not preventing them from facing certain challenges or even committing sin, in accordance with God's plan. In this context, Babylon and the House of Israel are described as having been abandoned by the angels because their guardian angels did not stop them from experiencing hardship.

From this the answers are clear to the first and second objections.

From this, the answers to the first and second objections are clear.

Reply Obj. 3: Although an angel may forsake a man sometimes locally, he does not for that reason forsake him as to the effect of his guardianship: for even when he is in heaven he knows what is happening to man; nor does he need time for his local motion, for he can be with man in an instant. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Even though an angel might leave a person in one place for a while, it doesn't mean he neglects his role as a guardian. Even when in heaven, he is aware of what is happening to that person; plus, he doesn’t need time to travel because he can be with someone in an instant.

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 7]

SEVENTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 7]

Whether Angels Grieve for the Ills of Those Whom They Guard?

Whether Angels Mourn for the Troubles of Those They Protect?

Objection 1: It would seem that angels grieve for the ills of those whom they guard. For it is written (Isa. 33:7): "The angels of peace shall weep bitterly." But weeping is a sign of grief and sorrow. Therefore angels grieve for the ills of those whom they guard.

Objection 1: It seems that angels feel sad for the troubles of those they protect. For it is written (Isa. 33:7): "The angels of peace shall weep bitterly." But crying is a sign of grief and sorrow. Therefore, angels feel sad for the troubles of those they protect.

Obj. 2: Further, according to Augustine (De Civ. Dei xiv, 15), "sorrow is for those things that happen against our will." But the loss of the man whom he has guarded is against the guardian angel's will. Therefore angels grieve for the loss of men.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, as Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xiv, 15), "sorrow is for those things that happen against our will." But the loss of the person he has protected goes against the guardian angel's will. Therefore, angels feel sadness over the loss of humans.

Obj. 3: Further, as sorrow is contrary to joy, so penance is contrary to sin. But angels rejoice about one sinner doing penance, as we are told, Luke 15:7. Therefore they grieve for the just man who falls into sin.

Obj. 3: Just as sorrow is the opposite of joy, penance is the opposite of sin. Angels celebrate when a sinner repents, as stated in Luke 15:7. Therefore, they mourn for the righteous person who falls into sin.

Obj. 4: Further, on Numbers 18:12: "Whatsoever first-fruits they offer," etc. the gloss of Origen says: "The angels are brought to judgment as to whether men have fallen through their negligence or through their own fault." But it is reasonable for anyone to grieve for the ills which have brought him to judgment. Therefore angels grieve for men's sins.

Obj. 4: Further, on Numbers 18:12: "Whatever first-fruits they offer," etc. Origen's commentary says: "The angels are brought to judgment to determine whether humans have fallen due to their negligence or their own faults." It's only natural for anyone to feel sorrow for the wrongs that have led them to judgment. Therefore, angels grieve for human sins.

On the contrary, Where there is grief and sorrow, there is not perfect happiness: wherefore it is written (Apoc. 21:4): "Death shall be no more, nor mourning, nor crying, nor sorrow." But the angels are perfectly happy. Therefore they have no cause for grief.

On the contrary, where there is grief and sorrow, there is no true happiness: that's why it is written (Apoc. 21:4): "There will be no more death, mourning, crying, or pain." But the angels are perfectly happy. Therefore, they have no reason for grief.

I answer that, Angels do not grieve, either for sins or for the pains inflicted on men. For grief and sorrow, according to Augustine (De Civ. Dei xiv, 15) are for those things which occur against our will. But nothing happens in the world contrary to the will of the angels and the other blessed, because their will cleaves entirely to the ordering of Divine justice; while nothing happens in the world save what is effected or permitted by Divine justice. Therefore simply speaking, nothing occurs in the world against the will of the blessed. For as the Philosopher says (Ethic. iii, 1) that is called simply voluntary, which a man wills in a particular case, and at a particular time, having considered all the circumstances; although universally speaking, such a thing would not be voluntary: thus the sailor does not will the casting of his cargo into the sea, considered universally and absolutely, but on account of the threatened danger of his life, he wills it. Wherefore this is voluntary rather than involuntary, as stated in the same passage. Therefore universally and absolutely speaking the angels do not will sin and the pains inflicted on its account: but they do will the fulfilment of the ordering of Divine justice in this matter, in respect of which some are subjected to pains and are allowed to fall into sin.

I answer that, Angels do not feel sorrow, whether for sins or for the suffering imposed on people. Grief and sadness, according to Augustine (De Civ. Dei xiv, 15), arise from things that happen against our will. However, nothing occurs in the world that goes against the will of angels and the other blessed, because their will is completely aligned with the order of Divine justice; and nothing happens in the world except what is brought about or allowed by Divine justice. Therefore, broadly speaking, nothing happens in the world against the will of the blessed. As the Philosopher states (Ethic. iii, 1), something is considered truly voluntary when a person chooses it in a specific situation at a specific time while considering all the circumstances; although, in a general sense, it may not be voluntary. For example, the sailor does not generally will to throw his cargo overboard, but because of the life-threatening danger, he chooses to do so. Consequently, this is more voluntary than involuntary, as noted in the same passage. Therefore, in a broad and absolute sense, the angels do not will sin and the suffering that results from it; rather, they will the fulfillment of the order of Divine justice in this matter, which is why some undergo suffering and are allowed to fall into sin.

Reply Obj. 1: These words of Isaias may be understood of the angels, i.e. the messengers, of Ezechias, who wept on account of the words of Rabsaces, as related Isa. 37:2 seqq.: this would be the literal sense. According to the allegorical sense the "angels of peace" are the apostles and preachers who weep for men's sins. If according to the anagogical sense this passage be expounded of the blessed angels, then the expression is metaphorical, and signifies that universally speaking the angels will the salvation of mankind: for in this sense we attribute passions to God and the angels.

Reply Obj. 1: The words of Isaiah can be understood as referring to the angels, or messengers, of Hezekiah, who cried because of the words of Rabshakeh, as mentioned in Isa. 37:2 and following: this would be the literal interpretation. From an allegorical perspective, the "angels of peace" represent the apostles and preachers who mourn over people's sins. If we interpret this passage from an anagogical viewpoint regarding the blessed angels, then the term is metaphorical and means that in general, the angels desire the salvation of humanity: in this sense, we attribute emotions to God and the angels.

The reply to the second objection appears from what has been said.

The answer to the second objection can be seen from what has been discussed.

Reply Obj. 3: Both in man's repentance and in man's sin there is one reason for the angel's joy, namely the fulfilment of the ordering of the Divine Providence.

Reply Obj. 3: Both in a person's repentance and in their sin, there is one reason for the angel's joy, which is the fulfillment of the plan of Divine Providence.

Reply Obj. 4: The angels are brought into judgment for the sins of men, not as guilty, but as witnesses to convict man of weakness. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The angels are judged for the sins of humans, not because they are guilty, but as witnesses to prove human weakness.

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 8]

EIGHTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 113, Art. 8]

Whether There Can Be Strife or Discord Among the Angels?

Whether there can be conflict or disagreement among the angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that there can be [no] strife or discord among the angels. For it is written (Job 25:2): "Who maketh peace in His high places." But strife is opposed to peace. Therefore among the high angels there is no strife.

Objection 1: It seems that there can be no conflict or disagreement among the angels. For it is written (Job 25:2): "Who brings peace in His high places." But conflict is the opposite of peace. Therefore, among the high angels, there is no conflict.

Obj. 2: Further, where there is perfect charity and just authority there can be no strife. But all this exists among the angels. Therefore there is no strife among the angels.

Obj. 2: Additionally, where there is perfect love and rightful authority, there can be no conflict. But all of this is present among the angels. Therefore, there is no conflict among the angels.

Obj. 3: Further, if we say that angels strive for those whom they guard, one angel must needs take one side, and another angel the opposite side. But if one side is in the right the other side is in the wrong. It will follow therefore, that a good angel is a compounder of wrong; which is unseemly. Therefore there is no strife among good angels.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if we say that angels fight for those they protect, one angel would have to take one side, while another angel takes the opposite side. But if one side is right, then the other side must be wrong. This means that a good angel would be involved in wrongdoing, which is inappropriate. Thus, there is no conflict among good angels.

On the contrary, It is written (Dan. 10:13): "The prince of the kingdom of the Persians resisted me one and twenty days." But this prince of the Persians was the angel deputed to the guardianship of the kingdom of the Persians. Therefore one good angel resists the others; and thus there is strife among them.

On the contrary, it is written (Dan. 10:13): "The prince of the kingdom of the Persians resisted me for twenty-one days." But this prince of the Persians was the angel assigned to protect the kingdom of the Persians. Therefore, one good angel opposes the others; and thus there is conflict among them.

I answer that, The raising of this question is occasioned by this passage of Daniel. Jerome explains it by saying that the prince of the kingdom of the Persians is the angel who opposed the setting free of the people of Israel, for whom Daniel was praying, his prayers being offered to God by Gabriel. And this resistance of his may have been caused by some prince of the demons having led the Jewish captives in Persia into sin; which sin was an impediment to the efficacy of the prayer which Daniel put up for that same people.

I respond that, This question comes from a passage in Daniel. Jerome interprets it to mean that the prince of the kingdom of the Persians is the angel who resisted the liberation of the people of Israel, for whom Daniel was praying, his prayers being presented to God by Gabriel. This opposition may have been influenced by a prince of demons causing the Jewish captives in Persia to sin, and that sin may have blocked the effectiveness of the prayer that Daniel offered for that same people.

But according to Gregory (Moral. xvii), the prince of the kingdom of Persia was a good angel appointed to the guardianship of that kingdom. To see therefore how one angel can be said to resist another, we must note that the Divine judgments in regard to various kingdoms and various men are executed by the angels. Now in their actions, the angels are ruled by the Divine decree. But it happens at times in various kingdoms or various men there are contrary merits or demerits, so that one of them is subject to or placed over another. As to what is the ordering of Divine wisdom on such matters, the angels cannot know it unless God reveal it to them: and so they need to consult Divine wisdom thereupon. Wherefore forasmuch as they consult the Divine will concerning various contrary and opposing merits, they are said to resist one another: not that their wills are in opposition, since they are all of one mind as to the fulfilment of the Divine decree; but that the things about which they seek knowledge are in opposition.

But according to Gregory (Moral. xvii), the prince of the kingdom of Persia was a good angel assigned to oversee that kingdom. To understand how one angel can be said to oppose another, we need to recognize that the Divine judgments regarding different kingdoms and individuals are carried out by the angels. In their actions, the angels follow the Divine decree. However, sometimes in different kingdoms or among various people, there are conflicting merits or demerits, which means one may be subject to or placed above another. Regarding how Divine wisdom organizes these matters, the angels can only know it if God reveals it to them, so they must consult Divine wisdom about it. Thus, since they seek the Divine will concerning various conflicting and opposing merits, they are said to resist each other—not because their wills oppose one another, as they all agree on fulfilling the Divine decree, but because the matters they seek understanding about are in conflict.

From this the answers to the objections are clear. _______________________

From this, the answers to the objections are obvious.

QUESTION 114

OF THE ASSAULTS OF THE DEMONS
(In Five Articles)

OF THE ASSAULTS OF THE DEMONS
(In Five Articles)

We now consider the assaults of the demons. Under this head there are five points of inquiry:

We now look at the attacks from the demons. In this area, there are five topics to explore:

(1) Whether men are assailed by the demons?

(1) Are men attacked by demons?

(2) Whether to tempt is proper to the devil?

(2) Is it right for the devil to tempt?

(3) Whether all the sins of men are to be set down to the assaults or temptations of the demons?

(3) Are all the sins of people caused by the attacks or temptations of demons?

(4) Whether they can work real miracles for the purpose of leading men astray?

(4) Can they actually perform real miracles to mislead people?

(5) Whether the demons who are overcome by men, are hindered from making further assaults? _______________________

(5) Are the demons that are defeated by people stopped from launching more attacks? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 114, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 114, Art. 1]

Whether Men Are Assailed by the Demons?

Whether Men Are Assailed by the Demons?

Objection 1: It would seem that men are not assailed by the demons. For angels are sent by God to guard man. But demons are not sent by God: for the demons' intention is the loss of souls; whereas God's is the salvation of souls. Therefore demons are not deputed to assail man.

Objection 1: It seems that people are not attacked by demons. God sends angels to protect humans. But demons are not sent by God because demons aim to destroy souls, while God's goal is to save souls. Therefore, demons are not assigned to attack humans.

Obj. 2: Further, it is not a fair fight, for the weak to be set against the strong, and the ignorant against the astute. But men are weak and ignorant, whereas the demons are strong and astute. It is not therefore to be permitted by God, the author of all justice, that men should be assailed by demons.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, it's an unfair fight for the weak to face the strong, and the ignorant to confront the clever. Men are weak and uninformed, while demons are powerful and shrewd. Therefore, it should not be allowed by God, the source of all justice, that men be attacked by demons.

Obj. 3: Further, the assaults of the flesh and the world are enough for man's exercise. But God permits His elect to be assailed that they may be exercised. Therefore there is no need for them to be assailed by the demons.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the struggles of the flesh and the world are sufficient for a person's growth. However, God allows His chosen ones to be challenged so they can develop. Therefore, it isn't necessary for them to be attacked by demons.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Eph. 6:12): "Our wrestling is not against flesh and blood; but against Principalities and Powers, against the rulers of the world of this darkness, against the spirits of wickedness in the high places."

On the contrary, The Apostle says (Eph. 6:12): "Our battle is not against people, but against authorities and powers, against the rulers of this dark world, against the evil spirits in the heavenly realms."

I answer that, Two things may be considered in the assault of the demons—the assault itself, and the ordering thereof. The assault itself is due to the malice of the demons, who through envy endeavor to hinder man's progress; and through pride usurp a semblance of Divine power, by deputing certain ministers to assail man, as the angels of God in their various offices minister to man's salvation. But the ordering of the assault is from God, Who knows how to make orderly use of evil by ordering it to good. On the other hand, in regard to the angels, both their guardianship and the ordering thereof are to be referred to God as their first author.

I respond that, two things can be examined in the attack of the demons—the attack itself and its organization. The attack is rooted in the malice of the demons, who, out of envy, try to obstruct human progress; and out of pride, they take on a false appearance of Divine power, appointing certain agents to attack humans, similar to how God's angels in their various roles work towards human salvation. However, the organization of the attack comes from God, who knows how to use evil in a way that ultimately leads to good. Likewise, concerning the angels, both their protection and its organization must be attributed to God as their original source.

Reply Obj. 1: The wicked angels assail men in two ways. Firstly by instigating them to sin; and thus they are not sent by God to assail us, but are sometimes permitted to do so according to God's just judgments. But sometimes their assault is a punishment to man: and thus they are sent by God; as the lying spirit was sent to punish Achab, King of Israel, as is related in 3 Kings 22:20. For punishment is referred to God as its first author. Nevertheless the demons who are sent to punish, do so with an intention other than that for which they are sent; for they punish from hatred or envy; whereas they are sent by God on account of His justice.

Reply Obj. 1: The evil angels attack people in two ways. First, by encouraging them to sin; they are not sent by God to attack us, but are sometimes allowed to do so according to God's fair judgments. At other times, their attack is a punishment for humans: in this case, they are sent by God, like the lying spirit sent to punish Ahab, King of Israel, as mentioned in 3 Kings 22:20. Punishment ultimately comes from God as its original source. However, the demons sent for punishment act with motivations different from the reasons they were sent; they inflict punishment out of hatred or envy, even though they are sent by God for His justice.

Reply Obj. 2: In order that the conditions of the fight be not unequal, there is as regards man the promised recompense, to be gained principally through the grace of God, secondarily through the guardianship of the angels. Wherefore (4 Kings 6:16), Eliseus said to his servant: "Fear not, for there are more with us than with them."

Reply Obj. 2: To ensure the fight isn’t unfair, there’s a promised reward for people, which comes mainly through God’s grace and secondarily through the protection of angels. Therefore, as stated in 4 Kings 6:16, Eliseus told his servant: "Don’t be afraid, for there are more on our side than on theirs."

Reply Obj. 3: The assault of the flesh and the world would suffice for the exercise of human weakness: but it does not suffice for the demon's malice, which makes use of both the above in assailing men. But by the Divine ordinance this tends to the glory of the elect. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The attacks from the flesh and the world would be enough to challenge human weakness, but they aren't enough for the malice of demons, which uses both to target people. However, according to Divine will, this ultimately serves to glorify the elect.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 114, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 114, Art. 2]

Whether to Tempt Is Proper to the Devil?

Whether It's Right to Tempt the Devil?

Objection 1: It would seem that to tempt is not proper to the devil. For God is said to tempt, according to Gen. 22:1, "God tempted Abraham." Moreover man is tempted by the flesh and the world. Again, man is said to tempt God, and to tempt man. Therefore it is not proper to the devil to tempt.

Objection 1: It might seem that tempting is not something the devil does. For God is said to tempt, as stated in Genesis 22:1, "God tempted Abraham." Furthermore, people are tempted by their desires and the world around them. Additionally, people are said to tempt God and to tempt others. Therefore, it doesn't seem right to say that only the devil tempts.

Obj. 2: Further, to tempt is a sign of ignorance. But the demons know what happens among men. Therefore the demons do not tempt.

Obj. 2: Moreover, to tempt is a sign of ignorance. However, the demons are aware of what happens among humans. Therefore, the demons do not tempt.

Obj. 3: Further, temptation is the road to sin. Now sin dwells in the will. Since therefore the demons cannot change man's will, as appears from what has been said above (Q. 111, A. 2), it seems that it is not in their province to tempt.

Obj. 3: Additionally, temptation leads to sin. Sin resides in the will. Since the demons cannot alter a person's will, as stated above (Q. 111, A. 2), it seems that tempting people is not within their domain.

On the contrary, It is written (1 Thess. 3:5): "Lest perhaps he that tempteth should have tempted you": to which the gloss adds, "that is, the devil, whose office it is to tempt."

On the contrary, It is written (1 Thess. 3:5): "Lest perhaps he who tempts should have tempted you": to which the commentary adds, "that is, the devil, whose job it is to tempt."

I answer that, To tempt is, properly speaking, to make trial of something. Now we make trial of something in order to know something about it: hence the immediate end of every tempter is knowledge. But sometimes another end, either good or bad, is sought to be acquired through that knowledge; a good end, when, for instance, one desires to know of someone, what sort of a man he is as to knowledge, or virtue, with a view to his promotion; a bad end, when that knowledge is sought with the purpose of deceiving or ruining him.

I respond that, to tempt essentially means to test something. We test something to gain understanding about it; therefore, the primary goal of every tempter is to obtain knowledge. However, there might be another goal, either good or bad, that they want to achieve through that knowledge. A good goal is when someone seeks to learn about a person's character regarding their knowledge or virtue, aiming for their advancement. A bad goal is when that knowledge is sought with the intention of deceiving or damaging them.

From this we can gather how various beings are said to tempt in various ways. For man is said to tempt, sometimes indeed merely for the sake of knowing something; and for this reason it is a sin to tempt God; for man, being uncertain as it were, presumes to make an experiment of God's power. Sometimes too he tempts in order to help, sometimes in order to hurt. The devil, however, always tempts in order to hurt by urging man into sin. In this sense it is said to be his proper office to tempt: for thought at times man tempts thus, he does this as minister of the devil. God is said to tempt that He may know, in the same sense as that is said to know which makes others to know. Hence it is written (Deut. 13:3): "The Lord your God trieth you, that it may appear whether you love him."

From this, we can see how different beings are said to tempt in various ways. A person might tempt, sometimes just to learn something; and for this reason, it's considered a sin to tempt God, as humans, being uncertain, take it upon themselves to test God’s power. Sometimes they tempt to help, and other times to harm. However, the devil always tempts to cause harm by leading people into sin. In this way, it’s said to be his main role to tempt: while sometimes humans tempt, they do so as agents of the devil. God is said to tempt so that He may know, in the same way that knowing enables others to understand. Hence, it is written (Deut. 13:3): "The Lord your God tests you, to make it clear whether you love Him."

The flesh and the world are said to tempt as the instruments or matter of temptations; inasmuch as one can know what sort of man someone is, according as he follows or resists the desires of the flesh, and according as he despises worldly advantages and adversity: of which things the devil also makes use in tempting.

The body and the world are said to tempt us as the tools or sources of temptation; in the sense that one can understand what kind of person someone is based on whether they follow or resist the desires of the body, and whether they disregard worldly gains and hardships: of which the devil also takes advantage in tempting.

Thus the reply to the first objection is clear.

Thus, the response to the first objection is clear.

Reply Obj. 2: The demons know what happens outwardly among men; but the inward disposition of man God alone knows, Who is the "weigher of spirits" (Prov. 16:2). It is this disposition that makes man more prone to one vice than to another: hence the devil tempts, in order to explore this inward disposition of man, so that he may tempt him to that vice to which he is most prone.

Reply Obj. 2: The demons are aware of what happens on the surface among people; however, only God knows a person's inner thoughts and feelings, as He is the "weigher of spirits" (Prov. 16:2). It is this inner disposition that makes a person more inclined to one vice over another; therefore, the devil tempts individuals to understand their inner disposition, so he can tempt them toward the vice they are most susceptible to.

Reply Obj. 3: Although a demon cannot change the will, yet, as stated above (Q. 111, A. 3), he can change the inferior powers of man, in a certain degree: by which powers, though the will cannot be forced, it can nevertheless be inclined. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Even though a demon can't change someone's will, as mentioned earlier (Q. 111, A. 3), they can influence a person's lower faculties to some extent. While the will can't be forced, it can still be swayed.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 114, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 114, Art. 3]

Whether All Sins Are Due to the Temptation of the Devil?

Whether All Sins Are Due to the Temptation of the Devil?

Objection 1: It would seem that all sins are due to the temptation of the devil. For Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "the multitude of demons is the cause of all evils, both to themselves and to others." And Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 4) that "all malice and all uncleanness have been devised by the devil."

Objection 1: It appears that all sins result from the devil's temptation. For Dionysius states (Div. Nom. iv) that "the multitude of demons is the source of all evils, both for themselves and for others." And Damascene mentions (De Fide Orth. ii, 4) that "all wickedness and all impurity have been invented by the devil."

Obj. 2: Further, of every sinner can be said what the Lord said of the Jews (John 8:44): "You are of your father the devil." But this was in as far as they sinned through the devil's instigation. Therefore every sin is due to the devil's instigation.

Obj. 2: Additionally, what the Lord said about the Jews (John 8:44) can be applied to every sinner: "You are of your father the devil." This applies to the extent that they sinned due to the devil's influence. Therefore, every sin is a result of the devil's prompting.

Obj. 3: Further, as angels are deputed to guard men, so demons are deputed to assail men. But every good thing we do is due to the suggestion of the good angels: because the Divine gifts are borne to us by the angels. Therefore all the evil we do, is due to the instigation of the devil.

Obj. 3: Similarly, just as angels are assigned to protect people, demons are assigned to attack them. Every good action we take comes from the inspiration of the good angels, as Divine gifts are delivered to us through them. Therefore, all the evil we commit is a result of the influence of the devil.

On the contrary, It is written (De Eccl. Dogmat. xlix): "Not all our evil thoughts are stirred up by the devil, but sometimes they arise from the movement of our free-will."

On the contrary, It is written (De Eccl. Dogmat. xlix): "Not all our negative thoughts are caused by the devil; sometimes they come from our own free will."

I answer that, One thing can be the cause of another in two ways; directly and indirectly. Indirectly as when an agent is the cause of a disposition to a certain effect, it is said to be the occasional and indirect cause of that effect: for instance, we might say that he who dries the wood is the cause of the wood burning. In this way we must admit that the devil is the cause of all our sins; because he it was who instigated the first man to sin, from whose sin there resulted a proneness to sin in the whole human race: and in this sense we must take the words of Damascene and Dionysius.

I respond that, One thing can cause another in two ways: directly and indirectly. Indirectly, when an agent leads to a certain effect by creating a tendency towards it, we call it the occasional and indirect cause of that effect. For example, we might say that someone who dries wood is the cause of the wood burning. In this manner, we must acknowledge that the devil is behind all our sins; because he was the one who tempted the first man to sin, which led to a tendency towards sin in all of humanity: and in this sense, we should understand the words of Damascene and Dionysius.

But a thing is said to be the direct cause of something, when its action tends directly thereunto. And in this way the devil is not the cause of every sin: for all sins are not committed at the devil's instigation, but some are due to the free-will and the corruption of the flesh. For, as Origen says (Peri Archon iii), even if there were no devil, men would have the desire for food and love and such like pleasures; with regard to which many disorders may arise unless those desires are curbed by reason, especially if we presuppose the corruption of our natures. Now it is in the power of the free-will to curb this appetite and keep it in order. Consequently there is no need for all sins to be due to the instigation of the devil. But those sins which are due thereto man perpetrates "through being deceived by the same blandishments as were our first parents," as Isidore says (De Summo Bono ii).

But something is said to be the direct cause of another thing when its action leads straight to it. In this sense, the devil isn’t the cause of every sin; not all sins result from the devil's influence. Some are caused by human free will and the corruption of our bodies. As Origen states (Peri Archon iii), even if there were no devil, people would still have cravings for food, love, and other pleasures, which can lead to many problems unless these desires are controlled by reason, especially considering our natural corruption. It is within the power of free will to manage these appetites and keep them in check. Therefore, not all sins need to be caused by the devil's temptation. However, those sins that are do occur "because people are deceived by the same temptations that led our first parents astray," as Isidore says (De Summo Bono ii).

Thus the answer to the first objection is clear.

So, the answer to the first objection is clear.

Reply Obj. 2: When man commits sin without being thereto instigated by the devil, he nevertheless becomes a child of the devil thereby, in so far as he imitates him who was the first to sin.

Reply Obj. 2: When a person sins without being prompted by the devil, they still become a child of the devil because they are mimicking the one who sinned first.

Reply Obj. 3: Man can of his own accord fall into sin: but he cannot advance in merit without the Divine assistance, which is borne to man by the ministry of the angels. For this reason the angels take part in all our good works: whereas all our sins are not due to the demons' instigation. Nevertheless there is no kind of sin which is not sometimes due to the demons' suggestion. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: People can choose to sin on their own, but they can't make progress in doing good without divine help, which comes to us through the angels. That's why the angels are involved in all our good deeds; however, our sins aren't solely caused by the demons' influence. Still, there isn't a type of sin that isn't sometimes prompted by the demons.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 114, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 114, Art. 4]

Whether Demons Can Lead Men Astray by Means of Real Miracles?

Whether demons can lead people astray through genuine miracles?

Objection 1: It would seem that the demons cannot lead men astray by means of real miracles. For the activity of the demons will show itself especially in the works of Antichrist. But as the Apostle says (2 Thess. 2:9), his "coming is according to the working of Satan, in all power, and signs, and lying wonders." Much more therefore at other times do the demons perform lying wonders.

Objection 1: It seems that demons can’t mislead people through real miracles. The actions of demons are especially evident in the works of the Antichrist. As the Apostle says (2 Thess. 2:9), his "coming is according to the workings of Satan, with all power, signs, and false wonders." Therefore, even more so at other times, demons perform false wonders.

Obj. 2: Further, true miracles are wrought by some corporeal change. But demons are unable to change the nature of a body; for Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xviii, 18): "I cannot believe that the human body can receive the limbs of a beast by means of a demon's art or power." Therefore the demons cannot work real miracles.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, true miracles occur through some physical change. However, demons cannot alter the nature of a body; Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xviii, 18): "I cannot believe that the human body can take on the limbs of a beast through a demon's skill or power." Therefore, demons cannot perform genuine miracles.

Obj. 3: Further, an argument is useless which may prove both ways. If therefore real miracles can be wrought by demons, to persuade one of what is false, they will be useless to confirm the teaching of the faith. This is unfitting; for it is written (Mk. 16:20): "The Lord working withal, and confirming the word with signs that followed."

Obj. 3: Also, an argument is pointless if it can prove both sides. So, if real miracles can be performed by demons to convince someone of falsehoods, they won't be helpful in confirming the teachings of the faith. This is inappropriate; as it is written (Mk. 16:20): "The Lord worked with them and confirmed the word with signs that followed."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Q. 83) [*Lib. xxi, Sent. sent 4, among the supposititious works of St. Augustine]: "Often by means of the magic art miracles are wrought like those which are wrought by the servants of God."

On the contrary, Augustine says (Q. 83) [*Lib. xxi, Sent. sent 4, among the supposititious works of St. Augustine]: "Often through magic, miracles are performed similar to those done by the servants of God."

I answer that, As is clear from what has been said above (Q. 110, A. 4), if we take a miracle in the strict sense, the demons cannot work miracles, nor can any creature, but God alone: since in the strict sense a miracle is something done outside the order of the entire created nature, under which order every power of a creature is contained. But sometimes miracle may be taken in a wide sense, for whatever exceeds the human power and experience. And thus demons can work miracles, that is, things which rouse man's astonishment, by reason of their being beyond his power and outside his sphere of knowledge. For even a man by doing what is beyond the power and knowledge of another, leads him to marvel at what he has done, so that in a way he seems to that man to have worked a miracle.

I respond that, As has been explained earlier (Q. 110, A. 4), if we understand a miracle in the strict sense, demons cannot perform miracles, nor can any creature, but only God: because, in the strict sense, a miracle is something that occurs outside the entire order of created nature, within which every creature's power is contained. However, sometimes the term miracle is used in a broader sense to refer to anything that goes beyond human ability and experience. In this way, demons can perform miracles, which means actions that astonish humans because they are beyond what we can do and outside our understanding. Just as a person can amaze another by doing something beyond that person's capabilities and knowledge, making it seem like a miracle to them.

It is to be noted, however, that although these works of demons which appear marvelous to us are not real miracles, they are sometimes nevertheless something real. Thus the magicians of Pharaoh by the demons' power produced real serpents and frogs. And "when fire came down from heaven and at one blow consumed Job's servants and sheep; when the storm struck down his house and with it his children—these were the work of Satan, not phantoms"; as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xx, 19).

It should be noted, however, that while these demonically inspired acts may seem amazing to us, they are not true miracles; they can still be genuine phenomena. For example, Pharaoh's magicians, through the power of demons, created real snakes and frogs. And when fire came down from heaven and instantly destroyed Job's servants and sheep, or when a storm collapsed his house along with his children—these were the actions of Satan, not mere illusions, as Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xx, 19).

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says in the same place, the works of Antichrist may be called lying wonders, "either because he will deceive men's senses by means of phantoms, so that he will not really do what he will seem to do; or because, if he work real prodigies, they will lead those into falsehood who believe in him."

Reply Obj. 1: As Augustine says in the same place, the works of Antichrist can be called lying wonders, "either because he will deceive people's senses with illusions, making it seem like he is doing things he isn't really doing; or because, even if he performs actual miracles, they will mislead those who believe in him into falsehood."

Reply Obj. 2: As we have said above (Q. 110, A. 2), corporeal matter does not obey either good or bad angels at their will, so that demons be able by their power to transmute matter from one form to another; but they can employ certain seeds that exist in the elements of the world, in order to produce these effects, as Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8, 9). Therefore it must be admitted that all the transformation of corporeal things which can be produced by certain natural powers, to which we must assign the seeds above mentioned, can alike be produced by the operation of the demons, by the employment of these seeds; such as the transformation of certain things into serpents or frogs, which can be produced by putrefaction. On the contrary, those transformations which cannot be produced by the power of nature, cannot in reality be effected by the operation of the demons; for instance, that the human body be changed into the body of a beast, or that the body of a dead man return to life. And if at times something of this sort seems to be effected by the operation of demons, it is not real but a mere semblance of reality.

Reply Obj. 2: As we mentioned earlier (Q. 110, A. 2), physical matter does not follow the commands of either good or bad angels at their whim, so demons cannot use their power to change matter from one form to another. However, they can use specific elements that exist in the world to produce these effects, as Augustine states (De Trin. iii, 8, 9). Therefore, we must acknowledge that all transformations of physical things that can occur through certain natural powers—where we should consider the aforementioned elements—can also be carried out by demons using these elements; for example, transformations of certain things into serpents or frogs, which can occur through decay. Conversely, transformations that cannot happen through natural power cannot be genuinely accomplished by demons; for instance, turning a human body into an animal's body, or bringing a dead body back to life. If it sometimes seems like something like this is achieved through demons, it is not real but merely an imitation of reality.

Now this may happen in two ways. Firstly, from within; in this way a demon can work on man's imagination and even on his corporeal senses, so that something seems otherwise that it is, as explained above (Q. 111, AA. 3,4). It is said indeed that this can be done sometimes by the power of certain bodies. Secondly, from without: for just as he can from the air form a body of any form and shape, and assume it so as to appear in it visibly: so, in the same way he can clothe any corporeal thing with any corporeal form, so as to appear therein. This is what Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xviii, 18): "Man's imagination, which whether thinking or dreaming, takes the forms of an innumerable number of things, appears to other men's senses, as it were embodied in the semblance of some animal." This not to be understood as though the imagination itself or the images formed therein were identified with that which appears embodied to the senses of another man: but that the demon, who forms an image in a man's imagination, can offer the same picture to another man's senses.

This can happen in two ways. First, from within; in this way, a demon can influence a person's imagination and even their physical senses, so that something seems different from what it actually is, as explained above (Q. 111, AA. 3,4). It's said that this can sometimes be done through the power of certain bodies. Second, from outside: just as a demon can create a body of any form and shape from the air and appear visibly in it, he can also give any physical object any physical form, so it looks like something else. Augustine mentions this (De Civ. Dei xviii, 18): "A person's imagination, whether thinking or dreaming, takes on countless forms and appears to the senses of others, as if embodied in the likeness of some animal." This should not be taken to mean that the imagination itself or the images created within it are the same as what appears to someone else's senses; rather, the demon, who creates an image in a person's imagination, can present the same image to another person's senses.

Reply Obj. 3: As Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 79): "When magicians do what holy men do, they do it for a different end and by a different right. The former do it for their own glory; the latter, for the glory of God: the former, by certain private compacts; the latter by the evident assistance and command of God, to Whom every creature is subject." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: As Augustine states (QQ. 83, qu. 79): "When magicians perform acts similar to those of holy individuals, they do so for different purposes and in different ways. The former do it for their own fame; the latter, for God’s glory: the former, through certain private agreements; the latter through the clear help and authority of God, to whom every creature is subject."

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 114, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 114, Art. 5]

Whether a Demon Who Is Overcome by Man, Is for This Reason Hindered from Making Further Assaults?

Whether a demon who is defeated by a person is therefore prevented from launching further attacks?

Objection 1: It would seem that a demon who is overcome by a man, is not for that reason hindered from any further assault. For Christ overcame the tempter most effectively. Yet afterwards the demon assailed Him by instigating the Jews to kill Him. Therefore it is not true that the devil when conquered ceases his assaults.

Objection 1: It seems that a demon who is defeated by a person is not necessarily stopped from making further attacks. Christ overcame the tempter very effectively. However, afterward, the demon attacked Him again by encouraging the Jews to kill Him. Therefore, it is not true that the devil stops his attacks once he is defeated.

Obj. 2: Further, to inflict punishment on one who has been worsted in a fight, is to incite him to a sharper attack. But this is not befitting God's mercy. Therefore the conquered demons are not prevented from further assaults.

Obj. 2: Additionally, punishing someone who has already lost a fight only encourages them to retaliate more fiercely. This doesn't align with God's mercy. Therefore, the defeated demons are not stopped from making further attacks.

On the contrary, It is written (Matt. 4:11): "Then the devil left Him," i.e. Christ Who overcame.

On the contrary, It is written (Matt. 4:11): "Then the devil left Him," meaning Christ Who triumphed.

I answer that, Some say that when once a demon has been overcome he can no more tempt any man at all, neither to the same nor to any other sin. And others say that he can tempt others, but not the same man. This seems more probable as long as we understand it to be so for a certain definite time: wherefore (Luke 4:13) it is written: "All temptation being ended, the devil departed from Him for a time." There are two reasons for this. One is on the part of God's clemency; for as Chrysostom says (Super Matt. Hom. v) [*In the Opus Imperfectum, among his supposititious works], "the devil does not tempt man for just as long as he likes, but for as long as God allows; for although He allows him to tempt for a short time, He orders him off on account of our weakness." The other reason is taken from the astuteness of the devil. As to this, Ambrose says on Luke 4:13: "The devil is afraid of persisting, because he shrinks from frequent defeat." That the devil does nevertheless sometimes return to the assault, is apparent from Matt. 12:44: "I will return into my house from whence I came out."

I answer that, Some people believe that once a demon has been defeated, he can no longer tempt anyone at all, neither to the same sin nor to any other. Others argue that he can tempt others but not the same person. This seems more likely as long as we understand it to be for a specific period of time: wherefore (Luke 4:13) it is written: "All temptation being ended, the devil departed from Him for a time." There are two reasons for this. One is due to God's mercy; as Chrysostom says (Super Matt. Hom. v) [*In the Opus Imperfectum, among his supposititious works], "the devil does not tempt man for as long as he wants, but for as long as God permits; for although He allows him to tempt for a short time, He drives him away because of our weakness." The other reason comes from the cunning of the devil. In this regard, Ambrose remarks on Luke 4:13: "The devil is afraid of continuing, because he fears frequent defeat." That the devil sometimes does return for another attack is evident from Matt. 12:44: "I will return to my house from where I came out."

From what has been said, the objections can easily be solved. _______________________

Based on what we've discussed, the objections can be easily addressed.

QUESTION 115

OF THE ACTION OF THE CORPOREAL CREATURE
(In Six Articles)

OF THE ACTION OF THE PHYSICAL BEING
(In Six Articles)

We have now to consider the action of the corporeal creature; and fate, which is ascribed to certain bodies. Concerning corporeal actions there are six points of inquiry:

We now need to look at the actions of physical beings and the fate that is associated with certain bodies. There are six key questions regarding physical actions:

(1) Whether a body can be active?

(1) Can a body be active?

(2) Whether there exist in bodies certain seminal virtues?

(2) Do bodies have certain essential qualities?

(3) Whether the heavenly bodies are the causes of what is done here by the inferior bodies?

(3) Are the heavenly bodies responsible for what happens here with the lower bodies?

(4) Whether they are the cause of human acts?

(4) Are they the reason behind human actions?

(5) Whether demons are subject to their influence?

(5) Are demons influenced by them?

(6) Whether the heavenly bodies impose necessity on those things which are subject to their influence? _______________________

(6) Do the heavenly bodies create a necessity for everything that is affected by their influence? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 115, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 115, Art. 1]

Whether a Body Can Be Active?

Whether a body can be active?

Objection 1: It would seem that no bodies are active. For Augustine says (De Civ. Dei v, 9): "There are things that are acted upon, but do not act; such are bodies: there is one Who acts but is not acted upon; this is God: there are things that both act and are acted upon; these are the spiritual substances."

Objection 1: It seems that no bodies are active. For Augustine says (De Civ. Dei v, 9): "There are things that are acted upon but do not act; such are bodies: there is one Who acts but is not acted upon; this is God: there are things that both act and are acted upon; these are the spiritual substances."

Obj. 2: Further, every agent except the first agent requires in its work a subject susceptible of its action. But there is not substance below the corporeal substance which can be susceptible of the latter's action; since it belongs to the lowest degree of beings. Therefore corporeal substance is not active.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, every agent except the first one requires a subject that can be influenced by its action. However, there is no substance below the physical substance that can be affected by it, since it occupies the lowest level of existence. Therefore, physical substance is not active.

Obj. 3: Further, every corporeal substance is limited by quantity. But quantity hinders substance from movement and action, because it surrounds it and penetrates it: just as a cloud hinders the air from receiving light. A proof of this is that the more a body increases in quantity, the heavier it is and the more difficult to move. Therefore no corporeal substance is active.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, every physical substance is defined by quantity. But quantity restricts substance from movement and action, because it surrounds and permeates it: just like a cloud blocks the air from receiving light. Evidence of this is that the larger a body is, the heavier it becomes and the harder it is to move. Therefore, no physical substance is capable of action.

Obj. 4: Further, the power of action in every agent is according to its propinquity to the first active cause. But bodies, being most composite, are most remote from the first active cause, which is most simple. Therefore no bodies are active.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the ability to act in every agent depends on how close it is to the first active cause. Since bodies are the most complex, they are farthest from the first active cause, which is the simplest. Therefore, no bodies have any active power.

Obj. 5: Further, if a body is an agent, the term of its action is either a substantial, or an accidental form. But it is not a substantial form; for it is not possible to find in a body any principle of action, save an active quality, which is an accident; and an accident cannot be the cause of a substantial form, since the cause is always more excellent than the effect. Likewise, neither is it an accidental form, for "an accident does not extend beyond its subject," as Augustine says (De Trin. ix, 4). Therefore no bodies are active.

Obj. 5: Additionally, if a body acts, the result of its action is either a substantial form or an accidental form. However, it can't be a substantial form; because you can't find any principle of action in a body except for an active quality, which is an accident. An accident can’t cause a substantial form since the cause is always greater than the effect. Likewise, it isn’t an accidental form either, because "an accident does not extend beyond its subject," as Augustine states (De Trin. ix, 4). Thus, no bodies are active.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. xv) that among other qualities of corporeal fire, "it shows its greatness in its action and power on that of which it lays hold."

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Coel. Hier. xv) that among other qualities of physical fire, "it demonstrates its significance through its effects and strength on what it touches."

I answer that, It is apparent to the senses that some bodies are active. But concerning the action of bodies there have been three errors. For some denied all action to bodies. This is the opinion of Avicebron in his book on The Fount of Life, where, by the arguments mentioned above, he endeavors to prove that no bodies act, but that all the actions which seem to be the actions of bodies, are the actions of some spiritual power that penetrates all bodies: so that, according to him, it is not fire that heats, but a spiritual power which penetrates, by means of the fire. And this opinion seems to be derived from that of Plato. For Plato held that all forms existing in corporeal matter are participated thereby, and determined and limited thereto; and that separate forms are absolute and as it were universal; wherefore he said that these separate forms are the causes of forms that exist in matter. Therefore inasmuch as the form which is in corporeal matter is determined to this matter individualized by quantity, Avicebron held that the corporeal form is held back and imprisoned by quantity, as the principle of individuality, so as to be unable by action to extend to any other matter: and that the spiritual and immaterial form alone, which is not hedged in by quantity, can issue forth by acting on something else.

I respond that, it’s clear to the senses that some objects are active. However, there have been three misunderstandings regarding the actions of objects. Some people have denied that objects can act at all. This is the view of Avicebron in his book The Fount of Life, where he tries to argue that no objects act on their own, but that all actions attributed to objects are actually the results of some spiritual power that permeates all objects. According to him, it isn’t fire that generates heat, but a spiritual force that penetrates through the fire. This perspective seems to stem from Plato’s philosophy. Plato believed that all forms present in physical matter are defined and limited by that matter, while separate forms exist in their own right and are more universal. He claimed that these separate forms cause the forms that appear in matter. Therefore, since the form found in physical matter is fixed to that specific matter defined by quantity, Avicebron argued that the physical form is constrained and trapped by quantity, which represents individuality, preventing it from acting on other materials. Only the spiritual and immaterial form, which isn’t restricted by quantity, can move and act upon something else.

But this does not prove that the corporeal form is not an agent, but that it is not a universal agent. For in proportion as a thing is participated, so, of necessity, must that be participated which is proper thereto; thus in proportion to the participation of light is the participation of visibility. But to act, which is nothing else than to make something to be in act, is essentially proper to an act as such; wherefore every agent produces its like. So therefore to the fact of its being a form not determined by matter subject to quantity, a thing owes its being an agent indeterminate and universal: but to the fact that it is determined to this matter, it owes its being an agent limited and particular. Wherefore if the form of fire were separate, as the Platonists supposed, it would be, in a fashion, the cause of every ignition. But this form of fire which is in this corporeal matter, is the cause of this ignition which passes from this body to that. Hence such an action is effected by the contact of two bodies.

But this doesn't prove that the physical form isn't an agent; it just shows that it’s not a universal agent. The more something is shared or participated in, the more that which is specific to it must also be shared; likewise, the more light is participated in, the more visibility is participated in. To act, which is simply about making something happen, is essentially something that only an act can do; therefore, every agent produces something similar to itself. So, due to being a form that isn't defined by matter subject to quantity, a thing gets its status as an indeterminate and universal agent: but because it is defined by this specific matter, it becomes a limited and particular agent. If the form of fire were separate, as the Platonists believed, it would somewhat be the cause of all ignitions. However, this form of fire that exists in this physical matter is the cause of this ignition that transfers from one body to another. Therefore, this action occurs through the contact of two bodies.

But this opinion of Avicebron goes further than that of Plato. For Plato held only substantial forms to be separate; while he referred accidents to the material principles which are "the great" and "the small," which he considered to be the first contraries, by others considered to the "the rare" and "the dense." Consequently both Plato and Avicenna, who follows him to a certain extent, held that corporeal agents act through their accidental forms, by disposing matter for the substantial form; but that the ultimate perfection attained by the introduction of the substantial form is due to an immaterial principle. And this is the second opinion concerning the action of bodies; of which we have spoken above when treating of the creation (Q. 45, A. 8).

But Avicebron’s view goes beyond Plato’s. Plato believed that only substantial forms are separate; he associated accidents with the material principles he called "the great" and "the small," which he thought were the primary opposites, while others referred to them as "the rare" and "the dense." As a result, both Plato and Avicenna, who somewhat follows him, believed that physical agents operate through their accidental forms by organizing matter for the substantial form. However, they agreed that the highest perfection achieved by the introduction of the substantial form comes from an immaterial principle. This is the second view regarding the action of bodies, which we discussed earlier in relation to creation (Q. 45, A. 8).

The third opinion is that of Democritus, who held that action takes place through the issue of atoms from the corporeal agent, while passion consists in the reception of the atoms in the pores of the passive body. This opinion is disproved by Aristotle (De Gener. i, 8, 9). For it would follow that a body would not be passive as a whole, and the quantity of the active body would be diminished through its action; which things are manifestly untrue.

The third opinion is that of Democritus, who believed that action occurs when atoms are emitted from the physical agent, while passion is the result of these atoms entering the pores of the passive body. Aristotle disproves this opinion (De Gener. i, 8, 9). This would imply that a body wouldn’t be completely passive, and that the amount of the active body would decrease through its action; both of which are evidently false.

We must therefore say that a body acts forasmuch as it is in act, on a body forasmuch as it is in potentiality.

We must therefore say that a body acts as long as it is in action, on a body as long as it is in potential.

Reply Obj. 1: This passage of Augustine is to be understood of the whole corporeal nature considered as a whole, which thus has no nature inferior to it, on which it can act; as the spiritual nature acts on the corporeal, and the uncreated nature on the created. Nevertheless one body is inferior to another, forasmuch as it is in potentiality to that which the other has in act.

Reply Obj. 1: This passage from Augustine should be understood as referring to the entire physical nature as a whole, which has no lower nature it can act upon; just as the spiritual nature acts on the physical, and the uncreated nature acts on the created. However, one body is considered inferior to another, because it is in a state of potentiality compared to what the other has in actuality.

From this follows the solution of the second objection. But it must be observed, when Avicebron argues thus, "There is a mover who is not moved, to wit, the first maker of all; therefore, on the other hand, there exists something moved which is purely passive," that this is to be conceded. But this latter is primary matter, which is a pure potentiality, just as God is pure act. Now a body is composed of potentiality and act; and therefore it is both active and passive.

From this follows the solution to the second objection. However, it's important to note that when Avicebron argues, "There is a mover who is not moved, namely, the first maker of all; therefore, on the other hand, there exists something moved which is purely passive," this must be accepted. But this latter refers to primary matter, which is pure potentiality, just as God is pure act. Now a body is made up of both potentiality and act; therefore, it is both active and passive.

Reply Obj. 3: Quantity does not entirely hinder the corporeal form from action, as stated above; but from being a universal agent, forasmuch as a form is individualized through being in matter subject to quantity. The proof taken from the weight of bodies is not to the purpose. First, because addition of quantity does not cause weight; as is proved (De Coelo et Mundo iv, 2). Secondly, it is false that weight retards movement; on the contrary, the heavier a thing, the greater its movement, if we consider the movement proper thereto. Thirdly, because action is not effected by local movement, as Democritus held: but by something being reduced from potentiality to act.

Reply Obj. 3: Quantity doesn't completely stop the physical form from acting, as mentioned earlier; it just prevents it from being a universal agent because a form becomes specific by being in matter that is influenced by quantity. The argument based on the weight of bodies is irrelevant. First, adding quantity does not cause weight, as shown (De Coelo et Mundo iv, 2). Second, it's incorrect to say that weight slows down movement; actually, the heavier an object is, the greater its movement will be if we consider the movement that is natural to it. Third, action isn't caused by local movement, as Democritus believed, but by something being changed from potential to actual.

Reply Obj. 4: A body is not that which is most distant from God; for it participates something of a likeness to the Divine Being, forasmuch as it has a form. That which is most distant from God is primary matter; which is in no way active, since it is a pure potentiality.

Reply Obj. 4: A body is not the thing that is farthest from God; it shares some similarity with the Divine Being because it has a form. What is farthest from God is primary matter, which is completely inactive since it is pure potential.

Reply Obj. 5: The term of a body's action is both an accidental form and a substantial form. For the active quality, such as heat, although itself an accident, acts nevertheless by virtue of the substantial form, as its instrument: wherefore its action can terminate in a substantial form; thus natural heat, as the instrument of the soul, has an action terminating in the generation of flesh. But by its own virtue it produces an accident. Nor is it against the nature of an accident to surpass its subject in acting, but it is to surpass it in being; unless indeed one were to imagine that an accident transfers its identical self from the agent to the patient; thus Democritus explained action by an issue of atoms. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: The way a body acts is both an accidental form and a substantial form. The active quality, like heat, while being an accident itself, still acts through the substantial form as its instrument. Because of this, its action can result in a substantial form; for example, natural heat, as the instrument of the soul, has an action that leads to the creation of flesh. However, by its own nature, it produces an accident. It’s not unusual for an accident to exceed its subject in action, but it is unusual for it to exceed it in existence; unless, of course, one imagines that an accident transfers its identical self from the agent to the recipient; this is how Democritus explained action with a movement of atoms.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 115, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 115, Art. 2]

Whether There Are Any Seminal Virtues in Corporeal Matter?

Whether There Are Any Seminal Virtues in Physical Matter?

Objection 1: It would seem that there are no seminal virtues in corporeal matter. For virtue (ratio) implies something of a spiritual order. But in corporeal matter nothing exists spiritually, but only materially, that is, according to the mode of that in which it is. Therefore there are no seminal virtues in corporeal matter.

Objection 1: It seems that there are no fundamental virtues in physical matter. Virtue (ratio) suggests something of a spiritual nature. However, in physical matter, nothing exists spiritually, only materially, meaning according to the way it is. Therefore, there are no fundamental virtues in physical matter.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine (De Trin. iii, 8, 9) says that demons produce certain results by employing with a hidden movement certain seeds, which they know to exist in matter. But bodies, not virtues, can be employed with local movement. Therefore it is unreasonable to say that there are seminal virtues in corporeal matter.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine (De Trin. iii, 8, 9) states that demons achieve certain outcomes by using hidden movements to manipulate certain seeds, which they know exist in matter. However, only bodies, not virtues, can be moved locally. Thus, it is unreasonable to claim that there are seminal virtues in physical matter.

Obj. 3: Further, seeds are active principles. But there are no active principles in corporeal matter; since, as we have said above, matter is not competent to act (A. 1, ad 2, 4). Therefore there are no seminal virtues in corporeal matter.

Obj. 3: Additionally, seeds are active principles. However, there are no active principles in physical matter; as we mentioned earlier, matter cannot act (A. 1, ad 2, 4). Therefore, there are no seminal virtues in physical matter.

Obj. 4: Further, there are said to be certain "causal virtues" (Augustine, De Gen. ad lit. v, 4) which seem to suffice for the production of things. But seminal virtues are not causal virtues: for miracles are outside the scope of seminal virtues, but not of causal virtues. Therefore it is unreasonable to say that there are seminal virtues in corporeal matter.

Obj. 4: Additionally, there are said to be certain "causal virtues" (Augustine, De Gen. ad lit. v, 4) that appear sufficient for creating things. However, seminal virtues are not causal virtues: because miracles fall outside the realm of seminal virtues, but not causal virtues. Therefore, it doesn't make sense to claim that there are seminal virtues in physical matter.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8): "Of all the things which are generated in a corporeal and visible fashion, certain seeds lie hidden in the corporeal things of this world."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8): "Of all the things that are created in a physical and visible way, certain seeds are concealed within the physical objects of this world."

I answer that, It is customary to name things after what is more perfect, as the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 4). Now in the whole corporeal nature, living bodies are the most perfect: wherefore the word "nature" has been transferred from living things to all natural things. For the word itself, "nature," as the Philosopher says (Metaph. v, Did. iv, 4), was first applied to signify the generation of living things, which is called "nativity": and because living things are generated from a principle united to them, as fruit from a tree, and the offspring from the mother, to whom it is united, consequently the word "nature" has been applied to every principle of movement existing in that which is moved. Now it is manifest that the active and passive principles of the generation of living things are the seeds from which living things are generated. Therefore Augustine fittingly gave the name of "seminal virtues" [seminales rationes] to all those active and passive virtues which are the principles of natural generation and movement.

I answer that, It's common to name things after what is more perfect, as the Philosopher mentions (De Anima ii, 4). Now, in the entire physical world, living beings are the most perfect: thus, the term "nature" has been extended from living things to all natural things. The term itself, "nature," as the Philosopher states (Metaph. v, Did. iv, 4), was originally used to signify the generation of living things, known as "nativity": and since living things are generated from a principle connected to them, like fruit from a tree and offspring from the mother to whom it is linked, the term "nature" has consequently been applied to every principle of movement found in what is moved. It's clear that the active and passive principles of the generation of living beings are the seeds from which they are produced. Therefore, Augustine appropriately referred to the "seminal virtues" [seminales rationes] for all those active and passive virtues that are the principles of natural generation and movement.

These active and passive virtues may be considered in several orders. For in the first place, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. vi, 10), they are principally and originally in the Word of God, as typal ideas. Secondly, they are in the elements of the world, where they were produced altogether at the beginning, as in universal causes. Thirdly, they are in those things which, in the succession of time, are produced by universal causes, for instance in this plant, and in that animal, as in particular causes. Fourthly, they are in the seeds produced from animals and plants. And these again are compared to further particular effects, as the primordial universal causes to the first effects produced.

These active and passive virtues can be considered in several ways. First, as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. vi, 10), they primarily and originally exist in the Word of God, as typal ideas. Second, they are present in the elements of the world, where they were created at the beginning, as universal causes. Third, they exist in the things that come into being over time due to universal causes, like this plant and that animal, as particular causes. Fourth, they are found in the seeds produced by animals and plants. These seeds are then compared to further specific effects, just as primordial universal causes are related to the initial effects produced.

Reply Obj. 1: These active and passive virtues of natural things, though not called "virtues" (rationes) by reason of their being in corporeal matter, can nevertheless be so called in respect of their origin, forasmuch as they are the effect of the typal ideas [rationes ideales].

Reply Obj. 1: These active and passive qualities of natural things, even though they aren’t referred to as "virtues" because they exist in physical matter, can still be considered virtues in terms of their origin, since they are the result of the ideal forms.

Reply Obj. 2: These active and passive virtues are in certain parts of corporeal things: and when they are employed with local movement for the production of certain results, we speak of the demons as employing seeds.

Reply Obj. 2: These active and passive virtues exist in certain parts of physical things; and when they are used with local movement to create specific outcomes, we refer to the demons as using seeds.

Reply Obj. 3: The seed of the male is the active principle in the generation of an animal. But that can be called seed also which the female contributes as the passive principle. And thus the word "seed" covers both active and passive principles.

Reply Obj. 3: The male's seed is the active factor in creating an animal. However, what the female contributes can also be called seed, as it serves as the passive factor. Therefore, the term "seed" encompasses both active and passive elements.

Reply Obj. 4: From the words of Augustine when speaking of these seminal virtues, it is easy to gather that they are also causal virtues, just as seed is a kind of cause: for he says (De Trin. iii, 9) that, "as a mother is pregnant with the unborn offspring, so is the world itself pregnant with the causes of unborn things." Nevertheless, the "typal ideas" can be called "causal virtues," but not, strictly speaking, "seminal virtues," because seed is not a separate principle; and because miracles are not wrought outside the scope of causal virtues. Likewise neither are miracles wrought outside the scope of the passive virtues so implanted in the creature, that the latter can be used to any purpose that God commands. But miracles are said to be wrought outside the scope of the natural active virtues, and the passive potentialities which are ordered to such active virtues, and this is what is meant when we say that they are wrought outside the scope of seminal virtues. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: From Augustine's words regarding these seminal virtues, it's clear that they are also causal virtues, just like how a seed can be seen as a cause. He states (De Trin. iii, 9) that "just as a mother carries her unborn child, the world is itself carrying the causes of things not yet born." However, while the "typal ideas" can be referred to as "causal virtues," they shouldn't strictly be called "seminal virtues" because a seed isn’t a separate principle, and miracles don't happen outside the realm of causal virtues. Additionally, miracles also don't occur outside the range of the passive virtues embedded in the creature, which can be utilized for any purpose God commands. Yet, miracles are said to occur outside the scope of the natural active virtues and the passive potentials that are aligned with those active virtues, and this is what we mean when we say they happen outside the range of seminal virtues.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 115, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 115, Art. 3]

Whether the Heavenly Bodies Are the Cause of What Is Produced in
Bodies Here Below?

Whether the celestial bodies are the reason for what happens to things down here?

Objection 1: It would seem that the heavenly bodies are not the cause of what is produced in bodies here below. For Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 7): "We say that they"—namely, the heavenly bodies—"are not the cause of generation or corruption: they are rather signs of storms and atmospheric changes."

Objection 1: It appears that the heavenly bodies are not responsible for what happens to the things here on Earth. For Damascene states (De Fide Orth. ii, 7): "We say that they"—referring to the heavenly bodies—"are not the cause of creation or destruction: they are more like indicators of storms and weather changes."

Obj. 2: Further, for the production of anything, an agent and matter suffice. But in things here below there is passive matter; and there are contrary agents—heat and cold, and the like. Therefore for the production of things here below, there is no need to ascribe causality to the heavenly bodies.

Obj. 2: Additionally, to create anything, you only need an agent and matter. However, in the things on Earth, there is passive matter, and there are opposing agents—like heat and cold. Therefore, when it comes to creating things on Earth, there's no reason to attribute causality to the heavenly bodies.

Obj. 3: Further, the agent produces its like. Now it is to be observed that everything which is produced here below is produced through the action of heat and cold, moisture and dryness, and other such qualities, which do not exist in heavenly bodies. Therefore the heavenly bodies are not the cause of what is produced here below.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the agent creates its own kind. Now it’s important to note that everything produced here on Earth comes from the effects of heat and cold, moisture and dryness, and other similar qualities, which aren’t found in heavenly bodies. Therefore, the heavenly bodies are not the cause of what is produced here on Earth.

Obj. 4: Further, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei v, 6): "Nothing is more corporeal than sex." But sex is not caused by the heavenly bodies: a sign of this is that of twins born under the same constellation, one may be male, the other female. Therefore the heavenly bodies are not the cause of things produced in bodies here below.

Obj. 4: Additionally, Augustine states (De Civ. Dei v, 6): "Nothing is more physical than sex." However, sex isn't determined by the heavenly bodies: a clear example is that among twins born under the same constellation, one can be male and the other female. Hence, the heavenly bodies are not the reason for the things produced in bodies down here.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4): "Bodies of a grosser and inferior nature are ruled in a certain order by those of a more subtle and powerful nature." And Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv) says that "the light of the sun conduces to the generation of sensible bodies, moves them to life, gives them nourishment, growth, and perfection."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 4): "Lesser and heavier bodies are governed in a specific order by those that are more refined and powerful." And Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv) states that "the light of the sun helps to create tangible bodies, stimulates them to life, and provides them with nourishment, growth, and completeness."

I answer that, Since every multitude proceeds from unity; and since what is immovable is always in the same way of being, whereas what is moved has many ways of being: it must be observed that throughout the whole of nature, all movement proceeds from the immovable. Therefore the more immovable certain things are, the more are they the cause of those things which are most movable. Now the heavenly bodies are of all bodies the most immovable, for they are not moved save locally. Therefore the movements of bodies here below, which are various and multiform, must be referred to the movement of the heavenly bodies, as to their cause.

I respond that, since every large group comes from a single source; and since what is unchanging always exists in the same way, while what is changing has many forms of existence: it should be noted that throughout all of nature, all movement comes from what is unchanging. Thus, the more unchanging certain things are, the more they cause those things that are most changeable. Now, the heavenly bodies are the most unchanging of all bodies, as they are only moved locally. Therefore, the various and multiple movements of bodies down here must be traced back to the movement of the heavenly bodies as their source.

Reply Obj. 1: These words of Damascene are to be understood as denying that the heavenly bodies are the first cause of generation and corruption here below; for this was affirmed by those who held that the heavenly bodies are gods.

Reply Obj. 1: These words from Damascene are meant to deny that the heavenly bodies are the primary cause of creation and destruction here on Earth; this was claimed by those who believed that the heavenly bodies are gods.

Reply Obj. 2: The active principles of bodies here below are only the active qualities of the elements, such as hot and cold and the like. If therefore the substantial forms of inferior bodies were not diversified save according to accidents of that kind, the principles of which the early natural philosophers held to be the "rare" and the "dense"; there would be no need to suppose some principle above these inferior bodies, for they would be of themselves sufficient to act. But to anyone who considers the matter aright, it is clear that those accidents are merely material dispositions in regard to the substantial forms of natural bodies. Now matter is not of itself sufficient to act. And therefore it is necessary to suppose some active principle above these material dispositions.

Reply Obj. 2: The active principles of physical bodies here on Earth are just the active qualities of the elements, like hot and cold, and so on. If the essential forms of lower bodies were only varied according to these types of qualities, which early natural philosophers believed were "rare" and "dense," there would be no need to imagine a principle above these lower bodies, as they would be self-sufficient in their actions. However, for anyone who thinks about it carefully, it's clear that those qualities are simply material conditions related to the essential forms of natural bodies. And matter alone isn't enough to act. Therefore, it's necessary to assume there's some active principle above these material conditions.

This is why the Platonists maintained the existence of separate species, by participation of which the inferior bodies receive their substantial forms. But this does not seem enough. For the separate species, since they are supposed to be immovable, would always have the same mode of being: and consequently there would be no variety in the generation and corruption of inferior bodies: which is clearly false.

This is why the Platonists believed in the existence of separate species, by which the lower bodies gain their essential forms. However, this reasoning seems insufficient. Since the separate species are thought to be unchanging, they would always have the same way of existing, leading to no variation in the creation and destruction of lower bodies, which is clearly not true.

Therefore it is necessary, as the Philosopher says (De Gener. ii, 10), to suppose a movable principle, which by reason of its presence or absence causes variety in the generation and corruption of inferior bodies. Such are the heavenly bodies. Consequently whatever generates here below, moves to the production of the species, as the instrument of a heavenly body: thus the Philosopher says (Phys. ii, 2) that "man and the sun generate man."

Therefore, as the Philosopher states (De Gener. ii, 10), it’s essential to assume a movable principle that, due to its presence or absence, causes changes in the creation and destruction of lower beings. These are the heavenly bodies. As a result, everything that generates down here acts as the instrument of a heavenly body in producing its species; thus, the Philosopher mentions (Phys. ii, 2) that "man and the sun generate man."

Reply Obj. 3: The heavenly bodies have not a specific likeness to the bodies here below. Their likeness consists in this, that by reason of their universal power, whatever is generated in inferior bodies, is contained in them. In this way also we say that all things are like God.

Reply Obj. 3: The heavenly bodies don't have a specific resemblance to the bodies here on Earth. Their resemblance comes from the fact that due to their universal power, anything that is created in lower bodies is found within them. In this way, we also say that everything is similar to God.

Reply Obj. 4: The actions of heavenly bodies are variously received in inferior bodies, according to the various dispositions of matter. Now it happens at times that the matter in the human conception is not wholly disposed to the male sex; wherefore it is formed sometimes into a male, sometimes into a female. Augustine quotes this as an argument against divination by stars: because the effects of the stars are varied even in corporeal things, according to the various dispositions of matter. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The actions of celestial bodies affect lower bodies in different ways, depending on the characteristics of the matter. Sometimes, the matter in human conception isn’t completely suited for male characteristics, which is why it can develop into a male sometimes and a female at other times. Augustine mentions this as an argument against astrology—because the influence of the stars varies even among physical things, based on the different properties of the matter.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 115, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 115, Art. 4]

Whether the Heavenly Bodies Are the Cause of Human Actions?

Whether the Heavenly Bodies Are the Cause of Human Actions?

Objection 1: It would seem that the heavenly bodies are the cause of human actions. For since the heavenly bodies are moved by spiritual substances, as stated above (Q. 110, A. 3), they act by virtue thereof as their instruments. But those spiritual substances are superior to our souls. Therefore it seems that they can cause impressions on our souls, and thereby cause human actions.

Objection 1: It seems that celestial bodies influence human actions. Since these celestial bodies are moved by spiritual beings, as mentioned earlier (Q. 110, A. 3), they function as instruments of those beings. But those spiritual beings are higher than our souls. Therefore, it appears they can affect our souls and, as a result, lead to human actions.

Obj. 2: Further, every multiform is reducible to a uniform principle. But human actions are various and multiform. Therefore it seems that they are reducible to the uniform movements of heavenly bodies, as to their principles.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, every diverse form can be simplified down to a single principle. However, human actions are varied and diverse. Therefore, it appears that they can be reduced to the uniform motions of celestial bodies as their principles.

Obj. 3: Further, astrologers often foretell the truth concerning the outcome of wars, and other human actions, of which the intellect and will are the principles. But they could not do this by means of the heavenly bodies, unless these were the cause of human actions. Therefore the heavenly bodies are the cause of human actions.

Obj. 3: Additionally, astrologers often predict the truth about the outcomes of wars and other human actions, where intellect and will are the driving forces. However, they wouldn’t be able to do this through the heavenly bodies unless those bodies were the cause of human actions. Therefore, the heavenly bodies are the cause of human actions.

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 7) that "the heavenly bodies are by no means the cause of human actions."

On the contrary, Damascene says (De Fide Orth. ii, 7) that "the heavenly bodies are not the cause of human actions at all."

I answer that, The heavenly bodies can directly and of themselves act on bodies, as stated above (A. 3). They can act directly indeed on those powers of the soul which are the acts of corporeal organs, but accidentally: because the acts of such powers must needs be hindered by obstacles in the organs; thus an eye when disturbed cannot see well. Wherefore if the intellect and will were powers affixed to corporeal organs, as some maintained, holding that intellect does not differ from sense; it would follow of necessity that the heavenly bodies are the cause of human choice and action. It would also follow that man is led by natural instinct to his actions, just as other animals, in which there are powers other than those which are affixed to corporeal organs: for whatever is done here below in virtue of the action of heavenly bodies, is done naturally. It would therefore follow that man has no free-will, and that he would have determinate actions, like other natural things. All of which is manifestly false, and contrary to human habit. It must be observed, however, that indirectly and accidentally, the impressions of heavenly bodies can reach the intellect and will, forasmuch, namely, as both intellect and will receive something from the inferior powers which are affixed to corporeal organs. But in this the intellect and will are differently situated. For the intellect, of necessity, receives from the inferior apprehensive powers: wherefore if the imaginative, cogitative, or memorative powers be disturbed, the action of the intellect is, of necessity, disturbed also. The will, on the contrary, does not, of necessity, follow the inclination of the inferior appetite; for although the passions in the irascible and concupiscible have a certain force in inclining the will; nevertheless the will retains the power of following the passions or repressing them. Therefore the impressions of the heavenly bodies, by virtue of which the inferior powers can be changed, has less influence on the will, which is the proximate cause of human actions, than on the intellect.

I answer that, The heavenly bodies can directly influence other bodies, as stated above (A. 3). They can indeed act directly on the soul’s powers that relate to physical organs, but only indirectly: because the actions of these powers must be obstructed by issues within the organs; for example, an eye that is disturbed cannot see properly. Therefore, if intellect and will were powers attached to physical organs, as some believe, arguing that intellect is no different from sense, it would necessarily follow that heavenly bodies influence human choice and actions. It would also imply that humans are guided by natural instinct in their actions, similar to other animals, in which there are powers beyond those attached to physical organs: because whatever happens here on earth due to the influence of heavenly bodies happens naturally. This would imply that humans have no free will and that their actions would be predetermined, like other natural things. All of this is clearly false and contrary to human behavior. However, it should be noted that indirectly and incidentally, the effects of heavenly bodies can impact the intellect and will, since both the intellect and will receive influence from the lower powers that are connected to physical organs. But in this respect, the intellect and will are organized differently. The intellect necessarily receives from the lower cognitive powers; thus, if the imaginative, reasoning, or memory functions are disturbed, the action of the intellect is necessarily disturbed as well. The will, on the other hand, does not necessarily follow the inclinations of the lower appetite; even though emotions in the irascible and concupiscible do have some influence on the will, the will still has the ability to either follow these passions or suppress them. Therefore, the influences of heavenly bodies, which can alter the lower powers, have less impact on the will— which is the immediate cause of human actions—than on the intellect.

To maintain therefore that heavenly bodies are the cause of human actions is proper to those who hold that intellect does not differ from sense. Wherefore some of these said that "such is the will of men, as is the day which the father of men and of gods brings on" (Odyssey xviii 135). Since, therefore, it is manifest that intellect and will are not acts of corporeal organs, it is impossible that heavenly bodies be the cause of human actions.

To say that heavenly bodies cause human actions is something only those who believe that intellect is the same as sense would assert. Some of these people argued that "the will of men is shaped by the day that the father of men and gods brings forth" (Odyssey xviii 135). Since it’s clear that intellect and will are not functions of physical organs, it’s impossible for heavenly bodies to be the cause of human actions.

Reply Obj. 1: The spiritual substances, that move the heavenly bodies, do indeed act on corporeal things by means of the heavenly bodies; but they act immediately on the human intellect by enlightening it. On the other hand, they cannot compel the will, as stated above (Q. 111, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 1: The spiritual beings that move the heavenly bodies do influence physical things through these heavenly bodies; however, they directly impact the human mind by providing insight. On the other hand, they cannot force the will, as mentioned earlier (Q. 111, A. 2).

Reply Obj. 2: Just as the multiformity of corporeal movements is reducible to the uniformity of the heavenly movement as to its cause: so the multiformity of actions proceeding from the intellect and the will is reduced to a uniform principle which is the Divine intellect and will.

Reply Obj. 2: Just as the variety of physical movements can be traced back to the uniform motion of the heavens as its cause, the variety of actions that come from the intellect and will can be traced back to a single principle, which is the Divine intellect and will.

Reply Obj. 3: The majority of men follow their passions, which are movements of the sensitive appetite, in which movements of the heavenly bodies can cooperate: but few are wise enough to resist these passions. Consequently astrologers are able to foretell the truth in the majority of cases, especially in a general way. But not in particular cases; for nothing prevents man resisting his passions by his free-will. Wherefore the astrologers themselves are wont to say that "the wise man is stronger than the stars" [*Ptolemy, Centiloquium, prop. 5], forasmuch as, to wit, he conquers his passions. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Most people let their passions guide them, which are driven by their feelings, and these feelings can be influenced by the movements of the celestial bodies. However, only a few are wise enough to resist these passions. As a result, astrologers can often predict outcomes accurately, especially in general terms. But they can’t predict specifics because nothing stops a person from controlling their passions through their free will. Therefore, astrologers often say that "the wise person is stronger than the stars" [*Ptolemy, Centiloquium, prop. 5], meaning they are able to overcome their desires.

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 115, Art. 5]

FIFTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 115, Art. 5]

Whether Heavenly Bodies Can Act on the Demons?

Whether heavenly bodies can influence demons?

Objection 1: It would seem that heavenly bodies can act on the demons. For the demons, according to certain phases of the moon, can harass men, who on that account are called lunatics, as appears from Matt. 4:24 and 17:14. But this would not be if they were not subject to the heavenly bodies. Therefore the demons are subject to them.

Objection 1: It seems that celestial bodies can influence demons. According to certain phases of the moon, demons can torment people, which is why they are referred to as lunatics, as shown in Matt. 4:24 and 17:14. This wouldn't happen if they weren’t subject to the celestial bodies. Therefore, demons are under their influence.

Obj. 2: Further, necromancers observe certain constellations in order to invoke the demons. But these would not be invoked through the heavenly bodies unless they were subject to them. Therefore they are subject to them.

Obj. 2: Additionally, necromancers watch specific constellations to summon demons. However, these demons wouldn’t be summoned by the celestial bodies unless they were under their influence. Therefore, they are under their influence.

Obj. 3: Further, heavenly bodies are more powerful than inferior bodies. But the demons are confined to certain inferior bodies, namely, "herbs, stones, animals, and to certain sounds and words, forms and figures," as Porphyry says, quoted by Augustine (De Civ. Dei x, 11). Much more therefore are the demons subject to the action of heavenly bodies.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, heavenly bodies have more influence than earthly ones. However, demons are limited to certain lesser forms, such as "plants, stones, animals, and certain sounds and words, shapes and images," as Porphyry states, quoted by Augustine (De Civ. Dei x, 11). Therefore, demons are even more under the influence of heavenly bodies.

On the contrary, The demons are superior in the order of nature, to the heavenly bodies. But the "agent is superior to the patient," as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 16). Therefore the demons are not subject to the action of heavenly bodies.

On the contrary, demons are higher in the order of nature than heavenly bodies. But as Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. xii, 16), "the agent is superior to the patient." Therefore, demons are not influenced by the actions of heavenly bodies.

I answer that, There have been three opinions about the demons. In the first place the Peripatetics denied the existence of demons; and held that what is ascribed to the demons, according to the necromantic art, is effected by the power of the heavenly bodies. This is what Augustine (De Civ. Dei x, 11) relates as having been held by Porphyry, namely, that "on earth men fabricate certain powers useful in producing certain effects of the stars." But this opinion is manifestly false. For we know by experience that many things are done by demons, for which the power of heavenly bodies would in no way suffice: for instance, that a man in a state of delirium should speak an unknown tongue, recite poetry and authors of whom he has no previous knowledge; that necromancers make statues to speak and move, and other like things.

I answer that, There have been three views on demons. First, the Peripatetics denied that demons exist and believed that what is attributed to demons, according to necromantic practice, is actually caused by the influence of celestial bodies. Augustine (De Civ. Dei x, 11) mentions that Porphyry held the view that "on earth, people create certain powers that are useful for producing certain effects of the stars." However, this belief is clearly incorrect. We know from experience that many things are done by demons that the power of celestial bodies alone could not explain: for example, a person in a delirious state speaking an unknown language, reciting poetry and authors they have no prior knowledge of; that necromancers can make statues talk and move, and other similar occurrences.

For this reason the Platonists were led to hold that demons are "animals with an aerial body and a passive soul," as Apuleius says, quoted by Augustine (De Civ. Dei viii, 16). And this is the second of the opinions mentioned above: according to which it could be said that demons are subject to heavenly bodies in the same way as we have said man is subject thereto (A. 4). But this opinion is proved to be false from what we have said above (Q. 51, A. 1): for we hold that demons are spiritual substances not united to bodies. Hence it is clear that they are subject to the action of heavenly bodies neither essentially nor accidentally, neither directly nor indirectly.

For this reason, Platonists came to believe that demons are "creatures with an airy body and a passive soul," as Apuleius states, as quoted by Augustine (De Civ. Dei viii, 16). This is the second opinion mentioned earlier: according to this view, one could say that demons are influenced by heavenly bodies in the same way that we say humans are (A. 4). However, this opinion is proven to be false based on what we’ve discussed above (Q. 51, A. 1): we maintain that demons are spiritual beings not connected to bodies. Therefore, it’s clear that they are not influenced by heavenly bodies either essentially or accidentally, directly or indirectly.

Reply Obj. 1: That demons harass men, according to certain phases of the moon, happens in two ways. Firstly, they do so in order to "defame God's creature," namely, the moon; as Jerome (In Matt. iv, 24) and Chrysostom (Hom. lvii in Matt.) say. Secondly, because as they are unable to effect anything save by means of the natural forces, as stated above (Q. 114, A. 4, ad 2) they take into account the aptitude of bodies for the intended result. Now it is manifest that "the brain is the most moist of all the parts of the body," as Aristotle says [*De Part. Animal. ii, 7: De Sens. et Sensato ii: De Somn. et Vigil. iii]: wherefore it is the most subject to the action of the moon, the property of which is to move what is moist. And it is precisely in the brain that animal forces culminate: wherefore the demons, according to certain phases of the moon, disturb man's imagination, when they observe that the brain is thereto disposed.

Reply Obj. 1: Demons harass people based on certain phases of the moon in two ways. First, they do this to "defame God's creation," specifically the moon, as Jerome (In Matt. iv, 24) and Chrysostom (Hom. lvii in Matt.) mention. Second, since they can only affect things through natural forces, as stated above (Q. 114, A. 4, ad 2), they consider the suitability of bodies for achieving their intended results. It is clear that "the brain is the most moist of all the parts of the body," as Aristotle states [*De Part. Animal. ii, 7: De Sens. et Sensato ii: De Somn. et Vigil. iii]: therefore, it is the most influenced by the moon, which has the property of affecting what is moist. Moreover, animal forces peak in the brain, which is why demons disrupt a person's imagination during specific moon phases when they notice that the brain is receptive to this influence.

Reply Obj. 2: Demons when summoned through certain constellations, come for two reasons. Firstly, in order to lead man into the error of believing that there is some Divine power in the stars. Secondly, because they consider that under certain constellations corporeal matter is better disposed for the result for which they are summoned.

Reply Obj. 2: Demons, when called upon through specific constellations, come for two reasons. First, to mislead people into thinking there is some divine power in the stars. Second, because they believe that under certain constellations, physical matter is more suitable for achieving the results they seek.

Reply Obj. 3: As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei xxi, 6), the "demons are enticed through various kinds of stones, herbs, trees, animals, songs, rites, not as an animal is enticed by food, but as a spirit by signs"; that is to say, forasmuch as these things are offered to them in token of the honor due to God, of which they are covetous. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: As Augustine states (De Civ. Dei xxi, 6), "demons are enticed through various kinds of stones, herbs, trees, animals, songs, and rites, not in the same way an animal is enticed by food, but as a spirit is drawn in by signs"; meaning, these things are presented to them as a sign of the honor owed to God, which they desire.

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 115, Art. 6]

SIXTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 115, Art. 6]

Whether Heavenly Bodies Impose Necessity on Things Subject to Their
Action?

Whether Heavenly Bodies Force Necessity on Things Affected by Their
Influence?

Objection 1: It would seem that heavenly bodies impose necessity on things subject to their action. For given a sufficient cause, the effect follows of necessity. But heavenly bodies are a sufficient cause of their effects. Since, therefore, heavenly bodies, with their movements and dispositions, are necessary beings; it seems that their effects follow of necessity.

Objection 1: It appears that celestial bodies impose necessity on everything they affect. For when there is a sufficient cause, the effect necessarily follows. But celestial bodies are a sufficient cause of their effects. Therefore, since celestial bodies, through their movements and arrangements, are necessary beings, it seems that their effects must follow necessarily.

Obj. 2: Further, an agent's effect results of necessity in matter, when the power of the agent is such that it can subject the matter to itself entirely. But the entire matter of inferior bodies is subject to the power of heavenly bodies, since this is a higher power than theirs. Therefore the effect of the heavenly bodies is of necessity received in corporeal matter.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the effect of an agent inevitably occurs in matter when the agent's power is strong enough to completely control the matter. Since the power of heavenly bodies is greater than that of inferior bodies, the entire matter of inferior bodies is under the control of heavenly bodies. Therefore, the effects of the heavenly bodies are necessarily manifested in physical matter.

Obj. 3: Further, if the effect of the heavenly body does not follow of necessity, this is due to some hindering cause. But any corporeal cause, that might possibly hinder the effect of a heavenly body, must of necessity be reducible to some heavenly principle: since the heavenly bodies are the causes of all that takes place here below. Therefore, since also that heavenly principle is necessary, it follows that the effect of the heavenly body is necessarily hindered. Consequently it would follow that all that takes place here below happens of necessity.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if the effect of a heavenly body doesn't happen inevitably, it must be due to some obstacle. Any physical cause that might impede the effect of a heavenly body must ultimately relate back to some heavenly principle, since heavenly bodies are responsible for everything that occurs down here. Thus, because this heavenly principle is necessary, it follows that the effect of the heavenly body is necessarily obstructed. Consequently, it would mean that everything that happens here below occurs inevitably.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Somn. et Vigil. [*De Divin. per Somn. ii]): "It is not incongruous that many of the signs observed in bodies, of occurrences in the heavens, such as rain and wind, should not be fulfilled." Therefore not all the effects of heavenly bodies take place of necessity.

On the contrary, The Philosopher says (De Somn. et Vigil. [*De Divin. per Somn. ii]): "It's not strange that many signs seen in the physical world, related to things happening in the heavens, like rain and wind, may not happen." So, not all the effects of heavenly bodies must occur.

I answer that, This question is partly solved by what was said above (A. 4); and in part presents some difficulty. For it was shown that although the action of heavenly bodies produces certain inclinations in corporeal nature, the will nevertheless does not of necessity follow these inclinations. Therefore there is nothing to prevent the effect of heavenly bodies being hindered by the action of the will, not only in man himself, but also in other things to which human action extends.

I respond that, This question is partly addressed by what was mentioned earlier (A. 4); and partly poses some challenges. It was demonstrated that while the movements of celestial bodies create certain tendencies in physical nature, the will does not have to be compelled by these tendencies. Thus, there is nothing preventing the influence of celestial bodies from being obstructed by the will's actions, not only in humans themselves but also in other matters that human actions can affect.

But in natural things there is no such principle, endowed with freedom to follow or not to follow the impressions produced by heavenly agents. Wherefore it seems that in such things at least, everything happens of necessity; according to the reasoning of some of the ancients who supposing that everything that is, has a cause; and that, given the cause, the effect follows of necessity; concluded that all things happen of necessity. This opinion is refuted by Aristotle (Metaph. vi, Did. v, 3) as to this double supposition.

But in natural things, there isn't a principle that has the freedom to choose whether or not to follow the influences from celestial beings. Therefore, it seems that at least in these matters, everything occurs out of necessity. This aligns with the reasoning of some ancient philosophers who believed that everything that exists has a cause; and that once the cause is present, the effect follows necessarily, leading them to conclude that all events happen out of necessity. Aristotle challenges this view (Metaph. vi, Did. v, 3) regarding this twofold assumption.

For in the first place it is not true that, given any cause whatever, the effect must follow of necessity. For some causes are so ordered to their effects, as to produce them, not of necessity, but in the majority of cases, and in the minority to fail in producing them. But that such causes do fail in the minority of cases is due to some hindering cause; consequently the above-mentioned difficulty seems not to be avoided, since the cause in question is hindered of necessity.

For starters, it's not true that any cause automatically leads to an effect. Some causes are structured to produce their effects most of the time, but there are instances where they don't. When they do fail, it's usually because of some sort of obstacle. Therefore, the problem mentioned earlier still stands, since the cause in question is hindered by necessity.

Therefore we must say, in the second place, that everything that is a being per se, has a cause; but what is accidentally, has not a cause, because it is not truly a being, since it is not truly one. For (that a thing is) "white" has a cause, likewise (that a man is) "musical" has not a cause, but (that a being is) "white-musical" has not a cause, because it is not truly a being, nor truly one. Now it is manifest that a cause which hinders the action of a cause so ordered to its effect as to produce it in the majority of cases, clashes sometimes with this cause by accident: and the clashing of these two causes, inasmuch as it is accidental, has no cause. Consequently what results from this clashing of causes is not to be reduced to a further pre-existing cause, from which it follows of necessity. For instance, that some terrestrial body take fire in the higher regions of the air and fall to the earth, is caused by some heavenly power: again, that there be on the surface of the earth some combustible matter, is reducible to some heavenly principle. But that the burning body should alight on this matter and set fire to it, is not caused by a heavenly body, but is accidental. Consequently not all the effects of heavenly bodies result of necessity.

Therefore, we must say, secondly, that everything that exists in itself has a cause; but something that exists accidently does not have a cause because it isn't truly a being in the genuine sense. For example, being "white" has a cause, while being "musical" does not have a cause, but being "white-musical" doesn’t have a cause either, since it isn't truly a being or truly one. It is clear that a cause that prevents another cause, which is supposed to produce its effect most of the time, can sometimes clash with this cause by chance: and this clash, being accidental, lacks a cause. Therefore, what results from this clash of causes cannot be traced back to a previous cause that necessitates it. For instance, when a terrestrial body catches fire in the upper regions of the atmosphere and falls to the earth, that's caused by some heavenly force; similarly, the existence of combustible material on the surface of the earth can be traced back to some celestial principle. However, the burning object landing on this material and igniting it is not caused by a heavenly body but is incidental. Thus, not all effects from heavenly bodies happen out of necessity.

Reply Obj. 1: The heavenly bodies are causes of effects that take place here below, through the means of particular inferior causes, which can fail in their effects in the minority of cases.

Reply Obj. 1: The heavenly bodies cause effects that happen here on Earth, through specific lower causes, which can sometimes fail to produce their effects.

Reply Obj. 2: The power of a heavenly body is not infinite. Wherefore it requires a determinate disposition in matter, both as to local distance and as to other conditions, in order to produce its effect. Therefore as local distance hinders the effect of a heavenly body (for the sun has not the same effect in heat in Dacia as in Ethiopia); so the grossness of matter, its low or high temperature or other such disposition, can hinder the effect of a heavenly body.

Reply Obj. 2: The power of a heavenly body is not limitless. It needs a specific arrangement in matter, both in terms of distance and other factors, to create its effect. Therefore, just as distance affects the impact of a heavenly body (for example, the sun doesn't produce the same heat in Dacia as it does in Ethiopia), the density of matter, its temperature, or other similar factors can also limit the effect of a heavenly body.

Reply Obj. 3: Although the cause that hinders the effect of another cause can be reduced to a heavenly body as its cause; nevertheless the clashing of two causes, being accidental, is not reduced to the causality of a heavenly body, as stated above. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: While the factor that prevents one cause from producing its effect can be traced back to a heavenly body as its source, the conflict between two causes, being coincidental, does not stem from the influence of a heavenly body, as mentioned earlier.

ON FATE
(In Four Articles)

ON FATE
(In Four Parts)

We come now to the consideration of fate. Under this head there are four points of inquiry:

We now turn to the topic of fate. There are four main points to explore on this subject:

(1) Is there such a thing as fate?

(1) Is there really such a thing as fate?

(2) Where is it?

Where is it at?

(3) Is it unchangeable?

Is it permanent?

(4) Are all things subject to fate? _______________________

(4) Are all things under fate's control? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 116, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 116, Art. 1]

Whether There Be Such a Thing As Fate?

Does Fate Really Exist?

Objection 1: It would seem that fate is nothing. For Gregory says in a homily for the Epiphany (Hom. x in Evang.): "Far be it from the hearts of the faithful to think that fate is anything real."

Objection 1: It seems that fate is nothing. For Gregory says in a homily for the Epiphany (Hom. x in Evang.): "Let it be far from the hearts of the faithful to think that fate is anything real."

Obj. 2: Further, what happens by fate is not unforeseen, for as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei v, 4), "fate is understood to be derived from the verb 'fari' which means to speak"; as though things were said to happen by fate, which are "fore-spoken" by one who decrees them to happen. Now what is foreseen is neither lucky nor chance-like. If therefore things happen by fate, there will be neither luck nor chance in the world.

Obj. 2: Additionally, what occurs by fate is not unexpected, because as Augustine says (De Civ. Dei v, 4), "fate is understood to be derived from the verb 'fari' which means to speak"; as if it were said that things happen by fate, which are "fore-spoken" by someone who decides they will happen. Now, what is foreseen is neither random nor based on luck. Therefore, if things happen by fate, there will be neither luck nor chance in the world.

On the contrary, What does not exist cannot be defined. But Boethius (De Consol. iv) defines fate thus: "Fate is a disposition inherent to changeable things, by which Providence connects each one with its proper order."

On the contrary, What doesn't exist can't be defined. But Boethius (De Consol. iv) defines fate like this: "Fate is a tendency inherent to changeable things, by which Providence links each one to its appropriate order."

I answer that, In this world some things seem to happen by luck or chance. Now it happens sometimes that something is lucky or chance-like as compared to inferior causes, which, if compared to some higher cause, is directly intended. For instance, if two servants are sent by their master to the same place; the meeting of the two servants in regard to themselves is by chance; but as compared to the master, who had ordered it, it is directly intended.

I respond that, In this world, some things appear to happen by luck or chance. Often, something seems lucky or random when compared to lesser causes, which, when considered alongside a greater cause, is actually intended. For example, if two servants are sent by their master to the same location, their meeting is by chance from their perspective; however, in relation to the master who arranged it, it is done with intention.

So there were some who refused to refer to a higher cause such events which by luck or chance take place here below. These denied the existence of fate and Providence, as Augustine relates of Tully (De Civ. Dei v, 9). And this is contrary to what we have said above about Providence (Q. 22, A. 2).

So, some people would not call a higher cause the events that happen down here by luck or chance. They rejected the idea of fate and Providence, as Augustine mentions about Tully (De Civ. Dei v, 9). This goes against what we said earlier about Providence (Q. 22, A. 2).

On the other hand, some have considered that everything that takes place here below by luck or by chance, whether in natural things or in human affairs, is to be reduced to a superior cause, namely, the heavenly bodies. According to these fate is nothing else than "a disposition of the stars under which each one is begotten or born" [*Cf. St. Augustine , loc. cit., v, 1, 8, 9]. But this will not hold. First, as to human affairs: because we have proved above (Q. 115, A. 4) that human actions are not subject to the action of heavenly bodies, save accidentally and indirectly. Now the cause of fate, since it has the ordering of things that happen by fate, must of necessity be directly and of itself the cause of what takes place. Secondly, as to all things that happen accidentally: for it has been said (Q. 115, A. 6) that what is accidental, is properly speaking neither a being, nor a unity. But every action of nature terminates in some one thing. Wherefore it is impossible for that which is accidental to be the proper effect of an active natural principle. No natural cause can therefore have for its proper effect that a man intending to dig a grave finds a treasure. Now it is manifest that a acts after the manner of a natural principle: wherefore its effects in this world are natural. It is therefore impossible that any active power of a heavenly body be the cause of what happens by accident here below, whether by luck or by chance.

On the other hand, some people believe that everything that happens down here by luck or chance, whether in nature or in human affairs, can be traced back to a higher cause, specifically the celestial bodies. According to this view, fate is simply "a setup of the stars under which each person is conceived or born" [*Cf. St. Augustine, loc. cit., v, 1, 8, 9]. However, this doesn’t hold up. First, regarding human affairs: we’ve established earlier (Q. 115, A. 4) that human actions are not controlled by the influences of celestial bodies, except in an accidental and indirect way. Since fate organizes what happens, its cause must directly and inherently be responsible for those events. Secondly, concerning everything that occurs accidentally: it has been noted (Q. 115, A. 6) that something accidental is not really a being or a unity in a proper sense. Every natural action leads to a specific outcome. Thus, it’s impossible for something accidental to be the direct result of a natural active principle. No natural cause can logically result in a situation where a person digging a grave unexpectedly finds treasure. It’s clear that a natural principle operates in this way, leading to natural effects in this world. Therefore, it’s impossible for any active power of a celestial body to be the cause of events that happen by accident, whether by luck or by chance.

We must therefore say that what happens here by accident, both in natural things and in human affairs, is reduced to a preordaining cause, which is Divine Providence. For nothing hinders that which happens by accident being considered as one by an intellect: otherwise the intellect could not form this proposition: "The digger of a grave found a treasure." And just as an intellect can apprehend this so can it effect it; for instance, someone who knows a place where a treasure is hidden, might instigate a rustic, ignorant of this, to dig a grave there. Consequently, nothing hinders what happens here by accident, by luck or by chance, being reduced to some ordering cause which acts by the intellect, especially the Divine intellect. For God alone can change the will, as shown above (Q. 105, A. 4). Consequently the ordering of human actions, the principle of which is the will, must be ascribed to God alone.

We must therefore say that what happens here by chance, both in nature and in human affairs, is ultimately due to a predetermined cause, which is Divine Providence. Nothing prevents us from viewing accidental events as unified in the mind; otherwise, we couldn't make the statement: "The grave digger found a treasure." Similarly, just as the mind can understand this, it can also bring it about; for example, someone who knows where a treasure is hidden might persuade an unsuspecting villager to dig a grave there. Therefore, nothing stops what happens here by chance, luck, or coincidence from being attributed to some guiding cause that operates through the intellect, especially the Divine intellect. Only God can change the will, as shown above (Q. 105, A. 4). Thus, the direction of human actions, which is fundamentally rooted in the will, must be attributed to God alone.

So therefore inasmuch as all that happens here below is subject to Divine Providence, as being pre-ordained, and as it were "fore-spoken," we can admit the existence of fate: although the holy doctors avoided the use of this word, on account of those who twisted its application to a certain force in the position of the stars. Hence Augustine says (De Civ. Dei v, 1): "If anyone ascribes human affairs to fate, meaning thereby the will or power of God, let him keep to his opinion, but hold his tongue." For this reason Gregory denies the existence of fate: wherefore the first objection's solution is manifest.

Therefore, since everything that happens here on Earth is under Divine Providence, being preordained and, in a way, "foretold," we can acknowledge the existence of fate. However, the holy doctors avoided this term because some twisted its meaning to imply a certain power in the position of the stars. Augustine states (De Civ. Dei v, 1): "If anyone attributes human affairs to fate, meaning the will or power of God, let him hold to that belief but remain silent." For this reason, Gregory denies the existence of fate, which makes the solution to the first objection clear.

Reply Obj. 2: Nothing hinders certain things happening by luck or by chance, if compared to their proximate causes: but not if compared to Divine Providence, whereby "nothing happens at random in the world," as Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 24). _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: Some things may occur by luck or chance when looked at in relation to their immediate causes; however, they don't when viewed in the light of Divine Providence, which states that "nothing happens at random in the world," as Augustine says (QQ. 83, qu. 24).

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 116, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 116, Art. 2]

Whether Fate Is in Created Things?

Whether Fate Is in Created Things?

Objection 1: It would seem that fate is not in created things. For Augustine says (De Civ. Dei v, 1) that the "Divine will or power is called fate." But the Divine will or power is not in creatures, but in God. Therefore fate is not in creatures but in God.

Objection 1: It seems that fate doesn’t exist in created things. For Augustine says (De Civ. Dei v, 1) that the "Divine will or power is called fate." But the Divine will or power isn’t in creatures; it’s in God. Therefore, fate isn’t in creatures but in God.

Obj. 2: Further, fate is compared to things that happen by fate, as their cause; as the very use of the word proves. But the universal cause that of itself effects what takes place by accident here below, is God alone, as stated above (A. 1). Therefore fate is in God, and not in creatures.

Obj. 2: Additionally, fate is likened to events that occur due to fate, as their cause; as the very use of the word indicates. However, the ultimate cause that independently brings about what happens accidentally here on earth is God alone, as stated above (A. 1). Therefore, fate resides in God, not in creatures.

Obj. 3: Further, if fate is in creatures, it is either a substance or an accident: and whichever it is it must be multiplied according to the number of creatures. Since, therefore, fate seems to be one thing only, it seems that fate is not in creatures, but in God.

Obj. 3: Additionally, if fate exists in beings, it is either a substance or an accident; and whichever it is, it must be multiplied by the number of beings. Therefore, since fate appears to be singular, it suggests that fate does not reside in beings, but in God.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Consol. iv): "Fate is a disposition inherent to changeable things."

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Consol. iv): "Fate is a characteristic of things that can change."

I answer that, As is clear from what has been stated above (Q. 22, A. 3; Q. 103, A. 6), Divine Providence produces effects through mediate causes. We can therefore consider the ordering of the effects in two ways. Firstly, as being in God Himself: and thus the ordering of the effects is called Providence. But if we consider this ordering as being in the mediate causes ordered by God to the production of certain effects, thus it has the nature of fate. This is what Boethius says (De Consol. iv): "Fate is worked out when Divine Providence is served by certain spirits; whether by the soul, or by all nature itself which obeys Him, whether by the heavenly movements of the stars, whether by the angelic power, or by the ingenuity of the demons, whether by some of these, or by all, the chain of fate is forged." Of each of these things we have spoken above (A. 1; Q. 104, A. 2; Q. 110, A. 1; Q. 113; Q. 114). It is therefore manifest that fate is in the created causes themselves, as ordered by God to the production of their effects.

I answer that, As is clear from what has been mentioned above (Q. 22, A. 3; Q. 103, A. 6), Divine Providence brings about results through intermediary causes. We can understand the ordering of these results in two ways. First, as existing in God Himself: and in this way, the ordering of the results is called Providence. But if we consider this ordering as existing in the intermediary causes that God has arranged to produce certain outcomes, then it takes on the nature of fate. This is what Boethius states (De Consol. iv): "Fate is realized when Divine Providence is fulfilled by certain spirits; whether by the soul, or by all of nature that obeys Him, whether by the celestial movements of the stars, by angelic power, or by the cunning of demons, whether through some of these, or all of them, the chain of fate is created." We have discussed each of these aspects above (A. 1; Q. 104, A. 2; Q. 110, A. 1; Q. 113; Q. 114). It is therefore clear that fate exists within the created causes themselves, as arranged by God to bring about their effects.

Reply Obj. 1: The ordering itself of second causes, which Augustine (De Civ. Dei v, 8) calls the "series of causes," has not the nature of fate, except as dependent on God. Wherefore the Divine power or will can be called fate, as being the cause of fate. But essentially fate is the very disposition or "series," i.e. order, of second causes.

Reply Obj. 1: The arrangement of secondary causes, which Augustine (De Civ. Dei v, 8) refers to as the "series of causes," is not fate in itself, but depends on God. Therefore, Divine power or will can be considered fate since it is the source of fate. However, fate itself is fundamentally the organization or "series," meaning the order, of secondary causes.

Reply Obj. 2: Fate has the nature of a cause, just as much as the second causes themselves, the ordering of which is called fate.

Reply Obj. 2: Fate acts like a cause, just like the secondary causes themselves, the arrangement of which is referred to as fate.

Reply Obj. 3: Fate is called a disposition, not that disposition which is a species of quality, but in the sense in which it signifies order, which is not a substance, but a relation. And if this order be considered in relation to its principle, it is one; and thus fate is one. But if it be considered in relation to its effects, or to the mediate causes, this fate is multiple. In this sense the poet wrote: "Thy fate draws thee." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Fate is referred to as a disposition, not in the way that quality is considered a type of disposition, but in terms of order, which is not a substance but rather a relationship. If we look at this order in relation to its source, it is singular, which means fate is also singular. However, if we examine it in relation to its outcomes or intermediary causes, then fate is plural. In this context, the poet wrote: "Thy fate draws thee."

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 116, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 116, Art. 3]

Whether Fate Is Unchangeable?

Is fate unchangeable?

Objection 1: It seems that fate is not unchangeable. For Boethius says (De Consol. iv): "As reasoning is to the intellect, as the begotten is to that which is, as time to eternity, as the circle to its centre; so is the fickle chain of fate to the unwavering simplicity of Providence."

Objection 1: It appears that fate is not fixed. As Boethius states (De Consol. iv): "Just as reasoning relates to the intellect, as the created relates to the eternal, as time relates to eternity, as the circle relates to its center; so the unreliable chain of fate relates to the unchanging simplicity of Providence."

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher says (Topic. ii, 7): "If we be moved, what is in us is moved." But fate is a "disposition inherent to changeable things," as Boethius says (De Consol. iv). Therefore fate is changeable.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the Philosopher states (Topic. ii, 7): "If we are influenced, what is inside us is influenced." However, fate is a "condition inherent to things that can change," as Boethius mentions (De Consol. iv). Therefore, fate is subject to change.

Obj. 3: Further, if fate is unchangeable, what is subject to fate happens unchangeably and of necessity. But things ascribed to fate seem principally to be contingencies. Therefore there would be no contingencies in the world, but all things would happen of necessity.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, if fate is unchangeable, then everything subject to fate happens in a fixed and necessary way. However, events attributed to fate seem mainly to be chances. Therefore, there would be no chances in the world, and everything would occur out of necessity.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Consol. iv) that fate is an unchangeable disposition.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Consol. iv) that fate is a fixed arrangement.

I answer that, The disposition of second causes which we call fate, can be considered in two ways: firstly, in regard to the second causes, which are thus disposed or ordered; secondly, in regard to the first principle, namely, God, by Whom they are ordered. Some, therefore, have held that the series itself o[f] dispositions of causes is in itself necessary, so that all things would happen of necessity; for this reason that each effect has a cause, and given a cause the effect must follow of necessity. But this is false, as proved above (Q. 115, A. 6).

I respond that, The arrangement of secondary causes that we refer to as fate can be looked at in two ways: first, in relation to the secondary causes that are organized this way; second, in relation to the primary principle, which is God, by whom they are organized. Some have argued that the entire series of cause arrangements is necessary in itself, meaning that everything would occur out of necessity; this is because each effect has a cause, and given a cause, the effect must inevitably follow. However, this is incorrect, as demonstrated above (Q. 115, A. 6).

Others, on the other hand, held that fate is changeable, even as dependent on Divine Providence. Wherefore the Egyptians said that fate could be changed by certain sacrifices, as Gregory of Nyssa says (Nemesius, De Homine). This too has been disproved above for the reason that it is repugnant to Divine Providence.

Others, however, believed that fate is not fixed and can be influenced, even while relying on Divine Providence. This is why the Egyptians claimed that fate could be altered through specific sacrifices, as Gregory of Nyssa mentions (Nemesius, De Homine). This idea has also been disproven above because it conflicts with Divine Providence.

We must therefore say that fate, considered in regard to second causes, is changeable; but as subject to Divine Providence, it derives a certain unchangeableness, not of absolute but of conditional necessity. In this sense we say that this conditional is true and necessary: "If God foreknew that this would happen, it will happen." Wherefore Boethius, having said that the chain of fate is fickle, shortly afterwards adds—"which, since it is derived from an unchangeable Providence must also itself be unchangeable."

We must therefore say that fate, when it comes to secondary causes, can change; but because it is guided by Divine Providence, it has a certain stability, not of absolute necessity but of conditional necessity. In this sense, we can say this conditional statement is true and necessary: "If God knew in advance that this would happen, it will happen." Therefore, Boethius, after stating that fate is unpredictable, quickly adds—"which, since it comes from an unchanging Providence, must also itself be unchanging."

From this the answers to the objections are clear. _______________________

From this, the answers to the objections are clear.

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 116, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 116, Art. 4]

Whether All Things Are Subject to Fate?

Whether Everything Is Subject to Fate?

Objection 1: It seems that all things are subject to fate. For Boethius says (De Consol. iv): "The chain of fate moves the heaven and the stars, tempers the elements to one another, and models them by a reciprocal transformation. By fate all things that are born into the world and perish are renewed in a uniform progression of offspring and seed." Nothing therefore seems to be excluded from the domain of fate.

Objection 1: It seems that everything is determined by fate. Boethius says (De Consol. iv): "The chain of fate drives the heavens and the stars, balances the elements with each other, and shapes them through mutual transformation. Through fate, everything that is born into the world and dies is renewed in a consistent cycle of offspring and seed." Therefore, it appears that nothing is outside the influence of fate.

Obj. 2: Further, Augustine says (De Civ. Dei v, 1) that fate is
something real, as referred to the Divine will and power. But the
Divine will is cause of all things that happen, as Augustine says
(De Trin. iii, 1 seqq.). Therefore all things are subject to fate.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, Augustine states (De Civ. Dei v, 1) that fate is
something real, relating to the Divine will and power. But the
Divine will is the cause of everything that occurs, as Augustine mentions
(De Trin. iii, 1 seqq.). Therefore, everything is subject to fate.

Obj. 3: Further, Boethius says (De Consol. iv) that fate "is a disposition inherent to changeable things." But all creatures are changeable, and God alone is truly unchangeable, as stated above (Q. 9, A. 2). Therefore fate is in all things.

Obj. 3: Additionally, Boethius states (De Consol. iv) that fate "is a pattern inherent to changeable things." But all creatures are changeable, and God alone is truly unchangeable, as mentioned earlier (Q. 9, A. 2). Therefore, fate exists in all things.

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Consol. iv) that "some things subject to Providence are above the ordering of fate."

On the contrary, Boethius says (De Consol. iv) that "some things subject to Providence are above the ordering of fate."

I answer that, As stated above (A. 2), fate is the ordering of second causes to effects foreseen by God. Whatever, therefore, is subject to second causes, is subject also to fate. But whatever is done immediately by God, since it is not subject to second causes, neither is it subject to fate; such are creation, the glorification of spiritual substances, and the like. And this is what Boethius says (De Consol. iv): viz. that "those things which are nigh to God have a state of immobility, and exceed the changeable order of fate." Hence it is clear that "the further a thing is from the First Mind, the more it is involved in the chain of fate"; since so much the more it is bound up with second causes.

I respond that, as mentioned earlier (A. 2), fate is the arrangement of secondary causes leading to effects that God has foreseen. Therefore, whatever is subject to secondary causes is also subject to fate. However, anything that is done directly by God, since it does not depend on secondary causes, is not subject to fate; this includes creation, the glorification of spiritual beings, and similar instances. This is what Boethius states (De Consol. iv): that "things close to God possess a state of immobility and transcend the changing order of fate." Hence, it is evident that "the further something is from the First Mind, the more it is caught up in the chain of fate"; as it is increasingly linked to secondary causes.

Reply Obj. 1: All the things mentioned in this passage are done by God by means of second causes; for this reason they are contained in the order of fate. But it is not the same with everything else, as stated above.

Reply Obj. 1: Everything mentioned in this passage is done by God through secondary causes; for this reason, they fall within the order of fate. However, this is not true for everything else, as stated above.

Reply Obj. 2: Fate is to be referred to the Divine will and power, as to its first principle. Consequently it does not follow that whatever is subject to the Divine will or power, is subject also to fate, as already stated.

Reply Obj. 2: Fate should be linked to the Divine will and power as its primary source. Therefore, it doesn’t mean that everything under the Divine will or power is also under fate, as mentioned earlier.

Reply Obj. 3: Although all creatures are in some way changeable, yet some of them do not proceed from changeable created causes. And these, therefore, are not subject to fate, as stated above. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: While all creatures can change in some way, some do not come from changeable created causes. Therefore, these are not subject to fate, as mentioned earlier.

QUESTION 117

OF THINGS PERTAINING TO THE ACTION OF MAN
(In Four Articles)

OF THINGS PERTAINING TO THE ACTION OF MAN
(In Four Articles)

We have next to consider those things which pertain to the action of man, who is composed of a created corporeal and spiritual nature. In the first place we shall consider that action (in general) and secondly in regard to the propagation of man from man. As to the first, there are four points of inquiry:

We now need to think about the things related to human action, as humans are made up of both a physical and a spiritual nature. First, we will look at that action in general, and then we will consider how humans are passed down from one to another. Regarding the first point, there are four key areas to explore:

(1) Whether one man can teach another, as being the cause of his knowledge?

(1) Can one person truly teach another and be the reason for their knowledge?

(2) Whether man can teach an angel?

(2) Can a human teach an angel?

(3) Whether by the power of his soul man can change corporeal matter?

(3) Can a person change physical matter through the power of their soul?

(4) Whether the separate soul of man can move bodies by local movement? _______________________

(4) Can the separate soul of a person move physical bodies through local motion? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 117, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 117, Art. 1]

Whether One Man Can Teach Another?

Whether One Man Can Teach Another?

Objection 1: It would seem that one man cannot teach another. For the Lord says (Matt. 22:8): "Be not you called Rabbi": on which the gloss of Jerome says, "Lest you give to men the honor due to God." Therefore to be a master is properly an honor due to God. But it belongs to a master to teach. Therefore man cannot teach, and this is proper to God.

Objection 1: It seems that one person cannot teach another. For the Lord says (Matt. 22:8): "Do not let yourselves be called Rabbi": Jerome's commentary explains, "So you don't give men the honor that belongs to God." Therefore, being a master is an honor that properly belongs to God. But it is the role of a master to teach. So, a person cannot teach, and that ability belongs solely to God.

Obj. 2: Further, if one man teaches another this is only inasmuch as he acts through his own knowledge, so as to cause knowledge in the other. But a quality through which anyone acts so as to produce his like, is an active quality. Therefore it follows that knowledge is an active quality just as heat is.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, when one person teaches another, it’s only because he uses his own knowledge to inspire understanding in the other. Since a quality that allows someone to create a similar quality in another is an active quality, it follows that knowledge is an active quality just like heat is.

Obj. 3: Further, for knowledge we require intellectual light, and the species of the thing understood. But a man cannot cause either of these in another man. Therefore a man cannot by teaching cause knowledge in another man.

Obj. 3: Additionally, to gain knowledge, we need intellectual clarity and the essence of what is understood. However, one person cannot generate either of these in another person. Therefore, a person cannot impart knowledge to another through teaching.

Obj. 4: Further, the teacher does nothing in regard to a disciple save to propose to him certain signs, so as to signify something by words or gestures. But it is not possible to teach anyone so as to cause knowledge in him, by putting signs before him. For these are signs either of things that he knows, or of things he does not know. If of things that he knows, he to whom these signs are proposed is already in the possession of knowledge, and does not acquire it from the master. If they are signs of things that he does not know, he can learn nothing therefrom: for instance, if one were to speak Greek to a man who only knows Latin, he would learn nothing thereby. Therefore in no way can a man cause knowledge in another by teaching him.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, the teacher does nothing for a student except present certain signs to convey meaning through words or gestures. However, it's impossible to actually teach someone in a way that instills knowledge just by showing them signs. These signs can either represent things they already know or things they don’t know. If they represent things they already know, the person being shown these signs already has that knowledge and isn't gaining anything from the teacher. If the signs represent things they don't know, they can't learn anything from them; for example, if someone speaks Greek to a person who only speaks Latin, they won't understand anything. Therefore, it’s not possible for one person to impart knowledge to another through teaching.

On the contrary, The Apostle says (1 Tim. 2:7): "Whereunto I am appointed a preacher and an apostle . . . a doctor of the Gentiles in faith and truth."

On the contrary, The Apostle says (1 Tim. 2:7): "For this reason, I was appointed a preacher and an apostle . . . a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and truth."

I answer that, On this question there have been various opinions. For Averroes, commenting on De Anima iii, maintains that all men have one passive intellect in common, as stated above (Q. 76, A. 2). From this it follows that the same intelligible species belong to all men. Consequently he held that one man does not cause another to have a knowledge distinct from that which he has himself; but that he communicates the identical knowledge which he has himself, by moving him to order rightly the phantasms in his soul, so that they be rightly disposed for intelligible apprehension. This opinion is true so far as knowledge is the same in disciple and master, if we consider the identity of the thing known: for the same objective truth is known by both of them. But so far as he maintains that all men have but one passive intellect, and the same intelligible species, differing only as to various phantasms, his opinion is false, as stated above (Q. 76, A. 2).

I answer that, On this question, there have been various opinions. Averroes, commenting on De Anima iii, argues that all people share one passive intellect, as previously stated (Q. 76, A. 2). This implies that the same concepts are understood by everyone. Therefore, he believed that one person does not generate a knowledge that is different from what another possesses; rather, he imparts the exact knowledge he has by encouraging the other to properly arrange the images in their mind so that they are ready for understanding. This perspective is correct as far as the knowledge is the same for both teacher and student when we consider the identity of the subject matter: the same objective truth is recognized by both. However, the claim that all people have only one passive intellect and the same concepts, differing only in the various images, is incorrect, as mentioned above (Q. 76, A. 2).

Besides this, there is the opinion of the Platonists, who held that our souls are possessed of knowledge from the very beginning, through the participation of separate forms, as stated above (Q. 84, AA. 3, 4); but that the soul is hindered, through its union with the body, from the free consideration of those things which it knows. According to this, the disciple does not acquire fresh knowledge from his master, but is roused by him to consider what he knows; so that to learn would be nothing else than to remember. In the same way they held that natural agents only dispose (matter) to receive forms, which matter acquires by a participation of separate substances. But against this we have proved above (Q. 79, A. 2; Q. 84, A. 3) that the passive intellect of the human soul is in pure potentiality to intelligible (species), as Aristotle says (De Anima iii, 4).

Besides this, the Platonists believed that our souls have knowledge from the very start, through the participation of separate forms, as stated above (Q. 84, AA. 3, 4). They argued that the soul is held back, due to its union with the body, from fully considering the things it knows. Therefore, a student does not gain new knowledge from his teacher, but rather is encouraged to think about what he already knows; so learning is essentially just remembering. Similarly, they believed that natural agents only prepare matter to receive forms, which that matter gains through a participation of separate substances. However, we have argued above (Q. 79, A. 2; Q. 84, A. 3) that the passive intellect of the human soul exists in pure potentiality to intelligible species, as Aristotle states (De Anima iii, 4).

We must therefore decide the question differently, by saying that the teacher causes knowledge in the learner, by reducing him from potentiality to act, as the Philosopher says (Phys. viii, 4). In order to make this clear, we must observe that of effects proceeding from an exterior principle, some proceed from the exterior principle alone; as the form of a house is caused to be in matter by art alone: whereas other effects proceed sometimes from an exterior principle, sometimes from an interior principle: thus health is caused in a sick man, sometimes by an exterior principle, namely by the medical art, sometimes by an interior principle as when a man is healed by the force of nature. In these latter effects two things must be noticed. First, that art in its work imitates nature for just as nature heals a man by alteration, digestion, rejection of the matter that caused the sickness, so does art. Secondly, we must remark that the exterior principle, art, acts, not as principal agent, but as helping the principal agent, but as helping the principal agent, which is the interior principle, by strengthening it, and by furnishing it with instruments and assistance, of which the interior principle makes use in producing the effect. Thus the physician strengthens nature, and employs food and medicine, of which nature makes use for the intended end.

We need to approach the question differently by stating that the teacher brings knowledge to the learner by moving him from potential to actual understanding, as the Philosopher mentions (Phys. viii, 4). To clarify this, we should note that some effects that come from an external source arise solely from that external source. For example, the structure of a house is created in material form only by design. In contrast, some effects arise from both an external principle and an internal principle. For instance, health in a sick person can be achieved sometimes through an external method, like medical treatment, and other times through an internal source, such as the body's natural healing abilities. In these latter cases, two key points should be noted. First, art, in its function, imitates nature; just as nature heals a person through processes like change, digestion, and the expulsion of harmful matter, so too does art. Second, we must recognize that the external principle, like art, does not act as the main agent but supports the main agent, which is the internal principle, by enhancing its power and providing tools and support that the internal principle uses to produce the effect. Therefore, the physician strengthens nature by utilizing food and medicine that nature can then use to achieve its healing goals.

Now knowledge is acquired in man, both from an interior principle, as is clear in one who procures knowledge by his own research; and from an exterior principle, as is clear in one who learns (by instruction). For in every man there is a certain principle of knowledge, namely the light of the active intellect, through which certain universal principles of all the sciences are naturally understood as soon as proposed to the intellect. Now when anyone applies these universal principles to certain particular things, the memory or experience of which he acquires through the senses; then by his own research advancing from the known to the unknown, he obtains knowledge of what he knew not before. Wherefore anyone who teaches, leads the disciple from things known by the latter, to the knowledge of things previously unknown to him; according to what the Philosopher says (Poster. i, 1): "All teaching and all learning proceed from previous knowledge."

Now, people gain knowledge in two ways: from an internal source, as seen in someone who gains insight through their own research, and from an external source, as seen in someone who learns through teaching. Every person has a certain principle of knowledge, which is the light of the active intellect, allowing them to naturally understand some universal principles of all sciences as soon as they are presented to their mind. When someone applies these universal principles to specific things, the knowledge of which they gain through their senses, they move from the known to the unknown through their own research, acquiring knowledge they didn't have before. Therefore, anyone who teaches guides the learner from familiar ideas to understanding previously unknown concepts, in line with what the Philosopher says (Poster. i, 1): "All teaching and all learning proceed from previous knowledge."

Now the master leads the disciple from things known to knowledge of the unknown, in a twofold manner. Firstly, by proposing to him certain helps or means of instruction, which his intellect can use for the acquisition of science: for instance, he may put before him certain less universal propositions, of which nevertheless the disciple is able to judge from previous knowledge: or he may propose to him some sensible examples, either by way of likeness or of opposition, or something of the sort, from which the intellect of the learner is led to the knowledge of truth previously unknown. Secondly, by strengthening the intellect of the learner; not, indeed, by some active power as of a higher nature, as explained above (Q. 106, A. 1; Q. 111, A. 1) of the angelic enlightenment, because all human intellects are of one grade in the natural order; but inasmuch as he proposes to the disciple the order of principles to conclusions, by reason of his not having sufficient collating power to be able to draw the conclusions from the principles. Hence the Philosopher says (Poster. i, 2) that "a demonstration is a syllogism that causes knowledge." In this way a demonstrator causes his hearer to know.

Now the teacher guides the student from what is known to understanding the unknown in two main ways. First, by providing certain tools or methods for learning that the student's mind can use to gain knowledge. For example, the teacher might present specific, less universal ideas that the student can evaluate based on what they already know, or offer tangible examples that are similar or contrasting, helping the student’s mind arrive at truths they didn’t previously understand. Second, by strengthening the student's intellect; not through some higher power, as discussed earlier (Q. 106, A. 1; Q. 111, A. 1) regarding angelic enlightenment, since all human intellects operate at the same level naturally. Instead, the teacher lays out the order of principles leading to conclusions because the student lacks the ability to connect the dots on their own. Therefore, the Philosopher states (Poster. i, 2) that "a demonstration is a syllogism that causes knowledge." In this way, a demonstrator helps their audience gain understanding.

Reply Obj. 1: As stated above, the teacher only brings exterior help as the physician who heals: but just as the interior nature is the principal cause of the healing, so the interior light of the intellect is the principal cause of knowledge. But both of these are from God. Therefore as of God is it written: "Who healeth all thy diseases" (Ps. 102:3); so of Him is it written: "He that teacheth man knowledge" (Ps. 93:10), inasmuch as "the light of His countenance is signed upon us" (Ps. 4:7), through which light all things are shown to us.

Reply Obj. 1: As mentioned earlier, the teacher provides external assistance, much like a doctor who heals: but just as the internal nature is the main cause of healing, the internal light of the intellect is the main cause of knowledge. However, both of these come from God. Therefore, just as it is written of God: "Who heals all your diseases" (Ps. 102:3); it is also written of Him: "He that teaches man knowledge" (Ps. 93:10), since "the light of His countenance is signed upon us" (Ps. 4:7), through which light everything is revealed to us.

Reply Obj. 2: As Averroes argues, the teacher does not cause knowledge in the disciple after the manner of a natural active cause. Wherefore knowledge need not be an active quality: but is the principle by which one is directed in teaching, just as art is the principle by which one is directed in working.

Reply Obj. 2: As Averroes argues, the teacher does not create knowledge in the student like a natural active cause. Therefore, knowledge doesn’t have to be an active quality; instead, it is the principle that guides teaching, just like art is the principle that guides work.

Reply Obj. 3: The master does not cause the intellectual light in the disciple, nor does he cause the intelligible species directly: but he moves the disciple by teaching, so that the latter, by the power of his intellect, forms intelligible concepts, the signs of which are proposed to him from without.

Reply Obj. 3: The teacher doesn’t create the understanding in the student, nor does he directly create the ideas. Instead, he guides the student through teaching, so that the student, using their intellect, develops clear concepts, which are suggested to them from the outside.

Reply Obj. 4: The signs proposed by the master to the disciple are of things known in a general and confused manner; but not known in detail and distinctly. Therefore when anyone acquires knowledge by himself, he cannot be called self-taught, or be said to have his own master because perfect knowledge did not precede in him, such as is required in a master. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: The signs the master gives to the disciple are about things that are known in a general and vague way, but not understood clearly or in detail. So, when someone learns something on their own, they can't really be called self-taught, nor can they claim to have their own master because they don't possess the complete understanding that is necessary to be a master.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 117, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 117, Art. 2]

Whether Man Can Teach the Angels?

Whether Man Can Teach the Angels?

Objection 1: It would seem that men teach angels. For the Apostle says (Eph. 3:10): "That the manifold wisdom of God may be made known to the principalities and powers in the heavenly places through the Church." But the Church is the union of all the faithful. Therefore some things are made known to angels through men.

Objection 1: It seems that humans teach angels. The Apostle says (Eph. 3:10): "That the manifold wisdom of God may be made known to the principalities and powers in the heavenly places through the Church." But the Church is the union of all the faithful. Therefore, some things are made known to angels through humans.

Obj. 2: Further, the superior angels, who are enlightened immediately concerning Divine things by God, can instruct the inferior angels, as stated above (Q. 116, A. 1; Q. 112, A. 3). But some men are instructed immediately concerning Divine things by the Word of God; as appears principally of the apostles from Heb. 1:1, 2: "Last of all, in these days (God) hath spoken to us by His Son." Therefore some men have been able to teach the angels.

Obj. 2: Moreover, the higher-ranking angels, who receive direct knowledge about divine matters from God, can teach the lower-ranking angels, as mentioned earlier (Q. 116, A. 1; Q. 112, A. 3). However, some humans are also taught directly about divine matters through the Word of God; this is especially true for the apostles, as indicated in Heb. 1:1, 2: "In the last days, God has spoken to us by His Son." Therefore, some humans have the ability to teach the angels.

Obj. 3: Further, the inferior angels are instructed by the superior. But some men are higher than some angels; since some men are taken up to the highest angelic orders, as Gregory says in a homily (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.). Therefore some of the inferior angels can be instructed by men concerning Divine things.

Obj. 3: Also, the lower angels are taught by the higher ones. But some people are above certain angels, since some people are raised to the highest angelic levels, as Gregory mentions in a homily (Hom. xxxiv in Evang.). Therefore, some of the lower angels can be taught by people about Divine matters.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that every Divine enlightenment is borne to men by the ministry of the angels. Therefore angels are not instructed by men concerning Divine things.

On the contrary, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that every Divine enlightenment is brought to people through the service of angels. Therefore, angels are not taught by humans about Divine matters.

I answer that, As stated above (Q. 107, A. 2), the inferior angels can indeed speak to the superior angels, by making their thoughts known to them; but concerning Divine things superior angels are never enlightened by inferior angels. Now it is manifest that in the same way as inferior angels are subject to the superior, the highest men are subject even to the lowest angels. This is clear from Our Lord's words (Matt. 11:11): "There hath not risen among them that are born of woman a greater than John the Baptist; yet he that is lesser in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he." Therefore angels are never enlightened by men concerning Divine things. But men can by means of speech make known to angels the thoughts of their hearts: because it belongs to God alone to know the heart's secrets.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (Q. 107, A. 2), lower angels can communicate with higher angels by sharing their thoughts. However, when it comes to divine matters, higher angels are never enlightened by lower angels. It’s clear that just as lower angels are subject to higher ones, the greatest people are subject even to the least angels. This is evident from Our Lord's words (Matt. 11:11): "There has not arisen one born of a woman greater than John the Baptist; yet he who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he." Therefore, angels are never enlightened by humans regarding divine matters. However, humans can express their innermost thoughts to angels through speech, because knowing the secrets of the heart is something that belongs to God alone.

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine (Gen. ad lit. v, 19) thus explains this passage of the Apostle, who in the preceding verses says: "To me, the least of all the saints, is given this grace . . . to enlighten all men, that they may see what is the dispensation of the mystery which hath been hidden from eternity in God. Hidden, yet so that the multiform wisdom of God was made known to the principalities and powers in the heavenly places—that is, through the Church." As though he were to say: This mystery was hidden from men, but not from the Church in heaven, which is contained in the principalities and powers who knew it "from all ages, but not before all ages: because the Church was at first there, where after the resurrection this Church composed of men will be gathered together."

Reply Obj. 1: Augustine (Gen. ad lit. v, 19) explains this passage from the Apostle, who in the previous verses says: "To me, the least of all the saints, this grace is given... to enlighten everyone, so they can see what the plan of the mystery is that has been hidden from eternity in God. Hidden, yet in a way that the many-sided wisdom of God was revealed to the principalities and powers in the heavenly places—that is, through the Church." It's as if he's saying: This mystery was hidden from people, but not from the Church in heaven, which is made up of the principalities and powers who knew it "from all ages, but not before all ages: because the Church was initially there, where after the resurrection this Church made up of people will be gathered together."

It can also be explained otherwise that "what is hidden, is known by the angels, not only in God, but also here where when it takes place and is made public," as Augustine says further on (Gen. ad lit. v, 19). Thus when the mysteries of Christ and the Church were fulfilled by the apostles, some things concerning these mysteries became apparent to the angels, which were hidden from them before. In this way we can understand what Jerome says (Comment. in Ep. ad Eph.)—that from the preaching of the apostles the angels learned certain mysteries; that is to say, through the preaching of the apostles, the mysteries were realized in the things themselves: thus by the preaching of Paul the Gentiles were converted, of which mystery the Apostle is speaking in the passage quoted.

It can also be explained another way that "what is hidden is known by the angels, not just in God, but also here when it happens and is made public," as Augustine states later (Gen. ad lit. v, 19). So, when the mysteries of Christ and the Church were completed by the apostles, some aspects of these mysteries became clear to the angels, which they hadn’t understood before. This helps us grasp what Jerome means (Comment. in Ep. ad Eph.)—that from the apostles’ preaching, the angels learned certain mysteries; in other words, through the apostles' preaching, the mysteries were made real in the events themselves: thus, through Paul’s preaching, the Gentiles were converted, which is the mystery the Apostle is referring to in the quoted passage.

Reply Obj. 2: The apostles were instructed immediately by the Word of God, not according to His Divinity, but according as He spoke in His human nature. Hence the argument does not prove.

Reply Obj. 2: The apostles were taught directly by the Word of God, not in terms of His Divinity, but as He communicated in His human nature. Therefore, the argument is not valid.

Reply Obj. 3: Certain men in this state of life are greater than certain angels, not actually, but virtually; forasmuch as they have such great charity that they can merit a higher degree of beatitude than that possessed by certain angels. In the same way we might say that the seed of a great tree is virtually greater than a small tree, though actually it is much smaller. _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: Some people in this life are greater than certain angels, not in reality, but in potential; because they have such great love that they can achieve a higher level of happiness than certain angels do. Similarly, we could say that the seed of a large tree is potentially greater than a small tree, even though it is actually much smaller.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 117, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 117, Art. 3]

Whether Man by the Power of His Soul Can Change Corporeal Matter?

Whether a person can change physical matter through the power of their soul?

Objection 1: It would seem that man by the power of his soul can change corporeal matter. For Gregory says (Dialog. ii, 30): "Saints work miracles sometimes by prayer, sometimes by their power: thus Peter, by prayer, raised the dead Tabitha to life, and by his reproof delivered to death the lying Ananias and Saphira." But in the working of miracles a change is wrought in corporeal matter. Therefore men, by the power of the soul, can change corporeal matter.

Objection 1: It seems that people can change physical matter through the power of their souls. Gregory says (Dialog. ii, 30): "Saints perform miracles sometimes through prayer and sometimes through their own power: for example, Peter, through prayer, brought Tabitha back to life, and by his rebuke, caused the deaths of Ananias and Saphira, who lied." Since miracles involve a change in physical matter, it follows that people can change physical matter through the power of their souls.

Obj. 2: Further, on these words (Gal. 3:1): "Who hath bewitched you, that you should not obey the truth?" the gloss says that "some have blazing eyes, who by a single look bewitch others, especially children." But this would not be unless the power of the soul could change corporeal matter. Therefore man can change corporeal matter by the power of his soul.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, concerning these words (Gal. 3:1): "Who has bewitched you, that you should not obey the truth?" the commentary states that "some have piercing eyes, who with just one look can enchant others, especially children." But this wouldn't happen unless the power of the soul could alter physical matter. Therefore, a person can change physical matter through the power of their soul.

Obj. 3: Further, the human body is nobler than other inferior bodies. But by the apprehension of the human soul the human body is changed to heat and cold, as appears when a man is angry or afraid: indeed this change sometimes goes so far as to bring on sickness and death. Much more, then, can the human soul by its power change corporeal matter.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the human body is more noble than other inferior bodies. However, through the perception of the human soul, the human body undergoes changes in temperature, as seen when someone is angry or afraid; in fact, this change can sometimes be so extreme that it leads to sickness and death. Therefore, the ability of the human soul to affect physical matter is even greater.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8): "Corporeal matter obeys God alone at will."

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Trin. iii, 8): "Physical matter only obeys God of its own accord."

I answer that, As stated above (Q. 110, A. 2), corporeal matter is not changed to (the reception of) a form save either by some agent composed of matter and form, or by God Himself, in whom both matter and form pre-exist virtually, as in the primordial cause of both. Wherefore of the angels also we have stated (Q. 110, A. 2) that they cannot change corporeal matter by their natural power, except by employing corporeal agents for the production of certain effects. Much less therefore can the soul, by its natural power, change corporeal matter, except by means of bodies.

I answer that, As mentioned earlier (Q. 110, A. 2), physical matter can only be transformed into a form either by an agent that combines matter and form, or by God Himself, in whom both matter and form already exist in a virtual state, being the original source of both. Thus, we have also stated regarding angels (Q. 110, A. 2) that they cannot change physical matter through their natural abilities alone, but must use physical agents to achieve certain results. Therefore, even less can the soul change physical matter merely by its natural powers, except through the use of bodies.

Reply Obj. 1: The saints are said to work miracles by the power of grace, not of nature. This is clear from what Gregory says in the same place: "Those who are sons of God, in power, as John says—what wonder is there that they should work miracles by that power?"

Reply Obj. 1: The saints are believed to perform miracles through the power of grace, not through nature. This is evident from what Gregory says in the same context: "Those who are children of God, in power, as John mentions—what amazement is there that they should perform miracles through that power?"

Reply Obj. 2: Avicenna assigns the cause of bewitchment to the fact that corporeal matter has a natural tendency to obey spiritual substance rather than natural contrary agents. Therefore when the soul is of strong imagination, it can change corporeal matter. This he says is the cause of the "evil eye."

Reply Obj. 2: Avicenna attributes the cause of bewitchment to the idea that physical matter naturally tends to follow spiritual influences rather than opposing natural forces. So, when the imagination is powerful, it can transform physical matter. He claims this is what leads to the "evil eye."

But it has been shown above (Q. 110, A. 2) that corporeal matter does not obey spiritual substances at will, but the Creator alone. Therefore it is better to say, that by a strong imagination the (corporeal) spirits of the body united to that soul are changed, which change in the spirits takes place especially in the eyes, to which the more subtle spirits can reach. And the eyes infect the air which is in contact with them to a certain distance: in the same way as a new and clear mirror contracts a tarnish from the look of a "menstruata," as Aristotle says (De Somn. et Vigil.; [*De Insomniis ii]).

But it has been shown above (Q. 110, A. 2) that physical matter doesn't follow spiritual beings' commands at will, only the Creator. So it's better to say that through strong imagination, the physical spirits of the body connected to that soul are transformed, especially in the eyes, where the more subtle spirits can reach. The eyes affect the air around them to a certain distance, similar to how a new and clear mirror gets smudged from the gaze of a "menstruata," as Aristotle states (De Somn. et Vigil.; [*De Insomniis ii]).

Hence then when a soul is vehemently moved to wickedness, as occurs mostly in little old women, according to the above explanation, the countenance becomes venomous and hurtful, especially to children, who have a tender and most impressionable body. It is also possible that by God's permission, or from some hidden deed, the spiteful demons co-operate in this, as the witches may have some compact with them.

Therefore, when a person is strongly tempted to do evil, especially as is often seen in elderly women, as mentioned earlier, their expression can become harmful and malicious, particularly towards children, who have delicate and impressionable bodies. It's also possible that, with God's permission or due to some secret action, spiteful demons assist in this, as witches may have some agreement with them.

Reply Obj. 3: The soul is united to the body as its form; and the sensitive appetite, which obeys the reason in a certain way, as stated above (Q. 81, A. 3), it is the act of a corporeal organ. Therefore at the apprehension of the human soul, the sensitive appetite must needs be moved with an accompanying corporeal operation. But the apprehension of the human soul does not suffice to work a change in exterior bodies, except by means of a change in the body united to it, as stated above (ad 2). _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The soul is connected to the body as its form, and the sensitive appetite, which obeys reason in a certain way, as mentioned earlier (Q. 81, A. 3), is an action of a physical organ. Therefore, when the human soul perceives something, the sensitive appetite must be activated with a related physical action. However, the perception of the human soul alone is not enough to effect change in external objects unless there is also a change in the body that is connected to it, as mentioned above (ad 2).

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 117, Art. 4]

FOURTH ARTICLE [I, Q. 117, Art. 4]

Whether the Separate Human Soul Can Move Bodies at Least Locally?

Whether the Individual Human Soul Can Move Bodies, Even Locally?

Objection 1: It seems that the separate human soul can move bodies at least locally. For a body naturally obeys a spiritual substance as to local motion, as stated above (Q. 110, A. 5). But the separate soul is a spiritual substance. Therefore it can move exterior bodies by its command.

Objection 1: It appears that an individual human soul can move bodies, at least in a localized way. A body naturally responds to a spiritual substance regarding local movement, as mentioned above (Q. 110, A. 5). Since the separate soul is a spiritual substance, it follows that it can command external bodies to move.

Obj. 2: Further, in the Itinerary of Clement it is said in the narrative of Nicetas to Peter, that Simon Magus, by sorcery retained power over the soul of a child that he had slain, and that through this soul he worked magical wonders. But this could not have been without some corporeal change at least as to place. Therefore, the separate soul has the power to move bodies locally.

Obj. 2: Furthermore, in the Itinerary of Clement, it is mentioned in Nicetas' account to Peter that Simon Magus, through sorcery, maintained control over the soul of a child he had killed, and that he performed magical feats through this soul. However, this could not have happened without some physical change, at least in terms of location. Therefore, the separate soul has the ability to move bodies locally.

On the contrary, the Philosopher says (De Anima i, 3) that the soul cannot move any other body whatsoever but its own.

On the contrary, the Philosopher says (De Anima i, 3) that the soul cannot move any body other than its own.

I answer that, The separate soul cannot by its natural power move a body. For it is manifest that, even while the soul is united to the body, it does not move the body except as endowed with life: so that if one of the members become lifeless, it does not obey the soul as to local motion. Now it is also manifest that no body is quickened by the separate soul. Therefore within the limits of its natural power the separate soul cannot command the obedience of a body; though, by the power of God, it can exceed those limits.

I answer that, The separate soul cannot move a body by its own natural ability. It's clear that even when the soul is connected to the body, it only moves the body when it is alive: if any part becomes lifeless, it doesn't respond to the soul for movement. It's also clear that no body is animated by the separate soul. Therefore, within the scope of its natural ability, the separate soul cannot command a body to obey; however, through God's power, it can go beyond those limits.

Reply Obj. 1: There are certain spiritual substances whose powers are not determinate to certain bodies; such are the angels who are naturally unfettered by a body; consequently various bodies may obey them as to movement. But if the motive power of a separate substance is naturally determinate to move a certain body, that substance will not be able to move a body of higher degree, but only one of lower degree: thus according to philosophers the mover of the lower heaven cannot move the higher heaven. Wherefore, since the soul is by its nature determinate to move the body of which it is the form, it cannot by its natural power move any other body.

Reply Obj. 1: There are certain spiritual beings whose abilities aren't limited to specific bodies; these include angels, which are naturally free from physical form. As a result, different bodies can respond to them in terms of movement. However, if the motivating force of a separate being is naturally meant to move a specific body, that being won't be able to move a higher body, only a lower one. For instance, according to philosophers, the mover of the lower heaven can't move the higher heaven. Therefore, since the soul is naturally intended to move the body it is connected to, it cannot, by its inherent power, move any other body.

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine (De Civ. Dei x, 11) and Chrysostom (Hom. xxviii in Matt.) say, the demons often pretend to be the souls of the dead, in order to confirm the error of heathen superstition. It is therefore credible that Simon Magus was deceived by some demon who pretended to be the soul of the child whom the magician had slain. _______________________

Reply Obj. 2: As Augustine (De Civ. Dei x, 11) and Chrysostom (Hom. xxviii in Matt.) say, demons often pretend to be the souls of the dead to support the mistake of pagan superstition. So, it's believable that Simon Magus was tricked by a demon pretending to be the soul of the child he had killed.

QUESTION 118

OF THE PRODUCTION OF MAN FROM MAN AS TO THE SOUL
(In Three Articles)

OF THE PRODUCTION OF MAN FROM MAN REGARDING THE SOUL
(In Three Articles)

We next consider the production of man from man: first, as to the soul; secondly, as to the body.

We will now look at how man is produced from man: first, regarding the soul; secondly, regarding the body.

Under the first head there are three points of inquiry:

Under the first topic, there are three points to consider:

(1) Whether the sensitive soul is transmitted with the semen?

(1) Is the sensitive soul passed down with the semen?

(2) Whether the intellectual soul is thus transmitted?

(2) Is the intellectual soul passed down like this?

(3) Whether all souls were created at the same time? _______________________

(3) Were all souls created at the same time? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 118, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 118, Art. 1]

Whether the Sensitive Soul Is Transmitted with the Semen?

Whether the Sensitive Soul Is Passed on with the Sperm?

Objection 1: It would seem that the sensitive soul is not transmitted with the semen, but created by God. For every perfect substance, not composed of matter and form, that begins to exist, acquires existence not by generation, but by creation: for nothing is generated save from matter. But the sensitive soul is a perfect substance, otherwise it could not move the body; and since it is the form of a body, it is not composed of matter and form. Therefore it begins to exist not by generation but by creation.

Objection 1: It seems that the sensitive soul isn’t passed down through semen but is created by God. Every perfect substance that comes into existence, not made up of matter and form, gains existence through creation, not generation: because nothing is generated except from matter. But the sensitive soul is a perfect substance; otherwise, it wouldn’t be able to move the body. Since it is the form of a body, it isn't made up of matter and form. Therefore, it comes into existence through creation, not generation.

Obj. 2: Further, in living things the principle of generation is the generating power; which, since it is one of the powers of the vegetative soul, is of a lower order than the sensitive soul. Now nothing acts beyond its species. Therefore the sensitive soul cannot be caused by the animal's generating power.

Obj. 2: Additionally, in living organisms, the principle of generation is the generating power, which, being one of the powers of the vegetative soul, is of a lower order than the sensitive soul. Since nothing acts beyond its species, the sensitive soul cannot be produced by the animal's generating power.

Obj. 3: Further, the generator begets its like: so that the form of the generator must be actually in the cause of generation. But neither the sensitive soul itself nor any part thereof is actually in the semen, for no part of the sensitive soul is elsewhere than in some part of the body; while in the semen there is not even a particle of the body, because there is not a particle of the body which is not made from the semen and by the power thereof. Therefore the sensitive soul is not produced through the semen.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the generator produces something similar to itself, so the form of the generator must actually exist in the cause of generation. However, neither the sensitive soul itself nor any part of it is actually found in the semen, because no part of the sensitive soul exists anywhere other than in some part of the body; and the semen doesn't contain any part of the body since every part of the body is formed from the semen and by its power. Therefore, the sensitive soul is not created from the semen.

Obj. 4: Further, if there be in the semen any principle productive of the sensitive soul, this principle either remains after the animal is begotten, or it does not remain. Now it cannot remain. For either it would be identified with the sensitive soul of the begotten animal; which is impossible, for thus there would be identity between begetter and begotten, maker and made: or it would be distinct therefrom; and again this is impossible, for it has been proved above (Q. 76, A. 4) that in one animal there is but one formal principle, which is the soul. If on the other hand the aforesaid principle does not remain, this again seems to be impossible: for thus an agent would act to its own destruction, which cannot be. Therefore the sensitive soul cannot be generated from the semen.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, if there is a principle in the semen that produces the sensitive soul, this principle either remains after the animal is conceived or it does not remain. It cannot remain. Either it would be the same as the sensitive soul of the newly formed animal, which is impossible, as that would create an identity between the creator and the created, the maker and the made; or it would be separate from it, which is also impossible because it has already been established (Q. 76, A. 4) that there is only one formal principle in each animal, which is the soul. On the other hand, if this principle does not remain, that too seems impossible because that would mean an agent acts towards its own destruction, which cannot happen. Therefore, the sensitive soul cannot be produced from the semen.

On the contrary, The power in the semen is to the animal seminally generated, as the power in the elements of the world is to animals produced from these elements—for instance by putrefaction. But in the latter animals the soul is produced by the elemental power, according to Gen. 1:20: "Let the waters bring forth the creeping creatures having life." Therefore also the souls of animals seminally generated are produced by the seminal power.

On the contrary, The power in semen is to animals produced from it as the power in the elements of the world is to animals created from those elements—for example, through decay. In the latter case, the soul is generated by the elemental power, as stated in Gen. 1:20: "Let the waters bring forth the creeping creatures having life." Similarly, the souls of animals generated by semen are created by the seminal power.

I answer that, Some have held that the sensitive souls of animals are created by God (Q. 65, A. 4). This opinion would hold if the sensitive soul were subsistent, having being and operation of itself. For thus, as having being and operation of itself, to be made would needs be proper to it. And since a simple and subsistent thing cannot be made except by creation, it would follow that the sensitive soul would arrive at existence by creation.

I answer that, Some people believe that the sensitive souls of animals are created by God (Q. 65, A. 4). This view would be valid if the sensitive soul were independent, possessing its own existence and functioning on its own. In that case, since it has its own existence and function, it would naturally have to be created. And since a simple and independent thing can only be created by an act of creation, it follows that the sensitive soul would come into existence through creation.

But this principle is false—namely, that being and operation are proper to the sensitive soul, as has been made clear above (Q. 75, A. 3): for it would not cease to exist when the body perishes. Since, therefore, it is not a subsistent form, its relation to existence is that of the corporeal forms, to which existence does not belong as proper to them, but which are said to exist forasmuch as the subsistent composites exist through them.

But this principle is wrong—that being and function belong to the sensitive soul, as explained earlier (Q. 75, A. 3): because it wouldn’t stop existing when the body dies. Therefore, since it is not a self-sufficient form, its connection to existence is like that of physical forms, which don’t inherently have existence, but are said to exist because the composite beings that depend on them exist.

Wherefore to be made is proper to composites. And since the generator is like the generated, it follows of necessity that both the sensitive soul, and all other like forms are naturally brought into existence by certain corporeal agents that reduce the matter from potentiality to act, through some corporeal power of which they are possessed.

Wherefore to be made is proper to composites. And since the generator is like the generated, it follows of necessity that both the sensitive soul and all other similar forms naturally come into existence through certain physical agents that transform matter from potential to actual, through some physical power that they possess.

Now the more powerful an agent, the greater scope its action has: for instance, the hotter a body, the greater the distance to which its heat carries. Therefore bodies not endowed with life, which are the lowest in the order of nature, generate their like, not through some medium, but by themselves; thus fire by itself generates fire. But living bodies, as being more powerful, act so as to generate their like, both without and with a medium. Without a medium—in the work of nutrition, in which flesh generates flesh: with a medium—in the act of generation, because the semen of the animal or plant derives a certain active force from the soul of the generator, just as the instrument derives a certain motive power from the principal agent. And as it matters not whether we say that something is moved by the instrument or by the principal agent, so neither does it matter whether we say that the soul of the generated is caused by the soul of the generator, or by some seminal power derived therefrom.

Now, the more powerful an agent, the wider its range of action: for example, the hotter an object, the farther its heat reaches. So, lifeless bodies, which are the lowest in the natural order, create their own kind, not through some medium, but by themselves; thus, fire creates fire on its own. However, living bodies, being more powerful, can produce their own kind both without and with a medium. Without a medium—through nutrition, where flesh produces flesh; with a medium—in reproduction, because the semen of an animal or plant carries a certain active force from the soul of the parent, just as a tool gets some driving force from the main agent. And just like it doesn’t matter whether we say something is moved by the tool or by the main agent, it also doesn’t matter whether we say that the soul of the offspring is caused by the soul of the parent or by some vital force derived from it.

Reply Obj. 1: The sensitive soul is not a perfect self-subsistent substance. We have said enough (Q. 25, A. 3) on this point, nor need we repeat it here.

Reply Obj. 1: The sensitive soul is not a perfect self-sufficient substance. We've covered this enough (Q. 25, A. 3), and we don’t need to go over it again here.

Reply Obj. 2: The generating power begets not only by its own virtue but by that of the whole soul, of which it is a power. Therefore the generating power of a plant generates a plant, and that of an animal begets an animal. For the more perfect the soul is, to so much a more perfect effect is its generating power ordained.

Reply Obj. 2: The ability to generate is not just due to its own strength but also because of the entire soul, which it is a part of. So, the generating power of a plant produces a plant, and the generating power of an animal produces an animal. The more perfect the soul is, the more perfect the effect of its generating power will be.

Reply Obj. 3: This active force which is in the semen, and which is derived from the soul of the generator, is, as it were, a certain movement of this soul itself: nor is it the soul or a part of the soul, save virtually; thus the form of a bed is not in the saw or the axe, but a certain movement towards that form. Consequently there is no need for this active force to have an actual organ; but it is based on the (vital) spirit in the semen which is frothy, as is attested by its whiteness. In which spirit, moreover, there is a certain heat derived from the power of the heavenly bodies, by virtue of which the inferior bodies also act towards the production of the species as stated above (Q. 115, A. 3, ad 2). And since in this (vital) spirit the power of the soul is concurrent with the power of a heavenly body, it has been said that "man and the sun generate man." Moreover, elemental heat is employed instrumentally by the soul's power, as also by the nutritive power, as stated (De Anima ii, 4).

Reply Obj. 3: The active force found in semen, derived from the generator's soul, is essentially a movement of that soul itself; it is not the soul or a part of the soul, except in a virtual sense. Just like the form of a bed isn't in the saw or the axe, but is a certain movement towards that form. Therefore, this active force doesn't need an actual organ; it's based on the vital spirit in the semen, which appears frothy, as indicated by its whiteness. Furthermore, within this spirit, there is a certain heat that comes from the power of celestial bodies, which allows lower bodies to contribute to the generation of species, as mentioned earlier (Q. 115, A. 3, ad 2). Since in this vital spirit, the power of the soul works alongside the power of a heavenly body, it's been said that "man and the sun generate man." Additionally, elemental heat is used instrumentally by the soul's power, as well as by the nutritive power, as previously stated (De Anima ii, 4).

Reply Obj. 4: In perfect animals, generated by coition, the active force is in the semen of the male, as the Philosopher says (De Gener. Animal. ii, 3); but the foetal matter is provided by the female. In this matter, the vegetative soul exists from the very beginning, not as to the second act, but as to the first act, as the sensitive soul is in one who sleeps. But as soon as it begins to attract nourishment, then it already operates in act. This matter therefore is transmuted by the power which is in the semen of the male, until it is actually informed by the sensitive soul; not as though the force itself which was in the semen becomes the sensitive soul; for thus, indeed, the generator and generated would be identical; moreover, this would be more like nourishment and growth than generation, as the Philosopher says. And after the sensitive soul, by the power of the active principle in the semen, has been produced in one of the principal parts of the thing generated, then it is that the sensitive soul of the offspring begins to work towards the perfection of its own body, by nourishment and growth. As to the active power which was in the semen, it ceases to exist, when the semen is dissolved and the (vital) spirit thereof vanishes. Nor is there anything unreasonable in this, because this force is not the principal but the instrumental agent; and the movement of an instrument ceases when once the effect has been produced. _______________________

Reply Obj. 4: In perfect animals produced through mating, the active force is found in the male's semen, as the Philosopher states (De Gener. Animal. ii, 3); however, the material for the fetus comes from the female. In this material, the vegetative soul is present from the very beginning, not in the second act, but in the first act, similar to how the sensitive soul exists in someone who is asleep. Once it starts to draw in nourishment, it then actively functions. This matter is transformed by the power inherent in the male's semen, until it is fully infused with the sensitive soul; this doesn’t mean that the force in the semen becomes the sensitive soul itself; otherwise, the generator and the generated would be the same, and this would resemble nourishment and growth more than actual generation, as the Philosopher mentions. Once the sensitive soul has been established in one of the main parts of the created being, it is then that the offspring's sensitive soul begins working towards enhancing its own body through nourishment and growth. Regarding the active power present in the semen, it ceases to exist once the semen is broken down and its (vital) spirit is lost. There’s nothing unreasonable about this, as this force acts as an instrumental, not a principal agent; and the function of an instrument stops once the effect has been achieved.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 118, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 118, Art. 2]

Whether the Intellectual Soul Is Produced from the Semen?

Whether the Intellectual Soul Comes from Semen?

Objection 1: It would seem that the intellectual soul is produced from the semen. For it is written (Gen. 46:26): "All the souls that came out of [Jacob's] thigh, sixty-six." But nothing is produced from the thigh of a man, except from the semen. Therefore the intellectual soul is produced from the semen.

Objection 1: It seems that the intellectual soul comes from semen. For it is written (Gen. 46:26): "All the souls that came out of [Jacob's] thigh, sixty-six." But nothing comes from a man's thigh except for semen. Therefore, the intellectual soul comes from semen.

Obj. 2: Further, as shown above (Q. 76, A. 3), the intellectual, sensitive, and nutritive souls are, in substance, one soul in man. But the sensitive soul in man is generated from the semen, as in other animals; wherefore the Philosopher says (De Gener. Animal. ii, 3) that the animal and the man are not made at the same time, but first of all the animal is made having a sensitive soul. Therefore also the intellectual soul is produced from the semen.

Obj. 2: Additionally, as mentioned earlier (Q. 76, A. 3), the intellectual, sensitive, and nutritive souls are essentially one soul in a person. However, the sensitive soul in humans is formed from semen, just like in other animals; this is why the Philosopher states (De Gener. Animal. ii, 3) that the animal and the man are not created simultaneously, but first, the animal comes into being with a sensitive soul. Therefore, the intellectual soul also arises from the semen.

Obj. 3: Further, it is one and the same agent whose action is directed to the matter and to the form: else from the matter and the form there would not result something simply one. But the intellectual soul is the form of the human body, which is produced by the power of the semen. Therefore the intellectual soul also is produced by the power of the semen.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, it is the same agent that directs its action towards both matter and form; otherwise, matter and form would not result in something that is truly one. The intellectual soul is the form of the human body, which is created by the power of the semen. Therefore, the intellectual soul is also produced by the power of the semen.

Obj. 4: Further, man begets his like in species. But the human species is constituted by the rational soul. Therefore the rational soul is from the begetter.

Obj. 4: Additionally, humans produce individuals of the same species. However, the human species is defined by the rational soul. Therefore, the rational soul comes from the creator.

Obj. 5: Further, it cannot be said that God concurs in sin. But if the rational soul be created by God, sometimes God concurs in the sin of adultery, since sometimes offspring is begotten of illicit intercourse. Therefore the rational soul is not created by God.

Obj. 5: Additionally, it's not accurate to say that God is involved in sin. However, if the rational soul is created by God, then sometimes God would be involved in the sin of adultery, since sometimes children are conceived through unlawful relations. Therefore, the rational soul is not created by God.

On the contrary, It is written in De Eccl. Dogmat. xiv that "the rational soul is not engendered by coition."

On the contrary, It is written in De Eccl. Dogmat. xiv that "the rational soul is not created by intercourse."

I answer that, It is impossible for an active power existing in matter to extend its action to the production of an immaterial effect. Now it is manifest that the intellectual principle in man transcends matter; for it has an operation in which the body takes no part whatever. It is therefore impossible for the seminal power to produce the intellectual principle.

I answer that, it is impossible for a physical force within matter to create an immaterial effect. It is clear that the mind in humans goes beyond physical matter, as it operates independently of the body. Therefore, it is impossible for reproductive power to generate the intellectual principle.

Again, the seminal power acts by virtue of the soul of the begetter according as the soul of the begetter is the act of the body, making use of the body in its operation. Now the body has nothing whatever to do in the operation of the intellect. Therefore the power of the intellectual principle, as intellectual, cannot reach the semen. Hence the Philosopher says (De Gener. Animal. ii, 3): "It follows that the intellect alone comes from without."

Again, the creative power functions through the spirit of the creator in the sense that the creator's spirit is the action of the body, using the body in its process. However, the body is not involved at all in the functioning of the intellect. Therefore, the power of the intellectual principle, in its intellectual capacity, cannot connect to the semen. Hence the Philosopher states (De Gener. Animal. ii, 3): "It follows that the intellect alone comes from outside."

Again, since the intellectual soul has an operation independent of the body, it is subsistent, as proved above (Q. 75, A. 2): therefore to be and to be made are proper to it. Moreover, since it is an immaterial substance it cannot be caused through generation, but only through creation by God. Therefore to hold that the intellectual soul is caused by the begetter, is nothing else than to hold the soul to be non-subsistent and consequently to perish with the body. It is therefore heretical to say that the intellectual soul is transmitted with the semen.

Again, since the intellectual soul operates independently of the body, it exists on its own, as established above (Q. 75, A. 2): therefore, to exist and to be created are inherent to it. Additionally, because it is an immaterial substance, it cannot originate through reproduction, but only through creation by God. So, to claim that the intellectual soul is produced by the parents is essentially to claim that the soul does not exist independently and therefore perishes with the body. Thus, it is heretical to say that the intellectual soul is passed on with the semen.

Reply Obj. 1: In the passage quoted, the part is put instead of the whole, the soul for the whole man, by the figure of synecdoche.

Reply Obj. 1: In the quoted passage, the part is used to represent the whole, with the soul standing in for the entire person, using the figure of synecdoche.

Reply Obj. 2: Some say that the vital functions observed in the embryo are not from its soul, but from the soul of the mother; or from the formative power of the semen. Both of these explanations are false; for vital functions such as feeling, nourishment, and growth cannot be from an extrinsic principle. Consequently it must be said that the soul is in the embryo; the nutritive soul from the beginning, then the sensitive, lastly the intellectual soul.

Reply Obj. 2: Some argue that the vital functions seen in the embryo come from its mother’s soul or from the formative power of the semen. Both of these arguments are incorrect; vital functions like sensation, nourishment, and growth cannot come from an outside source. Therefore, it must be concluded that the soul is present in the embryo: first the nutritive soul, then the sensitive soul, and finally the intellectual soul.

Therefore some say that in addition to the vegetative soul which existed first, another, namely the sensitive, soul supervenes; and in addition to this, again another, namely the intellectual soul. Thus there would be in man three souls of which one would be in potentiality to another. This has been disproved above (Q. 76, A. 3).

Therefore, some people say that besides the vegetative soul that existed first, a second one, called the sensitive soul, comes after it; and then a third one, known as the intellectual soul, comes after that. So, in humans, there would be three souls, each one having the potential to influence the next. This has been disproven above (Q. 76, A. 3).

Therefore others say that the same soul which was at first merely vegetative, afterwards through the action of the seminal power, becomes a sensitive soul; and finally this same soul becomes intellectual, not indeed through the active seminal power, but by the power of a higher agent, namely God enlightening (the soul) from without. For this reason the Philosopher says that the intellect comes from without. But this will not hold. First, because no substantial form is susceptible of more or less; but addition of greater perfection constitutes another species, just as the addition of unity constitutes another species of number. Now it is not possible for the same identical form to belong to different species. Secondly, because it would follow that the generation of an animal would be a continuous movement, proceeding gradually from the imperfect to the perfect, as happens in alteration. Thirdly, because it would follow that the generation of a man or an animal is not generation simply, because the subject thereof would be a being in act. For if the vegetative soul is from the beginning in the matter of offspring, and is subsequently gradually brought to perfection; this will imply addition of further perfection without corruption of the preceding perfection. And this is contrary to the nature of generation properly so called. Fourthly, because either that which is caused by the action of God is something subsistent: and thus it must needs be essentially distinct from the pre-existing form, which was non-subsistent; and we shall then come back to the opinion of those who held the existence of several souls in the body—or else it is not subsistent, but a perfection of the pre-existing soul: and from this it follows of necessity that the intellectual soul perishes with the body, which cannot be admitted.

Therefore, some people say that the same soul that starts off as just a vegetative soul later becomes a sensitive soul through the action of the reproductive power; and ultimately, this same soul evolves into an intellectual soul, not through the active reproductive power, but by the influence of a higher being, namely God, enlightening the soul from the outside. For this reason, the Philosopher claims that the intellect comes from outside. However, this view is flawed. First, because no substantial form can have varying degrees; adding greater perfection results in a different species, just like adding one unit creates a different type of number. It’s impossible for the same identical form to belong to different species. Secondly, it would imply that the generation of an animal is a continuous process, gradually moving from imperfect to perfect, similar to alteration. Thirdly, it would suggest that the generation of a human or animal isn’t true generation, since the subject would already be a being in existence. If the vegetative soul exists from the beginning in the offspring's matter and is then gradually perfected, it would imply adding more perfection without losing the existing one. This contradicts what true generation means. Fourthly, because either the result of God's action is something that exists independently, which must be essentially different from the pre-existing non-independent form, leading us back to the idea of multiple souls in one body; or it is not independent, but rather a perfection of the existing soul. This would mean that the intellectual soul dies with the body, which cannot be accepted.

There is again another explanation, according to those who held that all men have but one intellect in common: but this has been disproved above (Q. 76, A. 2).

There’s another explanation from those who believe that all people share a single intellect: however, this has been disproven above (Q. 76, A. 2).

We must therefore say that since the generation of one thing is the corruption of another, it follows of necessity that both in men and in other animals, when a more perfect form supervenes the previous form is corrupted: yet so that the supervening form contains the perfection of the previous form, and something in addition. It is in this way that through many generations and corruptions we arrive at the ultimate substantial form, both in man and other animals. This indeed is apparent to the senses in animals generated from putrefaction. We conclude therefore that the intellectual soul is created by God at the end of human generation, and this soul is at the same time sensitive and nutritive, the pre-existing forms being corrupted.

We must say that since the creation of one thing leads to the destruction of another, it follows that in both humans and other animals, when a more advanced form emerges, the previous form is lost. However, this new form includes the qualities of the earlier form along with something extra. This is how, through numerous generations and transformations, we reach the ultimate inherent form, both in humans and other animals. This is clearly observable in animals that emerge from decay. Therefore, we conclude that the intellectual soul is created by God at the end of human development, and this soul is both sensitive and nourishing, with the earlier forms being lost.

Reply Obj. 3: This argument holds in the case of diverse agents not ordered to one another. But where there are many agents ordered to one another, nothing hinders the power of the higher agent from reaching to the ultimate form; while the powers of the inferior agents extend only to some disposition of matter: thus in the generation of an animal, the seminal power disposes the matter, but the power of the soul gives the form. Now it is manifest from what has been said above (Q. 105, A. 5; Q. 110, A. 1) that the whole of corporeal nature acts as the instrument of a spiritual power, especially of God. Therefore nothing hinders the formation of the body from being due to a corporeal power, while the intellectual soul is from God alone.

Reply Obj. 3: This argument applies when there are different agents not connected to each other. However, when there are multiple agents that are related, nothing prevents the higher agent’s power from reaching the ultimate form; the powers of lower agents only affect the arrangement of matter. For example, in the creation of an animal, the seminal power organizes the matter, but the power of the soul provides the form. It is clear from what has been discussed above (Q. 105, A. 5; Q. 110, A. 1) that the entirety of physical nature functions as the tool of a spiritual power, especially that of God. Therefore, there is no obstacle to the idea that the formation of the body comes from a physical power, while the intellectual soul is from God alone.

Reply Obj. 4: Man begets his like, forasmuch as by his seminal power the matter is disposed for the reception of a certain species of form.

Reply Obj. 4: Humans reproduce their kind because, through their reproductive power, the matter is prepared to receive a specific type of form.

Reply Obj. 5: In the action of the adulterer, what is of nature is good; in this God concurs. But what there is of inordinate lust is evil; in this God does not concur. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: In the actions of the adulterer, what is natural is good; in this, God agrees. But what stems from excessive lust is evil; in this, God does not agree.

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 118, Art. 3]

THIRD ARTICLE [I, Q. 118, Art. 3]

Whether Human Souls Were Created Together at the Beginning of the
World?

Whether Human Souls Were Created Together at the Beginning of the
World?

Objection 1: It would seem that human souls were created together at the beginning of the world. For it is written (Gen. 2:2): "God rested Him from all His work which He had done." This would not be true if He created new souls every day. Therefore all souls were created at the same time.

Objection 1: It seems that human souls were created together at the beginning of the world. For it is written (Gen. 2:2): "God rested from all His work which He had done." This wouldn't be true if He created new souls every day. Therefore, all souls were created at the same time.

Obj. 2: Further, spiritual substances before all others belong to the perfection of the universe. If therefore souls were created with the bodies, every day innumerable spiritual substances would be added to the perfection of the universe: consequently at the beginning the universe would have been imperfect. This is contrary to Gen. 2:2, where it is said that "God ended" all "His work."

Obj. 2: Moreover, spiritual beings are the first to contribute to the completeness of the universe. If souls were created alongside bodies, every day countless spiritual beings would be added to the universe's completeness; thus, the universe would have started out imperfect. This contradicts Gen. 2:2, which states that "God ended" all "His work."

Obj. 3: Further, the end of a thing corresponds to its beginning. But the intellectual soul remains, when the body perishes. Therefore it began to exist before the body.

Obj. 3: Furthermore, the end of something aligns with its beginning. However, the intellectual soul continues to exist when the body dies. Therefore, it must have begun to exist before the body.

On the contrary, It is said (De Eccl. Dogmat. xiv, xviii) that "the soul is created together with the body."

On the contrary, It is said (De Eccl. Dogmat. xiv, xviii) that "the soul is created at the same time as the body."

I answer that, Some have maintained that it is accidental to the intellectual soul to be united to the body, asserting that the soul is of the same nature as those spiritual substances which are not united to a body. These, therefore, stated that the souls of men were created together with the angels at the beginning. But this statement is false. Firstly, in the very principle on which it is based. For if it were accidental to the soul to be united to the body, it would follow that man who results from this union is a being by accident; or that the soul is a man, which is false, as proved above (Q. 75, A. 4). Moreover, that the human soul is not of the same nature as the angels, is proved from the different mode of understanding, as shown above (Q. 55, A. 2; Q. 85, A. 1): for man understands through receiving from the senses, and turning to phantasms, as stated above (Q. 84, AA. 6, 7; Q. 85, A. 1). For this reason the soul needs to be united to the body, which is necessary to it for the operation of the sensitive part: whereas this cannot be said of an angel.

I answer that, Some people have argued that it's just a coincidence that the intellectual soul is connected to the body, claiming that the soul is similar to spiritual beings that aren't attached to a body. They've suggested that human souls were created alongside angels at the beginning. However, this claim is incorrect. First of all, it's based on a flawed principle. If it were just a coincidence for the soul to be linked to the body, it would mean that a person, who comes from this connection, exists by chance; or it would imply that the soul is a person, which is false, as proven earlier (Q. 75, A. 4). Furthermore, the idea that the human soul is the same as angels is disproven by the different ways of understanding, as noted before (Q. 55, A. 2; Q. 85, A. 1): humans understand by receiving information through their senses and transforming it into mental images, as mentioned previously (Q. 84, AA. 6, 7; Q. 85, A. 1). Therefore, the soul needs to be connected to the body for it to function in its sensitive aspect, which isn't applicable to angels.

Secondly, this statement can be proved to be false in itself. For if it is natural to the soul to be united to the body, it is unnatural to it to be without a body, and as long as it is without a body it is deprived of its natural perfection. Now it was not fitting that God should begin His work with things imperfect and unnatural, for He did not make man without a hand or a foot, which are natural parts of a man. Much less, therefore, did He make the soul without a body.

Secondly, this statement can be proven false on its own. If it's natural for the soul to be connected to the body, then it's unnatural for it to exist without one, and while it lacks a body, it's missing its natural completeness. It wouldn't be right for God to start his creation with things that are imperfect and unnatural, just as He didn't create a person without a hand or a foot, which are natural parts of being human. Even more so, He certainly wouldn't have created the soul without a body.

But if someone say that it is not natural to the soul to be united to the body, he must give the reason why it is united to a body. And the reason must be either because the soul so willed, or for some other reason. If because the soul willed it—this seems incongruous. First, because it would be unreasonable of the soul to wish to be united to the body, if it did not need the body: for if it did need it, it would be natural for it to be united to it, since "nature does not fail in what is necessary." Secondly, because there would be no reason why, having been created from the beginning of the world, the soul should, after such a long time, come to wish to be united to the body. For a spiritual substance is above time, and superior to the heavenly revolutions. Thirdly, because it would seem that this body was united to this soul by chance: since for this union to take place two wills would have to concur—to wit, that of the incoming soul, and that of the begetter. If, however, this union be neither voluntary nor natural on the part of the soul, then it must be the result of some violent cause, and to the soul would have something of a penal and afflicting nature. This is in keeping with the opinion of Origen, who held that souls were embodied in punishment of sin. Since, therefore, all these opinions are unreasonable, we must simply confess that souls were not created before bodies, but are created at the same time as they are infused into them.

But if someone says that it's not natural for the soul to be united with the body, they need to explain why the soul is joined to a body. The reason must either be that the soul chose to be, or for some other reason. If it’s because the soul chose it—this doesn’t seem logical. First, it wouldn't make sense for the soul to want to be connected to the body if it didn’t need it; if it did need it, then it would be natural for the soul to be united with it, since "nature doesn’t fail in what is necessary." Second, there would be no reason why, after being created at the beginning of time, the soul would suddenly decide after such a long time to want to be united with a body. A spiritual being is outside of time and higher than the movements of the heavens. Third, it would seem that this body happened to be joined with this soul by chance: for this union to occur, the wills of both the incoming soul and the creator would have to align. However, if this union is neither voluntary nor natural for the soul, then it must have come about due to some forceful cause, which would imply that it has a punitive and distressing nature for the soul. This aligns with Origen’s view, which suggested that souls are placed in bodies as punishment for sin. Since all these views are unreasonable, we must simply acknowledge that souls are not created before bodies but are created at the same time as they are infused into them.

Reply Obj. 1: God is said to have rested on the seventh day, not from all work, since we read (John 5:17): "My Father worketh until now"; but from the creation of any new genera and species, which may not have already existed in the first works. For in this sense, the souls which are created now, existed already, as to the likeness of the species, in the first works, which included the creation of Adam's soul.

Reply Obj. 1: God is said to have rested on the seventh day, not from all work, since we read (John 5:17): "My Father is still working"; but from creating any new kinds and species that didn't already exist in the initial creations. In this sense, the souls that are created now already existed, in terms of likeness to the species, in the original works, which included the creation of Adam's soul.

Reply Obj. 2: Something can be added every day to the perfection of the universe, as to the number of individuals, but not as to the number of species.

Reply Obj. 2: You can add to the perfection of the universe every day in terms of the number of individuals, but not in terms of the number of species.

Reply Obj. 3: That the soul remains without the body is due to the corruption of the body, which was a result of sin. Consequently it was not fitting that God should make the soul without the body from the beginning: for as it is written (Wis. 1:13, 16): "God made not death . . . but the wicked with works and words have called it to them." _______________________

Reply Obj. 3: The reason the soul exists without the body is because the body has decayed, which happened because of sin. Therefore, it wouldn't have been appropriate for God to create the soul without the body from the start: as it is written (Wis. 1:13, 16): "God did not create death . . . but the wicked, through their actions and words, have brought it upon themselves."

QUESTION 119

OF THE PROPAGATION OF MAN AS TO THE BODY
(In Two Articles)

OF THE PROPAGATION OF MAN AS TO THE BODY
(In Two Articles)

We now consider the propagation of man, as to the body. Concerning this there are two points of inquiry:

We now look at how humans spread, in terms of the body. There are two main questions to explore:

(1) Whether any part of the food is changed into true human nature?

(1) Does any part of the food become actual human nature?

(2) Whether the semen, which is the principle of human generation, is produced from the surplus food? _______________________

(2) Is semen, which is essential for human reproduction, created from excess food? _______________________

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 119, Art. 1]

FIRST ARTICLE [I, Q. 119, Art. 1]

Whether Some Part of the Food Is Changed into True Human Nature?

Whether some part of the food is changed into true human nature?

Objection 1: It would seem that none of the food is changed into true human nature. For it is written (Matt. 15:17): "Whatsoever entereth into the mouth, goeth into the belly, and is cast out into the privy." But what is cast out is not changed into the reality of human nature. Therefore none of the food is changed into true human nature.

Objection 1: It seems that none of the food is transformed into true human nature. As it says in Matthew 15:17: "Whatever goes into the mouth goes into the stomach and is eliminated." But what is eliminated is not changed into the essence of human nature. So, none of the food is transformed into true human nature.

Obj. 2: Further, the Philosopher (De Gener. i, 5) distinguishes flesh belonging to the species from flesh belonging to "matter"; and says that the latter "comes and goes." Now what is formed from food comes and goes. Therefore what is produced from food is flesh belonging to matter, not to the species. But what belongs to true human nature belongs to the species. Therefore the food is not changed into true human nature.

Obj. 2: Additionally, the Philosopher (De Gener. i, 5) differentiates between flesh that belongs to the species and flesh that belongs to "matter"; he states that the latter "comes and goes." Now, what is created from food also comes and goes. Therefore, what is produced from food is flesh that belongs to matter, not to the species. But what is part of true human nature is part of the species. Thus, food is not transformed into true human nature.

Obj. 3: Further, the "radical humor" seems to belong to the reality of human nature; and if it be lost, it cannot be recovered, according to physicians. But it could be recovered if the food were changed into the humor. Therefore food is not changed into true human nature.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the "radical humor" appears to be part of the essence of human nature; if it is lost, it cannot be regained, according to doctors. However, it could be restored if the food were transformed into the humor. Thus, food does not become true human nature.

Obj. 4: Further, if the food were changed into true human nature, whatever is lost in man could be restored. But man's death is due only to the loss of something. Therefore man would be able by taking food to insure himself against death in perpetuity.

Obj. 4: Also, if food could be transformed into genuine human nature, anything lost in a person could be restored. However, a person’s death is solely because of the loss of something. Therefore, by consuming food, a person could ensure they are protected from death forever.

Obj. 5: Further, if the food is changed into true human nature, there is nothing in man which may not recede or be repaired: for what is generated in a man from his food can both recede and be repaired. If therefore a man lived long enough, it would follow that in the end nothing would be left in him of what belonged to him at the beginning. Consequently he would not be numerically the same man throughout his life; since for the thing to be numerically the same, identity of matter is necessary. But this is incongruous. Therefore the food is not changed into true human nature.

Obj. 5: Also, if food is transformed into actual human nature, there’s nothing in a person that can’t be replaced or restored: because what a person generates from their food can both be replaced and restored. So if a person lived long enough, eventually nothing would remain in them that originally belonged to them. As a result, they wouldn’t be the same person throughout their life; since for something to be the same, it needs to have the same matter. But that doesn’t make sense. Therefore, food is not transformed into actual human nature.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Vera Relig. xi): "The bodily food when corrupted, that is, having lost its form, is changed into the texture of the members." But the texture of the members belongs to true human nature. Therefore the food is changed into the reality of human nature.

On the contrary, Augustine says (De Vera Relig. xi): "When physical food decays, meaning it has lost its shape, it transforms into the structure of the body." But the structure of the body is part of true human nature. Therefore, food is transformed into the essence of human nature.

I answer that, According to the Philosopher (Metaph. ii), "The relation of a thing to truth is the same as its relation to being." Therefore that belongs to the true nature of any thing which enters into the constitution of that nature. But nature can be considered in two ways: firstly, in general according to the species; secondly, as in the individual. And whereas the form and the common matter belong to a thing's true nature considered in general; individual signate matter, and the form individualized by that matter belong to the true nature considered in this particular individual. Thus a soul and body belong to the true human nature in general, but to the true human nature of Peter and Martin belong this soul and this body.

I answer that, According to the Philosopher (Metaph. ii), "The relationship of a thing to truth is the same as its relationship to existence." Therefore, what is part of the true nature of anything is what constitutes that nature. But nature can be viewed in two ways: first, generally according to the species; and secondly, in regards to the individual. While the form and common matter belong to a thing's true nature as a whole, the individual specific matter and the form made unique by that matter belong to the true nature of that particular individual. So, a soul and body belong to the true human nature in general, but the soul and body of Peter and Martin belong to the true human nature of those specific individuals.

Now there are certain things whose form cannot exist but in one individual matter: thus the form of the sun cannot exist save in the matter in which it actually is. And in this sense some have said that the human form cannot exist but in a certain individual matter, which, they said, was given that form at the very beginning in the first man. So that whatever may have been added to that which was derived by posterity from the first parent, does not belong to the truth of human nature, as not receiving in truth the form of human nature.

Now there are certain things whose shape can only exist in one particular material: for example, the shape of the sun can only exist in the material it actually has. In this sense, some have argued that the human shape can only exist in a specific individual material, which they claimed was given that shape right from the start in the first human. Therefore, anything that might have been added to what was inherited from the first ancestor does not truly belong to the essence of human nature, as it does not genuinely receive the shape of human nature.

But, said they, that matter which, in the first man, was the subject of the human form, was multiplied in itself: and in this way the multitude of human bodies is derived from the body of the first man. According to these, the food is not changed into true human nature; we take food, they stated, in order to help nature to resist the action of natural heat, and prevent the consumption of the "radical humor"; just as lead or tin is mixed with silver to prevent its being consumed by fire.

But, they said, that essence which formed the first man multiplied itself: and in this way, the many human bodies come from the body of the first man. According to them, food doesn’t actually become true human nature; we eat, they argued, to help our bodies fight off the effects of natural heat and stop the loss of the "vital fluid"; similar to how lead or tin is added to silver to stop it from being destroyed by fire.

But this is unreasonable in many ways. Firstly, because it comes to the same that a form can be produced in another matter, or that it can cease to be in its proper matter; wherefore all things that can be generated are corruptible, and conversely. Now it is manifest that the human form can cease to exist in this (particular) matter which is its subject: else the human body would not be corruptible. Consequently it can begin to exist in another matter, so that something else be changed into true human nature. Secondly, because in all beings whose entire matter is contained in one individual there is only one individual in the species: as is clearly the case with the sun, moon and such like. Thus there would only be one individual of the human species. Thirdly, because multiplication of matter cannot be understood otherwise than either in respect of quantity only, as in things which are rarefied, so that their matter increases in dimensions; or in respect of the substance itself of the matter. But as long as the substance alone of matter remains, it cannot be said to be multiplied; for multitude cannot consist in the addition of a thing to itself, since of necessity it can only result from division. Therefore some other substance must be added to matter, either by creation, or by something else being changed into it. Consequently no matter can be multiplied save either by rarefaction as when air is made from water; or by the change of some other things, as fire is multiplied by the addition of wood; or lastly by creation. Now it is manifest that the multiplication of matter in the human body does not occur by rarefaction: for thus the body of a man of perfect age would be more imperfect than the body of a child. Nor does it occur by creation of fresh matter: for, according to Gregory (Moral. xxxii): "All things were created together as to the substance of matter, but not as to the specific form." Consequently the multiplication of the human body can only be the result of the food being changed into the true human nature. Fourthly, because, since man does not differ from animals and plants in regard to the vegetative soul, it would follow that the bodies of animals and plants do not increase through a change of nourishment into the body so nourished, but through some kind of multiplication. Which multiplication cannot be natural: since the matter cannot naturally extend beyond a certain fixed quantity; nor again does anything increase naturally, save either by rarefaction or the change of something else into it. Consequently the whole process of generation and nourishment, which are called "natural forces," would be miraculous. Which is altogether inadmissible.

But this doesn't make sense in many ways. First, it’s the same as saying that a form can exist in a different substance or that it can stop existing in its proper substance; therefore, everything that can be created is subject to decay, and vice versa. It's clear that the human form can stop existing in this specific substance that it relies on; otherwise, the human body wouldn’t be subject to decay. So, it can start to exist in another substance, meaning something else can be transformed into true human nature. Second, in all beings whose entire substance is contained within one individual, there's only one individual in the species, as is clearly the case with the sun, moon, and similar entities. This would imply that there could only be one individual of the human species. Third, the multiplication of substance can only be understood in terms of either just quantity, as in things that are expanded so that their substance increases in size, or in terms of the substance itself. But if the substance of matter remains unchanged, it can't be said to have multiplied; because you can't just add something to itself and call it a greater number, as this only comes from division. Therefore, a different substance must be added to matter, either through creation or something else being transformed into it. Thus, matter can only increase through expansion, like when air forms from water; or by the transformation of other things, like fire increasing with the addition of wood; or finally through creation. It's clear that the multiplication of matter in the human body does not happen through expansion, because then the body of a fully grown adult would be less perfect than that of a child. It also doesn’t happen through the creation of new matter, because, according to Gregory (Moral. xxxii): "All things were created at the same time as to the substance of matter, but not with regard to their specific form." Therefore, the multiplication of the human body can only come from food being transformed into true human nature. Fourth, because, since humans don't differ from animals and plants in terms of the vegetative soul, it would mean that the bodies of animals and plants don’t grow by changing nourishment into the body being nourished, but through some kind of multiplication. However, this kind of multiplication can't be natural, since matter can't naturally increase beyond a certain fixed amount; and nothing increases naturally except through expansion or the transformation of something else into it. Therefore, the entire process of generation and nourishment, known as "natural forces," would be miraculous. This is completely unacceptable.

Wherefore others have said that the human form can indeed begin to exist in some other matter, if we consider the human nature in general: but not if we consider it as in this individual. For in the individual the form remains confined to a certain determinate matter, on which it is first imprinted at the generation of that individual, so that it never leaves that matter until the ultimate dissolution of the individual. And this matter, say they, principally belongs to the true human nature. But since this matter does not suffice for the requisite quantity, some other matter must be added, through the change of food into the substance of the individual partaking thereof, in such a quantity as suffices for the increase required. And this matter, they state, belongs secondarily to the true human nature: because it is not required for the primary existence of the individual, but for the quantity due to him. And if anything further is produced from the food, this does not belong to true human nature, properly speaking. However, this also is inadmissible. First, because this opinion judges of living bodies as of inanimate bodies; in which, although there be a power of generating their like in species, there is not the power of generating their like in the individual; which power in living bodies is the nutritive power. Nothing, therefore, would be added to living bodies by their nutritive power, if their food were not changed into their true nature. Secondly, because the active seminal power is a certain impression derived from the soul of the begetter, as stated above (Q. 118, A. 1). Hence it cannot have a greater power in acting, than the soul from which it is derived. If, therefore, by the seminal power a certain matter truly assumes the form of human nature, much more can the soul, by the nutritive power, imprint the true form of human nature on the food which is assimilated. Thirdly, because food is needed not only for growth, else at the term of growth, food would be needful no longer; but also to renew that which is lost by the action of natural heat. But there would be no renewal, unless what is formed from the food, took the place of what is lost. Wherefore just as that which was there previously belonged to true human nature, so also does that which is formed from the food.

Others have said that the human form can indeed start to exist in some other material if we look at human nature in general, but not when we consider it as tied to this individual. In an individual, the form is tied to a specific matter that it is first impressed upon during that individual’s generation, and it doesn't leave that matter until the individual ultimately dissolves. They argue that this matter is essential to true human nature. However, since this matter alone isn't enough for the necessary amount, other matter must be added, through the conversion of food into the substance of the individual consuming it, in a quantity sufficient for the required growth. They claim this additional matter is secondary to true human nature because it isn’t needed for the individual’s primary existence, but rather for the growth amount necessary. Furthermore, if anything additional is produced from the food, it doesn't truly belong to human nature, strictly speaking. However, this view is flawed. First, because this opinion treats living bodies like inanimate bodies; in inanimate bodies, while there is the ability to generate their kind, there isn't the ability to produce the same individual; this ability in living bodies is the nutritive power. Therefore, nothing would be added to living bodies through their nutritive power if the food wasn't transformed into their true nature. Second, because the active seminal power is a kind of impression from the soul of the parent, as stated earlier (Q. 118, A. 1). Therefore, it can't have greater power in action than the soul it comes from. So, if the seminal power can truly shape matter into the form of human nature, the soul can even more effectively imprint the true form of human nature onto the assimilated food. Third, because food is needed not just for growth; otherwise, once growth is complete, food wouldn’t be necessary anymore. It’s also needed to renew what is lost through natural heat. But there’s no renewal unless what is produced from the food replaces what is lost. So, just as what was there before belonged to true human nature, what is formed from the food does too.

Therefore, according to others, it must be said that the food is really changed into the true human nature by reason of its assuming the specific form of flesh, bones and such like parts. This is what the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 4): "Food nourishes inasmuch as it is potentially flesh."

Therefore, others say that food is actually transformed into true human nature because it takes on the specific form of flesh, bones, and similar parts. This is what the Philosopher says (De Anima ii, 4): "Food nourishes inasmuch as it is potentially flesh."

Reply Obj. 1: Our Lord does not say that the "whole" of what enters into the mouth, but "all"—because something from every kind of food is cast out into the privy. It may also be said that whatever is generated from food, can be dissolved by natural heat, and be cast aside through the pores, as Jerome expounds the passage.

Reply Obj. 1: Our Lord doesn’t say that the "whole" of what goes into the mouth, but "all"—because something from every type of food is excreted. It can also be said that anything created from food can be broken down by natural heat and expelled through the pores, as Jerome explains the passage.

Reply Obj. 2: By flesh belonging to the species, some have understood that which first receives the human species, which is derived from the begetter: this, they say, lasts as long as the individual does. By flesh belonging to the matter these understand what is generated from food: and this, they say, does not always remain, but as it comes so it goes. But this is contrary to the mind of Aristotle. For he says there, that "just as in things which have their species in matter"—for instance, wood or stone—"so in flesh, there is something belonging to the species, and something belonging to matter." Now it is clear that this distinction has no place in inanimate things, which are not generated seminally, or nourished. Again, since what is generated from food is united to, by mixing with, the body so nourished, just as water is mixed with wine, as the Philosopher says there by way of example: that which is added, and that to which it is added, cannot be different natures, since they are already made one by being mixed together. Therefore there is no reason for saying that one is destroyed by natural heat, while the other remains.

Reply Obj. 2: Some interpret "flesh belonging to the species" as the part that first receives the human species, which comes from the parent, and they claim this lasts as long as the individual does. "Flesh belonging to the matter" refers to what is produced from food, and they argue that this does not always remain; it comes and goes. However, this contradicts Aristotle's view. He states that "just as in things that have their species in matter"—like wood or stone—"in flesh, there is something belonging to the species and something belonging to matter." It is clear that this distinction does not apply to inanimate objects, which are not generated through reproduction or nourishment. Furthermore, since what is generated from food becomes part of the body through mixing, like water mixed with wine, as the Philosopher illustrates, the added substance and the substance to which it is added cannot be different natures, since they become one through the mixing process. Therefore, there's no basis for claiming that one is destroyed by natural heat while the other remains.

It must therefore be said that this distinction of the Philosopher is not of different kinds of flesh, but of the same flesh considered from different points of view. For if we consider the flesh according to the species, that is, according to that which is formed therein, thus it remains always: because the nature of flesh always remains together with its natural disposition. But if we consider flesh according to matter, then it does not remain, but is gradually destroyed and renewed: thus in the fire of a furnace, the form of fire remains, but the matter is gradually consumed, and other matter is substituted in its place.

It should be noted that the Philosopher's distinction is not about different types of flesh, but rather the same flesh viewed from different perspectives. When we look at flesh in terms of its species, meaning what is formed within it, it remains constant because the nature of flesh always stays intact with its natural qualities. However, if we think about flesh in terms of its material composition, it doesn’t stay the same; it is gradually destroyed and replaced. For example, in a furnace, the essence of fire remains, but the material is slowly consumed and replaced by other material.

Reply Obj. 3: The "radical humor" is said to comprise whatever the virtue of the species is founded on. If this be taken away it cannot be renewed; as when a man's hand or foot is amputated. But the "nutritive humor" is that which has not yet received perfectly the specific nature, but is on the way thereto; such is the blood, and the like. Wherefore if such be taken away, the virtue of the species remains in its root, which is not destroyed.

Reply Obj. 3: The "radical humor" is thought to encompass the essence of the species. If it is removed, it cannot be restored, similar to when a person's hand or foot is amputated. However, the "nutritive humor" refers to what has not yet fully developed its specific nature but is in the process of doing so; examples include blood and similar substances. Therefore, if this is taken away, the essence of the species remains intact at its root, which is not destroyed.

Reply Obj. 4: Every virtue of a passible body is weakened by continuous action, because such agents are also patient. Therefore the transforming virtue is strong at first so as to be able to transform not only enough for the renewal of what is lost, but also for growth. Later on it can only transform enough for the renewal of what is lost, and then growth ceases. At last it cannot even do this; and then begins decline. In fine, when this virtue fails altogether, the animal dies. Thus the virtue of wine that transforms the water added to it, is weakened by further additions of water, so as to become at length watery, as the Philosopher says by way of example (De Gener. i, 5).

Reply Obj. 4: Every quality of a physical body gets weaker with constant action because such agents are also affected. So, the ability to transform is strong at first to be able to not only restore what is lost but also to allow for growth. Afterward, it can only restore what is lost, and then growth stops. Eventually, it can't even do that anymore, leading to decline. Ultimately, when this ability completely fails, the organism dies. Similarly, the property of wine that transforms the water mixed with it weakens with more additions of water, eventually becoming diluted, as the Philosopher illustrates in an example (De Gener. i, 5).

Reply Obj. 5: As the Philosopher says (De Gener. i, 5), when a certain matter is directly transformed into fire, then fire is said to be generated anew: but when matter is transformed into a fire already existing, then fire is said to be fed. Wherefore if the entire matter together loses the form of fire, and another matter transformed into fire, there will be another distinct fire. But if, while one piece of wood is burning, other wood is laid on, and so on until the first piece is entirely consumed, the same identical fire will remain all the time: because that which is added passes into what pre-existed. It is the same with living bodies, in which by means of nourishment that is renewed which was consumed by natural heat. _______________________

Reply Obj. 5: As the Philosopher mentions (De Gener. i, 5), when a certain material is directly changed into fire, it's said that fire is created anew; but when material is converted into an already existing fire, that fire is considered to be fed. Therefore, if all the material completely loses its form of fire and another material is turned into fire, there will be a completely separate fire. However, if one piece of wood is burning and other wood is added until the first piece is fully consumed, the exact same fire will remain throughout because what is added becomes part of what was already there. The same applies to living bodies, where nourishment renews what was consumed by natural heat.

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 119, Art. 2]

SECOND ARTICLE [I, Q. 119, Art. 2]

Whether the Semen Is Produced from Surplus Food?

Whether the semen is produced from excess food?

Objection 1: It would seem that the semen is not produced from the surplus food, but from the substance of the begetter. For Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 8) that "generation is a work of nature, producing, from the substance of the begetter, that which is begotten." But that which is generated is produced from the semen. Therefore the semen is produced from the substance of the begetter.

Objection 1: It seems that semen is not made from excess food, but from the begetter's substance. Damascene says (De Fide Orth. i, 8) that "generation is a natural process, creating from the begetter's substance what is being generated." But what is generated comes from the semen. Therefore, the semen comes from the begetter's substance.

Obj. 2: Further, the son is like his father, in respect of that which he receives from him. But if the semen from which something is generated, is produced from the surplus food, a man would receive nothing from his grandfather and his ancestors in whom the food never existed. Therefore a man would not be more like to his grandfather or ancestors, than to any other men.

Obj. 2: Also, the son resembles his father in terms of what he inherits from him. But if the semen from which something is created comes from surplus food, a person would inherit nothing from his grandfather and ancestors who had never experienced that food. Therefore, a person would not be any more similar to his grandfather or ancestors than to any other people.

Obj. 3: Further, the food of the generator is sometimes the flesh of cows, pigs and suchlike. If therefore, the semen were produced from surplus food, the man begotten of such semen would be more akin to the cow and the pig, than to his father or other relations.

Obj. 3: Additionally, the food of the generator is sometimes the flesh of cows, pigs, and similar animals. If, therefore, the semen were produced from excess food, the man born from such semen would be more similar to the cow and the pig than to his father or other relatives.

Obj. 4: Further, Augustine says (Gen. ad lit. x, 20) that we were in Adam "not only by seminal virtue, but also in the very substance of the body." But this would not be, if the semen were produced from surplus food. Therefore the semen is not produced therefrom.

Obj. 4: Furthermore, Augustine mentions (Gen. ad lit. x, 20) that we were in Adam "not only by seminal virtue, but also in the very substance of the body." However, this wouldn't be the case if the semen came from excess food. Therefore, the semen is not produced from it.

On the contrary, The Philosopher proves in many ways (De Gener. Animal. i, 18) that "the semen is surplus food."

On the contrary, The Philosopher demonstrates in various ways (De Gener. Animal. i, 18) that "the semen is excess nourishment."

I answer that, This question depends in some way on what has been stated above (A. 1; Q. 118, A. 1). For if human nature has a virtue for the communication of its form to alien matter not only in another, but also in its own subject; it is clear that the food which at first is dissimilar, becomes at length similar through the form communicated to it. Now it belongs to the natural order that a thing should be reduced from potentiality to act gradually: hence in things generated we observe that at first each is imperfect and is afterwards perfected. But it is clear that the common is to the proper and determinate, as imperfect is to perfect: therefore we see that in the generation of an animal, the animal is generated first, then the man or the horse. So therefore food first of all receives a certain common virtue in regard to all the parts of the body, which virtue is subsequently determinate to this or that part.

I answer that, This question is somewhat dependent on what has been mentioned earlier (A. 1; Q. 118, A. 1). If human nature has the ability to communicate its form to foreign matter not only to something else but also to itself, then it's clear that food, which initially is different, eventually becomes similar due to the form it receives. It's natural for something to change from potential to actual gradually: therefore, in living things, we notice that they start off imperfect and then become perfected. It is evident that the common relates to the specific and definite in the same way that the imperfect relates to the perfect: hence, we observe that in the generation of an animal, the animal is formed first, followed by the specific type, such as man or horse. Thus, food initially gains a certain common quality in relation to all parts of the body, which quality is then specified for this or that part.

Now it is not possible that the semen be a kind of solution from what is already transformed into the substance of the members. For this solution, if it does not retain the nature of the member it is taken from, it would no longer be of the nature of the begetter, and would be due to a process of corruption; and consequently it would not have the power of transforming something else into the likeness of that nature. But if it retained the nature of the member it is taken from, then, since it is limited to a certain part of the body, it would not have the power of moving towards (the production of) the whole nature, but only the nature of that part. Unless one were to say that the solution is taken from all the parts of the body, and that it retains the nature of each part. Thus the semen would be a small animal in act; and generation of animal from animal would be a mere division, as mud is generated from mud, and as animals which continue to live after being cut in two: which is inadmissible.

Now, it's impossible for semen to be a kind of fluid made from what has already turned into the tissue of the body. If this fluid doesn't keep the characteristics of the part it's taken from, it wouldn't have the essence of the originator and would result from a process of decay; thus, it wouldn't have the ability to transform something else to resemble that essence. However, if it does keep the qualities of the part it's sourced from, then, since it's limited to a specific part of the body, it wouldn't be able to contribute to the whole essence, only that of the particular part. Unless we suggest that the fluid comes from all parts of the body and maintains the essence of each part. In that case, the semen would essentially be a tiny living creature, and the reproduction of an animal from another would just be a simple division, like mud coming from mud or animals that survive even when cut in half, which isn't acceptable.

It remains to be said, therefore, that the semen is not something separated from what was before the actual whole; rather is it the whole, though potentially, having the power, derived from the soul of the begetter, to produce the whole body, as stated above (A. 1; Q. 108, A. 1). Now that which is in potentiality to the whole, is that which is generated from the food, before it is transformed into the substance of the members. Therefore the semen is taken from this. In this sense the nutritive power is said to serve the generative power: because what is transformed by the nutritive power is employed as semen by the generative power. A sign of this, according to the Philosopher, is that animals of great size, which require much food, have little semen in proportion to the size of their bodies, and generate seldom; in like manner fat men, and for the same reason.

It should be said, then, that semen isn't something separate from what existed before it was whole; rather, it is the whole in a potential form, with the ability, derived from the soul of the creator, to produce a complete body, as mentioned earlier (A. 1; Q. 108, A. 1). What exists in potential to the whole is what is generated from food before it becomes the substance of the body parts. Therefore, semen is derived from this. In this way, the nutritive power is said to support the generative power: because what is transformed by the nutritive power is used as semen by the generative power. According to the Philosopher, a sign of this is that large animals, which need a lot of food, have relatively little semen compared to their body size and reproduce infrequently; similarly, this applies to overweight men for the same reason.

Reply Obj. 1: Generation is from the substance of the begetter in animals and plants, inasmuch as the semen owes its virtue to the form of the begetter, and inasmuch as it is in potentiality to the substance.

Reply Obj. 1: Generation comes from the substance of the parent in animals and plants, since the semen gets its power from the parent's form, and because it exists in potentiality to the substance.

Reply Obj. 2: The likeness of the begetter to the begotten is on account not of the matter, but of the form of the agent that generates its like. Wherefore in order for a man to be like his grandfather, there is no need that the corporeal seminal matter should have been in the grandfather; but that there be in the semen a virtue derived from the soul of the grandfather through the father. In like manner the third objection is answered. For kinship is not in relation to matter, but rather to the derivation of the forms.

Reply Obj. 2: The resemblance of the parent to the child is due to the form of the creator, not the material. Therefore, for a man to resemble his grandfather, it's not necessary for the physical sperm to have come from the grandfather; instead, it's important that the sperm carries a virtue from the grandfather's soul through the father. Similarly, the third objection is addressed. Kinship relates not to the material aspect, but to the transfer of forms.

Reply Obj. 4: These words of Augustine are not to be understood as though the immediate seminal virtue, or the corporeal substance from which this individual was formed were actually in Adam: but so that both were in Adam as in principle. For even the corporeal matter, which is supplied by the mother, and which he calls the corporeal substance, is originally derived from Adam: and likewise the active seminal power of the father, which is the immediate seminal virtue (in the production) of this man.

Reply Obj. 4: Augustine's words shouldn’t be taken to mean that the immediate seminal virtue or the physical substance that formed this individual was literally in Adam. Instead, both were in Adam in a principal sense. Even the physical matter provided by the mother, which he refers to as the physical substance, originally comes from Adam; similarly, the active seminal power of the father, which is the immediate seminal virtue in the creation of this man.

But Christ is said to have been in Adam according to the "corporeal substance," not according to the seminal virtue. Because the matter from which His Body was formed, and which was supplied by the Virgin Mother, was derived from Adam; whereas the active virtue was not derived from Adam, because His Body was not formed by the seminal virtue of a man, but by the operation of the Holy Ghost. For "such a birth was becoming to Him," [*Hymn for Vespers at Christmas; Breviary, O. P.], WHO IS ABOVE ALL GOD FOR EVER BLESSED. Amen.

But Christ is said to have been in Adam in terms of "physical substance," not in terms of the reproductive power. The material used to form His Body, which came from the Virgin Mother, originated from Adam; however, the active power did not come from Adam because His Body was not made by the reproductive power of a man, but by the work of the Holy Spirit. For "such a birth was fitting for Him," [*Hymn for Vespers at Christmas; Breviary, O. P.], WHO IS ABOVE ALL GOD FOREVER BLESSED. Amen.


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